PAPER - II

PART I 1. Which statement is correct? a) Al-alloy bolt smaller than mm diameter are not used in primary structure b) Al-alloy bolts and nuts are used where they will be repeatedly removed for purpose of maintenance and inspection c) Both are correct d) None of these 2. AN-73 drilled head bolt is similar to the a) Close tolerance bolt b) Special bolt c) Standard hex-bolt d) All of these 3. To-bolt is a trade name of a) An internally treaded two piece rivet b) An externally treaded three piece rivet. c) An internally treaded three piece rivet d) An externally treaded two piece rivet 4. During installation of To-bolt a) The nut is turned while the bolt is held b) The bolt is turned while the nut is held. c) Bolt are turned at the same time 5. The lock bolt combines the features of a a) High strength bolt and nut and rivit c) High strength bolt, rivet and nut

d) None of these b) High strength bolt d) None of these

6. Blind type lock bolts are a) Used where only one side of the work is accessible b) As a) & they have exceptional strength c) As b) & sheet pull together characteristic d) As c) & where it is difficult to drive a conventional rivet 7. How is a clevis bolt used with a fork-end cable terminal recurred? a) With a shear nut tightened to a snug fit with no strain imposed on the fork and safetied with a cotter pin. b) With a castle nut tightened until slight binding occurs between the fork and the fitting to which it is being attached. c) With a shear nut and cotter pin or a thin self-locking nut tightened enough to prevent rotation of the bolt in the fork d) None of these

8. Which of the bolt head code marking shown identifies a internal hex head bolt? a) b) c)

1) a

2) b

3) c

4) none

9. Which statement is correct? a) Self-locking nuts are used on a/c to provide tight connections which will not shake loose under severe vibration b) S.L.N are used where bolt or nut subject rotation c) Both a) & b) d) None of these 10. Elastic stop nuts are not used a) Where temperature is lower than 250oF c) Between 250oF to 750oF b) Higher than 250oF d) None of these

11. Special washers are used a) Where a bolt is installed at an angle to a surface b) Where perfect alignment with a surface is not required c) Both a) & b) d) None of these 12. The marking found on the head of the stud a) Body diameter, length & shank type b) Body diameter, length & head type c) Only length d) None of these 13. Airloc pasteners consists of three parts a) Stud, grommet and receptacle grommet c) Stud, cross pin and receptacle 14. 7x19 cable is made up a) Seven strands of 7 wires seven wires each c) Seven strands of nineteen wires each d) 19 strands of 19 wires each b) Stud & d) None b) Nineteen strands of

15. The diameter range of 7x19 cables are a) 1/8 to 3/8 b) 1/16 to 3/32 c) 1/8 to d) 1/8 to 1/16 16. Turnbuckle assembly is a a) Mechanical screw b) Making minor adjustment in cable length and adjusting cable tension c) Consisting two threaded terminals and a threaded barrel d) All the above

17. Push-pull tubes are generally made in short lengths to a) Prevent vibration and bending under tension load b) Prevent vibration and bending under compression load c) Only prevent vibration d) None 18. Corrosion resistant steel cotter pin is used in locations where a) Magnetic material is required b) Resistance to corrosion is desired c) Both d) None 19. Which is correct statement a) Pin rivet are used only in shear application b) They should never be used where the grip length is less than the shank diameter c) Both d) None 20. Pin rivets a) Hi-shear rivets b) Used where access to both side of the material is required c) They are approximately three times as strong as solid shank rivets d) All 21. 10 KB 105 a) Flat head c) Countersunk b) Flat head & countersunk d) None

22. 10 KB 107 a) Closed end and a key c) As a and countersunk head 23. AN 10 DH5A where H indicate a) 5/8 diameter head drilled and shank drilled c) 5/8 diameter & shank drilled

b) Flat head d) None b) 5/8 diameter head d) None

24. O-rings can be detected by a) 4 power magnifying glass b) Small cracks, particles of foreign material or other irregularities are checked by rolling c) Slight stretching of the ring checked by dowel d) All 25. Clevis bolt are used for a) Tension load c) Shear load b) Tension & shear load d) None

26. Internal wrenching bolts are suitable for use in a) Shear load b) Tension & shear load c) Tension d) None 27. A cross inside triangle indicates a) Close tolerance bolt steel bolt c) Stainless steel bolt b) Corrosion resistant d) Screw

28. A/C screw is generally manufactured with a) Class-1 fit of thread b) Class-2 fit of thread c) Class-3 fit of thread d) Class-4 fit of thread 29. Generally speaking, bolt grip length should be a) 1 time the thicker material through which they extend b) Equal to thickness of material + one diameter c) Equal to thickness of material through which they extend d) Any length 30. Stainless steel rivet head a) Raised double dash c) Raised cross b) Raised dash d) No marking on head

31. A hole is corroded which cannot be removed, is repaired by a) Scrap out the part b) Helicoil

c) Acres sleeve d) Use special washer 32. Tw=100; a) 150 in lbs c) 175 in lbs 33. For shear joint a) Clevis pin pin Te=? Extension=5, b) d) b)Taper pin A=20 (Torque wrench) 125 in lbs 200 in lbs d) Cotter

c) Roll pin

34. Solid rivet of 1/8 diameter is replaced by (CAP) a) Two rivet of 1/16 diameter b) Three rivet of 1/16 diameter c) Four rivet of 1/16 diameter d) Cannot be replaced 35. Colour code for o-rings a) Red dot for hydraulic fluid b) Green dot for fuel c) Yellow dot for skydrol fluid d) d) None 36. For safetying turnbuckles, locking wire is used in a) Single wrap b) Double wrap c) Double wrap spiral d) All are correct 37. Dzus pastners consist of a stud, grommet and receptacle, stud length is measured in a) Tenth of an inch b) Sixteenth of an inch c) Hundredth of an inch d) Thousandth of an inch 38. A grub screw is a a) Headless type set screw b) Cap screw with fine threads c) Machine screw with flat countersunk head d) Cylindrical piece threaded at both ends and is plain in the middle 39. Grip length of cherry lock rivet is measured in increments a) 1/8 b) 3/32 c) 1/16 d)1/32 40. Identifying marks on the head of Al-alloy rivet indicate

a) Shank size b) Head treatment given by manufacturer c) Specific alloy and by manufacturer d) All are correct 41. The solid shank rivet, which is used in interior of a/c, where maximum strength is needed a) round head b) brazier head c) flat head d) as in c) & is AN-442 42. The standard range for counter sunk head angle is a) 72 - 120 b) 78 - 112 c) 78 100 d)

43. To repair or replacement of protuding head rivet a) round head b) counter sunk head is needed c) universal head is used d) any rivet can be selected 44. For riveting Mg alloy sheet a) 5056 rivet should be used. be used c) mild steel should be used b) monel rivet should d) All of the above

45. Which material you select for riveting Ni-steel sheet a) Monel b) 2017-T c) 2024-T6 d) Mild steel 46. Which one of the following rivet is ready for use as received & need no further heat treatment. a) 2117 b) 2017-T c) 2024 d) 1100 47. Ice-Box rivets are a)2017-T b) 2117-T c) 2024-T d) a) & c) are correct

48. The specification for universal head rivet a) AN-470 b) MS-20613 20615 d) all

c) MS-

49. The protective film of zinc chromate over rivet identified by a) its yellow colour b) pearl gray c) its white colour d) its silver gray colour 50. Part No. AN 470B 3 8 indicates a) shank diameter is 3 b) rivet length is 8

16 c) material is 5056 Al alloy

32 d) all of the above

51. Mark the correct statement. a) Identification marking shall appear either on shank or head of rivet. b) The rivet length shall be taken in fraction of 32 of an inch. c) Group-A, Al-alloy can be used with Group-B Al-alloy keeping in view the dissimilar metal corrosion factor. d) Both a) & b) are correct. 52. The material code for 2024 T rivet a) D b) AD c) DD d) B

53. The absence of latter following the AN-standard number indicate a) material is Al-alloy b) material is steel c) material is mild steel d) any of the above 54. The head marking Raised triangle, indicate the rivet is a) 5056 b) 2219 c) 7075 Monel 55. The head marking for 2024-T is a) raised dot c) raised three dash d)

b) raised double dash d) recessed double dash

56. The marking recessed single dash indicate the rivet is a) QQW 423 b) QQS-633 c) 2117 d) QQ1-281 57. The shank length used for making blind head in a pull thru rivet is a) 1 b) - c) 3/64 d) 3/64 1/8 58. Its proven fatigue strength make it the only blind rivet interchangeable structurally with solid rivet is a) wire draw cheeylock rivet b) dill lock rivet c) bulb cherrylock rivet d) deutsch rivet 59. To joints requiring an excessive amount of sheet take-up, you may select a) pin rivet b) wire draw cherrylock rivet c) bulb cherry lock rivet d) all of the above 60. Riv nut is

a) hollow, blind rivet a) c) counter bored & thread inside

b) made of 6053-Al alloy & d) all of the above

61. In Part No. 10 KB 106, KB indicates a) close end & keyless b) close end & keyed c) open end & keyed d) open end & keyless 62. Part No. 10 - B -107 indicates a) Riv nut having flat head head c) Riv nut having counter sunk head b) Pin rivet having round d) Deutsch rivet

63. Pin rivet a) not a blind type b) have the same shear strength as bolt of equal diameter. c) as in b) & are about 40% weight of bolt d) all of the above. 64. Pin rivets are used a) in compression c) in shear carry bending load. b) in tension d) all of the above & also

65. The Part No. NAS 177 14 17 indicates a) flat head Jo-bolt b) flat head Avdelok fastener c) flat head pin rivet d) counter sunk head, pin rivet 66. The hardware pre-lubricated & must not be degreased before assembly is/are a) Jo-bolt b) Avdelok Fastener c) Both a) & b) are correct d) Huck mechanical lock rivet 67. The AN-3 to AN-20 (hex head a/c bolt) is a) General purpose bolt b) Close tolerance bolt c) Internal wrenching bolt d) Special purpose bolt 68. Mark the correct statement. a) Steel bolt smaller than No.- 10-32 are not use in primary structure. b) The AN-3 & AN-73 series bolt are interchangeable for all practical purpose. c) b) is correct from the stand point of tension & shear strength. d) All are correct.

69. Bolt can be identified a) by material c) a) & shape of head

b) by method of securing d) all of the above

70. The head marking on bolt indicate a) bolt material b) name of manufacturer c) a), b) & whether bolt is a standard type or special purpose bolt. d) a) & b) are correct 71. The marking for corrosion resistant steel bolt is a) raised dash b) asterisk c) single raised dash d) two raised dash 72. For a bolt, part no. AN3DD5A indicates a) bolt is drilled for saftying 2017 Al-alloy c) diameter bolt is 5/16 b) material of bolt is d) length of bolt is 5/8

73. Eye bolt is used a) where internal tension load is applied. b) head is slotted to received common screw driver. c) used for external tension load. d) both b) & c) are correct. 74. Mark the correct statement. a) where, there is not much clearance, stump type lock bolt is used. b) alloy steel lock bolt may be used to replace steel Hi-shear rivets. c) as in b) provided the diameter and head is similar. d) both a) & c) are correct. 75. Bolt part no. ALSF E 88 indicates a) brazier head, stump type lock bolt type lock bolt c) counter sunk, stump type lock bolt type lock bolt 76. The specification AN 335 indicates a) fine thread, light hex nut hex nut c) coarse thread, check nut hex nut b) flat head, stump d) counter sunk, pull

b) fine thread, plain d) coarse thread, plain

77. Castellated shear nut is used a) in tension application. b) in shear application only. c) as in a) & with drilled clevis bolt, taper pin etc. d) as in b) slotted for safety. 78. Stainless steel self locking nut a) having locking shoulder & key. b) used in application where temperature exceed 250 F. c) a) , b) & also called high temperature self locking nut. d) all are wrong. 79. Material used for Tinnerman instrument mounting nut is a) Al-alloy b) Steel alloy c) Brass d) Monel 80. Mark the correct statement. a) Elastic stop nut can be used many time. b) As in a) & when turn with fingers, replace it. c) Every time the parts disassembled, replace the elastic stop nut. d) As in c) & used at place where temperature exceed 250F.

PAPER - II
PART I ANSWER:1. D 6. D 11. A 16. D 21. A 26. B 31. C 36. D 41. D 46. A 51. A 56. A 61. B 66. C 71. C 76. D 2. C 7. A 12. B 17. B 22. C 27. A 32. B 37. C 42. B 47. D 52. C 57. D 62. C 67. A 72. D 77. D 3. C 8. B 13. C 18. B 23. D 28. B 33. B 38. A 43. C 48. D 53. C 58. C 63. D 68. D 73. C 78. C 4. B 9. A 14. C 19. C 24. D 29. C 34. C 39. C 44. A 49. A 54. B 59. B 64. C 69. D 74. D 79. C 5. B 10. B 15. A 20. D 25. C 30. B 35. C 40. C 45. A 50. C 55. B 60. D 65. D 70. C 75. B 80. B

PAPER - II
PART II

a. b. c. d.

To To To To

increase mechanical strength and tackiness reduce mechanical strength and tackiness increase the mechanical strength and reduce tackiness reduce the mechanical strength and increase tackiness

2. Which type of Synthetic rubber will be the first choice for manufacturing of aircraft tubeless tyre a. Butyl rubber b. Neoprene rubber c. BUNA-N d. thiokol 3. Which synthetic rubber is chiefly used in aircraft hot air duct as sealing ring and wire insulation a. Silicon rubber b. Polymethane rubber c. BUNA-S d. BUNA-N 4. Highest resistance to deterioration but lowest physical property is the characteristic of which kind of synthetic rubber. a. GR I b. GR S c. GR P d. GR A 5. To valcanise thiokol rubber, which element to be added a. Sulfur b. Sulfur oxide c. Zinc d. Zinc oxide 6. Which material is used for manufacturing of hydraulic booster piston seal a. Styrene butadiene seal b. Nitrile rubber c. Flexon rubber d. Fluoro carbon rubber 7. Natural rubber attains fibrous structure when a. It under goes at low temperature b. It is frozen c. It is heated to 1300C d. It undergoes continues stress at normal temperature

8. The grade of Kevlar fiber is used for aircraft structure a. Kevlar 49 b. Kevlar 149 c. Kevlar 29 129

d. Kevlar

9. The composition for E glass is a. Magnesia-alumina-silicate glass borosilicate glass c. Soda borosilicate glass

b. Lime-alumina d. None of the above

10. Truly outstanding properties of strength competes with stronger steel is kind of fiber a. S glass b. Hollow fibre glass c. A glass d. Carbon glass 11. Which composit material is difficult to cut or drill a. Glass fibre b. Aramid c. Carbon / Graphite d. None of above 12. Mark the wrong statement for carbon / graphite fibre a. Is used to fabricate primary structure b. It has high strength and high rigidity c. It takes compressive load d. It is ductile in nature 13. Corrosion control techniques are employed when corbon fibre is in contact to aluminium a. A layer of fiber glass is used as a barrie b. Aluminium is anodized, primed and painted prior to assembly c. Both (a) and (b) will be applied together d. None of the above 14. Which composite material is useful for making aircraft parts that are subject to high stress and vibration a. Fibergalss b. Aramid c. Carbon / Graphite d. None of these 15. Mark the correct statement a. Carbon fiber are electrically non conductive b. Carbon fibers have high thermal expansion c. Carbon fibers have high fatigue resistance 16. Boron fibers are made by sintering the boron elements on a thin film of material a. Titanium b. Tin c. Tungsten d. All above 17. Which fiber material bears all tension, compression and bending stresses a. Ceramic fiber b. Boron fiber c. Fiber glass d. Graphite fiber

18. Mark the correct statement in Fiber Orientation a. Warp direction is designated at 900 b. Weft is designated at 00 c. Bias is at 450 angle of fill threads d. None of the above 19. For repairing of fabric, which weave to be used a. Plain weave b. Basket weave c. Satin weave these d. All of

20. Find out the wrong answer: Hybrids of composite material used in Aviation field are a. Kevlar with carbon / graphite b. Kevlar with fiber glass c. Carbon / graphite with fiber glass d. None of these 21. In fiber science, which acts as a curing agent a. Resin b. Matrix c. Catalyst these 22. Plexiglass is a. Thermoplastic b. Thermoset d. None of these d. All of

c. Laminated

23. Mark the correct answer: Apart from strongest adhesive characteristics of epoxy resin, it has other advantages a. Useful at very high temperature b. It withstand bending stress c. Reasonable rigidity and flexibility d. All of these 24. Mark the correct answer: The advantages of fillers to add to resins are a. To control viscosity and weight b. To increase pot life and strength c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of these 25. Nomex is a a. Filler material b. Matrix Core material 26. Tapered roller bearing support

c. Reinforced fiber

d.

a. Radial load

b. Thrust load

c. Both (a) and (b) d.

27. Bearing used on high powered aircraft engine is a. Ball bearing b. Roller bearing c. Plain bearing Both (a) and (c) 28. Plain bearings are used for a. Connecting rods b. Crank shaft d. All of these 29. Bearings are used to take a. Thrust load b. Radial load d. Both (a) and (b)

c. Cam shaft

c. Side load

30. Bearing used where high compressive pressure, is generally made of a. Babitt b. Bronze c. Siliver bronze d. All of these 31. Bearing which offer more friction is made of a. Bronze b. Babitt c. Silicon these d. None of

32. The amount of electricity a capacitor can store is directly proportional to a. Distance between the plate and inversely proportional to the plate area b. Plate area and is not affected by the distance between the plate. c. Plate area and inversely proportional to the distance between the plate d. None of these 33. The correct way to connect a test volt meter in a circuit is a. In series with a unit b. Between the source voltage and the load c. In parallel with unit d. Both (a) and (c) are correct 34. Typical application of Zener diode is as a. Full wave rectifiers b. Half wave rectifier c. Voltage regulator d. Amplifier 35. The method used to rapidly charge a Nickel Cadmium battery utilizes a. Constant current and constant voltage b. constant current and varying voltage

c. Constant voltage and varying current d. Varying voltage and varying current 36. What tasks are completed prior to weighing an aircraft to determine its empty weight a. Remove all items except those on aircraft equipment list, drain fuel and hydraulic fluids b. Remove all items on the aircraft equipment list, drain fuel, compute oil and hydraulic fluid weight c. Remove all items except those on the aircraft equipment list, drain fuel and fill hydraulic reservoir d. All of these 37. Useful load of an aircraft is the a. Difference between the maximum gross weight and empty weight b. Difference between the net weight and total weight c. Some of the empty weight and the max. gross weight d. Weight of the fuel 38. Certain amount of slacks must be left in flexible hose during installation because when under pressure it a. Expand in length and diameter b. Expand in length and contracts in diameter c. Contracts in length and expands in diameter d. Contracts in length and diameter 39. Excessive stress on fluid or pneumatic metal tubing caused by expansion or contraction due to temperature change can best be avoided by a. Using short, straight sections of tubing between fixed parts of aircraft b. Not projecting the aircraft to sudden change in temperature c. Providing bends in the tubing d. None of the above 40. Which heat treating process of metal produces a hard, wear resistance surface over strong, tough core a. Case hardening b. Annealing c. Tempering d. Hardening 41. Which of the following hose materials are compatible with phosphate-ester base hydraulic fluids a. Butyl b. Buna-N c. Neoprene Buna-S

d.

42. In a metal tubing installation a. Rigid straight line runs are preferable b. Tension is undesirable because pressurisation will cause is to expand and shift c. A tube may be pulled in if the nut will start on the threaded coupling d. None of the above 43. Magnetic particles inspection is used primarily to detect a. Distortion b. Deep surface flaw c. Flaws on or near the surface d. Flaws in plastic material 44. Which material cannot be heat treated repeatedly without harmful effects a. Unclad aluminium alloys in sheet forms b. 6061- T9 Stainless steel c. Clad aluminium alloy d. Carbon steel 45. What is generally used in the construction of aircraft engine fire walls a. Stainless steel b. Chromium Molybdenum alloy steel c. Magnesium Titanium alloy steel d. Wrought iron 46. A fiber type self locking nut must never be used on an aircraft if the bolt is a. Under shear loading b. Under tension loading c. Subject to rotation d. All of these

47. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a a. Class-I fit for the thread b. Class-II fit for the thread c. Class-III fit for the thread d. Class-IV fit for the thread 48. Hose and a few projecting globules are found in a weld. What action should be taken a. Re-weld the defective portions b. Remove all the old weld and re-weld the joint c. Grind the rough surface smooth, inspect and re-weld all gaps / holes d. Can be used in the same way

49. Which condition indicate a part has cooled too quickly after being welded a. Cracking adjacent to the weld b. Discoloration of the base metal c. Gas pockets and porosity d. Slag inclusion 50. Which tool is used to measure the clearance between the surface plates and a relatively narrow surface being checked for flatness. a. Depth gauge b. Thickness gauge c. Dial indicator d. Vernier Caliper 51. Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft or other cylinder work a. Combination set b. Dial indicator c. Micrometer caliper d. Set square 52. What tool is generally used to calibrate a micrometer or check its accuracy a. Gauge block b. Dial indicator c. Machinist scale d. None of these 53. When approaching the front of an idling jet engine the hazard area extends forward of the engine approximately a. 10 feet b. 15 feet c. 25 feet d. 35 feet 54. Which of the following is the most satisfactory extinguishing agent for use on a carburetor or intake fire a. Dry chemical b. A fine water mist c. Carbon dioxide d. Form 55. When approaching the rear of an idling turbo jet engine the hazard area extends aft of the engine approximately a. 200 feet b. 100 feet c. 50 feet d. 25 feet 56. When towing a large aircraft a. A person should be in the cockpit to watch the obstruction b. Person should be stationed at the nose c. Person should be positioned each wing tip and the empennage d. A person should be in the cockpit to operate brakes 57. A fuel that vaporizes too readily may cause a. Hard starting b. Detonation c. Vapor lock d. None of these

58. The main difference between grades 100 and 100LL fuel are a. Volatility and lead content b. Volatility, lead content and colour c. Lead content and colour d. All of these 59. Tetra ethyl lead is added to aviation gasoline to a. Retard the formation of corrosive b. Improve the gasoline performance in the engine c. Dissolve the moisture in the gasoline d. None of these 60. If the temperature of a confined liquid is held constant and its pressure is trippled, the volume will a. Triple b. Reduced to one third its original volume c. Remains same d. Multiply by a fixed factor

PAPER - II
PART II Answers: 1c 6b 11 b 16 c 21 c 26 c 31 a 36 c 41 a 46 c 51 a 56 d 2a 7b 12 d 17 b 22 a 27 b 32 c 37 a 42 b 47 c 52 a 57 c 3a 8a 13 c 18 d 23 d 28 d 33 c 38 c 43 c 48 b 53 c 58 c 4c 9b 14 b 19 c 24 c 29 d 34 c 39 c 44 c 49 a 54 c 59 b 5d 10 d 15 c 20 d 25 c 30 b 35 c 40 a 45 a 50 b 55 b 60 b

PAPER - II
PART III 1. During towing operations a) Pilot must be in the cockpit to operate brakes b) A qualified person should be in the cockpit to operate brakes c) A person should be in the cockpit to look for obstructions d) Persons should be stationed at the nose and each of the wing-tips 2. Tail-wheel type aeroplanes have the greatest tendency to move side-ways during taxing when there is a) Cross wind b) Tail wind c) Head wind d) None of these 3. When parking a aircraft after towing, the nose wheel should be left a) Pointed straight ahead b) As it was when towing stopped c) Unlocked d) All are correct 4. Before towing a large aircraft a) Ballast should be put in the cockpit b) Tow bar should be fitted with a strong bolt c) Tow bar should be fitted with a shear bolt d) None of these 5. While towing a large aircraft, personnel required are a) Two in cockpit b) As in a) plus one each on wing tips c) As in b) plus one at the tail d) As in c) plus one in overall control of operation 6. The most commonly used driving tool by a mechanic is a) Ball peen hammer b) Cross peen hammer c) Claw hammer d) Sledge hammer 7. (i) Body hammers are used for driving stakes into the ground (ii) Sledge hammers are used for smoothing or stretching the metal a) Only (i) is correct b) Only (ii) is correct c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct

8. i) Mallets can be termed as soft hammers ii) Plastic mallets are more useful than raw hide mallets a) Only (i) is correct b) Only (ii) is correct c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct 9. (i) Claw hammers are basically used for driving and pulling out nails (ii) The wedge of a cross peen hammer is parallel to the handle a) Only (i) is correct b) Only (ii) is correct c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct 10. A punch is used to a) Mark a location c) Locate a drill properly b) Remove a damaged rivet d) All are correct

11. i) A pin punch is used to remove the shank of the rivet from the hole after rivet head has been chiselled off ii) Diameter of pin punch should be 1/64 inch smaller than the diameter of the rivet to be removed a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 12. i) Location given by a prick punch should always be punched later with a centre punch. ii) Goggles must be used while using any type of punch. a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 13. i) A mushroom head on a punch is better than a crown head since chances of hammer slip are reduced ii) A centre punch can be used for a variety of punching applications a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 14. Most commonly used slip joint plier has a length of a) 4 inches b) 6 inches c) 10 inches inches 15. Duckbill plier a) Is a flat nose plier c) Have serrations on their jaws d) 12

b) Is used for twisting safety wires d) All are correct

16. Needle nose pliers are used for a) Extracting thin/sharp components nails c) Gripping small electronic components

b) Extracting d) All are correct

17. i) A chisel can never cut the material all by itself ii) A die is a cutting tool a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 18. Cutting edge of a chisel is generally ground to an angle of a) 30 degrees b) 70 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 110 degrees 19. Regarding a cutting chisel which statement is incorrect? a) It is made from high grade steel b) Its cutting edge is always wider than the shank c) Cutting edge is flat so that force is applied uniformly on the surface d) Chisel body is either square or octagonal 20. i) A cape chisel is the proper tool to use for knocking the head off a rivet after it has been drilled through ii) A cape chisel is forged from the same type of tool steel as the cold chisel a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 21. Aviation snip a) Is same as Dutchman snip c) Can easily cut thick sheet metals b) Has serrated cutting edges d) All are correct

22. Files are classified with regard to a) Physical shape b) Length c) Type of cut d) All are correct 23. Various types of cut of a file are a) Single cut b) Smooth cut c) Rasp d) Both a) & b) are correct 24. Vixen file have a) Curved teeth c) A special file holder b) No taper either in width or thickness d) All are correct

25. i) Wood rasp files have individual teeth cut on to their surfaces ii) Wood rasps are used to remove wood from a surface where it is not practical to use a saw or a plane a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

26. i) Mill files have uniform thickness, but are tapered in width ii) Hand files have uniform thickness and width a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 27. i) Half round files are tapered in both thickness and width ii) Knife files are tapered in thickness as well as in width a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 28. For filing acute angles, one should use a) Knife files b) Round files c) Triangular files d) All are correct 29. Most files used in aviation have a length of a) 4-10 inches b) 6-12 inches c) 6-16 inches d) 10-20 inches 30. The part of a file that fits into the handle is called a) Heel b) Fitting end c) Tang d) Point 31. i) File is basically a chisel but with many cutting edges ii) Triangular files are used for cutting teeth of handsaws a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 32. Double cut files have rows of teeth. These teeth are set at a) 45 degrees and 70-80 degrees b) 45 degrees and 45 degrees c) 70-80 degrees and 70-80 degrees d) None of these 33. There are five cuts of files ranging from coarsest to the finest. Find out the wrong one a) Coarse b) Bastard c) Smooth d) Finest 34. File should be kept clean by a) Tapping it against the bench c) Lubricating it occasionally b) Brushing it with a wire brush d) Both a) & b) are correct

35. Which type of file has only three grades: regular, fine and smooth a) Vixen b) Wood rasp c) Knife d) Triangular

36. Characteristics of steel are controlled by a) Removal of carbon from iron elements added to it c) Amount of alloying elements added to it

b) Types of alloying d) All are correct

37. Bearing strength of a material refers to a) Direct tensile load it can bear b) Resistance to tear at the point of applied load c) Resistance to fracture at the point of applied load d) Resistance to shear 38. Characteristics of metals relating to drawing it into wire is a) Tensile strength b) Malleability c) Ductility d) Brittleness 39. Fusibility of a metal refer to its property that permits a) Welding b) Drawing into thin sheets c) Drawing into wires d) Good thermal conductivity 40. Aluminium alloy 1100 implies a) Pure aluminium b) It contains 11% copper c) It contains 111% zinc d) Heat treated alloy 41. Aluminium alloys have a four digit index system where each digit signifies something. In 2024, the first digit indicates a) Copper is the major alloying element b) Two alloying elements have been added c) Total percentage of alloying elements d) None of these 42. Alclad is a metal consisting of a) Aluminium alloy core with pure Al surface b) Pure aluminium core with Al alloy surface c) Alternating layers of pure Al & Al alloys d) None of these 43. Which of the following aluminium alloy is heat treated and artificially aged? a) 3003-F b) 5052-H c) 6061-O d) 7075-T6

44. Clad aluminium alloys are used in aircraft. They are a) Lighter than other aluminium alloys b) Stronger than unclad aluminium alloys c) Easily heat treatable d) Less susceptible to corrosion

45. Aircraft structural members made from sheet metal can normally be a) Repaired, except when subjected to compressible loads b) Repaired, except when subjected to tensile loads c) Repaired using approved method d) Not repaired & need replacement only 46. Medium carbon steels have a carbon percentage of a) 0.1 0.3 b) 0.3 0.5 c) 0.5 1.0 d) 1.0 2.0 47. High carbon steel is generally used for a) Shock absorbers b) Landing gear struts c) Engine mounting bolts d) Springs & files 48. What material is used in the construction of firewall of aircraft engines? a) Aluminium alloy b) Stainless steel c) Chrome-molybdenum steel d) Tungsten steel 49. Which of the statement is correct? a) Both heat treatable & non heat treatable aluminium alloys can be strain hardened b) Strain hardening is same as cold working c) Strength & hardness increases during cold working d) All are correct 50. Find out the wrong statement regarding titanium a) It is highly corrosion resistant b) It maintain strength at elevated temperatures c) It has good resistance to creep d) It is magnetic 51. The balls used for ball bearings are made of a) Cast iron b) Cast steel c) Wrought iron d) Carbon chrome steel

52. Files used in fitting shop are made from a) Cast iron b) High carbon steel c) Chrome steel d) Mild steel 53. Property of a material to be drawn plastically before breaking is called ductility. Most ductile material is a) Copper b) Gold c) Lead d) Tin 54. i) Aluminium has high electrical and thermal conductivity ii) Ductility of aluminium improves with the addition of iron & silver a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 55. i) Muntz metal is same as yellow brass ii) Muntz metal contains copper & zinc in the ratio of 3:2 a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 56. Potential difference between two conductors insulated from each other is measured in a) Ampere b) Coulomb c) Ohm d) Volt 57. Correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a circuit is a) In series with a unit b) In parallel with a unit c) Between source voltage and load d) Both b) & c) are correct 58. Which term means .001 ampere a) Micro ampere b) Milli ampere c) Kilo ampere d) Nano ampere 59. Unit used to express electrical power is a) Ampere b) Volt c) Watt d) Coulomb

60. Transfer of electrical energy from one conductor to another without the aid of electrical connection is a) Induction b) Air gap transfer c) Not possible d) Possible but will cause excessive arcing thus not practical 61. Magnetic lines of force pass most readily through a) Aluminium b) Copper c) Iron d) Titanium

62. In a straight conductor, the resistance is not affected by a) Length b) Temperature c) Shape of cross section d) Material 63. Pitot pressure varies with a) Speed b) Air density c) Speed and Air density d) None of these 64. Altimeter and rate of climb indicator utilize a) Static pressure b) Pitot pressure c) Either a) or b) d) Both a) and b) 65. Pitot static system have heating elements to a) Remove moisture from the air b) Prevent ice formation c) To permit flying at high altitude d) All are correct 66. Pressure heads of pitot static system should not be painted, because it a) Impairs their thermal efficiency b) May cause obstruction of orifices c) None of the above d) Both a) and b) are correct 67. Leak test of pitot static system should be carried out a) After installation of a component / instrument b) Whenever malfunctioning is suspected c) At specified periods indicated in servicing schedules d) All are correct 68. Which instruments are connected to the aircraft pitot static system? a) Vertical speed indicator b) Altimeter c) Airspeed indicator d) All are correct 69. The instrument that measures difference between pitot & static pressure is a) Altimeter b) Pressure gauge c) Airspeed indicator d) Vertical speed indicator 70. The unit where calculations are processed is called a) Central processing unit (CPU) b) Control unit c) Arithmetic and logic unit (ALU) d) Computing unit 71. Sequence of steps for computing a program is known as a) Flow chart b) Sequence process c) Algorithm d) None of these

72. Basic function of a computer is a) Addition b) Multiplication 73. EDP stands for a) Electrical data processing c) Entry data processing programme

c) Division d) All are correct b) Electronic data processing d) Electronic discrete

74. A computer basically a) Processes data b) Stores data as per given instructions c) Perform mathematical calculations d) All are correct 75. Computer stores instructions in a) English language c) Octal number system b) Decimal number system d) Binary

76. In a straight and level flight of an aircraft a) Lift equals aircraft weight b) Lift is more than weight c) Lift is less than weight d) Depends upon size of aircraft and its loading 77. Whenever lift is generated, there is certain amount of drag associated with it. This is called a) Form drag b) Skin friction drag c) Induced drag d) Shape drag 78. Lift generated by an airfoil is maximum at an angle of attack of about a) 0 degrees b) 4 degrees c) 12 degrees d) Stalling value 79. Lift generated by an aircraft depends upon a) Density, forward velocity & aircraft area b) Density, square of forward velocity and aircraft area c) Density, square of forward velocity and wing area d) Density, forward velocity & wing area 80. Lift on a wing a) Acts through centre of gravity b) Acts vertically upwards c) Is perpendicular to chord line d) Acts vertically upwards through centre of pressure

PAPER - II
PART III 1. B 6. A 11. A 16. C 21. D 26. A 31. C 36. D 41. A 46. B 51. D 56. D 61. C 66. D 71. C 76. A 2. A 7. B 12. C 17. C 22. D 27. D 32. A 37. B 42. A 47. D 52. B 57. B 62. C 67. D 72. A 77. C 3. A 8. C 13. D 18. B 23. A 28. A 33. D 38. C 43. D 48. B 53. B 58. B 63. C 68. D 73. B 78. D 4. C 9. A 14. B 19. C 24. D 29. C 34. D 39. A 44. D 49. D 54. A 59. C 64. A 69. C 74. D 79. C 5. D 10. D 15. D 20. C 25. C 30. C 35. A 40. A 45. C 50. D 55. C 60. A 65. B 70. C 75. D 80. D

PAPER - II
PART IV 1. While pushing a small and light aircraft, generally a) Rudder control should not be locked b) It should be pushed backward rather than forward c) Flats of the hands should only be used d) All are correct 2. While moving an aircraft from the runway after an emergency a) It should be towed away fast b) It should never be towed away with deflated tyres c) Brakes should never be applied d) All are correct 3. For picketing a light aircraft a) Cable or any rope should be used b) Sufficient slack should be given for all types of ropes c) Aircraft should be parked into the wind d) Both a) & c) are correct 4. Before jacking an aircraft a) Empty the fuel tanks b) Fit critical stress panels c) Level aircraft laterally d) Remove all optional equipment 5. It is generally necessary to jack an aircraft for weighing. Why? a) To set the weighing scales to zero b) To stabilize the weighing scales c) For first determining its empty weight d) For making aircraft level 6. (i) In cross filing, the file is moved length wise across the work (ii) In draw filing, the file is moved side wise across the work a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 7. A handsaw used for cutting across the grains of wood is called a a) Cross cut saw b) Rip saw c) Back saw d) Wood saw 8. A cross cut saw has a) 4-6 teeth per inch c) 10-15 teeth per inch b) 6-12 teeth per inch d) 12-18 teeth per inch

9. Find out the incorrect statement regarding back saw a) It is used for cutting precision parts b) It has 18-32 teeth per inch c) It is same as hacksaw d) Cutting teeth has very little set 10. Hacksaw blades are a) Made from stainless steel b) 12 inches in length c) Held under tension in the frame d) Having 10-14 teeth per inch 11. i) Hacksaw blades are made of either carbon steel or high steel molybdenum steel ii) While using hacksaw, cutting is done only on the forward stroke. The blade should be lifted for the return stroke a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 12. i) For a good cut on a hard material, a blade with more teeth should be used ii) While cutting a tube, a blade should be so chosen that at least five teeth are there on each side of the tube as it is cut a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 13. Length of hacksaw is measured from a) The outer edge b) toothed part of blades c) Between the centre of fixing holes d) Both a) & b) are correct 14. Spiral anger bit for drilling holes in wood are a) Generally 7-10 inches long b) - one inch in diameter c) Used only with a bow type hand brace d) All are correct 15. A screw driver can be used a) For driving screws c) As a chisel 16. Stubby screw driver has a) A blunt edge c) Only wooden handle b) As a punch d) All are correct b) Blade length of up to 2 d) All are correct

17. Screw driver used when there is no clearance for normal screw driver is called a) Closed area screw driver b) Stubby screw driver c) Off set slot screw driver d) Any one of the above

18. Air driven power screw driver should be used a) For large diameter screw b) For removing screw that are jammed c) Where large number of screws are to be removed and fitted back d) When removing screws from harder material 19. A slot screw driver should have sufficient size of the blade to cover certain width of the screw slot. It should cover at least a) 50% b) 60% c) 75% d) 90% 20. i) Cross point screw driver causes less damage than straight edge screw driver ii) Phillips screwdriver require less efforts as compared to normal screw driver a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 21. With regard to wrenches, find out the incorrect statement a) These are made from chrome vanadium steel b) These are generally die cast c) Wrenches are made in various shapes & sizes d) These are plated to improve their appearance 22. Open end wrenches a) Ends are inclined so as to allow the wrench to turn the nut even in restricted space b) Are available in British & Metric sizes c) Open a nut faster than box end wrenches d) All are correct 23. Box end wrenches are used a) To loosen nuts that are exceptionally light b) Where there is restricted space c) For nuts that are bigger than one inch size d) When open end wrench is not available 24. Combination wrenches means, its two ends have a) Open and box end b) Open and cut box end c) Open and flare nut end d) All are correct

25. i) Loosing or tightening of a nut takes longer time if box end wrench is used ii) Box end wrenches can easily open a very tight nut because it grips the nut at many places compared to an open ended wrench a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 26. i) A flare nut wrench is a special type of box end wrench ii) Flare nut wrench is used basically for opening and fitting of pipelines a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 27. Spanners are classified by a) Type b) Material c) Size of the bolt/nut on which it fits d) All are correct 28. Set spanners are off set to an angle a) So that it can be used in restricted places b) A new grip can be got by turning the spanner over c) For proper grip d) Both a) & b) are correct 29. Ratchets a) Allow removal of nut with very small amount of handle movement b) Are available with long and short handles c) Can easily fit into sockets d) All are correct 30. Crowfoot socket wrench is used where the following cannot be used a) Open end wrench b) Box end wrench c) Standard socket wrench d) All are correct 31. Monel metal is an alloy of a) Nickel & copper b) Nickel & chromium c) Copper & chromium d) Copper, nickel & chromium 32. i) Gun metal is used for gears & bearings. ii) Brass is used for cartridge cases a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

33. SAE 2340 is a) Chromium steel with 3% chromium b) Nickel chromium steel with 0.3% carbon c) Nickel steel with 3% Nickel & 0.4% carbon d) Carbon (0.4%) steel 34. Engine mounts are made up of a) 18-8 corrosion resistance mild carbon steel b) Chrome molybdenum mild carbon steel c) Chrome molybdenum high carbon steel d) None of these 35. During nitric acid test, if the material shows strongly magnetic nature, then it is a) Monel metal b) Carbon steel c) Nickel steel d) 18-8 steel 36. Weldability is poorest in case of a) Plain carbon steel b) Low carbon steel c) High carbon steel d) Wrought iron 37. Carbon steel is a) Refined form of cast iron b) Extremely hard c) Made by adding carbon to steel d) An alloy of iron & carbon with varying quantities of sulphur & phosphorous 38. Stainless steel is corrosion resistance due to presence of a) Silicon b) Cobalt c) Chromium d) Manganese 39. Manganese is added to low carbon steel to a) Make them tough & hard b) Raise their tensile strength c) Improve machine ability d) Increase corrosion resistance 40. Cold bending of an aluminium sheet a) Is not permitted b) Softens the material at the bend c) Strain hardens material at the bend d) Results in material failure irrespective of bend radius

41. Titanium can be identified by a) Chemical test c) Moistening & scratching with pencil correct

b) Spark test d) Both b) & c) are

42. L shaped channels are produced by a) Forging b) Extrusion c) Machining d) Casting 43. Muntz metal is used for a) Nuts & bolts c) Fuel & oil lines b) Parts in contact with salt water d) Both a) & b) are correct

44. All carbon steels have well defined critical point & range. Low carbon steel has a) Two critical points b) Three critical points c) Four critical points d) Six critical points

45. In steel, grain becomes coarser when a) It is heated to a temp just below critical point b) It is heated above critical range c) Depends upon carbon percentage d) It does not happen at all 46. Creep in metals is a) Elongation due to temperature b) Temporary elongation due to temperature and stresses c) Permanent set due to stresses and high temperature operation d) All are correct 47. Magnesium alloys are a) Magnetic b) Light in weight c) Cheap & easy to machine d) Highly prone to corrosion 48. i) Bronze is superior to brass in corrosion resistance property ii) Duralumin can be age hardened a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 49. i) Clad metals are two dissimilar metals joined together under high hydraulic pressure ii) Clad metals mean forged non ferrous metals a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

50. Aluminium alloys 2017 & 2024 must be transformed from the heat treatment medium to quench tank within 10 seconds or so. A delay results in a) Retarded age hardening b) Reduced corrosion resistance c) Dull/Strained surface d) Hard/brittle surface 51. Power and work are measured in a) Watt and force b) Watt and joule c) Ampere hour and joule d) Farad and joule 52. One micron is a) 10-3 meter c) 10-9 meter b) 10-6 meter d) None of these

53. The change in resistance depends upon a) Temperature b) Material and length c) Cross sectional area d) Both b) and c) are correct 54. Most extensively used material in aircraft electrical cables is a) Rubber and silk b) Nylon and cotton c) Teflon d) Both b) & c) are correct 55. In a parallel circuit a) Total resistance is less than smallest resistor b) Total resistance decreases when one of the resistance is removed c) Total voltage drop is same as total resistance d) All are correct 56. If there are n numbers of calls, each having a voltage of E and resistance R, then voltmeter connected across the electrolyte will indicate a) nE b) (n-1)E c) n(n - )E d) None of these 57. A 12V bulb is connected in series and draws 3 amperes current from a 12V battery. Its resistance and power will be a) 36 ohms, 4 W b) 4 ohms, 36 W c) 1 ohm, 12 W d) None of these 58. The number of shock mounts required for an original instrument panel is determined by the a) Size of the panel b) Type of the panel c) Weight of the complete panel unit d) Number of instruments to be installed

59. Aircraft instrument panels are shock mounted to a) Absorb all vibrations b) Absorb low frequency, high amplitude shocks c) Channel most airframe vibrations to the instruments d) Absorb high frequency, high amplitude shocks 60. The method of mounting aircraft instruments in their respective panels depends on a) Instrument manufacturer b) Design of the instrument case c) Design of the aircraft fuselage d) Design of the instrument panel 61. How is a flange less instrument case mounted in an instrument panel? a) By four screws which extend through the instrument panel b) By an expanding type clamp secured to the back of the panel and tightened by a screw from the front of the instrument panel c) By a metal shelf separate from and located behind the instrument panel d) By press fit into the instrument panel and held in place by friction 62. Why are most electrical instruments mounted in iron or steel cases? a) To avoid damage to the instrument during maintenance b) To facilitate removal or installation c) To prevent interference from outside magnetic fields d) To reduce heat build up in the instrument 63. When installing instruments in an aircraft who is responsible for making sure it is properly marked? a) An authorised inspector b) The aircraft owner c) The instrument installer d) The instrument manufacturer 64. i) Instrument panels absorb low frequency high amplitude shocks. ii) Shock absorbers of instrument panel permit instruments to operate under conditions of minor vibrations. a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 65. Assembler is a) An individual who assembles computer c) Programme b) Language d) None of these

66. Input unit of a computer communicates between a) Operator & computer b) Memory with printer c) CPU with monitor d) Output & computer 67. Primary memory of a computer are a) RAM, ROM b) RAM, ROM, PROM c) RAM, ROM, CPU d) RAM, ROM, Hard Disc 68. Hard disc & floppies are a) For different purpose b) For same purpose but hard disc stores more information c) For same purpose but hard disc stores less information d) None of these 69. The symbol for hexa-decimal is a) 2 b) 8 c) 10 70. Algorithm uses a) One input, one output c) One input, multiple output d) 16 b) One input, two output d) None of these

71. To solve a fifteen step problem, a computer will work in a) Sequence b) Repetition c) Selection d) Sequence and repetition 72. Which of the following is a storage device? a) Mouse b) Monitor c) CPU d) Hard disk 73. RAM stands for a) Read & access memory c) Record and maintain b) Random access memory d) None of these

74. Radio equipment is protected from vibration damage by a) Shock mounts b) Aluminium alloy jumpers c) Doubler plates around the mounting points d) All are correct 75. To communicate with ground control from an aircraft, pilot uses a) VOR receiver b) VHF trans receiver c) HF transmitter d) ADF

76. Addition of avionics equipment forward of CG limits will affect a) Maximum gross weight and datum b) CG limits and useful load c) Empty weight and useful load d) Useful load only 77. i) AC current passing through a conductor creates emf around the conductor ii) Frequency of radio wave radiated equals the frequency of the applied current a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 78. Basic components of a communication system are a) Receiver & transmitter b) As in a) plus receiver / transmitter antennas c) As in b) plus microphone d) As in c) plus loudspeaker 79. Power output of large commercial aircraft VHF transmitter is of the order of a) 1-15 watts b) 20-30 watts c) 50-100 watts d) 150-200 watts 80. An antenna is a special type of electrical circuit designed to transmit & receive a) Audible signals b) Visual signal c) Electro magnetic energy d) All are correct

PAPER - II
PART IV 1. D 6. C 11. C 16. B 21. B 26. C 31. A 36. C 41. D 46. C 51. B 56. A 61. B 66. A 71. D 76. C 2. B 7. A 12. A 17. C 22. D 27. D 32. C 37. D 42. B 47. B 52. B 57. B 62. C 67. A 72. D 77. C 3. D 8. B 13. C 18. C 23. A 28. D 33. C 38. C 43. D 48. C 53. D 58. C 63. C 68. B 73. B 78. D 4. B 9. C 14. D 19. C 24. D 29. D 34. B 39. B 44. B 49. A 54. D 59. B 64. C 69. D 74. A 79. C 5. B 10. C 15. A 20. D 25. C 30. D 35. B 40. B 45. B 50. B 55. A 60. B 65. C 70. A 75. B 80. C

PAPER - II
PART V 1. Angular momentum is a) Moment of inertia b) d) Sum of a) & b) b) Angular velocity c) Product of a) &

2. Mark the incorrect statement a) Precession is inversely proportional to the strength & direction of applied force. b) Precession is inversely proportional to the moment of inertia of the rotor. c) Precession is inversely proportional to the angular velocity of the rotor. d) None of the above 3. Control of drift, relating to horizontal gyroscopes can be achieved by: a) Calculating corrections using earth rate formula and applying them as appropriate b) Applying fixed torques & cause gyro to process at a rate equal & opposite to the earth rate. c) As in b) but which can be varied according to latitude d) All of these 4. When gimbal orientation is such that the spin axis becomes coincident with one or the other of the axes of freedom which serves as attitude displacement reference is termed as a) Gimbal lock b) Gimbal Error c) Apparent drift 5. When gyroscope as a whole is displaced with its gimbal rings not mutually at right angles to each other is termed as a) Gimbal Lock b) Gimbal Error c) Apparent Drift 6. The vacuum pump or venturi creates a vacuum for operating the Gyroscope which is regulated by a relief value at a) 3.5 in Hg b) 4.5 in Hg c) Between 3.5 and 4.5 in Hg d) None 7. Grip length of the bolt is a) Total length of the bolt b) Plain shank length of the bolt c) Length under the head to the end of the bolt d) None of these

8. In close tolerance bolt, force applied to drive in is a) 10 ounce hammer b) 20 ounce hammer c) 12 to 14 ounce hammer d) Sledge hammer 9. AN 4 - 7 bolt shows a) 7/8 dia b) 1/4" length 10. Bolt of class 4 fit is a) Loose fit b) Free fit c) 4 length c) Close fit d) 1/4" dia d) Tight fit

11. Special washer AC 950 and AC 955 are used where a) Bolt is installed at angle to surface b) Bolt is installed head down c) It can be used any where d) None of these 12. To prevent the crushing surface on wooden structure with nut and bolt, the washer used is a) AN 936 b) AN 935 c) AN 970 d) AN 960 13. Where shear load is taken by the bolt, the nut used is a) Plain nut b) Castle nut c) Castellated shear nut d) Self locking nut 14. In the patch repair of the Aircraft skin, the edge distance (distance from the center of the rivet to the edge of the sheet) should be (d is diameter of rivet) a) 2d to 4d b) 8d c) 6d d) 75% of the pitch 15. Rasp file is used for a) Hard material b) Lead, wood or leather c) Both a) & b) d) Other materials except lead, wood & leather 16. Pinning is related to a) Chisels b) Punches these c) Screw drivers d) None of

17. Philips screwdrivers are tapered to an angle of a) 730 b) 530 c) 600 0 d) 93 18. Snaps are used to a) Support the markers head of rivets b) To make the shop head during riveting c) Both a) & b) d) None of these

19. Punch used for making a series of light pops along scribed line, which will be machined or filed away a) Pin punch b) Stout punch c) Light centre punch d) Parallel pin punch 20. Hand file is related to _______ of file a) Length of file b) Cut of file c) Grade of file d) Section of files

21. Screw drivers are classified by a) Type and length of blade b) Type, grade, cut and section c) Length and type d) Overall length of screw driver 22. Steel drifts should be used a) On soft materials bearing c) Hardened steel 23. Ring spanners are used for a) Fitting the nut all around opened jaws c) Fitting the splined nut 24. Hard hammers are made of a) High carbon steel shape and size c) Tool steel b) For driving ball or roller d) None of these b) Fitting the nut from d) None of these b) Carbon steel and forged to d) Mild steel

25. Flux used for commutator wires and electrical connections a) Zinc chloride b) Zinc chloride by diluting with 50% alcohol c) Alcoholic solution of rosin d) Rosin 26. Slotting hacksaw blade is usually of a) 18 long 3/4" wide c) 12 long 3/4" wide b) 8 long 1/2" wide d) None of these

27. Hacksaw is used by a) Putting same pressure for forward and backward stroke b) Putting pressure for forward stroke and release the pressure in backward stroke c) Putting less pressure in forward stroke and more pressure in backward stroke d) Any of these 28. Which hammers have large, smooth faces and are lightweight?

a) Ball peen hammers c) Cross peen hammers

b) Body hammers d) Sledge hammers

29. Soft solder is the combination of tin and lead in proportion of a) 2 : 3 b) 3 : 2 c) 1 : 4 d) 4 : 1 30. The stresses to which Aircraft are subjected are a) Tension b) Torsion c) Bending d) All of these 31. The internal force of a substance which opposes the deformation is called a) Strain b) Stress c) Tension d) Torsion 32. The twisting load on the structure is called a) Torsion b) Tension c) Strain d) Compression

33. Bending stress is the combination of a) Compression and shear b) Shear and tension c) Compression and tension d) Tension and shear 34. Permanent deformation of structure is called a) Stress b) Strain c) Tension d) Bend

35. In monocoque fuselage construction, main members are a) Frame, bulk head, longerons b) Bulkhead, stringers, longerons c) Formers, frame assembly and bulkhead d) Longerons, stringers and frames 36. In true monocoque construction primary stresses is taken by a) Skin b) Frames c) Bulkhead d) Longerons 37. A semi monocoque construction fuselage is made of a) Bulkhead and frame b) Frame, longerons and stringer c) Bulkhead, frame, longerons & stringers d) Bulkhead, frame & formers 38. The skin of semi monocoque fuselage carries a) No load b) Full load c) Part of the load the load d) Half of

39. The cabin, flight compartment and baggage compartment are incorporated into a sealed unit to hold air pressure

a) More than atmosphere pressure pressure c) Equal to atmosphere pressure

b) Less than atmosphere d) None of these

40. To check the cabin for air tightness is called a) Cabin static pressure test b) Cabin dynamic pressure test c) Leak check d) All of these 41. An object demonstrates positive dynamic stability if the amplitude of motion a) Decreases with time b) Increases with time c) Neither increases nor decreases d) None of these 42. The angle between the chord of the tail plane and the chord of the main plane is known as a) Lateral dihedral b) Longitudinal dihedral c) Normal dihedral d) Vertical dihedral 43. The longitudinal stability of aeroplane is dependent on a) Position of C of G b) Movement of C of P on the main plane and fuselage c) Area of the tale plane, its aspect ratio, distance from C of G d) All of these 44. Mark the correct statement for horizontal stabilizer a) It always produces nose up pitching moment b) It always produces nose down pitching moment c) Either a) or b) depending upon the design d) Provides no pitching moment 45. Slip or side slipping refers to any motion of the Aircraft a) Towards upper wing b) To downward c) Towards the lower wing d) All of these 46. Rotating the control wheel clockwise will move a) The right aileron upward b) The right aileron downward c) As in a) & flight spoiler on right wing up d) As in a) & flight spoiler on left wing up 47. At high speed flight, to avoid excessively large rolling moments or unacceptable structural loading or wing twist, devices used are a) Flaps b) Slots c) Outboard ailerons

d) Inboard ailerons 48. The principal surface contributing to the lateral stability of an Aircraft is a) Side surfaces b) The fuselage c) Tail plane d) None of these 49. Dihedral angle on the main planes provide with a) Longitudinal stability b) Dynamic stability c) Lateral stability d) Horizontal stability 50. Aft moment of the control stick will cause a) Both elevators to move up elevators to move down c) Left elevator will move up and right will move down Movement of horizontal stabilizer b) Both d)

51. Minimising the expression Y=A B C + A B C D + A B C D E + A B + A B C D E + A the output is a) Y=A b) Y=1 c) Y=A+ AB d) Y=AB 52. Y= (5, 15, 23, 29, 37, 47, 55, 61) + X (7, 13, 21, 31, 39, 45, 53, 63) a) Y=EF b) Y= AB c) Y=CD + EF d) Y=BD 53. In excess 3 codes, BCD 1001 will be written as a) 9 b) 1011 c) 1100 d) 1001 54. If active low output is required for checking odd parity we will use a) AND gate b) OR gate c) XOR gate d) XNOR gate 55. Which series of ICs is used for military purpose? a) 7400 series b) 74H00 series c) 5400 series L S 00 series d) 74

56. If a demultiplexer is converted into decoder, to get output high on required output lines, we will tie date line to a) OV b) Ground c) Either a) or b) d) +VCC 57. Which of the following relation is correct? a) Vo=AdVd[1+(1/CMRR) Vc/Vd] b) Vo=AcVc[1+(1/CMRR) Vd/Vc] c) Vo=AdVd[1+CMRR . Vc/Vd] a) Vo=AdVd[1+(1/CMRR) Vd/Vc]

58. Due to which action, flip flop act as memory unit a) Feedback action b) Amplifying action c) Oscillating action d) All of these 59. In RS flip flop R=O, S=1 then action of flip flop is a) Reset b) Set c) No change Forbidden 60. In D flip flop, the input to S & R terminals will be a) S=R b) R=S c) Both of these d) None of above 61. Operating frequency of marker beacon is a) 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz b) 328.6 MHz to 335.4 MHz c) 100 MHz fixed d) 75 MHz fixed 62. The facilities provided by a localiser is a) Give indication of correct descending angle b) Distance from touch down point c) Indication of lateral deviation with respect to centre line of runway d) None of these 63. The correct descending angle is approximately a) 1 degree b) 2 degrees c) 2.25 degrees degrees 64. The flag appears at the end of ILS indicator, indicates a) Reading is correct b) Partially correct c) Incorrect & misleading d) None 65. The middle marker carrier is modulated on a) 3000Hz b) 1300Hz c) 400Hz d) 4000Hz d) 2.75 d)

66. Typical airborne installation of GPS is carried out by a) ARINC 249 b) ARINC 429 c) ARINC 629 d) Both b) & c) 67. How many GPS satellites are required to locate an aircraft? a) 1 b) 2 c) Minimum 3 d) Minimum 4 68. The control segment of GPS consists of a) A ground station b) Various ground based monitoring stations

c) A master control station 69. Basically, GPS consists of a) One independent segment c) Three independent segment segment

d) Both b) & c) b) Two independent segment d) Four independent

70. The purpose of weather radar is a) To enable the pilot to look ahead to see if dangerous weather exist b) To inform pilot of pleasant weather c) To inform about clouds d) None of these 71. The Tension of brushes to provide brush pressure is approx. a) 6 Psi b) 8 Psi c) 10 Psi d) 12 Psi 72. A four pole generator will have a) 2 interpole b) 4 interpole interpole c) 6 interpole d) 8

73. In a 3 phase system, the phase winding is spaced symmetrically so that the voltage induced is a) 90o apart b) 120o apart c) 60o apart d) o 180 apart

74. To avoid armature reaction of small DC generator (1000 watt or less) type. The method used is a) Interpole Method b) Brush setting method c) both (a) & (b) d) None of these 75. Compensating winding is used in series with interpole winding to a) Increase he life of brushes b) Distortion of field c) Reduces radio interference d) All the above 76. Staggering slots are used in armature of a DC generator to a) Minimise ripple voltage b) Maintain constant output c) Minimise eddy Current loss d) None of these above 77. A 3 four pole alternator, running at 6000 rpm will have frequency of a) 100 c/s b) 200 c/s c) 300 c/s d) 400 c/s

78. While installing battery (Ni-Cad) on a/c you must inspect a) Ventilation system of a/c b) Cable for chaffing c) Quick disconnection mechanism d) All of these 79. What will be value of resistance of yellow, red, orange and gold a) 42000 10% b) 42000 5% c) 12000 5% d) 22000 10% 80. AC generator works on the principle of a) Faradays law of electro-magnetic induction b) Mutual induction c) Self induction d) All of these

PAPER - II
PART V 1. C 6. C 11. A 16. D 21. A 26. B 31. B 36. A 41. A 46. C 51. B 56. D 61. D 66. D 71. A 76. A 2. A 7. B 12. C 17. B 22. B 27. B 32. A 37. C 42. B 47. D 52. D 57. A 62. C 67. C 72. B 77. B 3. D 8. C 13. C 18. B 23. A 28. B 33. C 38. C 43. D 48. A 53. C 58. A 63. D 68. D 73. B 78. D 4. A 9. D 14. A 19. C 24. B 29. B 34. B 39. A 44. C 49. C 54. D 59. B 64. C 69. C 74. C 79. B 5. B 10. C 15. B 20. D 25. C 30. D 35. C 40. B 45. C 50. A 55. C 60. C 65. B 70. A 75. D 80. A

PAPER - II
PART VI 1. Choose the correct sets of angles of set square of one piece a) 450 x 300 b) 300 x 900 c) 450 x 600 0 0 d) 60 x 60 2. Phantom line is used for indicating the _________ position of part a) Actual b) Hidden c) Relative d) None of these 3. Mark the correct statement a) The arrow head length is equal to double of its width b) The arrow head length is equal to triple of its width c) The arrow head length is equal to its width d) None of these 4. Top view false on the a) Horizontal plane c) Half in horizontal and half in Vertical plane be possible b) Vertical plane d) All above cases may

5. Direction of rotation of external gears are a) Opposite b) Same c) Either a) or b) d) None of the above 6. S in Al-alloy designation indicates a) Cast alloy b) Wrought alloy c) As in b) and used for a/c structure d) None 7. Which Al-alloy is more corrosion resistant? a) 2 S b) 3 S c) 17 S d) 52 S 8. Al clad is generally of a) 17 S & 24 S b) 24 S & 52 S d) 53 S & 62 S c) 52 S & 53 S

9. Inter-crystalline corrosion is generally occurred in a) Al-alloy containing copper composition b) 17 S S d) All of these

c) 24

10. Which of the following material is used for spot welding? a) Clad alloys b) 52 S Al-alloy c) Both a) & b) None of these 11. Natural rubber is a polymer of a) Isoprene b) Neoprene these c) Diprene

d)

d) None of

12. Which material is used for increasing the hardness of natural rubber? a) Sulpher b) Phosphorus c) Sodium d) Carbon 13. Which is the basic colour of commercial BUNA-S a) White b) Black c) Red d) Green

14. GR-A is a known as BUNA-N, in which A stands for a) Butadiene b) Acrylonitrile c) Monovinyl d) Nitrile 15. Neoprene is designated as GR-M, in which M is stands a) Monovinyl b) Chloroprene c) Acrylonitrile d) Styrene 16. GR-I designated for which type of rubber a) Neoprene b) BUNA-S c) BUNA-N d) Butyl

17. Which type of properties is introduced in rubber after vulcanising process? a) Elasticity b) Strong ness c) Reduce the tackiness d) All of these 18. A/C rivets are identified by a) Head Style b) Alloy d) All of these c) Length & Diameter

19. For accurate location of particular area on an a/c, which of the following is necessary? a) Water line b) Butt line c) As in a) & b) in conjunction with station line d) None 20. Which type of corrosion is occurred in stainless steel after electric arc welding? a) Pitting b) Galvanic c) Inter crystalline d) Fretting

21. Which is most suitable for spot welding, in stainless steel? a) Low-voltage b) High-amperage c) Low-voltage and High-amperage d) High-voltage and Lowamperage 22. Which of the following is the Non-Magnetic? a) Inconel b) K-Monel c) Monel 23. SAE 13XX represents a) Magnesium Steel d) Chromium Steel b) Manganese Steel d) All of these c) Silicon Steel

24. Hot piece of metal is increased in thickness and decreased in length a) Upsetting b) Down setting c) Swaging d) Rolling 25. Which of the following have greatest tensile strength? a) Fibreglass b) Aramid c) Carbon d) Ceramic 26. For flight equilibrium, designer tries to fix the CG a) and C of P together b) At rear of C of P c) In front of most forward position of CP d) Along aerodynamic C of P 27. Flight calculations are based on the magnitude and direction of a) Lift & drag b) Weight & thrust c) Lift & thrust d) Both a) & b) 28. The factors limiting the aspect ratio are a) Structural consideration b) Drag consideration c) Lift consideration d) Both a) & b) 29. What is required to reduce the landing speed? a) A low minimum drag coefficient b) A small movement of C of P c) A high max CL d) A high value of CL3/2/CD 30. With increase in altitude pressure & temperature a) Drops b) Will rise c) Pressure drops, temperature increases d) Temperature drops, pressure increases

31. The disadvantage of vacuum operated Gyro is a) At high altitude, stability is reduced due to decrease in atmospheric pressure. b) Weight due to pipelines c) Possibility of contamination by corrosion and dirt particles. d) All of these

32. Gyro of AC operated instruments utilize the principle of squirrel cage induction motor and because of high frequency of power supply, greater rotor speeds are possible of approximate. a) 23000rpm b) 24000rpm c) 24500rpm d) None 33. Indication of pitch & Bank attitude are presented by the relative position of a) Aircraft symbol b) Gyro stabilised bar (Horizon symbol) c) Both a) & b) d) None of these 34. Freedom of gimbal system movement about the roll & pitch axes in gyro horizon is ______ respectively a) 3600 and 900 b) 3600 and 800 c) 3600 and 850 d) None 35. The reason for restricting pitch movement of gyro horizon is to prevent a) Gimbal error b) Gimbal lock c) Transport wander d) None 36. In single disk break, break linings are known as a) Pucks b) Three are fix c) Three are movable above d) All

37. When break pressure is released piston moves back to position with the a) Return spring force b) Hydraulic pressure c) Adjusting pin d) None 38. To check the angle of the main structural component in relation to the longitudinal and lateral axis is known as a) Incidence check b) Dihedral check c) Structural alignment check d) Verticality check

39. On copper and copper alloy corrosion forms on the surface as a) White powder b) Greenish film c) Blue d) Black 40. Corrosion on the metal is due to a) Chemical attack b) Electro chemical attack & b) d) None c) Both a)

41. During routine check, the fuselage should be inspected for a) Corrosion b) Fretting c) Spilage d) All of these 42. The truss type fuselage is covered by a) Steel sheet b) Al alloy sheet c) Fabric these d) All of

43. Thermoplastic material is originally a) Hard b) Soft and pliable when exposed to heat c) It retains the moulded shape when cooled d) All of these 44. Remoulding and reshaping cannot be done on a) Thermosetting plastic b) Thermoplastic c) Both a) & b) None of these 45. Plastic should be stored in bins which are tilted at a) 200 b) 100 c) 150 d) 250 46. The operating frequency of ADF is a) 90Hz b) 90KHz c) 150Hz 1800KHz 47. The ADF operates on a) LF Band b) MF Band Band c) LF & MF Band d) 90KHz to d)

d) VHF

48. In ADF antenna system at a point signal fades out this is called a) Null position b) Figure of eight c) Cardiod d) None of these 49. ADF receiver essentially is a) TRF receiver b) Superhetrodyne receiver superhetrodyne receiver d) Suppressed carrier receiver c) Double

50. Types of antenna / antennas used for ADF receiver a) Half wave b) Full wave c) Sense aerial d) As in c) and loop aerial 51. If a D flip-flop is to switch from 0 to 1, then input is to be kept high for at least time T where a) T= t setup + t hold b) T= t setup + t hold + t propagation delay c) T= t setup + t hold - t propagation delay d) T= clock period 52. JK Flip flop is dividing the input frequency by 2, then its condition is a) J=0, K=0 b) J=0, K=1 c) J=1, K=0 d) J=1, K=1 53. In decimal to BCD decoder a) 1 input, 10 output c) 4 input, 10 output b) 10 input, 4 output d) 10 input, 1 output

54. If SUB pin is high in a Adder-subtractor circuit, then circuit is; a) Adding Two bytes b) Subtracting input byte from output c) Subtracting output byte from input d) Adding 2s complement byte to the other byte 55. One of the effect of negative feed back in amplifiers is to a) Increase the noise b) Increase the harmonic distortion c) Decrease the bandwidth d) Decrease the harmonic distortion 56. The relationship between back emf and applied voltage in case of a dc motor is given by a) Eb = V + Ia Ra b) Eb = V Ia Ra c) Eb = V d) None of these 57. The direction of rotation of dc motor can be determined by a) Flemings right hand rule b) Flemings left hand rule c) Lenzs law d) Amperes law 58. An engine driven 50 Hz alternator has a speed of 750 rpm. How many poles it has? a) 6 poles b) 4 poles c) 2 poles d) 8 poles

59. The frequency of emf generated by a generator depends upon its a) Speed b) No. of ploles c) Machine rating d) Both a) & b) 60. Two quantities are said to be in phase with each other when a) The phase difference between two quantities is zero degrees b) Each of them pass through zero values at the same time and rise in the same direction c) Both a) & b) d) None of these 61. Capacity of a capacitor depends upon a) Separation between the plates b) Area of plates c) Di-electric material d) All of these 62. The device used to measure very high insulation resistance of electric cable is a) High resistance voltmeter b) Megger / Insulation resistance tester c) Iron vane meter d) Ammeter of high range 63. If six cells are connected in series of each E volts, the total voltage of the battery will be a) 6E b) 3E c) 4E d) 12E 64. Special test equipment comprising a meter and two cables each of specific length, is required for checking the resistance of bonding. A meter widely used , consists of an ohm-meter operating on a) Principle of current ratio b) Principle of voltage ratio c) None of these 65. Cell phone is used to protect the Ni-Cad battery from a) Shorting between plates b) Thermal runaway c) Avoid leakage of electrolyte d) All of these 66. Which material you select for riveting Ni-steel sheet a) Monel b) 2017-T c) 2024-T6 d) Mild steel 67. Which one of the following rivet is ready for use as received and need no further heat treatment a) 2117 b) 2017-T c) 2024 d) 1100 68. Ice-Box rivets are a) 2017-T b) 2117-T c) 2024-T d) Both a) & c)

69. The specification for universal head rivet a) AN-470 b) MS-20613 c) MS-20615 of these

d) All

70. Part No AN 470 B 3-8, indicates a) Shank dia is 3/16 b) Rivet length is 8/32 c) Material is 5056-Al alloy d) All of the above 71. Fluid used in the Aircraft hydraulic systems are a) Vegetable b) Mineral c) Synthetic d) All of these 72. With pure rubber seals and hose oil used in the system is a) Mineral b) Vegetable c) Synthetic of these d) All

73. In open centre system, the number of services can be operated at one time is a) One only b) Two only c) Any number d) All of these 74. In closed system where fixed volume pump is fitted, the system is fitted with a) Automatic cut out value to divert pump output to reservoir b) To maintain the normal built up pressure c) Both a) & b) d) None of these 75. Pressure maintaining value fitted in the system is for a) To maintain the normal system pressure b) To safe guard the operation of the important services c) To maintain the pressure in primary services at a value suitable for operation of services d) Both b) & c) 76. Packing is made of a) Asbestos b) Cork d) Felt c) Synthetic or natural rubber

77. Aviation gasoline is having relative density of a) 0.70 b) 0.72 c) 0.80 d) 0.5 78. Re-fuller delivery line should have filter of a) 5 microns b) 8 microns c) 4 microns d) 10 microns

79. Component fitted in pressurization system to limit any possible negative differentiate pressure to a sage value is a) Safety value b) Outflow value c) Inward relief value d) pressure controller. 80. Roots type blower pressurized and send air to cabin duct by taking a) Ram air b) Air from exhaust c) Bleed air d)None of these

PAPER - II
PART VI 1. B 6. C 11. A 16. D 21. C 26. C 31. D 36. D 41. D 46. D 51. A 56. B 61. D 66. A 71. D 76. C 2. B 7. A 12. A 17. D 22. B 27. D 32. B 37. A 42. C 47. C 52. D 57. B 62. B 67. A 72. B 77. B 3. B 8. A 13. B 18. D 23. B 28. D 33. C 38. C 43. D 48. A 53. B 58. D 63. A 68. D 73. A 78. A 4. A 9. D 14. B 19. C 24. A 29. C 34. C 39. B 44. A 49. B 54. D 59. D 64. A 69. D 74. C 79. C 5. A 10. C 15. A 20. C 25. B 30. A 35. B 40. C 45. B 50. D 55. D 60. C 65. B 70. C 75. D 80. A

PAPER - II
PART VII 1. Duckbill plier a) Is a flat nose plier c) Have serrations on their jaws b) Is used for twisting safety wires d) All are correct b) Extracting d) All are correct

2. Needle nose pliers are used for a) Extracting thin/sharp components nails c) Gripping small electronic components

3. i) A chisel can never cut the material all by itself ii) A die is a cutting tool a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 4. Cutting edge of a chisel is generally ground to an angle of a) 30 degrees b) 70 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 110 degrees 5. Various types of cut of a file are a) Single cut b) Smooth cut c) Rasp d) Both a) & b) are correct 6. Bearing strength of a material refers to a) Direct tensile load it can bear b) Resistance to tear at the point of applied load c) Resistance to fracture at the point of applied load d) Resistance to shear 7. Characteristics of metals relating to drawing it into wire is a) Tensile strength b) Malleability c) Ductility d) Brittleness 8. Fusibility of a metal refer to its property that permits a) Welding b) Drawing into thin sheets c) Drawing into wires d) Good thermal conductivity 9. Aluminium alloy 1100 implies a) Pure aluminium c) It contains 111% zinc b) It contains 11% copper d) Heat treated alloy

10. Clad aluminium alloys are used in aircraft. They are

a) Lighter than other aluminium alloys b) Stronger than unclad aluminium alloys c) Easily heat treatable d) Less susceptible to corrosion 11. Medium carbon steels have a carbon percentage of a) 0.1 0.3 b) 0.3 0.5 c) 0.5 1.0 d) 1.0 2.0 12. Which of the statement is correct? a) Both heat treatable & non heat treatable aluminium alloys can be strain hardened b) Strain hardening is same as cold working c) Strength & hardness increases during cold working d) All are correct 13. Find out the wrong statement regarding titanium a) It is highly corrosion resistant b) It maintain strength at elevated temperatures c) It has good resistance to creep d) It is magnetic 14. Pitot static system have heating elements to a) Remove moisture from the air b) Prevent ice formation c) To permit flying at high altitude d) All are correct 15. Pressure heads of pitot static system should not be painted, because it a) Impairs their thermal efficiency b) May cause obstruction of orifices c) None of the above d) Both a) and b) are correct 16. i. In cross filing, the file is moved length wise across the work ii. In draw filing, the file is moved side wise across the work a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 17. A cross cut saw has a) 4-6 teeth per inch c) 10-15 teeth per inch b) 6-12 teeth per inch d) 12-18 teeth per inch

18. i) For a good cut on a hard material, a blade with more teeth should be used ii) While cutting a tube, a blade should be so chosen that at least five teeth are there on each side of the tube as it is cut a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

19. Spiral anger bit for drilling holes in wood are a) Generally 7-10 inches long b) - one inch in diameter c) Used only with a bow type hand brace d) All are correct 20. Screw driver used when there is no clearance for normal screw driver is called a) Closed area screw driver b) Stubby screw driver c) Off set slot screw driver d) Any one of the above 21. Air driven power screw driver should be used a) For large diameter screw b) For removing screw that are jammed c) Where large number of screws are to be removed and fitted back d) When removing screws from harder material 22. With regard to wrenches, find out the incorrect statement a) These are made from chrome vanadium steel b) These are generally die cast c) Wrenches are made in various shapes & sizes d) These are plated to improve their appearance 23. Box end wrenches are used a) To loosen nuts that are exceptionally light b) Where there is restricted space c) For nuts that are bigger than one inch size d) When open end wrench is not available 24. Crowfoot socket wrench is used where the following cannot be used a) Open end wrench b) Box end wrench c) Standard socket wrench d) All are correct 25. SAE 2340 is a) Chromium steel with 3% chromium b) Nickel chromium steel with 0.3% carbon c) Nickel steel with 3% Nickel & 0.4% carbon d) Carbon (0.4%) steel 26. During nitric acid test, if the material shows strongly magnetic nature, then it is a) Monel metal b) Carbon steel c) Nickel steel d) 18-8 steel

27. Weldability is poorest in case of a) Plain carbon steel b) Low carbon steel c) High carbon steel d) Wrought iron 28. Stainless steel is corrosion resistance due to presence of a) Silicon b) Cobalt c) Chromium d) Manganese 29. L shaped channels are produced by a) Forging b) Extrusion c) Machining d) Casting 30. Creep in metals is a) Elongation due to temperature b) Temporary elongation due to temperature and stresses c) Permanent set due to stresses and high temperature operation d) All are correct 31. Angular momentum is a) Moment of inertia b) Angular velocity c) Product of a) & b) d) Sum of a) & b) 32. Mark the incorrect statement a) Precession is inversely proportional to the strength & direction of applied force. b) Precession is inversely proportional to the moment of inertia of the rotor. c) Precession is inversely proportional to the angular velocity of the rotor. d) None of the above 33. Control of drift, relating to horizontal gyroscopes can be achieved by: a) Calculating corrections using earth rate formula and applying them as appropriate b) Applying fixed torques & cause gyro to process at a rate equal & opposite to the earth rate. c) As in b) but which can be varied according to latitude d) All of these 34. When gimbal orientation is such that the spin axis becomes coincident with one or the other of the axes of freedom which serves as attitude displacement reference is termed as a) Gimbal lock b) Gimbal Error c) Apparent drift

35. Grip length of the bolt is a) Total length of the bolt b) Plain shank length of the bolt c) Length under the head to the end of the bolt d) None of these 36. In close tolerance bolt, force applied to drive in is a) 10 ounce hammer b) 20 ounce hammer c) 12 to 14 ounce hammer d) Sledge hammer

37. Special washer AC 950 and AC 955 are used where a) Bolt is installed at angle to surface b) Bolt is installed head down c) It can be used any where d) None of these 38. Rasp file is used for a) Hard material b) Lead, wood or leather c) Both a) & b) d) Other materials except lead, wood & leather 39. Philips screwdrivers are tapered to an angle of a) 730 b) 530 c) 600 d) 930 40. Snaps are used to a) Support the markers head of rivets b) To make the shop head during riveting c) Both a) & b) d) None of these 41. Soft solder is the combination of tin and lead in proportion of a) 2 : 3 b) 3 : 2 c) 1 : 4 d) 4 : 1 42. Bending stress is the combination of a) Compression and shear b) Shear and tension c) Compression and tension d) Tension and shear 43. In true monocoque construction primary stresses is taken by a) Skin b) Frames c) Bulkhead d) Longerons 44. The skin of semi monocoque fuselage carries a) No load b) Full load c) Part of the load the load d) Half of

45. The longitudinal stability of aeroplane is dependent on a) Position of C of G b) Movement of C of P on the main plane and fuselage c) Area of the tale plane, its aspect ratio, distance from C of G d) All of these 46. Direction of rotation of external gears are a) Opposite b) Same c) Either a) or b) d) None of the above 47. Al clad is generally of a) 17 S & 24 S b) 24 S & 52 S d) 53 S & 62 S 48. Natural rubber is a polymer of a) Isoprene b) Neoprene these c) 52 S & 53 S

c) Diprene

d) None of

49. Which is the basic colour of commercial BUNA-S a) White b) Black c) Red

d) Green

50. Which type of corrosion is occurred in stainless steel after electric arc welding? a) Pitting b) Galvanic c) Inter crystalline d) Fretting 51. SAE 13XX represents a) Magnesium Steel b) Manganese Steel c) Silicon Steel d) Chromium Steel 52. Hot piece of metal is increased in thickness and decreased in length a) Upsetting b) Down setting c) Swaging d) Rolling 53. The factors limiting the aspect ratio are a) Structural consideration b) Drag consideration c) Lift consideration d) Both a) & b) 54. The disadvantage of vacuum operated Gyro is a) At high altitude, stability is reduced due to decrease in atmospheric pressure. b) Weight due to pipelines c) Possibility of contamination by corrosion and dirt particles. d) All of these

55. Gyro of AC operated instruments utilize the principle of squirrel cage induction motor and because of high frequency of power supply, greater rotor speeds are possible of approximate. a) 23000rpm b) 24000rpm c) 24500rpm d) None 56. During routine check, the fuselage should be inspected for a) Corrosion b) Fretting c) Spilage d) All of these 57. The truss type fuselage is covered by a) Steel sheet b) Al alloy sheet c) Fabric these d) All of

58. Two quantities are said to be in phase with each other when a) The phase difference between two quantities is zero degrees b) Each of them pass through zero values at the same time and rise in the same direction c) Both a) & b) d) None of these 59. If six cells are connected in series of each E volts, the total voltage of the battery will be a) 6E b) 3E c) 4E d) 12E 60. Which one of the following rivet is ready for use as received and need no further heat treatment a) 2117 b) 2017-T c) 2024 d) 1100 61. When calculating power in a reactive or inductive ac circuit, the true power is a) More than the apparent power b) Less than the apparent power c) As in b) in reactive circuit and as in a) in inductive circuit d) None of these 62. The correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a circuit is a) In series with the unit b) Between the source voltage and the load c) In parallel with the unit 63. Transfer of electrical energy from one conductor to another without the add of electrical connections a) is called induction b) is called air gap transfer

c) Will cause excessive arching and heat, and as a result is impractical 64. Diodes are used in electrical power circuit primarily as a) Switches b) Rectifiers c) Relays d) Contactors 65. If three resistors of 3, 5 and 22 ohms are connected in series in a 28V circuit, how much current will flow through the 3 ohms resistor? a) 9.3 amps b) 1.05 amps c) 0.93 amps d) 10.05 amps 66. What is the value of a resistance if given colour codes as brown, black, brown, black and brown. a) 1010 ohms b) 1000 ohms c) 101 ohms d) 10.1 K ohms 67. What is the value of a capacitor if given colour codes are orange, orange, blue and white. a) 33nF b) 33F c) 33pF d) 3300F 68. The output of a astable multi-vibrator is a) Triangular wave b) Saw tooth wave Sinusoidal wave d) Square wave c)

69. In an oscilloscope by varying intensity control, what actually varied internally? a) Cathode voltage b) Anode voltage c) Grid voltage d) Cathode current 70. The output of NOT gate is always a) High b) Low d) Complementary of input c) Same as input

71. Oxy acetylene welding process is suitable for joining metal sheets and plates having thickness of a) 1 to 30mm b) 2 to 50 mm c) 2 to 40mm d) All of these 72. In oxyacetylene welding, welding rod is required as a filter metal when welding is carried out above a) 15mm b) 10mm c) 40mm d) 5mm 73. In oxyacetylene welding, neutral flame produces a maximum temperature of a) 30000F b) 32000F c) 32000C d) 30000C

74. Standard colour for oxygen hose is a) Black b) Red these

c) Green

d) None of

75. In magnet steel, the alloying elements are a) Nickel, Cobalt b) Silicon, Nickel c) Molybdenum, Copper d) Tungsten, Cobalt 76. Maximum distance between support for fluid tubing of 1/8 size of steel is a) 12 b) 14 c) 9.5 d) 11.5 77. MS 20004 is a a) Internal wrenching bolt c) Clevis bolt b) Close tolerance bolt d) None of these

78. Mark the incorrect statement, regarding K monel metal a) It is ferrous alloy b) It is used for gears and chain c) It is non ferrous alloy d) It is corrosion resistant 79. The symbol is for a) Wood c) Steel b) Cast iron d) Rubber

80. Ballast is used on a/c a) To attain the desired c.g. b) To increase the weightc) For making nose heavy d) None of these

PAPER - II
PART VII 1. D 6. B 11. B 16. C 21. C 26. B 31. C 36. C 41. B 46. A 51. B 56. D 61. B 66. C 71. B 76. D 2. C 7. C 12. D 17. B 22. B 27. C 32. A 37. A 42. C 47. A 52. A 57. C 62. C 67. B 72. A 77. A 3. C 8. A 13. D 18. A 23. A 28. C 33. D 38. B 43. A 48. A 53. D 58. C 63. A 68. D 73. C 78. A 4. B 9. A 14. B 19. D 24. D 29. B 34. A 39. B 44. C 49. B 54. D 59. A 64. B 69. C 74. C 79. B 5. A 10. D 15. D 20. C 25. C 30. C 35. B 40. B 45. D 50. C 55. B 60. A 65. C 70. D 75. D 80. A

PAPER - II
PART VIII 1. Which of these is indicator of elasticity & plasticity both? a) Rockwell hardness test b) Brinell hardness test c) Shore Scleroscope d) Vickers hardness test 2. Flattening test is a) Bending test b) Only for copper wires d) Both a) & c) c) For tube testing

3. Max rate of bending per minute in reverse bend test is a) 50 b) 60 c) 10 d) 40 4. Izod test measures a) Toughness b) Height of upswing breaking d) Hardness 5. Fatigue test is for determining a) Stress in material b) Strain in rod c) Stress limit for material d) Elongation of wire 6. Torsion test is essential for a) Wires b) Tube 7. Bending test indicates a) Ductility b) Brittleness c) Rods c) Hardness d) Sheet d) Density d) Toughness d) Kg/cm2 c) Energy in

8. 250 HB 10 indicates a) Strength only b) Hardness only c) Both a) & b) 9. Unit of tension is a) N b) N/m c) KN/m2

10. First usable ferrous product obtained by smelting ores in a blast furnace is a) Pig Iron b) Wrought Iron c) Cast Iron d) Steel 11. Siderite is a) Oxide ore of Iron Iron c) Sulphide ore of Iron b) Carbonate ore of d) Flux used in furnace

12. Coke used in blast furnace is a) Fuel c) Reducing agent agent 13. In upper reduction zone, we get a) Iron c) Carbon monoxide 14. Steel is alloyed to improve a) Hardenability c) Fatigue strength 15. Cast Iron sparks are a) Red c) Straw coloured coloured

b) Flux d) Both fuel & reducing

b) Carbon dioxide d) Both Fe & CO2 b) Toughness d) All of the above b) White d) First Red then Straw

16. Corrosion resistant steel used in Aircraft construction is a) 18 8 steel b) Medium carbon steel c) 18 6 steel d) Silicon steel . Major alloying elements of stainless steel are ( in order of % composition) a) Ni Cr b) Ni V c) W Ni d) Cr Ni 18. Forging steel is a) Low Carbon steel steel c) High Carbon steel 19. Exhaust collector is made up of a) Silicon steel c) Chromium steel b) Medium Carbon d) Either a) or c) b) Titanium steel d) Ni Cr steel

20. Which element is responsible for Red hardness property? a) Ti b) Ta c) Mo d) W 21. Which elements are responsible for Penetration hardness? a) Mn, S b) Mn, P c) Mn, Cr d) Cr, C 22. Stainless steel is a) Ni Cr steel b) Cr Mo steel c) Ni W steel d) Cr Va steel

23. Silicon in steel acts as a) Oxidiser b) Deoxidiser & c)

c) Impurity

d) Both b)

24. Mark the correct statement a) SAE 2330 is chromium steel b) SAE 3250 is used in making axle shafts because of high strength c) SAE 3115 is used for making piston pins, cam rings 25. Steel is preheated before welding to a) Include strength b) Enhance its creep resistance c) Enhance its creep resistance 26. Steel used for wing-hinge fittings & flying wire trunnions is a) SAE 4140 b) SAE 6150 c) SAE 1015 27. Steel used commercially for automatic machine production is a) SAE 4135 b) SAE 4615 c) SAE 6115 28. Steel used as an alternate for SAE 4130 steel is a) SAE 8620 b) SAE 8630 c) SAE 9260 29. Pyrometer is used to a) Measure the temperature c) Give protective atmosphere 30. The fastest rate of cooling is given by a) Brine b) Oil b) Protect the furnace

c) Water

31. The tip of the rivet is upset to form a second head and that is known as a) Round head b) Shop head c) Flat head d) Brazier head 32. O ring packings are used for preventing a) Internal leak b) External leak c) One direction leak d) Both a) & b) 33. Gaskets are made of a) Asbestos b) Copper these c) Cork d) All of

34. While bending tubing, a small flattening is allowed but the small diameter of the bend should not be less than _______ of the outside diameter a) 90% b) 25% c) 75% d) 80% 35. Deep permanent impression in the hose produced by the pressure of hose clamp is known as a) Hot flow b) Deep flow c) Cold flow d) None of these 36. In hex bolt, the length is measured a) Under the head to the end of the bolt shank c) Total length b) Plain portion of the d) Threaded length

37. Aircraft bolts are made of a) Mild steel b) Stainless steel c) Aluminum alloy d) Cadmium plated nickel steel corrosion resistance steel and aluminum alloy 38. Fluid used in the Aircraft hydraulic systems are a) Vegetable b) Mineral c) Synthetic of these 39. Vegetable based fluid is normally a) Pink b) Yellow d) None of these c) Almost colourless d) All

40. With pure rubber seals and hose oil used in the system is a) Mineral b) Vegetable c) Synthetic of these

d) All

41. In open centre system, the number of services can be operated at one time is a) One only b) Two only c) Any number d) All of these 42. When no services are operated in open centre system, the pressure value in the system is a) At low value b) At high value c) Pump output passes directly to the reservoir d) Both a) & c)

43. In closed system where fixed volume pump is fitted, the system is fitted with a) Automatic cut out value to divert pump output to reservoir b) To maintain the normal built up pressure c) Both a) & b) d) None of these 44. Thermal relief value fitted in the hydraulic system operates at a pressure a) Slightly higher than normal system pressure b) Relieve only a small quantity of fluid c) At lower than the system pressure d) Both a) & b) 45. Pressure maintaining value fitted in the system is for a) To maintain the normal system pressure b) To safe guard the operation of the important services c) To maintain the pressure in primary services at a value suitable for operation of services d) Both b) & c) 46. Restrictor valve fitted in the hydraulic system for a) Allowing free flow of fluid in one direction flow in other direction c) To control the pressure a) & b) 47. Packing is made of a) Asbestos b) Cork d) Felt 48. Running seals are a) Packing b) Gasket b) Limited d) Both

c) Synthetic or natural rubber

c) Wiper

d) None of these d) All of these

49. Washer (gasket) used for spark plug is a) Asbestos b) Copper c) Cork

50. Gasket used on uneven or varying space is made of a) Asbestos b) Cork c) Copper d) All of these 51. Seals used for cleaning and lubricating is called a) Wiper b) Gasket c) Packing 52. Fuel used for turbo jet engine is a) Gasoline b) Aviation kerosene these d) None of these d) None of

c) Petrol

53. Aviation gasoline is having relative density of a) 0.70 b) 0.72 c) 0.80 d) 0.5 54. Relative density of AVTUR fuel is a) 0.80 b) Shop head d) Both a) & b) d) All of these c) 75% c) Cold flow a) Under the head to the end of the bolt d) Cadmium plated nickel steel corrosion resistance steel and aluminum alloy d) All of these c) Almost colourless b) Vegetable a) One only c) Pump output passes directly to the reservoir c) Both a) & b) d) Both a) & b) d) Both b) & c) d) Both c) Synthetic or natural rubber a) Packing b) Copper b) Cork a) Wiper b) Aviation kerosene b) 0.72 b) 0.75 c) 0.70 d) 0.72

55. Re-fuller delivery line should have filter of a) 5 microns b) 8 microns c) 4 microns d) 10 microns 56. The source of pressurised air in piston engine aircraft is a) Compressor b) Supercharger c) Turbo charger d) Both b) & c) 57. Component fitted in pressurisation system to limit any possible negative differentiate pressure to a sage value is a) Safety value b) Outflow value c) Inward relief value d) pressure controller

58. To maintain a free flow of ventilation air within the aircraft when parked the component is filled to a) Safety value b) Ground automatic relief value c) outflow value d) Both a) & c) 59. Roots type blower pressurised and send air to cabin duct by taking a) Ram air b) Air from exhaust c) Bleed air d) None of these 60. Engine driven cabin compressor which is used on turbo prop aircraft, its output pressure is controlled a) Automatically b) Manually c) Not controlled d) Both a) & b) 61. The working fluid used in reciprocating engine is a) Solid fuel b) Oxidizer & Fuel c) Fuel / Air Mixture d) All of these 62. Mark the correct statement a) Turbo prop engine accelerate large mass of air through small velocity change b) As in a) & Piston Engine also accelerate large mass of air through small velocity change c) Turbo Jet Engine accelerate large mass of air through small velocity change d) Pulse Jet Engine accelerate large mass of air through small velocity change 63. To compress the engine working fluid, Piston Engine uses a) Turbine driven compressor b) Pressure rise due to combustion c) Positive displacement, piston type compressor d) Both a) & c) are correct 64. Piston engine classified according to a) Thrust b) No. of stroke c) Cylinder arrangement with respect to crank shaft d) Both b) & c) 65. Radial engine classified as a) Upright, inverted rows c) Cylinder arranged on cam shaft b) According to no. of d) Both a) & c)

66. The emitter resistor RE in a transistor amplifier is bypassed by a capacitor a) To reduce the voltage gain b) To increase the voltage gain c) Causes thermal runaway d) Stabilises the Q point 67. A transistor is operating in the active region. Under this condition a) Both the junctions are forward-biased b) Both the junctions are reverse-biased c) Emitter-base junction is reverse-biased, and collector-base junction is forward-biased d) Emitter-base junction is forward-biased, and collector-base junction is reverse-biased 68. The potential-divider method of biasing is used in amplifier to a) Limit the input ac signal going to the base b) Make the operating point almost independent of c) Reduce the dc base current d) Reduce the cost of the circuit 69. For generating 1 KHz note, the most suitable circuit is a) Hartley Oscillator b) Colpits Oscillator c) Tuned-collector Oscillator d) Wein-bridge Oscillator 70.To generate a 1 MHz signal the most suitable circuit is a) Wein-bridge Oscillator b) Phase shift Oscillator c) Colpits Oscillator d) Hartley Oscillator 71. Weather radar works on a) Echo system b) LOS system system 72. Antenna size for DME is a) 1 b) c) /4 c) VHF system d) HF

d) /8

73. EDAS means a) Electrical and digital Aircraft system b) Electronics / digital Aircraft system c) Electronics digital and avionics system d) None of these 74. The purpose of EDAS is a) Modernise the various Aircraft system and their display system b) To reduce the work load of the pilot c) To reduce the space in the Aircraft d) All of these

75. The satellites are placed in geo-synchronous orbit for sat com system and they provide coverage between a) Longitude 750 b) Between latitude 750 North and South c) Both a) & b) above d) None of these 76. In ball type erection unit, rotation of holder takes place through reduction gear from gyro rotor shaft, the speed of holder being__________ a) 25 rpm b) 20 rpm c) 30 rpm d) 35 rpm 77. In torque motor and levelling switch type of erection system the supply fed to the centre electrode is a) 25V AC b) 20V AC c) 12V AC d) 15V AC 78. Fast Erection system is supplied with a) 28V DC b) 115V AC c) 25V AC 79. Erection rate of normal erection system is a) 50/sec b) 50/min c) 30/min 80. Erection rate of fast erection system is a) 50/sec b) 50/min c) 30/min d) None d) 30/sec d) 30/sec

PAPER - II
PART VIII 1. C 6. A 11. B 16. A 21. C 26. A 31. B 36. A 41. A 46. D 51. A 56. D 61. C 66. D 71. A 76. A 2. D 7. A 12. D 17. D 22. A 27. B 32. D 37. D 42. C 47. C 52. B 57. C 62. B 67. D 72. C 77. B 3. A 8. C 13. D 18. B 23. D 28. B 33. D 38. D 43. C 48. A 53. B 58. B 63. C 68. B 73. B 78. B 4. B 9. A 14. D 19. B 24. B 29. A 34. C 39. C 44. D 49. B 54. A 59. A 64. D 69. D 74. D 79. B 5. C 10. A 15. D 20. D 25. B 30. A 35. C 40. B 45. D 50. B 55. A 60. A 65. B 70. C 75. B 80. D

PAPER - II
PART IX 1. In electromagnetic method of fast erection, the output of secondary winding of transformer is: a. 115V AC b. 20 V AC c. 28V DC d. 185V AC 2. For compensation of pendulosity error, the amount of inclination is governed by value of: a. 0.50 b. 1.750 c. Either a) or b) d. None 3. In turn & ship indicator, the precession of gyro is equal to a) Angular momentum of gyro b) Rate or turn c) Product of a) & b) d) None 4. In TSI, in practice, the gimbal ring deflection is generally not more than a) 50 b) 120 c) 80 d) 60 5. Under banked turn in TSI means a) Skid out of turn b) Slip into turn c) None

6. Crank case of a piston engine is made up of: a) One piece construction b) Two piece construction c) Multiple piece construction d) All of the above 7. Crank case provides a) Attachment of the cylinder b) Attachment of propeller c) Tight enclosure for lubricating oil & a) d) All of the above 8. In radial engine, impeller & blower are found in a) Power section b) Nose section c) Super charger section d)Accessory section 9. Crank shaft a) Converts heat energy in propulsive force b) Converts heat energy in mechanical work c) Transform reciprocating motion of piston in to rotary motion d) As in c) & to rotating propeller shaft 10. Double throw crankshaft, also known as

a) 3600 crank shaft c) 800 crank shaft

b) 600 crank shaft d) 1800 crank shaft

11. Maximum strength of fibres is in which direction of bi-directional fabric a) Warp b) Weft c) Biased d) Fill 12. Which of the following is the unidirectional fabric style? a) Mats b) Tapes c) Kevlar c)Fiber glass 13. Which of the following can use as leak tester a) Ultrasound method (Water immersion method b) Dyepenetrant method c) Magnetic particle inspection d) None of these 14. Elliptical motion of wave on the upper surface of material known as a) Shear wave b) Compression wave c) Surface wave d) Tension wave 15. Thin sheet metals weld defect can be inspected by a) X-Ray b) Ultrasonic method c) Eddy current d) None of these 16. By which method we cannot detect the inter-granular corrosion easily a) Ultrasonic method b) Eddy current c) Magnetic particle d) X-Ray 17. Grinding cracks on small radius bends is appeared as __________ in magnetic particle inspection a) Irregular lines over affected area b) Short parallel lines c) Dotted patch d) Scattered small lines 18. Permeability of material is the function of a) Magnetising force c) Both a) and b) are correct b) Flux density d) None of these

19. Which instrument is used for checking the surface roughness? a) Spectrometer b) Prosfetrometer c) Profilometer d) Hilsegmetometer 20. The content of CO2 fire extinguisher or N2 pressurized extinguisher is checked by a) Weight and pressure gauge b) Marking on neck c) By operating the extinguisher d) All of these

21. Which is incorrect statement? a) If corrosion is present in control cable should be replaced b) Cable used in seaplane must be coated with paral-ketone c) For detection of corrosion, cable twist in same way of lay d) Carbon steel cable must be used with protective coating 22. After welding aluminium parts flux should be removed by a) Immersing them in Luke warm water for 30 minutes b) Mechanical means, i.e. Wire brushing as the flux is not soluble in water c) Washing the parts in boiling water containing 5% HNO3 d) Vacuum blasting 23. A gusset is a) A bracing between longerons bracket c) Used for fail safe construction b) A type of connecting d) Like a butt plate

24. Which cross point screwdriver has a taper cross & the sides are not parallel a) Phillips screwdriver b) Reed & prince screwdriver c) Both are correct d) None 25. The hallow magnetized shafts of interchangeable screwdrivers hold hex bits of a) 1/2 inch size b) 3/4 inch size c) 3/8 inch size d) 1/4 inch size 26. The shape of which screwdriver permits the use of a wrench to assist in tightening? a) Stubby screwdriver b) Phillips screwdriver c) Heavy duty screwdriver c) Double ended screwdriver 27. Prick punch has an included angle of a) 150 b) 450 c)650 0 d) 90 28. While installing a taper pin with a pin punch, the size of the punch should be a) Larger than the size of the pin b) Smaller than the size of pin c) Same size of the pin d) Can be of any size 29. Which hammers are used for riveting & stretching of metals a) Ball peen hammer b) Straight peen hammer

c) Soft faced hammer

d) Both a and b are correct

30. Soft hammers are made of 1) Babbitt 2) Brass 3) Carbon steel 4) Wood 5) Tool steel a) 1,2 & 3 are correct b) Only 1 is correct c) 1,2 & 4 are correct d) 1,2,3 & 4 are correct 31. In N-type semiconductors, the concentration of minority carriers mainly depends upon a) Doping technique b) Number of donor atoms c) Temperature of material d) quality of intrinsic material 32. Peak Inverse Voltage (PIV) across the non-conducting diode (Reverse biased) in center tape full wave rectifier is equal to a) Vm b) 2/Vm c) Vm/2 d) 2Vm 33. Zinor Breakdown in a diode is due to a) High electric field causes covalent bonds to break b) Due to the increased velocities of minority carriers c) Due to heating of junction due to heavy current d) None of the above 34. Two switches are connected ___________ to obtain AND gate function a) In series b) In parallel c) Either parallel or series d) None of above 35. Which gate is known as universal gate a) OR gate b) NOR gate d) XOR gate 36. To identify Ferrous metal a) hardness test is used c) Heat treatment is carried out c) AND gate

b) Spark test is used d) Grinding stone is used

37. Solution heat treatment & artificially eged is indicated by a) T5 b) T7 c) T6 d)T8 38. The most widely used alloys in aircraft construction are hardened by a) Cold work b) Hot rolling c) Heat treatment d) All the above

39. The heat range for salt bath Furnaces are a) Depending upon composition of bath b) As in a) & normally 6500 F to 17000F c) As in a) & normally 3250F to 24500F d) None of these 40. In semimonocoque fuselage primary bending load is taken by a) Frame b) Stringer c) Longerons d) Bulk head 41. In external bracing wing the landing and aerodynamic loads is carried by a) Spar b) Rib c) Wing joints d) Bracing struts 42. The entire cone shaped surface at the cutting end of the drill is a) Dead centre b) Point c) Margin d) Lip 43. The angle between a lip and axis of the drill bit is known as ______ and mostly 590 a) Heel angle b) Lip angle c) Lip clearance None of these

d)

44. Part of the point drill that actually cuts away the material when a hole is drilled is known as a) Point b) cutting lips c) Margin d) Flutes 45. For flight equilibrium adequate restoring moment can be achieved by fixing C of G (Centre of Gravity) a) And C of P (Pressure) together b) Rear of C of P c) Front of C of P d) Along Aerodynamic C of P 46. The point on the chord line at which the total lift of a section at an aerofoil is considered to act is known as a) Centre of Gravity b) Centre of Pressure c) Lift d) None of the above 47. The difference between the angles of incidence between the main plane and tailplane is known as a) Diheddral b) Anhedral c) Longitudinal Dihedral d) None of above

48. The type of drag which is produced by non lifting surfaces is known as a) Parasite drag b) Wing drag c) Skin friction d) Induced drag 49. The stability which is due to features incorporated in the design of the aircraft is called a) Inherent stability b) Neutral stability c) Static stability d) Dynamic stability 50. The angle of attack of an aerofoil such as wing is the angle between the a) Chord of the wing and the longitudinal axis b) Chord of the wing and the relative airflow c) Chord of the wing and horizontal axis d) Angle of incidence and stall angle 51. Crazing appears on the plastic surface in forms of a) Straight line crack crack c) A network of crack running in all direction visible b) Zigzag d) Not

52. If plastic is stored horizontally, the height should not be more than a) 6 b) 24 c) 12 d) 18 53. In a fail safe spar, the top section consist of a) Cap and upper web plate riveted together b) Single extrusion c) Splice plates and cap d) All of these 54. Hydraulic fluid leak is avoided in between the body and the piston of the break assembly by means of a) Gasket b) O-ring packing c) Seal d) All above 55. In cantilever wing design a) No external support is required c) Drag wire is fitted b) Bracing is required d) None of these d) Formers

56. The principal structured member of the wing is a) Rib b) Spar c) Stringer 57. In multiple disk break assembly stators are

a) Key to the bearing career career c) It rotates

b) Not key to the bearing d) None above

58. Pressure identification or false brinnelling appears in which type of corrosion a) Fatigue corrosion b) Fretting corrosion c) Inter granular corrosion d) Stress corrosion 59. Al and its alloys are covered with pure aluminium to corrosion resistance is called a) Sherardizing b) Anodizing c) Cladding d) Chromating 60. Magnesium parts are protected for temporary storage with a) Cladding b) Anodizing c) Plating d) Chrome pickle treatment 61. The multiple disk break assembly consist of a) 3 stators b) 4 rotators c) 1 bearing career d) All above 62. In anodizing of Al alloys a thin layer of film on the surface is formed of a) Al oxide b) Sodium oxide c) Potassium oxide d) Calcium oxide 63. Dichromate treatment is given to a) Al parts b) Steel parts Copper parts c) Magnesium parts d)

64. Al. Alloy bell cranks employing pressed in taper pins are suspected to a) Fatigue corrosion b) Fretting corrosion c) Stress corrosion d) None of these 65. Rigid fuel tanks are tested for leak with the air pressure of a) 2.5 PSI b) 1.5 PSI c) 2 PSI d) 3 PSI 66. Flexible fuel tanks are tested for fuel leak with the air pressure of a) 0.25 PSI b) 1.5 PSI c) 2.5 PSI d) 0.5 PSI 67. Fuel leak of the tank is checked for the seepage for the period of a) 15 min c) 30 min c) 45 min d) 60 min

68. The bladder type of fuel cell is made to size in the cavity when it sit a) Larger b) Smaller c) Equal d) All of these 69. During symmetry checks of Aircraft a spring scale is used with the steel tape. Generally a pull of force is applied to obtain equal tension during reading it. a) 8 lbs b) 15 lbs c) 5 lbs d) 10 lbs 70. To check the rudder hinge alignment the instrument used is a) Scale b) Plum bob c) straight edge d) Steel tape 71. Taper on a shaft is indicated along the a) Centre line b) Base line 72. Set squares can be used for drawing a) Vertical line b) Inclined line d) All of the above c) Dimension line c) Parallel line

73. Splined shafts are used to a) Transmit larger power than keyed shaft b) Obtain axial movement c) Obtain rotary movement d) All of these 74. Flange couplings are a) Flexible coupling c) Compression coupling b). Rigid coupling d) Clamp coupling d)

75. The type of key used in muff coupling is a) Wood roof key b) Gib-head key c) Round key Any of these 76. Gear sector gives a) Continuous motion c) Reciprocating motion 77. Helical gears are a) More quiet than spur gear number of teeth in contact c) Smooth in operation

b) Intermittent motion d) None of these b) Having more d) All of these

78. Addendum + Duodenum = a) Working depth b) Whole depth Backlash

c) Tooth space

d)

79. The basic difference in datum line and phantom line is a) Thickness of lines b) Length of lines c) No. of lines d) None of these 80. A straight line parallel to a vertical plane has a) A line of same length in front view and point in top view b) A line of same length in both views c) A line of same length in top view and point in front view d) None of these

PAPER - II
PART IX 1. D 6. D 11. A 16. D 21. C 26. C 31. C 36. B 41. D 46. B 51.C 56. B 61. D 66. A 71. A 76. B 2. C 7.C 12. B 17. B 22. C 27.B 32. D 37. C 42. B 47. C 52. D 57. A 62. A 67. C 72. D 77. D 3. C 8. C 13. B 18. C 23. B 28.A 33. A 38. C 43. B 48 A 53. A 58.B 63. C 68. A 73. A 78. B 4. D 9. D 14. C 19. C 24. A 29. A 34.A 39. C 44. B 49. B 54. B 59.C 64. C 69. C 74. B 79. A 5. A 10. D 15. A 20.A 25. D 30. C 35.B 40. C 45 C 50. B 55 A 60. D 65. B 70. B 75. D 80. A

PAPER - II
PART X 1. Chain a. b. c. d. (thick line of 0.7mm) indicates Visible outlines and edges Hidden outlines and edges Surface which have to meet special requirements. Cutting planes.

2. Raised countersunk heads bolt nominal length is measured from a. Under the head to the tip b. Total length of the bolt c. Threaded length d. Distance from upper surface of the head (excluding the raised portion) to the extreme end of shank 3. Bolt head is of a Steel d. Brass b. Corrosion resistant steel c. Al. Alloy

4.

Bolt head is of a. Steel c. C.R.S. close tolerance

b. Al. Alloy d. Al. Alloy close tolerance b. Lock spring washer d. None of above b. Lock spring washer d. None of above

5. AN 935 is a. Plain washer c. Shake proof washer 6. AN 936 is a. Shake proof washer c. Plain washer

7. Measuring capacity of Vernier Caliper is a. Full graduated length of main scale b. Full graduated length of main scale minus the length of the vernier scale. c. Full graduated length plus vernier scale d. All above 8. Vernier caliper is checked for accuracy with the help of a. Slip gauge b. Micrometer c. Straight edge d. both a) and b)

9. Calliper Micrometer is used for measurement of a. Small internal diameter b. Big internal diameter c. External diameter d. All above 10. For measurement of cutting a lapping dimension of Drills, Taps and Reamers instrument used in a. External micrometer b. Internal micrometer c. Vee-block micrometer d. All above 11. When metal is in contact with plastics, glass wool (non-conducting material) the corrosion form is known as a. Fretting b. Pitting c. Crevice corrosion d. None of above 12. Argon cylinders should not be used if the pressure is less than a. 20 lbf/in b. 30 lbf/in c. 10 lbf/in d. None 13. Grub screws are used for a. Locking the bolt c. Locking two threaded components movement of piston b. Locking the nut d. To stop

end

14. Taper pin are manufactured with taper of a. 1 in 48 b. 1 in 10 c. 1 in 50

d. 1 in 60

15. Main constituents of Inconel are a. Nickel and Iron b. Nickel and Chromium d. Nickel and Copper d. Copper and Manganese 16. Aircraft wheels, brake pedals, control columns are made out of a. Nickel alloy b. Magnesium alloys c. Magnesium alloy castings d. Wrought Magnesium alloy 17. Anti-corrosive treatment given reduce electric potential between aluminium parts is a. Galvanizing c. Metal spraying to copper and its alloys in order to these parts and its adjacent steel or b. Parkerizing d. Cadmium plating

18. In order to increase elasticity and strength and reduce tackiness in rubber, the process is known as a. Vulcanizing b. Calendering c. Hardening d. None 19. Aircraft rivets are identified by a. Head style b. Alloy c. Length & diameter d. All 20. For accurate location of particular area on an aircraft, which of the following is necessary? a. Water line b. Butt line c. As in a) and b) in conjunction with station line d. None 21. Which type of corrosion is occurred in stainless steel after electric arc welding? a. Pitting b. Galvanic c. Inter crystalline d. Fretting 22. For spot welding, in stainless steel, which is most suitable a. Low-voltage b. High-amperage c. Low-voltage and High-amperage d. High-voltage and Low-amperage

23. Heat generated in spot welding is measured by a. Resistance x (Current)2 x Time b. Resistance x Time / (Current)2 c. (Current)2 / Resistance x Time d. Resistance x Current 24. Which of the following is Non-Magnetic? a. Inconel b. K-Monel c. Monel d. All

25. SAE a. b. c. d.

13XX represents Magnesium Steel Manganese Steel Silicon Steel Chromium Steel

26. Hot piece of metal is increased in thickness and decreased in length a. Upsetting b. Down setting c. Swaging d. Rolling 27. Rivets are designed a. Stronger in shear b. Stronger in tension c. Should not be subjected to excessive tension load d. Both a) and c) 28. Zero fuel weight means a. AUW minus weight of fuel b. Weight of cargo, passenger and crew c. Maximum allowable weight of loaded aircraft without fuel and statement b) d. All of these 29. I-beam is produced by a. Rolling b. Casting c. Forging d. None 30. Caustic cleaning products used on Al-structure have the effect of producing a. Passive oxidation b. Improved corrosion resistance c. Corrosion d. None 31. Fayed surface cause concern in chemical cleaning because of the danger of a. Forming passive oxide b. Entrapping corrosive material c. Corrosion by embedded iron oxide d. All of the above 32. The rust or corrosion that occurs with most of the metal is the result of

a. A tendency for them to return their natural state b. Blocking the flow of electrons in homogenous metals or between dissimilar metal c. Electron flow in or between metal for cathode to anode area d. All of the above 33. Which of the listed condition is not one of the requirements for corrosion to occur a. Presence of electrolyte b. Electrical contact between an anodic area and a cathodic area c. Presence of passive oxide film d. None of these 34. Inter-granular corrosion on Al-alloy part a. May be detected by surface pitting, white powdery deposit b. Appears as thread like filament c. Cannot always be detected by surface indication d. All of the above 35. Which type of pipe wrench is designed with adjustable serrated jaws for gripping round pipes? a. Warnok type b. Stillson type c. Super wrench tool d. Williams type 36. Vise a. b. c. d. grip pliers is also known as Heavy pliers Lever jaw wrench Monkey pliers None

37. Punch holders are used to hold a. Punches b. Chisels c. Both a & b are correct d. As in a, when a hard blow is required 38. Which pliers can be used for completing the safety wire operation? a. Safety wire pliers b. Diagonals & duck bill pliers c. Both a & b are correct d. As in a & diagonals

39. Diagonals are used for a. Cutting steel wires & rods b. Cutting bolt heads c. Both a & b are correct d. None 40. The shape of long nose pliers is a. Round b. Half-round c. Square d. None 41. The jaws of vise grip pliers is released from locking by a. A small lever at each handle b. A compound lever at both handles c. A small lever at one of the handles d. None 42. Which thread is used where a great strength is required in one direction? a. Acme b. Square c. Worm d. Buttress 43. In interlocking-joint pliers, a. There are a number of holes at the hinge point b. There are two holes at the hinge point c. There are several curved grooves at the hinge point d. None 44. Which nut is used to prevent other nuts from turning on threaded bolt or rod a. Self-locking nut b. Jamb nut c. Stainless steel nut with cotter pin d. None of these 45. The content of CO2 fire extinguisher or N2 pressurized extinguisher is checked by a. Weight and pressure gauge b. Marking on neck c. By operating the extinguisher d. All of the above

46. Choose incorrect statement a. Yellow poly propylene provide insufficient strength b. Proper tension in rope allows 1 movement c. Manila rope requires extra slak due to shrinks d. The rope from tail should pull away at about 450 to each side of tail 47. Which type of jack is used for L/G retraction check a. Single base jack b. Bottle neck jack c. Screw jack d. Tripod jack 48. Which measuring tool is used for outside or inside measurement for faster work a. Vernier micrometer b. Vernier calliper c. Micrometer calliper d. None of these 49. Which is incorrect statement a. If corrosion is present in control cable should be replaced b. Cable used in seaplane must be coated with paral-ketone c. For detection of corrosion, cable twist in same way of lay d. Carbon steel cable must be used with protective coating 50. After welding aluminium parts flux should be removed by a. Immersing them in Luke warm water for 30 minutes b. Mechanical means, i.e. Wire brushing as the flux is not soluble in water c. Washing the parts in boiling water containing 5% HNO3 d. Vacuum blasting 51. A gusset is a. A bracing between longerons b. A type of connecting bracket c. Used for fail safe construction d. Like a butt plate 52. In computer terminology, MICR means a. Magnetic Ink Character Recognition b. Magnetic Ink Computer Recognition c. Monitor Indicating Computer Relay d. Mass Information Computer Record

53. The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely resistive circuit is given by a. 00 b. 900 c. 450 d. 1350 54. One a. b. c. d. micro farad is equal to 0.001 milli farad 100 milli farad 1000 milli farad 10 milli farad

55. To smoothen the DC in rectifier, we employ a. LPF b. HPF b. BPF d. None 56. The Voltage / Current across the short circuit a. V = max I=0 b. V = 0 I = max c. V = 0 I=0 d. V = max I = max 57. The vacuum tube has a. Directly heated anode b. Indirectly heated cathode c. Directly heated cathode d. Indirectly heated anode 58. The name Superhet is used for a. AM receiver b. FM receiver c. AM transmitter d. FM transmitter 59. Two resistances of 15, 12 ohms each are connected in parallel across a supply, giving 27 ampere, then current through 15 ohm will be a. 27 amp b. 12 amp c. 15 amp d. 1 amp 60. Most effective method of removing rust from ferrous metal is a. Steel wire brush b. Sand paper c. By abrasive blasting

d. Washing with hot shop solution 61. A) Rivet smaller than 3/32 diameter are never used on stressed structure B) Never replace 2024T rivet with 2117T rivet a. Both are correct b. Both are incorrect c. Only A) is correct d. Only B) is correct 62. Regarding permanent ballast a. Lead bar or plate is used b. Painted red and placarded c. Bolted as near as possible to CG d. Both A and B 63. Transverse pitch is a. Twice the rivet diameter b. 70% of rivet pitch c. 75% of rivet pitch d. 6-8 diameter 64. Rivet pitch is a. Distance between center of rivet in a row b. Distance between edge to center of rivet c. Four times the rivet diameter d. Both a) and c) are correct 65. Edge distance (minimum) is a. 4D b. 2D c. 6-8D d. Any of the above 66. The amount of rivet length used for shop head is a. 11/2 x diameter of rivet b. 4 x diameter of rivet c. 3 x diameter of rivet d. All of the above 67. Which plating process provide excellent base for paint a. Cd Plating b. Zn Plating c. Granodizing d. All of the above

68. Which treatment give excellent base for paint a. CR Plating b. Parkerizing c. Metal spraying d. Zn plating 69. The process use zinc as a medium for plating a. Parkerizing b. Sheradizing c. Galvonizing d. Both b) and c) 70. In Electrically driven attitude indicators, the gyro rotates approx., at a. 20000 rpm b. 21000 rpm c. 21500 rpm d. None of the above 71. During functional test of direction indicator, the drift should be checked which should not exceed a. 2 degree in 15 minutes b. 3 degree in 15 minutes c. 2 degree in 30 minutes d. 3 degree in 30 minutes 72. Performance test of instruments should be carried out a. Before installation b. At times when indication and operation are suspected c. At periods mentioned in aircraft maintenance manual d. All of the above 73. Worm threads have a thread angle of a. 45 degrees and is similar to ACME threads b. 29 degrees and is similar to ACME threads c. 29 degrees and depth of threads are deeper than ACME threads d. 29 degrees and ACME threads are deeper than worm threads 74. The figure shown here is of a. A simple gear train and the gear D moves at half speed of gear A b. As in a & the gear D moves in the same direction of the gear A

c. A compound gear train & the gear D moves in the opposite direction of the gear A d. A simple gear train and the gear D moves in the opposite direction at a double speed of gear A 100T A 30 B 30 C 50T D

75. Which of the following memories has got equal access time for all locations of the memory limit? a. Read Only Memory (ROM) b. Programmable Read Only Memory (PROM) c. Random Access Memory (RAM) d. Erasable ROM 76. To get a basic D.C. generator from A.C. generator which of the following arrangement is made? a. By replacing the slip rings of the A.C. generator with commutator b. By the addition of extra slip rings c. By connecting a rectifier d. None of the above 77. The rotating part of a DC generator is called a. Field coil b. Yoke c. Armature these d. None of

78. Variations of D.C. voltage generated by D.C. generator is called a. Ripple b. R.M.S. c. Average d. Crest 79. The brushes in generator are generally made up of a. High grade carbon b. High grade silicon c. High grade selenium d. High grade zinc 80. The term 10-5 farads mean a. 1 mili-farad b. 10 micro-farad c. 10 nano-farad d. None

PAPER - II
PART X 1.C 6.A 11.C 16,.C 21.C 26. A 31. B 36. B 41. C 46. A 51.B 56.B 61.C 66.A 71.B 76.A 2.D 7.B 12.A 17. D 22. C 27. D 32. A 37. C 42.D 47. D 52.A 57.B 62.C 67.C 72.D 77.A 3.B 8.D 13.C 18. A 23. A 28. C 33.C 38. C 43.C 48.B 53.A 58.A 63.C 68.B 73.C 78.A 4.C 9.A 14.A 19. D 24.B 29. A 34.C 39. D 44.B 49.C 54.A 59.B 64.D 69.D 74.D 79.A 5.B 10.C 15.B 20. C 25. B 30. C 35.B 40. B 45.A 50.C 55.A 60.C 65.B 70.B 75.C 80.B

PAPER - II
PART XI 1. Diamond is a: (a) Metal Composite (b) Non-metal (c) Glass (d)

2. Number of atoms in a Body Centered Cubic (BCC) crystal are: (a) Ten (b) Seventeen (c) Nine (d) Fourteen 3. Type of bond formed in a material by sharing of electrons in different atoms is: (a) Ionic Bond (b) Covalent Bond (c) Metallic Bond (d) Electrostatic bond 4. A crack in a metal due to corrosive atmosphere and static tensile stress is known as: (a) Bauschingers effect (b) Work hardening (c) Season cracking (d) Strain aging 5. A metal part or structure fails under repetitive or fluctuating loading or stress is called: (a) Fatigue fracture (b) Ductile fracture (c) Creep fracture (d) Brittle fracture 6. (1) An intermetallic compound is a form of alloy, where as (2) Substitutional solid solution is a type of solid solution (a) 1 is correct & 2 is incorrect (b) 2 is correct & one is incorrect (c) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect (d) Both, (1) and (2) are correct 7. Property of a material to resist indentation is known as: (a) Toughness (b) Hardness (c) Brittleness (d) Strength 8. Conductivity and Expansion are physical terms which are related to: (a) Electricity (b) Heat (c) Cooling (d) None of these

9. Addition of carbon to the surface of steel to make it hard, is known as: (a) Case hardening (b) Carburizing (c) Quenching (d) None of these 10. Permanent deformation of metal caused by applied load is called: (a) Stress (b) Elastic deformation (c) Plastic deformation (d) None of these 11. The point at which marked increase in deformation occurs without increasing the load during tensile testing of a material, is: (a) Yield point (b) Yield strength (c) Proof strength (d) Tensile strength 12. For tensile testing, the extensometer must be calibrated to: (a) 0.0001 inch (b) 0.0002 inch (c) 0.0003 inch (d) 0.0004 inch 13. Yield strength of a metal can be determined by: (a) Divider method (b) Drop of beam method (c) Set method (d) None of these 14. In Brinell Hardness Testing, hard metal will have: (a) Large Brinell number (b) Small Brinell number (c) No effect by hardness (d) None of these 15. In Vickers Hardness Test, angles between two opposite diagonals of diamond pyramid is: (a) 1260 (b) 1360 (c) 1460 (d) 1560 16. Size of specimen taken for reverse bending test is: (a) 5 inches (b) 10 inches (c) 15 inches (d) 20 inches 17. In reverse bending test, number of bends require for small wires (a) 50 bends (b) 7 bends (c) 10 bends (d) 90 bends 18. Torsion test is carried out on (a) Aircraft tubes (b) Wires Bars & rods (c) Sheets & strips (d)

19. In radiography inspection, the wave length of x-rays are in order of (a) 10-6 (b) 10-10 (c) 10-11 (d) -6 -9 10 10 20. Circular magnetization detects the defect approximately: (a) In line with flux (b) Parallel to the line of flux (c) Parallel to the axis of the part (d) None of these 21. Type of bond formed in a material by Electrons cloud is: (a) Ionic bond (b) Covalent bond (c) Mettalic bond (d) Electrostatic 22. For tensile testing, it is permitted to taper the gauge length of the specimen towards center, maximum by: (a) 0.001 inch (b) 0.002 inch (c) 0.002 inch (d) 0.004 inch 23. For elastic limit determination, the extensometer reading is taken from: (a) 5% load of expected elastic limit (b) 10% load of expected elastic limit (c) 15% load of expected elastic limit (d) 20% load of expected elastic limit 24. While testing a material for hardness, sufficient distance from edges should be there to avoid: (a) Buldging at opposite side (b) Deflection while testing (c) Ridge scales (d) Scratches 25. (1) Diameter of ball used for Brinell Hardness Test is up to inches, where as (2) Load applied for soft material is 500 kg. (a) (1) is true and (2) is false (b) (2) is true and (1) is false (c) Both are true (d) Both are false 26. Brinell Hardness Number is obtained by: a) Size of ball divided by area of depression b) Area of depression divided by size of ball c) Load applied divided by area of depression d) None of these

27. Maximum size of ball for Rockwell hardness test is: (a) 5mm (b) 10mm (c) mm mm

(d) 1

28. In Rockwell hardness test, the working range of the B scale is: (a) B0 B150 (b) B0 B100 (c) B0 B20 (d) None of these 29. In Rockwell hardness test, B scale is a combination of: (a) Diamond cone, 150kg load and Red dial (b) 1/16 inch ball, 100kg load and Black dial (c) Diamond cone, 100kg load and Black dial (d) 1/16 inch ball, 100kg load and Red dial 30. Minimum thickness necessary with hard steel for Rcokwell hardness test is: (a) 0.027 inch (b) 0.27 inch (c) 0.0027 inch (d) None of these 31. Load applied in Shore Scleroscope hardness test is: (a) 30 kg (b) 50 kg (c) 10 kg these (d) None of

32. For bending test of sheet and strips, the size of test specimen is: (a) 1 to 1 inch wide with suitable length (b) 1 by in cross section (c) Full section (d) None of these 33. In reverse bending test, the specimen is bent through an angle of: (a) 600 (b) 900 (c) 1200 0 (d) 180 34. In Izod impact test, the specimen is : (a) Supported on two supports jaws (c) Attached with pendulum (b) Clamped in heavy (d) None of these

35. In Hydrostatic test, welded exhaust tubing are subjected to an internal pressure sufficient to put the welded seam under a tensile stress of: (a) 1000 PSI (b) 10000 PSI (c) 100000 PSI (d) 1000000 PSI

36. In torsion testing of wires, speed of revolution should not be more than: (a) 80 revolution/min (b) 70 revolution/min (c) 60 revolution/min (d) 50 revolution/min 37. In fatigue testing, the value of stress below which failure of material will not occur is known as: (a) Plastic limit (b) Elastic limit (c) Proof stress (d) Endurance limit 38. Gamma rays used for inspecting aircraft material for internal cracks / defects are having wave length of: (a) 10-3 (b) 10-6 (c) 10-9 (d) 10-11 39. (1) Sulfur is a harmful impurity in plain carbon steel (2) Phosphorus is very much useful element of plain carbon steel (a) Both are true (b) Both are false (c) (1) is true (2) is false (d) (1) is false and (2) is true 40. High carbon steel is used for: (a) Great hardness and low ductility ductility and strength (c) Great hardness and machinability (b) Great (c) All of these (d)

41. Which of the following is more useful for taking backups? (a) Floppy disk (b) Hard Disk (c) Optical Disk Cartridge 42. One Megabyte is _____________ bytes. (a) 1048576 (b) 1000 10 (c) 102756

(d)

43. The material used as heat sink in semiconductors is (a) Silicon (b) Germanium (c) Carbon Selenium

(d)

44. When the conduction-band orbit of one atom may intersect the hole orbit of another atom merging of a free electron and a hole takes place. This merging of electron and hole is known as (a) Current flow (b) Minority current flow (c) Combination (d) Recombination

45. The barrier potential at 25C in respect of silicon and germanium is (a) Si-0.7V and Ge-0.3V (b) Si-0.3V and Ge0.7V (c) Si-0.7V and Ge-0.7V (d) Si-0.3V and Ge0.3V 46. Once the breakdown voltage is reached, the diode can conduct (a) Heavily (b) Very flow (c) Moderately (d) None of these 47. An electronic device which converts alternating current into d.c. is called (a) Detector (b) Rectifier (c) Oscillator (d) None of these 48. Mark the incorrect statement about a bimetallic strip (a) It consists of two metals joined together at their interface to form a single strip. (b) One of the metal is invar, a form of steel with a 26% nickel content and a negligible coefficient of linear expansion. (c) The other metal may be brass or steel both of which have high linear expansion coefficient. (d) None of these. 49. Many of the instruments depend for their operation on sensitive electrical circuits which are protected against adverse effects of atmospheric temperature, pressure and humidity by (a) filling the cases with nitrogen (b) filling the cases with helium (c) filling the cases with argon (d) either (a) or (b) 50. Instruments displaying information which is to be read accurately and at frequent intervals have scale about _____________ in length fitting into standard ____________ in cases. (a) 6 in & 3 (b) 7 in & 3 (c) 7 in & 3 (d) none of these 51. The rolled section having dimension of 6x 6 or larger & approximately square is called (a) bloom (b) billet (c) slab none of these

(d)

52. To identify ferrous metal (a) hardness test is used (c) heat treatment is carried out used

(b) spark test is used (d) grinding stone is

53. Solution heat treated & artificially edged is indicated by (a) T5 (b) T7 (c) T6 (d) T8 54. The most widely used alloys in aircraft construction are hardened by (a) cold work (b) hot rolling (c) heat treatment (d) all the above 55. The heat range for salt bath furnances are (a) depending upon composition of bath. (b) as in (a) & normally 650F to 1700F. (c) as in (a) & normally 325F to 2450F. (d) none of these. 56. In semimonocoque fuselage primary bending load is taken by (a) frame (b) stringer (c) longerons (d) bulk hand 57. In external bracing wing the landing and aerodynamic loads is carried by (a) spar (b) rib (c) wing joints (d) bracing struts 58. In main plane at the inboard end of the wing near the attachment point to the fuselage heavily stressed rib is called (a) butt rib (b) bulk head rip (c) compression rib (d) all of them 59. Aircraft requiring extra wing area to aid lift often are (a) split flap (b) plain flap (c) fowler flap (d) all of them 60. On multiengine aircraft Nacelles or pods are located (a) above the m/p (b) below the m/p (c) at the leading edge of the m/p (d) all the above 61. An amplifying, comparative gage is an instrument that amplifies the variation in the size of two similar parts by

(a) 2 times 20 times

(b) 5 times

(c) 10 times

(d)

62. Johansson precision gage blocks, the second series of gage blocks contains (a) 19 blocks (b) 49 blocks (c) 81 blocks (d) none of these 63. The entire cone shaped surface at the cutting end of the drill is (a) dead centre (b) point (c) margin (d) lip 64. The angle between a lip and axis of a drill bit is known as ___________ and mostly 59. (a) heel angle (b) lip angle (c) lip clearance (d) none of these 65. Part of the point drill that actually cuts away the material when a hole is drilled is known as (a) point (b) cutting lips (c) margin (d) flutes 66. A capacitor consists of two (a) conductors separated by an insulator called the di-electric. (b) insulators separated by a conductor. (c) insulators separated by air medium. (d) conductors separated by air medium. 67. In a capacitor electric charge is stored in (a) metal plates (b) di-electric (d) none of these 68. Unit of m.m.f. is (a) weber (b) gilbert (c) both (a) & (b)

(c) maxwell (b) potential

(d) henry (c) charge

69. Joule/coloumb is the unit of (a) electric field potential (d) none of these

70. In a lead-acid battery, excessive formation of lead sulphate occurs due to (a) idleness of battery for a long time (b) low level of electrolyte (c) persistent under charging (d) all of them

71. Common impurity in a battery electrolyte is (a) dust particle (b) iron (c) lead crystals (d) sodium chloride 72. Overcharging of lead-acid battery will cause (a) excessive gassing (b) loss of active material (c) increase in temperature resulting in buckling (d) all of them 73. Total horse power developed by piston engine is (a) IHP (b) BHP (c) FHP Actual horse power 74. Factor affecting volumetric efficiency is (a) improper fuel injection (c) low engine power timing 75. In the formula indicated HP= PLANK , where N stands for 33000 (a) number of power stroke per minute cylinder per engine (c) number of RDM per power stroke these 76. White arc on ASI dial indicates airspeed range (a) normal operating range minimum limits (c) aircraft landing flaps may be extended these (d)

(b) cylinder bore (d) improper valve

(b) number of (d) none of

(b) maximum & (d) none of

77. Mark the correct statement about A field effect LCD (a) It incorporates additional plates called polarizers on the front & back glass plates of the assembly. (b) It contains a specially prepared inside glass surface which causes liquid crystal. (c) The molecular configuration causes the plane of polarization to be reflected by 90 as it passes through LCD. (d) All the above.

78. A quality of precision gage have the accuracy of (a) 0.000008 inch (b) 0.000004 inch (c) 0.000002 inch (d) 0.000004 inch 79. The convenient gages which are designed of paper, plastic, steel metal, leather and so are (a) indicating depth gage gage (c) amplifying comparative gage to inspect the thickness on with great accuracy (b) indicating thickness (d) indicating gage

80. For flight equilibrium adequate restoring moment can be achieved by fixing C of G (Centre of Gravity) (a) end C of P (Pressure) together (b) rear of C of P ( c) front of C of P (d) along aerodynamic C of P

PAPER - II
PART XI ANSWERS: 1. B 6. D 11. A 16. B 21. C 26. C 31. D 36. C 41. A 46. A 51. A 56. C 61. C 66. A 71. A 76. C 2. C 7. B 12. B 17. A 22. C 27. C 32. D 37. D 42. A 47. B 52. B 57. D 62. B 67. B 72. D 77. D 3. B 8. B 13. C 18. B 23. D 28. B 33. D 38. D 43. C 48. B 53. C 58. D 63. B 68. B 73. A 78. B 4. C 9.A 14. A 19. D 24. B 29. D 34. B 39. C 44. D 49. D 54. C 59. C 64. B 69. A 74. D 79. B 5. A 10. C 15. B 20. C 25. B 30.A 35. B 40. A 45. A 50. C 55. C 60. D 65. B 70. D 75. A 80. C

PAPER - II
PART XII 1. Maximum permissible silicon in steel is: (a) 0.3% (b) 0.4% 0.6%

(c) 0.5%

(d)

2. An element of steel which is white in colour and increases the strength, yield point and hardness without effecting the ductility: (a) Chromium (b) Molybdenum (c) Silicon (d) Nickel 3. An alloying element of steel which improves its homogeneity and reduces the grain size, is: (a) Nickel (b) Molybdenum (c) Chromium (d) Silicon 4. The High Speed Steel used for tools, which will retain its cutting edge even when heated to dull redness by working: (a) Nickel-chromium (b) Tungsten-chromium steel (c) Vanadium-Tungsten steel (d) Chromium-molybdenum steel 5. In SAE steel numbering system, the second digit indicates: (a) Average carbon content (b) Type of steel (c) Number of alloying elements (d) Approximate percentage of predominant alloy 6. The numerals and digits for 3.50% Nickel steel in SAE steel numbering system is: (a) 25xx (b) 2xxx (c) 23xx (d) 24xx 7. In AN-QQ-S-689 specification, AN indicates: (a) Army-Navy (Aeronautical) standard (b) Air force-Navy (Aeronautical) specification (c) American National (Aeronautical) specification (d) None of these 8. SAE 1435 steel is used for structural tubings, its Military specification is: (a) MIL-T-6737 (b) MIL-T-6731 (c) MIL-T-6732 MIL-T-6735

(d)

9. While heating the steel, the critical points are designated by: (a) Ac1, Ac2, (b) Ar1, Ar2, (c) Ar3-2 (d) Arcm 10. At what percentage of carbon content, two upper critical points merge together and forms a single critical point known as Ar3-2 (a) Slightly above 0.1% (b) Slightly above 0.2% (C) Slightly above 0.4% (c) at 0.85% 11. Carbon is in chemical combination with iron as iron carbide, which is known as: (a) Austenite (b) Pearlite (c) Martensite (d) Cementite 12. Steel above 0.85% carbon content is known as: (a) Hyper-eutectoid (b) Hypo-eutectoid Eutectoid (d) None of these (c)

13. Steel above 0.85% carbon content is composed of: (a) Austenite (b) Cementite and martensite (c) Martensite and troostite (d) Pearlite with excess cementite 14. Main constituent of hardened steel is: (a) Austenite (b) Troostite Martensite (c) Sorbite (d)

15. Fine grain of the steel is obtained when it is heated: (a) Below critical range (b) Well above critical range (c) Slightly above critical range (d) Up to upper critical point 16. The hardest structure obtained in the steel is: (a) Pearlite (b) Troostite (c) Martensite (d) Sorbite 17. Soaking time for steel is: (a) 4 hours per inch thickness thickness (c) 2 hours per inch thickness thickness (b) 3 hours per inch (d) 1 hour per inch

18. Spheroidizing is a type of annealing which improves machinability of : (a) Low carbon steel (b) Medium carbon steel (c) High carbon steel (d) Alloy steel 19. Normalizing is carried out to: (a) Induce ductility strength (c) Improve machinability (b) Improve hardness and (d) All of these (c) Oil

20. The most severe quenching medium is: (a) Brine (b) Water (d) Air 21. Dry heat furnace are fired by: (a) Oil (b) Gas (d) Any one of these

(c) Electricity

22. To prevent scaling, better temperature regulation and for uniform heating, the type of furnace to be used is: (a) Liquid furnace (b) Dry heat furnace (c) Open hearth furnace (d) Electric furnace 23. Sufficient period of soaking of aircraft steel parts is: (a) 30 60 minutes (b) 15 45 minutes (c) 30 45 minutes (d) 1 hour 2 hour 24. For water quenching, temperature of water must be maintained: (a) Below 600F (b) Below 650F (c) Below 700F (d) Below 800F

25. For normalizing SAE 1025 mild carbon steel, the temperature should be: (a) 1600 16250F (b) 1625 16750F (c) 1650 17000F (d) 1675 17250F 26. Special steel HY-TUF has a good toughness at a tensile strength of: (a) 2,30,000 psi (b) 2,40,000 psi (c) 2,50,000 psi d) 2,60,000 psi

27. The steel to be used for case hardening purpose is: (a) Low carbon steel (b) Medium carbon steel (c) High carbon steel (d) Alloy steel 28. For solid carburizing, the metal box is having 2 inches legs (a) To avoid touching of box with furnace (b) For free circulation of furnace gases (c) For proper support of the box (d) All of these 29. Liquid carburizing is used for small parts, where case depth required upto: (a) 0.010 inch (b) 0.020 inch (c) 0.030 inch (d) 0.040 inch 30. In gas carburizing, the parts are heated in: (a) Carbon atmosphere furnace (b) Amonia gas (c) Carbon-dioxide gas (d) Any one of these 31. The sequence of case hardening consists of: (a) Carburizing, tempering, case hardening and core refining (b) Carburizing, core refining, case hardening and tempering (c) Carburizing, tempering, case hardening and core refining (d) Carburizing, case hardening, core refining and tempering 32. For case hardening MIL-S-6709 describe two types of nitralloys, in which composition-A is: (a) Free machining steel (b) High carbon steel (c) Nitriding stainless steel (d) High core strength steel 33. Which of the following is a mechanical treatment in shaping of metal: (a) Casting (b) Sand blasting (c) Rolling (d) Centrifugal cast 34. While shaping of a metal if the sectional dimension is less than 6X6 inch and approximately square, the shape is called: (a) Billet (b) Bloom (c) Slab (d) Mold

35. Complicated sections or sections required in small quantity are usually: (a) Hot rolled (b) Cold rolled (c) Drawn (d) Forged 36. In drop forging, the inside faces of the die are given a slope of 30 70 to permit drawing out the finished parts. This slope is referred to as: (a) Up setting (b) Drawing angle (c) Draft (d) Fin

37. When finely powdered metal is placed in a die and pressed through a plunger, it forms a compact mass by: (a) Attraction forces of the particles (b) Forming a bond (c) By welding the particles together (d) By interlocking of particles 38. Cold working of metal increases its: (a) Toughness and ductility (b) Strength and ductility (b) Hardness and ductility (d) Strength and hardness 39. Size of hot drawn rod used for cold drawing of wires are: (a) 1/8 3/4 inch diameter (b) 1/16 1/32 inch diameter 1 5 (c) /32 /8 inch diameter (d) None of these 40. Blow hole is a defect in steel, which can occurs in (a) Ingots (b) Rolling (c) Drawing (d) Forging

41. All submerged parts & hull of seaplane is sprayed with liquid lanoline upto height of _____________ above water line (a) 1 Feet (b) 2 Feet (c) 1 meter (d) 2 meter 42. Mark the correct statements (a) Steel wool is used on Al-alloy for corrosion removal (b) Clad-Al can be cleaned by mechanical method (c) Trichloroethylene is used for removal of grease (d) All of the above

43. Evidence of surface corrosion and extent of pitting should be tested by (a) Hardness testing (b) Impact testing (c) Probing with a fine needle (d) None of these 44. Exhaust of Aero-engine made of stainless formed ________________ due to high temperature (a) Crevice corrosion (b) Electrolytic corrosion (c) Inter-granular corrosion (d) Stress corrosion 45. Which type of corrosion is occurred in mounting bolts of engine and wings ? (a) Inter-granular corrosion (b) Stress corrosion (c) Concentrating cell corrosion (d) Fettling corrosion 46. Heated section checked with magnet for corrosion detection, basically that indicate their relative (a) Conductivity of part (b) Permeability of part (c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 47. Which is most suitable condition for storage of Aircraft part? (a) Less than 60% humidity (b) Equal to 60% humidity (c) More than 60% humidity (d) None of these 48. Paint stripper is removed with (a) Steel wool (c) Aluminium wool material 49. (b) Emery cloth (d) Non-metallic

Which type of stripper is used on plastic or windows parts? (a) Water-miscible paint remover (b) Solvent-miscible paint remover (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these 50. Anodic film can be removed by a solution of (a) 10% Sulphuric acid + 4% Potassium fluoride (b) 20% Sulphuric acid + 10% Potassium fluoride (c) 20% Sulphuric acid + 20% Potassium fluoride (d) All of the above

51.

Chromate film treatment is carried on __________ material (a) Al-alloy (b) Mg-alloy (c) Steel-Alloy (d) Titanium Cadmium plating can be removed by (a) Mechanical cleaning (c) Both (a) & (b) (b) Chemical cleaning (d) None of these

52.

53.

Mark the correct statement regarding chemical cleaning of steel (a) Corrosion on steel can be removed by pickling solution (b) Phosphoric acid can also be used (c) As in (b), it dissolved oxide film and partly inhibit the steel surface (d) All of the above

54. Mark the correct statement regarding chemical cleaning of Alalloys (a) Light corrosion can be removed by solvent (b) Heavy deposits on clad Al-alloy can be removed chemically (c) Heavy deposits on non-clad Al-alloy can be removed mechanically (d) All of the above 55. Which of the following corrosion remover required a followed-up action of chromate bearing conversion coating treatment? (a) Chromic-acid corrosion remover (b) Phosphoric-acid corrosion remover (c) Butyl alcohol + Isopropyl alcohol + water (d) Nitric acid + water 56. Which acid is used for cleaning of Mg-alloy? (a) Chromic acid (b) Phosphoric acid (c) Nitric acid (d) Sulphuric acid

57.

Steel and Non-clad Al-alloy can be cleaned by (a) Wet glass paper (b) Dry emery paper (c) Dry sand paper (d) As in (a) & water acts as lubricants 58. Which type of scraper is used for corrosion removal on casting or forging parts? (a) Steel carbide tipped (b) Plastic copped tip scraper (c) Abrasive tipped cap scraper (d) None of these

59.

Mark the correct statement regarding battery component (a) Lead-acid battery compartment neutralized by bicarbonate of soda (b) Ni-Cd battery compartment neutralized by acetic acid (c) The sump vent jar containing moist absorbent pad with neutralizing agent (d) All of these

60. Human wastes corrode the lavatory area, because it is ________ in nature (a) Acidic (b) Caustic (c) Neutralizing agent (d) None of these 61. Grip length of the bolt is (a) Total length of the bolt (b) Plain sank portion of the bolt (c) Length under the head of the bolt to the end of the bolt (d) None of these In close tolerance bolt, force applied to drive in is (a) 10 ounce hammer (b) 20 ounce hammer (c) 12 to 14 ounce hammer (d) Sledge hammer (b) length (c)

62.

63.

AN 4-7 bolt shows (a) 7/8 dia 4length (d) dia 64. Bolt of class 4 fit is (a) Loose fit (c) Close fit

(b) Free fit (d) Tight fit

65.

Special washer AC 950 and AC 955 are used where (a) Bolt is installed at angle to surface (b) Bolt is installed head down (c) It can be used any where (d) None of these 66. To prevent the crushing surface on wooden structure with nut and bolt, the washer used is (a) AN 936 (b) AN 935 (c) AN 970 (d) AN 960 67. nut Where shear load is taken by the bolt, the nut used is (a) Plain nut (b) Castle nut (c) Castellated shear nut (d) Self locking

68. In the patch repair of the Aircraft skin, the edge distance (distance from the centre of the rivet to the edge of the sheet) should be (d is diameter of rivet) (a) 2d to 4d (b) 8d (c) 6d (d) 75% of the pitch 69. Pitch of the rivet should be (a) 1 d (c) 1 x d (b) 6d to 8d (d) All of these

70. The amount of the length required to form the head of the rivet is (a) 2 d (b) 4 d (c) 1 x d (d) 8 d 71. 15 72. Chamfering of the patch plate is done at the angle of (a) 25 (b) 45 (c) 60 (d)

In patch repair, clearance between the rivet and hole should be (a) 0.008 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.002 to 0.004 (d) 0.4 73. A rivet with part no. AN 470 AD 3-5 is having a diameter of (a) 3/32 (b) 5/32 (c) 3/16 (d) 5/16 74. Seam welding is (a) Pressure welding welding (c) Electric resistance 75. (b) Non-pressure (d) Both (a) & (c)

In which type of welding, the electrode is non-consumable (a) TIG (b) MIG (c) Electric resistance (d) Oxyacetylene Spot welding electrodes should be (a) Good conductor of Electricity (c) High strength & Hardness (b) Good conductor of (d) Both (a) & (c)

76. heat

77.

In leftward welding (a) Filler rod precedes torch precedes filler rod (c) A 60 V is prepared at the end of plate (a) & (c) 78.

(b) Torch (d) Both

The color of acetylene cylinder and oxygen cylinder is (a) Maroon & Black (b) Black & Maroon (c) Yellow & Black (d) Black & Yellow

79. Bi-Planer block in Chain assembly is used for changing the plane of articulation through (a) 120 (b) 90 (c) 180 (d) None 80. For Non-reversible chains, mark the correct statement (a) Every third inner plate is extended in one direction (b) Every second outer plate is extended in one direction (c) Every fourth outer plate is extended in both direction (d) All are wrong

PAPER - II
PART XII

ANSWERS: 1. A 6. C 11. D 16. C 21. D 26. A 31. B 36. C 41. B 46. B 51. B 56. A 61. B 66. C 71. B 76. D 2. D 7. A 12. A 17. D 22. A 27. A 32. D 37. D 42. C 47. A 52. C 57. D 62. C 67. C 72. C 77. A 3. B 8. D 13. D 18. C 23. C 28. B 33. C 38. D 43. C 48. D 53. D 58. A 63. D 68. A 73. A 78. A 4. B 9. A 14. D 19. B 24. B 29. D 34. A 39. A 44. C 49. D 54. D 59. D 64. C 69. B 74. D 79. B 5. D 10. C 15. C 20. A 25. B 30. A 35. D 40. A 45. D 50. A 55. B 60. A 65. A 70. C 75. A 80. B

PAPER - II
PART XIII 1. What percentage of manganese and sulfur will completely form manganese sulfide in steel, which is harmless in small quantity: (a) 0.3% Sulfur and 0.06% Manganese (b) 0.30% Manganese and 0.06% Sulfur (c) 0.03% Sulfur and 0.06% Manganese (d) None of these 2. It is a grey metal which impart hardness, strength, wear resistance and corrosion resistance of steel: (a) Chromium (b) Nickel (c) Silicon (d) Titanium 3. Which of the alloying element of steel is most expensive: (a) Vanadium (b) Titanium (c) Molybdenum (d) Tungsten 4. In SAE steel numbering system, first digit indicate: (a) Approximate percentage of predominant alloy (b) Average carbon content (c) Type of steel (d) None of these 5. In SAE steel numbering system, last two or three digits indicate: (a) Average carbon content (b) Approximate percentage of predominant alloy (c) Type of steel (d) Number of alloying elements. 6. The numerals and digits for 1.25% Nickel, 0.60% Chromium of Nickel-chromium steel in SAE numbering system is: (a) 32xx (b) 31xx (c) 33xx (d) 30xx 7. Military specification (MIL) are developed jointly by technical services of Army, Navy and Air force and are issued by: (a) American National Specification (b) Munitions Board Standard Agency (c) American Military (d) Air force-Navy Specification Board

8. SAE 4037 steel is used for aircraft bolts, its AN specification is: (a) AN-S-85 (b) AN-S-13-B (c) AN-S-9a (d) QQ-S-624 9. While cooling the steel, its critical points are designated by: (a) Ac3, Ac2, (b) Ar3, Ar2, (c) Arcm (d) Ar3-2-1 10. At what percentage of carbon, all three critical points will merge together and forms a single critical point known as Ar3-2-1 (a) 0.85% (b) 0.65% (c) 0.45% (d) 0.25% 11. Steel below 0.85% carbon content is known as: (a) Eutectoid (b) Hypo-eutectoid (c) Hypereutectoid (d) None of these 12. Steel below 0.85% carbon content is composed of: (a) Pearlite (b) Pearlite with excess ferrite (c) Pearlite with excess cementite (d) Pearlite and Austenit 13. While heat-treating the steel, transition from one form to another can be arrested by: (a) Slow rate of cooling (b) Drastic rate of cooling (c) Cooling in still air (d) Cooling in furnace 14. Main constituent of Drawn (Tempered) steel is: (a) Sorbite (b) Martensite (c) Troostite (d) Austenite 15. To know the critical range of any steel, it is very much important to know its: (a) Critical points (b) Upper critical point (c) Lower critical point (d) Chemical composition 16. After heating the steel for annealing, the cooling is to be done: (a) In the furnace (b) In open air (c) In oil (d) Any one of these 17. In annealed state, aircraft steel is not of practical use because of: (a) Its lowest strength (b) Very hard and brittle (c) High ductility (d) All of these 18. Type of annealing mainly used in sheet and wire industries:

(a) Full annealing (c) Spheroidizing

(b) Process annealing (d) Shop annealing

19. Hardening of the steel is done by: (a) Heating above critical and cooling in furnace itself (b) Heating below critical range and quenching (c) Heating above critical range and quenching (d) Any one of these 20. To maintain an oxygen free atmosphere inside the dry furnace, the furnace is fed with: (a) Ammonia gas (b) Water vapor (c) Carbon vapor (d) Oil vapor 21. In liquid heat furnace, the parts are heated by: (a) Oil bath (b) Chemical bath (c) Molten salt bath (d) Any liquid 22. Re-arrangement of internal structure of steel complete in: (a) Heating period (b) Quenching period (c) Soaking period (d) Any one 23. Percentage of salt mixed with water to prepare brine is: (a) 5 10% (b) 10 15% (c) 15 20% (d) 20 25% 24. For oil quenching, the temperature of oil must be maintained: (a) 70 1300F (b) 75 1400F (c) 80 1500F (d) 85 1600F 25. For heat treating SAE 3140 Chrome-Nickel steel, the temperature should be: (a) 1200 12750 F (b) 1250 13250F (c) 1400 15000F (d) 1475 15250F 26. Soaking period for HY-TUF special steel is two hours per inch of thickness at a temperature of: (a) 500 250F (b) 550 250F (c) 600 250F 0 (d) 650 25 F 27. In case hardening, carbon content at the case will be: (a) 0.60 0.80% (b) 0.70 1.0% (c) 0.80 1.25% (d) 0.85 2%

28. For case hardening of aircraft work, the depth of case used is: (a) 1/64 1/32 inch (b) 1/48 1/25 inch (c) 1/32 1 /16 inch (d) 1/16 1/8 inch 29. For liquid carburizing, parts are heated in: (a) Liquid furnace (b) Gas furnace (d) Electric furnace (c) Molten salt bath

30. The sequence of case hardening consists of: (a) Carburizing, tempering, case hardening and core refining (b) Carburizing, core refining, case hardening and tempering (c) Carburizing, tempering, case hardening and core refining (d) Carburizing, case hardening, core refining and tempering 31. For selective case hardening, the portion of the parts not required to be hardened, are: (a) Jappaned (b) Copper plated (c) Left as it is (d) None of these 32. Method of case hardening which increases compressive stress on the skin and tensile stress just below the surface is: (a) Selective case hardening (b) Nitriding (c) Shot peening (d) Induction hardening 33. While shaping of a metal if the sectional dimensions is 6X6 inches or larger and approximately square, the shape is called: (a) Slab (b) Bloom (c) Billet (d) Rod 34. To get a fine grained structure, hot rolling must be finished: (a) Below critical range (b) Above critical range (c) Within critical range (d) Just below upper critical point 35. The type of forging in which two dies are used, one is attached to the hammer and other to anvil, is known as: (a) Hammer forging (b) Drop forging (c) Cold forging (d) Press forging 36. In metal powdered parts, property of the metal will be of: (a) Particles of maximum quantity (b) Individual particles will held there property (c) Uniform nature (d) None of these

37. Tensile strength of powdered metal parts can be obtained upto: (a) 80% of solid metal parts (b) 70% of solid metal parts (c) 90% of solid metal parts (d) 95% of solid metal parts 38. After hot rolling, it is necessary to cold roll: (a) To avoid cracking (b) To avoid scaling (c) To avoid oxidation (d) To impart smooth surface and accurate dimensions 39. When cold drawing of wire, reduction in diameter in each draw can be up to: (a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 40% 40. Fins and Laps is a type of defect in steel, which can occurs in (a) Cold drawn seamless tube (b) Rolling (c) Ingots (d) Forgings 41. If electrolyte from a lead acid battery is split in the battery compartment, which procedure should be followed (a) Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by the water rinse (b) Rinse the affected area thoroughly with the clean water. (c) Apply sodium-bi-carbonate solution to the affected area followed by the water rinse (d) All of the above 42. Which of the following can provide the empty weight on an aircraft if the aircrafts weight and balance record become lost, destroyed or otherwise inaccurate (a) Re-weighing the aircraft (b) Aircraft specification (c) Type certificate datasheet (d) Flight manual 43. The useful load of an aircraft consists of (a) Crew, useable fuel, passengers and cargo (b) Crew, useable fuel, oil and fixed equipments (c) Crew, passengers, useable fuel, oil, cargo and fixed equipments (d) None of the above 44. The maximum weight of an aircraft is

(a) Empty weight + crew, maximum fuel weight (b) Maximum fuel weight, cargo, baggage and passenger (c) Empty weight + crew, passengers and fixed equipments (d) Empty weight + useful loads 45. Zero fuel weight is (a) Dry weight + the weight of full crew, passenger and cargo (b) Basic operating weight without crew, fuel and cargo (c) Maximum permissible weight of a loaded aircraft without fuel (d) None of the above 46. Amount of fuel used for computing empty weight and corresponding C.G is (a) Empty fuel tanks (b) Useable fuel (c) The amount of fuel necessary for half hour of operation (d) Full tank fuel 47. Two boxes which weigh 10 pounds and 5 pounds are replaced in an airplane so that their distance from C.G are 4 feet and 2 feet respectively. How far forward of the C.G should a third box weighing 20 pounds be placed so that the C.G will not be changed. (a) 3 feet (b) 2.5 feet (c) 3.5 feet (d) 8 feet 48. Flexible hose used in aircraft system is classified with (a) Outside diameter (b) Wall thickness (c) Inside diameter (d) Outside dia-inside dia 49. Scratch or Nicks on the straight portion of aluminium alloy tubing may be repaired if they are no deeper than (a) 20% of the wall thickness (b) 1/32 inch or 20% of wall thickness, whichever is less (c) 10% of the wall thickness (d) None of these 50. When installing bonded clamps to support metal tubing (a) Paint should be removed (b) Paint clamp and tube after installation (c) Leave as it is (d) Remove paint or anodizing from tube and clamp location 51. A 3/8 inch aircraft high pressure flexible hose as compare to 3.8 inch metal tubing used in the same system will

(a) Have about the same outer diameter (b) Have equivalent flow characteristic (c) Usually have interchangeable application (d) Have same internal diameter 52. What method of magnetic particles inspection is used often to inspect aircraft parts for invisible cracks (a) Residual (b) Inductance (c) Intermittent (d) Continuous 53. In performing a dye-penetrate inspection, the developer (a) Act as blotter to produce a visible indication (b) Seeps into a surface crack to indicate the presence of cracks (c) Thoroughly cleans the surface prior to the inspection (d) Perform no function 54. What type of corrosion attacks grain boundary of aluminium alloy which are improperly or inadequately heat treated (a) Filiform (b) Intergranular (c) Fretting (d) Strain 55. Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft bolts should be installed so that the bolt head is (a) Upward or in a forward direction (b) Downward or in a forward direction (c) Downward or in a rearward direction (d) Upward or in a rearward direction 56. A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is classified as an (a) AN corrosion resistance steel (b) NAS standard aircraft bolt (c) NAS closed tolerance bolt (d) Magnetic resistance bolt 57. A bolt with an X-inside a triangle on the head is classified as an (a) AN corrosion resistance steel bolt (b) NAS aircraft bolt (c) NAS closed tolerance bolt (d) Aluminium bolt 58. Which tool can be used to measure the alignment of a rotor shaft or the plain of rotation of a disc (a) Dial indicator (b) Shaft gauge (c) Protector (d) Micro meter

59. Weather waning tendency is greatest than taxying (a) Either type of aeroplane in a quartering tail wind (b) A tail wheel type aeroplane in a direct cross wind (c) In a nose wheel type aeroplane quartering head wind (d) A tail wheel type aeroplane parallel wind 60. When taxying an aircraft, an alternating red and green light from the control tower means (a) Move clear of the runway/taxy way immediately (b) OK to proceed but used extreme caution (c) Return to starting point (d) Stop where are 61. The color of 100 ll fuel is (a) Blue (b) Colorless or straw (d) Green (c) Red

62. A fuel that does not vaporize readily enough can cause (a) Vapour lock (b) Detonation (c) Hard starting (d) None 63. Nickel cadmium battery case and drain surfaces which have been affected by electrolyte should be neutralized with a solution of (a) Boric acid (b) Sodium bi-carbonate (c) Potassium hydroxide (d) Sodium chloride 64. Corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of (a) Excessive Anodization (b) Contact between two unlike metals (c) Excessive etching (d) Surface carburization 65. Which material is the most acidic (a) Cadmium (b) Magnesium (c) Copper (d) Gold

66. Speed of sound in the atmosphere (a) Varies according to the frequency of sound (b) Varies according to the temperature (c) Varies according to the pressure (d) All of the above 67. Aspect ratio of a wing is defined as the ratio of (a) Wing span to the wind root (b) Square of the chord to the wing span (c) Wing span to the mean chord

68. A wing with a very high aspect ratio will have (a) Low drag at high angles of attack (b) A low stall speed (c) Good control at low speed (d) All of the above 69. Vicious cycle is connected to (a) Nickel cadmium battery (c) Dry cell (b) Sulphuric acid battery (d) None of the above

70. Basically corrosion reduces the strength of materials by the process of (a) Chemical reaction (b) Electrochemical reaction (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) Electromagnetic process 71. Evidence corrosion on stainless steel is an appearance of (a) Brown color rust (b) Green color scum (c) White color debris (d) None of these 72. When corrosion product is removed from surface corrosion, then which type of corrosion is appeared on it? (a) Oxidation corrosion (b) Dry corrosion (c) Pitting corrosion (d) Wet corrosion 73. The metal that is oxidized due to the corrosion attack that is called as (a) Neutralized agent (b) Anodic change (c) Cathodic change (d) None of these 74. Mark the correct statement: (a) Under corrosive environment, most active metal become cathodic (b) Under influence of corrosive agent less active metal become anodic (c) Established condition for corrosion due to the presence of anode and cathode is called as local cell (d) All of the above are true 75. Types of corrosion depends upon (a) Type of materials (c) Shape of metal (b) Size of metal (d) All of the above

76. Crevice corrosion is an example of (a) Surface corrosion (b) Concentration cell corrosion (c) Electrolytic cell corrosion (d) Exfoliation corrosion 77. Which type of corrosion occurs in high-strength materials used as brackets, attached to Al-alloy skin of aircraft (a) Galvanic corrosion (b) Fretting corrosion (c) Stress corrosion (d) Dry corrosion 78. Coca is formed in which type of corrosion? (a) Filiform corrosion (b) Exfoliation corrosion (c) Fretting corrosion (d) Microbial corrosion 79. Which type of corrosion will occur in welded parts? (a) Stress corrosion (b) Inter-crystalline corrosion (c) Fretting corrosion (d) Dissimilar metal corrosion 80. Stress corrosion can be prevented by (a) Shot-penning (b) Shot-bursting (c) As in (a) & increase in the fatigue strength (d) As in (a) & increase in the tensile strength

PAPER - II
PART XIII ANSWERS: 1. B 6. B 11. B 16. A 21. C 26. C 31. B 36. B 41. C 46. B 51. B 56. A 61. A 66. B 71. D 76. B 2. A 7. B 12. B 17. A 22. C 27. C 32. C 37. A 42. A 47. B 52. D 57. C 62. C 67. C 72. C 77. A 3. A 8. C 13. B 18. B 23. A 28. A 33. B 38. D 43. A 48. C 53. A 58. A 63. A 68. D 73. B 78. C 4. C 9. B 14. A 19. C 24. C 29. C 34. B 39. C 44. D 49. C 54. B 59. B 64. B 69. A 74. C 79. B 5. A 10. A 15. D 20. C 25. D 30. B 35. B 40. B 45. C 50. D 55. A 60. B 65. B 70. C 75. D 80. C

PAPER - II
PART XIV 1. Number of atoms in a Face Centered Cubic (FCC) crystal are: (a) Fourteen (b) Seventeen (c) Nine (d) Fifteen 2. Type of bond forms in a material by loosing or gaining of electrons is: (a) Covalent Bond (b) Ionic Bond (c) Metallic Bond (d) Secondary Bond 3. Hardness induced in a metal due to deformation is known as: (a) Stress hardening (b) Age hardening (c) Work hardening (d) None of these 4. When a metal is deformed plastically, forces required to deformed it in reverse direction will be less, this is known as: (a) Work hardening (b) Bauschingers Effect (c) Strain aging (d) None 5. Failure of component under high temperature and stress conditions is known as: (a) Creep fracture (b) Ductile fracture (c) Fatigue fracture (d) Brittle fracture 6. (1) An intermetallic compound is a form of alloy, where as (2) Substitutional solid solution is a type of solid solution (a) 1 is correct & 2 is incorrect (b) 2 is correct & one is incorrect (c) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect (d) Both, (1) and (2) are correct 7. Iron changes its forms at different temperatures, thats why it is known as : (a) Ferrous metal (b) Magnetic metal (c) Allotropic (d) None of these 8. Ductility of a material is its property to be drawn into: (a) Wire (b) Sheet (c) Tubes (d) Both (a) and (c)

9. Strength is the ability of a material to resist external loads where as toughness is to: (a) Resist fracture (b) Resist deflection (c) Resist elastic deformation (d) Withstand bending or torsion without fracture 10. Treatment given to a metal to relieve internal stresses and induce softness is: (a) Tempering (b) Hardening (c) Normalizing (d) Annealing 11. Maximum load per square inch a material can with stand is: (a) Yield strength (b) Tensile strength (c) Proof stress (d) Elasticity 12. A series of heating and cooling to improve physical properties of a metal is known as: (a) Normalizing (b) Hardening (c) Tempering (d) Heat treatment 13. Specimen is tested for which strength during tensile testing (a) Proof stress (b) Fatigue strength (c) as in a and Yield strength (d) as in c and Ultimate Tensile Strength 14. (1) For tensile testing the specimen must be straight (2) Specimen can be straighten by hammering or bending. (a) (1) is true and (2) is false (b) (2) is true and (1) is false (c) Both (1) and (2) are true (c) Both (1) and (2) are false 15. Proof stress is the stress at which a permanent set occurs: (a) 0.001 inch per inch of gauge length (b) 0.0001 inch per inch of gauge length (c) 0.00001 inch per inch of gauge length (d) 0.01 inch per inch of gauge length 16. (1) For checking elastic limit, load can be released upto zero, where as (2) For checking proof stress load is released up to 20% (a) (1) is true and (2) is false (b) (2) is true and (1) is false (c) Both (1) and (2) are true (d) Both (1) and (2) are false

17. Yield point of a metal can be determined by: (a) Divider method (b) Set method (c) Extension under load method (d) both (b) and (c) 18. For checking the area of depression in Brinell Hardness Test, Accuracy of microscope should be: (a) 0.05mm (b) 0.005mm (c) 0.5mm (d) 0.0005mm 19. In Rockwell Hardness Test, if B scale is used for material harder than B-100 (a) It will give inaccurate reading (b) Ball may get flattened (c) No reading will be their (d) None of these 20. To locate a defect in a material with the help of magnaflux test, it is essential that the magnetic lines of force pass approximately (a) Parallel to defect (b) Perpendicular to defect (c) Any direction of defect (d) Both (a) and (b) are correct 21. Number of atoms in a Hexagonal Closed Pack (HCP) crystal are: (a) Fourteen (b) Nine (c) Eleven (d) Seventeen 22. Bonds formed in materials due to Vander Walls forces of attraction, is: (a) Ionic bond (b) Covalent bond (c) Mettalic bond (d) Secondary bond 23. Elastic limit of a material is considered to have been reached if a permanent set obtained is: (a) 0.0003 inch (b) 0.00002 inch (c) 0.00001 inch (d) 0.00004 inch 24. Proof stress of a specimen of 2 inch gage length will be at a permanent set of: (a) 0.0004 inch (b) 0.0003 inch (c) 0.0002 inch (d) 0.0001 inch

25. For Brinell Hardness Testing, application of load should be for at least: (a) 20 second (b) 15 second (c) 10 second (d) 5 second 26. In Rockwell hardness test, red dial is used for: (a) Ball penetrator (b) Diamond point penetrator (c) both (a) and (b) (d) None 27. In Rockwell hardness test, combination used for aircraft material are: (a) A and B (b) C and D (c) A and D (d) B and C 28. In Rockwell hardness test, the working range of C scale is: (a) C10 & upward (b) C15 & upward (c) C20 & upward (d) C25 & upward 29. In Rockwell hardness test, a ball penetrator as large as inch diameter should be used for soft metal with: (a) 60kg load (b) 20kg load (c) 100kg load (d) 150kg load 30. Load applied for soft material in Vickers hardness test is: (a) 20 kg (b) 15 kg (c) 10 kg (d) 5 kg 31. For bending test, the diameter of the pin over which bend is to be performed, should be: (a) Equal to the diameter of the test specimen (b) Equal to the thickness of the material (c) Equal to diameter of thickness of the test specimen (d) None of these 32. For bending test of forging stock specimen, the corners are to be: (a) Made round (b) Broken by file (c) Rounded to 1/16 inch radius (d) None of these 33. The jaws of the vice are to be rounded for reverse bending test: (a) 3/16 inch radius for wire above 3/16 inch diameter (b) 3/16 inch for wire below 3/16 inch diameter (c) 3/16 inch radius up to 3/16 inch wire (d) None of these

34. In charpy impact test, the V notch of the specimen faces: (a) Opposite to the pendulum (b) Towards the pendulum (c) Above the jaws (d) None of these 35. When carrying out crushing test on aircraft tubing, the tube should be in: (a) Annealed condition (b) Normalized condition (c) Heat treated condition (d) Any one of these 36. Specimen required for torsion testing of wire less than 0.033 inch diameter: (a) 10 inch (b) 20 inch (c) 30 inch (d) 40 inch 37. Specimen required for torsion testing of wire more then 0.033 inch diameter: (a) 10 inch (b) 20 inch (c) 30 inch (d) 40 inch 38. X-rays are used efficiently for the inspection of steel parts upto thickness of: (a) 8 inch (b) 6 inch (c) 3 inch (d) 2 inch 39. (1) Sulfur is a harmful impurity in plain carbon steel (2) Phosphorus is very much useful element of plain carbon steel (a) Both are true (b) Both are false (c) (1) is true (2) is false (d) (1) is false and (2) is true 40. Presence of manganese in steel is mainly to (a) Eliminate ferrous oxide (b) Improve forging quality (c) Induce penetration hardness (d) All of these 41. In tapered sectioned metal piece, which area is more susceptible to corrosion (a) Exterior surface (b) Interior surface (c) Thin portion (d) Thick portion 42. Mark the correct statement: (a) Inter-crystalline corrosion occurs along grain boundaries of an alloy (b) This is a from of electrochemical attack

(c) As in (b) & occurs due to lack of uniformity (d )All of the above 43. Stress corrosion can be detected by (a) Eddy current (c) X-ray (b) Dye-penetrant (d) Ultrasonic method

44. Speed of electro-chemical attack is increased in _________ climate (a) Hot and dry (b) Cold and moist (c) Hot & moist (d) Cold & dry 45. Which type of acid is produced by electrical sparks when combined with moisture in confined spaces? (a) Sulphuric acid (b) Nitric acid (c) Phosphoric acid (d) Chromic acid 46. Which type of corrosion is present in contact area of metal and non-metal joint? (a) O2 concentration cell corrosion (b) Metal ion concentration cell corrosion (c) Filiform corrosion (d) Crevice corrosion

47. Mark the correct statement: (a) The fungus grows at the fuel/water interface (b) As in (a) & temperature range is in between 50-60F. (c) As in (b) & this occurs in integral fuel tank (d) As in (c) & this produces a microbial corrosion 48. Which corrosion is occurred due to improper heat-treatment and welding defects? (a) Metabolic corrosion (b) Inter-granular corrosion (c) Trans-granular corrosion (d) Weld decay corrosion 49. Which of the following coating function as sacrificial protection? (a) Chromium plating (b) Galvanizing (c) Cladding (d) Metal spraying 50. Which nut is used to prevent other nuts from turning on threaded bolt or rod

(a) Self-locking nut (b) Jamb but (c) Stainless steel nut with cotter pin (d) None of these 51. The content of CO2 fire extinguisher or N2 pressurized extinguisher is checked by (a) Weight and pressure gauge (b) Marking on neck (c) By operating the extinguisher (d) All of the above 52. Choose incorrect statement: (a) Yellow polypropylene provide insufficient strength (b) Proper tension in rope allows 1 movement (c) Manila rope requires extra slack due to shrinks (d) The rope requires extra slack due to shrinks 53. Which type of jack is used for L/G retraction check (a) Single base jack (b) Bottle neck jack (c) Screw jack (d) Tripod jack 54. Which measuring tool is used for outside or inside measurement for faster work (a) Vernier micrometer (b) Vernier caliper (c) Micrometer caliper (d) None of these 55. Which is incorrect statement (a) If corrosion is present in control cable should be replaced (b) Cable used in seaplane must be coated with para-ketone (c) For detection of corrosion, cable twist in same way of lay (d) Carbon steel cable must be used with protective coating 56. After welding aluminium parts flux should be removed by (a) Immersing them in like warm water for 30 minutes (b) Mechanical means, i.e. wire brushing as the flux is not soluble in water (c) Washing the parts in boiling water containing 5% HNO3 (d) Vacuum blasting 57. A gusset is (a) A bracing between longerons connecting bracket (c) Used for fail safe construction plate

(b) A type of (d) Like a butt

58. The unit where calculations are preferred is called (a) Central processing unit (CPU) (b) Control Unit (c) Arithmetic and logic unit (ALU) (d) Computing unit 59. EDP stands for (a) Electrical data processing data processing (c) Entry data processing discrete programme (b) Electronic (d) Electronic

60. Assembler is (a) An individual who assembles computer (b) Language (c) Program (d) None of the above 61. Input unit of computer communicates between (a) Operator and Computer printer (c) CPU with monitor Computer 62. The symbol for Hexadecimal is (a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 10 63. In computer terminology, MICR means (a) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (b) Magnetic Ink Computer Recognition (c) Monitor Indicating Computer Relay (d) Mass Information Computer Record 64. Speed of processor is measured in (a) Kilobit / Sec (b) Hertz RPM 65. A byte is a group of (a) 2 bits 16 bits (b) 4 bits (c) Byte (d) (b) Memory with (d) Output and

(d) 16

(c) 8 bits

(d)

66. In digital computer system, number of states used is (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 8 67. The term ROM means (a) Random Operation Memory Operate Memory

(d) 16

(d) Read and

(c) Read only Memory

(d) None

68. The energy of a capacitor having capacitance C and voltage V is given by (a) 0.5 CV2 (b) CV (c) C2V (d) 0.5 C2V 69. One unit of magnetic flux is given by (a) Weber square (c) Square root of Weber (b) Weber per meter (d) Henery

70. Generators works on the principle of (a) Faradays law of electromagnetic induction (b) Ohms law (c) Biot - severts law (d) Gausss law 71. The Capacitor of a parallel plate is given by (a) Ac / d (b) A2C / d (c) Ad / c None (d)

72. If there are N number of cells, each having voltage E and internal resistance r are connected in series, then the resulting e.m.f of the circuit is given by (a) NE volt (b) E/N volt (c) E volt (d) NEr volt 73. The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely resistive circuit is given by (a) 0 (b) 90 (c) 45 (d) 135 74. One micro farad is equal to (a) 0.001 milli farad (c) 1000 milli farad (b) 100 milli farad (d) 10 milli farad

75. The ability of magnet to restore magnetism is called (a) Retentivity (b) Permitivity (c) Store ability (d) both (a) & (c) 76. If Im is the maximum current for sine AC then its R.M.S value is given by (a) 0.707 Im (b) Im (c) 0.5 Im (d) 1.414 Im

77. The relationship between voltage and current in a purely inductive circuit is given by (a) Voltage leads the current by 90 (b) Current lags the voltage by 90 (c) both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above 78. By voltage division rule the voltage drop V1 in the circuit will be (a) V1 = (R2 x Vs) / (R1+R2) (b) V1 = (R1 x Vs) / (R1+R2) (c) V1 = Vs x (R1+R2) / R1 (d) None 79. If inductance is doubled and the capacitance is halved , then resonant frequency F0 (a) Doubled (b) Halved (c) Remains same (d) Squared root of F0 80. 50000000 Hz stands for (a) 5 MHz (d) 500 MHz (b) 0.5 MHz (c) 50MHz

PAPER - II
PART XIV ANSWERS: 1. A 6. D 11. B 16. D 21. D 26. A 31. C 36. C 41. D 46. D 51. A 56. C 61. A 66. A 71. A 76. A 2. B 7. C 12. D 17. A 22. D 27. D 32. C 37. A 42. D 47. A 52. A 57. B 62. D 67. C 72. A 77. C 3. C 8. D 13. D 18. A 23. A 28. C 33. C 38. C 43. B 48. B 53. D 58. C 63. A 68. A 73. A 78. B 4. B 9. D 14. A 19. B 24. C 29. A 34. A 39. C 44. C 49. C 54. B 59. B 64. B 69. A 74. A 79. C 5. A 10. D 15. B 20. B 25. C 30. D 35. A 40. D 45. B 50. B 55. C 60. C 65. C 70. A 75. A 80. C

PAPER - II
PART XV 1. The purpose of turnbuckle is to (a) make minor adjustment in cable length tension (c) both (a) & (b)

(b) adjust cable (d) none

2. The major alloying element in 7075 Al-alloy is (a) magnesium (b) silicon (c) magnesium & silicon d) Zinc 3. T-6 designation of Al-alloy indicates (a) solution heat treated and then artificially aged. (b) solution heat treated and then stabilized. (c) artificially aged only. (d) solution heat treated and then cold worked. 4. Meshing gear have same (a) teeth (b) pitch of same size (c) dedendum (d) all 5. Vernier scale is used on (a) micrometer (b) boroscope (c) spheroscope (d) all 6. Fibre glass is also known as (a) E glass or Electric glass (c) both (a) & (b) 7. Well threads are (a) detection for warp direction (c) bias (b) S glass or Borosile glass (d) All (b) direction is 45 to warp (d) perpendicular to warp

8. Strength of composite depends upon (a) type of fiber (b) process of manufacture (c) heat treatment (d) all 9. Which statement is correct? (a) Force is exhorted on uncharged particle. (b) Force is applied on charged particle moving along the magnetic field. (c) Both (a) & (b)

10. When two sphere are of same mass, one is positive charge and the other is negative charge then new mass will remain (a) change (b) unchanged (c) sum of both mass 11. If the conductor is of 4 and if it is stretched to twice its length then its resistance is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 16 (d) 32 12. A & B are big and small battery having same emf internal resistance of battery A is (a) less than B (b) greater than B (c) equal to B (d) unaffected 13. Which statement is correct? (a) Battery terminal voltage is equal to battery emf. (b) Battery terminal voltage is less than battery emf. (c) Battery terminal voltage is more than battery emf. (d) Depends on direction of current flow. 14. In flourescent method (a) if wet developer is applied, it must be dried. (b) if wet developer is applied, it must not be dried. (c) dry for long period. (d) none 15. Telescoping gage (a) is used for inside diameter 6 (c) range from to 1 (b) range from to (d) both (a) & (b) (c) both (a)

16. Whole gage is used for measuring (a) Grooves and slots (b) small hole & (b) (d) none

17. The size of flat cold chisel is determined by (a) width of cutting edge (b) length of cutting edge (c) length of chisel (d) all 18. Thread may be produced by (a) on a lathe with specially shaped cutting tool. (b) on spiral machine using rotary cutter (Tapes).

(c) by rolling on spiral machine using dies. (d) all. 19. Needle file are (a) knurled on both sides one side (c) used on slot by dye maker and watch maker (b) & (c) (b) knurled on (d) both

20. Hook spinner is used on (a) round nut having series of knotches or slots cuts on its side. (b) hexagonal nuts with slots. (c) octagonal nut with slots. (d) all. 21. Muntz metal is used (a) to make oil and hydraulic fitting. (b) nuts and bolts for used in salty atmosphere. (c) nuts and bolts which are not affected by fresh water. (d) none. 22. Al weldable material is (a) 2 S (b) 17 S (c) 52 S (d) 53 S

23. A punch made of tool steel is heat treated to (a) heat to cherry red colour (b) as in (a) & dipped in sand (c) heat to dazzling white (d) as in (b) & heat to purple colour 24. Computer performs only the calculation i.e. (a) simple (c) problem with split into number of logic step (b) complex (d) none

25. High discharge tester is used to check the (a) voltage of battery in normal operating condition. (b) efficiency of condenser. (c) generator output. (d) voltage of battery to find its charge condition and whether recharging is required. 26. Electrical power and energy is expressed in terms of (a) Kilo Watt and Kilo Watt Hour respectively

(b) Watt and Joule respectively (c) Watt and Watt Per Hour respectively and Newton

(d) Watt

27. Three phase winding rotate with 1800 rpm in magnetic field having 8 poles, its frequency will be (a) 120 Cycle/Sec (b) 800 Cycles/ Sec (c) 1200 Cycles/ Sec (d) 1800 Cycles/ Sec 28. Titanium is heat treated for following purpose (a) Thermal hardening to improve strength. (b) Annealing offer hot working and cold working to provide maximum ductility for subsequent cold working. (c) Both (a) & (b). (d) None. 29. The normal solder technique of Al is (a) similar to that of other material. (b) differ to control the expansion and contraction of matter. (c) differ to the extent a low heat input is required. (d) both (b) & (c) are correct. 30. Flux is used in wielding of Al alloy for (a) better penetration (b) rid to oxidation (c) for better fusion (d) slow down the flow of molten metal 31. Flux used in silver soldering is (a) zinc chloride (c) sulphuric acid 32. Rust in steel is removed by (a) wire brush (b) emery paper blasting (d) all (b) ortho phospheric acid (d) all are correct (c) control sand

33. Barcol tester is used on (a) harder material (b) softer material of material (d) none 34. I-Beam is produced by (a) extruding (b) forging 35. Which one is stable wrought alloy (c) casting

(c) all type

(d) rolling

(a) piston (d) Al-clad

(b) cylinder head (c) crank shaft

36. The load per unit square inch at which material breaks (a) ultimate tensile strength (b) yield point (c) tensile strength (d) all are correct 37. The ultrasonic testing is used to check (a) fatigue crack (c) void and inclusion on cast (b) disbond (d) all are correct

38. Which statement is correct regarding sensitivity of x-rays? (a) The darkness of ratio graph does not depends on the radiation penetrating in the cylinder. (b) Thicker the specimen, lighter the image. (c) Thicker the specimen, darker the image. (d) None. 39. If information of physical data is large such as in altimeter, display is known as (a) long range display (b) short range display (c) smooth range display (d) wide range display 40. Nick name of digital display is (a) alphanumeric display display (c) circular scale display display (b) straight scale (d) platform scale

41. The soldering of Al-alloy differs from another metal due to (a) high specific heat and conduction (b) greater heat input (c) uneven expansion and contraction avoided (d) all 42. Kirchoffs Law is applicable to (a) DC (b) AC resistance (d) AC & DC (c) DC circuit having

43. In modulation, the available band is (a) one (b) two (c) no band band

(d) many

44. The modulation in which, amplitude is kept constant and frequency is changed is called

(a) amplitude modulation (c) frequency modulation

(b) space modulation (d) phase modulation

45. Angle of attack is the (a) acute angle between aircraft longitudinal axis and cord line to which aerofoil is mounted on the aircraft. (b) horizontal acute angle between the symmetry of aircraft and wind direction from which it touches the aircraft. (c) acute angle between the symmetry of the aircraft and the cord line of the aerofoil section. (d) all. 46. In NDT of material by dye pentrant inspection, the volume of defect is interpreted by (a) staining rate (b) staining speed (c) staining extent (d) all 47. In ultrasonic test scanning is carried out by moving both probes simultaneously in opposite direction for (a) flash butt joint (Welding) (b) heavy forging (c) heat treatment defect (d) thickness measurement 48. During fuelling the most necessary precaution to be observed (a) grounding connection first made to aircraft and then fuelling vehicle. (b) Grounding connection first made to fuelling vehicle and then the aircraft. (c) Either (a) or (b) 49. The fluid is used for all type of aircraft engine except rocket is (a) gasoline (b) air (c) aviation turbine fuel (d) all of the above 50. In composite the strength is provided by (a) reinforced fibre (b) core (c) resin fabric use (d) as in (a) and

51. In hardness testing of composite the hardness is measured (a) resin (b) reinforcing fibre (c) by the use of specific chart (d) both (b) & (c) 52. In composites repair the part is steeped rather than to be scarfed for

(a) uniform sheer stress stress (c) smoothness

(b) uniform tensile (d) both (a) & (b)

53. In uniform fluid flow, the fluid is first made to flow through tube and the pressure exerted by the fluid is measured by (a) dynamic pressure (b) static pressure (c) Reynolds no. (d) all 54. PARKETON is used for protection of (a) steel (b) numinium (d) as in (a) and cable (c) Mg

55. The rust and corrosion is removed from highly stressed steel parts by (a) abrasive paper (b) fine buffling clothron buffling wheel (c) wire brush (d) all 56. Centre drill is used to produce (a) short hole and CSK hole (counter sunk) and large hole (c) both (a) & (b)

(b) short hole (d) all

57. During repair procedure of composite part treatment is done for (a) small dis bands (b) restore surface protection (c) seal honey comb casting (d) none 58. Synthetic rubber used in the aircraft is designated GRM as (a) poly-sulphide polymer (b) isobutylene (c) complex of butylenes and cresylonitrile (d) Governemtn rubber mono-vinyl acetylene or neropene 59. To pentralise the surface of Ni-Cd battery compartment (a) boric acid (b) water (c) backing soda all (d)

60. Close tolerance bolt is identified by (a) triangle marking on head (b) crossed triangle marking on head (c) circle marking on head (d) triangle on head with plus marking within it.

61. While jacking, the approved procedure is (a) both wheels are raised together. (b) wheels are raised one after another. (c) A/C should be raised through designated point only. (d) both (a) & (c). 62. The class of fit required for a tight drive fit is (a) class-1 (b) class-2 (c) class-3 class-4 (d)

63. Piston engines mechanical efficiency differs due to (a) difference of pressure (b) difference of temperature (c) difference of grade of fuel used (d) difference in mass of fuel 64. A device which gives lateral control and is mounted at the upper surface of wing (a) spoiler (b) vertex generator (c) tab (d) flap 65. The pressure of water in composite can be detected by (a) USI (b) DPI (c) Endoscope Radiography (d)

66. Aircraft bolts are generally manufactured with a (a) class-1 fit for the threads (b) class-2 fit for the threads (c) class-3 fit for the threads (d) class-4 fit for the threads 67. The hose of 100 LL AVGAS dispense is (a) red (b) blue (c) black 68. Which is low energy logic circuit? (a) TTl (b) ECL (c) both (a) & (c) (d) green (d) none

69. Metal matrix composite is a recent conception materials where in (a) resin is reinforced with metal. (b) resin and fibre are reinforced with metal. (c) fibres are reinforced with metal during molten stage. (d) all of the above.

70. Two wires each one meter long are kept at a distance of 0.02mt. apart. If 1 amp current is flowing through each wire, then force acting in the wire will be (a) attractive if the direction of the current flowing through wires is same. (b) attractive if the direction of the current will be opposite. (c) repulsive if direction of the current will be reverse. (d) Both (b) and (c) are correct. 71. The symbol represents

(a) SCR, rheostat respectively (b) rheostat, thyristor respectively (c) resistor, FET (field effect transistor) respectively (d) none of the above 72. In which condition the bridge is said to be balance? (a) R1 is increased, R2 is decreased (b) R3 is increased, R4 is decreased (c) R2 is increased, R3 is decreased (d) when G is constant 73. Mark the wrong statement. (a) Helicoils are made of 18-8 stainless steel. (b) Screws come in AN 500 and NS 200 series. (c) Diameter of nut is measured in 16th of an inch. (d) Lockwashers should be used only with secondary structure not with primary structure. 74. In case of battery which of the following quantity can be stored? (a) energy (b) charge (c) current (d) none of the above 75. In a dry cell battery (a) carbon electrode is placed centrally surrounded by aluminium chloride electrolyte. (b) zinc chloride is placed centrally surrounded by aluminium chloride electrolyte. (c) carbon electrode is placed centrally surrounded by zinc chloride electrolyte. (d) both (a) and (c) are correct.

76. The identical insulated wire coils are hung from air so that they are facing each other and supplied with same direction a.c. (a) both are attracted to each other (b) both are repelled (c) clockwise rotation (d) anticlockwise rotation 77. Hot water quenching (a) minimize distortion and elevated cracking. (b) Ensures maximum resistance to corrosion. (c) Minimizes distortion but results in cracking. (d) (a) & (b) are correct. 78. In gas welding of oxygen and acetylene regulators has (a) left hand thread and right hand thread respectively. (b) right hand thread and left hand thread respectively. (c) both have left hand thread. (d) both have right hand thread. 79. Pull thru rivets are fabricated in two common head styles (a) universal head (b) brazier head (c) 100 countersunk head (d) both (a) & (c) are correct 80. A rivet head having raised across indicating (a) 5056 T (b) 2024 T (c) carbon steel corrosive resistant steel (d)

PAPER - II
PART XV ANSWER : 1. C 6. A 11. C 16. C 21. B 26. B 31. A 36. A 41. B 46. C 51. D 56. A 61. D 66. C 71. A 76. A 2. D 7. D 12. A 17. A 22. C 27. A 32. D 37. D 42. D 47. A 52. B 57. B 62. D 67. B 72. D 77. A 3. A 8. D 13. B 18. D 23. A 28. C 33. B 38. B 43. D 48. B 53. A 58. D 63. C 68. A 73. D 78. B 4. B 9. B 14. A 19. D 24. C 29. B 34. D 39. A 44. C 49. B 54. D 59. A 64. A 69. C 74. B 79. D 5. A 10. B 15. D 20. A 25. D 30. B 35. D 40. A 45. B 50. D 55. B 60. B 65. D 70. A 75. D 80. A

PAPER - II
PART XVI 1. Rheostat varies (a) amount of current (c) both (a) & (b) 2. Potentiometer varies (a) amount of current (c) both (a) & (b)

(b) amount of voltage (d) none (b) amount of voltage (d) none

3. At the center of a coil, amount of flux is concentrated maximum at (a) starting of a coil (b) end of a coil (c) center of a coil (d) remain equal at all places 4. Negative plate of lead acid battery is (a) lead (b) lead peroxide spongy lead (c) lead sulphide (d)

5. Plates of lead acid battery is made of (a) lead + antimony on which active material is attached. (b) lead + iron on which active material is attached. (c) antimony + iron on which active material is attached. (d) none 6. m.m.f. is measured in Gilbert and symbolized by the capital letter. (a) G (b) F (c) M (d) W 7. Solenoid relay is operated on (a) high current (b) low current (d) low voltage (c) high voltage

8. Construction of separator of a lead acid battery is made in such a way that it circulates the electrolyte freely around the plates in addition it also provides a path for sediments to settle. (a) at the side of cell (b) at the top of cell (c) at the bottom of cell (d) none 9. Thermal protector is used to (a) protect a motor automatically (b) to open the circuit

(c) it operates when temperature is very high above 10. S/W designed for momentarily operation (a) micro s/w (b) push button s/w (d) none 11. Rotary S/W are used in (a) voltmeter selector s/w (d) none (b) ignition s/w

(d) all of the

(c) toggle s/w

(c) both (a) & (b)

12. Starter relay s/w is made to operate (a) intermitenty continuously (c) could cause over heating if operated continuously both (a) and (c)

(b) (d)

13. Oil capacitors generally restricted to be used in (a) radio transmitting equipment (b) radar transmitting equipment (c) both (d) none 14. In fixed mica capacitor the dielectric is made of (a) metal plate (b) mica (c) both (a) & (b) (d) none 15. Mica prevents as a dielectric (a) arching between the plates higher voltage (c) both (a) & (b) (b) can withstand (d) none of these

16. The capacitor which provides large capacitance in small physical size is (a) oil capacitor (b) mica capacitor (c) electrolytic capacitor (d) paper capacitor 17. Wet-electrolytic capacitors must be mounted on (a) horizontally (b) vertically (c) any position (d) none 18. The working voltage of a capacitor depends on (a) type of material used as a di-electric (b) thickness of di-electric (c) frequency (d) all of the above

19. The working voltage of a capacitor should be at least (a) 50% greater than highest voltage applied. (b) 60% greater than highest voltage applied. (c) 70% greater than highest voltage applied (d) none 20. To prevent the entry of water and other foreign matter, the pilot pressure tube is provided with (a) mast (b) baffles (c) drain hole (d) moisture trap 21. If at mean sea level ambient temperature decreases than ICAO standard atmosphere (a) altimeter under read (b) altimeter over read (c) no indication error 22. In order to compensate for barometric error i.e. altitude error due to atmospheric pressure change an altimeter is incorporated with (a) capsule of suitable material (b) bimetallic strip (c) barometric pressure setting device (d) hair spring 23. The tropopause marks the point at which (a) air pressure stops decreasing (with increasing altitude) and remains constant. (b) air temperature starts increasing (c) air temperature reaches to freezing point temperature 24. Fuel pressure indicator is the means for (a) warning for low pressure. (b) warning for high pressure. (c) as in (a) & indicate pressure at which fuel is being supplied. (d) as in (b) & indicate pressure at which fuel is being supplied. 25. In square law compensating devices, the principle being made in use is that the length of lever is altered as progressive deflection of the capsule takes place causing the (a) mechanism & pointer movement to be increased for small deflection and decreased for large deflection. (b) mechanism & pointer movement to be decreased for small deflection and increased for large deflection. (c) either (a) or (b). (d) none of these.

26. A mechmeter is a compound flight instrument and uses the following mechanism to compute the required ratio. (a) air speed mechanism (b) altitude mechanism (c) either (a) or (b) (d) both (a) & (b) 27. In vertical speed indicator (VSI) during descent the capsule will (a) expand (b) contract (c) no effect 28. During a descent, the static vent become blocked by ice, the air speed indicator will (a) under read due to static pressure increasing. (b) fall rapidly to zero due to differential pressure equalizing. (c) over read due to static pressure increasing. (d) continue to indicate correctly because the instrument only uses pilot pressure. 29. The number, size and disposition of shock proff mounting requires are governed by (a) the size of the panel. (b) number of instrument to be installed. (c) as in (a) & the distribution of the total weight. (d) as in (a) & (b). 30. Micro desynn synchronous data transmission system is used for (a) air brake, flap position indication (b) oil or fuel pressure indication (c) liquid content indication (d) none of the above 31. An aircraft is flying a constant rate of descent at 650 fpm when the static vents become blocked by ice. A few seconds after the blockage occurs the most likely VSI indication will be (a) zero (b) 550 fpm descent (c) 650 fpm descent (d) 750 fpm descent 32. In TSI, the slip indicator is of the ball and liquid filled tube type the liquid used is (a) silicon fluid (b) alcohol (c) white spirit 33. The Bristol modified method is an adoption of (a) hot fluid method (b) cold fluid method (c) oil & chalk process (d) both (a) & (b) 34. In the hot fluid method, the oil used may be (a) 28% lard oil (by volume) in paraffin.

(b) as in (a) or 3 parts of paraffin & 1 part lubricating oil. (c) as in (b) or 50% paraffin oil & 50% spindle oil. (d) none of these. 35. Dye-penetrant method is not applicable on (a) ceramics (b) moulded nibber (d) all of these (c) plexi-glass

36. Dye-penetrant method is used for finding out (a) cracks (b) porosity (c) defects open to the surface (d) all of these 37. To avoid the risk of corrosion, dye-penetrant test of magnesium alloys are done after (a) anodising (b) chromatizing (c) carburizing (d) parcolubrizing 38. In dye-penetrant method, the penetrant time does not depend upon (a) the characteristics of process being used (b) the size of parts (c) the temperature of parts and dye (d) none of these 39. Mark the correct statement regarding dye-penetrant method (a) the shallow cracks indication takes less time where as normal cracks indication takes more time. (b) the rate of staining is an indication of volume where as the extent of staining is an indication of width and depth of defect. (c) scattered dots of dye indicate fine porosity or pitting where as gross porosity may result in an entire area becoming stained. (d) all of these. 40. Surface defects are best detected by (a) dye penetrant method (b) eddy current method radiography (d) all of these (c)

41. The penetration power of X-rays increases with an increase in (a) voltage (b) frequency (c) wave length (d) both (a) & (b) 42. Fluroscopy is applicable to (a) normal Y-ray sources (c) X-rays (b) low energy X-rays (d) both (a) & (b)

43. The degree of blackening of radiograph is (a) contrast (b) definition (c) density penumbra

(d)

44. The sharpness of image details on a radiograph is (a) density (b) definition (c) resolution (d) contrast 45. Blurring at the edges of a radiographic image due to the radiation source being of finite dimensions (a) penumbra (b) resolution (c) unsharpness (d) none of these 46. Indication and recording is the title of ATA (a) 30 (b) 31 (c) 33 (d) 34 47. The chain should be rejected if the extension is more than (a) 2% (b) 4% (c) 6% (d) 1% 48. If air intake fire occurs before the engine picks up an ideal ground fire extinguishes used is (a) methyl bronze (b) CO2 (c) BCF (d) both (b) & (c) 49. Fire extinguisher kept in storage should be checked for weight once in (a) 2 years (b) 1 year (c) 3 years (d) 5 years 50. Seam welding is (a) Pressure welding (c) electric resistance (b) non-pressure welding (d) both (a) & (c)

51. In which type of welding, the electrode is non-consumable (a) TIG (b) MIG (c) Electric resistance (d) Oxyacetylene 52. Spot welding electrode should be (a) good conductor of electricity heat (c) high strength & hardness (b) good conductor of (d) all of these

53. In leftward welding (a) filler rod precedes torch rod (c) a 60 V is prepared at the end of plate

(b) torch precedes filler (d) both (a) & (c)

54. The colour of acetylene cylinder and oxygen cylinder is (a) maroon & black (b) black & maroon (c) yellow & black (d) black & yellow 55. In _______________ projection, the projectors are perpendicular to the plane of projection. (a) isometric (b) oblique (c) orthographic perspective

(d)

56. In third angle projection method, the top view is always above the ___________ view. (a) front (b) right side (c) left side (d) pop 57. In isometric projection, each of the three axes makes an angle of _____________ with the other two. (a) 60o (b) 90o (c) 180o (d) 120o 58. A full size drawing paper is available approximately of (a) 565 x 565mm (b) 565 x 765mm x 565mm (d) none of these (c) 765

59. The size of the title block as recommended by the B. I.S. is (a) 185 x 65mm (b) 18.5 x 6.5cm (c) 184 x 6cm (d) 18.9 x 6.9cm 60.An assembly drawing is a description of an object made up of ___________ (a) two parts only (b) two or more parts (c) four parts only (d) none of these 61. What is the primary purpose is to show the assembly drawing? (a) Relationship of the various parts (b) Clear picture of different parts (c) clear view of single part (d) None of these

62. Caulking tool is in the shape of a _________________ chisel. a) blue (b) flat (c) blunt (d) cape 63. Caulking and fullering processes are generally performed with the aid of _____________ (a) hydraulic power (b) air pressure (c) pneumatic power (d) none of these 64. Thickness of fullering tool is about the (a) as that of the plates plates (c) same as that of the plates (b) less as that of the (d) none of these

65. The diameter of the drilled hole in riveting should be (a) about 1mm to 1.5mm (b) about 0.1mm to 1mm (c) about 0.5mm to 1.5mm (d) none of these 66. What happens due to drilling during riveted joints? (a) burr (b) shrinkage (c) stress concentration (d) bending 67. Burr defect is removed by a little ________________ in riveted joint. (a) counter sinking (b) counter hammering (c) counting burr (d) none of these 68. Choose the correct statement. (a) Tearing of the plate between the rivet head if they are very near each other. (b) Tearing of the plate between the centre of the plate and the rivet hole, if the hole is to the edge. (c) Shrinking of the rivet if the diameter of the rivet is smaller than necessary. (d) Crushing of the plate or the rivet. 69. If the thickness of sheet is t, then what will be the empirical formulae of the diameter of rivet, if the diameter of rivet is d (a) d = 3t (b) d = 3t (c) d = 6t (d) d = 6t 70. The key which is in the form of a segment of a circular disc of uniform thickness is

(a) woodruff key (d) circular key

(b) cone key

(c) feather key

71. (A) Rivet smaller than 3/32 diameter are never used on stressed structure. (B) Never replace 2024T rivet with 2117rivet. (a) both are correct. (b) both are incorrect (c) only (A) is correct (d) only (B) is correct 72. Regarding permanent ballast (a) lead bar or plate is used placarded (c) bolted as near as possible to CG 73. Transverse pitch is (a) twice the rivet diameter (c) 75% of rivet pitch (b) painted red and (d) both (a) & (b) (b) 70% of rivet pitch (d) 6-8 diameter

74. Rivet pitch is (a) distance between center of rivet in a row (b) distance between edge to center of rivet (c) four times the rivet diameter (d) both (a) & (c) are correct 75. Edge distance (minimum) is (a) 4D (b) 2D the above (c) 6-8D (d) any of

76. The amount of rivet length used for shop head is (a) 1 x diameter of rivet (b) 4 x diameter of rivet (c) 3 x diameter of rivet (d) all of the above 77. Which plating process provide excellent base for paint (a) Cd-Plating (b) Zn-Plating (c) Granodizing (d) all of the above 78. Which treatment give excellent base for paint (a) CR-Plating (b) Parkerizing (c) Metal spraying (d) Zn-plating 79. The process use zinc as a medium for plating (a) Parkerizing (b) Sheradizing (c) Galvonizing (d) both (b) & (c)

80. The earth rotates at its own axis at a rate of (a) 20 degrees per hour (b) 30 degrees per hour (c) 15 degrees per hour (d) 25 degrees per hour

PAPER - II
PART XVI ANSWER 1. A 6. B 11. C 16. C 21. B 26. D 31. A 36. D 41. D 46. B 51. A 56. A 61. A 66. A 71. C 76. A 2. B 7. A 12. D 17. B 22. C 27. A 32. C 37. B 42. B 47. A 52. D 57. D 62. C 67. A 72. D 77. C 3. C 8. C 13. C 18. D 23. A 28. C 33. A 38. B 43. C 48. B 53. A 58. B 63. C 68. D 73. C 78. B 4. D 9. D 14. B 19. A 24. C 29. C 34. C 39. C 44. B 49. B 54. A 59. A 64. C 69. A 74. D 79. D 5. A 10. B 15. C 20. B 25. A 30. B 35. C 40. A 45. A 50. D 55. C 60. B 65. A 70. A 75. B 80. C

PAPER - II
PART XVII 1. Vulcanization on rubber a) To increase mechanical strength and tackiness b) To reduce mechanical strength and tackiness c) To increase the mechanical strength and reduce tackiness d) To reduce the mechanical strength and increase tackiness 2. Which type of Synthetic rubber will be the first choice for manufacturing of aircraft tubeless tyre a) Butyl rubber b) Neoprene rubber c) BUNA-N thiokol

d)

3. Which synthetic rubber is chiefly used in aircraft hot air duct as sealing ring and wire insulation a) Silicon rubber b) Polymethane rubber c) BUNA-S d) BUNA-N 4. Highest resistance to deterioration but lowest physical property is the characteristic of which kind of synthetic rubber. a) GR I b) GR S c) GR P d) GR A 5. To valcanise thiokol rubber, which element to be added a) Sulfur b) Sulfur oxide c) Zinc d) Zinc oxide 6. Which material is used for manufacturing of hydraulic booster piston seal a) Styrene butadiene seal b) Nitrile rubber c) Flexon rubber d) Fluoro carbon rubber 7. Natural rubber attains fibrous structure when a) It under goes at low temperature b) It is frozen 0 c) It is heated to 130 C d) It undergoes continues stress at normal temperature 8. The grade of Kevlar fiber is used for aircraft structure a) Kevlar 49 b) Kevlar 149 c) Kevlar 29 d) Kevlar 129 9. The composition for E glass is a) Magnesia-alumina-silicate glass borosilicate glass b) Lime-alumina

c) Soda borosilicate glass

d) None of the above

10. Truly outstanding properties of strength competes with stronger steel is kind of fiber a) S glass b) Hollow fibre glass c) A glass d) Carbon glass 11. Which composit material is difficult to cut or drill a) Glass fibre b) Aramid c) Carbon / Graphite d) None of above 12. Mark the wrong statement for carbon / graphite fibre a) Is used to fabricate primary structure b) It has high strength and high rigidity c) It takes compressive load d) It is ductile in nature 13. The most commonly used driving tool by a mechanic is a) Ball peen hammer b) Cross peen hammer c) Claw hammer d) Sledge hammer 14. (i) Body hammers are used for driving stakes into the ground (ii) Sledge hammers are used for smoothing or stretching the metal a) Only (i) is correct b) Only (ii) is correct c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct 15. i) Mallets can be termed as soft hammers ii) Plastic mallets are more useful than raw hide mallets a) Only (i) is correct b) Only (ii) is correct c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct 16. (i) Claw hammers are basically used for driving and pulling out nails (ii) The wedge of a cross peen hammer is parallel to the handle a) Only (i) is correct b) Only (ii) is correct c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct

17. A punch is used to a) Mark a location rivet c) Locate a drill properly

b) Remove a damaged d) All are correct

18. i) A pin punch is used to remove the shank of the rivet from the hole after rivet head has been chiselled off ii) Diameter of pin punch should be 1/64 inch smaller than the diameter of the rivet to be removed a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 19. i) Location given by a prick punch should always be punched later with a centre punch. ii) Goggles must be used while using any type of punch. a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 20. i) A mushroom head on a punch is better than a crown head since chances of hammer slip are reduced ii) A centre punch can be used for a variety of punching applications a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 21. Most commonly used slip joint plier has a length of a) 4 inches b) 6 inches c) 10 inches d) 12 inches 22. Duckbill plier a) Is a flat nose plier safety wires c) Have serrations on their jaws 23. Needle nose pliers are used for a) Extracting thin/sharp components nails c) Gripping small electronic components b) Is used for twisting d) All are correct b) Extracting d) All are correct

24. i) A chisel can never cut the material all by itself ii) A die is a cutting tool a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct

c) Both i) and ii) are correct correct

d) Neither i) nor ii) is

25. Cutting edge of a chisel is generally ground to an angle of a) 30 degrees b) 70 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 110 degrees 26. Regarding a cutting chisel which statement is incorrect? a) It is made from high grade steel b) Its cutting edge is always wider than the shank c) Cutting edge is flat so that force is applied uniformly on the surface d) Chisel body is either square or octagonal 27. i) A cape chisel is the proper tool to use for knocking the head off a rivet after it has been drilled through ii) A cape chisel is forged from the same type of tool steel as the cold chisel a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 28. Aviation snip a) Is same as Dutchman snip edges c) Can easily cut thick sheet metals 29. Files are classified with regard to a) Physical shape c) Type of cut 30. Various types of cut of a file are a) Single cut c) Rasp 31. Vixen file have a) Curved teeth thickness c) A special file holder b) Has serrated cutting d) All are correct b) Length d) All are correct b) Smooth cut d) Both a) & b) are correct b) No taper either in width or d) All are correct

32. i) Wood rasp files have individual teeth cut on to their surfaces ii) Wood rasps are used to remove wood from a surface where it is not practical to use a saw or a plane a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct

c) Both i) and ii) are correct correct

d) Neither i) nor ii) is

33. i) Mill files have uniform thickness, but are tapered in width ii) Hand files have uniform thickness and width a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 34. i) Half round files are tapered in both thickness and width ii) Knife files are tapered in thickness as well as in width a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 35. For filing acute angles, one should use a) Knife files b) Round files d) All are correct c) Triangular files

36. Most files used in aviation have a length of a) 4-10 inches b) 6-12 inches c) 6-16 inches d) 10-20 inches 37. The part of a file that fits into the handle is called a) Heel b) Fitting end c) Tang d) Point 38. i) File is basically a chisel but with many cutting edges ii) Triangular files are used for cutting teeth of handsaws a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 39. Double cut files have rows of teeth. These teeth are set at a) 45 degrees and 70-80 degrees b) 45 degrees and 45 degrees c) 70-80 degrees and 70-80 degrees d) None of these 40. There are five cuts of files ranging from coarsest to the finest. Find out the wrong one a) Coarse b) Bastard c) Smooth d) Finest 41. File should be kept clean by a) Tapping it against the bench wire brush b) Brushing it with a

c) Lubricating it occasionally correct

d) Both a) & b) are

42. Which type of file has only three grades: regular, fine and smooth a) Vixen b) Wood rasp c) Knife d) Triangular 43. Characteristics of steel are controlled by a) Removal of carbon from iron elements added to it c) Amount of alloying elements added to it b) Types of alloying d) All are correct

44. Bearing strength of a material refers to a) Direct tensile load it can bear b) Resistance to tear at the point of applied load c) Resistance to fracture at the point of applied load d) Resistance to shear 45. Characteristics of metals relating to drawing it into wire is a) Tensile strength b) Malleability c) Ductility d) Brittleness 46. Fusibility of a metal refer to its property that permits a) Welding b) Drawing into thin sheets c) Drawing into wires d) Good thermal conductivity 47. Aluminium alloy 1100 implies a) Pure aluminium copper c) It contains 111% zinc 48. Before jacking an aircraft a) Empty the fuel tanks c) Level aircraft laterally equipment b) It contains 11% d) Heat treated alloy b) Fit critical stress panels d) Remove all optional

49. It is generally necessary to jack an aircraft for weighing. Why? a) To set the weighing scales to zero b) To stabilize the weighing scales c) For first determining its empty weight d) For making aircraft level 50. (i) In cross filing, the file is moved length wise across the work (ii) In draw filing, the file is moved side wise across the work

a) Only i) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct correct

b) Only ii) is correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is

51. A handsaw used for cutting across the grains of wood is called a a) Cross cut saw b) Rip saw c) Back saw d) Wood saw 52. A cross cut saw has a) 4-6 teeth per inch c) 10-15 teeth per inch b) 6-12 teeth per inch d) 12-18 teeth per inch

53. Find out the incorrect statement regarding back saw a) It is used for cutting precision parts b) It has 18-32 teeth per inch c) It is same as hacksaw d) Cutting teeth has very little set 54. Hacksaw blades are a) Made from stainless steel c) Held under tension in the frame per inch b) 12 inches in length d) Having 10-14 teeth

55. i) Hacksaw blades are made of either carbon steel or high steel molybdenum steel ii) While using hacksaw, cutting is done only on the forward stroke. The blade should be lifted for the return stroke a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 56. i) For a good cut on a hard material, a blade with more teeth should be used ii) While cutting a tube, a blade should be so chosen that at least five teeth are there on each side of the tube as it is cut a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 57. Length of hacksaw is measured from a) The outer edge blades c) Between the centre of fixing holes are correct b) toothed part of d) Both a) & b)

58. Spiral anger bit for drilling holes in wood are a) Generally 7-10 inches long b) - one inch in diameter c) Used only with a bow type hand brace d) All are correct 59. A screw driver can be used a) For driving screws c) As a chisel 60. Stubby screw driver has a) A blunt edge c) Only wooden handle b) As a punch d) All are correct b) Blade length of up to 2 d) All are correct

61. Screw driver used when there is no clearance for normal screw driver is called a) Closed area screw driver b) Stubby screw driver c) Off set slot screw driver d) Any one of the above 62. Air driven power screw driver should be used a) For large diameter screw b) For removing screw that are jammed c) Where large number of screws are to be removed and fitted back d) When removing screws from harder material 63. A slot screw driver should have sufficient size of the blade to cover certain width of the screw slot. It should cover at least a) 50% b) 60% c) 75% d) 90% 64. i) Cross point screw driver causes less damage than straight edge screw driver ii) Phillips screwdriver require less efforts as compared to normal screw driver a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 65. With regard to wrenches, find out the incorrect statement a) These are made from chrome vanadium steel b) These are generally die cast c) Wrenches are made in various shapes & sizes d) These are plated to improve their appearance

66. Open end wrenches a) Ends are inclined so as to allow the wrench to turn the nut even in restricted space b) Are available in British & Metric sizes c) Open a nut faster than box end wrenches d) All are correct 67. Box end wrenches are used a) To loosen nuts that are exceptionally light b) Where there is restricted space c) For nuts that are bigger than one inch size d) When open end wrench is not available 68. Combination wrenches means, its two ends have a) Open and box end b) Open and cut box end c) Open and flare nut end d) All are correct 69. i) Loosing or tightening of a nut takes longer time if box end wrench is used ii) Box end wrenches can easily open a very tight nut because it grips the nut at many places compared to an open ended wrench a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 70. i) A flare nut wrench is a special type of box end wrench ii) Flare nut wrench is used basically for opening and fitting of pipelines a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 71. Spanners are classified by a) Type c) Size of the bolt/nut on which it fits b) Material d) All are correct

72. Set spanners are off set to an angle a) So that it can be used in restricted places b) A new grip can be got by turning the spanner over c) For proper grip d) Both a) & b) are correct 73. Ratchets a) Allow removal of nut with very small amount of handle movement

b) Are available with long and short handles c) Can easily fit into sockets d) All are correct 74. Crowfoot socket wrench is used where the following cannot be used a) Open end wrench b) Box end wrench c) Standard socket wrench d) All are correct 75. Monel metal is an alloy of a) Nickel & copper c) Copper & chromium chromium b) Nickel & chromium d) Copper, nickel &

76. i) Gun metal is used for gears & bearings. ii) Brass is used for cartridge cases a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 77. Angular momentum is a) Moment of inertia b) Angular velocity b) d) Sum of a) & b) c) Product of a) &

78. Mark the incorrect statement a) Precession is inversely proportional to the strength & direction of applied force. b) Precession is inversely proportional to the moment of inertia of the rotor. c) Precession is inversely proportional to the angular velocity of the rotor. d) None of the above 79. Control of drift, relating to horizontal gyroscopes can be achieved by: a) Calculating corrections using earth rate formula and applying them as appropriate b) Applying fixed torques & cause gyro to process at a rate equal & opposite to the earth rate. c) As in b) but which can be varied according to latitude d) All of these 80. When gimbal orientation is such that the spin axis becomes coincident with one or the other of the axes of freedom which serves as attitude displacement reference is termed as

a) Gimbal lock

b) Gimbal Error

c) Apparent drift

PAPER - II
PART XVII

ANSWER: 1. C 6. B 11. B 16. A 21. B 26. C 31. D 36. C 41. D 46. A 51. A 56. A 61. C 66. D 71. D 76. C 2. A 7. B 12. D 17. D 22. D 27. C 32. C 37. C 42. A 47. A 52. B 57. C 62. C 67. A 72. D 77. C 3. A 8. A 13. A 18. A 23. C 28. D 33. A 38. C 43. D 48. B 53. C 58. D 63. C 68. D 73. D 78. A 4. C 9. B 14. B 19. C 24. C 29. D 34. D 39. A 44. B 49. B 54. C 59. A 64. D 69. C 74. D 79. D 5. D 10. D 15. C 20. D 25. B 30. A 35. A 40. D 45. C 50. C 55. C 60. B 65. B 70. C 75. A 80. A

PAPER - II
PART XVIII 1. Corrosion control techniques are employed when corbon fibre is in contact to aluminium a) A layer of fiber glass is used as a barrie b) Aluminium is anodized, primed and painted prior to assembly c) Both (a) and (b) will be applied together d) None of the above 2. Which composite material is useful for making aircraft parts that are subject to high stress and vibration a) Fibergalss b) Aramid c) Carbon / Graphite d) None of these 3. Mark the correct statement a) Carbon fiber are electrically non conductive b) Carbon fibers have high thermal expansion c) Carbon fibers have high fatigue resistance 4. Boron fibers are made by sintering the boron elements on a thin film of material a) Titanium b) Tin c) Tungsten d) All above 5. Which fiber material bears all tension, compression and bending stresses a) Ceramic fiber b) Boron fiber c) Fiber glass d) Graphite fiber 6. Mark the correct statement in Fiber Orientation a) Warp direction is designated at 900 b) Weft is designated at 00 c) Bias is at 450 angle of fill threads d) None of the above 7. For repairing of fabric, which weave to be used a) Plain weave b) Basket weave c) Satin weave d) All of these

8. Find out the wrong answer: Hybrids of composite material used in Aviation field are a) Kevlar with carbon / graphite b) Kevlar with fiber glass c) Carbon / graphite with fiber glass d) None of these 9. In fiber science, which acts as a curing agent a) Resin b) Matrix c) Catalyst these 10. Plexiglass is a) Thermoplastic b) Thermoset d) None of these d) All of

c) Laminated

11. Mark the correct answer: Apart from strongest adhesive characteristics of epoxy resin, it has other advantages a) Useful at very high temperature b) It withstand bending stress c) Reasonable rigidity and flexibility d) All of these 12. Mark the correct answer: The advantages of fillers to add to resins are a) To control viscosity and weight and strength c) Both (a) and (b) 13. Nomex is a a) Filler material b) Matrix d) Core material

b) To increase pot life d) None of these

c) Reinforced fiber

14. Tapered roller bearing support a) Radial load b) Thrust load Both (a) and (b) 15. Bearing used on high powered aircraft engine is a) Ball bearing b) Roller bearing c) Plain bearing Both (a) and (c) 16. Plain bearings are used for a) Connecting rods b) Crank shaft d) All of these

c)

d)

c) Cam shaft

17. Bearings are used to take a) Thrust load b) Radial load d) Both (a) and (b)

c) Side load

18. Bearing used wher e high compressive pressure, is generally made of a) Babitt b) Bronze c) Siliver bronze d) All of these 19. Bearing which offer more friction is made of a) Bronze b) Babitt c) Silicon these d) None of

20. The amount of electricity a capacitor can store is directly proportional to a) Distance between the plate and inversely proportional to the plate area b) Plate area and is not affected by the distance between the plate. c) Plate area and inversely proportional to the distance between the plate d) None of these 21. The correct way to connect a test volt meter in a circuit is a) In series with a unit b) Between the source voltage and the load c) In parallel with unit d) Both (a) and (c) are correct 22. Typical application of Zener diode is as a) Full wave rectifiers c) Voltage regulator b) Half wave rectifier d) Amplifier

23. The method used to rapidly charge a Nickel Cadmium battery utilizes a) Constant current and constant voltage b) constant current and varying voltage c) Constant voltage and varying current d) Varying voltage and varying current 24. High carbon steel is generally used for a) Shock absorbers c) Engine mounting bolts b) Landing gear struts d) Springs & files

25. What material is used in the construction of firewall of aircraft engines? a) Aluminium alloy b) Stainless steel c) Chrome-molybdenum steel d) Tungsten steel 26. Which of the statement is correct? a) Both heat treatable & non heat treatable aluminium alloys can be strain hardened b) Strain hardening is same as cold working c) Strength & hardness increases during cold working d) All are correct 27. Find out the wrong statement regarding titanium a) It is highly corrosion resistant b) It maintain strength at elevated temperatures c) It has good resistance to creep d) It is magnetic 28. The balls used for ball bearings are made of a) Cast iron b) Cast steel c) Wrought iron Carbon chrome steel 29. Files used in fitting shop are made from a) Cast iron b) High carbon steel d) Mild steel c) Chrome steel d)

30. Property of a material to be drawn plastically before breaking is called ductility. Most ductile material is a) Copper b) Gold c) Lead d) Tin 31. i) Aluminium has high electrical and thermal conductivity ii) Ductility of aluminium improves with the addition of iron & silver a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 32. i) Muntz metal is same as yellow brass ii) Muntz metal contains copper & zinc in the ratio of 3:2 a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 33. Potential difference between two conductors insulated from each other is measured in

a) Ampere d) Volt

b) Coulomb

c) Ohm

34. Correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a circuit is a) In series with a unit b) In parallel with a unit c) Between source voltage and load d) Both b) & c) are correct 35. Which term means .001 ampere a) Micro ampere b) Milli ampere c) Kilo ampere d) Nano ampere 36. Unit used to express electrical power is a) Ampere b) Volt c) Watt d) Coulomb 37. Transfer of electrical energy from one conductor to another without the aid of electrical connection is a) Induction b) Air gap transfer c) Not possible d) Possible but will cause excessive arcing thus not practical 38. Magnetic lines of force pass most readily through a) Aluminium b) Copper c) Iron d) Titanium 39. In a straight conductor, the resistance is not affected by a) Length b) Temperature c) Shape of cross section d) Material 40. Pitot pressure varies with a) Speed b) Air density d) None of these c) Speed and Air density

41. Altimeter and rate of climb indicator utilize a) Static pressure b) Pitot pressure c) Either a) or b) d) Both a) and b) 42. Pitot static system have heating elements to a) Remove moisture from the air b) Prevent ice formation c) To permit flying at high altitude d) All are correct

43. Pressure heads of pitot static system should not be painted, because it a) Impairs their thermal efficiency b) May cause obstruction of orifices c) None of the above d) Both a) and b) are correct 44. Leak test of pitot static system should be carried out a) After installation of a component / instrument b) Whenever malfunctioning is suspected c) At specified periods indicated in servicing schedules d) All are correct 45. Which instruments are connected to the aircraft pitot static system? a) Vertical speed indicator b) Altimeter c) Airspeed indicator d) All are correct 46. The instrument that measures difference between pitot & static pressure is a) Altimeter b) Pressure gauge c) Airspeed indicator d) Vertical speed indicator 47. The unit where calculations are processed is called a) Central processing unit (CPU) b) Control unit c) Arithmetic and logic unit (ALU) d) Computing unit 48. Sequence of steps for computing a program is known as a) Flow chart b) Sequence process c) Algorithm d) None of these 49. Basic function of a computer is a) Addition b) Multiplication are correct 50. EDP stands for a) Electrical data processing processing c) Entry data processing programme c) Division d) All

b) Electronic data d) Electronic discrete

51. A computer basically

a) Processes data instructions c) Perform mathematical calculations 52. Computer stores instructions in a) English language system c) Octal number system

b) Stores data as per given d) All are correct b) Decimal number d) Binary b) Lift is more than d) Depends upon size

53. In a straight and level flight of an aircraft a) Lift equals aircraft weight weight c) Lift is less than weight of aircraft and its loading

54. Whenever lift is generated, there is certain amount of drag associated with it. This is called a) Form drag b) Skin friction drag c) Induced drag d) Shape drag 55. Lift generated by an airfoil is maximum at an angle of attack of about a) 0 degrees b) 4 degrees c) 12 degrees d) Stalling value 56. Lift generated by an aircraft depends upon a) Density, forward velocity & aircraft area b) Density, square of forward velocity and aircraft area c) Density, square of forward velocity and wing area d) Density, forward velocity & wing area 57. Lift on a wing a) Acts through centre of gravity c) Is perpendicular to chord line through centre of pressure b) Acts vertically upwards d) Acts vertically upwards

58. The Tension of brushes to provide brush pressure is approx. a) 6 Psi b) 8 Psi c) 10 Psi d) 12 Psi 59. A four pole generator will have a) 2 interpole b) 4 interpole d) 8 interpole c) 6 interpole

60. In a 3 phase system, the phase winding is spaced symmetrically so that the voltage induced is

a) 90o apart d) 180o apart

b) 120o apart

c) 60o apart

61. To avoid armature reaction of small DC generator (1000 watt or less) type. The method used is a) Interpole Method b) Brush setting method c) both (a) & (b) d) None of these 62. Compensating winding is used in series with interpole winding to a) Increase he life of brushes b) Distortion of field c) Reduces radio interference d) All the above 63. Staggering slots are used in armature of a DC generator to a) Minimise ripple voltage b) Maintain constant output c) Minimise eddy Current loss d) None of these above 64. A 3 four pole alternator, running at 6000 rpm will have frequency of a) 100 c/s b) 200 c/s c) 300 c/s d) 400 c/s 65. While installing battery (Ni-Cad) on a/c you must inspect a) Ventilation system of a/c b) Cable for chaffing c) Quick disconnection mechanism d) All of these 66. What will be value of resistance of yellow, red, orange and gold a) 42000 10% b) 42000 5% c) 12000 5% d) 22000 10% 67. AC generator works on the principle of a) Faradays law of electro-magnetic induction b) Mutual induction c) Self induction d) All of these 68. Flight calculations are based on the magnitude and direction of a) Lift & drag b) Weight & thrust c) Lift & thrust d) Both a) & b) 69. The factors limiting the aspect ratio are a) Structural consideration c) Lift consideration b) Drag consideration d) Both a) & b)

70. What is required to reduce the landing speed?

a) A low minimum drag coefficient of C of P c) A high max CL

b) A small movement d) A high value of CL3/2/CD

71. With increase in altitude pressure & temperature a) Drops b) Will rise c) Pressure drops, temperature increases d) Temperature drops, pressure increases 72. The disadvantage of vacuum operated Gyro is a) At high altitude, stability is reduced due to decrease in atmospheric pressure. b) Weight due to pipelines c) Possibility of contamination by corrosion and dirt particles. d) All of these 73. Gyro of AC operated instruments utilize the principle of squirrel cage induction motor and because of high frequency of power supply, greater rotor speeds are possible of approximate. a) 23000rpm b) 24000rpm c) 24500rpm d) None 74. Indication of pitch & Bank attitude are presented by the relative position of a) Aircraft symbol b) Gyro stabilised bar (Horizon symbol) c) Both a) & b) d) None of these 75. Freedom of gimbal system movement about the roll & pitch axes in gyro horizon is ______ respectively a) 3600 and 900 b) 3600 and 800 c) 3600 and 850 d) None 76. The reason for restricting pitch movement of gyro horizon is to prevent a) Gimbal error b) Gimbal lock c) Transport wander d) None 77. Izod test measures a) Toughness c) Energy in breaking b) Height of upswing d) Hardness

78. Fatigue test is for determining a) Stress in material c) Stress limit for material 79. Torsion test is essential for a) Wires b) Tube Sheet 80. Bending test indicates a) Ductility b) Brittleness d) Density

b) Strain in rod d) Elongation of wire c) Rods d)

c) Hardness

PAPER - II
PART XVIII ANSWER:1. C 6. D 11. D 16. D 21. C 26. D 31. A 36. C 41. A 46. C 51. D 56. C 61. C 66. B 71. A 76. B 2. B 7. C 12. C 17. D 22. C 27. D 32. C 37. A 42. B 47. C 52. D 57. D 62. D 67. A 72. D 77. B 3. C 8. D 13. C 18. B 23. C 28. D 33. D 38. C 43. D 48. C 53. A 58. A 63. A 68. D 73. B 78. C 4. C 9. C 14. C 19. A 24. D 29. B 34. B 39. C 44. D 49. A 54. C 59. B 64. B 69. D 74. C 79. A 5. B 10. A 15. B 20. C 25. B 30. B 35. B 40. C 45. D 50. B 55. D 60. B 65. D 70. C 75. C 80. A

PAPER - II
PART XIX 1. S in Al-alloy designation indicates a) Cast alloy b) Wrought alloy c) As in b) and used for a/c structure d) None 2. Which Al-alloy is more corrosion resistant? a) 2 S b) 3 S c) 17 S d) 52 S 3. Al clad is generally of a) 17 S & 24 S b) 24 S & 52 S c) 52 S & 53 S d) 53 S & 62 S 4. Inter a) b) c) d) crystalline corrosion is generally occurred in Al-alloy containing copper composition 17 S 24 S All of above

5. Which of the following material is used for spot welding a) Clad alloys b) 52 S Al-alloy c) Both a and b d) None 6. Natural rubber is a polymer of a) Isoprene b) Neoprene c) Diprene d) None

7. Which material is used for increasing the hardness of natural rubber? a) Sulpher b) Phosphorus c) Sodium d) Carbon 8. Which is the basic colour of commercial BUNA-S a) White b) Black c) Red d) Green 9. GR-A is a known as BUNA-N, in which A stands for a) Butadiene b) Acrylonitrile c) Monovinyl d) Nitrile 10. Neoprene is designated as GR-M, in which M is stands a) Monovinyl b) Chloroprene c) Acrylonitrile d) Styrene 11. Out of the following memory types, one that is volatile a) Magnetic Disk b) Ferrite Core c) Semi Conductor ROM d) Semi Conductor RAM 12. A 4-bit date word is called a) Data bus b) Band c) Byte d) Nibble 13. The heart of digital computer is a) I/O b) Processor c) CPU d) None of the above

14. Semi conductor memories are a) Volatile b) Non-Volatile c) Volatile as well as Non-Volatile d) Neither Volatile nor Non-Volatile 15. The decimal number 422 is equal to which of the following hexadecimal number a) 6A b) A6 c) 6A1 d) 1A6 16. The decimal equivalent of 101.101 is a) 5.625 b) 7.625 c) 45 d) 47 17. High speed semi conductor memory, which is used as additional memory device a) ROM b) PROM c) Cache memory d) None of these 18. From the point of view of integration, a microprocessor chip employs a) S.S.I (Small Scale Integration) b) M.S.I (Medium Scale Integration) c) L.S.I (Large Scale Integration) d) G.S.I (Grand Scale Integration) 19. Floppy disk is a a) Flexible storage b) Permanent storage c) ROM d) Fast storage 20. MODEM is a a) Code changing system b) Programme conversion system c) Modulator Demodulator system d) Demodulator modulator system 21. Power factor is the ratio of

a) b) c) d)

True power / apparent power Apparent power / true power Zero power / true power None of the above

22. Transformer works on the principle of a) Self induction b) Mutual induction c) Electromagnetic induction d) Magnetic induction 23. The factor, which determines whether a given transformer is stepped up or steeped down, is given by a) Current ratio b) Voltage ratio c) Power ratio d) Turns ratio 24. The a) b) c) d) purpose of iron core in transformer is Given electrical energy from the source Isolates primary with secondary Join primary with secondary Provides low reluctance for magnetic lines of force

25. If the ratio of the transformer input voltage to the output voltage is same as the turn ratio then, transformer is said to be a) 50% efficient b) 110% efficient c) 100% efficient d) 25% efficient 26. Which of the following transformer can approach 100% efficient a) Iron core transformer b) Ferrite core transformer c) Copper core transformer d) None of these 27. The a) b) c) d) range of frequency in the case of audio transformer is 40 to 20000 c.p.s 20 to 20000 c.p.s 100 to 10000 c.p.s 10 to 10000 c.p.s

28. RF transformer utilizes a) Iron core b) Copper core c) Magnetic core d) Air core 29. The symbol of autotransformer used for communication or navigation circuit is

30. Copper loss in a transformer is caused by a) Due to iron core b) The resistance of the conductor comprising of the turns of the coil c) Due to no. of turns d) None of the above 31. The fastest logic gate is a) TTL b) ECL c) DTL d) RTL 32. The Boolean expression Y of two inputs ExNOR gate is a) Y = A . B + A B b) Y = A . B + A B c) Y = A . B + A B d) Y = A . B + A B 33. To remove half cycle of AC input voltage, we can employ a) Clamper circuit b) Clipper circuit c) Zener diode d) LED 34. The self exited mixer is economical because a) It does not require separate amplifier b) It does not require tank circuit c) It needs to generate f0 + fs d) None

35. There is no carrier present in a) DSBFC b) SSBFC c) DSBSC d) USBFC 36. The ionospheres D-layer reflects a) HF wave b) LF wave c) MF wave d) a) and b) 37. Main drawback of TRF AM Receiver was a) More complex circuit b) Tuning to fix frequency of different stages was difficult c) Un-economical d) None 38. The average value of AC is given by a) Im / 2 b) Im / 2 c) 2Im / d) Im / 2 39. In a superhet receiver, the first most stage is a) IF amp b) AF amp c) RF amp d) Mixer 40. In a superhet receiver, the name, first detector is often given to a) 1st RF amp b) Local Oscillator c) IF amp d) Mixer 41. The trunion nut of an aircraft landing gear requires a torque of 320 inch pound. To reach the nut, a 2 straight adapter must be used on an 18 torque wrench. How many foot-pounds will be indicated on the torque wrench when the required torque of the nut is reached? a) 24 b) 28.8 c) 288 d) 220

42. An o-ring intended for use in hydraulic system using MIL-H-5606 (Mineral base) fluid will be marked with a) A blue strip or dot b) One or more white dots c) A white and yellow strip d) Red strip 43. A hydraulic hose identified as MIL-H-8794 will have a yellow strip running the length of the hose. This stripe a) Identifies that the hose is for hydraulic fluid only Is used to insure that the hose is installed without excessive twisting b) c) Identifies that the hose is constructed of synthetic rubber and may be suitable for a wide range of operation d) Both a) and b) are correct 44. To protect packing rings or seal from damage, when it is necessary to install them over or inside threaded section, the a) Threaded section should be coated with a heavy grease b) Packing should be stretched during installation to avoid contacts with the threads c) Threaded section should be covered with a stiff paper sleeve d) Packing should be lubricated 45. The minimum amount of slack that must be left when a flexible hose is installed in an aircraft hydraulic system a) 8% b) 10% c) 5% d) 7% 46. No-12 tubing has outside diameter of a) b) c) 3/8 d) 47. What kind of rigid tubing can be flared with a double flare? a) 5052-O Al-alloy b) 6061-T Al-alloy tubing with size from 1/8 3/8 OD c) 7075-T d) Both a) and b)

48. A fibre type self locking nut must never be used on an aircraft if the bolt is a) Under shear loading b) Under tension loading c) Subject to rotation d) Both a) and b) 49. Unless otherwise specified, torque values for tightening aircraft nuts and bolts relate to a) Clean dry thread b) Clean lightly oiled thread c) Either dry or lightly oiled thread d) None 50. Mark the correct statement a) Double flare is more concentric and smoother than single flare b) AN fitting has a shoulder between the end of the threads and the flare cone c) AN sleeve is longer than AC sleeve d) Both a) and b) 51 Red radial line on the scale of instrument indicates a Take off and precautionary ranges b Normal operating ranges c Maximum and minimum limits d Range in which operation is prohibited 52 Red arc on scale of instrument indicates a Take off and precautionary ranges b Normal operating ranges c Maximum and minimum limits d Range in which operation is prohibited 53 Yellow arc on scale of instrument indicates a Take off and precautionary ranges b Normal operating ranges c Maximum and minimum limits d Range in which operation is prohibited 54 Qualitative display presents information in the form of a Symbolic form only b Pictorial form only c Both A and B d None of the Above

55 Spacing of marks on indicator scale is generally a Linear only b Non-Linear only c Both A and B d None of the above 56 In troposphere temperature decreases at a rate of a 1.98 degrees centigrade per thousand feet increase in altitude b 2.98 degrees centigrade per thousand feet increase in altitude c 0.98 degrees centigrade per thousand feet increase in altitude d 3.98 degrees centigrade per thousand feet increase in altitude 57 Heating element fitted around the pitot tube casing is to a Prevent ice formation b Reduce position error c Reduce instrument error d Reduce density error 58 Static vents are always located one on each side of a fuselage and inter connected so as to balance out pressure effect resulting from a Any yawing or side slip motion of an aircraft b Sudden pitch up c Sudden pitch down d None of the above 59 Bimetallic device connected in magnification lever system of altimeter is for a Compensation of installation error b Compensation of scalar error c Compensation of temperature error d All of the above 60 Setting knob in front of altimeter is for a Setting QNH only b Setting QFE only c Both A and B d None of the above 61. The Vernier height gage can be used as a) Calliper b) Depth gage c) Surface gage d) Snap gage

62. For measuring the diameter of small holes, which of the following gages can be used? a) A small hole gage b) Depth gage c) Plug gage d) Telescoping gage 63. The reading on the Vernier caliper is a) 2.494 inches b) 2.4769 inches c) 2.438 inches d) 2.394 inches
1 2 3 4 5 6 2 3

10

15

20

25

64. In a Vernier bevel protractor a) 12 divisions on the Vernier degree on the disk b) 13 divisions on the Vernier degree on the disk c) 13 divisions on the Vernier degree on the disk d) 12 divisions on the Vernier degree on the disk

scale occupy the same space as 24 scale occupy the same space as 23 scale occupy the same space as 24 scale occupy the same space as 23

65. Inside diameter of a cylinder is measured by a) Small hole gage b) Cylinder bore gage c) Dial indicator d) Inside micrometer 66.How many blocks are there in the third series of gage blocks? a) 9 b) 19 c) 49 d) 3 67. The scriber point is usually made of a) Stainless steel b) Tool steel c) Hardened & tempered cast iron d) Hardened & tempered carbon tool steel

68. Surface plates are made of a) Carbon steel b) Cast iron c) As in a or granite d) As in b or granite 69. For measuring the valve clearance of a piston engine, which gage is used? a) Screw pitch gage b) Fillet gage c) Filler gage d) Height gage 70. Universal & combination bevels are used for a) Measuring angles within one degree b) Measuring angles that are difficult to measure by ordinary protractors c) Checking & transferring angles, which are difficult to measure by ordinary protractors. d) Both a & b are correct

PAPER - II
PART XIX 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. c a a d c a a b b a d d c c d a c c a c a c a a a a a a a a b d b a c a b c c d

41. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. a c c b d c a d c d a c c a a a c c b a a d b b d d c c

a 42.

PAPER - II
PART XX 1. GR-I a) b) c) d) designated for which type of rubber Neoprene BUNA-S BUNA-N Butyl

2. Which type of properties is introduced in rubber after vulcanising process? a) Elasticity b) Strong ness c) Reduce the tackiness d) All of the above 3. A/C rivets are identified by a) Head Style b) Alloy c) Length & Diameter d) All 4. For accurate location of particular area on an a/c, which of the following is necessary? a) Water line b) Butt line c) As in a) and b) in conjunction with station line d) None 5. Which type of corrosion is occurred in stainless steel after electric arc welding? a) Pitting b) Galvanic c) Inter crystalline d) Fretting 6. For spot welding, in stainless steel, which is most suitable a) Low-voltage b) High-amperage c) Low-voltage and High-amperage d) High-voltage and Low-amperage 7. Heat generated in spot welding is measured by a) Resistance x (Current)2 x Time

b) Resistance x Time / (Current)2 c) (Current)2 / Resistance x Time d) Resistance x Current 8. Which of the following is the Non-Magnetic? a) Inconel b) K-Monel c) Monel d) All 9. SAE 13XX represents a) Magnesium Steel b) Manganese Steel c) Silicon Steel d) Chromium Steel 10. Hot piece of metal is increased in thickness and decreased in length a) Upsetting b) Down setting c) Swaging d) Rolling 11. Every processor must necessarily have a a) Data bus b) Data bus & Address bus c) Control bus d) Data bus, Control bus & Address bus 12. A device that works in conjunction with a computer but not as part of it is called a) Hardware b) Memory c) Microprocessor d) Peripheral device 13. The unit of the speed of a digital I.C is a) Hz b) KHz c) MHz d) GHz 14. Which of the following storage has greatest capacity with less cost per bit? a) Semi conductor memory

b) Magnetic tape c) Magnetic drum d) None of these 15. Which of the following statement is true? a) Compiler is the name given to the computer operator b) Compiler is the part of the digital machine to store the information c) Compiler is the translator of source program to object program d) Compiler is the name given to the punched tape 16. Trace the value for binary addition a) 0 with a carry of 1 b) 1 with a carry of 1 c) 1 with no carry d) 0 with no carry (1 + 1)

17. Which of the following memories has got equal access time for all locations of the memory limit? a) Read Only Memory (ROM) b) Programmable Read Only Memory (PROM) c) Random Access Memory (RAM) d) Erasable ROM 18. Which of the following memories will be used to store variable quantities or data a) RAM b) ROM c) PROM d) EPROM 19. The access time for semi conductor memories is of the order of a) A few milliseconds b) A few microseconds c) A few nanoseconds d) A few seconds 20. Semiconductor memories are faster than magnetic memories a) True b) False 21. To get a basic D.C. generator from A.C generator which of the following arrangement is made a) By replacing the slip rings of the A.C generator with commutator

b) By the addition of extra slip rings c) By connecting a rectifier d) None of the above 22. The rotating part of a DC generator is called a) Field coil b) Yoke c) Armature d) None of these 23. The e.m.f generated in armatures conductor of a D.C. machine is of nature a) A.C b) D.C c) Both d) AC and DC 24. Variations of D.C voltage generated by D.C generator is called a) Ripple b) R.M.S c) Average d) Crest 25. The ripples generated in DC generator may be reduced by using a) More loops or coils b) Less loop or coils c) Both d) None of the above 26. There must be an ______ number of poles in any generator a) Even b) Odd c) Both d) None of the above 27. The purpose of slotting in armature is a) To increase mechanical safety b) To increase electrical safety c) To increase both safety d) None of these 28. The brushes in generator are generally made up of a) High grade carbon

b) High grade silicon c) High grade selenium d) High grade zinc 29. In DC machine the commutator surface is highly polished to a) Reduce friction b) Reduce eddy current loss c) Both d) None of these 30. Which of the following DC generator(s) can never be used with airplane? a) Series wound D.C generator b) Shunt wound D.C generator c) Compound wound D.C generator d) All of the above 31. The term 10-5 farads mean a) 1 mili-farad b) 10 micro-farad c) 10 nano-farad d) none 32. The unit of electrical power is a) Joules b) Watt-second c) Joule-seconds d) Watts 33. One angstrom (A0) is equivalent to a) 10-9 meters b) 10-10 meters c) 10-9 seconds d) 10-10 seconds 34. Which is true statement about capacitor? a) Blocks DC b) Allows DC c) Blocks AC d) None 35. For N P N transistor, arrowhead indicates the direction of a) Minor holes current b) Major holes current c) Minor electron current d) None

36. To bypass the AC components, in any device, select most appropriate a) Inductor is connected in series b) Capacitor is connected in series c) Inductor is connected in parallel d) Capacitor is connected in parallel 37. In a P-N-P transistors, the device is ON only when a) Base is positive with respect to emitter b) Base is negative with respect to emitter c) Emitter is negative with respect to base d) None 38. In a series connection a) Voltage is same across each element b) Current is same in each element c) Both are correct d) None 39. The symbol a) Conductor b) Capacitor c) Condenser d) Variable Condenser indicates

40. If supply voltage = 30V, then working voltage of capacitor could be a) 90V b) 45V c) 50V d) 55V 41. The useful load of an aircraft is a) Difference between maximum gross weight and empty weight b) Difference between maximum net weight and total weight c) Sum of empty weight and gross weight d) Weight of fuel 42. MTCS a) CD-plated rivet should not be used in areas where temperature of 250o or more are likely to be encountered b) If the thickness of the sheet is less, then half the diameter of the rivet is used c) Failure of joint will depend on the bearing stress rather than shear stress in the rivet. d) All of the above

43. Rivets are designed a) Stronger in shear b) Stronger in tension c) Should not be subjected to excessive tension load d) Both a) and c) 44. Zero fuel weight means a) AUW menus weight of fuel b) Weight of cargo, passenger and crew c) Maximum allowable weight of loaded aircraft without fuel and statement b) d) All of the above 45. I-beam is produced by a) Rolling b) Casting c) Forging d) None 46. Caustic cleaning products used on Al-structure have the effect of producing a) Passive oxidation b) Improved corrosion resistance c) Corrosion d) None 47. Fayed surface cause concern in chemical cleaning because of the danger of a) Forming passive oxide b) Entrapping corrosive material c) Corrosion by embedded iron oxide d) All of the above 48. The rust or corrosion that occurs with most of the metal is the result of a) A tendency for them to return their natural state b) Blocking the flow of electrons in homogenous metals or between dissimilar metal c) Electron flow in or between metal for cathode to anode area d) All of the above 49. Which of the listed condition is not one of the requirements for corrosion to occur

a) b) c) d)

Presence of electrolyte Electrical contact between an anodic area and a cathodic area Presence of passive oxide film None of these

50. Inter-granular corrosion on Al-alloy part a) May be detected by surface pitting, white powdery deposit b) Appears as thread like filament c) Cannot always be detected by surface indication d) All of the above 51. a) b) c) d) 52. a) b) c) d) 53. a) b) c) d) When QNH is set on milibar scale, the altimeter reads Altitude above mean sea level Height above the airport elevation Both A and B None of the above When QFE is set on milibar scale, altimeter reads Altitude above mean sea level Height above the airport elevation Both A and B None of the above Pitot head is mounted parallel to the Latitudinal axis of aircraft Longitudinal axis of aircraft Both A and B None of the above

54. All the altimeter a) Are constructed on the principle of Aneroid barometer b) They have pressure responsive elements c) Aneroid mechanism d) All of the above 55. Hysterisis error in altimeter a) Is induced by aircraft maintaining a given altitude for certain period of time and suddenly making a large altitude change b) This error will eliminate itself with slow climbs and descends c) After maintaining a new altitude for a reasonable period of time d) All of the above 56 Installation errors in altimeter mechanism is a) Caused by change of alignment of static pressure port with the relation wind b) Speed of aircraft and angle of attack of aircraft

c) By location of the static port in a disturbed pressure field d) All of the above 57 An ROCI is connected to a) Static pressure only b) Pitot pressure only c) Both A and B d) None of the above 58 In ROCI during dive of aircraft, the diaphragm a) Contracts b) Expands c) Both a & b d) No effect 59 Any sudden or abrupt change in the aircraft altitude may cause erroneous indications of ROCI a) Due to a sudden change of airflow over static port b) Sudden change of air flow over pitot head c) On both A and B d) None of the above 60 An instantaneous ROCI is a) Recent development b) Incorporates acceleration pumps c) Eliminates limitations associated with calibrated leak assembly d) All of the above 61. Which type of pipe wrench is designed with adjustable serrated jaws for gripping round pipes? a) Warnok type b) Stillson type c) Super wrench tool d) Williams type 62. Vise grip pliers is also known as a) Heavy pliers b) Lever jaw wrench c) Monkey pliers d) None 63. Punch holders are used to hold a) Punches b) Chisels

c) Both a & b are correct d) As in a, when a hard blow is required 64. Which pliers can be used for completing the safety wire operation? a) Safety wire pliers b) Diagonals & duck bill pliers c) Both a & b are correct d) As in a & diagonals 65. Diagonals are used for a) Cutting steel wires & rods b) Cutting bolt heads c) Both a & b are correct d) None 66. The shape of long nose pliers is a) Round b) Half- round c) Square d) None 67. The jaws of vise grip pliers is released from locking by a) A small lever at each handle b) A compound lever at both handles c) A small lever at one of the handles d) None

68. What action locks the jaws of a vise grip pliers? a) Compound leverage action b) Lever action c) Toggle action d) None 69. Which thread is used where a great strength is required in one direction? a) Acme b) Square c) Worm d) Buttress 70. In interlocking- joint pliers, a) There are a number of holes at the hinge point

b) There are two holes at the hinge point c) There are several curved grooves at the hinge point d) None

PAPER - II
PART XX 1. d 2. d 3. d 4. c 5. c 6. c 7. a 8. b 9. b 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39.

a d d a a c a c a c a a a a a a a a a a a b d b a a a b b d

40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70.

b a d d c a c b a c c a b b d d d a b a d b b c c d b c c d c

PAPER - II
PART XXI 1) Which of the following have greatest tensile strength a) Fibreglass b) Aramid c) Carbon d) Ceramic 2) Which vector of fibres science takes shear load a) 45o b) 90o c) 60o d) 30o 3) Maximum strength of fibres is in which direction of bi-directional fabric a) Warp b) Weft c) Biased d) Fill 4) Which of the following is the unidirectional fabric styles a) Mats b) Tapes c) Kevlar d) Fibreglass 5) Output power of piston engine is depend upon a) Intensity of spark produced by spark plug b) Heat energy applied on piston head c) Mean effective pressure during power stroke d) Moisture available in ambient air 6) Stab trim control used for a) Change the angle of incident of horizontal stabilizer b) Change the longitudinal dihedral c) Movement of control surfaces fitted at empennage d) All of the above 7) In steel casting, porosity can detect more easily by a) Dye penetrant method b) Magnetic particle inspection

c) Eddy current d) X-Ray 8) Rate of staining is an indication of a) Volume of defect b) Width of defect c) Depth of defect d) Both b and c 9) Which of the following can use as leak tester a) Ultrasound method (Water immersion method) b) Dye-penetrant method c) Magnetic particle inspection d) None of these 10) as a) b) c) d) Elliptical motion of wave on the upper surface of material known Shear wave Compression wave Surface wave Tension wave

11) The memory unit that communicates directly with the CPU is called a) Main memory b) Auxiliary memory c) Cache memory d) EPROM 12) The flow chart is a a) Systematic representation of a task b) Systematic representation with logical decision c) Systematic pictorial representation with logical decision d) Random representation of a task 13) The most powerful computer is a) Micro computer b) Super computer c) Mini computer d) Lap top computer 14) Excess speed of computer depends upon a) Software used b) Frequency and signal received

c) Both Software and Hardware d) Only Hardware

15) Which are related to the memory 1. Hard disk 2. Key board Monitor a) 1 & 2 b) 2 & 3 c) 1 & 3 d) 2 & 4 16) Expand the term RAM a) Random Access Memory b) Reverse Access Memory c) Random Access Monitor d) Reverse Access Monitor 17) Which language is the oriented language? a) PASCAL b) BASIC c) FORTRAN d) COBOL 18) In third generation computer a) Integrated circuits are used b) Microprocessor is used c) Transistors are used d) None of the above 19) The unit of Memory is a) Bytes b) Mega bite c) Mill d) Byles 20) Analog computer is a) More correct than digital computer b) Less accurate than digital computer c) Equal with digital computer d) None of these

3. CD ROM

4.

21) Which of the following DC generator has very poor voltage regulation a) Series wound D.C generator b) Shunt would D.C generator c) Differential compound D.C generator d) Cumulative compound D.C generator

22) Series wound D.C generator cannot be used in airplane because a) They have very poor voltage regulation b) Poor efficiency c) Large losses d) None of these 23) The output voltage of a series wound D.C generator may be controlled by a) Using a rheostat in parallel with the field windings b) Using a rheostat in series with the field windings c) Both a and b d) None of the above 24) If a constant voltage is desired, which one of the D.C generator we would prefer a) Series wound D.C generator b) Shunt wound D.C generator c) Both a and b d) None of these 25) In a compound wound generator the magneto motive force is equal to the a) Sum of series and shunt field component b) Multiplication of series and shunt field component c) Square of series and shunt field component d) Square root of series and shunt field component 26) A generator in which the no load and full load voltages have the same value is called a) Flat compound generator b) Shunt generator c) Series generator d) Both b and c

27) Compound generators are usually designed to be a) Over compounded b) Under compounded c) Flat compounded d) All of these 28) In a situation where voltage regulation is of prime importance we prefer to use a) Compound generator b) Series generator c) Shunt generator d) All of these

29) Differential generators are a) Constant current generator b) Constant voltage generator c) Constant power generator d) None of these 30) The main application of differential generator is a) Electric arc welding b) Fans c) Turbines d) All of these 31) One nibble is equal to a) 8 bits b) 4 bytes c) 8 bytes d) 4 bits 32) Binary equivalent of (29)10 is a) 11101 b) 10101 c) 10011 d) 11111 33) Decimal equivalent of (10111011101)2 is a) 1500

b) 1401 c) 1501 d) 1600 34) Binary equivalent of (91.75)10 is a) 010110.11 b) 1110011.11 c) 1011011.11 d) 1011010.1 35) Binary addition of (11011+111+11)2 a) 100101 b) 110101 c) 010101 d) 101101

36) The Boolean expression for output B Y C a) Y=(A.B).C b) Y=A.B.C c) Y=(A.B).C d) Y=A.(B.C) 37) How many bits are there in 1KB? a) 1000 bits b) 1024 bits c) 2048 bits d) 108 bits

38) Immediately after picking up of signal by a super het type receiving antenna, the signal goes to a) RF stage b) Detector stage c) IF stage d) AF stage 39) The unit of magnetic flux is a) wb/m2

b) Mili Henry c) wb d) Farads 40) In line of sight communication, we use a) UHF wave b) VHF wave c) VLF wave d) HF wave 41) What may be used to remove corrosion from highly stressed steel part a) Steel wire brush b) Fine grit Al-oxide c) Medium grade carborendum paper d) All of the above 42) Galvanic action caused by dissimilar metal contact may best be prevented by a) Placing a nonporous dielectric material between the surface b) Cleaning both surface with a non residual solvent c) Apply paper tape between the surface d) None of these 43) Corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of a) Excessive anodization b) Contact between two unlike metals c) Excessive etching d) All of the above 44) Which of the following is most anodic a) Cadmium b) Magnesium c) Zinc d) 7075-T6 45) Which is most cathodic a) Zinc b) Stainless steel c) Chromium d) Al-alloy 46) Galvanic corrosion is likely to be most rapid and severe when

a) The surface area of cathode is smaller than anode b) The surface area of anodic material is smaller than cathodic material c) Approximately same d) All are correct e) Magnesium e) Chromium The surface area of anodic material is smaller than cathodic aterial 47) One way of obtaining increased resistance to stress corrosion cracking by a) Relieving compressive stress on the metal surface b) Creating compressive stress on the metal surface c) Producing non uniform deformation while cold working during manufacturing d) None of these 48) The pickling solution can be a) H2SO4 b) HCL c) HNO3 d) All of the above 49) When an anodising surface coating is damaged, it can be partially restored by a) Metal polish b) Complete penetration of air inhibitor c) Chemical surface treatment d) Any one of the following 50) MTCS a) Inter-granular corrosion is attack along the grain boundaries b) Al-alloy and some stainless steel are particularly susceptible c) Ultrasonic and radiographic inspection method are used d) Both a) and b) are correct 51) An ASI is a) A sensitive differential pressure gauge b) Indicates differential between the impact and static pressure surrounding an aircraft c) Consists of a sensitive metallic diaphragm d) All of the above 52) Machmeter indicates a) The ratio of aircraft speed to the speed of sound at any altitude

b) Mechanism is similar to that of True airspeed indicator c) Mechanism is similar to that of altimeter d) Both A and B 53) During daily inspection of pitot static system a) Pitot pressure entry hole, drain holes, static holes, or ports should be inspected that they are unobstructed b) Static holes and drains holes must be cleared of obstruction with tools likely to cause enlargement c) Both A and B d) None of the above 54) During Leak test of pitot static system a) Rate of discharge of pressure should not be at high rate b) High rate may cause damage to the instruments c) Both A and B d) None of the above 55) Leak test provides a means for a) Check those instruments connected to system, are functioning properly. b) It serves as a calibration test also c) Both A and B d) None of the above 56) The mechanism of pressure switches are similar to those employed in a) ASI b) Mach meter c) Altimeter d) All of the above 57) A gyro having freedom in three planes at right angles to each other but controlled by some external force is called a) Free gyro b) Tied gyro c) Earth gyro d) Rate gyro 58) Ability of gyro to resist any force, which tends to change the plane of rotation is termed as a) Gyroscopic Inertia

b) Gyroscopic Rigidity c) Gyroscopic Precession d) Both A and B 59) On application of an external force, the angular change at right angle to the applied force is called gyroscopic a) Rigidity b) Precession c) Inertia d) All of the above 60) The example of earth gyro fitment is a) Directional gyro b) Artificial Horizon c) Turn and bank indicator d) All of the above 61) While reconditioning a screwdriver blade, a) Grind the end of the tip first to square with the shank and then grind the end of the tip to required thickness b) Grind the blade first to the thickness required and then grind the end of the tip to square with the shank c) There may not be any rule for grinding the sequence of grinding d) None 62) A higher diametral pitch number means a) A larger tooth size b) A smaller tooth size c) It has no relation with the tooth size d) None 63) Which cross point screwdriver has a taper cross & the sides are not parallel a) Phillips screwdriver b) Reed & prince screwdriver c) Both are correct d) None 64) The hallow magnetized shafts of interchangeable screwdrivers hold hex bits of a) inch size b) 3/4 inch size c) 3/8 inch size d) inch size

65) The shape of which screwdriver permits the use of a wrench to assist in tightening? a) Stubby screwdriver b) Phillips screwdriver c) Heavy duty screwdriver d) Double ended screwdriver 66) Prick punch has an included angle of a) 15o b) 45o c) 65o d) 90o 67) While installing a taper pin with a pin punch, the size of the punch should be a) Larger than the size of the pin b) Smaller than the size of the pin c) Same size of the pin d) Can be of any size 68) What do you mean by a stub tooth? a) Same as involute tooth b) It gives smoother operation than involute tooth c) It is thicker in proportion to its length than the involute tooth d) As in c& is preferred where strength is not important 69) Which hammers are used for riveting & stretching of metals? a) Ball peen hammer b) Straight peen hammer c) Soft faced hammer d) Both a& b are correct 70) Soft hammers are made of 1. Babbitt 2. Brass 3. Carbon steel a) 1, 2 & 3 are correct b) Only 1 is correct c) 1, 2 & 4 are correct d) 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct 4. Wood 5. Tool steel

Indian Institute of Aircraft Engineering Mahipalpur, New Delhi

PAPER - II
PART XXI Answers 1) b 2) a 3) a 4) b 5) c 6) b 7) a 8) d 9) b 10) 11) 12) 13) 14) 15) 16) 17) 18) 19) 20) 21) 22) 23) 24) 25) 26) 27) 28) 29) 30) 31) 32) 33) 34) 35)

B-11

c c c b c c a d a a b a a a b a a a a a a d a c c a

36) 37) 38) 39) 40) 41) 42) 43) 44) 45) 46) 47) 48) 49) 50) 51) 52) 53) 54) 55) 56) 57) 58) 59) 60) 61) 62) 63) 64) 65) 66) 67) 68) 69) 70)

c b a c b b a b b c b b d c d d d a c a d b d b b a b a d c b a c a c

PAPER - II
PART XXII 1. Velocity of trans verse wave is a) Equal to sound wave b) Twice of sound wave c) Half of sound wave d) There is no relation between transverse wave and sound wave 2. Frequency chosen for defect scanning in ultrasonic depend upon a) Size of the object b) Possible location of defect c) Grain size of material d) All of these 3. Thin sheet metals weld defect can be inspected by a) X-Ray b) Ultrasonic method c) Eddy current d) None of these 4. Longer wavelength of x-ray beam have quality of a) More penetrating power b) Less penetrating power c) As in b) and indicated by half value layer d) As in a) and indicated by full value layer 5. By which method we cannot detect the inter-granular corrosion easily a) Ultrasonic method b) Eddy current c) Magnetic particle d) X-Ray 6. Grinding cracks on small radius bends is appeared as _____ in magnetic particle inspection. a) Irregular lines over affected area b) Short parallel lines c) Dotted patch d) Scattered small lines 7. What are the advantages of Eddy current testing

a) b) c) d)

Does not require extensive preparation of parts Parts can be checked in Insitu condition It do not interfere with other parts All of the above

8. Permeability of material is the function of a) Magnetizing force b) Flux density c) Both a) and b) are correct d) None of the above 9. Sand blasting is not done on a) Steel b) Cast aluminium cylinder head c) Where strength is not primary concern d) Copper 10. Which instrument is used for checking the surface roughness? a) Spectrometer b) Prosfetrometer c) Profilometer d) Hilsegmetometer 11. In computer machine level language is a) A High Level Language b) Low Level Language c) Very High Level Language d) None 12. A modern computer uses a) Decimal language b) Binary language c) Hexadecimal language d) All of the above 13. When data has to be read, the control structure will be a) In sequence b) In sequence and repetition c) Repetition and sequence d) None of them 14. Universal Gates are a) AND & OR Gates b) NAND & NOR Gates

c) NOT & NAND Gates d) Ex. OR & Ex. NOR Gates 15. The binary conversion of 11.75 is a) 1101.10 b) 1011.11 c) 1110.01 d) 1001.11 16. Basic function of computer is a) Addition b) Subtraction c) Multiplication d) Division 17. The conversion of (010100)2 into Octal is a) (24)8 b) (28)8 c) (26)8 d) (50)8 18. A computer consists of a) Printer, Decoder, Memory b) Input, Output, CPU c) Input, Output, Printer d) None of the above 19. Computer viruses can spread from one computer to another by means of a) An infected disk b) Links to a network c) Any electronic communication medium d) All of the above are correct 20. FORTRAN & COBOL are a) High Level Language b) Assembly Language c) Machine Language d) Fourth Generation Language 21. If the shunt field of a compound generator is connected across both the armature and series field, then the connection is said to be a) Long shunt connection b) Short shunt connection c) Parallel connection d) Both a and b

22. Three wire generators are designed to deliver a) 240 or 120 volts from either side of the neutral wire b) 120 volts or 360 volts c) 220 V or 440 V d) Both a and c

23. The distortion of the magnetic field is called a) Armature reaction b) Field reaction c) Both a and b d) None of these 24. For parallel operation, the generators normally preferred are a) Shunt generators b) Series generators c) Both a and b d) Compound generator 25. In D.C generators, a inter pole field coils are connected a) In series with armature winding b) In parallel with armature winding c) In series with load d) In parallel with load 26. In D.C generators the brushes are always placed along a) Magnetic neutral axis b) Geometrical neutral axis c) Bisector of GNA and MNA d) There is no hard and fast rule for this 27. The range of paper capacitor is given by a) 200 micro micro farads to several micro farads b) 400 micro farads to 20 micro farads c) 1 micro farad to 1000 micro farads d) 200 micro farads to 400 micro farads 28. In radio and radar transmitters we generally prefer to use a) Oil capacitor b) Paper capacitor c) Mica capacitor

d) Electrolyte capacitor 29. The range of mica capacitor is a) 50 micro micro farads to 0.02 micro farads b) 10 micro farad to 40 micro farads c) Greater than 40 micro farads d) None of these

30. Can we apply KVL for AC circuit a) Yes b) No c) At low frequency we can apply d) Both a and c 31. Clamper is used to a) Cut any portion of AC cycle b) Shift its DC level c) Change the frequency d) Adjust the AC level 32. The output is high only when both input are different. The device is a) AND gate b) NAND gate c) EXOR gate d) EXNOR gate 33. A FET is a device, which is a) Current driven b) Voltage driven c) Power driven d) None 34. The condition for sustaining oscillations in resonant circuit is a) XL > XC no feed back b) R = XL and +VE feedback c) XL=XC and positive feedback d) R=XC no feedback 35. The oscillator, which does not employ LC tank circuit

a) b) c) d)

Hartlay Collpit Crystal Clapp

36. Advantage of modulation is a) Low frequency signals can be sent over long distance b) Size of antenna is greatly reduced c) No interference with other transmitters d) All of the above 37. In frequency modulation a) The amplitude changes while frequency constant b) The frequency changes while amplitude constant c) Both constant d) Both vary 38. If the signal frequency band is between 550 1500 KHz., and local oscillator frequency band [1045 1995] KHz then I.F. will be a) 405 KHz b) 495 KHz c) 500 KHz d) 1000 KHz 39. In conductor a) Valence band is empty only b) Conduction band is full only c) Both are overlapped d) VB, CB never combined 40. Two resistors (R1, R2) of 30 and 20 ohms respectively, are connected in parallel across a 20V source. The current through R1 branch would be a) 12A b) 10A c) 0.8A d) 0.66A 41. A primary cause of inter-granular corrosion is a) Improper heat treatment b) Dissimilar metal contact c) Improper application of primer d) All of the above

42. The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion residual product build-up is called a) Brinelling b) Granulation c) Exfoliation d) All of the above 43. Tubular members are protected a) Internally and externally b) Internally during assembly and sealed to prevent accumulation of moisture. c) Ultrasonic and Radiological method gives indication of reduction of thickness during inspection d) All of these 44. If extra strength is required and clearance permit a) Round head rivet may be used b) Flat head rivet may be used c) Counter sunk rivet may be used d) It does not matter 45. The rivet fault shown is a) Insufficient hammering b) Dolly not square c) Snap not square d) Incorrect snap 46. The rivet fault shown is a) Hole too large b) Insufficient hammering c) Incorrect snap d) Snap not square 47. The washer used with castle and castellated shear nut is a) Lock washer b) Plain washer c) Flat washer d) Both b) and c) 48. Corrosion should be removed on Mg-alloy component with a) Metallic bristle brush b) Nylon scrubber c) Carborundum paper

d) Plain scrapper 49. The type of corrosion that is generally present in aircraft but not visible is a) Exfoliation b) Fretting c) Electrolytic d) Inter-surface 50. Metals are graded as per electrode potential. Thus the most anodic material will a) Give up electron more easily b) Corrode much faster c) Resist corrosion d) Both a) and b) 51. The example of tied gyro fitment is a) Artificial Horizon b) Directional Gyro c) Turn and Bank indicator d) None of the above

52. a) b) c)

The turn and Bank indicator is called Turn and slip indicator Needle and ball indicator Shows correct execution of a bank and turn and indicate the lateral attitude of aircraft in level flight d) All of the above Turn pointer of TSI is operated by a gyro driven by Vacuum Air pressure Electricity All of the above

53. a) b) c) d)

54. TSI is normally consisting electrical driven gyro so in case of failure of vacuum driven artificial horizon and direction indicator, it acts as a) Safety factor b) Stand by instrument for emergency operation c) Both A and B

d) None of the above 55. a) b) c) d) The fluid inside the slip indicator tube of TSI Provides damping action Ensuring smooth movement of the ball Both A and B None of the above

56. The tube of slip indicator is curved so that horizontal position of the ball tends to seek a) The lowest point b) The highest point c) Both A and B d) None of the above 57. In T.S.I a small projection on the left end of tube contains a bubble of air, which compensates for a) Expansion of the fluid during change in temperature b) Contraction of the fluid during change in temperature c) Both A and B d) None of the above 58. Two stands of wire wound around the glass tube of bank indicator of T. S. I. a) Fasten the tube to the instrument case b) Serve as reference makers c) Indicates the correct position of ball in the tube d) All of the above 59. During coordinated straight and level flight, the force of gravity causes the ball to rest a) In the lowest part of the tube b) Centered between the reference wires c) Both A and B d) None of the above 60. a) b) c) d) Fast erection switch should not be pressed Before 15 seconds have elapsed after switching on the supply For more than one minute at a stretch Both A and B None of the above

61. Faces of soft hammers are specified by

a) b) c) d)

Degree of hardness Diameter of face & length of head Weight of the head without the handle None

62. In aviation maintenance, the most popularly used drive sizes of sockets are a) 1/4 & 3/8 inch b) 3/8 & 5/8 inch c) 1/4 & 3/16 inch d) 1/4 & 5/8 inch 63. Crows foot sockets are available with a) Open ends only b) Closed ends only c) Flare nut ends only d) All of the above are correct 64. Adjustable tap wrenches are available to hold taps & reamers of a) About 1/2 inch size b) 1/2 5/8 inch size c) All sizes d) None 65. The size range of Allen wrench is a) 3/64 3/8 inch b) 3/8 - 5/8 inch c) 3/8 - 1 inch d) 3/64 - 1/2 inch

66. The offset angle of the open end of a tool post wrench is a) 15 degrees b) 22 c) 0 degree d) None 67. Speed handles can be used for turning a) Screws much faster than conventional screwdrivers b) Nuts much faster than conventional wrench c) Nuts much faster than conventional ratchet wrench d) All of the above are correct

68. The bottoming tap a) Is tapered back for 6 to 7 threads b) Is tapered back for 2 to 3 threads c) Is tapered back upto its shank d) None 69. Which type of reamer has less-tendency to chatter? a) Straight fluted reamer b) Spiral fluted reamer c) Both a and b d) None 70. A hand drill can be used to drill holes a) Upto 3/8 b) Upto c) 1/8 d)

PAPER - II
PART XXII 1. c 2. d 3. a 4. c 5. d 6. b 7. d 8. c 9. d 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38.

c b b b b b a a b d d a a a a a a a a a a b c b c c d b b

39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70.

c d a c d a b b d b c d b d d c c a a d c c a a d c d c d d b b

PAPER - II
PART XXIII 1. Which letter show as process code for achromatise a) A b) B c) C d) D 2. Symbol indicate a) Electrical s/w b) Chemical s/w c) Electrolytic s/w d) Electro-thermal s/w 3. Which nut is used to prevent other nuts from turning on threaded bolt or rod a) Self-locking nut b) Jamb nut c) Stainless steel nut with cotter pin d) None of these 4. The content of CO2 fire extinguisher or N2 pressurized extinguisher is checked by a) Weight and pressure gauge b) Marking on neck c) By operating the extinguisher d) All of the above 5. Choose incorrect statement a) Yellow poly propylene provide insufficient strength b) Proper tension in rope allows 1 movement c) Manila rope requires extra slack due to shrinks d) The rope from tail should pull away at about 45o to each side of tail 6. Which type of jack is used for L/G retraction check a) Single base jack b) Bottle neck jack c) Screw jack d) Tripod jack

7. Which measuring tool is used for outside or inside measurement for faster work a) Vernier micrometer b) Vernier calliper c) Micrometer calliper d) None of these 8. Which is incorrect statement a) If corrosion is present in control cable should be replaced b) Cable used in seaplane must be coated with paral-ketone c) For detection of corrosion, cable twist in same way of lay d) Carbon steel cable must be used with protective coating 9. After welding aluminium parts flux should be removed by a) Immersing them in Luke warm water for 30 minutes b) Mechanical means, i.e. Wire brushing as the flux is not soluble in water c) Washing the parts in boiling water containing 5% HNO3 d) Vacuum blasting 10. A gusset is a) A bracing between longerons b) A type of connecting bracket c) Used for fail safe construction d) Like a butt plate The unit where calculations are preferred is called Central Processing Unit (CPU) Control Unit Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU) Computing Unit EDP stands for Electrical data processing Electronic data processing Entry data processing Electronic discrete Programme Assembler is An individual who assembles computer Language Program None

11. a) b) c) d) 12. a) b) c) d) 13. a) b) c) d)

14. a) b) c) d) 15. a) b) c) d) 16. a) b) c) d) 17. a) b) c) d) 18. a) b) c) d) 19. a) b) c) d) 20. a) b) c) d)

Input unit of computer communicates between Operator and Computer Memory with printer CPU with monitor Output and computer The Symbol for Hexadecimal is 2 8 10 16 In computer terminology, MICR means Magnetic Ink Character Recognition Magnetic Ink Computer Recognition Monitor Indicating Computer Relay Mass Information Computer Record Speed of processor is measured in Kilobit/Sec Hertz Byte RPM A byte is a group of 2 bits 4 bits 8 bits 16 bits In digital computer system, number of states used is 2 3 8 16 The term ROM means Random Operation Memory Read and Operate Memory Read Only Memory None

21. The energy of a capacitor having capacitance C and voltage V is given by

a) b) c) d) 22. a) b) c) d)

0.5 CV2 CV C2 V 0.5 C2V One unit of magnetic flux is given by Weber Weber per meter square Square root of Weber Hennery

23. a) b) c) d) 24. a) b) c) d)

Generators works on the principle of Faradays law of electromagnetic induction Ohms law Biot-severts law Gausss law The Capacitor of a parallel plate is given by A /d A2 / d Ad / None of these

25. If there are N number of cells, each having voltage E and internal resistance r are connected in series, then the resulting e.m.f of the circuit is given by a) NE volt b) E/N volt c) E volt d) NEr volt 26. The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely resistive circuit is given by a) 0o b) 90o c) 45o d) 135o 27. One micro farad is equal to a) 0.001 milli farad b) 100 milli farad

c) 1000 milli farad d) 10 milli farad 28. a) b) c) d) The ability of magnet to restore magnetism is called Retentivity Permitivity Store ability Both a and c

29. If Im is the maximum current for sine AC then its R.M.S value is given by a) 0.707 Im b) Im c) 0.5 Im d) 1.414 Im 30. The relationship between voltage and current in a purely inductive circuit is given by a) Voltage leads the current by 90o b) Current lags the voltage by 90o c) Both a and b d) None of these 31. a) b) c) d) By voltage division rule the voltage drop V1 in the circuit will be V1=(R2*VS) / (R1+R2) V1=(R1*VS) / (R1+R2) V1=VS*(R1+R2) / R1 None

32. If inductance is doubled and the capacitance is halved, then resonant frequency F0 a) Doubled b) Halved c) Remains Same d) Squared root of F0 33. a) b) c) d) 34. 50000000Hz stands for 5 MHz 0.5 MHz 50 MHz 5000 MHz To smoothen the DC in rectifier, we employ

a) b) c) d) 35. a) b) c) d)

LPF HPF BPF None The Voltage / Current across the short circuit V=max I=0 V=0 I=max V=0 I=0 V=max I=max

36. The vacuum tube has a) Directly heated anode b) Indirectly heated cathode c) Directly heated cathode d) Indirectly heated anode 37. For aircraft generation plant inductor is 1H. The value of capacitor should be a) 1 / (800 )2 farad b) (800 ) farads c) (400 ) farads d) 800 farads 38. a) b) c) d) 39. a) b) c) d) In one time constant, the capacitor charges to 36.8% of its maximum value 63.2% of its maximum value 98% of its maximum value None The name Superhet is used for AM receiver FM receiver AM transmitter FM transmitter

40. Two resistances of 15, 12 ohms each are connected in parallel across a supply, giving 27 ampere., then current through 15 ohm will be a) 27 amp b) 12 amp c) 15 amp d) 1 amp 41. Most effective method of removing rust from ferrous metal is a) Steel wire brush

b) Sand paper c) By abrasive blasting d) Washing with hot shop solution 42. A) Rivet smaller than 3/32 diameter are never used on stressed structure B) Never replace 2024T rivet with 2117T rivet. a) Both are correct b) Both are incorrect c) Only A) is correct d) Only B) is correct 43. a) b) c) d) 44. a) b) c) d) Regarding permanent ballast Lead bar or plate is used Painted red and placarded Bolted as near as possible to CG Both A and B Transverse pitch is Twice the rivet diameter 70% of rivet pitch 75% of rivet pitch 6-8 diameter

45. a) b) c) d) 46. a) b) c) d) 47. a) b) c) d)

Rivet pitch is Distance between center of rivet in a row Distance between edge to center of rivet Four times the rivet diameter Both a) and c) are correct Edge distance (minimum) is 4D 2D 6-8D Any of the above The amount of rivet length used for shop head is 1 x diameter of rivet 4 x diameter of rivet 3 x diameter of rivet All of the above

48. a) b) c) d) 49. a) b) c) d)

Which plating process provide excellent base for paint Cd Plating Zn Plating Granodizing All of the above Which treatment give excellent base for paint CR Plating Parkerizing Metal spraying Zn plating

50. The process use zinc as a medium for plating a)Parkerizing b) Sheradizing c) Galvonizing d) Both b) and c) 51. The earth rotates at its own axis at a rate of a) 20 degrees per hour b) 30 degrees per hour c) 15 degrees per hour d) 25 degrees per hour 52. Caging device is used to erect the gyro to its normal operating condition a) Prior to flight b) After tumbling of gyro c) Both A and B d) None of the above 53. Gyro horizon a) Utilizes vertical spin axis gyro b) Provides visual indications of any change of pitch and roll attitude of aircraft c) Both A and B d) None of the above 54. a) b) c) d) With gyro horizon in operation gyro rigidity Maintains the spin of axis in its normal operating position Maintains horizon bar with respect to aircraft symbol A and B both None of the above

55. In Electrically driven attitude indicators, the gyro rotates approx., at a) 20000 rpm b) 21000 rpm c) 21500 rpm d) None of the above 56. During functional test of direction indicator, the drift should be checked which should not exceed a) 2 degree in 15 minutes b) 3 degree in 15 minutes c) 2 degree in 30 minutes d) 3 degree in 30 minutes 57. a) b) c) d) Performance test of instruments should be carried out Before installation At times when indication and operation are suspected At periods mentioned in aircraft maintenance manual All of the above

58. The mounting of the instruments having flangeless cases is a) From the front of panel b) Fixing screws and nuts are un-necessary c) A special type of clamp suited to the instrument case is secured to the rare of the face of the panel d) All the above 59. Direction indicator provides a stabilized directional reference a) For maintaining a desired course b) For turning on a new heading c) Used as complementary instrument to direct reading magnetic compass d) All the above 60. Setting knob at the front of the case of direction indicator is for a) Setting the magnetic heading b) Caging the gyro assembly to prevent the damage during transit & installation c) Both a and b d) None of the above

61. While filing a work piece on the lathe, the file should be held at an angle of ____ to the work piece a) 0 degree b) 10 degree c) 90 degree d) 20 degree 62. What should be cutting angle of drill while cutting extremely hard metals? a) 59 degree b) More than 59 degree c) Less than 59 degree d) 118 degree 63. a) b) c) d) 64. a) b) c) d) The angle of the flute of a drill in relation to the work is the Cutting angle Lip angle Web angle Rake angle What do you mean by thinning the point of a drill? Decrease the width of the dead centre Increase the width of the dead centre Decrease the blade angle of the drill Decrease the lip clearance of the drill

65. What will be the result if the angles of the cutting edges of a drill are equal but the lips are of unequal length? a) The drill will bind on one side of the hole b) The hole will be larger than the drill c) Both the points and the lip will be off centre d) Both b and c are correct 66. A centre drill is used a) For drilling holes of accurate size b) For drilling a short drilled hole and countersink hole in one operation c) As in b and has an included angle of 65 degree d) None

67. Which reamer is considered as a rough reamer? a) Rose reamer

b) Shell reamer c) Chucking expansion reamer d) Jobbers reamer 68. a) b) c) d) Worm threads have a thread angle of 45 degrees and is similar to ACME threads 29 degrees and is similar to ACME threads 29 degrees and depth of threads are deeper than ACME threads 29 degrees and ACME threads are deeper than worm threads

69. In the picture, if the torque to be applied to the fastener is 225 inch-pounds, then what should be the pointer of the wrench read? a) Around 260 inch -pounds b) 150 inch pounds c) 225 inch- pounds d) 180 inch -pounds

70. The figure shown here is of a) A simple gear train and the gear D moves at half speed of gear A b) As in a & and the gear D moves in the same direction of the gear A c) A compound gear train & the gear D moves in the opposite direction of the gear A d) A simple gear train and the gear D moves in the opposite direction at a double speed of gear A 100T A 30 30 B C 50T D

PAPER - II
PART XXIII 1. b 2. c 3. b 4. a 5. a 6. d 7. b 8. c 9. c 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42.

b c b c a d a b c a c a a a a a a a a a c b c c a b b a b a b c c

43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70.

d c d b a c b d c c c c b b d d d c b b d a d b a c d d

PAPER - II
PART XXIV 1. All submerged parts & hull of seaplane is sprayed with liquid lanoline upto height of _____________ above water line (a) 1 Feet (b) 2 Feet (c) 1 meter (d) 2 meter 2. Mark the correct statements a)Steel wool is used on Al-alloy for corrosion removal b)Clad-Al can be cleaned by mechanical method c)Trichloroethylene is used for removal of grease d)All of the above 3. Evidence of surface corrosion and extent of pitting should be tested by (a) Hardness testing (b) Impact testing (c) Probing with a fine needle (d) None of these 4. Exhaust of Aero-engine made of stainless formed ________________ due to high temperature (a) Crevice corrosion (b) Electrolytic corrosion (c) Inter-granular corrosion (d) Stress corrosion 5. Which type of corrosion is occurred in mounting bolts of engine and wings ? (a) Inter-granular corrosion (b) Stress corrosion (c) Concentrating cell corrosion (d) Fettling corrosion 6. Heated section checked with magnet for corrosion detection, basically that indicate their relative (a) Conductivity of part (b) Permeability of part (c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 7. Which is most suitable condition for storage of Aircraft part? (a) Less than 60% humidity (b) Equal to 60% humidity (c) More than 60% humidity (d) None of these 8. Paint stripper is removed with (a) Steel wool (c) Aluminium wool (b) Emery cloth (d) Non-metallic material

9. Which type of stripper is used on plastic or windows parts?

(a) Water-miscible paint remover remover (c) Both (a) & (b) 10.

(b) Solvent-miscible paint (d) None of these

Anodic film can be removed by a solution of a) 10% Sulphuric acid + 4% Potassium fluoride b) 20% Sulphuric acid + 10% Potassium fluoride c) 20% Sulphuric acid + 20% Potassium fluoride d) All of the above Chromate film treatment is carried on __________ material (a) Al-alloy (b) Mg-alloy (c) Steel-Alloy (d) Titanium Cadmium plating can be removed by (a) Mechanical cleaning (b) Chemical cleaning (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these

11.

12.

13. Mark the correct statement regarding chemical cleaning of steel a) Corrosion on steel can be removed by pickling solution b) Phosphoric acid can also be used c) As in (b), it dissolved oxide film and partly inhibit the steel surface d) All of the above 14. Mark the correct statement regarding chemical cleaning of Alalloys a) Light corrosion can be removed by solvent b) Heavy deposits on clad Al-alloy can be removed chemically c) Heavy deposits on non-clad Al-alloy can be removed mechanically d) All of the above 15. Which of the following corrosion remover required a followed-up action of chromate bearing conversion coating treatment? (a) Chromic-acid corrosion remover (b) Phosphoric-acid corrosion remover (c) Butyl alcohol + Isopropyl alcohol + water (d) Nitric acid + water Which acid is used for cleaning of Mg-alloy? (a) Chromic acid (b) Phosphoric acid (c) Nitric acid (d) Sulphuric acid Steel and Non-clad Al-alloy can be cleaned by (a) Wet glass paper (b) Dry emery paper (c) Dry sand paper (d) As in (a) & water acts as lubricants 16.

17. Which type of scraper is used for corrosion removal on casting or forging parts? (a) Steel carbide tipped (b) Plastic copped tip scraper (c) Abrasive tipped cap scraper (d) None of these 18. Mark the correct statement regarding battery component a)Lead-acid battery compartment neutralized by bi-carbonate of soda b) Ni-Cd battery compartment neutralized by acetic acid c) The sump vent jar containing moist absorbent pad with neutralizing agent d) All of these 19. Human wastes corrode the lavatory area, because it is ________ in nature (a) Acidic (b) Caustic (c) Neutralizing agent (d) None of these 20. Grip length of the bolt is (a) Total length of the bolt (b) Plain sank portion of the bolt (c) Length under the head of the bolt to the end of the bolt (d) None of these In close tolerance bolt, force applied to drive in is (a) 10 ounce hammer (b) 20 ounce hammer (c) 12 to 14 ounce hammer (d) Sledge hammer (c) 4length

21.

22.

AN 4-7 bolt shows (a) 7/8 dia (b) length (d) dia Bolt of class 4 fit is (a) Loose fit (c) Close fit (b) Free fit (d) Tight fit

23.

Special washer AC 950 and AC 955 are used where (a) Bolt is installed at angle to surface (b) Bolt is installed head down (c) It can be used any where (d) None of these 25. To prevent the crushing surface on wooden structure with nut and bolt, the washer used is (a) AN 936 (b) AN 935 (c) AN 970 (d) AN 960

24.

26.

Where shear load is taken by the bolt, the nut used is (a) Plain nut (b) Castle nut (c) Castellated shear nut (d) Self locking nut

27. In the patch repair of the Aircraft skin, the edge distance (distance from the centre of the rivet to the edge of the sheet) should be (d is diameter of rivet) (a) 2d to 4d (b) 8d (c) 6d (d) 75% of the pitch 28. Pitch of the rivet should be (a) 1 d (c) 1 x d (b) 6d to 8d (d) All of these

29. The amount of the length required to form the head of the rivet is (a) 2 d (b) 4 d (c) 1 x d (d) 8 d 30. Chamfering of the patch plate is done at the angle of (a) 25 (b) 45 (c) 60 (d) 15

31. In patch repair, clearance between the rivet and hole should be (a) 0.008 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.002 to 0.004 (d) 0.4 32. A rivet with part no. AN 470 AD 3-5 is having a diameter of (a) 3/32 (b) 5/32 (c) 3/16 (d) 5/16 33. Seam welding is (a) Pressure welding (c) Electric resistance (b) Non-pressure welding (d) Both (a) & (c)

34. In which type of welding, the electrode is non-consumable (a) TIG (b) MIG (c) Electric resistance (d) Oxyacetylene 35. Spot welding electrodes should be (a) Good conductor of Electricity heat (c) High strength & Hardness 36. In leftward welding (a) Filler rod precedes torch filler rod (c) A 60 V is prepared at the end of plate (b) Good conductor of (d) Both (a) & (c) (b) Torch precedes (d) Both (a) & (c)

37. The color of acetylene cylinder and oxygen cylinder is (a) Maroon & Black (b) Black & Maroon (c) Yellow & Black (d) Black & Yellow 38. Bi-Planer block in Chain assembly is used for changing the plane of articulation through (a) 120 (b) 90 (c) 180 (d) None 39. For Non-reversible chains, mark the correct statement (e) Every third inner plate is extended in one direction (f) Every second outer plate is extended in one direction (g) Every fourth outer plate is extended in both direction (h) All are wrong

PAPER - II
PART XXIV ANSWERS : 1B 5D 9C 13D 17D 21C 25B 29C 33D 37A 2C 6B 10A 14D 18A 22A 26C 30C 34D 38A 3C 7A 11B 15B 19D 23D 27A 31C 35A 39 4C 8D 12C 16A 20A 24C 28A 32A 36D 40

PAPER - II
PART XXV 1. If electrolyte from a lead acid battery is split in the battery compartment, which procedure should be followed (a) Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by the water rinse (b) Rinse the affected area thoroughly with the clean water. (c) Apply sodium-bi-carbonate solution to the affected area followed by the water rinse (d) All of the above 2. Which of the following can provide the empty weight on an aircraft if the aircrafts weight and balance record become lost, destroyed or otherwise inaccurate (a) Re-weighing the aircraft (b) Aircraft specification (c) Type certificate datasheet (d) Flight manual 3. The useful load of an aircraft consists of (a) Crew, useable fuel, passengers and cargo (b) Crew, useable fuel, oil and fixed equipments (c) Crew, passengers, useable fuel, oil, cargo and fixed equipments (d) None of the above 4. The maximum weight of an aircraft is (a) Empty weight + crew, maximum fuel weight (b) Maximum fuel weight, cargo, baggage and passenger (c) Empty weight + crew, passengers and fixed equipments (d) Empty weight + useful loads 5. Zero fuel weight is (a) Dry weight + the weight of full crew, passenger and cargo (b) Basic operating weight without crew, fuel and cargo (c) Maximum permissible weight of a loaded aircraft without fuel (d) None of the above 6. Amount of fuel used for computing empty weight and corresponding C.G is (a) Empty fuel tanks (b) Useable fuel (c) The amount of fuel necessary for half hour of operation (d) Full tank fuel

7. Two boxes which weigh 10 pounds and 5 pounds are replaced in an airplane so that their distance from C.G are 4 feet and 2 feet respectively. How far forward of the C.G should a third box weighing 20 pounds be placed so that the C.G will not be changed. (a) 3 feet (b) 2.5 feet (c) 3.5 feet (d) 8 feet 8. Flexible hose used in aircraft system is classified with (a) Outside diameter (b) Wall thickness (c) Inside diameter (d) Outside dia-inside dia 9. Scratch or Nicks on the straight portion of aluminium alloy tubing may be repaired if they are no deeper than (a) 20% of the wall thickness (b) 1/32 inch or 20% of wall thickness, whichever is less (c) 10% of the wall thickness (d) None of these 10. When installing bonded clamps to support metal tubing (a) Paint should be removed (b) Paint clamp and tube after installation (c) Leave as it is (d) Remove paint or anodizing from tube and clamp location 11. A 3/8 inch aircraft high pressure flexible hose as compare to 3.8 inch metal tubing used in the same system will (a) Have about the same outer diameter (b) Have equivalent flow characteristic (c) Usually have interchangeable application (d) Have same internal diameter 12. What method of magnetic particles inspection is used often to inspect aircraft parts for invisible cracks (a) Residual (b) Inductance (c) Intermittent (d) Continuous 13. In performing a dye-penetrate inspection, the developer (a) Act as blotter to produce a visible indication (b) Seeps into a surface crack to indicate the presence of cracks (c) Thoroughly cleans the surface prior to the inspection (d) Perform no function 14. What type of corrosion attacks grain boundary of aluminium alloy which are improperly or inadequately heat treated (a) Filiform (b) Intergranular (c) Fretting (d) Strain 15. Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft bolts should be installed so that the bolt head is

(a) Upward or in a forward direction (b) Downward or in a forward direction (c) Downward or in a rearward direction (d) Upward or in a rearward direction 16. A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is classified as an (a) AN corrosion resistance steel (b) NAS standard aircraft bolt (c) NAS closed tolerance bolt (d) Magnetic resistance bolt 17. A bolt with an X-inside a triangle on the head is classified as an (a) AN corrosion resistance steel bolt (b) NAS aircraft bolt (c) NAS closed tolerance bolt (d) Aluminium bolt 18. Which tool can be used to measure the alignment of a rotor shaft or the plain of rotation of a disc (a) Dial indicator (b) Shaft gauge (c) Protector (d) Micro meter 19. Weather waning tendency is greatest than taxying (a) Either type of aeroplane in a quartering tail wind (b) A tail wheel type aeroplane in a direct cross wind (c) In a nose wheel type aeroplane quartering head wind (d) A tail wheel type aeroplane parallel wind 20. When taxying an aircraft, an alternating red and green light from the control tower means (a) Move clear of the runway/taxy way immediately (b) OK to proceed but used extreme caution (c) Return to starting point (d) Stop where are 21. The color of 100 ll fuel is (a) Blue (b) Colorless or straw (c) Red (d) Green 22. A fuel that does not vaporize readily enough can cause (a) Vapour lock (b) Detonation (c) Hard starting (d) None 23. Nickel cadmium battery case and drain surfaces which have been affected by electrolyte should be neutralized with a solution of (a) Boric acid (b) Sodium bi-carbonate (c) Potassium hydroxide (d) Sodium chloride

24. Corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of (a) Excessive Anodization (b) Contact between two unlike metals (c) Excessive etching (d) Surface carburization 25. Which material is the most acidic (a) Cadmium (b) Magnesium (c) Copper (d) Gold

26. Speed of sound in the atmosphere (a) Varies according to the frequency of sound (b) Varies according to the temperature (c) Varies according to the pressure (d) All of the above 27. Aspect ratio of a wing is defined as the ratio of (a) Wing span to the wind root (b) Square of the chord to the wing span (c) Wing span to the mean chord 28. A wing with a very high aspect ratio will have (a) Low drag at high angles of attack (b) A low stall speed (c) Good control at low speed (d) All of the above 29. Vicious cycle is connected to (a) Nickel cadmium battery (c) Dry cell (b) Sulphuric acid battery (d) None of the above

30. Basically corrosion reduces the strength of materials by the process of (a) Chemical reaction (b) Electrochemical reaction (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) Electromagnetic process 31. Evidence corrosion on stainless steel is an appearance of (a) Brown color rust (b) Green color scum (c) White color debris (d) None of these 32. When corrosion product is removed from surface corrosion, then which type of corrosion is appeared on it? (a) Oxidation corrosion (b) Dry corrosion (c) Pitting corrosion (d) Wet corrosion 33. The metal that is oxidized due to the corrosion attack that is called as (a) Neutralized agent (b) Anodic change (c) Cathodic change (d) None of these

34. Mark the correct statement: (a) Under corrosive environment, most active metal become cathodic (b) Under influence of corrosive agent less active metal become anodic (c) Established condition for corrosion due to the presence of anode and cathode is called as local cell (d) All of the above are true 35. Types of corrosion depends upon (a) Type of materials (c) Shape of metal (b) Size of metal (d) All of the above

36. Crevice corrosion is an example of (a) Surface corrosion (b) Concentration cell corrosion (c) Electrolytic cell corrosion (d) Exfoliation corrosion 37. Which type of corrosion occurs in high-strength materials used as brackets, attached to Al-alloy skin of aircraft (a) Galvanic corrosion (b) Fretting corrosion (c) Stress corrosion (d) Dry corrosion 38. Coca is formed in which type of corrosion? (a) Filiform corrosion (b) Exfoliation corrosion (c) Fretting corrosion (d) Microbial corrosion 39. Which type of corrosion will occur in welded parts? (a) Stress corrosion (b) Inter-crystalline corrosion (c) Fretting corrosion (d) Dissimilar metal corrosion 40. Stress corrosion can be prevented by (a) Shot-penning (b) Shot-bursting (c) As in (a) & increase in the fatigue strength (d) As in (a) & increase in the tensile strength

PAPER - II
PART XXV ANSWERS: 1 5 9 13 17 21 25 29 33B 37A 2 6 10 14 18 22 26 30C 34C 38C 3 7 11 15 19 23 27 31D 35D 39B 4 8 12 16 20 24 28 32C 36B 40C

PAPER - II
PART XXVI 1. In tapered sectioned metal piece, which area is more susceptible to corrosion (a) Exterior surface (b) Interior surface (c) Thin portion (d) Thick portion 2. Mark the correct statement: (a) Inter-crystalline corrosion occurs along grain boundaries of an alloy (b) This is a from of electrochemical attack (c) As in (b) & occurs due to lack of uniformity (d )All of the above 3. Stress corrosion can be detected by (a) Eddy current (c) X-ray (b) Dye-penetrant (d) Ultrasonic method

4. Speed of electro-chemical attack is increased in _________ climate (a) Hot and dry (b) Cold and moist (c) Hot & moist (d) Cold & dry 5. Which type of acid is produced by electrical sparks when combined with moisture in confined spaces? (a) Sulphuric acid (b) Nitric acid (c) Phosphoric acid (d) Chromic acid 6. Which type of corrosion is present in contact area of metal and non-metal joint? (a) O2 concentration cell corrosion (b) Metal ion concentration cell corrosion (c) Filiform corrosion (d) Crevice corrosion 7. Mark the correct statement: (a) The fungus grows at the fuel/water interface (b) As in (a) & temperature range is in between 50-60F. (c) As in (b) & this occurs in integral fuel tank (d) As in (c) & this produces a microbial corrosion 8. Which corrosion is occurred due to improper heat-treatment and welding defects? (a) Metabolic corrosion (b) Inter-granular corrosion (c) Trans-granular corrosion (d) Weld decay corrosion

9. Which of the following coating function as sacrificial protection? (a) Chromium plating (b) Galvanizing (c) Cladding (d) Metal spraying 10. Which nut is used to prevent other nuts from turning on threaded bolt or rod (a) Self-locking nut (b) Jamb but (c) Stainless steel nut with cotter pin (d) None of these 11. The content of CO2 fire extinguisher or N2 pressurized extinguisher is checked by (a) Weight and pressure gauge (b) Marking on neck (c) By operating the extinguisher (d) All of the above 12. Choose incorrect statement: (a) Yellow polypropylene provide insufficient strength (b) Proper tension in rope allows 1 movement (c) Manila rope requires extra slack due to shrinks (d) The rope requires extra slack due to shrinks 13. Which type of jack is used for L/G retraction check (a) Single base jack (b) Bottle neck jack (c) Screw jack (d) Tripod jack 14. Which measuring tool is used for outside or inside measurement for faster work (a) Vernier micrometer (b) Vernier caliper (c) Micrometer caliper (d) None of these 15. Which is incorrect statement (a) If corrosion is present in control cable should be replaced (b) Cable used in seaplane must be coated with para-ketone (c) For detection of corrosion, cable twist in same way of lay (d) Carbon steel cable must be used with protective coating 16. After welding aluminium parts flux should be removed by (a) Immersing them in like warm water for 30 minutes (b) Mechanical means, i.e. wire brushing as the flux is not soluble in water (c) Washing the parts in boiling water containing 5% HNO3 (d) Vacuum blasting 17. A gusset is (a) A bracing between longerons bracket (c) Used for fail safe construction (b) A type of connecting (d) Like a butt plate

18. The unit where calculations are preferred is called (a) Central processing unit (CPU) (b) Control Unit (c) Arithmetic and logic unit (ALU) (d) Computing unit 19. EDP stands for (a) Electrical data processing processing (c) Entry data processing programme 20. Assembler is (a) An individual who assembles computer (b) Language (c) Program (d) None of the above 21. Input unit of computer communicates between (a) Operator and Computer (b) Memory with printer (c) CPU with monitor (d) Output and Computer 22. The symbol for Hexadecimal is (a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 10 23. In computer terminology, MICR means (a) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (b) Magnetic Ink Computer Recognition (c) Monitor Indicating Computer Relay (d) Mass Information Computer Record 24. Speed of processor is measured in (a) Kilobit / Sec (b) Hertz 25. A byte is a group of (a) 2 bits (b) 4 bits (c) 8 bits (c) Byte (d) 16 bits (d) 16 (d) RPM (d) 16 (b) Electronic data (d) Electronic discrete

26. In digital computer system, number of states used is (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 8 27. The term ROM means (a) Random Operation Memory Memory (c) Read only Memory

(d) Read and Operate (d) None

28. The energy of a capacitor having capacitance C and voltage V is given by

(a) 0.5 CV2 0.5 C2V

(b) CV

(c) C2V

(d)

29. One unit of magnetic flux is given by (a) Weber (b) Weber per meter square (c) Square root of Weber (d) Henery 30. Generators works on the principle of (a) Faradays law of electromagnetic induction (b) Ohms law (c) Biot - severts law (d) Gausss law 31. The Capacitor of a parallel plate is given by (a) Ac / d (b) A2C / d (c) Ad / c (d) None

32. If there are N number of cells, each having voltage E and internal resistance r are connected in series, then the resulting e.m.f of the circuit is given by (a) NE volt (b) E/N volt (c) E volt (d) NEr volt 33. The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely resistive circuit is given by (a) 0 (b) 90 (c) 45 (d) 135 34. One micro farad is equal to (a) 0.001 milli farad (c) 1000 milli farad (b) 100 milli farad (d) 10 milli farad

35. The ability of magnet to restore magnetism is called (a) Retentivity (b) Permitivity (c) Store ability (d) both (a) & (c) 36. If Im is the maximum current for sine AC then its R.M.S value is given by (a) 0.707 Im (b) Im (c) 0.5 Im (d) 1.414 Im 37. The relationship between voltage and current in a purely inductive circuit is given by (a) Voltage leads the current by 90 (b) Current lags the voltage by 90 (c) both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above 38. By voltage division rule the voltage drop V1 in the circuit will be (a) V1 = (R2 x Vs) / (R1+R2) (b) V1 = (R1 x Vs) / (R1+R2)

(c) V1 = Vs x (R1+R2) / R1 (d) None 39. If inductance is doubled and the capacitance is halved , then resonant frequency F0 (a) Doubled (b) Halved (c) Remains same (d) Squared root of F0 40. 50000000 Hz stands for (a) 5 MHz (b) 0.5 MHz MHz (c) 50MHz (d) 500

PAPER - II
PART XXVI

ANSWERS: 1D 5B 9C 13D 17B 21A 25C 29A 33A 37C 2D 6D 10B 14B 18C 22D 26A 30A 34A 38B 3B 7A 11A 15C 19B 23A 27C 31A 35A 39C 4C 8B 12A 16C 20C 24B 28A 32A 36A 40 C

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