Solutions To Me N Mine Psa-Ix PDF

SOLUTIONS TO QUALITATIVE AND QUANTITATIVE REASONING
Mathematics
Stand-alone MCQs ......................................................................................... 3
Passage-based MCQs ................................................................................... 14
Science
Stand-alone MCQs ....................................................................................... 22
Social Science
Stand-alone MCQs ....................................................................................... 49
SOLUTIONS TO LANGUAGE CONVENTIONS
English
Grammar and Usage MCQs ....................................................................... 50
Vocabulary in Context MCQs .................................................................... 51
Hindi
............................................................ 57
...................................................................... 60
.............................................................................. 62
SOLUTIONS TO PRACTICE PAPERS
Practice Paper-1 .......................................................................................... 68
Practice Paper-2 .......................................................................................... 71
Practice Paper-3 .......................................................................................... 74
Practice Paper-4 .......................................................................................... 78
Practice Paper-5 .......................................................................................... 82
3
Solutions to PSAIX
STAND-ALONE MCQs
1. (a) The greeting card is a two-dimensional object and that has six sides. Thus,
the outlines of the card form a hexagon.
2. (a) Let the required number be x.
Then
1 1
1 1 2
2 2
x x < < < <
The option (a), that is,
1
1
2
fulfils our requirement.
3. (c) Let us check all the options one by one by taking the point (8, 30).
Option (a): 30 = 3 8 + 2 30 = 26 which is wrong
Option (b): 30 = 2.5 8 + 6 30 = 26 which is wrong
Option (c): 30 = 3.5 8 + 2 30 = 30 which is true
Option (d): 30 = 3 8 + 6 30 = 30 which is true
But option (d) is not true for (6, 23) as:
23 = 3 6 + 6 23 = 24 which is wrong.
4. (d) From the given figure, it is clear that there is a quadrilateral whose two
angles are right angles. So by angle sum property of a quadrilateral, we
have
x + 60 + 2 90 = 360 x = 120
5. (c) Required per cent
Number of sold books
100
Total number of books
=

80
100
800
4
=
= 60.
6. (a) t is the selling price of one toy, in rupees.
356t 180 = 87
356t = 87 + 180
267
0.75
356
t t = =
.
7. (c) We know that x = 100x %

1
2 2.5 2.5 100% 250%
2
= = = = 25.
Solutions to Qualitative and
Quantitative Reasoning
MATHEMATICS
4 Solutions to PSAIX
8. (b) The object in option (b) contains all the three views given especially side
view.
9. (d) Inside circumference of the tyre
= outside circumference of the rim
= t diameter =
22
15 47.14
7
= ~ 47.1 m.
10. (a) Kapil, Lily and Maya have grade A 2 times, 4 times and 8 times whereas
they have grade B 6 times, 4 times and 4 times respectively. This is
represented only by the matrix in option (a).
11. (a) 8 2x > 4 8 + 4 > 2x 6 > x, i.e., x < 6.
12. (d) After distributing 2a(3a 1) becomes 6a
2
2a.
13. (a)
2 2 2 3
2 2
4 6 24
4 .
6 6
y z z y z
y z
z z
= =
14. (a)
3 9 3( 3)
3 3.
3 3
x x
x x = =
x 3 = x 3
If we replace x with any value of x, we always will get LHS and RHS equal.
Therefore the given equation is true for all values of x.
15. (d) Let us check all the options one by one for (4, 14).
Option (a): 14 = 2 4 14 = 8 which is wrong.
Option (b): 14 = 4 + 2 14 = 6 which is wrong.
Option (c): 14 = 5 4 14 = 20 which is wrong.
Option (d): 14 = 3 4 + 2 14 = 14 which is true
16. (c)
2 2 2 2 2 2
a ab b b bc c c ca a
a b c
b c a
x x x
x x x
+ + + + + +
| | | | | |
| | |
' . ' . ' .
, , , , , ,
2 2 2 2 2 2

. .
a ab b b bc c c ca a
a b b c c a
x x x
+ + + + + +
=
3 3 3 3 3 3

. .
a b b c c a
x x x =
3 3 3 3 3 3
0 a b b c c a
x x
+ +
= =
= 1
17. (b) The answers in questions 2 and 4 are not in standard conditions. So the
unitary method is not applicable for them.
18. (c) Let PD = x and QC = y
AP = 6 x and BQ = 4 y
Perimeter of APQB = Perimeter of PDCQ
6 x + PQ + 4 y + 3 = x + 9 + y + PQ
4 = 2(x + y) x + y = 2
Now,
6 AP PD
BQ QC 4
x x
y y
= =
5
Solutions to PSAIX
6y xy = 4x xy 3y = 2x
3(2 x) = 2x ( x + y = 2)
6 = 5x
6
5
x =

6 24
6 6
5 5
x = =
Required ratio =
24
AP 6
5
4 : 1
6
PD
5
x
x
= = = .
19. (b) On translating to the right, only abscissa of point is affected, while
translating to the down only ordinate is affected.
So, the new coordinates of the point M will be (r + 7, s 3).
20. (c) In I quadrant, both abscissa and ordinate of a point are positive while in
III quadrant both of them are negative.
21. (b)
AB = 6 1 1 = 4 m, BC = 3.5 m =
7
m
2
Length of brace
2
2 2 2
7
AC = AB + BC 4
2
| |
= = +
|
' .
49 113 1 10.63
16 113
4 4 2 2
= + = = =
5.3 m. ~
22. (c) Area = length breadth
= 2x
2
y
4
z 5xy
4
z
3
= 10x
3
y
8
z
4
23. (c) The top view will show a hexagonal face as top and six different
quadrilaterals faces as sides of the given solid.
24. (d)
3 2 4 2
3 5 2 3 2 3 3
a b c a a b c a
a b c a b c b c b c
= =
25. (d) In the given equation, c is the dependent variable and n is the independent
variable. Thus, c changes as n changes. Hence, we can say that the value
of c is dependent on n.
26. (d) Let originally, length = a, breadth = b
Original perimeter = 2(a + b)
New perimeter = 2(2a + 2b)
= 2 2 (a b)
= 2 Original perimeter.
27. (c) Let us check all the options one by one for r = 4, n = 66.
Option (a) : 66 = 2 4 + 52 66 = 60 which is not true
Option (b) : 66 = 4 + 54 66 = 58 which is not true
Option (c) : 66 = 4 4 + 50 66 = 66 which is true
Option (d) : 66 = 4 4 + 54 66 = 70 which is not true.
28. (d)
5 17 5( 3.2) 17 16 17
8.25
4 4 4
y
x = = = =
29. (d) Each pair of adjacent angles of a parallelogram is supplementary.
Z P + Z Q = 180 Z Q = 180 146
ZQ = 34
30. (b) Let us check the truthness of equations in options for x = 10, y = 58.
Option (a) : 58 = 4 10 + 2 58 = 42 which is not true
Option (b) : 58 = 6 10 2 58 = 58 which is true
Option (c) : 58 = 7 10 4 58 = 66 which is not true
Option (d) : 58 = 5 10 + 4 58 = 54 which is not true.
31. (a) Let the speeds of the slower and the faster cyclists be v
1
and v
2
respectively.
SAME DIRECTION OPPOSITE DIRECTIONS
Relative speed = v
2
v
1
Relative speed = v
2
+ v
1
Relative distance = k Relative distance = k
Time = r Time = t
2 1
k
r
v v
= ...(i)
2 1
k
t
v v
=
+
...(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we have

2 1
2 1
v v r
v v t
+
=
Using componendo and dividendo we have
v
2
: v
1
= r + t : r t
32. (a) Let the height of the cup be H, the radius of the cup be r, the depth of the
water be h.

2 2
1 1
H 8
3 3
r r h t =
H : h = 8 : 1
7
Solutions to PSAIX
33. (d) (a 1)
2
ab + b a + 1 6 (b + 1)
2
= (a 1)
2
b (a 1) (a 1) 6 (b + 1)
2
= (a 1)
2
(a 1) (b + 1) 6 (b + 1)
2
Put a 1 = x, b + 1 = y
x
2
xy 6y
2
= x
2
3xy + 2xy 6y
2
= x(x 3y) + 2y(x 3y) = (x 3y) (x + 2y)
= (a 1 3b 3) (a 1 + 2b + 2)
= (a 3b 4) (a + 2b + 1).
34. (a) The number set 756 in the given sequence is only one time.
755945764598 756 764325678
35. (a) The given graph shows that any two points lying on the line are ( 3, 0)
and (0, 3). For these two points, only the equation y = x + 3 holds true.
36. (a)
From the number line (above), 2
4
5
is represented by A.
37. (a) 5 hours =
5
24
24
hours
5 hours =
5
24
of a day
5 hours =
1
6
of a day.
38. (c) p is divided by 3 and hence multiplied by q
2
to get
2
3
p
q . Now
2
3
p
q is
divided by 3 to get
2
1
.
3 3
p
q
i.e.,
2
.
9
pq
39. (a) 1 complete turn = 360 = 4 90 = 4 right angles
2 complete turns = 8 right angles.
40. (a) Through three collinear points, one and only one line can be drawn.
41. (c) 56 = 2
3
7
77 = 11 7
HCF (56,77) = 7
Now, k 8 = 7 gives k = 15.
42. (c) x = Prime number next to 23 = 29
y = Prime number next to 41 = 43
x + y = 29 + 43 = 72
43. (d) 1 hour = 60 minutes = 60 60 = 3600 seconds
1 second =
1
3600
hour =
1
3600
of an hour.
44. (c)
P
7
Q
=
gives P = 7Q
P + Q 7Q + Q 8Q 4
.
P Q 7Q Q 6Q 3
= = =
45. (c) From first condition, a b = c + d + 6
From second condition, a + b = c d 3
Adding, 2a = 2c + 3 a c =
3
1.5
2
= .
46. (b) Let ? = x
5 6 8 3 3 1 7
1 3 2
6 7 9 5 4 3 9
x + =
We first eliminate the symbol .
5 7 8 5 3 10 25
6 6 9 8 4 3 9
x
| | | |
+ =
| |
' . ' .
35 25 5 5 36 15

36 9 9 2 35 18
x x = + = , x =
6
.
7
47. (a) Required number =
1
37
75
2
8 300.
1
2
8
= =
48. (b) 1.5x = 0.04y
4 2
150 75
y
x y x = =
73 73
75
2
77 77
75
y
y
y x y
y
y x y
y
= = =
+
+
49. (d) Let the operator number be m. One-third of one fourth of m
1
3
= of
1
4 3 4 12
m m m
= =
This is given to be 15.
15 12 15
12
m
m = =
Now, three-tenth of
3 3
12 15 54.
10 10
m m = = =
50. (b)
9
Solutions to PSAIX
51. (b) B can take either the value 1 or 2. A can take only the value 5 to make
the same digit 5 in place of ones digit of the sum. Hence A = 5, B = 1.
52. (c) It is clear that P = 0, Q = 0.
PQ Q = 39
So, Q can take value either 3 or 7.
If Q = 7, then P Q = 3. So Q = 7
If Q = 3, then P Q = 3 gives P = 1.
Hence P = 1, Q = 3
53. (c) HCF LCM = Product of two numbers = p
1
p
2
54. (b) 10 cows can graze 10 fields in 10 days
100 cows will graze 10 fields in 1 day
100 cows will graze 100 fields in 10 days
55. (c) 25 pages can be read by Sunita in d days
125 pages will be read by her in 5d days.
56. (b) We know that Ring is worn in the finger. But Ring is called Necklace,
so Necklace would be worn in the finger.
57. (b)
In the same way we will obtain the following
58. (c) Fraction of work done in 2 days
1
p
=
Fraction of work done in 1 day
1
2p
=
Work to be done and days are in inverse proportion, so the woman can do
the whole work in 2p days.
59. (a) We know that the time taken and the work to be done are in inverse
proportion. So the editor can edit the whole book in m days.
60. (b) Semi circumference = tR
There will be two different pegs to the two end points of the circumference
Number of pegs
R
= 1 10R 1
10
+ = +
| |
|
' .
61. (a)
0 x

x
is a positive value
So

2
0 x , that is, x > 0
62. (d) An equation in the form ax + by + c = 0 is called linear equation in two
variables if both a and b are not equal to zero. In other words at least one
of a and b must not be zero. This may also be written in brief as a
2
+ b
2
0.
63. (c)
Simiarly we have:
64. (d)
Similarly, PACK would be written as following
65. (b) The values x = 0, y = c together always satisfy the given equation y = mx + c.
66. (c) The x-axis and y-axis on the cartesian plane are
always horizontal and vertical respectively as show
in the adjoining figure. Hence required angle is 90
or 1 right angle.
67. (d) Let y-coordinate be y
1
.
At x = x
1
and y = y
1
, 4x + y = 6 gives y
1
= 6 4x
1
68. (b) The outcome in second toss does not depend upon the outcome shown up
in the first toss. So, P (head) =
1
.
2
69. (c) The sum of lengths of any two sides of a triangle is always larger than the
third side.
b + c > a, i.e., c > a b, i.e., a b < c .
70. (d) If the length of edge of cube is increased or decreased, the volume and
total surface area of the cube increase or decrease in the same ratio but
the angle defined in the question remains unaltered.
11
Solutions to PSAIX
71. (a) Let edge = a
1
3
3
a V a V = =
Surface area = 6a
2
= 6
2
1 2
3 3
6 V V
| |
= |
|
' .
.
72. (d)

2 2
3
MN= AM AN
4 2
a a
a = =
Area of rectangle ABCD = AB MN =
3 3
.
2 2
a a
a =
73. (c) The sum of any pair of opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral is 180. So
required sum must be more than 180.
74. (a) Any median of a triangle divides it into two triangles of equal bases and
same height, so these two triangles are of equal area.
75. (c)
2
New curved surface area
2
1
Initial curved surface area
h
r
r h
t
= =
t
curved surface area will remain unaltered.
76. (d) Initial volume = tr
2
h
New volume =
2
2
2
( )
r n
nh r h
m m
t t
| |
=
|
' .
2
Initial volume.
n
m
=
77. (c) New edge of the cubical box = 2a
New surface area of a surface = (2a)
2
= 4a
2
.
78. (d) Let original radius of the base of the cone = R
Original area of the base = tR
2
New radius of the base = rR
New area of the base = tr
2
R
2
= r
2
Original area.
79. (b) Let original side of rhombus = a
Then original perimeter = 4a
New perimeter of rhombus = 4a
10
4
100
a
36
10
a
=
New side =
1 36 9
4 10 10
a a
=
Required decrease
9
10
100%
a
a
a
= = 10%
80. (c) Triangles lying between same parallel lines and are on the same base have
equal base lengths and equal heights although they are neither similar nor
congruent.
A
1
= A
2
81. (d) Capacity = t litres = 1000 t cm
3
tr
2
t = 1000 t r
2
=
1000
t
Area of base = t r
2
=
2
1000
1000 cm
t
= .
82. (d) Capacity of p glasses = q litres = 1000q ml
Capacity of 1 glass
1000
ml
q
p
= .
83. (b) To construct a unique triangle and a unique quadrilateral one requires
three measurements and five measurements of corresponding polygon.
m
1
= 3 and m
2
= 5
m
1
: m
2
= 3 : 5.
84. (a) Sum of exterior angles of a triangle (or a polygon) = 360
8d = 360 d = 45.
85. (c) The sum of each pair of opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral is 180.
So, a quadrilateral PQRS is said to be cyclic if ZP + ZR = 180 and/or
ZQ + ZS = 180.
86. (b) P (black or red) + P (blue or white or orange) = 1
P(black or red) = 1 p
87. (c) When a pair of dice is rolled, the number of all possible outcomes
= 6
2
= 36
1 + p + q = 36 p + q = 35.
88. (d) P (certain event) = 1
P (impossible event) = 0
m = 1 and n = 0
So m + n = 1, m n = 0 and mn = 0
89. (a) In the given case, all possible outcomes are as follows:
HHH, HHT, HTH, HTT, THH, THT, TTH, TTT
Comparing the above set of outcomes with the given set, we obtain x = H.
90. (c) We have the range of the probability p of an event of an experiment is
given by 0 < p < 1
m = 0, n = 1
13
Solutions to PSAIX
91. (c) A point circle is any point. A point is considered to have no length and
breadth. So length of the diameter of a point circle is zero.
92. (c) Because given observations are in increasing order,
smallest observation = 35, largest observation = l
Range = l 35.
93. (d) Class-mark =
2
x y +
, class size = y x.
Reqired ratio = (x + y) : (y x)
94. (a) Note that mid-points P, Q and R of sides respectively AB, BC and CA of
A ABC divide the A ABC into four congruent triangles
namely, A APR, A BPQ, A QRC and A PQR.
ar(APR) = ar(BPQ) = ar(QRC) = ar(PQR)

So ar(parallelogram BPRQ) =
1
2
ar(ABC)
95. (d) In the adjoining figure, ABCD is a kite (none of
rectangle, rhombus, parallelogram) whose diagonal AC
divides it into two parts namely ABC and ADC, equal
in area.
96. (b) Let lower class limit = x
Then, m =
2
l x +
x = 2m l
97. (c) We take mid-points of lower and upper limits of classes as required
abscissae. These mid-points are also called class-marks of the classes.
98. (b) Given
1 2 3
........
n
x x x x
x
n
+ + + +
=
x
1
+ x
2
+ x
3
+ ... + x
n
= nx ...(i)
Required mean =
, ) , )
1 2 3 1 2 3
1
.... ....
n n
a x x x x x x x x
a
n n
+ + + + + + + + +
+
=
, )
1 2 3
1
....
2
n
a x x x x
a
n
| |
+ + + + +
|
\ .
=
1
2
x
a
a
| |
+
|
\ .
[Using (i)]
99. (b) After multiplication or division by a non-zero number, new LHS and new
RHS of the equation will remain equal.
100. (c) The given situation is possible only if ABCD is a square. Moreover diagonals
are equal and perpendicular for only a square.
PASSAGE-BASED MCQs
1. (i) (d) We have prime numbers: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, ........
(ii) (a) We have composite numbers: 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14 ......
2. (i) (c) Using option (c):
ab ac
ad
+
=
gives
b c
d
+
abd + acd = abd + acd, which is true.
(ii) (d)
7
9
=
14
18
gives 7 18 = 9 14 or 126 = 126, which is true.
3. (i) (a) The leftmost and the right-most shaded triangles together cover 4 small
rectanges. Also the rest of shaded regions cover 2 small rectangles.
Required ratio = 6 : 10 = 3 : 5.
(ii) (a) The measurements of PQ and PS do not matter to the desired ratio.
So answer will remain the same as in question (i).
4. (i) (a) The sum of measures of an acute angle and its complementary angle
is 90.
Required angle = 90 75 = 15.

(ii) (c) The sum of an acute (or obtuse) angle and its supplementary angle is
180.
Required angle = 180 89 = 91.

5. (i) (b) Area = length breadth = ( 3 + a) 8.
(ii) (c) Perimeter = 2(length + breadth) = 2(a + 3 + 8)/
= 2a + 22.
6. (i) (d) Scientific notation = Hundreds digit 10
2
+ Tens digit 10
1
+ Ones
digit 10
0
= b 10
2
+ c 10
1
+ a 10
0
.
(ii) (b) Generlised form = Hundreds digit 100 + Tens digit 10 + Ones digit
1
= b 100 + c 10 + a 1.
7. (i) (b) Five squares will be seen when the solid figure is viewed from directly
above.
(ii) (a) Three squares in the bottom, two squares in the middle and one square
on the top will be seen when the object is viewed from directly front.
15
Solutions to PSAIX
8. (i) (a) 4 b 4 d 12 a 3 g 7 =4 4 12 + 3 7
= 1 12 + 21
= 10.
(ii) (d) 0.4 g 0.1 a 0.06 b 0.3 d 0.1 = 0.4 0.1 + 0.06 0.3 0.1
= 0.04 + 0.2 0.1
= 0.14.
9.
(i) (d) (ii) (b)
10. Face Opposite face
100 800
200 700
600 2000
700 200
800 100
2000 600
(i) (b) From above table the required value is 200.
(ii) (b) The value at the bottom of the view (D) will be a value on the face
opposite to the face having 2000. This is 600 (see above table).
11. (i) (b)
1
2
cm = 1 m
1
5 cm
2
=
1 1
5 m
1 2
2
| |
|
' .
= 11 m
(ii) (d) Height on scale : Actual height
=
5
1
2
cm : 11 m =
5.5cm
11m
=
5.5cm 1
1: 200
1100cm 200
= =
12. (i) (c) Notice that a right squre pyramid has 5 faces of which one is square
and four are isosceles triangles.
(ii) (a) E = 4 sides of square and 4 sides of triangles = 8
V = 4 vertices of square and 1 apex = 5
F = 1 face of square and 4 faces of the triangles = 5
13. (i) (d) Required ratio =
8 2
12 3
.
(ii) (d) Required ratio =
20 5
5 : 4
16 4

.
14. (i) (c) Number of numbers =
144
= 12.
(ii) (c) Number obtained in seventh step = 7
2
= 49
Its square root =
49
= 7
Required ratio = 49 : 7 = 7 : 1.
15. (i) (a)
Circumference for large cake 2 30
2.
Circumference for small cake 2 15
(ii) (a)

2 2
2 2
Volume of small cake 15 thickness 15
1 : 4.
Volume of large cake 30 thickness
15 2

16. Quantity of salt in the salt water =
2
100
m
gm
Let x gm of salt to be added.
(i) (c)
2
2
100
100
m
x
m
m x
m
2
+ 100x = 2m
2
+ 2mx
2
gm
100 2
m
x
m
.
(ii) (b)
2
50
100
100
m
x
m x
m
2
+ 100 x = 50 m + 50 x x =
2
50
50
m m
gm
17. (i) (d) 32 a 8 b 2 c 4 d 6 = 32 8 2 + 4 6
= 4 2 + 4 6 = 6.
(ii) (a) 8 d 8 b 12 a 3 c 24=8 8 12 3 + 24
= 8 8 4 + 24 = 0.
18. (i) (d) Each row or column adds a total of 12.
(ii) (b) In each row, numbers from left to right are decreasing by 5.
19. (i) (c) a < b ... (i)
b = c ... (ii)
Substituting the value of b from (ii) in (i), we get
a < c
(ii) (d) If a is negative, then b and c are either both negative, or both zero or
both positive.
If a is positive, then b and c must be both positive.
17
Solutions to PSAIX
20. (i) (c) To obtain area, we will take 1 unit
2
as area of each square marked with
x,
1
2
unit
2
as area of each triangle marked with y, 1 unit
2
as area of
each triangle marked with y, 1 unit
2
as area of each quadrilateral marked
with z and 0 as area of each triangle
marked with t.
Thus area of the polygon = 1 14 +
1
2
6
+ 1 4 + 0 4
= 14 + 3 + 4
= 21 units
2
.
(ii) (c) Area of square = side
2
= 3
2
= 9 units
2
21. (i) (a) Same-side interior angles are congruent only when transversal (here
line t) is perpendicular to parallel lines l
1
and l
2
.
(ii) (b) Pair of alternate exterior angles (here 1 and 5) are always congruent.
22. = 21516 =
21516
5379
4

= 10878 = 10878 5379 = 5499
=
5499
1833
3

(i) (a) = 1833 2 = 3666.
(ii) (c) = 5379 + 1833 = 7212.
23. (i) (b) If x = 4, y = 3, then 4 > 3 but 4 < 3.
(ii) (a) If x = 100, y = 10, then 100 > 10 but
1
100
<
1
10
i.e., 0.01 < 0.1.
24. (i) (a) 8 + 2 1 6 4 = 8 2 1 + 6 4 = 4 1 + 6 4 = 6.
(ii) (c) 7 16 + 8 19 4 = 7 16 8 + 19 4 = 7 2 + 19 4 = 81.
25. (i) (c) Rule: The same figure is joined to it and halved it with horizontal line
segment and then shaded its upper half part.
(ii) (d) Rule: The whole design is rotated by 180 and the head of the arrow is
replaced by its tail.
26. (i) (a) Rule: The sum of the two numbers on the top of design is equal to the
sum of rest of the numbers.
(ii) (b) Rule: The sum of the two numbers on the botton of design is equal to
the sum of rest of the number.
27. (i) (c) 50 5 5 27 4 = 50 5 5 27 + 4 = 10 5 27 + 4 = 27.
(ii) (d) 6 7 10 5 3 = 6 + 7 10 5 3
= 6 + 7 2 3
= 7.
28. In Column I, S is in common in SBI and ASD. On the other hand in Column
II, ga is in common in sa re ga and ga da pa. So ga is code for S. Similarly,
we can identify codes for other letters.
(i) (c) BIRDS sa re ma pa ga.
(ii) (d) DREADED pa ma ni da pa ni pa.
29. (i) (d) A is in common in TAP and SAIL
k is in common in ksd and kptm
(ii) (c) T is in common in TAP and LOTUS
s is in common in ksd and smcpx.
30. The positions of E and G in the adjoining figure
may be between B and A or left to B or E be in
between B and A and G be left to B.
(i) (a) (ii) (d)
31. (i) (c) (ii) (d)
32. (i) (b) The crease works like the line of symmetry. So the sheet after
unfolding will look like as follows:
(ii) (d) The crease works as a line of symmetry. So the sheet after
unfolding will look like as follows:
19
Solutions to PSAIX
33. (i) (b) The number common in the circles of English and French but not in
that of Spanish is 7.
(ii) (b) The number common in the English and Spanish but not in that of
French is 14.
34. (i) (c) In the adjoining figure, there are five triangles of which four are
marked with a, b, c, d and fifth is made up of all these four.
So the given figure censists of 10 triangles.
(ii) (a) Eight triangles are on either side of vertical line and eight triangles are
without considering the vertical line. So the given figure has 24 triangles.
35. (i) (d) If a square is devided into small identical squares, then the total
number of squares, if n small squares are along one side of the square,
is given by
n
2
+ (n 1)
2
+ (n 2)
2
+ ...... + 1
2
Required number of squares = 3

2
+ 2
2
+ 1
2
= 14.
(ii) (d) Required number of squares = 1 (Inside triangle)
+ 3 (outside triangle)
= 4
36. Letter Place from beginning
A 1st
D 4th
E 5th
H 8th
I 9th
N 14th
R 18th
(i) (b) HEAD = 8514 (ii) (a) RANI = 181149.
37. Letter Place from beginning
A 1 st
D 4 th
N 14 th
P 16 th
Z 26 th
(i) (a) PAN = 16 + 1 +14 = 31.
(ii) (d) AZAD = 1 + 26 + 1 + 4 = 32.
38. Letter Place from end
A (26 0)th = 26th
E (26 4)nd = 22nd
S (26 18)th = 8th
X (26 23)rd = 3rd
Y (23 24)th = 2nd
Z (26 25)th = 1st
(i) (c) YES = 2 22 8 = 352.
(ii) (a) XYZA = 3 2 1 26 = 156.
39. (i) (d) Required number = No. of white triangles + No. of shaded triangles +
No. of shaded squares
= 1 + 1 + 1 = 3.
(ii) (c) Required number = No. of white shapes + No. of shaded shapes having
tail
= 2 + 1 = 3.
40. (i) (a) In each pair of polygons except in option (a), both polygons are of same
number of sides.
(ii) (d) All the figures except in option (d) are made up of line segments.
41. (i) (b) The number inside a circle is the arithmetic mean of the numbers
outside of the circle.
(ii) (c) The number inside a circle is obtained by subtracting the sum of left
and right numbers from the sum of top and bottom number of the circle.
42. (i) (a) Each pair of figures except in option (a), loverlaps each other.
(ii) (d) Each set of figures except in option (d) contains only one circle.
43. (i) (a) The numbers in each column add 12.
(ii) (d) The number in each bottom cell is half the product of two numbers in
upper cells
44. (i) (c) Middle number = Sum of numbers in top and bottom cells
Sum of numbers in left and right cells.
= (2 + 6) (1 + 5) = 2.
(ii) (d) Middle number= Sum of remainig numbers 1
= (1 + 3 + 7 + 4) 1 = 14.
45. (i) (c) The number in centre of a circle is half the sum of square roots of all
outer numbers to the circle.
(ii) (b) ? =
4 9 16 25
7
2

.
21
Solutions to PSAIX
46. (i) (c) From the left, second figure has no straight boundaries and fifth figure
is not closed.
(ii) (b) From the left, figures first and second have not all straight boundaries,
and figure fifth has no straight boundaries.
47. (i) (a) Rule:
14 4 = 56; reversed digits : 65
17 3 = 51; reversed digits : 15
Number in centre = 6515
Using the above rule, we get
? = 7548
(ii) (b) Rule: Middle number = Product of nos. in left and right
product of numbers in top and bottom.
48. We will agian use the formula used in Question 35.
(i) (a) Number of squares = 7
2
+ 6
2
+ 5
2
+ 4
2
+ 3
2
+ 2
2
+ 1
2
= 140.
(ii) (a) Number of squares on the chessboard
=8
2
+ 7
2
+ 6
2
+ 5
2
+ 4
2
+ 3
2
+ 2
2
+ 1
2
= 204.
49. (i) (c) Required number = (one calculator and two mirrors) + 3 (atleast one
calculator and at most two mirrors) 1
= 3
(ii) (b) The left most box represents a bottle as well as a calculator. The left
most and the right most boxes represent a mirror as well as a bottle.
The left most box represents a mirror as well as a calculator. Hence
we have been considered only two boxes.
50. (i) (b) Rule: Middle number =
Sum of outer numbers.
5
(ii) (b) Rule: Middle number = Sum of numbers in left and top
Sum of numbers in right and bottom.
STAND-ALONE MCQs
1. (a) The average velocity would be zero because the total displacement of body is
zero.
Average velocity =
total displacement
0
total time
=
2. (a) Taken time (t) = 60 sec.
Radius (r) = 2 cm
Distance = Circumference
= 2tr
Speed =
2 r
t
t
=
22
2 2
7
60

= 0.21 m/s
3. (c) Velocity (v) = 0
Height of body (h) = 10 m
g = 9.8 m/s
Then the velocity (v) of body is
2
v
= u
2
2gh
0 = u
2
2gh
u
2
= 2 9.8 10
u = 14 m/s
4. (c) Because total distance travelled is directly proportional to the square of time
s = ut +
1
2
gt
2
s =
1
2
gt
2
( u = 0)
s

t
2
( where g is constant)
5. (c) Both, because uniform acceleration means the velocity increases by equal
intervals of time however small intervals of time in a straight line.
SCIENCE
23
Solutions to PSAIX
6. (d) For X
1
distance S
1
= ut +
2
1
2
at
X
1
= 0 +
2
1
2
at
(where u = 0) X
1
=
2
1
2
at
v = u + at v = 0 + at
S
2
= ut +
2
1
2
at
X
2
= at
2
+
2
1
2
at
( u = v = at)
X
2
=
2
3
2
at
1
2
X
X
=
2
2
1
1
2
3
3
2
at
at
=
1 2
3X X =
7. (a) Slope of line in (i) is greater than the slope of line in (ii).
8. (b) Velocity in case of (ii) is less than the velocity in case of (i).
9. (a) BC represents the body moving backward with uniform velocity because when
a moving body covers equal distance in equal intervals then this condition is
said to be uniform motion.
10. (c) As the velocity increases from u to v in a time t with a uniform acceleration a
and covers the distance S.
Sketching a rough diagram from the given information, we have
in velocity-time graph,
Distance S = Area between velocity-time graph and time-axis i.e. Area
of trapezium ABNO.
=
1
2
(AO + BN) ON
=
1
2
(u + v) t ...(i)
, ) 2s u v t = +
Also, acceleration is equal to the slope
of the graph
a =
BP
AP
=
BN PN
ON
i.e.,
v u
a
t
=
By cross multiplication, v u = at or
v u
t
a
=
or v = u + at
Putting in equnation (i)
S = , )
1
2
v u
u v
a
+
, =
2 2
2
v u
a
2aS = v
2
u
2,

2 2
2 v u aS = +
S = , )
1
2
u u at t + +
, = , )
1
2
2
u at t +
1
2
S u at t
|
= +
|
'
11. (a) Player completes circular path of radius r is 40s.
No. of revolution in 2 min 20 sec =
140
40
= 3.5
after completing 3 full round displacement = 0
The remaining path = 0.5
because player travels along the diameter of circle as displacement is the 2r.
12. (a) In the adjoining speed time graph, the shaded portion gives distance travelled.
13. (a) mass = 1 kg
F = 10N
F = mg
10 = 1g
g = 10 m/s
2
So the gravitational intensity will be 10 m/s
2
.
14. (a) As F = mg
Here, gravitational force is acting on mass M
1
so
F = M
1
g
Also, the total mass of the two bodies
= M
1
+ M
2
Then, acceleration of the masses =
F
m
=
1
1 2
M g
M M +
15. (a) When a man walks towards the shore the boat will move away from the shore
because when he tries to pushes the force backward, boat also pushes the
man in forward direction. So due to action force of man boat moves in opposite
direction.
16. (a) Mass of bullet = A
Velocity of bullet = B
Monentum of bullet P = mv = A.B
Mass of wood = C
Mass of system = A + C
Velocity of system =
Momentum of bullet A.B
Mass of wood A + C
=
25
Solutions to PSAIX
17. (c) In horizontal direction the resultant force exerted on M
2
is
F = M
2
a ... (i)
Both blocks are in contact so they have some acceleration so for the first block
F = (M
1
+ M
2
)a
a =
1 2
F
M M +
... (ii)
Now puting the value of a in equation (i)
F = M
2
a
F = 2
1 2
F
M
M M
+
2
1 2
M F
F
M M
=
+
18. (a) Mass of bullet (m) = 0.01 kg
Mass of gun (m) = 5.0 kg
Initial speed of bullet (u) = 250 m/s
Speed of gun recoils (v) = ?
v =
mu
M
=
0.01 ( 250)
5.0
= 0.50 m/s
19. (a) Momentum of disc = M kg m/s
Disc striking at wall = n/60
Associated force would be
Force =
Change in momentum of the body
Time taken
=
60 60
M n Mn
=
20. (a) The string will break below the stone due to reaction force.
21. (c) When we increase the pull at P gradually the string will break above the
stone because froce is equal on stone but because of larger mass of stone and
smaller acceleration the string will break above the stone.
22. (a) Above problem explain the property of inertia.
23. (b) As m = 3 kg,
1
V
= 10 m/s,.
2
V
= 0 m/s, t = 0.25 sec, I = ?.

By the definition of impluse, I = Ft.
And F = ma
=
2 1
V V
t

= 3
0 10
0.25
N
|
|
'
Thus, I = 3
10
0.25
0.25

Ns
= 30 Ns.
24. (a) The force exerted by both teams are equals then rope does not move but the
force applied by teams A is more than team B then the rope of weaker team
B will be pulled towards team A.
25. (b) Tennis ball suffers a greater change in momentum.
26. (c) Acceleration, as F and m are given. From Newtons second law F = ma.
27. (b) F = ma (according to second law of motion).
a =
1N
1kg
=
2
1 kg m/s
1kg
= 1 m/s
2
28. (b) As m = 2 kg for each of the three objects
Net force = 2mg mg
= mg = 2 kg 9.8 m/s
2
= 19.6 N
Total mass = 2 + 2 + 2 = 6 kg
Therefore, acceleration
a =
F
m
=
2
19.6
m/s
6
Now, consider the blocks B and C
mg T
2
= ma
or mg ma = T
2
or T
2
= m (g a)
= 2 (9.8
19.6
6
)
=
, ) 58.8 19.6
2
6
=
39.2
3
= 13.06 N = 13 N (approx).
29. (c) A moves 3.5 m and B moves 2.5 m.
30. (a) W = mg (weight of a man when lift is at rest)
F = ma (Resultant force applied in upward direction)
F = W' W, where W' is apparent weight of man in lift.
or ma = W' mg
or W' = ma + mg
W' = mg
1 (1 )
a a
W
g g
|
+ = +
|
'
27
Solutions to PSAIX
31. (b) Mass (M) = 0.05 kg
Final velocity (v) = 400 ms
1
t = 1 sec
Impulse = m(v u)
= 0.05 (400 0) = 20 kg m/s
I = F t
F =
I
t
=
20
1
= 20 N
32. (c) The coin falls behind because train is moving forward with acceleration.
33. (b) Mass of springs m
1
= 10 kg
m
2
= 20 kg
F = 200 N
F = m
2
a
2
+ m
1
a
1
200 = 20 a
2
+10 12
200 = 20 a
2
+ 120
200 120 = 20 a
2
80 = 20 a
2
a
2
=
80
20
= 4 ms
2
34. (a) A symbol of an element represents one atom of that element. Symbols are
the short form for the names of elements for example: Oxygen O,
Hydrogen H, Phosphorus P.
35. (d) Physical properties are those changes in which state of substance transform
but chemical composition and chemical nature of substance does not change.
36. (c) Ice is a form of solid so the space between particles is very small. These
particles have strong intermolecular force so that they have minimum kinetic
energy.
37. (a) Movement of molecules is different for solid, liquids and gases because position
of molecules are different in them like molecules in solid have strong
intermolecular force. In liquids these molecules have less intermolecular force
than solid so that molecules can move. In gases molecules have least
intermolecular force hence molecules move in random motion.
Solid Liquid Gas
38. (b) Brass. Because mixture shows the properties of its constituents. It is a mixture
of copper and zinc.
39. (a) Water is a compound and compounds do not show the properties of its
constituents.
40. (c) Firstly Kanada said that All matter is composed of very small particles called
parmanu.
41. (a) Tyndall effect.
42. (c) Antonie L. Lavoisier defined element as a basic form of matter.
43. (b) Steel is a homogeneous mixture because it is mixture of uniform compostion
(Fe + C).
44. (c) Both mitochondria and chloroplasts originate and develop in the same way.
They arise by the division of pre-existing organelles. Both are semiautonomous
organelles and contain DNA, RNA and 70s Ribosomes.
45. (b) The cytoplasmic connections from cell to cell are known as plasmodesmata.
46. (a) Membrane occurs in cytoplasm, chloroplast and mitochondria.
47. (d) Ribosomos are smallest organelles found either attached to endoplasmic
recticulum or freely in cytoplasm.
48. (b) Microsomes are formed by distruption of cells. Microsomes are isolated by
centrifugation and used in enzymatic activity and protein synthesis.
49. (d) Golgi apparatus synthesises some polysaccharides (cel lul ose and
hemicellulose) and it is involved in the formation of glycoproteins.
50. (c) The inner membrane of mitochondria is usually highly convoluted forming a
series of infolding known as cristae.
51. (a) Inner membrane of mitochondria contains succinic dehydrogenase and
cytochrome oxidase enzyme which involve in mitochondrial functions.
52. (a) The presence of DNA in mitochondria and chloroplast supports the hypothesis
that mitochondria and chloroplast both originated as independent free living
organism.
53. (c) When green tomatoes turn red then chloroplasts are disintegrated and get
converted into chromoplasts. Chromoplasts absorb light energy and pass it
on to chlorophyll in the chloroplasts.
54. (b) Lysosomes are known as suicidal bags because of hydrolytic activity. They
are involved in digestion of organelles and help in disposal of unwanted
meterials, hence they are called suicidal bags.
55. (d) Lysosomes are the cells of garbage disposal system because they help in
disposal of unwanted materials.
56. (c) Lysosome is not directly involved in synthesis and secretion.
57. (b) The arrangement of outer and central microtubules in a cilium is called the
29
Solutions to PSAIX
9 + 2 pattern. Microtubules are arranged in nine sets of doublets around the
circumference with two single tubules in the centre.
58. (b) Nucleo-cytoplasmic traffic through nuclear pore is facilitated by nuclear
lamina.
59. (b) Chromosome divide when force exerted on centromere.
60. (b) Metacentric chromosomes have equal arms.
61. (d) A telocentric chromosome differs from an acrocentric chromosome in that the
former has termianl and the latter has subterminal centromere.
62. (c) Average thickness of unit cell membrane is 75A.
63. (b) Metaphase represents the best stage in which one can view the shape, size
and number of chromosomes.
In mitosis metaphase is stage of karyokinesis. During karyokinesis nucleus
divides into two daughter nuclei.
64. (c) Synthesis of RNA and protein takes place in G
1
and G
2
phases of the cell
cycle.
65. (d) During G
1
phase of cell cycle the daughter cells have the same number of
chromosomes and same amount of DNA.
66. (c) Mitosis is the process in which cell divides into two daughter nuclei but the
mechanism ensuring genetic continuity is formation of two cells with identical
DNA.
67. (d) Mitosis will be arrested at metaphase stage.
68. (c) During mitosis metaphase differs from anaphase in having half number of
chromosomes and same number of chromatids.
69. (b) In a plant cell, cytokinesis occurs by seperation of the cytoplasm from cell
centre to its periphery during cytokinesis cytoplasm following nuclear division
into two parts, each with a daughter nucleus.
70. (d) The term karyokinesis is used for overall changes occuring in nucleus during
the cell division.
71. (b) 1 cell 2 cell = 1 division
2 cell 4 cell = 2 divisions
4 cell 8 cell = 4 more divisions = 7 in total
proceed to 128 all = 127 divisions.
72. (b) Meiosis involves in two cycles of nuclear and cytoplasmic divisions, but four
daughter cells are formed by single cell of DNA and chromosome replication.
73. (b) Meiosis involves in two division of nucleus and one division of chromosome.
74. (b) Crossing-over occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous
chromosomes. Crossing-over is the exchange of portion of chromatids between
homologous chromosomes.
75. (d) The terminalisation occurs during diplotene through metaphase.
76. (a) 25.
77. (b) Mitosis differs from meosis in each chromosome duplicating itself at the
beginning of the process and the separation of the duplicates to the poles of
the spindle.
78. (b) Collenchyma consists of living cells with additional cellulose in their walls
which provide support and protection to the young stems and leaves.
79. (d) Sieve tubes are living cells without nucleus.
80. (d) In collateral vascular bundle xylem and phloem stands are joined with
phleoem towards outside.
81. (b) In a bicollateral vascular bundle xylem is sandwiched between phloem. When
two phloem poles occur in a conjoint vascular bundle separated from the
central xylem by strips of cambia. They are bicollateral vascular bundles.
82. (b) Monocot root differs from dicot root in having well developed pith. Pith of
monocot root is large and well developed and very small or absent in dicot
root.
83. (a) In dicot leaves mesophyll tissue is divided into spongy tissue and palisade
tissue. Both tissues carry out photosynthesis.
84. (c) Bulliform cells are present in upper epidermis of monocot leaves.
85. (a) The youngest layer of secondary phloem in woody dicot stem is located just
outside the vascular cambium.
86. (b) Dendrochronology is the study of age of a tree by counting the number of
annual rings in the main stem.
87. (b) There is no marked climatic variation at seashore so that trees at seashore
do not have annual rings.
88. (a) Due to the presence of apical meristeme tree grow from tip and width wise
so that height of sign will remain same in between 1997 to 2007.
89. (a) Connective tissue has matrix. Matrix consists gel like substance and protein
fibres. There are three type of fibres (i) white fibres (ii) yellow fibers and (iii)
reticular fibres.
90. (d) Adipose tissue contains fat and oil. Adipose tissue occurs beneath the skin
and surrounds the internal organs. These tissues have fatty acids which is
stored as triglyceride. Tryglyceride forms fatty droplets that exclude water
so when water oxidised then adipose tissue provides water and energy during
oxidation.
91. (b) Adipose tissue forms a heat insulating layer beneath the skin and prevents
heat loss.
92. (a) The major consituent of vertibrate bone is calcium phosphate.
93. (b) If a bone is left in dilute HCl solution, its inorgainc salts are removed and
the organic matter is left behing. Such bone becomes soft and elastic.
94. (a) The bone marrow of man will be more active.
95. (d) Nissls granules are found in neuron. These granules are rough endolplasmic
reticulum and are the site of protein synthesis. So they are made up by RNA.
31
Solutions to PSAIX
96. (b) Haemocyanin is a blood pigment which contains copper.
97. (a) Red cell count is carried out by Haemocytometer.
98. (b) Muscular tissue uses the greatest amount of energy in human beings. It forms
40 to 50% of the body weight. There are 600 muscles in human body. These
muscles take part in various functions of the body parts.
99. (c) In humans, heat production is increased by the increasing activity of skeletal
muscles.
100. (b) Cardiac muscles. These muscles contract itself throughout the life.
101. (c) Nervous tissues of brain have least capacity for regeneration.
102. (b) Afferent nerve fibre carries impulses from receptor to central nervous system.
103. (c) Deficiency of magnesium element is cause of chlorosis in plants because it is
a consitituent of chlorophyll.
104. (b) Phosphorus is needed in cell membrane, nucleic acid and energy transfer.
105. (c) Rice can be hand over a number of year without adding any nitrogenous
manurus because there are nitrogen-fixing algae in the rice field.
106. (d) Use of fertilizers in pond increase the amount of phytoplanktons because
fertilizers dicrease biological oxygen demand (BOD) of water by which aquatic
animals became dead and planktons grow fastly in the pond.
107. (b) This process is called biological control.
108. (b) Waterlogging of soil makes it physiologically dry because this condition does
not allow to oxygen to enter the soil as oxygen is the main source of soil for
making it more productive.
109. (a) The difference is how they obtain food. Autotrophs make their food by self
and heterotrophs depend on other sources of food.
110. (d) Hybridisation is the process in which two genetically dissimilar parents are
crossed to produce and offspring with both the desired character.
111. (b) High-yielding varieties of wheat were primarily developed by cross breeding
traditional varieties with Mexican varieties.
112. (d) Removal of stamens in an inter-sexual flower before they dehisce is called
emasculation.
113. (b) Father of White Revolution in India is V. Kurian.
114. (a) This technique is embryo transfer.
115. (a) These are the major symptoms of rinder pest disease.
116. (a) IPN (Infectious Pancreatic Necrosis) and VMS (Viral Haemorrhagic
Septicemia) are infectious diseases of fish. Diseases in fishes are caused due
to virus, bacteria, fungus etc.
117. (a) Aquaculture is the medium through which production of fishes, prawns,
lobsters, crabs, molluscs can be incresed.
118. (b) Deuterium has equal number of protons and neutrons.
119. (a) Isotopes have same atomic number but different atomic masses. Their physical
properties are different. But they have similar chemical properties.
120. (c) Atomic number of element is 19. Its electronic confguration is K = 2, L = 8, M
= 8, N = 1. It has one valance electron which occupies N-shell.
121. (c) Maximum number of electrons in any energy level is equal to 2n
2
where n is
energy level.
1st energy level can have 2n
2
= 2 1
2
= 2 electrons
2nd energy level can have 2 2
2
= 8 electrons
3rd energy level can have 2 3
2
= 18 electrons
So M. shell has 18 electrons.
122. (b) R.A. Millikan experimentally proved charge on the electron. Particle
present in the atom possess negative charge of 1.6 10
19
coulombs and a
mass of 9.1 10
31
kg.
123. (c) X is more reactive because it has 6 valance electrons.
X K = 2, L = 8, M = 6, YK = 2, L = 8, M = 8
X has 6 valence electrons so it can gain 2 electrons to complete its octet and
Y has 8 valance electrons hence its octet is complete.
124. (b) The e/m value for cathode rays does not vary with the nature of gas.
125. (a) The new species of Y would be
234
90
Y
because when a o -particle emits from
nucleus, it loses 4 units from atomic mass and 2 units from atomic number.
126. (b) When a | particle emits from nucleus then one unit increase in atomic number
so the daughter nuclide will be
228
90
Th
.
127. (c) The relative atomic mass of many elements are not whole number because of
existence of isotopes and isotopes differ in mass and have same atomic
number.
128. (a) Mg + O
2
2MgO. O
2
represents the atoms of oxygen joined together in a
molecule.
129. (c) The chemical formula of a compound does not represent the state of molecule
of a compound. It represents the compound with the help of symbol and
valency of elements.
130. (c) According to law of conservation of mass, for a balanced chemical equation
mass as well as atoms are conserved.
131. (c) (NH
4
)
3
PO
4
(Ammonium phosphate.)
132. (c) In compound MSO
4
, valency of metal is + 2 (M
2 +
+ SO
4
2
). Hence chloride of
metal M will have MCl
2
formula.
33
Solutions to PSAIX
133. (a) Molecule is the smallest unit of a compound which exists independently.
134. (c) The number of atoms in a molecule of a substance is called atomicity.
Atomicity of phosphorus is 4.
135. (b) 2N represents two atoms of nitrogen.
136. (a) The law of multiple proportion was discovered by John Dalton.
137. (d) CaCO
3
CO
2
+ CaO
10.0 g = 4.4 g + 5.6 g = 10.0 g
Mass of reactant = Mass of product
This observation follows law of conservation of mass.
138. (b) Mass of NaCl = 23 + 35.5
= 58.5 g
58.5 g NaCl contains 23.0 Na
11.7g. NaCl contains =

23
11.7
58.5

= 4.6 g
So the mass of sodium in sodium chloride is 4.6 g.
139. (b) CaCO
3
+ 2HCl CaCl
2
+ H
2
O + CO
2
Mass of CaCl
2
= 40 + 35.5 2
= 111
Mass of CaCO
3
= 40 + 12 + 16 3
= 40 + 12 + 48
= 100
When 100 g CaCO
3
is dissolved, 111 g of CaCl
2
is formed
When 2.5 g of CaCO

3
is dissolved
111
2.5 2.775
100
= g CaCl
2
will be formed.
140. (d) CaCO
3
+ 2HCl CaCl
2
+ H
2
O + CO
2
Molar mass of CaCO
3
= 40 + 12 + 3 16 = 100
Molar mass of CO
2
= 12 + 2 16 = 44
100 g CaCO
3
gives 44 g CO
2
2.5 g CaCO
3
will give
2
44
2.5 1.1 g CO
100
=
At STP 44 g of CO
2
occupies 22.414 litres volume
At STP 1.1 g of CO
2
will occupy
22.414 1.1
44
= 0.5603 litre volume.

141. (b) Atomic mass of Zn = 65
Atomic mass of Cl = 35.5
Percentage of Zn =
65
100
65 35.5
x
x y

or
65
100
65 35.5
x
x y

= 47.8 (As given in question)

or 6500x = 3107.9x + 1696.9y
or 3396x = 1696.9y
or
x
y
=
1696.9
3393
or
x
y
=
1
2
x = 1 y = 2
Compound will be ZnCl
2
142.(c) Cu + 4HNO
3
Cu(NO
3
)
2
+ 2NO
2
+ 2H
2
O
143.(d) Mass of H
2
= 2
Mass of H
2
O = 2 1 + 16 = 18
So the percentage of hydrogen in water =
2
100
18

= 11.11
144.(b) N =
molecular mass
molar mass
Molecular mass = 60
Molor mass of CH
2
O = C + H
2
+ O
= 12 + 1 2 + 16 = 30
n =
60
30
= 2
Molecular formula of compound = (empirical formula) 2
= (CH
2
O) 2
= C
2
H
4
O
2
145. (a) Atomic mass of helium = 4
4 g of helium = 1 gram-atom
8 g of helium = 2 gram-atoms
146. (b) 2 g of H
2
contain 6.022 10
23
molecules
8 g =
23
6.022 10 8
4

= 24.088 10
23
molecules
It has largest number of molecules than others.
147. (c) 1 mole of N
2
.
10
23
molecules of H
2
=
23
23
2 10
0.33
6.022 10
g
35
Solutions to PSAIX
1 mole H
2
O = 18 g
1 mole N
2
= 28 g
10
22
atoms of oxygen =
22
23
16 10
0.263
6.022 10
g
148. (a) KE =
1
2
mv
2
When velocity = 6v
KE =
1
2
m (6v)
2
= 36
1
2
mv
2
149. (b) Since momentum, P m, so heavier mass has greater momentum
150. (b) The maximum work done when the body lifted vertically upward because work
is done opposite to gravitational force.
151. (a) Which one of the bullets will pierce the target with a greater distance, it
depends upon their kinetic energy.
Here, we have,
For bullet P, m = 10 g and v = 20 m/s
so KE of P =
2
1
2
mv
= , )
2 1 10
20
2 1000

J
=
1
200
400 = 2J
For bullet Q, m = 20 g and v = 10 m/s
so KE of Q =
2
1
2
mv
=
1 20
2 1000
(10)
2
=
1
100
100 = 1 J
152. (c) The distance of the body inclined at 90 the work done is W = Fdcos 0
= F d cos 90, W = 0
153. (a) No, earth does not perform work on the moon.
154. (a) m = 20 kg
h = 2 m
g = 10 m/s
2
K = mgh = 20 2 10 = 400 J.
155. (d) As the given balls have the same radius i.e. volume but different masses and
are dropped from same height at same time so their PE, KE and total energy
as well as momentum all depend upon their masses. Thus none of these are
the same.
156. (d) W = Fdcos 0
When cos 0 = 0 work done is maximum.
157. (a) Let rectangular components of the force 50 N are represented by

OA and OB
.
Here,

OC
= 50 N
OA = 30 N
OB = ?
From vector rule,

OB AC =
Applying Phythagoras theorem, in AOAC,
OC
2
= OA
2
+ AC
2
or (50)
2
= (30)
2
+ AC
2
or 2500 = 900 + AC
2
or AC
2
= 2500 900 = 1600
AC =
1600
= 40
Thus,

OB
= 40 N
158. (d) The force will remain zero because the radius of sphere is at 180 angle.
159. (b) A steam engine converts heat energy into mechanical energy.
161. (d) P = mv
or v =
P
m
K =
2
2
1 1
2 2
P
mv m
m
| |
=
|
\ .
K =
2
2
P
m
When P is increased 100%, P becomes 2P, then
K =
2
1 2
2
P
m
m
| |
|
\ .
K =
2
2P
m
Increase in kinetic energy
=
2 2 2
2 3
2 2
P P P
m m m
=
Percentage increase =
2
2
3
2
100
2
P
m
P
m
= 300
162. (a) F = 20 N, d = 1 m, 0 = 45
W = Fd cos 0 = 20 1 cos 45
= 20
1
1
2
37
Solutions to PSAIX
W =
20
2
= 10 2J
Since the displacement is in the direction of force, therefore, work is positive, i.e.
W =
10 2 joule
.
163. (a) K = 20 J, m = 100 g = 0.1 kg
K =
1
2
mv
2
or 20 =
2
1
0.1
2
v
or v
2
= 400
v = 20 m/s
P = mv = 0.1 20 = 2 kg ms
1
164. (b) As the train is accelerating with a uniform acceleration so due to inertia bob
of the pedulum wants to mantain the same position but top portion of the
string moves forward with the ceiling of the train. Thus bob doesnt pass the
central position as previous one. Hence time period increases.
165. (d) As, T =
2
l
g
or
l
T
g
When, l = length of simple pendulum

g = gravitational acceleration.
166. (a) As water is denser medium compartively air so pendulum does not able to
oscillate freely in water. Thus, time period increase.
167. (c) The bob will fall on to the earth due to the absence of the force exerted by the
string in the downward direction.
168. (a) As restoring force always acts towards mean position, i.e., central position so
when bob is in central position the restoring force is negligible hence the forces
are balanced.
169. (b) As the time period of a simple pendulum depends upon its
length and the value of g at the place of the experiment. The
graph T vs L i.e T
L is a parabola.
170. (b) T
1
=
2
l
g
T
2
=
2
4
l
g
1
2
T
T
=
2
2
4
l
g
l
g
1
2
T
T
=
4g
g
1
2
T
T
= 2 T
2
=
1
2
T
T
2
=
2
1 s
2

171. (d) Wavelength = 2L.
172. (a) Speed = wavelength frequency
Speed frequency
So sound wave is directly propotional to its frequency.
173. (c) Sound of frequency below 20 Hz is infrasonic.
174. (a) The relation is
v n =
175. (b)

= 100 m
v = 25 m/s
T = ?
v =
T
T =
100
25
= 4 s
176. (a) Particle A and G in long string produce transverse waves.
177. (c) As both waves longitudinal in and tranverse propogate in solids so they will
propogate in metal.
178. (c) T = 0.02 sec.
T =
1
frequency
Frequency =
1
T
=
1
0.01
= 100.0 c/s
179. (a) The waves produced by supersonic jet planes are shock waves. These wave
causes large change in air pressure.
180. (a) Speed = 340 ms
1
Frequency = 500 Hz
Wavelength = ?
Speed = Wavelength frequency
Wavelength =
speed
frequency
=
340
0.68 m
500
=
.
181. (d) The sensation of sound persist in out brain for 0.1 second. So to hear echo
the time difference between original sound and reflected sound should be more
then that.
39
Solutions to PSAIX
182. (b) Density of brine = 1.2 g/cc
Density of water = 1 g/cc
Mass of solution = 40 1.2 + 30 1 = 78 g
Volume of solution = 40 + 30 = 70 cc
Density of solution =
Mass of solution
Volume of solution
=
78
70
= 1.11 g/cc
183. (a) Total volume of mixture = 60 + 40 = 100 cc.
Volume of mixture = 100 cc
Density of mixture =
60 1.4 40 0.8
100
+
=
116
1.16
100
=
g/cc
184. (a) Height of mercury = 13.5
So column of mercury =
20
13.5
= 1.48 cm.
185. (b) Let volume of body be V
B
and mass M
B
Mass of body = mass of water displaced by the body
M
B
= volume of water density of water
or M
B
=
B
2
V 1
3

(
2
3
part of body is inside the water
i.e., volume of displaced water is )
B
2
V
3
M
B
=
B
2V
3
... (i)
Thus, mass of body = mass of liquid displaced by water
or M
B
= volume of liquid density of liquid
or M
B
=
1
4
V
B
d (
1
4
th part of body is inside the
water)
M
B
=
B
V .
4
d
... (ii)
From equations (i) and (ii)
B
V .
4
d
=
B
2V
3
d =
2 4
3
d =
8
3
g/cc
186. (a) Since the ice cube will displace the water equal to its mass. Hence the water
level will remain same.
187. (d) Mass of the body = 50 kg
and volume = 0.049 m
3
density =
50
0.49
m
v

= 1020.4 kg/m
3
Thus, the density of body is greater than the density of water. Hence body
will sink in water.
Therefore, buoyant force applied by displaced water of volume
0.049 m
3
= 0.049 1000 kgf = 49 kgf
188. (a) Density =
mass
volume
Volume is equal
So ratio of density of body A to density of body B = 1 : 4
189. (a) Relative Density =
Density of metal
Density of water
2.7 =
Density of metal
1000
Density of metal =2700 kg/m
3
Density of metal is more than that of water so it will sink in water.
190. (d) Fluorine causes the mottling of teeth.
191. (a) Helicobacter pylori cause peptic ulcer. These disease related to those persons
who are addicted to toxic substances.
192. (b) Water may get infected by bacteria from excreta, sewer water, etc. Such water
causes cholera disease.
193. (b) Vaccine is not available for dengue. It can be treated only by precautions from
mosquitoes.
194. (c) Tetanus spreads through cut and wound.
195. (c) Binomial system of nomenclature means that every organism has one
scientific name and consisting of a generic and specific name. This is because
there are various type of organism on earth. So for identifying them scientist
gave scientific name to each organism. Which is easily understood by all
biologist over the world.
196. (b) Division class order family genus species
197. (b) The classification of the group algae is based on the nature of pigments
because algae shows different colours in appearance such as red, brown, blue,
green and yellow.
198. (a) Gymnosperms are naked-seeded plants.
41
Solutions to PSAIX
199. (c) Common character of vertebrates is presence of notochord. It is present in
embryo in primary stage. It is present between alimentary canal and nerve
cord. Hence the phylum name is chordata.
200. (d) Presence of segmented body. Protochordates are the group of first chordates
so they show chordates characters.
201. (a) Bryophyta is connecting link between thallophyta and pteridophyta because
bryophytes have characters of both classes.
202. (b) The source of edible seeds known as chilgoza in north India is Pinus
wallichiana.
203. (d) Floral features are chiefly used in angiosperms identification because
reproductive parts are more stable and conservative than vegetative parts.
204. (b) Tapeworm, liver fluke and planarian have flattend body.
205. (a) Sepia have ink gland that when disturbed produces a jet of black ink which
acts as smoke screen to dodge the attacking enemy.
206. (c) Karl von Frisch got Noble prize for decoding the language of bees and
explained their dances for communication.
207. (b) Paripatus is living fossil between Annilda and Arthropoda. Paripatus have
character of both the phyla and still in existence.
208. (a) Generally reptilians have three-chambered heart but crocodiles have four-
chambered heart which is its advance character in reptilians.
209. (a) Archaeopteryx is connecting link between reptiles and birds.
210. (b) Muscacomplete metamorphosis. This pair shows the certain phenomena.
211. (b) Mammary glands are kind of modification of sweat glands. It is milk producing
gland in females which provide food for young ones.
212. (b) Bats have special sensory system called echolocation. It is the method by which
bats can detect objects in the dark.
213. (a) Biochemical cycles are also known as cycles of matters. The cyclic process by
which chemical elements transferred from non-living nutrients pool to living
being.
214. (c) The leguminous plants are important in agriculture because they help in
nitrogen economy of the plant.
215. (c) The denitrification means conversion of ammonia and nitrates to gaseous
nitrogen. This process is affected by dentrifying bacteria which use nitrogen
as source of energy for other chemical reactions.
216. (c) When concentration of salts becomes very high in soil water such type of soil
is physiologically dry soil. Such type of soil does not good for crop production.
217. (c) Ozone layer prevents ultraviolet rays of sunlight from reaching the earth. It
is not stable near the earths surface.
218. (b) Carbon monoxide is a pollutant because it is less stable than carbon dioxide
and easily join other molecules. So molecules of carbon monoxide when enter
the body during breathing combines with haemoglobin easily.
219. (b) SO
2
, CO and Hydrocarbon gases are produced by motor vehicles. Only fly
ash is not produced by vehicles in Delhi.
PASSAGE-BASED MCQs
1. (i) (a) As we know that in a velocity-time graph, a straight line parallel to time
axis shows uniform motion. So the part AB of this graph shows uniform
motion.
(ii) (b) According to graph velocity start increasing from 5 to 10s (second).
(iii) (c) From graph, we see that CD represents the vilocity decreases uniformly.
Here, we have
1
10 V
m/s,
2
0 V
m/s and
t
1
= 10 s, t
2
= 20s
Thus, retardation of the body
=
2 2 1
2 1
0 m/ s 10 m/ s 10
/
20 s 20 s 10
V V
m s
t t

= 1 m/s
2
(iv) (d) Distance covered during 20 s
= Area of rectangle OABI + Trapezium IBCF +
Triangle FCD
= OA AB +
1
2
(IB + FC) IF +
1
2
FD FC
= 2 5 +
1
2
(2 + 10) 5 +
1
2
10 10
= 10 +
1
2
12 5 +
1
2
10 10
= 10 + 30 + 50
= 90 m.
(v) (a) The graph parallel to x-axis show body at rest in distance time graph
and uniform motion-velocity-time graph
2. (i) (b) B is fastest because slope of distance-time graph is more than A and C.
(ii) (c) When B passes A, C has travelled 7.5 km as shown in graph.
(iii) (c) The point F shows B passing C so corresponding value of F on vertical
axis gives 5.5 km.
B
43
Solutions to PSAIX
(iv) (d) The three objects crossed one another in different time so these objects
never meet together.
3. (i) (b) When thread removed from the neck of the balloon as a result reaction
force acts on the balloon in the opposite direction, so balloon moves
towards the wall B.
(ii) (a) When air escapes from the mouth of balloon with great speed, reaction
force acts on balloon in opposite direction of action force applied by balloon
on air inside it.
(iii) (c) This activity demonstrate the 3rd law of motion. This law follows action-
reaction force.
4. (i) (a) Other balance will weigh the same body as 5 kg because all balances give
same measure on earth.
(ii) (b) No, because weight of the body (measured by spring balance) on the moon
is 1/6th that on the surface of the earth
(iii) (a) Grocer balance measure the same because it is independent of g.
5. (i) (b) u = 20, v = 0 m/s, g = 10 m/s
2
(in upward direction)
Using v
2
= u
2
2 gh
(0)
2
= (20)
2
2 10 h
20 h = 400
h =
400
20
20
=
m
(ii) (a) Using v = u gt
0 = 20 10 t
10t = 20
t =
20
10
= 2 sec
(iii) (c) As ball takes the maximum height in 2s when
it is thrown by the boy from a tower. Therefore,
it will take same time in returning to the boy.
Thus, total time = 2s + 2s = 4s.
(iv) (d) If h = 60 + 20 = 80 m, velocity at optimum height
= 0 m/s, g = +10 m/s
2
(in downwardly), t =?
Using h = ut +
2
1
2
gt
80 = 0 t +
1
2
10 t
2
80 = 5t
2
16 = t
2
t =
16 4s =
Thus, total time taken in going optimum height and in arriving on the
ground = 2s + 4s = 6s
6. (i) (b) Chemical reaction takes place and new substances FeSO
4
and Cu are
obtained
(ii) (b) When iron nails dipped in copper sulphate solution the colour of layer
become reddish brown because copper metal gets deposited on iron nails.
(iii) (b) A layer of copper is deposited on iron nails when they are dipped in copper
sulphate solution is due to copper.
(iv) (b) Calcium (Ca) is most reactive among the four as it can displace all of
three elements from their salt solutions.
(v) (d) When silver nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution no reaction takes
place because silver is less reactive than copper.
7. (i) (b) When a hot liquid is allowed to cool, the temprature of the liquid starts
falling down with the time untill it reachers at room temperature.
(ii) (b) Time-temperature graph is measure of rate of loss of energy.
(iii) (d) Temprature remains same in freezing, melting and boiling.
(iv) (a) Lengthier portion of temperature-time graph indicates the change of state
and requires less energy.
(v) (c) The temperature of water remains constant till most of the liquid changes
into vapour state.
(vi) (a) Variation of temperature of water from 0 C to 100 C is represented by
part BC in the graph in question.
45
Solutions to PSAIX
(vii) (a) As variation of temperature with the time is recorded during experiment
and plotted graph shown in question refers to part A to D.
8. (i) (b) When white of an egg is mixed with water a translucent colloidal solution
is obtained.
(ii) (a) A true solution of sugar in water is formed.
(iii) (d) Detergent powder is totally soluble in water so there will be no residue
left after filtration.
(iv) (b) Colloidal solution is translucent, leaves no residue and particles and does
not settle at the bottom.
(v) (a) Salt solution is a true solution in which size of particles is of order
10
8
cm
9. (i) (b) We observe that magnet attracts iron filing whereas sulphur does not
get attracted.
(ii) (c) Sulphur dissolves in CS
2
forming yellow solution while iron filings settle
down due to gravity.
(iii) (b) Heterogeneous mixture will be formed because its component can be
separated by simple physical method.
(iv) (b) Iron sulphide is a compound.
(v) (a) When a mixture of iron filings and sulphur powder is heated it converts
into a black shiny compound (iron sulphide)
10. (i) (b) Weight of protein in skin =
16
100
1 = 0.16
Total weight of bones =
1
6
= 0.16
(ii) (b) If the person weighing 50 kg, the quantity of water in his/her body
= 50
70
100
= 35 kg
=
1
3
1
6
=
6
3
=
2
1
= 2 : 1
(iii) As shown in pie. chart
The distribution of proteins in the muscles =
1
3
The distribution of proteins in the bones =
1
6
So, the required ratio =
1 1 1 6 2
: = = = 2 : 1
3 6 3 1 1
(iv) The percentage of prateins and other dry elements = 16 + 14 = 30%
The are of the circle should be subtend at centre an angle of
30
360
100

108 =
(v) (c) Body part without bone and skin
=
2 1
5 3
+
=
6 5
15
+
=
11
15
11. (i) (a) Photosynthesis mainly occurs in leaf because it contains chlorophyll.
(ii) (b) Light, CO
2
, H
2
O and temperature affect the rate of photosynthesis.
(iii) (a) Phloem transports food energy.
(iv) (a) Palisade mesophyll has most chlorophylls which take part in
photosynthesis.
(v) (c) Waxy cuticle of the leaf reflects back excess light.
12. (i) (c) Protoplasm without nucleus is known as cytoplasm.
(ii) (d) Nucleoplasm is found inside nucleus.
(iii) (c) DNA is found in nucleus.
(iv) (b) Nuclear membrane is double layered which separates the nucleoplasm
of a cell from cytoplasm.
(v) (d) Nucleus is known as controller of all activities.
13. (i) (b) They swell up due to endosmosis.
(ii) (b) The solution present inside dry raisins is hypertonic.
(iii) (b) Root of the plants take water from soil by process of osmosis.
(iv) (c) Solvent can pass through the semipermeable membrane.
(v) (b) If Amoeba is kept in marine water it will shrink after sometime due to
the outward movement of water from cell.
(vi) (d) Diffusion involves in respiration process as movement of CO
2
and O
2
gases
from region of high concentration to lower concetration takes place (from
lungs to blood and blood to tissue).
14. (i) (d) Use of fishes to control aquatic weeds is not preventive measure; it is a
controlling method.
(ii) (d) Use of microorganisms to eliminate weeds is better for crop productivity.
(iii) (d) Cochineal is used to control prickly pear weed (Opuncia).
(iv) (d) 2, 4-D is used for destroying the weeds.
(v) (c) Malathion is used to kill insects.
15. (i) (c) It is called law of conservation of mass.
(ii) (b) The law of conservation of mass states that mass can neither be created
nor destroyed.
47
Solutions to PSAIX
(iii) (b) BaCl
2
+ Na
2
SO
4
BaSO
4
+ 2NaCl
White precipitate of BaSO
4
is formed.
(iv) (c) In the reaction mass of reactants and the products remain same.
(v) (a) During the reaction exchange of ions of chloride and sulphate takes place.
(vi) (a) The law of conservation of mass was stated by Antoine Lavoisier.
16. (i) (a) It shows that most of the parts of atom is hollow.
(ii) (c) It shows that centre of atom is positively charged.
(iii) (b) Whole mass of atom is concentrated in the nucleus.
(iv) (c) The density of nucleus is very high because its size is very small and
whole mass of atom is concentrated in it.
17. (i) (a) P hdg P h = = ( d and g are constant)
(ii) (b) Figure B shows that pressure in liquid remains same in all direction.
(iii) (b) No, because water flows from same height.
18. (i) (b) For side A = area = l b = 25 5 = 125 cm
2
For side B area = 25 10 = 250 cm
2
For side C area = 10 5 = 50 cm
2
Side B covers more area so it will exert less pressure.
(ii) (d) All bricks have same mass so it will feel heavier in all conditions.
(iii) (c) Area of side C = 10 5 = 50 cm
2
We know that
1
P
A
Hence side C will exert maximum pressure.

(iv) (a) Given m = 5 kg
Pressure exerted by surface A
P =
F mg
A A
=
P =
2
5 9.8
392 Nm
0.25 0.05
Pressure exerted by surface B =

2
5 9.8
1960 Nm
0.25 0.1
Pressure exerted by surface C =

2
5 9.8
9800 Nm
0.1 0.05
19. (i) (b) Buoyant force will act on bob upward so the length of rubber string will
reduce.
(ii) (c) The weight will be less than 200 g due to buoyant force.
20. (i) (a) Pinna collects sound from surroundings.
(ii) (b) Tympanic membrane is also called eardrum.
(iii) (c) The amplitute of vibration are amplified several times with the help of
hammer, anvil, stirrup.
21. (i) (a) In situation A no work done hence car has no energy to move
(ii) (c) Because car is moving hence it shows kinetic energy and due to storing
energy it shows potential energy also.
(iii) (a) When the spring is wound, it acquires potential energy.
22. (i) (b) Paramecium is a unicellular organism. This is the most primitive type of
animal having single cell.
(ii) (a) All green plants are autorophs because they make their food themselves
by process of photosynthesis.
(iii) (a) Cyanobacteria are prokaryotes.
23. (i) (b) Onion is monocotyledonous plant because they have adventitious root,
leaves have parallel veins, stem is not woody.
(ii) (b) There are four free petals in a mustard flower.
(iii) (c) Stem of onion is eaten as vegetable.
(iv) (a) Plants of angiosperm group bear flower, seeds enclosed in fruit, and plants
have tap and fibrous roots.
(v) (c) Style is a part of gynoecium.
24. (i) (c) Eggs of culex mosquito are laid in cluster in water.
(ii) (b) Larva of culex is at 45 angle to water surface.
(iii) (a) Larva of anopheles is parallel to water surface.
(iv) (b) Anopheles mosquito causes malaria.
(v) (a) Standing water is a breeding site of mosquito.
(vi) (d) Female mosquitoes live one or many months.
(vii) (a) The colour of a culex pupa is greyish.
25. (i) (b) Oxygen is used for release of energy and carbon dioxide by breakdown of
food.
(ii) (c) Fixation of CO
2
is done by photosynthesis process in presence of
chlorophyll through these process carbon enters the carbon cycle.
(iii) (a) The site of photosynthesis process is chloroplast while respiration is
mitochondria in the cell.
(iv) (d) Auto and factory emission, volcanic eruption, decomposition add carbon
dioxide in nature.
(v) (b) Combustion of fuels to provide energy four various purpose also release
CO
2
and other gases.
49
Solutions to PSAIX
STAND-ALONE MCQs
22. (b) Scorched Earth Policy is a kind of feeling that the important things of a place
should not fall in the hands of the enemies.
31. (d) (a), (b) and (c) are contributary factors but even the land kept for grazing
could not feed the cattle because continuous grazing in a small area
deteriorated the quality of pasture.
84. (b) The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of an Election Com-
mission to conduct these elections.
85. (a) He is not elected by the people or by the members of Legislative Assemblies of
State. Chief Election Commissioner does not enjoy any power of appointment.
86. (b) is correct whereas options (a), (c) and (d) are not associated with election.
87. (b) Right to Property is not a Fundamental Right now. It is only a legal right.
It was taken out of the list of Fundamental Rights by 44th amendment of
the Indian Constitution. Options (a), (b) and (c) are Fundamental Rights
which have been included in the Constitution of India.
88. (b) Statements (ii) and (iii) are justified because Permanent executives are
accountable to their code of conduct and Political executives are accountable
to the people.
89. (c) Before Independence, communal electorate was prevalent in India. Now it
has been replaced by the new Constitution of India which provides for joint
electorate. The voting procedure in India is secret. Only the voter knows for
which candidate has he/she voted.
90. (c) Rajya Sabha has not more than 250 members.
91. (b) No, right is limited to the extent that it does not harm other. No body be
given the right to kill others. Therefore, reasonable restrictions are placed
on the enjoyment of rights by the citizens.
92. (a) Because options (b), (c) and (d) are related to the powers of the Prime Minister.
93. (d) When an election is held for the legislature which has been dissolved ear-
lier, it is called mid-term election. Direct and Indirect elections are the
methods of conducting an election.
94. (c) It is necessary to keep the voters list up to date because some people may
have moved away from the area where they voted last.
PASSAGE-BASED MCQs
9. (iii) (b) Madhurima is right. The Registar, by questioning and interfering in her
personal affairs, is violating her right to freedom. Also the social ques-
tion of adopting the husbands surname has roots in a religious practice
which treats women as weaker and inferior. Compelling Madhurima to
change her name is a violation of her right to equality and right to
freedom of religion.
SOCIAL SCIENCE
GRAMMAR AND USAGE MCQs
I. 1 (i) (b) have is the most appropriate verb as we talk of many people and not
just one person.
(ii) (c) Something ranges from one limit to another. So, the word from is used
with ranging.
(v) (b) We try to stay away from something. The word away is used here.
2. (iii) (b) Incidence was of past and we talk of a single earthquake. So was is the
correct verb here.
(iv) (d) Who, whom, whose is used in the context of a person. Here we talk of an
earthquake. So which is the most correct word used here.
(v) (b) Earthquake caused building to shake. Only word made (past tense of
make) is the best fit.
(vi) (c) An activity is referred for certain period of time, so we use continuous
tense of shake i.e shaking is correct verb.
(viii) (b) Here we talk of moving in a particular direction. So towards is best fitting
with East.
3. (i) (c) We live in a house and not on or at the house. So, in is the correct
preposition.
(ii) (d) With the past tense was, we use past participle of the verb. So hidden is
the right verb from used here.
(iv) (c) No conditional conjection is required, simple connector and is used.
(v) (a) Something is full of any object. Here we talk of bushes full of flowers. So
of is the right preposition.
(vii) (b) We talk of an activity just completed. So simple past tense of finish is
used here. This finished is the right form of verb for this sentence.
4. (i) (c) Article the is always used with the superlative form most.
(iv) (b) Something is caused by somebody or due to something. The only article
available from options is by. So this is the correct option.
(vi) (d) When we talk of a quantity in terms of fraction we use the article of like
one-third of population. Thus of is the right preposition.
(vii) (c) Same reason as that of (iv) above.
5. (i) (c) Here, we talk of an activity that has been done in the past and has
occurred this year also. So dried is the right form of verb used here.
Solutions to Language Conventions
ENGLISH
51
Solutions to PSAIX
(ii) (b) Simple conjunctin and is used to link same types of objects like hand-
pumps and wells.
(v) (d) In this sentence, short is not to be used in terms of height but deficiency
of water due to river dryness is being discussed. Thus, shortage is the
right word used here.
6. (i) (b) Something gets spread in an area. Thus in is the correct option.
(ii) (c) Here we talk of a place where something has happened. Which , when
and why are interrogative words. Thus where is the right choice.
(vi) (c) When we talk about an activity going on from a specific period of time,
the preposition Since is used.
Parts II and III are self explanatory and can be done using general grammar
knowledge.
IV. 1. (b) Here we talk of a definite country India, thus definite article the is used
before country.
2. (c) The sentence tells about a plant whose various parts are used as
medicines. Thus whose is the correct choice.
3. (a) Since we talk of tree in general and twigs are plural, we use plural verb
in present tense are before very effective.
4. (b) Paste is used in the treatment of something. Thus in is to be put before
the treatment to complete the sentence.
5. (d) Where, which and whose are interrogative words and are not relevant
in this sentence. Thus option with is the right answer put before neem
leaves.
V. 1. (b) Anybody can be a heir to some will. Thus to is the right choice.
5. (c) Preference shows comparison of something to other. Thus to is the right
answer.
6. (b) Putup means to stay, thus up is used to complete this sentence telling
the plan of stay for the night.
7. (d) There is always a fight over something. Thus over is the correct option.
8. (b) Someone is releived from duty or charge.
10. (b) Takes away means taking something without asking.
11. (a) Abundant means something existing in large quantities of something.
12. (c) One has affection (personal feeling) for someone.
13. (d) One gives assurance of something like help to somebody.
20. (c) One can be a slave of somebody else.
VOCABULARY IN CONTEXT MCQs
1. (c) Crude when used for oil means in its natural state without being refined.
Thus unrefined is the correct meaning.
3. (a) Yield when used with a crop means the produce or the output.
4. (b) Adopt means to make changes as per the situation. To change means to
modify.
6. (a) Devastating means destructing, and disastrous is harmful that inturn
means destructing.
7. (b) Enchanted means got very happy, delighted also means excessively happy.
8. (c) Fatal means something causing death. Thus deadly is the correct meaning.
10. (b) Jaunty means lively and fungiving. Thus, cheerful is right choice which
makes same sense.
11. (b) Indicted means to charge officially with a crime. Thus accuse is the right
word as synonym here.
14. (c) Massacre mean killing of a large number of people cruely like animals
slaughter without any reason.
15. (a) Voracious means eating or wanting large amount of food. Thus hungry
suitably matches this word.
16. (b) Mayhem denotes confusion and state of disorder due to sudden shocking
event. Thus havoc is the right answer.
17. (d) Precarious means not very safe and certain i.e. critical in nature.
20. (c) Immense means extremely large or excessive. Thus extreme can be a close
meaning.
21. (a) Impulse means a sudden strong wish to do something without thinking.
Thus urge is the right synonym.
23. (c) Lured means to get attracted towards something which can be rewarding,
same is the meaning for tempted.
24. (d) Manifest means to show something clearly to someone. Thus demonstrate
is the correct synonym.
25. (a) Scream means a loud and high pitched cry.
II. 1. Loathe means to hate i.e. dislike.
2. Cladestine means not openly visible i.e. hidden.
3. Erudite is a person showing great knowledge i.e. learned.
4. Haughty means behaving in an unfriendly way towards others due to self-
superiority i.e. arrogant.
5. imprudent means not wise or sensible i.e. unwise.
6. Malevolent means showing a desire to harm other. A wicked person also think
the same.
7. Nimble means able to move quickly and easily. Thus quick is the correct
synonym for it.
8. Peril means something which can be harmful i.e. dangerous.
9. Queer means unusual or strange.
10. Reprimand is to disapprove strongly i.e rebuke.
11. Timid means not brave but nervous and unconfident i.e. shy.
53
Solutions to PSAIX
12. Ironic means something humorously said that you actually dont mean i.e.
sarcastic.
13. Stringent means very strict that must be hard to challenge.
14. Turn-up means to arrive, to come to the forefront or to showup.
15. Shallow denote something not very solid or significant or substantial but
superficial.
16. Combat means fight during the time of war between nations.
17. Intimidate means to threaten someone to do what you want i.e. frighten by
threats.
18. Tepid means slightly luke warm, sometimes in a way that is not very pleasant.
19. Destitute is a person without money, food and other things necessary for life
or we can say a poor person.
20. Ascend is to rise, to go up, to climb or to mount up.
21. Synopsis is a brief summary of a piece of writing or a report.
22. Ponder is to consider something carefully or to think deeply.
23. Abundant is something in excess or quantity which is plenty.
24. Shiver is to shake slightly in fear or cold i.e. tremble.
25. Vigour means energy, force, enthusiasm or strength.
III. 1. Dear means expensive or costly and cheap means not highy priced.
2. Liability means something a person owes where as assets are something a
person owns.
3. Virtuous means having better state and vicious means in very bad and severe
state.
4. Lend is to give and borrow it to take from someone.
5. Repel is to drive away something or somebody and attract is to go near.
6. Synthetic is artificial, man-made and natural is god-made.
7. Adaptable is to change as per the situation and rigid is something which
cannot be changed easily i.e. stubborn.
8. Relinquish means to stop having something i.e. to leave and possess means
to carry something.
9. Enormous is large or huge and tiny is very small or minute.
10. Hostile means aggressive or quarrelsome and is not friendly.
11. Valuable means something useful and precious and worthless is unuseful or
not required.
12. Confuess is to admit or accept and deny is to nullify or to say that something
is not true.
13. Hindrance is an obstacle or hurdle and aid is a help in doing something.
14. Hollow is empty from inside and solid is filled from inside.
PASSAGE-BASED MCQs
I. 1. Option (c) is the correct answer as latest medical reports present this fact.
2. Option (d) is the correct answer as it was called a dismal fact.
3. Option (b), the fact is given in the 5
th
line of the passage.
4. Option (a), reason is given in the 6
th
5. Option (d), reason is given in the 10
th
6. Option (c), there is a doubt on the predictions of immortality.
7. Option (c), since the scientific fraternity rarely take this problem seriously.
II. 1. Option (d), since no other option supports the reason.
2. Option (c), evil denotes something that can cause harm.
th
4. Option (b), reason is given in the 8
th
th
6. Option (b), infancy is very early stage of life.
7. Option (a), the passage clearly explains how a religion got developed.
th
9. Option (c), glorious is something that increases the fame and reputation or
we can say praiseworthly.
III. 1. Option (c), reason is given in the 1
st
2. Option (b), rest of the options are discarded from the fact that it is the
performance that matters.
3. Option (a), it is a general saying for something new which is emerging
gradually.
4. Option (b), reason is given in the last line of the passage.
7. Option (a), passage highlights the partical aspects of education in society.
8. Option (b), author emphasizes on the lifelong learning.
IV. 1. Option (c), reason is given in the 1
st
th
3. Option (b), tender means something soft and delicate.
th
nd
line of the second paragraph of the
passage.
6. Option (c), reason is given in the 9
th
V. 1. Option (d), other options do not support the authors views
th
55
Solutions to PSAIX
th
6. Option (a), reason is given in the last line of the first paragraph of this
passage.
7. Option (b), other options support the passage.
st
line of the second paragraph of this
passage.
VI. 1. Option (c), reason is given in the 3
rd
& 4
th
th
rd
& 4
th
5. Option (b), millions of trees will have to be planted in order to meet future
requirements.
VII. 1. Option (d), the opening words of the passage supports the reason.
th
line of the first paragraph of the passage.
nd
line of the 2
nd
paragraph of the passage.
4. Option (a), last paragraph completely explains the reason.
VIII.1. Option (a), reason is given in the 2
nd
st
line of the second.
3. Option (d), other options do not support the statement.
4. Option (d), reason is given in the last 3
rd
IX. 1. Option (d), these are facts given in the first paragraph of the passage.
2. Option (a), reason is given in the introductory lines of the passage.
3. Option (b), reason is given in the third line of the second paragraph.
4. Option (c), reason is given in the fifth line of the fourth paragraph.
5. Option (d), it means illegal.
X. 1. Option (c), reason is given in the third line of the first paragraph.
2. Option (a), reason is given in the last line of the first paragraph.
3. Option (b), reason is given in the fifith line of the second paragraph.
4. Option (d), reason is given in the third line of the third paragraph.
5. Option (b), deserted means left alone unoccupied, seperated from the rest.
XI. 1. Option (a), reason is given in the first two lines of the second paragraph.
2. Option (b), reason is given in the fifth line of the second paragraph.
3. Option (c), reason is given in the fifth line of the third paragraph.
4. Option (a), reason author feared that his duties would be irksome.
5. Option (a), option (b) and (c) do not support the passage
7. Option (c), here lose means he losses sense for surroundings and get involved
completely in something.
8. Option (b), reason is given in the second line of the last paragraph.
XII. 1. Option (c), it is a fact given in the beginning line of the passage.
2. Option (c), other options are not supporting the text given in the passage.
3. Option (b), reason is given in the fifth line of the passage.
6. Option (b), adverse means something that causes harm or creates difficulty,
opposite is something that facilitates or supports.
7. Option (b), here inducing means increasing more improvements, which also
means augmenting something.
XIII.1. Option (b), scenairo is repeated every year but is enacted or implemented.
2. Option (c), reason is given in fourth line of the second passage.
4. Option (b), as rest of the options do not reflect the facts given in the passage.
6. Option (b), reason is given by the fact that passenger subsidy accounted for
nearly 90% of the railway losses.
8. Option (d), reason is given in the last fourth line of this passage.
57
Solutions to PSAIX
HINDI

59
Solutions to PSAIX
61
Solutions to PSAIX

63
Solutions to PSAIX
65
Solutions to PSAIX
67
Solutions to PSAIX
PRACTICE PAPER-1
Solutions to Practice Papers
SECTION-A
1. (d) Plasmodium, a malarial parasitic protozoan is found in mosquitoes
(Anopheles). It completes its half life cycle in mosquito and after biting
Plasmodium enters in human body and completes its some stages of life cycle
and causes malaria.
2. (a) The radius of the earth at equator is 6678 km.
3. (c) Tritium atom prossesses 1 proton. It is an isotope of hydrogen with mass
number 3. The nucleus contains 2 neutrons and 1 proton
, ,
3
1
H .
7. (c) Ozone (O
3
) is found in stratosphere. It is the second layer of atmosphere.
Temperature remians constant within stratosphere. It absorbs ultraviolet
rediations of the sun.
8. (c) Green plants use carbon dioxide gas for preparation of food. Green plants
convert CO
2
into glucose in presence of sunlight and releases oxygen.
6CO
2
+ 12H
2
O
Sunlight
Chlorophyll in plant cell
C
6
H
12
O
6
+ 6O
2
+ 6H
2
O
9. (d) Carbon dioxide gas is responsible for global warming because excess production
of CO
2
increases temperature of atmosphere which is cause of melting of
glacier and rising sea level.
10. (a) In respiration process plants take in oxygen which enters through the tissue
via intercellular space or dissolves in tissue fluids.
11. (b) Neon gas is used to glow sign boards.
12. (d) Ionosphere helps in radio-transmission because this layer contains ions.
SECTION-B
19. (b) a + 1 is a whole number for every whole number a.
20. (d) In the numbers a
a
and b
b
, neither bases nor exponents are same.
21. (c) For cx
n
to be a linear polynomial exponent of x must be unity (or n = 1) and c
must be non-zero real number (or c = 0).
22. (b) A point is also called point circle.
23. (d) If an icecream parlour should be set up at a point equidistant from A, B and
C, then every customer at A, B and C feels convenience to reach the parlour.
69
Solutions to PSAIX
24. (d) Kind of Triangle Situation of the desired point
Acute angle Interior of ABC
Right angle On the ABC
Obtuse angle Exterior of ABC
25. (a) Through three non-collinear points, one and only one circle can be passed.
26. (c) The number of 1s is increasing by one in every next term.
27. (c) Shaded area = Area of rectangle Total of areas of two white triangles
=18 12 2
1
2
8 6
=168 cm
2
28. (a) Area =
1
2
base altitude =
1
2
10 10 = 50 cm
2
29. (a) There should be 3 letters in English Alphabet between 3rd and 2nd letters as
well as 2nd and 1st letters.
30. (d) There should be one letter in English Alphabet between 4th and 2nd letters.
31. (c) There should be 1 letter in English Alphabet between 1st and 2nd letters as
well as 2nd and 3rd letters.
32. (d) Words should be alphabetically from third letter to 1st one.
33. (a) In other figures, the black spot is nearer the arrow.
34. (c) In others there is no black spot.
35. (a) In others, arrows indicate anticlockwise direction.
36. (c) Other designs are made up of only the segments 4, 5, 6.
SECTION-C
37. (c) The activity was done in the past (he saw).
39. (d) The burglars are plural and incedence occured in the past.
40. (b) Activity had just occured, so past perfect tense is used.
41. (b) Article the is used before any designated post.
43. (c) Simple past tense was is used as incidence was of year 2000.
44. (b) In is used with any year date like in 2012.
45. (d) Intervene means to indulge in others matters without being asked i.e. to
interfere.
46. (a) Assimilate means to accumulate or collect something.
47. (b) Erect means in an upright position i.e. straight.
48. (c) Paused means to stop someone from doing something for a short time.
49. (a) Immortal means one which can never die i.e. alive for ever.
50. (b) Disaster means an incident that causes harm or damage which is also called
as calamity.
51. (c) Recede means to decrease in intensity or size i.e. diminish.
52. (a) Agitate means to make someone angry, irritated, annoyed.
53. (a) One has to spent hours in order to get a unique idea.
54. (d) The passage informs us about the working of the cartoonist.
55. (c) The reason is given in the fourth line of the second paragraph.
57. (a) One cannot assume to become a cartoonist.
60. (a) Witty means to think unusual or unimaginable.
OR
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
71
Solutions to PSAIX
57
58
59
60
PRACTICE PAPER-2
SECTION-A
1. (a) Alcohol affects liver. Liver breaks down alcohol to remove it from body but
more drinking of alcohol damages liver by which liver cannot do its proper
functions.
2. (b) Iron sulphide is a compound as it has a definite composition of Fe and S
and these elements do not retain their properties in FeS.
3. (c) In a spring balance, stretching of spring depends on the force applied on spring.
7. (b) Most of diseases enter our body through contaminated water. For example,
cholera, typhoid, jaundice, etc.
8. (d) When a mosquito bites a healthy human being, the sporozoites (infectious
form) are injected into the body. They reach the liver and start multiplying
asexually within the liver cells. By bursting the liver cells the parasites are
released into the blood.
9. (b) Japanese encephalitis virus enters our body through mosquito bite.
10. (b) The main source of typhoid infection is contaminated food and water. Thus
infection caused by bacteria which are transmitted from faeces to ingestion.
11. (d) HIV virus targets lymph nodes because it is centre of lymphocytes production.
Lymphoytes are responsible for immunity of our body.
12. (a) Tuberculosis spreads through air because droplets which come out from
coughing of TB patients are transmitted by wind current.
SECTION-B
19. (c) Area of shaded part = Area of square Area of triangle
= 8
2

1
2
8 3 = 52 cm
2
.
20. (b) know has four distinct letters. So H will denote hour.
21. (a) Let the operations were applied on the number x. Then the wrong operations,
that are,

12
112
6
x
give x = 660.
Correct answer =
660
6
+12 = 122.
22. (a) Let list price = ` 100
Then discounted price (SP) = ` (100 x)
When SP = ` (100 x), list price = ` 100
When SP = ` y, list price = `
100
100
y
x
23. (a)
3 5 7 9 11 13
3 6 11 18 27 38 51.
+ + + + + +

24. (c)
3 5 7 9 11
2 5 10 17 26 37.
+ + + + +

25. (b) First term =
+ +

1
1
b a c a
x x
1
.
1
a
b c a b c
a a
x
x x x x x
x x
= =
+ +
+ +
26. (b) Let radius of the inner circle be x. The line segments
made after joining centres of outer circles form a square
of side 2r long.
Diagonal of the square =

2 2r
But from figure, it is 2x + 2r.
2x + 2r =
2 2r
x =
, ,
2 1 r.
27. (c)
4 6 8 10 12 14
2 6 12 20 30 42 56.
+ + + + + +

28. (d) The given pattern is:
1
3
1, 2
3
1, 3
3
1, 4
3
1, 5
3
1.
29. (a) In other line segments from up to down are in increasing order in counting.
30. (d) In others, square is in between two other designs.
31. (b) In others, the same design is reducing its size from left to right.
32. (c) In others, the middle design is the largest one.
Description for Q 33-36.
The positions of E and G in the given figure may be between B and A or left to B or E
be in between B and A and G be left to B.
33. (a) It is clear from figure that D is the tallest.
34. (d) Shortest is either B or G.
35. (a) Cs position is after D and F.
36. (b) There are exactly three objects right to A.
73
Solutions to PSAIX
SECTION-C
37. (c) Man already expressed his desire to the peon, so use simple past tense.
40. (a) Peon told the officer his intention of what he is going to do.
42. (a) Tonic is always for somebody. Thus preposition for is used.
43. (c) Its a general fact about morning that is always true.
44. (a) Since subject is singular (He), verb is plural (gets). Here energy is neither
given nor be collected from somebody. Thus gets is the correct alternative.
45. (b) Emulate is to copy or follow exactly the same of something. Thus imitate is
the right meaning.
46. (c) Spontaneous means something done unplanned in an sudden way in instant
or moment. Thus instinctive is the correct meaning.
47. (a) Indifference means lack of interest or feeling towards something. Thus
disinterest matches perfectly.
48. (d) Averse means not liking or wanting something i.e. not in favour of doing
something i.e. opposed to something.
49. (c) Virtuous means very well behaved in a good condition, vicious very bad, cruel
or fierce state.
51. (b) Repel means to drive away in order to avoid. Thus attract is the correct
antonym for it.
52. (a) Capacious means having a lot of space to hold where as limited means
restricted to something in small amount.
53. (a) It was referred as Karai plant in the third line of the first paragraph of the
passage.
54. (b) Reason is given in the third line of the second paragraph.
55. (c) Government ban is due to it being an endangered species.
56. (d) Forest mafia has put the forest department in a great trouble dut to this
extraction.
59. (b) This is a fact given in the second line of the second paragraph.
60. (b) Alarming mean something that makes you cautious of checking something,
it is a signal of danger.
OR
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
PRACTICE PAPER-3
SECTION-A
1. (d) Cardiac muscles has 12 nuclei
2. (c) Quantity of absorbed water = 7 g 5g = 2 g
Percentage of water absorbed =
2
100 40%
5

3. (b) m = 50 kg
Height of steps = 15 cm = 0.15 m.
No. of steps = 45.
Total height = 0.15 45 = 6.75
Power =
w
t
=
mgh
t
P =
50 10 6.75
9

= 375 W = 0.375 kW
So used power is 37 kW.
75
Solutions to PSAIX
7. (c) J.J Thomson discovered electron.
8. (d) Atomic mass of electron is
1
1836
the mass of proton.
9. (c) Isomers vary in number of neutrons because isotopes contain different masses.
10. (c)
12 4 9 1
2 0 4 6
Be + n C
11. (d) Atomic mass is equal to number of neutorns + protons.
12. (b) Atomic mass of helium ion is 4. Hence mass of helium ion is 4 times to the
mass of hydrogen atom.
SECTION-B
19. (b) The measure of ABC is independent of octagon ABPQRSTU.
20. (b)

a b
b c
ac = b
2
Now, a
4
: b
4
=
4
4
a
b
=
2 2
4
. a a
b
=
2 4
2 2
2 4
:
a b
a c
c b
21. (b) Let a = 2, b = 3, c = 4
The statement (abc)
3
= (abc)
2
(abc) is true for each of abc = 234 and
abc = 2 3 4.
22. (b) From first figure, 3 dots cannot be opposite 4 dots as well as 5 dots. From
second figure, 3 dots cannot be opposite 2 dots as well as 6 dots. Hence 1 dot
is opposite 2 dots.
23. (c) Figures (i) and (iii) tell us yellow and orange are on opposite faces as these
are small faces. Figure (i) and (ii) tell us Green and Red are on opposite faces.
So the face with question mark ? should be either Blue or Violet.
24. (d) Using 1st and 3rd column, we have, B = 13. Similarly we can obtain the values
of A and C.
25. (a) 7 (1) + 6 1 = 7 + 6 = 1 = .
26. (a)

5 5 5 5 5
36 41 46 51 56 61
.
27. (a)

3 5 7 9 11 13
0 3 8 15 24 35 48
.
28. (c) Display Number Number of Soup Cans
1 1=1
2 1 + 2
2
=5
3 1 + 2
2
+ 3
2
=14
4 1 + 2
2
+ 3
2
+ 4
2
=30
5 1 + 2
2
+ 3
2
+ 4
2
+ 5
2
=55
29. (d) The number in 3rd cell of each row is the sum of numbers in remaining two
cells.
30. (b) Each column adds 18.
31. (a) The middle number of each column is the mean of the remaining two numbers
of the column.
32. (c) The middle number of each row is obtained by subtracting 1st number from
3rd number of the same row.
33. (b)
34. (c)
35. (a)
36. (c)
SECTION-C
37. (b) The action was completed recently, so use past perfect tense.
38. (a) The action happened in the past and is still going on. So use past continuous
tense.
39. (c) Same as the explanation of 38.
40. (d) It is interrogative phrase in simple present. Explanation is same as that of
37.
41. (a) General fact are made in simple present tense.
42. (c) This sentence is contradicitory to previous sentence. So but is used.
77
Solutions to PSAIX
45. (b) Mettle is the ability and determination to do something successfully in spite
of difficult conditions. Thus courage is the correct option.
46. (d) Lapse is a small mistake or an error.
47. (a) Mandatory is required by law or necessary. We can also call it compulsory.
48. (c) Amity is the friendly relationship between people or nations
49. (b) Provocation is the act of making somebody angry or upset where as pacification
is making somebody calm and quiet.
50. (b) Gain is to profit and Lose is to take away something.
51. (a) Stringent is harsh and strict and Lenient is soft and not strict.
52. (c) Adaptable is one who changes easily and rigid is one who is stubborn and
cannot change his view point easily.
53. (b) This fact is given in the second line of the first paragraph.
54. (c) Non-English speaking countries have shown eagerness to pick up this
language.
55. (d) These are facts given in the second paragraph.
56. (b) Ample means more than required i.e., quite sufficient.
57. (a) This fact is revealed in the first line of the third paragraph.
58. (d) All the three options support the fact given.
60. (b) Author disapprove of cynicism towards the study of English.
OR
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
PRACTICE PAPER-4
SECTION-A
1. (c) Brass is a solid solution containing 70% of copper and 30% of zinc.
2. (c) Cell wall is made up of cellulose.
3. (b) Relative density of ice is 0.9 so it floats on water.
7. (b) Particles of suspension is visible through naked eye because it is heterogeneous
mixture in which solid particles are insoluble in a solvent.
8. (b) Dust particle in air is an example of colloidal solution because dust particles
can be seen if light is passed through them.
9. (c) When light is passed through a solution, its path illuminated. The solution is
colloidal solution.
10. (d) Shaving cream foam is an example of solution of gas in liquid.
11. (a) Salt solution will not scatter light because it is a true solution.
12. (c) Electric chimney is based on electrophoresis. Smoke particles get attracted
towards charged electrode.
79
Solutions to PSAIX
SECTION-B
19. (b) None of the numbers 1, 2, 4 and 5 is opposite to face 3 as shown in the given
figures.
20. (b) From the given figures, it is clear that the colour opposite to blue will neither
be white nor green nor orange nor yellow. So it should be red.
21. (b) There are three squences in the given pattern as below:
22. (c) The true series is
2 2 2 2 2
4 8 16 32 64 128.

23. (a)
24. (d)
25. (a)
26. (b)
AE = 12 10 = 2 m.
27. (b) a + b + c = 180
The sum of all the exterior angles of any polygon including triangle
= 360
= 2 180
= 2 (a + b + c).
28. (b)

2805 1100
2.55 1
Dividing numerator by 10 and multiplying denominator by 10 to both sides,
we have

280.5 110
11
25.5 10
.
29. (d) The numbers outside the figure add a number equal to the number inside
the figure.
30. (a) 10 + 5 12 = 3
5 + 4 7 = 2
3 + 4 5 = 2
31. (d) Middle number = sum of above and below numbers
Sum of left and right numbers.
32. (d) Inside number = mean of all outside numbers.
33. (a) After placing the design of option (a), the vertical line will become a line of
symmetry.
34. (b) After placing the design of option (b), the vertical line will become a line of
symmetry.
35. (b) After placing the design of option (b), the vertical line will become a line of
symmetry.
36. (b) After placing the design (b), we get the figure as shown.
SECTION-C
37. (b) The action has been taken before, so use of present perfect tense.
38. (a) The wise was expressed to do action in this time. So future perfect tense is
used.
39. (c) Same as the explanation of 38.
41. (b) Option (a) and (d) are not appropriate. No comparison with other object, so
we cannot consider (i). We use an objective with very. Thus costly is the right
choice.
42. (c) One is afraid of some noun not a verb. Thus option (c) is the right choice.
45. (b) Amused means something that is funny or makes laugh whereas saddened
means something that is unhappy and unpleasent.
81
Solutions to PSAIX
46. (c) Friendly means behaving in a kind and pleasent way whereas Hostile means
behaving in an arrogant and rude way.
47. (d) Abounds means something that exist in great number or quantities. Lacks
means something that is present in very small quantities or is almost absent.
48. (b) Reluctant means not liking to do something or try to avoid something. Willing
means showing interst in doing something.
49. (a) Scintillating means very bright and shining.
50. (c) Adversity means a difficult or unpleasant situation, misfortune also means
an unpleasant event or condition.
51. (d) Error is a mistake or wrong done and Blunder is also carelessness in doing
something in wrong way.
52. (c) Massacre is the killing of great number of people and slaughter is also the
killing of animals for meat.
53. (c) This fact is given in the second line of the first paragraph.
54. (a) Common language is the means of communication between the Eskimos
located for away.
55. (d) Only this fact is not mentioned in the passage.
56. (c) This fact is given in the first line of the second paragraph.
57. (c) Economic system of Eskimos works lika a commune.
60. (c) This is the only fact which is false.
OR
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
PRACTICE PAPER-5
SECTION-A
1. (c) In uniform circular motion body is moving at a distance so that speed remains
constant but velocity continuously changes its direction.
2. (b) 1 mole of H
2
O
2
= 2 1 + 2 16 = 34 g
34 g of H
2
O
2
= 1 mole
17 g of H
2
O
2
=
1
34
17 =
1
2
= 0.5 mole
3. (d) The common name of Indian honey bee is Apis cerana indica.
7. (b) If moon stops its revolution, it will fall towards the earth.
8. (c) F =
1 2
2
G
m m
d
F
2
1
d
F =
2
1
1
6
|
|
'
= 36 times
83
Solutions to PSAIX
9. (b) m
1
= m
2
= 1 kg
d = 1 m
G = 6.67 10
11
m
2
/kg
2
.
F =
1 2
2
G
m m
d
= 6.67 10
11

2
1 1
1
F = 6.67 10
11
N
10. (c) g =
2
GM
r
=
, ,
2
GM
R h +
( r = R + h)
= Acceleration due to gravity does not depend upon mass.
11. (d) Force of gravitation between two bodies does not depend upon sum of their
masses. It depends upon product of their masses.
12. (c) For the earth escape velocity is 11.2 km/s.
SECTION-B
19. (b) The prescribed sets of numbers are: 742, 746, 741, 746.
20. (c) Figure (i): Neither 1 nor 6 is opposite to 3
Figure (iii): Neither 1 nor 5 is oppposite to 3
Figure (iv): Neither 2 nor 6 is opposite to 3
Hence 4 is opposite to 3.
21. (b)
22. (a) Married Unmarried
Enginneer Ramesh Suresh
Doctor Mukesh Lokesh
23. (a) Let Sunils son can do the whole work in x days.
1 1 1 1 5 5
5 5 5
m m
x
x m x m m
+ = = =
24. (b) (3 15 11) 8 + 6 = (3 15 + 11) 8 6
= 56 8 6
= 1
25. (b)
26. (b) Volume of cone =
1

3

radius
2
height
=
2
1
. .
3
h r
=
2
1
3
rh
.
27. (c) Let x be the semiperimeter of the given triangle. Then
x =
+ +
=
2 2
a b c s
Area = ( ) ( ) ( ) x x a x b x c =
| | |
| | |
' ' '

2 2 2 2
s s s s
a b c
=
| | |
| | |
' ' '
2 2 2
2 2 2 2
s s a s b s c
= , , , , , ,
1
2 2 2
4
s s a s b s c
28. (d) a > b
= =
100 1
100
a b a x
x
b b
.
100
bx
a b = +
29. (d) The whole figure has been rotated anticlockwise by 90.
30. (c) The lower half design has been blacked and the black point has been shifted
from left to right.
31. (d) One link from each zigzag line has been removed. The symbol + has been
converted to and its place has been changed from right to left.
32. (c) The same design is put vertically in the middle of the given design and a
bright square is shown in the centre.
33. (c)
6 8 10 12
3 9 17 27 39
+ + +

34. (b)
4 4 4 4 4
5 1 3 7 11 15.
+ + + + +

85
Solutions to PSAIX
35. (d) There are two sequences:
+ + +

5 7 9
4 9 16 25
.
+ + +

1 1 1
2 3 4 5
.
36. (b) There are three sequences:
SECTION-C
37. (c) Somebody was asked to do as was instructed.
38. (d) Till is used to represent a condition to occur at a certain time.
40. (b) Here, two phrases are contradictory to each other and joined by conjunction
or to make sentence.
43. (b) The word than is use to compare two things. Here what a person did is better
than what was expected of him.
44. (c) The two events are independent as well as complimentary to each other and
are joined by conjunction and.
45. (c) Benevolence means very kind, helpful and generous. Thus this word also means
kindness.
46. (b) Annihilated means completely damaged and no more exist i.e. destroyed.
47. (a) Propensity shows a general tendencey to a particular kind of behaviour. This
shows a natural tendency.
48. (b) Garrulous is a person who speaks execessive, more than is required. Thus
talkative is correct synonym for it.
49. (a) Obeying is to follow an order where as ordering is to give a command.
50. (b) Vanity means a feeling of pride whereas humility is the feeling of inferiority
or humbleness.
51. (d) Pertinent means appropriate to a particular situation and irrelevant means
not in context of a particular situation.
52. (c) Lucid means clearly expressed and obscure is difficult to understand i.e.
unclear.
53. (c) Health is made from consuming nutritive things which is mentioned in the
second line of the passage.
54. (a) Only scented flowers smell good.
56. (b) It is a fact mentioned in the first line of the third paragraph.
58. (b) This fact is given in the third line of the first paragraph.
60. (d) Fourth line of the third paragraph mentions this fact.
OR
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.

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SOLUTIONS TO QUALITATIVE AND QUANTITATIVE REASONING

ar(APR) = ar(BPQ) = ar(QRC) = ar(PQR)

Required angle = 90 75 = 15.

Required angle = 180 89 = 91.

Required number of squares = 3

= 0 m/s, t = 0.25 sec, I = ?.

11.7g. NaCl contains =

When 2.5 g of CaCO

= 0.5603 litre volume.

= 47.8 (As given in question)

When, l = length of simple pendulum

Hence side C will exert maximum pressure.

Pressure exerted by surface B =

Pressure exerted by surface C =

Diagonal of the square =

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