Chapter 09 - External Selection II

Chapter 09 External Selection II Answer Key

Substantive Assessment Methods

True / False Questions

1. Substantive assessment methods are used to reduce the applicant pool to candidates. FALSE

2. Personality tests and ability tests are examples of substantive assessment methods. TRUE

3. Discretionary assessment methods are used to reduce the candidate pool to finalists for a job. FALSE

4. Contingent assessment methods are used to make sure that tentative job offer recipients meet certain qualifications for the job. TRUE

5. Currently, personality tests are viewed as having no validity whatsoever as selection methods. FALSE

6. The Big Five personality test is used to describe emotional and cognitive traits that capture 20% of an individual's personality. FALSE

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7. The traits measured by Big Five personality tests are measures of factors brought about entirely by life environments, and not by genetics. FALSE

8. Surveys are the most common means of assessing personality. TRUE

9. Conscientiousness is a trait that is associated with better job performance, higher job satisfaction, better leadership performance, and higher retention. TRUE

10. Extraversion is associated with higher levels of creativity and adaptability. FALSE

11. Individuals who have higher levels of agreeableness tend to have lower levels of career success and are less able to cope with conflicts. TRUE

12. There is little controversy over the use of personality measures in personnel selection. FALSE

13. Evidence suggests that faking or enhancement almost never occurs on personality tests. FALSE

14. Socially desirable responding, or presenting oneself in a favorable light, doesn't end once someone takes a job. TRUE

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15. Evidence suggests that most applicants have relatively positive reactions towards personality testing. FALSE

16. The two major types of ability tests are aptitude and achievement. TRUE

17. 80% of organizations use some sort of ability test in selection decisions. FALSE

18. Measures of specific cognitive abilities do not reflect general intelligence. FALSE

19. The Wonderlic Personnel test is prohibitively expensive for most organizations, because it requires long face-to-face sessions with a trained psychologist. FALSE

20. Validities for cognitive ability tests appear to be culturally specific, with far lower validities in the European Union relative to the United States. FALSE

21. Cognitive ability tests are excellent predictors for executive and professional jobs, but they are of no value for entry level, clerical, or blue collar jobs. FALSE

22. The true validity of measures of general cognitive ability is roughly .50. TRUE

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23. The biggest reason cognitive tests are not widely used in selection is the difficulty associated with their administration. FALSE

24. A concern regarding the use of cognitive ability tests is adverse impact against African Americans. TRUE

25. Most experts agree that cognitive ability cannot be measured accurately by standardized tests. FALSE

26. Physical ability tests are becoming increasingly common to screen out individuals susceptible to repetitive stress injuries, such as carpal tunnel syndrome. TRUE

27. Sensory/perceptual abilities tests assess the ability to detect and recognize environmental stimuli. TRUE

28. Research suggests that job knowledge tests have relatively poor validity in predicting job performance. FALSE

29. Individuals who have high emotional intelligence are self-aware (good at recognizing their own emotions), other aware (good at recognizing others' emotions), and good at making use of or managing this awareness. TRUE

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30. Some critics argue that because emotional intelligence (EI) is so closely related to intelligence and personality, once you control these factors, EI has nothing unique to offer. TRUE

31. Measures of emotional intelligence are a valuable supplement to personality tests in a selection context, because they have little similarity to personality. FALSE

32. Performance tests and work samples assess applicants' underlying capacities and dispositions. FALSE

33. A low-fidelity test uses realistic equipment and scenarios to simulate the actual tasks of the job. FALSE

34. Performance tests and work samples are readily accepted by applicants as job relevant. TRUE

35. Performance tests are a useful indicator of some job skills, but they need to be supplemented with other predictors because they do not have high content validity. FALSE

36. The major distinction between job knowledge and situational judgment tests is that the former deals with future hypothetical job situations, and the latter explicitly taps the content of the job. FALSE

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37. Integrity tests are paper-and-pencil or computerized tests that attempt to assess an applicant's honesty and moral character. TRUE

38. Interviewer evaluations of applicant integrity are usually very good, and experts like judges and psychologists can detect lying most of the time. FALSE

39. The construct of "integrity" is well understood. FALSE

40. Although applicants probably do sometimes fake their answers on integrity tests, the evidence suggests that such faking does not completely eliminate the validity of these tests in predicting job performance and deviant workplace behavior. TRUE

41. The Meyers-Briggs Type Inventory (MBTI) is an example of an interest inventory. TRUE

42. Interest inventories play a key role in organizational selection decisions. FALSE

43. Interest inventories tend to be more tied to the occupation, rather than the organization or the job. TRUE

44. A typical unstructured interview often contains highly speculative questions. TRUE

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45. Applicant appearance may be a source of error or bias in an unstructured interview. TRUE

46. The starting point for the structured interview is the job rewards matrix. FALSE

47. Situational interviews assess an applicant's ability to project what his/her behavior would be in the future. TRUE

48. Research has found that structured interviews do not add validity in predicting job performance beyond cognitive ability tests. FALSE

49. The interview is the central means through which an applicant can learn about the job and organization. TRUE

50. Applicants tend to react very negatively to the interview. FALSE

51. When developing structured interviews, one or more questions must be constructed for each KSAO targeted for assessment by the structured interview. TRUE

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Multiple Choice Questions

52. ________ assessment methods are used to reduce the candidate pool to finalists for a job. A. Initial B. Substantive C. Discretionary D. Contingent

53. Which of the following is not one of the five-factor model personality traits? A. Conscientiousness B. Extroversion C. General mental ability D. Neuroticism

54. Which of the following is true regarding the Big Five personality factors? A. They are reasonably valid in predicting job performance. B. They represent emotional traits. C. They represent cognitive abilities. D. None of the above.

55. This personality trait is associated with better performance, higher job satisfaction, and lower adaptability on the job. A. Neuroticism B. Extraversion C. Agreeableness D. Conscientiousness E. Openness to experience

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56. This personality trait is associated with more helping behaviors, teamwork, and difficulty in coping with conflicts. A. Neuroticism B. Extraversion C. Agreeableness D. Conscientiousness E. Openness to experience

57. This personality trait is associated with more creativity, effective leadership, and a lower commitment to one's employer. A. Neuroticism B. Extraversion C. Agreeableness D. Conscientiousness E. Openness to experience

58. What are the most useful personality traits, in order, for selection contexts? A. Concientiousness, emotional stability, extraversion B. Emotional stability, conscientiousness, openness to experience C. Agreeableness, openness to experience, extraversion D. Extraversion, conscientiousness, emotional stability

59. Which of the following is true regarding the use of personality tests in the selection process? A. Emotional stability is a much more valid predictor of job performance when it is measured narrowly. B. The aspect of emotional stability that is more relevant to job performance is stress proneness. C. The Core Self-Evaluations Scale has not been shown to have much validity in predicting job performance. D. None of the above.

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60. Which of the following is true regarding research on the validity of personality tests? A. Conscientiousness predicts performance across occupational groups. B. Openness to experience does not predict training performance. C. Extraversion predicts job performance for most jobs. D. All of the above are true.

61. Which of the following statements is false? A. There is little evidence that people fake their scores on personality tests in the hiring contexts B. When individuals believe their scores are being used for selection, their observed scores tend to increase C. Faking has a negative impact on the validity of personality tests D. None of the above statements is false

62. Measures which assess an individual's capacity to function in a certain way are called ______. A. interest inventories B. ability tests C. personality tests D. knowledge tests

63. Which of the following cognitive abilities appear to reflect general intelligence? A. verbal abilities B. quantitative abilities C. reasoning abilities D. All of the above are correct

64. The most widely used test of general mental ability for selection decisions is the _____. A. MMPI B. Myers-Briggs C. Wonderlic Personnel Test D. Job Characteristics Inventory

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65. Which of the following is true regarding cognitive ability tests? A. Cognitive ability tests are among the least valid methods of selection. B. Cognitive ability tests do not generalize to a wide range of organizations and jobs. C. There is reason to believe cognitive ability tests will be associated with positive financial returns. D. All of the above are true.

66. Research has shown that most of the effect of cognitive ability on performance is due to the fact that intelligent employees have greater _____. A. job knowledge B. presentation skills C. social networking capacity D. diligence

67. The biggest reason why cognitive ability tests are not more widely used is _____________. A. they are too expensive B. they are too time-consuming C. they are difficult to administer D. they have an adverse impact on minorities

68. The difference between black and white test takers on cognitive ability tests has been _____. A. demonstrated to be an artifact of question wording B. decreasing over time C. lower when tests are given in an open-ended format D. both b and c

69. Research studies have found ___________ support for the validity of job knowledge tests. A. relatively strong B. no support C. very weak D. some

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70. The process of administering tests that place applicants in hypothetical, job-related situations and asking them to choose a course of action among several alternatives is called _____________. A. situational judgment tests B. behavioral implementation tests C. work sample tests D. Job simulation tests

71. The assessment method which involves the use of very realistic equipment and scenarios to simulate actual tasks of a job is called a(n) ________ test. A. job knowledge B. psychomotor C. high fidelity D. low fidelity

72. Work samples and performance tests are useful for a broad range of jobs, although they are difficult to use in __________ jobs. A. customer service B. assembly C. bank teller D. none of the above

73. Situational judgment tests ______. A. have very high adverse impact B. involve applicants' descriptions of how they would behave in work scenarios C. are based on applicants' evaluations of photographs D. have very low validity

74. Which of the following is true regarding integrity tests? A. Their use has declined in the past decade. B. They are used to reduce employee accidents. C. They are usually paper-and-pencil or computerized measures. D. The construct of integrity is well understood.

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75. Interest inventories are designed to improve person job match by assessing applicant preferences for different types of work. Research suggests that these inventories ____. A. are about as predictive of job performance as ability tests B. are more predictive of job performance than ability tests C. are not strongly predictive of job performance D. are prohibited by law

76. Which of the following is a characteristic of a typical unstructured interview? A. It is usually carefully planned. B. The interviewer makes a quick and final evaluation of the candidate. C. It consists of formal, objective questioning. D. The interviewer is highly prepared.

77. Which of the following is a source of error or bias in unstructured interviews? A. Low reliability between interviewers. B. Nonverbal cues from interviewees influence interview ratings. C. Primacy effects. D. All of the above are true.

78. The first step of the structured interview process is __________. A. selecting and training interviewers B. developing the selection plan C. consulting the job requirements matrix D. developing selection goals

79. The type of structured interview that assesses an applicant's ability to project what his/her behavior would be in the future is the ____________ interview. A. situational B. experience-based C. projective D. KSAO-based

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80. Which of the following is(are) true based on research regarding interviews? A. The validity of structured interviews is low. B. Situational interviews are less valid than job-related interviews. C. Panel interviews were less valid than individual interviews. D. All of the above are true.

81. The correlation between structured interviews and cognitive ability tests is ____________. A. positive B. zero C. moderately negative D. very negative

82. Applicants' reactions to interviews tend to be _________. A. very favorable B. somewhat favorable C. neutral D. somewhat unfavorable

83. Selection for team contexts ____. A. is not much different than for selection in general B. should emphasize both interpersonal and self-management KSAOs C. should not involve members of the team, because that only leads to resentment D. all of the above

Discretionary and Contingent Assessment Methods

True / False Questions

84. Discretionary assessment methods are typically highly subjective and rely heavily on the intuition of the decision maker. TRUE

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85. Contingent assessment methods are always used in the selection process. FALSE

86. Studies suggest that drug users are no more likely to be involved in accidents or to be injured at work. FALSE

87. Individuals who use drugs have been shown to have higher levels of absenteeism and counterproductive work behaviors. TRUE

88. Federal law prohibits drug testing for a majority of jobs. FALSE

89. Drug test results can be very accurate with low error rates, if the proper procedures are followed. TRUE

90. Some organizations have begun to screen out those who smoke tobacco. TRUE

91. Drug testing methods have become so accurate that it is no longer considered necessary to use retesting to validate samples from an initial screening test. FALSE

92. Organizations may make medical inquiries or require medical exams prior to making a job offer. FALSE

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93. A medical examination for employees is defined the same way as for job applicants. TRUE

Multiple Choice Questions

94. Which of the following is true regarding drug testing? A. Applicants were twice as likely to be tested for alcohol use as drug use. B. The rate of drug testing has declined slightly in recent years. C. Upper-level employees are more likely to be tested than lower-level employees. D. All of the above are true.

95. Which of the following is a recommendation for the use of drug testing programs? A. Drug testing should be done with all jobs. B. Do not inform applicants of the test results. C. Provide rejected applicants with an opportunity to appeal. D. All of the above

96. Drug tests are not common for many jobs because _____. A. drug tests do not "catch" many people B. the law essentially bans drug tests for all jobs not involving operating a vehicle C. drug tests are extremely expensive D. the tests produce a massive number of false positive results

97. Organizations may not ______ prior to making a job offer. A. make medical inquiries B. conduct background checks C. discuss job responsibilities D. none of the above

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Legal Issues
True / False Questions

98. The UGESP addresses the need to determine if a selection procedure is causing adverse impact, and if so, the validation requirements for the procedure. TRUE

99. Any selection procedure that has an adverse impact is deemed discriminatory by the UGESP unless it has been shown to be valid. TRUE

100. The three types of validity studies considered acceptable by the UGESP include face validity, construct validity, and administrative validity. FALSE

101. It is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities, unless the selection procedure is job-related and consistent with business necessity. TRUE

102. An organization may not require medical exams of an applicant, nor make a job offer conditional, pending the results of a medical exam. FALSE

103. There are some jobs for which drug and alcohol testing is mandated by law. TRUE

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104. Records for medical exams of established employees must be kept in relative confidence, although most jurisdictions allow for this information to be shared with supervisors and members of the work group if the employer deems it wise. FALSE

Multiple Choice Questions

105. The best description of UGESP is that they are _____. A. regulations for drug testing in the workplace B. a set of federal regulations related to selection systems as covered by the Civil Rights Act C. a set of regulations relating only to disabled individuals D. regulations that deal only with gender equity and job selection

106. The UGESP requires employers to ____. A. keep records based on religion and marital status for all employees B. perform a local validation study for every subgroup of employees C. consider suitable alternative selection procedures if one of the selection techniques has adverse impact D. assess employee history of drug abuse

107. Which of the following items is a major principle pertaining to selection under the Americans with Disabilities Act? A. It is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities unless the procedure is consistent with a business necessity B. It is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities for any reason C. It is unlawful for employers to require employees to physical agility tests in a selection context D. The employer can retain the right to refuse to hire individuals with disabilities if customers have a strong preference for not encountering disabled staff

108. Which of the following inquiries can be made prior to giving a job offer? A. Questions about history of illegal drug use B. Psychological exams designed to detect mental illness C. Oral or written questions about the existence of a disability D. None of the above

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