Proteus Mirabilis
Q0003:What is the pathology that start with maculopapular rash begining on the face and spreading downward to trunk?
Yersenia enterocolitica
Q0005:What two antibiotics cause pseudomembranous colitis?;What organism is responsible for pseudomembranous enterocolitis?
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
Q0009:what protozoal parasite results in dysentery w/ blood and pus in the stool; is transmitted via fecal-oral route; is diagnosed by cysts or trophozoites in the stool and forms liver abscesses and inverted falask-shaped lesions in the large int?;tx w/?
17
e. histolytica;metronidazole
18
Q0010:what is the most likely causitive organism for a patient with folliculitis after spending time in a hot tub
19
pseudomonas
20
Q0011:what two viruses get their envelope not from budding but from coding
21
HIV;pox
22
23
24
25
perfringens
26
Q0014:which dimorphic fungus is found as hyphae with nondescript conidia in rotting wood in the upper great lakes; ohio; mississippi; eastern seaboard of the US and southern canada
27
blastomyces dermatitidis
28
Q0015:which parasitic organism; when it crosses the placenta; results in intracerebral calcifications; chorioretinitis; microcephaly; hydrocephaly; and convulsions
29
toxoplasma gondii
30
31
staph a.
32
33
anopheles mosquito
34
Q0018:what is the term for hyphae w/ constrictions at each septum that are commonly seen in candida albicans
35
pseudohyphae
36
37
echinococcus multilocularis
38
39
HCV ;HGV
40
Q0021:what nonmotile gram negative; non-lactose fermenting facultative anaerobic rod uses the human colon as its only reservoir and is transmitted by fecal oral spread
41
shigella
42
43
44
Q0023:regarding the viral growth curve; is the internal virus present before or after the eclipse period
45
46
47
HBcAB
48
Q0025:what small gram pos; non-spore forming rod is a faultative intracellular parasite that grows in the cold and is assoc w/ unpasteurized milk products
49
listeria monocytogenes
50
51
poxvirus
52
53
fusobacterium
54
Q0028:t or f;all of the following are inactivated vaccines available in the US: influenza; vibrio cholera; hep A; rabies; and adenovirus
55
56
Q0029:name the plasmodium spp;1. no persistent liver stage or relapse; blood smear shows multiple ring forms and crescent-shaped gametes; irregular febrile pattern; assoc w/ cerebral malaria;2. no persistent liver stage or relapse; blood smear shows rosette schizonts; 72 hr fever spike pattern;3. persistent hypnozoite liver stage w/ relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid trophozoites w/ oval; jagged infected RBCs; 48 hrs fever spike pattern;4. persisten hypnozoite liver stage w/ relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid trophozoites; 48 hr fever spike pattern; the most prevalent form worldwide 57
58
Q0030:t or f;a pos PPD skin test indicates the patient has active pulmonary disease
59
60
61
62
Q0032:what motile; gram neg spiral bacillus w/ flagella is oxidase pos; urease pos; and assoc w/ gastritis; peptuc ulcer disease; and stomach cancer
63
h. pylori
64
65
GP41
66
67
HBeAG
68
69
borrelia recurrentis
70
71
HBsAG
72
73
74
75
76
77
p1 protein
78
Q0040:what organism is assoc w/ the following type of diarrhea;1. day care-assoc diarrhea in infants;2. watery diarrhea from beef; poultry; or gravies;3. rice water stools;4. diarrhea assoc w/ raw or undercooked shellfish;5. blood diarrhea assoc w/ hamburger ingestion
79
80
Q0041:which fungus is found worldwide on plants; is a cigarshaped yeast in tissue form; and resultsin rose gardener's dis
81
sporothrix schenckii
82
83
HepA
84
85
listeria
86
87
sandfly
88
Q0045:what is the term of the viral growth period when no viruses can be found intracellulary
89
eclipse period
90
91
92
93
94
Q0048:HIV capsid; core nucleocapsid; and matrix proteins are products of what structural gene
95
gag gene
96
97
histoplasma capsulatum
98
Q0050:what type of hepatitis has the highest mortality rate among pregnant women
99
HEV
100
101
meningococcus
102
103
no
104
105
bacillus anthracis
106
107
coxsackie A
108
109
110
Q0056:what water-assoc organism is weakly stained gram neg rod that requires cysteine and iron from growth
111
112
113
EBV
114
Q0058:t or f;interferons are eukaryotic proteins that inhibit viral replication by being virus specific
115
false;interferons are produced by virally infected cells to inhibit viral replication via RNA endonucleases. They do not act directly on the virus; nor ar they virus specific
116
117
aedes mosquito
118
Q0060:what sm; facultative gram neg intracellular rod's transmission is assoc w/ unpasterurized dairy products and undulant fever
119
brucella
120
121
122
Q0062:which genus of dermatophytes is assoc w/ the following asites of infection;1. nails and skin;2. hair and skin;3. skin; hair; and nails
123
124
125
P24
126
127
staph
128
129
130
Q0066:what virus causes sm pink benign wartlike tumors and is assoc w/ HIV pos patients
131
molluscum contagiosum
132
133
134
135
taenia solium
136
137
HHV 6
138
139
mycobacterium leprae
140
141
gametocytes
142
Q0072:what sm gram neg aerobic rod requires Regan-Low or Bordet-Gengou medium for growth
143
bordetella pertussis
144
145
146
147
148
Q0075:a patient goes to the ER w/ abdominal cramps; vomiting; diarrhea; and sweating less thean 24 hrs after eating potato salad at a picnic
149
staph a
150
151
152
153
hepadnavirus
154
Q0078:what enzyme does HIV use to integrate the proviral dsDNA into the host
155
integrase
156
Q0079:what are the two hepatitis viruses that can be chronic and can lead eventually to hepatocellular carcinoma
157
158
Q0080:what gram pos spore forming anaerobic rod blocks the release of ACh at the NMJ; resulting in reversible flaccid paralysis
159
clostridium botulinum
160
161
protesase;integrase;reverse transcriptase
162
163
hypozoite
164
Q0083:what sm coagulase pos; gram neg rod w/ bipolar staining is a facultative intracellular parasite resulting in buboes
165
yersinia pestis
166
167
trypanosoma cruzi
168
Q0085:to what host cell receptor does the rabies virus attach
169
ACh receptor
170
171
HAV
172
173
Abs to HBsAg
174
175
blastoconidia
176
Q0089:which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi; bacteria; viruses; and parasites;1. eukaryotic cell; 15 to 25 microns; 80S ribosomes; no cell walls; replicates via cytokinesis w/ mitosis and meiosis;2. sm prokaryotic cells; no histones; 70S ribosomes; no sterols in cell membrane; peptidoglycans in cell wall; replicate by binary fission;3. eukaryotic cell; 3 to 10 microns; 80S ribosomes; chitinous cell wall; ergosterol in cell membrane; replicate via cytokinesis w/ mitosis and meiosis;4. acellular; some are enveloped; replicate within the host177 no cell walls cell;
178
179
180
181
182
Q0092:regarding the viral growth curve; is the external virus present before or after the latent period
183
after
184
Q0093:what aerobic branching rod that is gram pos and partially acid fast is assoc w/ cavitary bronchopulmonary disease in immunosuppressed patients
185
nocardia asteroides
186
Q0094:what obligate extracellular fungus is silver stain pos and is assoc w/ pneumonia in patients w/ AIDS
187
pneumocystis carinii
188
Q0095:what Vi encapsulated gram neg motile anaerobic rod that produces H2S is assoc w/ enteric fever; gastroenteririts; and septicemia
189
salmonella typhi
190
Q0096:what is the most likely organism causing cellulitis in a patient who was cut by an oyster shell
191
vibrio vulnificus
192
193
calicivirus
194
Q0098:describe the organsism;1. beta-hemolytic streptococcus; pos cAMP; hydrolyzes hippurate;2. alphahemolytic strep; lysed by bile; sens to optochin;3. alpha hemolytic strep; not lysed by bile; not sens to optochin;4. beta hemolytic strep sens to bacitracin
195
196
197
perfringens
198
Q0100:if a virus has pos sense RNA; can it be used as mRNA or is a template needed
199
pos sense RNA can be used as mRNA;neg sense requires a special RNA dep RNA polymerase
200
201
adult tapeworms develop in the definitive host;cysticerci or larvae develop in the intermediate host
202
Q0102:which strep spp is characterized by being catalase neg; turning bile exculin agar back; producing a pos PYR test; and resulting in biliary and urinary tract infections
203
204
205
206
207
208
Q0105:based on the onset of the sx; how are bacterial conjunctiviits from neisseria and chlamydia differentiated
209
210
Q0106:what toxin produced by clostridium tetani; binds to ganglioside receptors and blocks the release of glycine and GABA at the spinal synapse
211
212
Q0107:t or f;all of the following are live attenuated vaccines;measles;mumps;variclla;francissela tularensis;rubeola;smallpox;yellow fever;sabin polio
213
true
214
Q0108:what family do the following belong to;1. ebola;2. california encephalitis;3. hantavirus;4. rabies;5. RSV;6. measles
215
216
Q0109:what microaerophile is a motile gramneg curved rod w/ polar flagella that causes infectious diarrhea at low doses
217
campylobacter jejuni
218
219
legionella
220
Q0111:how many strains of pneumococcus capsular polysaccharides are present in the vaccine
221
23 capsular polysaccharides
222
223
trichuris trichuria;albendazole
224
225
streptolysin O
226
227
neisseria gonorrhea
228
229
arthroconidia w/ hyphae
230
Q0116:what neg sense RNA virus is assoc w/ cough; coryza; and conjunctivitis w/ photophobia
231
measles (rubeola)
232
233
M12
234
235
cough;coryza;conjunctivitis
236
237
238
239
240
Q0121:what form of the plasmodium spp are injected into humans mosquito
241
sporozoites
242
243
244
245
tsetse fly
246
247
reverse transcriptase
248
Q0125:what non spore forming gram pos aerobic rod produces bull neck; sore throat w/ pseudomembranes; myocarditis; and sometimes respiratory obstructions
249
corynebacterium diphtheria
250
251
diphyllobothrium latum
252
Q0127:what is the most serious form of tinea capitis; which results in permanent hair loss and is higly contagious
253
tinea favosa
254
255
snails
256
Q0129:what are the four capsular polysaccharides used in the neisseria meningitides vaccine
257
Y;W-125; C and A
258
259
cryptococcus
260
261
conidia
262
263
264
265
266
267
K1 capsule
268
Q0135:what two Ags must be pos for a patient to have chronic active hepatitis
269
HBsAG;HBeAG
270
271
272
Q0137:in what trimester is the fetus most vulnerable to congenital rubella syndrome
273
first trimester
274
275
276
Q0139:which gram neg diplococcus growns on chocolate agar? thayer martin medium?
277
278
Q0140:which protozoal parasitic vaginal infection produces a pos whiff test with KOH staining?;tx?
279
trichomonas vaginalis;metronidazole
280
281
cryptococcus
282
Q0142:what bacterium has large boxcar shaped gram pos rods and is sporeforming; aerboic; and assoc with cutaneous inf and woolsorter's disease
283
bacillus anthracis
284
285
yes
286
287
288
Q0145:what urease-pos non-lactose fermenting gram neg rod with swarming type motility is assoc with staghorn renal calculi
289
proteus
290
291
varicella;influenza
292
293
neisseria meningitidis
294
Q0148:clue cells are assoc with which organism that causes vaginal discharge
295
gardnrella vaginalis
296
297
rhabdovirus
298
Q0150:what fungus is characterized by india ink staining of the CSF that produces colorless cells with a halo on a black background
299
cryptococcus neoformans
300
301
302
303
HEV
304
305
mycoplasma
306
307
308
309
1 and 4
310
Q0156:what facultative gram neg anaerobic rod is motile; fermetns lactose; and is the MCC of UTIs
311
e. coli
312
313
reovirus
314
315
Bunyavirus;Orthomyxovirus;Reovirus;Arenavirus;(BORA)
316
Q0159:what type of plasmodium affects;1. only mature RBCs;2. ony reticulocytes;3. RBCs of all ages
317
318
319
ergosterol
320
321
HBeAb
322
323
reverse transcriptase
324
325
clostridium botulinum
326
327
schistosoma haematobium
328
329
cryptococcus neorformans
330
Q0166:what virus lies dormant in the;1. trigeminal ganglia;2. dorsal root ganglia;3. sensory ganglia of S2 and s3
331
332
Q0167:what is the name of the exotoxin shigella dysenteriae produces; which interferes with the 60S ribosomal subunit and results in eukaryotic protein synthesis inhibition
333
334
Q0168:what protozoal parasite forms flasked-shaped lesions in the duodenum; is transmitted via fecal oral route; and is commonly seen in campers who drank stream water
335
336
337
338
339
mycobacterium marinum
340
Q0171:which dimorphic fungus is found as arthroconidia in desert sand of the southwester US;(San Joaquin valley)
341
coccidioides inmitis
342
343
ureaplasma ureatlyticum
344
345
346
Q0174:what is the only DNA virus that does not replicate its DNA in the nucleus of the host cell
347
348
Q0175:what organism would you suspect in a patient with diarrhea after eating rice
349
bacillus cereus
350
Q0176:what small gram neg facultative intracellular rod is transmitted to human host by dermacentor tick bite
351
francisella tularensis
352
353
true
354
Q0178:what neg sense RNA virus is assoc with parotitis; pancreatitis; and orchitis
355
mumps
356
Q0179:what is the size of a pos PPD test for;1. IV drug user;2. patient with AIDS;3. recent immigrant;4. healthy suburban male without any medical illnesses;5. posttransplantation patient on immunosuppressive drugs
357
358
Q0180:what are the only two picornavirus that do not lead to aseptic meningitis
359
360
Q0181:which cestode in raw or rare beef containing cysticerci results in intestinal tapeworms
361
taenia saginata
362
Q0182:what DNA viral diseae is assoc w/ aplastic crisis in patients with sickle cell anemia
363
parvovirus B19
364
365
gp120
366
367
salmonella
368
369
pasteurella mutocida
370
371
chromomycosis
372
373
birds
374
Q0188:what are the two exceptions to the rule "all cocci are gram pos"
375
376
377
378
379
380
381
leishmania donovani
382
383
CMV
384
Q0193:what neg sense RNA virus is assoc with intracytoplasmic inclusion Negri bodies
385
rabies
386
Q0194:what large; spore forming gram pos anaerobic rod is assoc with infections due to puncture wounds and trauma
387
clostridium tetani
388
389
reduviid bug
390
391
392
393
394
Q0198:what encapsulated gramneg lactose fermenting rod is assoc with pneumonia in patients with alcoholism ; diabetes; and chronic lung diseaes
395
klebsiella
396
397
cat
398
Q0200:what gram pos anaerobic rod with branching filaments is a component of the nl flora of the mouth and female gentital tract and is responsible for draining abscesses with sulfur granules in the exudates
399
actinomyces israelii
400
401
thrush
402
Q0202:what is the term for fungi that an convert from hyphal to yeast forms
403
dimorphic
404
405
picornaviridae
406
Q0204:name at least three bacteria that use capsules to prevent immediate destruction from the host's defense mechanism
407
408
409
410
411
JC virus
412
Q0207:what bacterium is a gram neg oxidase pos aerobic rod that produces a grapelike odoer and pyocyanin pigmentation
413
pseudomonas aeruginosa
414
415
CMV;toxoplasma gondii;listeria
416
Q0209:what bacterium found in poorly preserved canned food causes flaccid paralysis
417
c. botulinum
418
419
420
421
protein A
422
423
pasteuralla;brucella;legionella;francisella
424
425
candida albicans
426
427
Herpes I and II
428
429
strep viridans
430
431
cysticerci
432
Q0217:what fungus is characterized by hypopigmented spots on the thorax; spaghetti and meatball KOH staining; and pityriasis or tinea versicolor;tx?
433
434
435
strongyloids stercoralis;thiabendazole
436
437
transposons
438
Q0220:which dimorphic fungus is endemic in ohio; mississippi; missouri; and easter great lakes; is found in soil with bird and bat feces; and is assoc w/ infections in spelungers and chicken coop cleanerrs
439
histoplasma capsulatum
440
Q0221:which of the following enterobacteriaceae family members- yersina; klebsiella; enterobacter; escherichia; proteus; and citrobacter; do not ferment lactose?
441
442
443
444
445
80S (eukaryotes)
446
Q0224:BUZZWORD: Pyoverdin
447
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
448
Q0225:BUZZWORD: Pyocyanin
449
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
450
451
Staphylococcus aureus
452
Q0227:BUZZWORD: Protein A
453
Staphylococcus aureus
454
Q0228:BUZZWORD: M protein
455
Streptococcus pyogenes
456
457
Haemophilus influenzae
458
459
Haemophilus influenzae
460
461
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
462
463
Legionella pneumophila
464
465
Bordetella pertussis
466
Q0234:BUZZWORD: Alpha-hemolytic
467
Streptococcus pneumoniae
468
469
Streptococcus pyogenes
470
471
Bordetella pertussis
472
473
Streptococcus pneumoniae
474
475
Haemophilus influenzae
476
477
Staphylococcus aureus
478
479
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
480
Q0241:BUZZWORD: Enterotoxin
481
Staphylococcus aureus
482
483
Staphylococcus aureus
484
485
Streptococcus pneumoniae
486
487
Streptococcus pyogenes
488
489
Streptococcus pyogenes
490
Q0246:BUZZWORD: C-substance/CRP
491
Streptococcus pneumoniae
492
493
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
494
495
496
Q0249:BUZZWORD: Exotoxin A
497
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
498
499
Bordetella pertussis
500
501
Listeria monocytogenes
502
503
504
505
506
507
Legionella pneumophila
508
509
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
510
511
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
512
513
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
514
515
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
516
517
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
518
519
Streptococcus mutans
520
521
Staphylococcus epidermidis
522
523
Staphylococcus aureus
524
525
526
527
528
529
When delivered by cesarean section; none; but are rapidly colonized after birth.
530
531
532
533
534
535
536
537
538
539
540
541
1. Staphylococcus;2. Gram negative rods;3. Fungi;4. Viruses;5. Pneumocystis jirovecii (with HIV)
542
543
Anaerobes
544
545
546
547
548
549
550
551
552
553
554
555
556
557
558
559
560
Q0281:What is the cause of meningitis with the following findings?;Pressure: Increased;Cell type: Increased PMNs;Protein: Increased;Sugar: Decreased
561
562
Q0282:What is the cause of meningitis with the following findings?;Pressure: Increased;Cell type: Increased lymphocytes;Protein: Increased;Sugar: Decreased
563
Fungal or TB
564
Q0283:What is the cause of meningitis with the following findings?;Pressure: Normal/Increased;Cell type: Increased lymphocytes;Protein: Normal;Sugar: Normal
565
Viral
566
567
Staphylococcus aureus
568
569
570
571
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
572
573
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
574
575
Salmonella
576
577
578
579
580
581
Mostly ascending infections;1. E. coli (50-80%);2. Staphylococcus saprophyticus (10-30%) in young amubulatory women;3. Klebsiella (8-10%)
582
583
584
585
Mostly ascending infections. Ratio of women:men is 10:1. (short urethra colonized by fecal flora);Males;1. Babies: Congenital defects;2. Elderly: Enlarged prostates
586
587
588
589
590
591
592
593
594
595
E. coli
596
597
598
599
Urinary tract infection. Urease positive; and associated with struvite stones. Motility causes "swarming" on agar.
600
601
SSEEK PP;1. Serratia marcescens (nosocomial/drugresistant);2. Staphylococcus saprophyticus (2nd most common cause in ambulatory young women);3. E. coli (Most common cause. Metallic sheen on EMB agar);4. Enterobacter cloacae (nosocomial and drug resistant);5. Klebsiella (thick viscous colonies);6. Proteus mirablis (urease positive; struvite stones; swarming on agar);7. Pseudomonas Aeruginosa (bluegreen pigment; fruity odor)
602
603
604
605
1. Urethritis;2. Cervicitis;3. PID;4. Prostatitis;5. Epididymitis;6. Arthritis;7. Creamy purulent discharge (mmm!)
606
607
608
609
Treponema pallidum
610
611
612
613
614
615
616
617
HPV 6 and 11
618
619
Treponema pallidum
620
621
Condyloma (plural: "Condylomata"; from Greek "knob") refers to an infection of the genitals. The two subtypes are;"condylomata acuminata"; another term for genital warts caused by human papilloma virus ;"condylomata lata"; white lesions associated with secondary syphilis ;(copied from Wikipedia)
622
623
Chancroid;1. Painful genital ulcer (red papule with yellowgray exudate);2. Inguinal adenopathy
624
625
1. Painful genital ulcer (red papule with yellow-gray exudate);2. Inguinal adenopathy
626
627
Haemophilus ducreyi
628
629
Several drops of a potassium hydroxide (KOH) solution are added to a sample of vaginal discharge to see whether a strong fishy odor is produced. A fishy odor on the whiff test usually means bacterial vaginosis is present.
630
631
Caused by Gardnerella vaginalis;1. Greenish vaginal discharge with fishy smell;2. Noninflammatory (nonpainful);3. Mobiluncus (anaerobe) is also seen;4. Clue cells are visible (vaginal epithelium covered with bacteria);5. Positive Whiff test
632
633
1. Chlamydia trachomatis (subacute; often undiagnosed);2. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (acute; high fever);3. Gardnerella;4. Trichomonas
634
635
636
637
1. Cervical motion tenderness (chandelier sign);2. Purulent cervical discharge;3. Possibly salpingitis; endrometritis; hydrosalpinx; or tubo-ovarian abscess
638
639
Colloquial term referring to severe pain elicited during pelvic examination of patients with pelvic inflammatory disease in which the patient responds by reaching upwards towards the ceiling for relief;Retrieved from "http://www.biologyonline.org/dictionary/Chandelier_sign"
640
641
642
643
Newborn nursery
644
645
Newborn nursery
646
647
Urinary catheterization
648
649
Urinary catheterization
650
651
652
653
654
655
Hyperalimentation
656
657
Water aerosols
658
659
660
661
662
663
664
665
Staphylococcus aureus
666
667
668
669
Staphylococcus aureus
670
671
Haemophilus influenzae
672
673
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
674
675
Actinomyces israelii
676
677
Clostridium perfringens
678
679
Staphylococcus aureus
680
681
Pasteurella multocida
682
683
Group B Strep
684
685
Group B Strep
686
Q0344:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Block cell wall synthesis by inhibition of peptidoglycan cross-linking
687
Mnemonic: It's forming its cell wall. ACT PAPI!;1. Aztreonam;2. Cephalosporins;3. Ticarcillin;4. Penicillin;5. Ampicillin;6. Piperacillin;7. Imipenem
688
689
690
691
Polymyxins
692
693
694
695
1. Sulfonamides;2. Trimethprim
696
697
Quinolones
698
699
Rifampin
700
Q0351:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Block protein synthesis at 50S ribosomal subunit
701
702
Q0352:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Block protein synthesis at 30S ribosomal subunit
703
1. Aminoglycosides;2. Tetracyclines
704
Q0353:Bactericidal antibiotics
705
Mnemonic: Am I Safe using a Metropolitan Pen in a Van; Flo?;1. Aminoglycosides;2. Cephalosporins;3. Metronidazole;4. Penicillin;5. Vancomycin;6. Fluoroquinolones
706
707
Malassezia furfur
708
709
Malassezia furfur
710
Q0356:Patient with scaly; ringlike lesions of ski that may involved hair shafts or nails
711
Dermatophytes (Trichophyton - skin; hair; nails; Microsporum - hair and skin; Epidermophyton - nails and skin)
712
713
Dermatophytes (Trichophyton - skin; hair; nails; Microsporum - hair and skin; Epidermophyton - nails and skin)
714
715
Sporothrix schenckii
716
717
Sporothrix schenckii
718
719
Sporothrix schenckii
720
Q0361:Normal patient with acute pulmonary; immunocompromised patient with chronic pulmonary or disseminated infection
721
Histoplasma capsulatum
722
723
Histoplasma capsulatum
724
725
Histoplasma capsulatum
726
Q0364:Sputum or blood cultures with mononuclear cells packed with yeast cells
727
Histoplasma capsulatum
728
729
Coccidioides immitis
730
731
Coccidioides immitis
732
733
Coccidioides immitis
734
Q0368:Desert southwest
735
Coccidioides immitis
736
737
Coccidioides immitis
738
739
Blastomyces dermatitidis
740
741
Blastomyces dermatitidis
742
Q0372:North and South Carolina Sputum has broad-based; budding yeasts with double; refractile cell walls
743
Blastomyces dermatitidis
744
Q0373:Sputum has broad-based budding yeasts with double refractile cell walls
745
Blastomyces dermatitidis
746
747
Aspergillus fumigatus
748
749
Aspergillus fumigatus
750
751
Aspergillus fumigatus
752
753
Aspergillus fumigatus
754
755
Aspergillus fumigatus
756
757
Candida albicans
758
759
Candida albicans
760
761
Candida albicans
762
763
Cryptococcus neoformans
764
765
Cryptococcus neoformans
766
767
Cryptococcus neoformans
768
769
770
771
772
773
Pneumocystis jiroveci
774
775
Pneumocystis jiroveci
776
777
Pneumocystis jiroveci
778
779
Staphylococcus epidermidis
780
Q0391:Novobiocin sensitive
781
Staphylococcus epidermidis
782
783
Staphylococcus epidermidis
784
785
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
786
Q0394:Novobiocin resistant
787
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
788
Q0395:"Honeymoon cystitis"
789
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
790
791
Staphylococcus aureas
792
793
Staphylococcus aureas
794
Q0398:Endocarditis: acute
795
Staphylococcus aureas
796
797
Staphylococcus aureas
798
Q0400:Impetigo: bullous
799
Staphylococcus aureas
800
801
Staphylococcus aureas
802
803
Staphylococcus aureas
804
805
806
807
808
809
810
811
812
Q0407:Rheumatic fever
813
814
815
816
Q0409:Acute glomerulonephritis after skin or throat infection; hypertension; edema; smoky urine
817
818
819
820
821
822
Q0412:Hydrolyze hippurate
823
824
825
826
827
828
829
830
Q0416:Gram (+); catalase (-); alpha hemolytic; optochin sensitive; bile soluble
831
Streptococcus pneumoniae
832
833
Streptococcus pneumoniae
834
835
Streptococcus pneumoniae
836
Q0419:MCC pf adult meningitis - many PMNs; decreased glucose; increased protein in CSF
837
Streptococcus pneumoniae
838
839
Streptococcus pneumoniae
840
Q0421:Gram (+); catalase (-); alpha hemolytic; optochin resistant; bile insoluble
841
842
843
844
Q0423:Subacute bacterial endocarditis - preexisting damage to the heart valves; follows dental work
845
846
847
Enterococcus faecalis/faecium
848
Q0425:Urinary and biliary tract infections - elderly males after prostate treatment
849
Enterococcus faecalis/faecium
850
Q0426:Subacute bacterial endocarditis - elderly males; follows GI/GU surgery; preexisting heart valve damage
851
Enterococcus faecalis/faecium
852
853
Bacillus antracis
854
855
Bacillus antracis
856
Q0429:Rapid-onset gastroenteritis
857
Bacillus cereus
858
859
Bacillus cereus
860
861
Clostridium tetani
862
Q0432:Rigid paralysis
863
Clostridium tetani
864
865
Clostridium botulinum
866
867
Clostridium botulinum
868
869
Clostridium botulinum
870
Q0436:Contamined wound
871
Clostridium perfringens
872
873
Clostridium perfringens
874
875
Clostridium perfringens
876
877
Clostridium difficile
878
879
Clostridium difficile
880
881
Listeria monocytogenes
882
883
Listeria monocytogenes
884
885
Listeria monocytogenes
886
887
Listeria monocytogenes
888
889
Listeria monocytogenes
890
891
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
892
893
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
894
895
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
896
897
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
898
899
Actinomyces israelii
900
Q0451:Sulfur granules in pus grow anaerobic; gram (+); nonacid fast branching rods
901
Actinomyces israelii
902
903
904
905
906
907
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
908
909
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
910
Q0456:Ghon complex
911
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
912
913
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
914
915
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
916
917
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
918
919
Mycobacterium leprae
920
921
Mycobacterium leprae
922
923
Mycobacterium leprae
924
Q0463:Hansen's disease
925
Mycobacterium leprae
926
Q0464:AIDS patients; cancer; chronic lung disease with pulmonary; GI; disseminated symptoms; atypical mycobacteria
927
928
929
Mycobacterium marinum
930
931
Mycobacterium scrofulaceum
932
933
Meningococcal meningitis
934
Q0468:Young adults with meningitis; abrupt onset with signs of endotoxin toxicity
935
Meningococcal meningitis
936
937
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
938
939
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
940
Q0471:Arthiritis possible
941
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
942
Q0472:Neonatal opthalmia
943
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
944
945
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
946
Q0474:Gram (-) diplococcus causes otitis media; sinusitis; bronchitis; bronchopneumonia in elderly patients with COPD
947
Moraxella catarrhalis
948
949
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
950
951
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
952
953
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
954
955
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
956
957
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
958
959
Legionella pneumophilia
960
961
Legionella pneumophilia
962
Q0482:Atypical pneumonia
963
Legionella pneumophilia
964
Q0483:Pontiac fever
965
Legionella pneumophilia
966
967
Francisella tularensis
968
Q0485:Arkansas/Missouri
969
Francisella tularensis
970
Q0486:Exposure to rabbits/ticks
971
Francisella tularensis
972
Q0487:Tularemia
973
Francisella tularensis
974
975
Bordetella pertussis
976
977
Bordetella pertussis
978
Q0490:Whooping cough
979
Bordetella pertussis
980
981
Brucella species
982
983
Brucella species
984
985
Brucella species
986
987
Campylobacter jejuni
988
989
Campylobacter jejuni
990
991
Helicobacter pylori
992
993
Helicobacter pylori
994
Q0498:MCC of UTI
995
Escherichia coli
996
997
Escherichia coli
998
999
1000
1001
1002
1003
1004
1005
Escherichia coli
1006
1007
1008
1009
1010
Q0506:Gram (-) bacilli; which are nonmotile; nonlactose fermenters; do not produce H2S
1011
1012
1013
Klebsiella pneumoniae
1014
1015
Klebsiella pneumoniae
1016
1017
Klebsiella pneumoniae
1018
1019
Klebsiella pneumoniae
1020
1021
Klebsiella granulomatis
1022
1023
Klebsiella granulomatis
1024
1025
1026
1027
1028
Q0515:Widal test
1029
1030
1031
1032
1033
1034
1035
1036
1037
1038
Q0520:Widal test
1039
1040
1041
Yersinia pestis
1042
1043
Yersinia pestis
1044
1045
Yersinia enterocolitica
1046
Q0524:Cold climates
1047
Yersinia enterocolitica
1048
1049
Yersinia enterocolitica
1050
1051
Yersinia enterocolitica
1052
1053
1054
Q0528:Swarming motility
1055
1056
1057
1058
1059
1060
1061
Gardnerella vaginalis
1062
Q0532:Clue cells
1063
Gardnerella vaginalis
1064
Q0533:Whiff test
1065
Gardnerella vaginalis
1066
1067
Vibrio cholerae
1068
Q0535:Rice-water stool
1069
Vibrio cholerae
1070
Q0536:Dehydration
1071
Vibrio cholerae
1072
Q0537:Gram (-) curved rods; polar flagellae; oxidase (+); travel to endemic area
1073
Vibrio cholerae
1074
1075
Pasteurella multocida
1076
Q0539:Cellulitis / lymphadenitis
1077
Pasteurella multocida
1078
1079
Haemophilus influenzae
1080
1081
Haemophilus influenzae
1082
1083
Haemophilus influenzae
1084
1085
1086
Q0544:Painful chancre
1087
Haemophilus ducreyi
1088
1089
Bacteroides fragilis
1090
1091
Bacteroides fragilis
1092
1093
Bacteroides fragilis
1094
1095
Treponema pallidum
1096
1097
Treponema pallidum
1098
1099
Treponema pallidum
1100
1101
Treponema pallidum
1102
1103
Treponema pallidum
1104
Q0553:FTA-ABS; VDRL
1105
Treponema pallidum
1106
1107
Borrelia burgdorferi
1108
1109
Borrelia burgdorferi
1110
1111
Borrelia burgdorferi
1112
Q0557:Lyme disease
1113
Borrelia burgdorferi
1114
1115
Leptospira interrogans
1116
1117
Leptospira interrogans
1118
Q0560:Hawaii
1119
Leptospira interrogans
1120
1121
Leptospira interrogans
1122
Q0562:Patient with influenza-like symptoms and petechial rash that begins on ankles and wrists and moves to trunk
1123
Rickettsia rickettsii
1124
1125
Rickettsia rickettsii
1126
1127
Rickettsia rickettsii
1128
1129
Rickettsia rickettsii
1130
1131
Coxiella burnetii
1132
Q0567:Exposure to domestic animal breeding operation; gram (-) bacilli; diagnose serologically
1133
Coxiella burnetii
1134
1135
Chlamydia trachomatis
1136
1137
Chlamydia trachomatis
1138
1139
Chlamydia trachomatis
1140
1141
Chlamydia trachomatis
1142
1143
Chlamydia trachomatis
1144
1145
Chlamydia pneumoniae
1146
1147
Chlamydia psittaci
1148
1149
Mycoplasma pneumonia
1150
1151
Mycoplasma pneumonia
1152
1153
Mycoplasma pneumonia
1154
1155
Ureaplasma urealyticum
1156
Q0579:Alkaline urine
1157
Ureaplasma urealyticum
1158
1159
Ureaplasma urealyticum
1160
Q0581:Amebiasis: dysentery
1161
Entamoeba histolytica
1162
1163
Entamoeba histolytica
1164
1165
Entamoeba histolytica
1166
1167
Giardia lamblia
1168
1169
Giardia lamblia
1170
1171
Giardia lamblia
1172
Q0587:Transient diarrhea in healthy; severe in immunocompromisted hosts; acid fast round oocysts in stool
1173
Cryptosporidium species
1174
1175
Cryptosporidium species
1176
Q0589:Frothy vaginal discharge; motile trophozoites with corkscrew motility; sexual transmission
1177
Trichomonas vaginalis
1178
1179
Plasmodium vivax
1180
Q0591:Irregular fever spikes; causes cerebral malaria; multiple ring forms and crescent-shaped gametes
1181
Plasmodium falciparum
1182
Q0592:Chagas diseases; Romana sign (swelling around eye); cardiac muscle; liver; brain often involved; reduviid bug
1183
Trypanosoma cruzi
1184
1185
1186
1187
Leishmania donovani
1188
1189
Leismania species
1190
Q0596:Malaria-like Babesiosis; NE; N Central; California; and NW U.S; Ixodes tick; co-infection with Borrelia
1191
Babesia
1192
Q0597:Cat is definitive host; raw meat in US #1 = pork; contact with cat feces; deadly in pregnant patients
1193
Toxoplasma gondii
1194
Q0598:Intestinal schistosomiasis
1195
1196
1197
1198
Q0600:Vesicular schistosomiasis
1199
Schistosoma haematobium
1200
1201
Schistosoma haematobium
1202
1203
Clonorchis sinesis
1204
1205
Clonorchis sinesis
1206
Q0604:Lung fluke
1207
Paragonimus westermani
1208
1209
Paragonimus westermani
1210
Q0606:Pork tapeworm
1211
Taenia solium
1212
1213
Taenia solium
1214
Q0608:Raw pork containing cysticerci ingested by humans; DH: humans - intestinal tapeworm; proglottids in feces
1215
Taenia solium
1216
Q0609:Raw pickled fism containing a sparganum; intestinal tapeworm; megaloblastic anemia (B12 deficiency)
1217
Diphyllobothrium latum
1218
Q0610:Fish tapeworm
1219
Diphyllobothrium latum
1220
1221
Enchinococcus granulosus
1222
1223
Enterobius vermicularis
1224
1225
Enterobius vermicularis
1226
1227
Enterobius vermicularis
1228
Q0615:Ascariasis
1229
Ascaris lumbricoides
1230
1231
Ascaris lumbricoides
1232
1233
Ascaris lumbricoides
1234
Q0618:Visceral Larva Migrans - larvae wader aimlessly until they die; cause inflmmation; from hangling puppies or eating dirt (pica)
1235
1236
Q0619:Hookworm; larva penetrates intact skin of bare feet; penumonitis; anemia; occult blood fecal may be +
1237
Necator americanus
1238
Q0620:Threadworm; early: pneumonitis; diarrhea; abdominal pain later: malabsorption; ulcers; bloody stools; larva penerates intact skin
1239
Strongyloides stercoralis
1240
Q0621:Trichinosis; variable encysted larvae in meat; wild game meat; in muscle; fever; myalgia; splinter hemorrhages; eosinophilia
1241
Trichinella spiralis
1242
Q0622:Elephantiasis; mosquito
1243
Wucheria bancrofti
1244
1245
Loa loa
1246
1247
Onchocerca volvulus
1248
1249
Dracunculus medinesis
1250
Q0626:School-aged child with fever and indurated facial rash; slapped cheek fever
1251
B19 - Parvoviridae
1252
1253
B19 - Parvoviridae
1254
Q0628:Warts
1255
HPV - Papovaviridae
1256
1257
HPV - Papovaviridae
1258
1259
HPV - Papovaviridae
1260
1261
1262
Q0632:Keratoconjunctivitis
1263
1264
Q0633:Meningoencephalitis / encephalitis
1265
1266
1267
1268
1269
1270
1271
HSV-1 - Herpesviridae
1272
1273
HSV-2 - Herpesviridae
1274
1275
1276
1277
1278
Q0640:Tzanck smear; Cowdry type A inclusion bodies; and synctia intranuclear inclusions
1279
VZV - Herpesviridae
1280
Q0641:Latency in DRG
1281
VZV - Herpesviridae
1282
1283
EBV - Herpesviridae
1284
1285
EBV - Herpesviridae
1286
1287
EBV - Herpesviridae
1288
Q0645:Latency in B cells
1289
EBV - Herpesviridae
1290
Q0646:Kissing disease
1291
EBV - Herpesviridae
1292
1293
CMV - Herpesviridae
1294
1295
CMV - Herpesviridae
1296
1297
CMV - Herpesviridae
1298
1299
HHV-6 - Herpesviridae
1300
1301
HHV-8 - Herpesviridae
1302
Q0652:Kaposi sarcoma
1303
HHV-8 - Herpesviridae
1304
1305
1306
1307
Adenovirus - Adenoviridae
1308
1309
Adenovirus - Adenoviridae
1310
1311
Adenovirus - Adenoviridae
1312
Q0657:Young adult (wrestling; swim team); umbilicated warts; Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion bodies
1313
1314
Q0658:Virus extinct
1315
Variola - Poxviridae
1316
1317
Variola - Poxviridae
1318
1319
Variola - Poxviridae
1320
Q0661:Smallpox
1321
Variola - Poxviridae
1322
1323
HBV - Hepadnaviridae
1324
1325
HAV - Picornavirus
1326
1327
HBV - Hepadnaviridae
1328
1329
HCV - Flavivirus
1330
1331
HDV - Defective
1332
1333
HEV - Calcivirus
1334
1335
1336
1337
1338
1339
1340
1341
1342
Q0672:STD; UTI; PID; LGV; trachoma; iodine stain; elementary bodies; reticulate bodies
1343
1344
Q0673:Boxcar shaped; double zone of hemolysis; lecithinase; toxins; gas gangrene; diarrhea
1345
1346
Q0674:Botulism;Floppy baby;Honey;Sepores;Food-borne
1347
1348
1349
1350
1351
1352
1353
1354
Q0678:Sulfur granules;Anaerobic;Filamentous
1355
1356
Q0679:Intracellular;Rabbit;Ulcer;Tularemia
1357
1358
1359
1360
Q0681:Foul-smelling;Mixed infection;Abscess
1361
1362
1363
1364
1365
1366
Q0684:Air-conditioning coolant;Shower and other lukewarm water sources;Charcoal yeast agar (BCYE agar);Silver stain
1367
1368
1369
1370
1371
1372
1373
1374
1375
1376
1377
1378
1379
1380
1381
1382
1383
1384
Q0693:Grapelike clusters;Coagulase+;Catalase+;Toxins;MRSA
1385
1386
1387
1388
1389
1390
1391
1392
Q0697:Entero-feces-gutbug;Nosocomial;Antibiotic resistant
1393
1394
1395
1396
1397
1398
1399
1400
Q0701:coagulase +;anterior nares;beta-hemolytic;yellow colonies;various toxins [alpha toxins; Panton-Valentine leukocidin; superantigens; enterotoxins (food poisoning); TSST-1 (toxic shock syndrome)]
1401
1402
1403
1404
1405
An AB exotoxin that cleaves 28S rRNA in 60S ribosomal subunit - disrupts protein synthesis. Damages intestinal epithelium and glomerular endothelial cells.
1406
1407
1408
1409
Tetanus toxin - blocks inhibitory neurotransmitter release and causes spastic paralysis.
1410
1411
AB exotoxin inactivates EF-2 and inhibits protein synthesis causes cell death.
1412
1413
Superantigens - bind to T-cell receptor and MHC II of another cell simultaneously and cause massive non-specific release of interleukins.
1414
Q0708:effects of endotoxin.
1415
1. Binds to CD14 (TLR4) on macrophages; B cells and others to stimulate acute phase cytokine release (IL1; TNFa; IL6; PGs);2. activates alternative complement pathway - fever; hypotension; shock;3. Activation of blood coagulation pathways - DIC.
1416
1417
Lipid A.
1418
1419
1420
1421
1422
Q0712:Gram negative aerobic organism producing a heat-labile toxin that activates adenylate cyclase to cause watery diarrhea.
1423
E. coli.
1424
Q0713:Gram negative facultative anaerobe producing a toxin that activates adenylate cyclase to cause a watery diarrhea.
1425
V. cholerae.
1426
1427
IgA protease.
1428
Q0715:Catalase
1429
An enzyme that catabolizes hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen gas.
1430
1431
Staphylococci.
1432
1433
Streptococci; enterococci.
1434
1435
Staph aureus.
1436
Q0719:Coagulase action.
1437
Binds a serum factor - converts fibrinogen to fibrin to form clot. Produced by S. aureus.
1438
Q0720:Function of protein A.
1439
Binds Fc receptor of IgG and prevents Ab-mediated immune clearance. Extracellular protein A can produce immune complexes. Produced by S. aureus.
1440
1441
Pneumococcus.
1442
Q0722:Quellung reaction.
1443
Used for detection of pneumococcus. Polyvalent anticapsular antibodies are mixed with the bacteria; and then the mixture is examined microscopically. A greater refractiveness around the bacteria is a positive reaction for S. pneumoniae.
1444
Q0723:Use of optochin.
1445
Differentiation of S. pneumoniae from viridans strep. Viridans and enterococci are optochin resistant.
1446
1447
Bile solubility - S. pneumoniae lyse in bile; while others do not. Also: pneumococci are sensitive to optochin; where others are not.
1448
1449
1450
1451
1452
1453
1454
1455
1456
1457
1458
1459
1460
1461
E. coli; Klebsiella.
1462
1463
1464
1465
Pseudomonas.
1466
1467
1468
1469
1470
1471
H. influenzae.
1472
1473
N. gonorrheae.
1474
1475
B. pertussis.
1476
1477
M. tuberculosis.
1478
Q0740:Organism requiring charcoal yeast extract agar with increased iron and cysteine.
1479
Legionella pneumophila.
1480
1481
1482
1483
C. diphtheriae.
1484
1485
Fungi.
1486
Q0744:Obligate aerobes.
1487
1488
1489
Stains blood parasites; viral and chlamydial inclusion bodies; intracellular organisms. Borrelia; Plasmodium; trypansosomes; Chlamydia; yeast.
1490
1491
Ziehl-Neelsen; Kinyoun; auramine-rhodamine. All stain for mycobacteria and other acid-fast organisms.
1492
Q0747:PAS stain
1493
1494
Q0748:India ink.
1495
1496
1497
1498
1499
1500
Q0751:Trichrome stain.
1501
Detects protozoa.
1502
1503
1504
1505
1506
1507
1508
1509
1510
1511
1512
1513
1514
1515
Sulfonamides; quinolones.
1516
1517
Bacillus cereus.
1518
1519
Staph aureus.
1520
1521
Clostridium perfringens.
1522
1523
E. coli.
1524
1525
Salmonella.
1526
1527
Vibrio parahemolyticus.
1528
1529
Nocardia asteroides.
1530
Q0766:Dental caries.
1531
1532
1533
Staph aureus.
1534
1535
1536
Q0769:Rheumatic fever.
1537
Strep pyogenes.
1538
1539
C. difficile.
1540
Q0771:Woolsorter's Disease.
1541
Inhalation anthrax.
1542
1543
Y. enterocolitica.
1544
1545
V. parahemolyticus.
1546
1547
Campylobacter jejuni.
1548
1549
Shigella.
1550
1551
Salmonella.
1552
1553
E. coli.
1554
Q0778:Gram negative produsing epiglottitis; meningitis; otitis media; pneumonia. Culture on chocolate agar.
1555
Haemophilus influenzae.
1556
Q0779:Poorly-staining gram negative rod grown on charcoal yeast with iron and cysteine.
1557
Legionella pneumophila.
1558
Q0780:Gram negative aerobic organism producing otitis externa and burn/wound infections.
1559
Pseudomonas aeruguinosa.
1560
1561
Gardernella vaginalis.
1562
1563
N. meningitidis.
1564
1565
Mycobacterium TB.
1566
1567
Tetracycline.
1568
1569
Coxiella burnettii.
1570
1571
R. typhi.
1572
Q0787:Rash starts on palms and soles - inward spread of rash; headache; fever. Endemic to east coast.
1573
1574
Q0788:Weil-Felix reaction.
1575
Assay for anti-rickettsial Ab. Positive for typhus and spotted fever; negative for Q fever.
1576
Q0789:Insidious onset pneumonia with headache; nonproductive cough; diffuse interstitial infiltrate. High titer cold agglutinins.
1577
1578
1579
1580
Q0791:"Bull's eye" rash; flu-like sx; progessing to neurologic and cardiac manifestations; then to autoimmune migratory polyarthritis.
1581
Lyme disease.
1582
Q0792:Painless chancre - disseminated dz with maculopapular rash; condylomata lata - aortitis; neurosyphilis; argyll robertson pupil.
1583
1584
Q0793:FTA-ABS test.
1585
specific for treponemes - positive earlier in dz; remains positive longer than VDRL.
1586
1587
Nocardia asteroides.
1588
1589
S. pneumoniae.
1590
1591
S. sparophyticus.
1592
1593
Function;1. Rigid support;2. Protects against osmotic pressure;Chemical composition;Sugar backbone with crosslinked peptide side chains
1594
1595
Gram positives only;Function: Major surface antigen;Chemical composition: Teichoic acid; which induces TNF and IL-1
1596
1597
Gram negatives only;Function: Site of endotoxin (lipopolysaccharide) and major surface antigen;Chemical composition: Lipid A induces TNF and IL-1; and polysaccharide is the antigen
1598
1599
1600
1601
1602
1603
Function: Space between the cytoplasmic membrane and outer membrane in gram-negative bacteria;Chemical composition: Contains many hydrolytic enzymes; including beta-lactamases
1604
1605
Function: Protects against phagocytosis;Chemical composition: Polysaccharide (except Bacillus anthracis which contains D-glutamate)
1606
1607
Function: Mediates adherence of bacteria to cell surface; sex pilus forms attachment between 2 bacteria during conjugation;Chemical composition: Glycoprotein
1608
1609
1610
1611
Function: Provides resistance to dehydration; heat; and chemicals;Chemical composition: Keratin-like coat and dipicolinic acid
1612
1613
Function: Contains a variety of genes for antibiotic resistance; enzymes; and toxins;Chemical composition: DNA
1614
1615
Function: Mediates adherence to surfaces; especially foreign surfaces (eg indwelling catheters);Chemical composition: Polysaccharide
1616
1617
1618
1619
1620
1621
Cytokines induced;1. IL-1;2. TNF;Gram positive inducer: Teichoic acid;Gram negative inducer: Lipopolysaccharide (Endoxtoxin)
1622
1623
D-glutamate
1624
1625
1626
Q0814:What are the main differences between gram negative and gram positive organisms?
1627
Peptidoglycan cell wall: Gram positive has thick. Gram negative has thin;Flagellar basal body rings: Gram positive has two. Gram negative has four;Outer antigen: Gram positive: Teichoic acid. Gram negative: Lipidpolysaccharide;Periplasmic space: Gram positive does not have. Gram negative has;Porin channel: Gram positive does not have. Gram negative has;Lysozyme and penicillin attack: Gram positive are sensitive. Gram negative are resistant.
1628
1629
Mnemonic: These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color;1. Treponema;2. Rickettsia;3. Mycobacteria;4. Mycoplasma;5. Legionella pneumophila;6. Chlamydia
1630
Q0816:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Treponema
1631
1632
Q0817:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Rickettsia
1633
Intracellular parasite
1634
Q0818:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Mycobacteria
1635
1636
Q0819:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Mycoplasma
1637
No cell wall
1638
Q0820:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Legionella pneumophila
1639
Primarily intracellular
1640
Q0821:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Chlamydia
1641
1642
1643
1644
Q0823:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Mycobacteria
1645
1646
Q0824:What are the stages of bacterial growth and what are their relative lengths?
1647
1. Lag phase: x;2. Log phase: 1.5x;3. Stationary phase: 2.5x;4. Death phase: 4x
1648
Q0825:What happens in the following phase of bacterial growth; and where does it fall in the order?: Lag
1649
1650
Q0826:What happens in the following phase of bacterial growth; and where does it fall in the order?: Log
1651
1652
Q0827:What happens in the following phase of bacterial growth; and where does it fall in the order?: Stationary
1653
1654
Q0828:What happens in the following phase of bacterial growth; and where does it fall in the order?: Death
1655
4th phase: Prolonged nutrient depletion and buildup of waste products leads to death
1656
1657
Exotoxin: Certain species of gram positive and gram negative bacteria;Endotoxin: Cell wall of most gram-negative bacteria
1658
1659
Exotoxin: Yes;Endotoxin: No
1660
1661
1662
1663
1664
1665
Exotoxin: High (fatal dose on the order of 1 microgram);Endotoxin: Low (fatal dose on the order of hundreds of micrograms)
1666
1667
1668
1669
1670
1671
1672
1673
1674
1675
Exotoxin: Destroyed rapidly at 60 degrees celsius (except Staphylococcal enterotoxin);Endotoxin: Stable at 100 degrees celsius for 1 hour
1676
1677
1678
Q0840:Mechanism of superantigens
1679
1. Bind directly to MHC II and T cell receptor;2. Large numbers of T cells are activated;3. Stimulates release of IFNgamma and IL-2
1680
1681
Interfere with host cell function;1. B (binding) component binds to a receptor on surface of host cell;2. The toxin is endocytosed;3. A (active) component attaches an ADPribosyl to a host cell protein;4. That protein's function is altered.
1682
1683
1684
1685
1686
1687
Superantigens;1. TSST-1 causes toxic shock syndrome (fever; rash; shock);2. Enterotoxins cause food poisoning.
1688
1689
Scarlet fever (superantigen);1. Erythrogenic;2. Causes toxic shock-like syndrome;Streptolysin O (hemolysin). The antigen for ASO antibody is found in rheumatic fever
1690
1691
ADP ribosylating A-B toxin (similar to Pseudomonas exotoxin A);Encoded by beta-prophage;Disease: Pseudomembranous pharyngitis (grayish-white membrane) with lymphadenopathy;Mechanism;Inactivates elongation ;factor 2 (EF-2);Mnemonic: ABCDEFG;ADP ribosylation;Betaprophage;Corynebacterium;Diphtheriae;Elongation Factor 2;Granules (metachromatic)
1692
1693
1. A-B toxin ADP ribosylates Gs protein thus;2. Permanently activates Gs protein;3. Constant stimulation of adenylyl cyclase which;4. Increases pumping of Cl into gut;5. H2O follows it;6. Leads to rice water diarrhea
1694
1695
E.coli 0157:H7 produces Shiga toxin;ADP ribosylating A-B toxins;Heat-labile: Permanent activation of adenylyl cyclase (cholera-like mechanism) leading to watery diarrhea;Heatstabile: Stimulates guanylate cyclase;Mnemonic: Labile like the Air; Stabile like the Ground.
1696
1697
1. ADP ribosylating A-B toxin;2. Permanently disables Gi;3. Constant stimulation of adenylate cyclase;4. Causes whooping cough;5. Also inhibits chemokine receptor causing lymphocytosis
1698
1699
alpha toxin (aka lecithinase) causes;1. gas gangrene;2. myonecrosis;3. hemolysis (See double zone of hemolysis on blood agar.);PERFringens PERForates a gangrenous leg.
1700
1701
Properties;1. Preformed;2. Heat-labile;Mechanism;Blocks the release of acetylcholine causing;1. anticholinergic symptoms ;2. CNS paralysis (especially cranial nerves);3. Floppy baby syndrome;BOTulinum is from bad BOTtles of food and honey and sausage (causes flaccid paralysis)
1702
1703
Blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitter glycine from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord. Causes "lockjaw"
1704
1705
1706
1707
Shiga toxin (also produced by E.coli 0157:H7);Cleaves host cell rRNA. Also enhances cytokine release causing hemolytic uremic syndrome.
1708
1709
1710
1711
1. Macrophages (IL-1; TNF; Nitric oxide);2. Alternative complement pathway (C3a; C5a);3. Hageman factor (Coagulation cascade)
1712
Q0857:What mediators are released when endotoxin activates macrophages; and what do they do?
1713
1. IL-1: Fever;2. TNF: Fever and Hemorrhagic tissue necrosis;3. Nitric Oxide: Hypotension (shock)
1714
Q0858:What mediators are released when endotoxin activates the alternative complement cascade; and what do they do?
1715
1716
Q0859:What mediators are released when endotoxin activates Hageman factor; and what do they do?
1717
1718
1719
Sugar fermentation
1720
1721
1722
1723
1724
Q0863:What are the pigment producing bacteria and what pigments do they produce?
1725
Staphylococcus aureus: Yellow pigment (Aureus means gold in Latin);Pseudomonas aeruginosa: blue-green pigment;Serratia marcescens: red pigment (think red maraschino cherries)
1726
1727
Chocolate agar with factors V (NAD) and X (hematin);Mnemonic: When a child has "flu" mom goes to five (V) and dime (X) to buy some chocolate.
1728
1729
Thayer-Martin media
1730
1731
1732
1733
Lowenstein-Jensen agar
1734
1735
1736
1737
Charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with increased iron and cysteine
1738
1739
Sabouraud's agar
1740
1741
1742
1743
1744
1745
1746
1747
Acid-fast bacteria.
1748
1749
Cryptococcus neoformans
1750
1751
1752
Q0877:For the following genetic transfer procedure; explain the process: Conjugation
1753
1754
Q0878:For the following genetic transfer procedure; explain the process: Transduction
1755
1756
Q0879:For the following genetic transfer procedure; explain the process: Transformation
1757
1758
Q0880:For the following genetic transfer procedure; explain the processd: Transposition
1759
1760
Q0881:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the types of cells involved: Conjugation
1761
Prokaryotic
1762
Q0882:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the types of cells involved: Transduction
1763
Prokaryotic
1764
Q0883:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the types of cells involved: Transformation
1765
Prokaryotic or eukaryotic
1766
Q0884:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the types of cells involved: Transposition
1767
Prokaryotic or eukaryotic
1768
Q0885:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the nature of DNA transferred: Conjugation
1769
Chromosomal or plasmid
1770
Q0886:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the nature of DNA transferred: Transduction
1771
1772
Q0887:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the nature of DNA transferred: Transformation
1773
Any DNA
1774
Q0888:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the nature of DNA transferred: Transposition
1775
1776
Q0889:What is lysogeny?
1777
When the genetic code for a bacterial toxin is encoded in a lysogenic phage.
1778
1779
1780
1781
Nocardia; Pseudomonas aeruginosa; Mycobacterium tuberculosis; Bacillus;Mnemonic: Nagging Pests Must Breathe
1782
1783
1784
1785
1786
1787
1788
1789
1790
1791
1792
1793
1794
1795
1796
1797
1798
1799
1800
1801
1802
1803
Mnemonic: Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacultativeLY;Salmonella; Neisseria; Brucella; Mycobacterium; Listeria; Francisella; Legionella; Yersinia;OR;Mnemonic: My Liege; Your Niece Lists Frank; Bruce and Sam;Mycobacterium; Leigonella; Yersinia; Neisseria; Listeria; Francisella; Brucella; Salmonella.
1804
1805
1. Streptococcus pneumoniae;2. Hemophilus influenzae (especially B serotype);3. Neisseria meningitidis;4. Klebsiella pneumoniae
1806
1807
Positive quellung: If encapsulated bug is present; capsule swells when specific anticapsular antisera are added;Mnemonic: Quellung = capsular "swellung"
1808
1809
1810
Q0906:What does conjugation with protein do to vaccines that have a capsular antigen?
1811
1812
1813
Gram positive soil bugs (eg Bacillus anthracis; Clostridium perfringens; Clostridium tetani)
1814
1815
1816
1817
Streptococcus (all catalase-negative);If optochin sensitive; bile soluble; or quellung positive: Streptococcus Pneumoniae;If optochin resistant; bile insoluble; or quellung negative: Streptococcus Viridans (eg S. Mutans)
1818
1819
Rods;Listeria monocytogenes;Cocci;If catalase positive and coagulase positive: Staphylococcus Aureus;If catalase negative; Streptococcus;Then; if bacitracin sensitive; S. pyogenes. If bacitracin resistant; S. agalactiae.
1820
1821
1822
Q0912:Gram positive: Which are catalase positive and which are catalase negative?
1823
1824
1825
1826
Q0914:What is Protein A?
1827
Virulence factor of Staphylococcus Aureus. Binds Fc-IgG; inhibiting complement fixation and phagocytosis.
1828
1829
Inflammatory;1. Skin infections;2. Organ abscesses (acute bacterial endocarditis; osteomyelitis);3. Pneumonia;Toxinmediated;1. Toxic shock syndrome (TSST-1);2. Scalded skin syndrome (exfoliative toxin);3. Rapid-onset food poisoning (ingestion of preformed enterotoxin)
1830
1831
Pyogenic;1. Pharyngitis;2. Cellulitis;3. Impetigo;Toxigenic;1. Scarlet fever;2. Toxic shock syndrome;Immunologic;1. Rheumatic fever;2. Acute glomerulonephritis
1832
1833
Rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis;Mnemonoic: PHaryngitis gives you rheumatic PHever and glomerulonePHritis
1834
1835
Antibody to M protein
1836
1837
Streptococcus Pyogenes
1838
1839
1840
1841
ASO titer
1842
1843
1. Subcutaneous nodules;2. Polyarthritis;3. Erythema marginatum;4. Chorea;5. Carditis (bacterial endocarditis);Mnemonic: No "rheum" for SPECCulation
1844
1845
1. Meningitis;2. Otitis media (in children);3. Pneumonia;4. Sinusitis;S. pneumoniae MOPS are Most OPtochin Sensitive
1846
1847
Streptococcus pneumoniae
1848
1849
Streptococcus pneumoniae
1850
1851
Streptococcus pneumoniae
1852
1853
Streptococcus pneumoniae
1854
1855
1856
1857
1858
1859
Streptococcus pneumoniae
1860
1861
1862
Q0932:3 most common causes of meningitis in infants younger than 3 months of age
1863
1864
1865
1866
1867
1868
1869
Colonic malignancy
1870
1871
1872
1873
1874
1875
1876
1877
Enterococci are hardier than nonenterococci. They can grow in 6.5% NaCl
1878
1879
Enterococcus
1880
1881
1882
1883
1. Alpha hemolysis;2. Optochin resistant ;3. Normal mouth flora;(Mnemonic: Viridans lives in the mouth because it is not afraid of-the-chin)
1884
1885
Oropharynx
1886
1887
1888
1889
Dental caries
1890
1891
1892
1893
1894
Q0948:What disease state does Clostridium difficile cause; and what is its mechanism?
1895
Disease state: pseudomembranous colitis secondary to clindamycin or ampicillin use. (Mnemonic: DIfficile causes DIarrhea);Mechanism;1. Antibiotic kills off protective flora;2. C. difficile takes hold and proliferates;3. Produces cytotoxin; an enterotoxin;4. Cytotoxin kills enterocytes.
1896
1897
Metronidazole
1898
1899
Gram positive rods with metachromatic granules; grown on tellurite agar (aka Loffler's coagulated serum medium)
1900
1901
1902
1903
1904
1905
1. Non-inhalation contact with bacillus anthracis;2. Formation of malignant pustule (painless ulcer);3. Progression to bacteremia;4. Death;1. Inhalation of spores;2. Development of flulike symptoms that rapidly progress to fever; pulmonary hemorrhage and shock.
1906
Q0954:What organism: Development of flulike symptoms followed by fever; pulmonary hemorrhage and shock.
1907
1908
1909
1910
1911
1912
Q0957:What organism: Gram-positive rods forming long branching filaments resembling fungi
1913
1914
Q0958:What organism: Oral or facial abscesses with yellow granules in sinus tracts
1915
Actinomyces israelii
1916
1917
Oral or facial abscesses with yellow granules draining out skin through sinus tracts
1918
1919
Gram-positive anaerobic rods forming long branching filaments resembling fungi (Nocardia also has this description);Causes oral or facial abscesses with yellow granules
1920
1921
Gram-positive (weakly acid fast) rods forming long branching filaments resembling fungi (Actinomyces also has this description)
1922
1923
1924
1925
1926
1927
1928
1929
Gram-negatives are resistant to benzyl penicillin G. The gramnegative outer membrane layer inhibits entry of penicillin G and vancomycin;May be susceptible to penicillin derivatives such as ampicillin.
1930
1931
Neisseria
1932
1933
1934
1935
G: No;M: Yes
1936
1937
1938
1939
G: No;M: Yes
1940
1941
1942
1943
1944
1945
massive; usually bilateral; hemorrhage into the adrenal glands caused by fulminant meningococcemia;Characterised by overwhelming bacterial infection; rapidly progressive hypotension leading to shock; disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) with widespread purpura; particularly of the skin; and rapidly developing adrenocortical insufficiency associated with massive bilateral adrenal hemorrhage.
1946
1947
HaEMOPhilus causes;1. Epiglottitis;2. Meningitis;3. Otitis media;4. Pneumonia;Does not cause flu (that's a virus)!
1948
1949
1950
1951
Aerosol
1952
1953
capsular type B
1954
1955
Ceftriaxone
1956
1957
Vaccine: Type B polysaccharide conjugated to diphtheria toxoid or other protein. Given between 2 and 18 months of age;Close contacts of infected person: Rifampin
1958
1959
Gram negative diverse group;Mnemonic: COFFEe;3. Capsule (K [kapsular] antigen related to virulence of the bug);2. O antigen (somatic antigen which is the polysaccharide of endotoxin);4. Flagella (H antigen found in motile species);5. Ferment glucose;6. Enterobacteriaceae (woo!)
1960
Q0981:Enterobacteriaceae list
1961
1. Escherichia coli;2. Klebsiella pneumoniae;3. Proteus mirablis;4. Enterobacter sp;5. Serratia;6. Shigella;7. Salmonella;8. Yersinia enterocolitica
1962
1963
1. Pneumonia in alcoholics and diabetics (In the name: Klebsiella pneumoniae);2. Nosocomial UTIs (large mucoid capsule and viscous colonies);Mnemonic: AAA (Aspiration pneumonia; Abscess in lungs; Alcoholics)
1964
1965
1966
1967
1968
1969
Klebsiella
1970
1971
Mnemonic: Test lactose with MacConKEES;1. Citrobacter;2. Klebsiella;3. E. coli;4. Enterobacter;5. Serratia
1972
1973
Neither
1974
1975
Both (Though; the evidence that shigella is motile is recent.);Can invade and disseminate hematogenously.
1976
1977
Salmonella: Yes;Shigella: No
1978
Q0990:Shigella transmission
1979
1980
1981
1982
1983
True
1984
1985
Monocytes
1986
1987
1988
1989
1990
1991
1992
1993
1994
1995
1. Staphylococcus Aureus (starts quickly and ends quickly);2. Salmonella (including poultry);3. Clostridium perfringens (reheated meat dishes);4. Vibrio (parahaemolyticus; vulnificus) (in seafood);5. E. coli O157:H7 (undercooked meat);6. Clostridium Botulinum (in sausage)
1996
1997
1998
1999
2000
2001
2002
2003
Clostridium botulinum;(BOTulinum is from bad BOTtles of food and honey and sausage)
2004
2005
Clostridium botulinum;(BOTulinum is from bad BOTtles of food and honey and sausage)
2006
2007
Clostridium botulinum;(BOTulinum is from bad BOTtles of food and honey and sausage)
2008
2009
Salmonella
2010
2011
Salmonella
2012
2013
2014
2015
Bloody
2016
2017
Bloody
2018
2019
Bloody
2020
2021
Bloody
2022
2023
Bloody
2024
2025
Bloody
2026
2027
Bloody
2028
2029
Bloody
2030
2031
Watery
2032
2033
Watery
2034
2035
Watery
2036
2037
Watery
2038
2039
Watery
2040
Q1021:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with oxidase-positive comma or S-shaped organisms grown at 42 degrees celsius
2041
Campylobacter
2042
Q1022:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with motile; lactose negative gram negative bugs
2043
2044
2045
2046
2047
2048
Q1025:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with pathologic section revealing bacteria invading colonic mucosa
2049
Enteroinvasive E. coli
2050
2051
Yersinia enterocolitica
2052
2053
Yersinia enterocolitica
2054
2055
Clostridium dificile
2056
2057
Entamoeba histolytica
2058
2059
2060
2061
Vibrio cholerae
2062
2063
Vibrio cholerae
2064
2065
Clostridium perfringens
2066
2067
2068
2069
2070
2071
Cholera: Permanently activates Gs (turns the "on" on);Pertussis: Permanently disables Gi (turns the "off" off)
2072
2073
A toxin in the Bacillus Anthracis exotoxin complex that functions as adenylyl cyclase
2074
2075
2076
2077
Caused by Legionella. Presents like influenza. Strikes suddenly and completely resolves in one week. Originally described in the Pontiac Michigan government AC.
2078
2079
2080
2081
2082
Q1042:Diagnosis: Pneumonia in a smoker >50 years of age. Gram stain of pus shows many neutrophils with few microbes.
2083
Legionella
2084
2085
Grows on charcoal yeast extract culture with iron and cysteine;Mnemonic: French legionnaire with silver helmet; sitting around a campfire (charcoal medium) with a canteen of water (water transmission) and his iron dagger-he is no sissy (cysteine).
2086
2087
Gram negative. Gram stains poorly (use silver stain);;Mnemonic: French legionnaire with silver helmet; sitting around a campfire (charcoal medium) with his iron dagger-he is no sissy (cysteine).
2088
2089
Aerosol transmission from environmental water sources (AC; Showers; whirlpools; cooling towers; supermarket produce mist);Mnemonic: French legionnaire with silver helmet; sitting around a campfire (charcoal medium) with a canteen of water (water transmission) and his iron dagger-he is no sissy (cysteine).
2090
2091
PSEUDDOburnnas;1. Pneumonia (especially in CF);2. Sepsis (black lesions on skin);3. External otitis (swimmer's ear);4. UTI (nosocomial and drug-resistant);5. Drug use;6. Diabetic Osteomyelitis;7. Burns and wound infections;8. Hot tub folliculitis
2092
2093
1. Gram-negative rod;2. non-lactose fermenting;3. Aerobic (think AERuginosa) and oxidase positive (cytochrome c oxidase for oxidative phosphorylation);4. Produces pyocyanin (blue-green) pigment;5. Fruity odor
2094
2095
Exotoxin A is an ADP ribosylating A-B toxin (similar to Diphtheria toxin);Mechanism;Inactivates elongation;factor 2 (EF-2);Also has endotoxin (as it is gram negative) which produces fever and shock.
2096
2097
2098
2099
2100
2101
Causes;1. Gastritis;2. 90% of duodenal ulcers;Risk factor for;1. Peptic ulcer;2. Gastric carcinoma
2102
2103
2104
2105
Triple treatment;1. Metronidazole with one of the two combos below;$;2. Bismuth (eg Pepto-Bismol);3. Either Tetracycline or Amoxicillin;$$;2. Omeprazole;3. Clarithromycin
2106
2107
2108
Q1055:Zoonotic bacteria
2109
1. Borrelia burdorferi;2. Francisella tularensis;3. Yersinia pestis;4. Pasteurella multocida;5. Brucella spp. (Undulant fever from dairy/contact with animals);Mnemonic: Bugs From Your Pet Undulate and Unpasteurized dairy gives you Undulant fever
2110
2111
Lyme disease
2112
2113
Undulant fever/Brucellosis. Temperature slowly rises during day; peaks in the evening; and slowly declines to normal by morning;Accompanied by other systemic symptoms.
2114
Q1058:Brucella: Transmission
2115
2116
2117
1. Penetration of skin (but no buboes or primary skin ulcer); conjunctiva; lungs; GI tract;2. Lymphatic spread;3. Facultative intracellular growth in macrophages; and blood and organ invasion
2118
2119
Tularemia; either;1. Pneumonic;2. Oculoglandular;3. Ulceroglandular;4. Typhoidal;(Don't POUT when you've got tularemia.)
2120
2121
a. Well-demarcated hole in the skin with a black base;b. Fever and systemic symptoms;c. Swollen/red/painful purulent lymph nodes;Similar to plague; but with skin ulcer; and low mortality.
2122
2123
Most common: Handling of infected rabbits or from bites of ticks and deer flies;Hundred creatures in total all over US;Mnemonic: Francis the rabbit is playing in the TULips; with a deerfly on one ear and a tick on the other.
2124
2125
2126
2127
2128
2129
PESTS like rats harbor the disease and fleas are the vector; biting the skin of humans. Found in campers; hunters; and hikers;Mnemonic: A rat driving a fuel-injected (F1) VW bug (V and W antigens) fleeing (flea-ing) from a macrophage.
2130
2131
Enables Yersinia pesitis to resist destruction after phagocytosis (facultative intracellular);Mnemonic: A rat driving a fuel-injected (F1) VW bug (V and W antigens) fleeing (flea-ing) from a macrophage.
2132
Q1067:V antigen
2133
Enables Yersinia pesitis to resist destruction after phagocytosis (facultative intracellular);Mnemonic: A rat driving a fuel-injected (F1) VW bug (V and W antigens) fleeing (flea-ing) from a macrophage.
2134
Q1068:W antigen
2135
Enables Yersinia pesitis to resist destruction after phagocytosis (facultative intracellular);Mnemonic: A rat driving a fuel-injected (F1) VW bug (V and W antigens) fleeing (flea-ing) from a macrophage.
2136
2137
1. Lymph node (usually inguinal [boubon is Greek for groin]) becomes inflamed (all four signs);2. Fever; and headache;3. Blackish discoloration under skin ("Black death")
2138
2139
2140
2141
Cat; dog; and animal bites. Also infects birds;Mnemonic: Cat and dog chasing a bird in a "Pasteur".
2142
2143
2144
Q1073:Pasteurella: Treatment
2145
Do not suture wound after dog or cat bite/scratch. (Best breeding ground for Pasteurella);Treat with penicillin or doxycycline.
2146
Q1074:Gardnerella: Characterization
2147
2148
2149
Vaginosis;1. Greenish vaginal discharge with fishy smell;2. Noninflammatory (nonpainful);3. Mobiluncus (anaerobe) is also seen;4. Clue cells are visible (vaginal epithelium covered with bacteria);5. Positive Whiff test
2150
2151
2152
2153
1. No infection;2. Anergy (due to: steroids; immunocompromise; malnutrition); inject candida/mumps vaccine into other arm. If still negative; anergic.
2154
2155
2156
2157
2158
2159
1. Inhaled aerosols from infected adults;2. Land in middle or lower lobes of lung (highest airflow) leading to small area of pneumonitis;3. Bacteria enter macrophages; multiply; and spread hematogenously.
2160
2161
1. Cell-mediated defense walls off foci of bacteria in caseous granulomas;2. Granulomas heal with fibrosis; calcification and scar formation
2162
2163
Ghon focus: Calcified tubercle in the middle or lower lung;Ghon complex: Ghon focus accompanied by perihilar or lobar lymph node calcified granulomas
2164
2165
Same as a Ghon complex: Ghon focus accompanied by perihilar or lobar lymph node calcified granulomas
2166
2167
1. Large caseous granulomas develop in the lungs/other organs;2. In the lungs; caseous material liquifies; is extruded out the bronchi and leaves cavitary lesions behind.
2168
2169
1. Infection occurs at apical areas of lung around the clavicles due to highest oxygen tension caused by decreased pulmonary circulation;2. Infected areas grow; caseate; liquify and cavitate.
2170
2171
1. Pulmonary (Lung parenchyma);2. Pleura;3. Pericardium;4. Scrofula (Cervical lymph nodes: most common extrapulmonary site worldwide);5. Kidney (Sterile pyuria);6. Thoracic and lumbar spine (Pott's disease);7. Chronic monoarthritis;8. CNS (subacute meningitis or parenchymal tuberculoma);9. Miliary TB (Millet sized tubercles all over the body)
2172
Q1087:Tuberculosis rule of 5s
2173
1. Droplet nuclei are 5 micrometers and contain 5 mycobacteria;2. 5% risk of reactivation in first 2 years and then 5% lifetime risk;3. Patients with HIV ("High five") have 5+5% yearly reactivation risk;4. Induration measurements;a. HIV: >5 mm;b. High risk: >5+5 mm;c. Everyone else: >5+5+5 mm
2174
2175
Severe bacteremia
2176
2177
Mnemonic: Identifying mycobacteria is no Light TASK;Mycobacterium;1. Leprae;2. Tuberculosis;3. Aviumintracellulare;4. Scrofulaceum;5. Kansasii
2178
2179
bugs are multiple drug resistant and cause disseminated disease in AIDS
2180
Q1091:Symptoms of tuberculosis
2181
2182
2183
leprosy
2184
2185
Mycobacterium leprae
2186
2187
1. Acid fast bacillus;2. Likes cool temperatures;3. Infects skin and superficial nerves;4. Cannot be grown invitro;5. Reservoir: Armadillos
2188
2189
2190
2191
2192
2193
1. Hemolysis;2. Methemoglobinemia
2194
2195
2196
Q1099:Rickettsiae: Characterization
2197
2198
2199
Coxiella: Atypical. Transmitted by aerosol and causes pneumonia;All others: Arthropod vector causes classic triad of headache; fever and rash (vasculitis)
2200
Q1101:Treatment of Rickettsiae
2201
Tetracycline
2202
2203
tyPHus is centriPHugal (moves outwards);sPotted fever is centriPetal (moves inwards);Both are caused by Rickettsiae
2204
2205
2206
2207
2208
2209
2210
2211
Endemic: Rickettsia typhi; transmitted by fleas;Epidemic: Rickettsia prowazekii; transmitted by human body louse
2212
2213
Coxiella burnetii; by inhaled aerosols from cowhide and placentas;Remember: Carol Burnett coughing "Q" after inhaling spores from cowhide.
2214
2215
Q fever is Queer. Rickettsial; but has an endospore; thus;1. Caused by Coxiella burnetii (not called Rickettsia);2. No rash;3. No vector (inhaled aerosols);4. Negative Weil-Felix;5. Causative organism can survive outside for a long time.
2216
2217
2218
2219
2220
2221
1. Rocky mountain spotted fever;2. Syphilis;3. Coxsackie virus A infection (hand; foot; and mouth disease)
2222
Q1112:Weil-Felix reaction
2223
2224
2225
positive
2226
2227
positive
2228
2229
negative
2230
Q1116:What bug: Atypical walking pneumonia in prisoner or military recruit younger than 30
2231
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
2232
2233
1. Atypical walking pneumonia (insidious onset; headache; non productive cough; diffuse interstitial infiltrate);2. X-ray looks worse than patient;3. High titer of cold agglutinins (IgM)
2234
2235
Eaton's agar
2236
2237
2238
2239
1. Facultative anaerobe with no cell wall (hence no gram stain);2. Only bacterial membrane with cholesterol;3. High titer of cold agglutinins;4. Grown on Eaton's agar
2240
2241
2242
Q1122:Characterize Chlamydia
2243
2244
2245
1. Elementary body (small; dense) which Enters cell via endocytosis;2. Initial or Reticulate body; which Replicates In cell by fission
2246
2247
1. Reactive arthritis (aka Reiter's syndrome);2. Conjunctivitis;3. Non-gonococcal urethritis; cervicitis; and PID
2248
2249
Atypical pneumonia
2250
2251
Atypical pneumonia
2252
Q1127:Chlamydia species
2253
2254
2255
2256
Q1129:Treatment of Chlamydia
2257
Erythromycin or tetracycline
2258
2259
Avian
2260
2261
Psittaci: Avian
2262
2263
2264
2265
2266
2267
2268
2269
Lymphogranuloma venereum ;1. acute lymphadenitis with a positive Frei test;2. ulcers;3. rectal strictures;Mnemonic: L13: Lymphogranuloma
2270
2271
2272
2273
Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K acquired by passage through infected birth canal. Treat with erythromycin eye drops.
2274
Q1138:Characterization of spirochetes
2275
2276
Q1139:List of spirochetes
2277
2278
Q1140:Visualization of Borrelia
2279
Light microscopy with choice of aniline dye;1. Wright's stain;2. Giemsa's stain
2280
2281
1. Erythema chronicum migrans and flu-like symptoms;2. Neurologic and cardiac manifestations;3. Autoimmune migratory polyarthritis
2282
2283
Mnemonic: BAKE a Key Lime pie;1. Bell's palsy (and other CNS manifestations in Stage 2);2. Arthritis (Autoimmune migratory in Stage 3);3. Kardiac block (Stage 2);4. Erythema chronicum migrans (Stage 1)
2284
2285
2286
2287
Erythema chronicum migrans; an expanding "bull's eye" red rash with central clearing. Stage 1.
2288
2289
White-footed mouse and other small rodens; and the whitetailed deer. Ixodes tick picks up bugs from these animals and transmits them.
2290
2291
2292
2293
Treponema Pallidum causes syphilis;Treponema Pertenue causes yaws (a non-STD tropical infection with positive VDRL)
2294
Q1148:What is yaws?
2295
Treponema Pertenue causes yaws (a non-STD tropical infection with positive VDRL)
2296
2297
2298
2299
Primary
2300
2301
Disseminated disease with;1. constitutional symptoms (fever; lymphadenopathy);2. maculopapular rash (palms and soles);3. condylomata lata;Mnemonic: Secondary means Systemic
2302
2303
Secondary syphilis
2304
2305
1. Gummas;2. Aortitis;3. Neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis; general paresis);4. Argyll Robertson pupil
2306
2307
tertiary syphilis
2308
2309
tertiary syphilis
2310
2311
tertiary syphilis
2312
2313
tertiary syphilis
2314
2315
Secondary syphilis
2316
2317
Secondary syphilis
2318
2319
2320
2321
2322
2323
2324
2325
2326
2327
Penicillin G
2328
2329
1. Broad-based ataxia;2. Positive Romberg sign;3. Charcot joints;4. Stroke without hypertension
2330
2331
Same as prostitute's pupil. Constricts with accommodation but is not reactive to light. Pathognomonic for tertiary syphilis.
2332
2333
Same as Argyll-Robertson pupil. Constricts with accommodation but is not reactive to light. Pathognomonic for tertiary syphilis.
2334
2335
FTA-ABS: Find the Antibody-Absolutely;1. Most specific for treponemes;2. Positive the earliest;3. Remains positive the longest
2336
2337
2338
2339
Probably false positive;VDRL;1. Viruses (mono; hepatitis);2. Drugs;3. Rheumatic fever and rheumatoid arthritis;4. Lupus and leprosy
2340
2341
2342
2343
Gram+ cocci in clusters; catalase+; coagulase+; beta hemolytic; ferments mannitol; salt tolerant
2344
2345
2346
2347
2348
Q1175:Characteristics of S. pneumoniae
2349
Gram+ catalase- lancet-chapes diplococci in chains; alpha hemolytic; "MOPS" optochin sensitive; bile soluble; +quellung
2350
2351
2352
Q1177:Characteristics of S. pyogenes
2353
2354
Q1178:Characteristics of S. agalactiae
2355
Gram+ catalase- cocci; group A; beta hemolytic; bacitracin resistant; cAMP test+
2356
Q1179:Characteristics of Enterococcus
2357
Gram+ catalase- cocci; PYR+; hydrolizes esculin in 40% bile and 6.5% NaCl
2358
2359
2360
2361
2362
2363
2364
2365
2366
2367
Gram+ aerobic club-shaped rods; V or L shapes on tellurite; metachromatic granules on Leoffler. beta-prophage contains diptheria toxin gene (lysogeny)
2368
Q1185:Characteristics of Bacillus
2369
2370
Q1186:Characteristics of Listeria
2371
Gram+ rods with tumbling or actin jet motility; beta hemolutic; cold growth; facultative intracellular
2372
Q1187:Characteristics of Actinomyces
2373
2374
Q1188:Characteristics of Nocardia
2375
2376
2377
Acid-fast aerobic rods on Lowenstein-Jensen medium; auramine-rhodamine stainning (fluorescent apple green). Mycolic acid lipids on cell wall
2378
2379
Acid-fast aerobic rods; can't be cultured (obligate intracellular). Mycolic acid lipids on cell wall
2380
2381
Gram- kidneybean-shaped diplococci; growws on chocolate agar; maltose fermenter; polysaccharide capsule
2382
2383
2384
2385
Gram- cocobacillus; requires factor X and V (chocolate agar). Satellite phenomenon near staph aureus on blood agar
2386
Q1194:Characteristics of Pasteurella
2387
2388
Q1195:Characteristics of Brucella
2389
2390
2391
2392
Q1197:Characteristics of Klebsiella
2393
2394
Q1198:Characteristics of E. coli
2395
2396
Q1199:Characteristics of Shigella
2397
2398
Q1200:Characteristics of Salmonella
2399
2400
Q1201:Characteristics of Proteus
2401
Gram- nonlactose-fermenting rods with swarming motility; H2S producer; urease+; oxidase-
2402
Q1202:Characteristics of Pseudomonas
2403
Gram- nonlactose-fermenting rods on MacConkey oxidase+; aerobic; produces green pigment pyocyanin
2404
Q1203:Characteristics of C. jejuni
2405
2406
Q1204:Characteristics of H. pylori
2407
2408
2409
Gram- nonlactose-fermenting curved rod with flagella; oxidase+ grows on alkaline media (thiosulfate)
2410
Q1206:Characteristics of Francisella
2411
2412
Q1207:Characteristics of Yersinia
2413
2414
Q1208:Characteristics of Gardnerella
2415
2416
Q1209:Characteristics of Bacteroides
2417
2418
Q1210:Characteristics of Treponema
2419
2420
Q1211:Characteristics of Borrelia
2421
2422
Q1212:Characteristics of Leptospira
2423
2424
Q1213:Characteristics of Rickettsia
2425
2426
Q1214:Characteristics of Coxiella
2427
2428
Q1215:Characteristics of Chlamydia
2429
Obligate intracellular bug seen in Giemsa stain. Wall lacks muramic acid. Elementary body is infective; reticulate bodies are replicating in the cell
2430
Q1216:Characteristics of Mycoplasma
2431
Lacks peptidoglycan cell wall; does not gram stain. Cholesterols in membrane
2432
2433
2434
2435
2436
2437
Bacillis Anthrax
2438
2439
2440
2441
Log phase
2442
Q1222:Definition;substance that binds directly to MHC-II and T-cell receptors activating a large number of T-cells to stimulate release of IL-1 and IL-2
2443
2444
2445
Corynebacterium diphtheria;;Vibrio;;E.coli;;B.pertussis
2446
2447
Corynebacterium diphtheria
2448
2449
Alpha toxin
2450
2451
Glycine
2452
2453
Shiga Toxin;bugs;Shigella;E.coli
2454
2455
2456
2457
2458
2459
2460
Q1231:Catalase positive
2461
Staph;(coagulase+ = Aureus)
2462
Q1232:(4)* Dx that Strep Pneumonae is MCC of;what are they sensitive to?
2463
2464
2465
2466
2467
2468
2469
Anthrax
2470
2471
Salmonella
2472
2473
Clostridium Perfringens
2474
2475
S.Aureus
2476
2477
Pseudomonas
2478
2479
2480
2481
"Conidia"
2482
2483
Coccidioidomycosis
2484
2485
Histoplasmosis
2486
2487
Blastomycosis
2488
2489
Parvovirus;("Part-of-a-virus")
2490
2491
Reovirus;("Repeat-O-virus")
2492
Q1247:which virus class gets its envelope from the nuclear membrane versus the cytoplasmic membrane?
2493
Herpesviruses
2494
2495
Papova;Hepadna
2496
2497
Poxvirus
2498
2499
2500
2501
Group B Strep;;E.coli
2502
2503
Strep Pneumonia;H.Influenzae
2504
Q1253:MCC of meningitis in 6 yo - 60 yo
2505
N. Meningitis
2506
2507
S. Pneumonia
2508
2509
ToRCHeS;Toxoplasmosis;Rubella;CMV;HSV;Syphilis
2510
2511
S.Aureus
2512
2513
H.influenzae
2514
2515
Actinomyces israelii
2516
2517
C.perfringens
2518
2519
S.Aureus
2520
2521
Pasturella
2522
2523
Group B strep
2524
2525
2526
2527
2528
Q1265:Mycoplasma cell membranes contain what; making them different from all other bacterial cell membranes?
2529
Cholesterol
2530
2531
Peptidoglycan
2532
2533
2534
Q1268:Bacteria contain mono- and poly-cistronic mRNA. The presence of what allows for this?
2535
2536
2537
2538
Q1270:Important normal flora of cutaneous surfaces; including urethra and outer ear
2539
Common: Staph epidermidis;Less common: Staph aureus; Corynebacteria (diphtheroids); streptococci; yeasts (Candida spp.)
2540
2541
2542
2543
Common: Viridians streptococci; including Strep mutans;Less common: assorted Streptococci; nonpathogenic Neisseria; nontypeable H. flu (unencapsulated)
2544
2545
2546
2547
2548
2549
Common: Bacteriodes (predominant;) Escherichia; Bifidobacterium;Less common: Eubacterium; Fusobacterium; Lactobacillus; gram-negative anaerobic rods; Strep faecalis and other streptococci
2550
2551
Common: Lactobacillus; group B strep in 15-20% of women;Less common: assorted streptococci; gram-negative rods; diphtheroids; yeasts
2552
Q1277:Encapsulated bacteria
2553
Strep pneumo; Klebsiella pneumo; Haemophilus influenza; Pseudomonas aeruginosa; Neisseria meningitidis; Cryptococcus neoformans
2554
Q1278:These bacteria can adhere to inert materials through the creation of biofilms
2555
2556
2557
Strep mutans
2558
2559
Pili/fimbriae (in gram negative cells);Teichoic acids (in gram positive cells);Adhesins (colonizing factor; pertussis toxin; hemagglutinins);IgA proteases (cleaved Fc portion may coat bacteria and bind them to cellular Fc receptors)
2560
2561
M protein
2562
2563
2564
2565
A protein
2566
2567
2568
Q1285:Siderophores
2569
these chelate ("steal") and import iron into bacteria; effectively obtaining needed nutrients
2570
2571
2572
2573
2574
Q1288:Invasins
2575
surface proteins that allow an organism to bind to and invade normally non-phagocytic human cells; thus escaping the immune system (such as in Yersinia pseudotuberculosis)
2576
2577
LPS
2578
2579
2580
2581
Lipid A; generally not released until cell death;Exception: N. meningitidis overproduces outer membrane fragments
2582
Q1292:Mechanism of LPS
2583
activates macrophages; leading to release of TNF-a; IL-1; and IL-6. This leads to tissue damage. Damage to the endothelium from bradykinin-induced vasodilation leads to shock; and DIC is mediated through the activation of Hageman factor.
2584
2585
2586
Q1294:Protein toxins secreted from bacterial cells (both gram positive and gram negative)
2587
Exotoxins
2588
2589
Yes; these are modifiable by heat or chemicals to a nontoxic but immunogenic form useful for vaccination.
2590
2591
B component Binds specific receptors to assist the internalization of A;A component is the Active component (often an enzyme)
2592
2593
Diphtheria toxin;ADP ribosyl transferase inactivates EF2;Primarily targets heart; nerves and epithelium;Inhibits eukaryotic cell protein synthesis
2594
2595
Exotoxin A;ADP ribosyl transferase inactivates EF-2;Primary target is the liver;Inhibits eukaryotic protein synthesis
2596
2597
Shiga toxin;Interferes with 60s ribosomal subunit;Inhibits protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells;Enterotoxic; cytotoxic and neurotoxic
2598
2599
Verotoxin (shiga-like toxin);Interferes with 60s ribosomal subunit;Inhibits protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells
2600
2601
Tetanus toxin;Blocks release of inhibitory transmitters glycine and GABA;Inhibits neurotransmission in inhibitory synapses
2602
2603
2604
2605
2606
2607
An endotoxin enhancer; this toxin is pyrogenic and decreases liver clearance of LPS and superantigen;Causes fever; increases susceptibility to LPS; rash; shock and capillary leakage
2608
2609
In Staph aureus; this toxin intercalates and forms pores in the cell membrane of eukaryotic cells;In C. perfringens; this toxin is a lecithinase that damages cell membranes and causes myonecrosis
2610
2611
Exotoxin A; aka pyrogenic toxin;Similar to TSST-1;Endotoxin enhancer;Fever; increased suceptibility to LPS; rash; shock; capillary leakage; cardiotoxicity
2612
2613
Heat labile Toxin (LT);Stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation of GTP binding protein;Promotes secretion of fluid and electrolytes from intestinal epithelium;A cAMP inducer toxin
2614
2615
Cholera toxin;similar to E coli LT-- stimulates an adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation;Profuse; watery diarrhea
2616
2617
Anthrax toxin (3 proteins; 2 toxins);EF = edema factor -> adenylate cyclase;LF = lethal factor;PA = protective antigen (B component for both);Decreases phagocytosis; causes edema; kills cells
2618
2619
Pertussis toxin;ADP ribosylates Gi; the negative regulator of adenylate cyclase -> increased cAMP;Histamine sensitizing;Lymphocytosis promotion;Islet activation
2620
2621
2622
Q1312:Bacterial capsule
2623
present in many gram positive and gram negative bacteria; composed of polysaccharide gel (except B. anthracis); protects against phagocytosis until opsonized; immunogenic (except S. pyogenes and N. meningitidis.)
2624
2625
2626
2627
2628
2629
Gram-negative only;Lipid A & polysaccharide (LPS);LPS = endotoxin;Lipid A = toxic moiety;PS = immunogenic portion;Contains protein porins for passive transport and proteins for attachment and virulence
2630
2631
Made of peptidoglycan; net of NAG-NAM ;Functions to provide support; cell shape and protection from osmotic damage;Synthesis inhibited by penicillins and cephalosporins;Confers gram reaction
2632
Q1317:Gram positives have this in their cell wall; which gram negative bacteria do not. What is its function?
2633
2634
Q1318:Acid-fast bacteria have this in their cell wall; which other bacteria do not. What is its function?
2635
2636
2637
Gram negative bacteria only;Located between inner and outer cell membranes;Contains enzymes to break down large molecules; aids regulation of osmolarity
2638
2639
Gram positive and gram negative;Phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins;Selective permeability and active transport;Carrier enzymes for oxidative metabolism; phosphorylation; phospholipid synthesis; DNA replication; peptidoglycan crosslinking; penicillin binding proteins
2640
2641
Primarily gram negative;Made of glycoprotein (pilin);Adherence to cell surfaces; attachment to other bacteria during conjugation
2642
2643
2644
2645
2646
Q1324:Acid fast bacteria turn this color with methylene blue stain
2647
2648
2649
Mycobacterium;Legionella;Nocardia (partially)
2650
2651
2652
2653
2654
2655
Gram positive only;Made of keratin coat; calcium dipicolinate;Confers resistance to heal; chemicals and dehydration (not reproductive)
2656
2657
2658
2659
thioglycolate
2660
2661
2662
2663
2664
2665
2666
2667
TCBS (thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose agar) (selective);This organism likes an alkaline growth medium
2668
2669
2670
2671
2672
2673
Chocolate agar
2674
2675
Thayer-Martin selective medium (selective);This is a chocolate agar with vancomycin; nystatin and colistin to inhibit normal flora
2676
2677
2678
2679
2680
2681
2682
2683
Mycobacterium;Pseudomonas;(Bacillus)
2684
Q1343:Superoxide dismutase
2685
2686
2687
Campylobacter;Helicobacter
2688
Q1345:Obligate anaerobes
2689
Actinomyces;Bacteriodes;Clostridium
2690
Q1346:DTaP vs DTP
2691
Diphtheria-- diphtheria toxoid;Tetanus-- tetanus toxoid;Pertussis -- killed pertussis cells vs acellular pertusis toxoid; filamentous hemagglutinin and pertacin.
2692
Q1347:Neisseria vaccine is active against these capsular polysaccharides; but not against which one that causes 50% of US cases?
2693
Active against Y; W-135; C and A;Not active against B (capsule is sialic acid; non-immunogenic)
2694
2695
supernatant of partially purified proteins used as vaccine for military or occupational usage
2696
2697
2698
2699
protects against 95% of US cases;capsular polysaccharide conjugated to protein; making a T cell dependent vaccine which infants respond to
2700
Q1351:BCG vaccine
2701
attenuated strain of mycobacterium bovis;does not prevent pulmonary TB; but does prevent dissemination;not used in US
2702
2703
Killed cellular F-1 antigen vaccine;Used in military in endemic areas and with laboratory workers
2704
2705
Neisseria & Moraxella ;have what shape; respiration and gram stain?
2706
2707
Pseudomonas; Legionella; Brucella; Bordetella; Francisella;have what shape; respiration and gram stain?
2708
2709
2710
2711
2712
2713
Bacillus; Listeria; Corynebacterium; Nocardia; Mycobacterium;have what shape; respiration and gram stain?
2714
2715
Clostridium; Actinomyces; Eubacterium; Propionibacterium; Lactobacillus;have what shape; respiration and gram stain?
2716
2717
2718
2719
2720
2721
Esherichia; Shigella; Salmonella; Citrobacter; Klebsiella; Enterobacer; Serratia; Proteus; Yersinia; Vibrio; Pasteurella; Haemophilus;have what shape; respiration and gram stain?
2722
2723
Bacteroides; prevotella; Fusobacterium; spirochetes; Rickettsia; Chlamydia;have what shape; respiration and gram stain?
2724
Q1363:Spirochetes
2725
2726
2727
2728
2729
Coagulase positive; Beta-hemolytic;Contains protein A; TSST-1; enterotoxins; exfoliatins; cytolysins;Causes: osteomyelitis; infective endocarditis in IVDU; abscesses; TSS; gastroenteritis and suppurative lesions
2730
2731
coagulase negative; no hemolysis; susceptible to novobiocin;Part of normal skin flora; can form a biofilm;Causes: catheter and device infections; endocarditis in IVDU
2732
2733
coagulase negative; non-hemolytic; resistant to novobiocin;Causes: UTIs in newly sexually active women
2734
2735
2736
2737
2738
2739
2740
2741
2742
2743
2744
2745
2746
2747
Streptococci are serotyped by what; using known antigens to cell wall carbohydrates?
2748
2749
2750
2751
Lancefield Group: B;Hemolysis: beta;Bacitracin resistant; hippurate utilized; cAMP test positive
2752
2753
Lancefield Group: D;Hemolysis: alpha; beta or none;Growth in 6.5% NaCl; PYR test positive
2754
2755
2756
2757
2758
2759
2760
2761
2762
Q1382:Rheumatic fever occurs after this; and manifests through this mechanism
2763
post-streptococcal pharyngitis with group A strep;antibodies to heart tissue (mean 19 days);fever; joint inflammation; carditis
2764
Q1383:post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis occurs after this infection; and manifests in this manner.
2765
post-strep pharyngitis; immune complexes bind to glomeruli; leading to pulmonary edema; hypertension and dark urine.
2766
2767
2768
2769
2770
2771
antecedent influeza or measles infection; COPD; congestive heart failure; alcoholism; asplenia;... predispose to what infection?
2772
2773
IgA protease aids colonization;Teichoic acids aid attachment and are highly inflammatory in CNS;Polysaccharide capsule; major virulence factor; inhibits phagocytosis;pneumolysin O is a hemolysin
2774
2775
this test demonstrates capsular swelling with type-specific antiserum in Strep pneumo
2776
2777
this test for capsular antigen in spinal fluid is diagnostic for S. pneumo meningitis
2778
Q1390:Actions of pneumolysin O
2779
This hemolysin/cytolysin in S. pneumo causes;damage to respiratory epithelium;inhibition of classical complement fixation;inhibition of leukocyte respiratory burst
2780
2781
2782
2783
2784
2785
2786
2787
2788
2789
medical procedures in GI or GU tract --> bloodstream --> previously damaged heart valves --> endocarditis
2790
Q1396:Disease associated with group D Gram-positive cocci in chains; PYR test +; with variable hemolysis
2791
2792
2793
resistant strains of this have D-alanyl D-lactate as terminal of the UDP-N-acetylmuramyl pentapeptide; which functions in cell wall synthesis but is not inhibited by the drug in question
2794
2795
2796
2797
2798
2799
These rascals may microscopically lack color;1. Treponema;2. Rickettsia;3. Mycobacterium;4. Mycoplasma;5. Legionella;6. Chlamydia
2800
2801
CAPE;1. Cholera;2. Anthracis (poly D glutamate capsule);3. Pertussis (via Gi);4. E. coli (LT enterotoxin)
2802
2803
Some killers have pretty nice capsules;1. Strep pneumo;2. Klebsiella;3. H. influenza ;4. P. aeruginosa;5. Neisseria meningitidis;6. Cryptococcus neoformans
2804
2805
Can Also Have Both Shapes;1. Cocciodes;2. Aspergillus;3. Histoplasma;4. Blastomyces;5. Sporothrix
2806
2807
Bacillus;Clostridium
2808
2809
2810
Q1406:Wayson's stain
2811
Yersinia
2812
Q1407:Invasins
2813
Yersinia Pseudotuberculosis
2814
2815
Pseudomonas;Mycobacterium
2816
2817
Clostridium;Actinomyces;Bacteroides
2818
2819
S. aureus
2820
2821
C. diphtheria;Nocardia
2822
2823
Strep pneumo
2824
2825
Campylobacter
2826
2827
C. diphtheria
2828
2829
Yersinia
2830
2831
HSV
2832
2833
Pox virus
2834
2835
S. aureus;Yersinia pestis
2836
2837
Chlamydia;Rickettsia;M. leprae
2838
2839
Mycoplasma pneumonia
2840
2841
Malassazia furfur
2842
2843
Measles
2844
2845
B. anthracis;C. perfringens
2846
Q1424:Indian ink
2847
Cryptococcus neoformans
2848
2849
Francisella;Brucella;Legionella;Pastuerella
2850
2851
P. aeruginosa
2852
2853
Strep pneumo
2854
2855
Strep. viridans
2856
Q1429:Novobiocin resistant
2857
Staph Saprophyticus
2858
Q1430:Novobiocin sensitive
2859
Staph Epidermidis
2860
2861
Strep. pyogenes
2862
2863
S. Agalactiae
2864
Q1433:Lecithinase
2865
Clostridium Perfringens
2866
Q1434:Gas Gangrene
2867
C. perfringens
2868
2869
Enterotoxin;Cytotoxin
2870
Q1436:Microbe whose toxin inhibits ACh release and causes Flaccid paralysis
2871
C. botulinum
2872
2873
Infant Botulinum
2874
2875
Neisseria
2876
2877
Ceftriazone
2878
2879
Klebsiella
2880
2881
V. cholera
2882
Q1442:Cat bites
2883
Pasteurella multocida
2884
2885
2886
Q1444:Lowenstein-Jensen medium
2887
M. tuberculosis
2888
2889
B. anthracis
2890
2891
Rickettsia;Proteus
2892
2893
Methicillin
2894
2895
Metronidazole
2896
2897
Sulfonamides
2898
2899
Penicillin
2900
2901
Ceftriaxone
2902
2903
Erythromycin
2904
2905
2906
2907
Triple therapy- (1)Bismuth; metronidazole & either tetracycline or amoxicillin;(2)Metronidazole; omeprazole; clarithromycin
2908
2909
Metronidazole
2910
2911
Long-term oral dapsone;Alternate tx's include rifampin & combo of clofazimine & dapsone
2912
2913
Tetracycline
2914
2915
Tetracycline or erythromycin
2916
2917
Erythromycin or tetracycline
2918
2919
Tetracycline
2920
2921
Penicillin G
2922
2923
2924
2925
2926
2927
2928
2929
2930
2931
2932
2933
TMP-SMX
2934
2935
2936
2937
2938
2939
Metronidazole
2940
2941
Quinine; clindamycin
2942
2943
2944
2945
2946
2947
Metronidazole
2948
2949
Nifurtimox
2950
2951
Sodium stibogluconate
2952
2953
2954
2955
Penicillin G
2956
2957
Penicillin
2958
2959
Erythromycin
2960
2961
2962
2963
2964
2965
Only tx s. dysenteriae
2966
2967
2968
2969
2970
2971
Metronidazole
2972
2973
Ampicillin; cephalosporin
2974
2975
2976
2977
Penicillin G
2978
2979
2980
2981
2982
2983
2984
2985
2986
2987
Ampicillin
2988
2989
Streptomycin
2990
2991
Doxycycline
2992
2993
Doxycycline
2994
2995
Streptomycin
2996
2997
2998
2999
IV Penicillin
3000
3001
All DNA viruses except for Parvoviridae;Mnemonic: All are dsDNA like ours; except "Part-of-a-virus" which is ss.
3002
3003
Parvoviridae
3004
3005
3006
3007
3008
3009
All except Reovirus (ds);Mnemonic: All are ssRNA like ours; except "RepatO-virus" which is ds.
3010
3011
Reovirus (ds);Mnemonic: All are ssRNA like ours; except "RepatO-virus" which is ds.
3012
3013
3014
3015
3016
3017
#NAME?
3018
3019
- strand ssRNA;Mnemonic: Always Bring Polymerase Or Fail Replication;1. Arena;2. Bunya;3. Paramyxo;4. Orthomyxo;5. Filo;6. Rhabdo
3020
Q1511:Which enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from the plasma membrane?
3021
3022
Q1512:Which enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from the nuclear membrane?
3023
Only herpesviruses
3024
3025
3026
3027
Retroviruses
3028
3029
3030
3031
3032
3033
Mnemonic: DNA viruses are HHAPPPy;1. Hepadna;2. Herpesviruses;3. Adenovirus;4. Parvovirus;5. Papovavirus;6. Poxvirus
3034
3035
3036
3037
3038
3039
3040
3041
3042
3043
3044
3045
3046
3047
3048
3049
Live attenuated
3050
3051
Live attenuated
3052
3053
3054
3055
Live attenuated
3056
3057
Live attenuated
3058
3059
3060
3061
Killed; egg-based;Mnemonic: FRY an egg (Flu; mmR; Yellow fever);Mnemonic: RIP Always (Rabies; Influenza; salk Polio; hAv)
3062
3063
3064
3065
3066
3067
3068
3069
Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology
3070
Q1536:What is this viral process: Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology
3071
Viral recombination
3072
3073
Viruses with segmented genomes exchange segments. Same as high frequency recombination. Cause of worldwide pandemics.
3074
Q1538:What is this viral process: Viruses with segmented genomes exchange segments.
3075
3076
3077
When 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cell has a mutation that results in nonfunctional protein and the non-mutated virus "complements" the mutated one by making a functional protein that serves both viruses.
3078
Q1540:What is this viral process: When 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cell has a mutation that results in nonfunctional protein and the non-mutated virus makes a functional protein that serves both viruses.
3079
Viral Complementation
3080
3081
Genome of virus A can be coated with the surface proteins of virus B. Type B protein coat determines the infectivity of the phenotypically mixed virus. Progeny of type A however have type A coat from type A genes.
3082
Q1542:What is this viral process: Genome of virus A can be coated with the surface proteins of virus B. Type B protein coat determines the infectivity of the phenotypically mixed virus.
3083
Viral Phenotypic Mixing;Progeny of type A however have type A coat from type A genes.
3084
3085
3086
3087
1. Measles;2. Mumps;3. Rubella;4. RSV;5. Rabies;6. HTLV;7. HIV;8. Influenza;9. Parainfluenza;Mnem: MMRRHHflu
3088
3089
Mnemonic: Naked CPR;1. Calicivirus;2. Picornavirus [Enteroviruses (polio; coxsackie; echo; HAV); Rhino];3. Reovirus
3090
3091
3092
3093
Mnem: Always Bring Polymerase or Fail Replication;1. Arenaviruses;2. Bunyaviruses;3. Paramyxoviruses;4. Orthomyxoviruses;5. Filoviruses;6. Rhabdoviruses
3094
Q1548:Segmented viruses
3095
3096
3097
3098
3099
3100
3101
3102
3103
3104
3105
Mnemonic: The COP BARFeD up a helix;1. Corona;2. Orthomyxo;3. Paramyxo;4. Bunya;5. Arena;6. Rhabdo;7. Filo;8. Delta
3106
3107
3108
3109
1. Oral (and some genital) lesions (Gingivostomatitis);2. Keratoconjunctivitis;3. Temporal lobe encephalitis
3110
3111
3112
3113
3114
3115
3116
3117
1. Infection in immunosuppressed (especially transplant);2. Congenital defects;3. Mononucleosis (negativie Monospot);4. Pneumonia
3118
3119
Roseola (exanthem subitum);1. High fever lasting 3 to 5 days which resolves and is followed by a;2. Rash: mostly on trunk; lasting a day or two
3120
3121
3122
3123
3124
3125
3126
3127
B19 virus causes;1. Aplastic crises in sickle cell disease;2. "slapped cheeks" rash---erythema infectiosum (fifth disease);3. Hydrops fetalis
3128
3129
1. PApilloma;2. POlyoma (human BK and JC);3. Simian VAcuolating virus (does not affect humans)
3130
3131
causes warts and cervical cancer; including CIN (cervical intraepithelial neoplasia)
3132
3133
3134
3135
3136
Q1569:List of Picornaviruses
3137
3138
3139
Fecal-oral transmission
3140
Q1571:What is IPV?
3141
3142
Q1572:What is OPV?
3143
3144
3145
Aseptic meningitis
3146
3147
"common cold"
3148
3149
1. Aseptic meningitis;2. herpangina-febrile pharyngitis;3. hand; foot; and mouth disease;4. myocarditis
3150
Q1576:List of Caliciviruses
3151
3152
3153
viral gastroenteritis
3154
Q1578:List of Reoviruses
3155
Reovirus; Rotavirus
3156
3157
3158
3159
3160
3161
1. HCV;2. Yellow fever;3. Dengue;4. St. Louis encephalitis;5. West Nile virus
3162
Q1582:List of Arboviruses
3163
3164
3165
3166
Q1584:List of Retroviruses
3167
1. HIV;2. HTLV
3168
3169
3170
3171
Influenza
3172
Q1587:List of Paramyxoviruses
3173
3174
3175
croup
3176
3177
3178
3179
Rabies
3180
3181
3182
3183
3184
3185
lymphocytic choriomeningitis
3186
3187
3188
3189
3190
Q1596:Characterize Picornaviruses
3191
1. 1 large polypeptide that is cleaved by proteases into functional viral proteins;2. All except Rhino and HAV can cause aseptic meningitis
3192
3193
100
3194
3195
3196
3197
3198
3199
Mnemonic: Mumps make your parotid glands and testes as big as POM-poms;1. Parotitis;2. Orchitis (inflammation of testes; can cause sterility especially after puberty);3. Meningitis
3200
3201
1. Koplik spots (bluish-gray spots on buccal mucosa) diagnostic;2. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (child; many years after measles infection; slowly progressing);3. Encephalitis;4. Giant cell pneumonia (in immunosuppressed);5. 3 Cs: (Cough; coryza; conjunctivitis);6. Head to toe rash lasting 6 days (slowly dripping bucket of paint)
3202
3203
3204
3205
Drift: Minor changes based on random mutation;Shift: Reassortment of viral genome (such as when flu A virus recombines with swine flu A virus);Sudden Shift is more deadly than graDual Drift
3206
3207
A only: Amantadine and rimantadine;A and B: Zanamivir and Oseltamivir (neuraminidase inhibitors) for both influenza A and B
3208
3209
3210
3211
Bullet shaped.
3212
3213
1. Animal bite;2. Virus travels to CNS in retrograde fashion up nerve axons;3. Incubates for weeks to 3 months
3214
3215
3216
3217
3218
3219
break-bone fever; caused by flaviviruses. A variant in Southeast Asia is hemorrhagic shock syndrome.
3220
3221
3222
3223
3224
3225
3226
3227
3228
3229
Respiratory secretions
3230
3231
3232
3233
3234
3235
Sexual contact
3236
3237
Ganciclovir or Foscarnet
3238
3239
B cells
3240
3241
3242
3243
3244
3245
1. Monospot test: Heterophil antibodies detected by agglutination of sheep RBCs. In EBV; positive. In CMV; negative;2. Abnormal circulating CD8 cells.
3246
Q1624:Tzanck test
3247
Smear of opened skin vesicle to detect multinucleated giant cells. Used to assay for HSV-1; HSV-2; VZV;Mnem: Tzanck heavens I do not have herpes. (helps if you do it in an eastern european accent)
3248
Q1625:HAV: Virus family; nucleic acid type; envelope; incubation period; transmission; carriers
3249
3250
Q1626:HBV: Virus family; nucleic acid type; envelope; incubation period; transmission; carriers
3251
Virus family: dsDNA hepadna virus;Envelope: yes;Incubation period: Long (3 months);Transmission: Parenteral; sexual; in utero;Carriers: Yes
3252
Q1627:HCV: Virus family; nucleic acid type; envelope; incubation period; transmission; carriers
3253
Virus family: ssRNA flavivirus;Envelope: yes;Incubation period: Variable (2 weeks to 5 months);Transmission: Blood;Carriers: Yes
3254
Q1628:HDV: Virus family; nucleic acid type; envelope; incubation period; transmission; carriers
3255
Virus family: ssRNA deltavirus;Envelope: yes;Incubation period: Variable (2 weeks to 2 months);Transmission: Parenteral; sexual; in utero;Carriers: Yes
3256
Q1629:HEV: Virus family; nucleic acid type; envelope; incubation period; transmission; carriers
3257
Virus family: ssRNA calicivirus;Envelope: no;Incubation period: Variable (2 weeks to 2 months);Transmission: Fecaloral;Carriers: No
3258
Q1630:Characterize Hepatitis A
3259
3260
Q1631:Characterize Hepatitis B
3261
Blood borne
3262
Q1632:Characterize Hepatitis C
3263
3264
Q1633:Characterize Hepatitis D
3265
3266
Q1634:Characterize Hepatitis E
3267
3268
3269
3270
3271
3272
3273
3274
3275
3276
3277
Antibody to core antigen. Positive during window period (no HBsAg or HBsAb detected). IgM HBcAb is an indicator of recent disease.
3278
3279
A second different antigenic determinant in the HBV core. Important indicator of transmissibility. (BEware!)
3280
3281
3282
3283
Acute disease. (HBcAb is IgM in acute stage; and IgG in chronic or recovered stage.)
3284
3285
3286
3287
Complete recovery.
3288
3289
3290
Q1646:What is gag?
3291
3292
Q1647:What is env?
3293
Gene that encodes for gp41 and gp120 proteins; the envelope proteins in HIV.
3294
Q1648:What is p17?
3295
3296
Q1649:What is p24?
3297
3298
Q1650:What is gp41?
3299
Envelope protein which traverses bilayer. If it is a mushroom stalk; then gp120 is the head. Both coded for by env.
3300
Q1651:What is gp120?
3301
Envelope protein that serves as mushroom cap to gp41 stalk. Both coded for by env.
3302
Q1652:What is pol?
3303
3304
3305
Presumptive diagnosis: ELISA (sensitive; high false-positive rate; and low threshhold);Confirmation: Western blot assay (specific; high false-negative rate; and high threshold);PCR viral load used to monitor drug therapy on viral load
3306
3307
ELISA/Western blot often;Falsely negative in first 1-2 months of HIV infection;Falsely positive initially in babies born to infected mothers (anti-gp120 crosses placenta)
3308
Q1655:AIDS diagnosis
3309
One of the following;1. less than 200 CD4 cells;2. HIV positive with AIDS indicator condition (eg pneumocystis infection);3. CD4/CD8 ratio less than 1.5
3310
3311
HIV susceptibility;Homozygous means immunity; heterozygous means slower course (long-term non production)
3312
Q1657:CXCR1 mutation
3313
3314
3315
% of US caucasians;Homozygous: 1;Heterozygous: 20
3316
3317
In descending order;1. CD4 lymphocytes (initial trough);2. Virus p24 antigen (initial peak);3. Anti-p24 Ab;4. Anti-gp120 Abs;Highest period of acute symptoms
3318
3319
In descending order;1. CD4 lymphocytes (rise from initial trough back to near pre-infection levels before leveling out [the mark of end of acute symptoms]);2. Anti-p24 Ab (Reaching peak [not reached until approximately 3 years]);3. Anti-gp120 Abs (Reaching peak [not reached until approximately 3 years]);4. Virus p24 antigen (very low levels)
3320
Q1661:Relative HIV-related levels more than 3 years after infection: Early phase
3321
In descending order;1. CD4 lymphocytes (begins linear descent);2. Anti-p24 Ab (descent begins at faster rate than CD4);3. Anti-gp120 Abs (slow descent begins);4. Virus p24 antigen (slow rise)
3322
Q1662:Relative HIV-related levels more than 3 years after infection: First middle phase
3323
In descending order;1. CD4 lymphocytes (continues linear descent);2. Anti-gp120 Abs (slow descent continues);3. Antip24 Ab (having dropped below Anti-gp120; descent continues at slower rate);4. Virus p24 antigen (fast rise begins)
3324
Q1663:Relative HIV-related levels more than 3 years after infection: Second middle phase
3325
In descending order;1. CD4 lymphocytes (continues linear descent);AND;1. Virus p24 antigen (already passed gp-120 Abs and about to pass CD4 lymphocytes);3. Anti-gp120 Abs (slow descent continues);3. Anti-p24 Ab (approximately 1/3 amount of p24 antigen; slow descent continues)
3326
Q1664:Relative HIV-related levels more than 3 years after infection: Third middle phase
3327
In descending order;1. Virus p24 antigen (already passed gp120 Abs and about to pass CD4 lymphocytes);2. CD4 lymphocytes (continues linear descent; about to drop below anti-g120 Abs);3. Anti-gp120 Abs (slow descent continues);4. Anti-p24 Ab (approximately 1/3 to 1/4 amount of p24 antigen; slow descent continues)
3328
Q1665:Relative HIV-related levels more than 3 years after infection: Late phase
3329
In descending order;1. Virus p24 antigen (leveled out at nearly 20x anti-p24 antibody);2. Anti-gp120 Abs (little less than half p24 antigen);3. Anti-p24 Ab (1/20 amount of p24 antigen);AND;3. CD4 lymphocytes
3330
3331
1. Cryptococcal meningitis;2. Toxoplasmosis;3. CMV encephalopathy;4. AIDS dementia;5. PML (JC virus)
3332
3333
CMV retinitis
3334
Q1668:Opportunistic infections and disease in AIDS attacking the mouth and throat
3335
3336
3337
3338
3339
3340
3341
3342
3343
3344
3345
3346
3347
3348
3349
3350
3351
Infectious agents that do not contain RNA or DNA; only proteins; that are encoded by cellular genes.
3352
3353
1. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease;2. Kuru;3. Scrapie (in sheep);4. Mad cow disease (association with human spongiform encephalopathy);5. Fatal familial insomnia
3354
3355
3356
3357
3358
Q1680:DNA viruses
3359
HHAPPPy viruses!;Herpes;Hepadna;Adeno;Papova;Parvo;Pox
3360
Q1681:adenovirus basics
3361
linear dsDNA;naked
3362
Q1682:adenovirus transmission
3363
3364
Q1683:adenovirus sx
3365
3366
Q1684:adenovirus vaccine
3367
3368
Q1685:papovaviruses include
3369
3370
3371
3372
Q1687:herpesvirus basics
3373
3374
Q1688:VZV transmission
3375
resp secretions
3376
Q1689:chickenpox incubation
3377
2 wks
3378
Q1690:varicella vaccine
3379
live attenuated
3380
Q1691:EBV transmission
3381
3382
Q1692:EBV associations
3383
3384
3385
c-myc
3386
3387
3388
Q1695:Paul-Bunnell test
3389
monospot
3390
3391
3392
Q1697:HHV-6
3393
3394
Q1698:HHV-8
3395
3396
Q1699:poxviruses include
3397
3398
3399
molluscum
3400
Q1701:hepadnaviruses include
3401
hepatitis B virus
3402
3403
3404
Q1703:parvovirus causes
3405
3406
Q1704:picornavirus basics
3407
(+)ssRNA;naked
3408
Q1705:picornaviruses include
3409
3410
Q1706:poliovirus vaccine(s)
3411
3412
Q1707:ECHO viruses
3413
Enteric Cytopathic Human Orphan;infect GI tract; esp. in summer;aseptic meningitis; fever; rash; enteritis; common cold; hemorrhagic conjunctivitis
3414
Q1708:coxsackie season
3415
summer + fall
3416
Q1709:coxsackie transmission
3417
3418
Q1710:hepatitis A caused by
3419
enterovirus 72 (picornavirus)
3420
Q1711:herpangina
3421
coxsackie A
3422
Q1712:hand-foot-and-mouth dz
3423
coxsackie A
3424
Q1713:Conjunctivitis; paryngitis;Dense basophilic intranuclear inclusion bodies;Diarrhea in infant;Infectious genome;Poorly chlorinated swimming pools
3425
3426
3427
3428
3429
3430
Q1716:Rodents;Flu-like symptoms;Slums;Ribavirin
3431
3432
Q1717:Hemorrhagic;Rodents
3433
3434
3435
3436
Q1719:Cowdry type A inclusion bodies;Neurotropic;Zanck smear;Multinucleated giant cells Stress-induced recurrance Encephalitis;Temporal lobe destruction;Blindness;Neonatal infection
3437
3438
3439
3440
3441
reovirus (REpeatOvirus)
3442
3443
3444
3445
Herpesvirus
3446
3447
3448
3449
3450
3451
3452
Q1727:DNA viruses
3453
3454
3455
3456
3457
POX IN A BOX
3458
3459
3460
Q1731:Enveloped DNA
3461
HPH;Hepadna;Pox;Herpes
3462
Q1732:1. What type of immunity do live attenuated vaccines confer?;2. Why can't they be given to immunocompromised patients
3463
3464
3465
humoral
3466
3467
3468
3469
3470
Q1736:Egg-based
3471
3472
Q1737:Recombinant vaccine
3473
HBV
3474
3475
3476
Q1739:Segmented Viruses
3477
BOAR;Bunya;Orthomyo;arena;reo
3478
Q1740:Picornavirus
3479
PERCH on a "peak";Polio;Echo;Rhino;Coxsachie;HAV
3480
3481
Rota
3482
3483
rhino
3484
3485
3486
3487
3488
Q1745:Koplik spots
3489
measles
3490
Q1746:Measles symptoms
3491
3492
3493
3494
Q1748:Measles complications
3495
3496
3497
3498
Q1750:negri bodies
3499
rabies
3500
Q1751:bullet-shaped capsid
3501
rabies
3502
Q1752:HSV-1: diseases
3503
3504
Q1753:heterophilic + mono
3505
EBV
3506
3507
HHV-6
3508
Q1755:adenovirus: diseases
3509
3510
Q1756:fifth disease
3511
B19 parvovirus
3512
Q1757:parvovirus: diseases
3513
3514
Q1758:HHV8
3515
kaposi sarcoma
3516
Q1759:papova: diseases
3517
3518
Q1760:Pox: diseases
3519
3520
Q1761:coxsackie: diseases
3521
3522
Q1762:calicivirus: diseases
3523
HEV;norwalk - gastroenteritis
3524
Q1763:Reo: diseases
3525
3526
3527
rotavirus (reovirus)
3528
Q1765:Flavi: diseases
3529
3530
Q1766:Togavirus: diseases
3531
3532
Q1767:Retro: diseases
3533
3534
Q1768:Cornonavirus: diseases
3535
corona;SARS
3536
Q1769:Paramyxovirus: diseases
3537
3538
Q1770:Filo: diseases
3539
3540
Q1771:arena: diseases
3541
3542
Q1772:Bunyavirus: diseases
3543
3544
3545
shift - genetic reassortment;drift - mutations;Sudden Shift is more deadly than a graDual Drift
3546
Q1774:Arbovirusus
3547
3548
3549
3550
Q1776:Atypical lymphocytes
3551
3552
Q1777:Diagnosis of HSV
3553
Tzanck test - look for multinucleated giant cells;Tzanck heavens I do not have herpes
3554
3555
IgM HAV Ab
3556
3557
HBsAg
3558
3559
HBsAb
3560
3561
HBcAg
3562
3563
3564
3565
HBeAg
3566
3567
HBeAb
3568
3569
3570
3571
HBsAb;HBcAb
3572
3573
3574
3575
3576
Q1789:Pink eye
3577
Adenovirus type B
3578
3579
Parvovirus B19
3580
3581
3582
3583
3584
Q1793:Infection by Sandfly
3585
Leishmaniasis
3586
3587
HHV-6
3588
3589
Parvovirus
3590
3591
Reovirus = repeatOvirus
3592
3593
3594
3595
Papovavirus;Hepadnavirus
3596
3597
3598
3599
Quintana
3600
Q1801:Arthroconidia
3601
Coddiodes
3602
3603
PCP
3604
3605
IL-2
3606
3607
Pox
3608
3609
Influenza
3610
3611
Asexual (mostly)
3612
3613
1. Coccidioidomycosis;2. Histoplasmosis
3614
3615
3616
3617
1. Thrush esophagitis in immunocompromised patients (neonates; steroids; diabetes; AIDS);2. endocarditis in IV drug users;3. vaginitis post-antibiotic use;4. diaper rash;5. Disseminated candidiasis to any organ;6. Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
3618
3619
3620
3621
Budding yeast with pseudohyphae in culture at 20 degrees celsius;Germ tube formation at 37 degrees celsius
3622
3623
Candida albicans
3624
3625
3626
3627
Coccidioidomycosis
3628
3629
Histoplasmosis
3630
3631
Histoplasmosis
3632
3633
Histoplasmosis
3634
3635
Histoplasmosis
3636
3637
Histoplasmosis
3638
3639
Histoplasmosis
3640
3641
Histoplasmosis
3642
3643
Coccidiomycosis
3644
3645
Coccidiomycosis
3646
3647
3648
3649
3650
3651
Coccidiomycosis
3652
3653
Paracoccidioidomycosis
3654
3655
Blastomycosis
3656
3657
Blastomycosis
3658
3659
Tiny yeast inside macrophages. Thin cell wall with no true capsule.
3660
3661
3662
3663
Histoplasmosis
3664
3665
Mold in soil (lower temperature) and yeast in tissue (body temperature);Mnemonic: Cold is mold; heat is yeast
3666
3667
Histoplasmosis; Blastomycosis; and Paracoccidioidomycosis (but not coccidioidomycosis which is a spherule in tissue)
3668
3669
3670
3671
3672
3673
3674
3675
3676
3677
3678
3679
Tinea versicolor: Hypopigmented skin lesions which occur in hot humid weather.
3680
3681
3682
3683
combination of mycelium strands and numerous spores of Malassezia furfur in KOH prep
3684
3685
3686
3687
Malassezia furfur
3688
3689
Cladosporium werneckii
3690
3691
3692
3693
Microsporum; Trichophyton; and Epidermophyton;cause all the tineas except for versicolor and nigra
3694
3695
3696
3697
3698
3699
3700
3701
3702
3703
3704
3705
3706
3707
3708
3709
3710
3711
AKA athlete's foot;Begins between toes and causes cracking and peeling of the skin.
3712
3713
3714
3715
1. Dissolve skin scrapings in KOH; which digests the keratin. Microscopic examination reveals branched hyphae;2. Direct examination of skin with Wood's light (UV light at 365 nm wavelength) will fuoresce green if Microsporum.
3716
3717
3718
3719
Aspergillus
3720
3721
3722
3723
Mold (not dimorphic) with septate hyphae that branch at a V-shaped (45 degree) angle). Rare fruiting bodies.
3724
3725
3726
3727
5-10 micrometer yeasts with wide capsular halo. Narrow based unequal budding.
3728
3729
3730
3731
3732
3733
Just like Rhizopus;Mold with irregular; broad; empty looking; nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles (over 90 degrees)
3734
3735
Just like Mucor;Mold with irregular; broad; empty looking; nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles (over 90 degrees)
3736
3737
3738
3739
1. Walls of blood vessels; causing infarction of distal tissue;2. Rhinocerebral frontal lobe abscesses
3740
3741
3742
3743
3744
3745
3746
3747
3748
3749
3750
Q1876:Presentation of sporotrichosis
3751
1. Traumatically introduced into the skin by a thorn;2. Local pustule/ulcer with nodules along draining lymphatics (ascending lymphangitis);3. Little systemic illness
3752
3753
Sporotrichosis
3754
3755
3756
3757
3758
3759
3760
3761
3762
3763
3764
3765
3766
3767
3768
3769
Malaria;1. Cyclic fever;2. Headache;3. Anemia;4. Splenomegaly;5. Severe cerebral malaria (with Plasmodium falciparum)
3770
3771
Trichomonas vaginalis causes vaginitis with foul-smelling greenish discharge; strawberry-colored mucosa; and itching and burning. Motile on wet prep.
3772
3773
3774
3775
3776
3777
3778
3779
Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar or black fever);fever; weight loss; anaemia and substantial swelling of the liver and spleen
3780
3781
3782
3783
3784
3785
1. Entamoeba histolytica;2. Giardia lamblia;3. Cryptosporidium;4. Toxoplasma;All water cysts except Toxo (cysts in meat or cat feces)
3786
3787
1. Plasmodium (Anophales mosquitoes);2. Trypanosoma cruzi (Reduviid bug);3. Other trypanosomas (Tsetse fly);4. Leishmania (Sandfly);5. Babesia (Ixodes tick)
3788
3789
3790
3791
Trichomonas vaginalis
3792
3793
Plasmodium
3794
3795
Trypanosoma cruzi (the enses are transmitted by the tsetses; cruzii by reduviid))
3796
3797
Trypanosoma gambiense and rhodesiense (the enses are transmitted by the tsetses; cruzii by reduviid))
3798
3799
Leishmania
3800
3801
Babesia
3802
3803
Trophozoites or cysts in stool (classic pair shaped organism with double nuclei like owl eyes)
3804
3805
3806
3807
3808
3809
Serology; biopsy
3810
3811
Blood smear
3812
3813
Blood smear
3814
3815
3816
3817
3818
3819
3820
3821
3822
3823
Metronidazole
3824
3825
Metronidazole
3826
3827
1. Choloroquine;2. additonal Primaquine (for P. vivax and P. ovale to prevent relapse or liver damage);3. sulfadoxine plus pyrimethamine;4. Mefloquine;5. Quinine
3828
3829
Nifurtimox
3830
3831
3832
3833
Sodium stibogluconate
3834
3835
Qunine; clindamycin
3836
3837
3838
3839
3840
3841
3842
3843
3844
3845
3846
3847
3848
3849
3850
3851
3852
3853
3854
3855
3856
3857
3858
3859
3860
3861
3862
3863
3864
3865
3866
3867
3868
3869
3870
3871
Protozoan
3872
3873
Protozoan
3874
3875
Protozoan
3876
3877
Protozoan
3878
3879
Protozoan
3880
3881
Protozoan
3882
3883
Protozoan
3884
3885
Protozoan
3886
3887
Protozoan
3888
3889
Protozoan
3890
3891
3892
3893
3894
3895
3896
3897
3898
3899
3900
3901
3902
3903
3904
3905
3906
3907
3908
3909
3910
3911
3912
3913
3914
3915
3916
3917
3918
3919
3920
3921
Spirochete
3922
3923
3924
3925
3926
3927
3928
3929
Tapeworm (Cestode);1. Ingested eggs from dog feces;2. Liver cysts;3. Cysts release antigens and cause anaphylaxis
3930
3931
3932
3933
Albendazole
3934
Q1968:Characterization of Schistosoma
3935
3936
Q1969:Presentation of Schistosoma
3937
3938
Q1970:Schistosoma: Treatment
3939
Praziquantel
3940
3941
Schistosoma mansoni
3942
3943
Schistosoma haematobium
3944
3945
Schistosoma haematobium
3946
3947
3948
3949
Clonorchis sinensis
3950
3951
Praziquantel
3952
3953
3954
3955
3956
3957
Trematode (fluke);1. Undercooked crabmeat;2. Inflammation and secondary bacterial infection of the lung;3. Hemoptysis
3958
3959
3960
3961
Praziquantel
3962
3963
3964
3965
3966
3967
Nematode (roundworm);1. Aka hookworm;2. Larvae penetrate skin of feet;3. Intestinal infection can cause anemia
3968
3969
Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate
3970
3971
Nematode (roundworm);1. Aka giant roundworm (Up to 1 foot in length!);2. Eggs are visible in feces;3. Intestinal infection
3972
3973
Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate
3974
3975
Nematode (roundworm);1. Aka pinworm;2. Food contaminated with eggs;3. Intestinal infection;4. Anal pruritus (scotch tape test)
3976
3977
Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate
3978
3979
3980
3981
Ivermectin/thiabendazole
3982
3983
Roundworm (nematode);1. Undercooked meat; usually pork;2. Inflammation of muscle;3. Periorbital edema
3984
3985
Thiabendazole
3986
3987
3988
3989
Niridazole
3990
3991
Nematode (roundworm);1. Transmitted by deer fly;2. Causes swelling in skin;3. Can see worm crawling in conjunctiva
3992
3993
Diethylcarbamazine
3994
3995
3996
3997
Ivermectin
3998
3999
Nematode (roundworm);1. Food contaminated with eggs;2. Causes granulomas (if in retina; blindness);3. Visceral larva migrans
4000
4001
Diethylcarbamazine
4002
4003
4004
4005
Diethylcarbamazine
4006
4007
4008
4009
4010
4011
Flat; segmented;Tapeworms
4012
4013
Round;Roundworms
4014
4015
Praziquantel
4016
4017
Albendazole;Praziquantel
4018
4019
Albendazole
4020
4021
Albendazole;Diethylcarbamazine
4022
4023
4024
4025
4026
4027
4028
4029
4030
4031
4032
4033
4034
4035
4036
4037
4038
4039
4040
4041
4042
4043
Cat
4044
4045
Mosquito
4046
4047
Reduviid bug
4048
4049
Sandfly
4050
4051
Tsetse fly
4052
4053
Crabs
4054
4055
Cattle
4056
4057
Pig
4058
4059
Carnivores
4060
4061
4062
4063
Blackfly
4064
4065
Redfly
4066
4067
Snail
4068
4069
4070
Q2036:liver cysts
4071
4072
Q2037:B12 deficiency
4073
Diphyllobothrium latum (fish tapeworm/cestode; no hooks on scolex; operculated egg; Tx: praziquantel)
4074
Q2038:biliary tract dz
4075
4076
Q2039:hemoptysis
4077
Paragonimus westermani (trematode; raw crab meat; secondary bacterial infxn; Tx: praziquantel)
4078
Q2040:portal hypertension
4079
Schistosoma mansoni (trematode; cercariae penetrate skin; lateral spine; tx: praziquantel)
4080
4081
Schistosoma haematobium (trematode; cercariae penetrate skin; terminal spine; tx: praziquantel)
4082
Q2042:microcytic anemia
4083
ancylostoma and nectar (hookworms; larvae penetrate skin; tx: mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate)
4084
Q2043:perianal pruritus
4085
Enterobius (nematode; eggs NOT in stool; scotch tape test; tx: mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate)
4086
4087
wucheria bancrofti (elephantiasis); Toxocara canis (blindness; visceral larval migrans); Loa loa (deer fly; worms in conjunctiva)
4088
4089
Dracunculus medinensis (Guinea worm; swallowed crustaceans; skin ulceration to release larvae)
4090
4091
trematodes (schistosomas; Clonorchis sinensis; Paragonimus westermani); praziquantel/niclosamide for Taenia solium (unless cysticercosis--albendazole)
4092
4093
Coccidioidomycosis ;histoplasmosis
4094
4095
Candida albicans
4096
4097
4098
4099
4100
4101
Coccidioidomycosis
4102
4103
Histoplasmosis
4104
4105
Coccidioidomycosis
4106
4107
Histoplasmosis
4108
4109
Paracoccidiodomycosis
4110
4111
Blastmycosis
4112
4113
Blastomycosis
4114
4115
4116
4117
4118
4119
4120
4121
Tinea versicolor
4122
4123
4124
4125
Tinea versicolor
4126
4127
Tinea nigra
4128
4129
salicyclic acid
4130
Q2066:What organisms cause tinea pedis; tinea cruris; tinea corporis; tinea capitis
4131
4132
4133
4134
4135
4136
Q2069:india ink
4137
cryptococcus neoformans
4138
4139
4140
4141
Pneumocystis
4142
Q2072:Mold with irregular nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles. Causes rhinocerebral; frontal lobe absesses
4143
Murcormycosis
4144
4145
4146
Q2074:mold with septate hyphate that branch at a v-shaped angle. Causes lung disease
4147
Aspergillus fumigatus
4148
4149
sporothrix schenckii
4150
4151
Taenia solium
4152
Q2077:liver cysts;
4153
4154
Q2078:B12 deficicency
4155
4156
4157
4158
Q2080:Hemoptysis
4159
4160
Q2081:Portal HTN
4161
4162
4163
4164
Q2083:Microcytic anemia
4165
4166
Q2084:Perianal pruritis
4167
Enterobius (pinworm)
4168
4169
Trypanosma
4170
4171
Treponema pallidum
4172
4173
4174
Q2088:diarrhea in an AIDS pt
4175
cryptosporidium
4176
4177
loa loa
4178
Q2090:deerly transmission
4179
loa loa
4180
4181
DEC
4182
4183
pneumocystis
4184
Q2093:DOC PCP
4185
trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole;pentamidine
4186
Q2094:sandfly
4187
leishmania
4188
Q2095:african trypansome
4189
4190
Q2096:ascaris lumbricoides
4191
roundworm;long; white;oral-fecal
4192
Q2097:High Eosinophilia
4193
strongyloides stercoralis
4194
4195
4196
Q2099:raw pork
4197
trichinella spiralis
4198
4199
4200
4201
strongyloides stercoralis
4202
Q2102:trichuris trichiura
4203
4204
Q2103:river blindness
4205
onchocerca volvulus
4206
Q2104:elephantiasis
4207
Wuchereria bancrofti
4208
Q2105:taenia solium
4209
4210
4211
4212
Q2107:taenia saginata
4213
beef tapeworm
4214
Q2108:echinococcus
4215
sheep; anaphylaxis
4216