Phy 01

MECHANICS
SECTION 1
QUESTIONS
1. Two vectors have magnitudes in the ratio 1:2. Their vector sum is perpendicular to the
smaller vector. The angle between the vectors is
a) 150
0
b) between 150
0
and 120
0

c) 120
0
c) between 120
0
and 90
0

2. Two satellites A and B revolve round earth in circular orbits of radius r and 1.01r. The
percentage increase in the period of B with respect to A is
a) 0.5 b) 0.75 c) 1 d) 1.5
3. Which of the following pair has not same dimension?
a) Curie and angular velocity b) velocity gradient and frequency of light
c) Gravitational field and latent heat d) potential gradient and force per unit charge
4. Three particles of same mass rest on the corners of an equilateral triangle. The gravitational
force between any two of them has a magnitude F. Then gravitational force on any of them
has magnitude
a) F b) 2F c) 3 F d) 2 F
5. The momentum of a car is increased by 10% and then decreased by 10%. In the process the
kinetic energy of car
a) increases by 2% b) decreases by 2%
c) increases by 1% d) decreases by 1%
6. The position vector of a particle is j
) t (sin a i
) t cos a ( r + = . The velocity vector is

a) perpendicular to position vector b) parallel to position vector
c)always directed towards origin d) always directed away from the origin
7. Read the following statements A and B:
A: If a quantity has units, it will have dimensions.
B: If a quantity has dimensions, it will have units
Of these statements
a) Both A and B are true b) Both A and B are false
c) A is true but B is false d) B is true but A is false
8. The equation of the motion of a body initially at rest is given by
dt
dv
= 8-4v, where v is
velocity of the body at the time. Check the wrong statement
a) terminal velocity of the body is 2m/s
b) initial acceleration of the body is 8 m/s
2

c) the velocity of the body when acceleration is half the initial value is 1 m/s
d) velocity is related to time by the equation v = at + bt
2
where a and b are constants.
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MORE PRACTICE PAPERS FOR IIT-JEE

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9. A set of N cubical blocks rest on a smooth horizontal table such that distance between 2 near
surfaces of the block is L. The block at one end is given a speed v to the next at the time t =
0. All collisions are perfectly inelastic. then the last block starts to move after a time

v
L ) 1 N ( N
) d
v 2
L ) 1 N ( N
) c
v 2
L ) 1 N (
) b
v
L ) 1 N (
) a

10. In the previous question, centre of mass of the system will have a final speed
a) zero b)
2
v
c) v d)
N
v

11. A rocket moves with a speed v where air resistance is proportional to the cube of its speed. If
the speed of the rocket is to be increased by 1%, the increase in the power will be
a) 1% b) 2% c) 3% d) 4%
12. Water issuing out as a horizontal jet with a speed v
1
at a rate V m
3
per second strikes a plate
normally moving towards it with a speed v
2
. If density of water is p and water splashes down
after hitting the plate, the force on the plate in newton is
a) pv
1
V b) p(v
1
+v
2
) V c) p(v
2
-v
1
)V d)
2 1
2
1
v v
V pv
+

13. Read the following statements carefully.
Statements x: A vector quantity has magnitude and direction.
Statement y: All quantities, which have magnitude and direction, are vectors. Here
a) both statements are correct b) both statements are not correct
c) x is correct and y is not d) y is correct and x is not
14. If R is the radius of earths orbit round sun, the angular momentum of earth round sun is
proportional to
a) R
2
b) R
3/2
c) R d) R
1/2
15. Two particles P and Q move towards each other due to mutual gravitational force. At a
certain time the speed of P is v and speed of Q is 2v. The speed of centre of mass of the
system is
a) 0 b) v/2 c) 3v/2 d) v
16. Two masses 0.4 and 0.6 kg are suspended from the zeroeth and hundredth cm division of a
meter scale of negligible mass. It is required to rotate the meter scale with constant angular
velocity with minimum work. The axis of rotation should pass through at
a) 40 cm b) 50 cm c) 60 cm d) 70 cm
17. An infinite number of point masses m kg each are placed at a distances x = 1cm, x = 2cm, x =
8 cm.....etc from a point 0 on the x-axis. The gravitational potential at the point 0 in J/kg is
a) infinity b) zero c) -100 Gm d) -200 Gm
18. A simple pendulum of length L has a bob of mass m. It sis displaced by an angle to the
vertical. If T is a tension of a string, v is the speed of the bob then, check the correct
statement
a) T = mg cos b) T = mg cos -
L
mv
2

c) T = mg cos +
L
mv
2
d) T cos = mg
19. The gravitational force between a planet and a satellite varies by a distance law f r
n
. The
period of the satellite will be independent of distance if n is equal to
a) 1 b) 2 c) -1 d) 3/2

3
20. Two boys A and B hold two ends of a light rope carrying a 1 kg weight at the centre. If the
length of the rope is 1 metre the work done by the boys to straighten the rope is
a) 0 b) infinity c) 4.9 J d) 9.8 J
21. Two particles of mass m each move in a circle of radius r due to their mutual gravitational
force. The period of their motion is

3
3 3 3
r
Gm
2 ) d
Gm
r
) c
Gm
r
4 ) b
Gm
r
2 ) a
22. A car, a truck and a lorry of masses in the ratio 1:2:3 have equal kinetic energy. Their braking
forces are also same. When brakes are applied at the same time, they are brought to rest in
distances s
1
, s
2
and s
3
respectively. Then
a) s
1
> s
2
> s
3
b) s
1
< s
2
< s
3

c) s
1
= s
2
= s
3
d) s
1
+ s
2
= s
3

23. A shell is fired with an initial velocity u at an angle to the horizontal. At highest point on
its path, it explodes into two equal fragments. One falls vertically down. The distance
between the fragments when they reach the ground is
a) u
2
sin 2/g b) u
2
sin 2/ 2g
c) 2u
2
sin 2/ g d) 3u
2
sin 2/ g
24. The time of a flight of a projectile is 4 s. One second after projection it moves at an angle 45
0
.
Its angle of projection is
a) 60
0
b) tan
-1
(4/3) c) tan
-1
(3/2) d) tan
-1
(2)
25. The velocity vector of the projectile in the above question is parallel to
i
2 i
3 ) d i
3 i
2 ) c i
2 ) b i
2 i
) a + + + +
26. A fly wheel starting from rest and rotating with uniform angular acceleration turns through
100 rad during third second. During fifth second it will turn through an angle (in rad)
a) 100 b) 166.7 c) 180 d) 200
27. When three forces ) k
( x f and k j
2 i
3 f , k
5 j
4 i
3 f
3 2 1
+ = + = + =
G G G
act on a body, the
body moves with uniform velocity. The value of x here is
a) -6 b) 6 c) -9 d) 9
28. A satellite is moving in a circular orbit of radius x around the earth of radius R. The
acceleration of the satellite is
a) g b)
x
R
g ) c
x
gR
d) g
2
2
x
R

29. Check the correct statement for a body in uniform circular motion
a) the body has constant centripetal force b) the body has varying centripetal force
c) the body has constant velocity d ) the body obeys T
2
R
3
law
30. A body of mass 2 kg moves with a velocity (3 ) j
4 i
+ t. The magnitude of force acting on it at

this instant is
a) 6N b) 8N c) 10N d) 7N
31. A particle moves in a parabolic path whose equation is y = 4ax
2
, with a constant x component
of velocity equal to A. The acceleration of the particle is
k
aA 8 ) d k
aA 4 ) c j
aA 8 ) b k
aA 4 ) a
2 2 2

32. For an earth satellite longer orbits will correspond to
a) longer periods and larger velocity b) longer periods and smaller velocity

4
c) smaller periods and smaller velocity d) smaller periods and larger velocity
33. The velocity-time graph of an aero plane moving along a run way is a parabola. This means
aero plane has
a) constant but large acceleration
b) acceleration proportional to time
c) acceleration proportional to square of time
d) acceleration proportional to cube of time
34. The period of a simple pendulum with an iron bob is T. It will be less than T, when the bob is
subjected to
a) a magnetic field directed upwards
b) an electric field directed upwards
c) a magnetic field directed downwards
d) an electric field directed downwards
35. A body falls from a height h and rebounds from a surface of coefficient of restitution e = 1/2.
The number of collisions it will make before it stops is equal to
a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) infinite
36. The total distance travelled by the body before it stops to rebound is
a) 2h b) 3h c) 4h d) 32h
37. A stone is thrown vertically up. It reaches a maximum height of 50 m. The height at which
kinetic energy becomes 60% of the initial value is (in m)
a) 30 b) 50 4 . 0 50 ) c 6 . 0 d) 20
38. A trolley of mass 100 kg moves on a smooth horizontal rails with a monkey of mass 20 kg
inside it, with a speed of 10 m/s. The monkey at some point jumps vertically up and catches
overhanging branch of a tree. The speed of the trolley after this would be
a) 12 m/s b) 10 m/s c) 15 m/s d) 8.33 m/s
39. F is a force represented by the vector j
4 i
2 F + =
G
and s is displacement vector given by
. j
s + =
G
The component of force in the direction of displacement is
a) 2 3 ) c 2 ) b 20 d) 6
40. A body of mass 1 kg is dropped from the top of a tower on a windy day. The wind exerts a
constant horizontal force of 20N on the body. The path of the body will be
a) a parabola b) a straight line c) an ellipse d) an irregular curve
41. A stone A is dropped from the top of a tower of height 40 m. At the same time another stone
B is projected from the bottom of the tower with an initial velocity such that the stones collide
midway. The initial speed of second stone B is (Take g = 10 m/s
2
)
a) 5 m/s b) 10 m/s c) 20 m/s d) 15 m/s
42. A TV signal sent from a station A to Insat 1-C is received back in a neighboring station B in a
time t seconds. The value of t here is nearest to
a) 1 s b) 0.1 s c) 0.125 s d) 0.24 s
43. A person is standing at a distance of 8m from a train. The train starts with acceleration 1
m/s
2
. The person also starts at the same time with an acceleration 2m/s
2
. The time in which
he catches the train is
a) 2 s b) 4s c) 8s d) 16s
44. A particle moves with a constant velocity parallel to the x-axis . Its angular momentum with
respect to the origin
a) increases b) decreases

5
c) first increases and then decreases d) remains the same
45. The escape velocity of a body projected at an angle 5
0
with the horizontal from the earth in (in
km/s) is
a) 11.2 b) 11.2 cos 5
0
c) 11.2 sin 5
0
d) infinite
46. Two uniform gold spheres of radius R each exert a gravitational force of F when in contact.
The gravitational force of two uniform gold spheres of radius 2R in contact will be
a) F/16 b) F/4 c) F d) 16F
47. The altitude of earth satellite in terms of radius of earth R, when it has a velocity 4km/s is
a) R b) 2R c) 3R d) 4R
48. Two forces 100N and 150N act on a body of mass 100 kg. The minimum acceleration this
body can have under their combined action is (in m/s
2
)
a) 3.5 b) 1.5 c) 1.25 d) 0.5
49. A passenger in a car taking a curve feels a centrifugal force on him. This force is
a) exerted by car on him b) exerted by ground on him through the car
c) the reaction to the centripetal force d) due to inertia
50. The gravitational field at a point at a distance of r from the centre of a uniform sphere of
radius R for r < R is proportional to
a) 1/r
2
b) 1/r c) r d) r
2

51. A particle moving in a horizontal circle of radius r has centripetal force F = -k/r
2
, where k is a
constant. The kinetic energy of the particle is
a) k/r b) k
2
/r
2
c) 2k/r d) k/2r
52. The minimum acceleration with which a fireman can climb down a rope of breaking tension
60% of his weight is
a) 0.4 g b) 0.6 g c) 0.2 g d) 0.3 g
53. ABC is a triangular plate of uniform thickness with sides AB: BC: CA in the ratio 1:3:5. If
I
AB
is the moment of inertia about AB, I
BC
that about BC and I
CA
that about CA, which one of
the following is correct ?
a) I
BC
= I
AB
b) I
AB
+ I
BC
= I
CA
c) I
CA
is minimum d) I
AB
< I
BC
54. A block takes t seconds to slide down a smooth inclined plane of angle 45
0
. The same block
takes 2t seconds to slide down a rough inclined plane of same angle. The coefficient of
friction of the second plane is
a) 0.5 b) 1/2 c) 0.75 d) 1/22
55. A heavy nucleus at rest emits can particle. Then
a) momentum of is greater than that of nucleus
b) momentum of nucleus is greater than that of
c) kinetic energy of nucleus is greater than that of
d) kinetic energy of is greater than that of nucleus
56. A thin uniform needle has a moment of inertia I
1
about centre of mass axis. It is bent into a
ring. The moment of inertia is I
2
about c.m. then I
1
/ I
2
will be
a)
2
/3 b)
2
/4 c)
2
/12 d) 3/
2

57. Assuming earth to be a uniform sphere of density , period of a satellite close to earth is
related to the density by the equation t is proportional to
a) b) c) 1/ d) 1/
58. Three forces each of magnitude 1 N act from one corner towards the other three corners of a
square. Their sum has a magnitude nearest to
a) 3 N b) 1 N c) 1.4 N d) 2.4 N

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59. A laboratory on earth can be taken as
a) an inertial frame strictly
b) an inertial frame approximately
c) a non-inertial frame strictly
d) either depending on where we are looking from
60. A particle is falling freely along an inclined plane. It travels the last 1/3 of the distance with
1/n
th
of the total time of fall. Here n is nearest to
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
61. A car is travelling on a level road of coefficient of static friction 0.8. The car cannot have an
acceleration more than
a) 0.8 m/s
2
b) 8 m/s
2
c) 4 m/s
2
d) 10 m/s
2

62. A mixture of sea water of specific gravity 1.1 is mixed with fresh water of specific gravity 1.
If the mixture has specific gravity 1.04 the ratio of volume of sea water to volume of fresh
water is
a) 1:1.04 b) 5:4 c) 5:2 d) 3:2
63. A disc with a small hole is rotating through centre of mass axis with a constant period. If the
centre of the disc is heated the period of rotation will
a) increase b) decrease
c) remain same d) may increase or decrease
64. A uniform cylinder of length L and mass M having cross-sectional area A is suspended, with
its length vertical, from a fixed point by a mass less spring of force constant k, such that it is
half-submerged in a liquid of density at equilibrium position. When the cylinder is given a
small downward push and released it oscillates with small amplitude and with a frequency

2 / 1
2 / 1
2
2 / 1 2 / 1
g A
g A k
2
1
) d
M
gL k
2
1
) c
M
g A k
2
1
) b
M
g A k
2
1
) a
(
(
(

65. Imagine a light planet revolving around a very massive star in a circular orbit of radius R with
a period of revolution T. If the gravitational force of attraction between the planet and the star
is proportional to R
-5/2
, then
a) T
2
2
b) T
2
7/2

c) T
2
3/2
d) T
2
3.75

66. *A particle is acted upon by a force is constant magnitude which is always perpendicular to
the velocity of the particle. The motion of the particle takes place in a plane. It follows that
a) its velocity is constant b) its acceleration is constant
c) its kinetic energy is constant d) it moves in a circular path
67. 1 kg of cotton is balanced by 1 kg of a brass weight in a balance covered with a bell jar. If the
bell jar is evacuated,
a) the cotton pan will go down b) the brass pan will go down
c) both will remain in equilibrium d) cotton will first go up and then come down
68. *A diametrical tunnel is dug along the earth. A particle is dropped from a point at a height h
directly above the tunnel. Assuming earths density to be uniform, a frictional forces are
negligible,
a) the particle reaches the same height on the other side
b) the particle will have zero acceleration when it passes through the centre of the earth.
c) the particle has maximum acceleration at the point of release

7
d) the particle will oscillate simple harmonically
69. When a running athlete stops after a race
a) only his momentum is conserved by himself
b) only his kinetic energy is conserved by himself
c) both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved by him
d) neither momentum nor kinetic energy is conserved by him
70. A block of mass 0.1 kg is held against a wall by applying a horizontal force of 5N on the
block. If the coefficient of friction between the block and the wall is 0.5 the magnitude of the
frictional force acting on the block is
a) 2.5 N b) 0.98 N c) 4.9 N d) 0.49 N
71. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant radius r such that its centripetal
acceleration a
c
is varying with time t as a
c
= k
2
rt
2
where k is a constant. The power delivered
to the particle by the forces acting on it is
a) 2mk
2
r
2
t b) mk
2
r
2
t c) (mk
2
r
2
t
5
)/3 d) zero
72. One end of a long metallic wire of length L is tied to the ceiling. The other end is tied to a
massless spring of spring constant K. A mass m hangs freely from the free end of the spring.
The area of cross section and the Youngs modulus of the wire are A and Y respectively. If
the mass is slightly pulled down and released, it will oscillate with a time period T equal to

YA
mL
2 ) d
KL
mYA
2 ) c
YAK
) KL YA ( m
2 ) b
K
m
2 ) a

+

73. Among the forces in nature, friction can be classified into
a) gravitational b)electro magnetic c) weak nuclear d) strong nuclear
74. When a body covers one quadrant of a circle of radius 0.1 metre, the ratio of distance
travelled by it to the magnitude of displacement is
a) 1 b) /2 c) /2 d) /22
75. When a person walks along east, the force of friction is along
a) east b) west
c) any where from east to west d) anywhere from north to south
76. If distance of earth from sun reduces to half the present value, the number of days in an year
would be nearly
a) 730 b) 229 c) 182 d) 130
77. Two bodies of same mass but of different material are released from same height in a medium
where air resistance cannot be neglected. Then
a) the denser body reaches ground first
b) the less dense body reaches ground first
c) both fall through in the same time
d) cannot be answered from the data
78. The level of water in a trough when a train is at rest is horizontal. The train starts to move
with uniform acceleration towards right. Then water level will
a) still be horizontal
b) incline up towards rear of the train
c) incline up towards front of the train
d) become concave shaped.

8
79. (Fig) Three equal weights of mass 2 kg each are hanging on a string passing over a fixed
pulley as shown in the fig. What is the tension of the string connecting weights B and C ?
a) 1.3 N b) 1.3 kgwt
c) 3.3 N d) 19.6 N
80. If a body moves under constant power, the distance s travelled by
it will be related to the time t by the equation
a) s t
3/2
b) s t
2/3

c) s t
2
d) s t
1/2

81. Two bodies M and N of equal mass are suspended from two
separate massless springs of spring constant k
1
and k
2

respectively. If the two bodies oscillate vertically such that their
maximum velocities are equal, the ratio of amplitude of vibration
of M to that of N is equal to
a)
2
1
k
k
b)
1
2
k
k
c)
1
2
k
k
1
d)
2
1
k
k

82. If in the above question, the bodies oscillate so that they have equal maximum acceleration,
the amplitude ratio of M to N is
a)
2
1
k
k
b)
2
1
k
k
c)
1
2
k
k
1
d)
1
2
k
k

83. *A linear harmonic oscillator of force constant 2 x 10
6
N/m and amplitude 0.01 m has a total
mechanical energy of 160 J. Its
a) maximum potential energy is 100 J
b) maximum kinetic energy is 100 J
c) maximum potential energy is 160 J
d) minimum potential energy is zero
84. A boat which has a speed of 5 km/h in still water crosses a river width 1 km along the shortest
possible path in 15 minutes. The velocity of the river water in km/h is
a) 1 b) 3 c) 4 d) 41
85. A particle executes simple harmonic motion of frequency, f. The frequency with which its
kinetic energy oscillates is
a) 2f b) f c)
2
f
d) 4f
86. A shell is fired from a cannon with a velocity V(m/s) at an angle with the horizontal
direction. At the highest point in its path it explodes into two pieces of equal mass. One of
the pieces retraces its path to the cannon and the speed (in m/s) of the other piece immediately
after the explosion is
a) 2 v cos b) 3v cos c)
2
3
v cos d)
2
3
v cos
87. The position of a particle at time t, is given by the relation: x(t) =
(
0
V
(1-e
t
), where V
0
is a
constant and > 0. The dimensions of V
0
and are, respectively,
a) M
0
L
1
T
0
and T
1
b) M
0
L
1
T
1
and T c) M
0
L
1
T
-1
and T
2
d) M
0
L
1
T
-1
and T
-1

88. In a simple harmonic motion, when the displacement is half the amplitude, what fraction of
the total energy is kinetic?
A C
B


9
a)
4
3
b) zero c)
4
1
d)
2
1

89. If radius of earth contracts to (1/n)
th
, with its mass remaining constant, the duration of the day
in hour will be
a) 24 b)
n
24
c) 24 n d)
2
n
24

90. A uniform chain of mass M and length L rests on a smooth table with one fourth of its length
hanging. the work required to pull the hanging portion is
a)
2
MgL
b)
4
MgL
c)
16
MgL
d)
32
MgL

91. When n vectors of different magnitudes are added the sum is zero. Then n cannot be
a) 11 b) 6 c) 4 d) 2
92. *In figure, .the spring balance A reads 2 kg with a block m
suspended form it. A balance B reads 5 kg when a beaker
with liquid is put on the pan of the balance. The two
balances are now so arranged that the hanging mass is inside
the liquid in the beaker as shown in fig. In this situation
a) the balance A will read more than 2 kg
b) the balance B will read more than 5 kg
c) the balance A will read less than 2 kg and B will read
more than 5 kg
d) the balances A and B will read 2 kg and 5 kg respectively
93. The moment of inertia of a thin square plate ABCD, (Fig) of uniform thickness about an axis
passing through the centre 0 and perpendicular to the plane
of the plate is (where I
1
, I
2
, I
3
, I
4
are MI about the axis in its
plane)
a) I
1
+ I
2
b) I
3
+ I
4

c) I
1
+ I
3
d) I
1
+ I
2
+ I
3
+ I
4

94. A tube of length L is filled completely with an
incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both the
ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane about
one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity . The
force exerted by the liquid at the other end is
a) M
2
L/2 b) M
2
L c) M
2
L/4 d) M
2
L
2
/2
95. A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of radius 10m with a constant speed of 10 m/s.
A plumb bob is suspended from the roof of the car by a light rigid rod of length 1.00m. The
angle made by the rod with the track is
a) zero b) 30
0
c) 45
0
d) 60
0

96. During a rainstorm, raindrops are observed to be striking the ground at an angle of with the
vertical. A wind is blowing horizontally at the speed of 5.0 m s
-1
. The speed of raindrop is
(in m/s)
a) 5 sin b)
sin
5
c) 5 cos d)
cos
5

97. A 2 kg stone at the end of a string 1 m long is whirled in a vertical circle at a constant speed
of 4 m s
-1
. The tension in the string will be 52 N when the stone is
a) at the top of the circle b) halfway down
I
1
I
2
I
3
I
4
A
B

10
c) at the bottom of the circle d) anywhere on the circle
98. The volume of an air bubble is doubled when it rises from the bottom to the surface of a lake.
The depth of the lake is approximately
a) 10 m b) 15 m c) 25 m d) 30 m
99. A body of certain material floats with 9/10 of volume submerged in water in earth. In a
planet, where acceleration due to gravity is five times that of earth, the submerged fraction
will be
a)
10
9
b)
50
9
c)
10
5 9
d)
250
9

100. If the change in the value of g at a height h above the surface of the earth (radius R) is the
same as that at a depth x below it (assuming h << R and x <<R), then
a) x = h b) x = 2h c) x =
2
h
d) x =
3
h

101. A mass M attached to a light spring oscillates with a period of 2s. If the mass is increased by
2 kg, the eperiod increases by 1 s. the value of M is
a) 1.0 kg b) 2.4 kg c) 2.0 kg d) 1.6 kg
102. The torque produced by a tangential force F, applied to the rim of a disk of radius R will be
a)
R
F
b)
2
R
F
c)
R
F
d) FR
103. A solid cylinder of radius r rolls down an inclined plane without slipping. The speed of the
centre of mass when it reaches the bottom is
gh 4 ) d
4
gh 3
) c
3
gh 4
) b gh 2 ) a
104. A mass m suspended by a strong of length L is executing simple harmonic motion of
frequency f. The frequency will become 2f if
a) the mass m is doubled
b) the mass is reduced to m/4
c) the length of the string is reduced to L/4
d) the length is doubled
105. A uniform rope lies on a table such that a part of it hangs down the table. When the length of
the hanging part is 1/3 of the entire length, the rope begins to slide. The coefficient of friction
between the rope and the table is
a)
2
1
b)
3
2
c)
3
1
d)
6
1

106. A bucket of water is tied to a rope of length 2.5 m and whirled in a vertical circle. The
maximum period for water not spill from the bucket is (g = 10 m/s
2
)
a) 1 s b) s c) 2 s d) 2 s
107. The escape velocity of a body on the surface of the earth is 11.2 km/s. The escape velocity at
an altitude 3R, where R is the radius of the earth is (in km/s)
a) 22.4 b) 11.2/3 c) 11.2 x 3 d) 5.6
108. Two satellites A and B each of mass m, are revolving round the earth (of mass M) in a
circular orbit of radius r. The two are moving in opposite direction and hence poised for a
collision. On collision the two coalesce to form one body. The total energy of the system
after collision is

11
a) zero b)
r
GMm 2
c)
r 2
GMm
d)
r
GMm

109. The angular velocity with which the earth would have to rotate about its axis so that a person
on the equator would feel 3/5 th of his weight is equal to

R 3
g 2
) d
R 5
g 3
) c
R 5
g 2
) b
R
g 2
) a
110. A wire of length L, cross sectional area A and Youngs modulus Y is stretched through a
length x. The work done in the process is
a)
L
YAx
b)
L 2
YAx
c)
L
YAx
2
d)
L 2
YAx
2

111. A missile is launched from moon with a velocity equal to 3km/s. The sum of potential and
kinetic energy of the missile will be
a) positive
b) negative
c) could be positive or negative depending on the direction of launch
d) zero
112. From a tap water drops are falling at a regular interval of one second. When the fourth drop
is released , first drop reaches the ground. Then distance between third and second drop at the
instant of release fo fourth drop is (take g = 10 m/s
2
).
a) 15 m b) 20 m c) 25 m d) 5 m
113. The dimensions of energy density is same as that of
a) pressure b) force
c) acceleration d) (velocity)
2

114. The error in measuring resistance of a wire is 1%, that in measuring radius 1% and that in
length 1%. The error in measuring resistivity of the wire is
a) 0% b) 2% c) 3% d) 4%
115. Which of the following is a not a unit of distance
a) fermi b) astronomical unit c) light year d) barn
116. The ratio of linear momentum to angular momentum will have the dimensions of
a) velocity gradient b) Rydberg constant c) gravitational field d) force
117. The equation to damping force = constant x velocity. The unit of this constant would be
a) kgs
-1
b) N c) Nm
-2
d) kgs
-2

118. In the equation v = a+
b
t
c
t
+
2
, where v is velocity , t time, the unit of b is same as that of
a) length b) acceleration c) angle d) area
119. In the equation I = I
o
(1-e
-t
), I is the current, t, is time. Then the dimension of is same that
of
a) current b) time c) angular velocity d) charge
120. Which of the following is a unit of resistivity?
a) VA
-1
b) VAm
-1
c) VA
-1
m
-1
d) VA
-1
m
121. The dimension of a quantity whose unit is `torris
a) ML
-1
T
-2
b) MLT
-2
c) LT
-2
d) LT
-1

122. The volume of a cube in m
3
is equal to its surface area in m
2
. Then the volume in m
3
is
equal to
a) 1000 b) 100 c) 216 d) 1

12
123. The distance travelled by the body during nth second is given by S
n
= u+a(n-
1
2
). The
dimensions of S
n
here is
a) L
1
b) LT
-1
c) T
-1
d) LT
-2

124. If R is resistance V potential, t time, R
-1
tV
2
has the dimensions of
a) energy b) power c) (current)
2
d) electric field
125. The pair which does not have same dimension is
a) curie and frequency b) angular velocity and velocity gradient
c) coefficient of friction and Reynolds number d) torque and angular momentum
126. Which of the following has units but no dimensions?
a) frequency b) solid angle
c) gravitation constant d) Plancks constant
127. If force F, length L, and time T are assumed as fundamental quantities, the dimensional
formula for mass will be
a) FL
-1
T
2
b) FL
-1
T
-2
c) FLT
-2
d) FLT
2

128. The dimension of gravitational field is same as that of
a) force b) velocity c)acceleration d) momentum
129. kg m
-1
s
-1
is the unit of
a) momentum b) viscosity c) surface tension d) stress
130. E, M, J and G denote energy, mass, angular momentum and gravitation constant respectively.
The dimensions of EJ
2
/M
5
G
2
are that of
a) time b) length c) mass d) angle
131. If is modulus of rigidity, L length, M mass, which of the following will have dimensions
of period?
a) M L b) L / M L / M ) d / ML ) c
132. A body released from the top of a tower falls through a height of 5 m during the first second
of its fall and 35 m during the last second of its fall. The height of the tower is
a). 80 m b) 60 m c) 40 m d) 20 m
133. An electric train starts from a station A, accelerates for 20 s and reaches a speed of 20 m/s,
travels with that speed for next 5 minutes and stops within the next 20 seconds at the station
B. The distance between the stations A and B will be
a) 6800 m b) 3400 m c) 6000 m d) 6400 m
134. The equation to the motion of a body can be written as x = at
3
+bt
2
+ct+d, where a,b,c,d are
positive constants. This body has
a) Uniform acceleration b) Uniform retardation
c) Uniformly increasing acceleration d) Non-uniform and irregular acceleration
135. A cyclist running down a slope takes 2 minutes to reach the bottom of the slope. The time to
cover first 1/4th of the slope will be (in minutes)
a) 1 b) 1.4 c) 0.7 d) 0.5
136. A boat takes t seconds to cover a river when travelling down stream and 3 times of that time
to travel upstream. The ratio of speed of boat to speed of river current is
a) 3:1 b) 2:1 c) 4:1 d) 3:2
137. Check which of the following statement is wrong :
a) a body can have eastward velocity and westward acceleration.
b) a body can have increasing speed and decreasing acceleration
c) a body can have uniform velocity and uniform acceleration.

13
d) a body can have zero velocity and acceleration
138. A stone falling freely covers during the last second distance equal to that in first three
seconds. The time of fall is equal to
a) 4 s b) 4. 5 s c) 5 s d) 6 s
139. The distance time graph of a body dropped from the top of a tower will be
a) a straight line of positive slope through origin
b) a straight line of positive slope not through origin
c) a parabola but not passing through origin
d) a parabola through origin
140. The speed of a body x moving with uniform acceleration is doubled in covering a distance of
y m. When it covers an additional distance y, its speed would become
a) 3x b) 4x c) 6 x d) 7 x
141. A stone falls through a certain height in earth in 2 seconds . In moon where acceleration to
gravity is 1/6 of that of earth, it will fall the same height in ( seconds)
a) 2 b) 24 c) 12 d) 2 3 /
142. A body starts from rest with uniform acceleration a. Its velocity after n second is v. The
displacement of body in the last two seconds is
n 2
) 1 n 2 ( v
) d
n
) 1 n ( v
) c
n
) 1 n ( v
). b
n
) 1 n ( v 2
) a
+ +

143. A bullet strikes a uniform wooden plank with a speed x and emerges with a speed y. If the
plank had only half the thickness, the bullet would have emerged with a speed
a) 2 y b) 2y c) ( ) / x y
2 2
2 + d) (x+y)/2
144. Two bodies A and B are projected with same initial velocity from a point. They travel same
horizontal distance. If the angle of projection of A is , then the ratio of maximum height of
A to that of B is
a) sin
2
b) sin c) tan
2
d) tan
145. A projectile is fired with an initial momentum p at an angle 60
0
to the horizontal. The change
in momentum when it strikes the ground is
a) 0 b) p/2 c) ( 3 /2) p d) p
146. The path of a projectile as seen from another projectile will be
a) a straight line b) a parabola
c) an arc of circle d) an irregular curve
147. A particle moves in a plane with a constant acceleration in a direction different from the
initial velocity. The path of the particle will be
a) a straight line b) an arc of a circle c) a parabola d) an ellipse
148. In the arrangement shown in Fig. the ends of P and Q
of an unstretchable string move downwards with
speed u. The pulleys are fixed. Mass M moves
upwards with speed of:
a) 2ucos b) u/ cos
c) 2u/cos d) ucos
149. Given vector as
G
A i j = + 2 3

, the angle between it
and y-axis is :
a) tan
-1
(3/2) b) tan
-1
(2/3)

14
c) sin
-1
(2/3) d) cos
-1
(2/3)
150. The velocity vector of a certain uniform circular motion is given by
G
v a i b j = +

. The
acceleration vector will be
i
b j
a ) d j
b i
a ) c i
b j
a ) b j
b i
a ) a + +
151. A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity 10 m/s. In 10s the velocity changes to 10 m/s
northwards. The average acceleration during this time is
a) 0 b) 1/ 2 ms
-2
N-E c) 2 ms
-2
N-W d) 1/2 ms
-2
N-W
152. A body is projected from the top of a tower with a constant force in the horizontal direction.
The path of the body will be
a) a parabola b) a straight line c) an arc of a circle d) an irregular curve
153. A stone is tied to one end of a string of length 1 m fixed at the other end . It is projected
horizontally with a velocity 6 m/s so that it moves in vertical plane. Then
a) the stone will complete a vertical circle
b) the stone will reach maximum height and fall down
c) the stone will follow a parabolic path
d) the stone will move in a horizontal straight line
154. A particle is moving in a circle with a velocity v as
shown in fig. The change in velocity when it moves
between two points is
a) 2 v cos 10
0
b) 2 v sin 10
0

c) 2 v cos 20
0
d) 2 v sin 20
0

155. N coplanar force vectors each of length x act such that
each vector makes an angle 2 / N radian with the
preceding vector. The sum of these vectors will be
a) Nx b) x
c) 2x(N-1)/N d) 0
156. The sum of (N-1) force vectors in question 12 has a magnitude
a) (N-1)x b) (N-1)x/2
c) x d) 0
157. If t
1
and t
2
are the times of flight of a projectile for two angles to obtain same horizontal
range, then t
1
t
2 =
a) 2R/g b) R/g
c) R/2g d) 4R/g
Solve the following two problems within a maximum time of 2minutes. Use only one equation.
158. A body A is projected with a velocity 20 m/s from the bottom of a tower of height 40 m. At
the same time a body B is projected down with same velocity 20 m/s down ward in the same
line. Find after what time the bodies meet.
159. Two runners are initially at a distance of 8 metre at rest. They start at the same time with
front runner accelerating at 3 m/s
2
and back runner 4 m/s
2
. After what time the back runner
overtakes the front runner ?
160. A body of mass m projected from lowest point just completes a vertical circle of radius r . Its
total energy is
a) (1/2)mgr b) mgr c) (3/2)mgr d) (5/2)mgr
161. A rope has breaking tension 0.4 of the weight of the climber. In which of the following case
the rope will not break ?
a) when the climber accelerates up with 0.6 g

15
b) when the climber accelerates up with 0.4 g
c) when climber accelerates down with 0.6 g
d) when climber accelerates down with 0.4 g
162. The bridge over a river is in the form of an arc of radius 5 m. What is the safest velocity of a
motor cyclist at the highest point of the bridge?
a) 7 m/s b) 5 m/s c) 9.8 m/s d) 4.9 m/s
163. Which of the following statement(s ) is/are correct in the case of electron going around the
nucleus of an atom?
a) centripetal force is provided by electrostatic force of attraction.
b) The centrifugal force on the electron is balanced by the above electrostatic force of
attraction.
c) If the centripetal force vanishes, the electron will be thrown off outwards due to the
centrifugal force.
d) If nuclear attraction ceases, the electron will take off in a straight line.
164. (Fig.) A body falling from a height h just completes a
vertical circle of diameter AB=D as shown in figure.
Then h =
a) D b) D/2
c) (5/4)D d) (2/5)D
165. A body having a kinetic energy of 100 J explodes into
two pieces of masses in the ratio 3:2. The kinetic
energy of larger piece will be (in J)
a) 60 b) 40
c) 50 d) 60x 3 2 /
166. A body moves so that distance travelled s t
3/2
. This body has
a) constant force acting on it b) constant kinetic energy
c) constant power d) all the above three constant
167. A sharp screw driver of mass M is dropped from a height h on a wooden floor . If the screw
penetrates x metre into wood, the average resistance offered by the wood to the screw is
a) Mg b)
(
+
x
h
1 Mg c)
(

x
h
1 Mg d)
2
x
h
1 Mg
(
+
168. An impulse is supplied to a moving object with the force at an angle of 120
0
with respect to
velocity vector. The angle between the impulse vector and the change in momentum vector is
a) 120
0
b) 0
0
c) 60
0
d) 240
0
169. A body of mass 4 kg explodes into 3 pieces 1 kg, 1 kg and 2 kg. One 1 kg and 2 kg move at
right angles with speeds 2 m/s and 1 m/s respectively. The speed of the other mass is
a) 2 m/s b) 1 m/s c) 3 m/s d) 8 m/s
170. A ball falls through a certain height and after n rebounds raises to (1/n)th of the original
height, where n is an integer greater than 1. The coefficient of restitution of the surface is
a) 1/n b) 1/n
2
c) 1/n d) (1/n)
1/2n
171. When kinetic energy of a body is reduced to half , the momentum decreases by
a) 50% b) 41% c) 71% d) 29%
172. *Three coplanar forces 1,2,3 N act on a body of mass 1 kg. Which of the following statement
(s) is/are correct ?
a) the body can be in equilibrium as the forces can form sides of a triangle.
b) the body can be in equilibrium although the forces cannot form sides of a triangle.
c) the body cannot have an acceleration more than 6 m/s
2


16
d) the body can have an acceleration 3.15 m/s
2
.
173. A horizontally connected system with one mass hanging freely and one mass on the table, has
an acceleration (1/8)g. The ratio of the masses is
a) 7 b) 6 c) 8 d) 4
174. A force F produces an acceleration a on a body. If two such forces act at the same body at the
same time at an angle 120
o
it will have an acceleration
a) 2a b) a c) a/2 d) 2a
175. A force of 1N acts on a body of weight 1N. The acceleration produced on the body is (in
m/s
2
)
a) 1 b) 9.8 c) 1/9.8 d) 4.9
176. A body of mass 4 kg moves along the X-axis with a speed 1.5 m/s. A force of 4N is applied
along the Y-axis. The distance of the body from the origin after 4 s will be
a) 20 m b) 14 m c) 10 m d) 5 m
177. A body of mass 20 kg at rest is acted on by 10 N force for 3 s and then 20 N force for 4 s and
then 30 N force for 5 s in the same direction.. The velocity of the body now would be (in m/s)
a) 13 b) 10/3 c) 20/3 d) 26
178. A body at rest on a rough horizontal surface starts with an acceleration when a force f is
applied. When the force is doubled, the acceleration increases to 4 times. The force
necessary just to start the body will be
a) f b) 2f c) f/2 d) 2f/3
179. A constant force of 20N acting on the body makes it to move with a constant velocity 10 m/s
at an angle 30 degrees with the force. The power developed by the body in W is
a) 200 b) 100 c) 1003 d) 400/3
180. The string of a conical pendulum will become horizontal when
a) its speed of revolution is infinite b) its speed of revolution is zero
c) its speed of revolution is low but not zero d) speed of revolution is high but not infinite
181. Three bodies of masses in the ratio 1:2:3 have equal momentum. Their kinetic energy will be
in the ratio
a) 1:2:3 b) 3:2:1 c) 1:4:9 d) 6:3:2
182. A can filled with water is revolved in a vertical circle of radius 4 m so that water does not just
fall down at the highest point . The time period of revolution of the can is (Take g =
2
)
a) 8 s b) 4 s c) 2 s d) 1 s
183. A spring stretched by x has a potential energy U . If it is stretched by 2x more, the
increase in potential energy due to second stretching is
a) 2U b) 4U c) 6U d) 8U
184. When a train moves with a speed of 30 km/h, frictional force on it is 10N/100 kg. Check the
correct statement(s):
a) When the speed increases to 60 km/h ,the frictional force is doubled
b) When the speed increases to 60 km/h ,the frictional force becomes 4 times
c) During increase of speed from 30 to 60 the frictional force will increase
d) the frictional force will be same at 30 and 60 km/h
185. A bullet of mass m moving at a speed of v strikes on a block of mass 2m suspended by a
string and gets embedded in it. If the block rises through a height h the speed of the bullet is
a) gh 2 b) gh 3 c) gh 6 d) gh 2
186. The same force is applied to bodies of different masses . If the accelerations are plotted with
their respective masses the correct graph will be

17

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
187. A body falling from a height strikes a surface with a speed v. If it loses 10% of its kinetic
energy after each impact, its velocity after second impact will be
a) 0.9 v b) 0.8 v c) 0.81 v d) 0.6 v
188. Two spheres of masses 2 kg and 1 kg moving with velocity 4 m/s and 2 m/s respectively
collide inelastically . If e = 0.5, the loss of kinetic energy after collision is
a) 6 J b) 3J c) 1.5J d) 1 J
189. A lorry requires a minimum stopping distance of s, when it has a momentum p. When it has a
momentum 2p the stopping distance would be
a) s b) 2s c) 1.4s d) 4s
190. Two balls having same initial energy are projected, one vertically up and the other at an
angle of 30
0
to the horizontal Their potential energy at the highest point will be in the ratio
a) 4:3 b) 3:4 c) 4:1 d) 1:4
191. The balls having the same initial of kinetic energy are projected at angles 30
0
and 60
0
. The
ratio of their kinetic energy at highest point will be
a) 4:3 b) 3:4 c) 4:1 d) 3:1
192. A coin falls vertically from a height to a surface of coefficient of restitution e = 0.5. The
energy lost at the first rebound as percentage of original energy is
a) 25 b) 50 c) 75 d) 80
193. A force produces an acceleration a
1
on a body of mass m
1
and an acceleration a
2
on a body of
mass m
2
. Then the acceleration produced by the same force on combined mass m
1
+m
2
will
be
a) a
1
+a
2
b) (a
1
+a
2
)/2 c) a
1
a
2
d) a
1
a
2
/ a
1
+a
2

194. A freely falling body loses gravitational potential energy U and attains a velocity v. The mass
of this body is
a) 2U/v
2
b) U/ v
2
c) (U)/ 2v
2
d) 2U/v
195. A shell has a kinetic energy E . During flight it explodes into a number of small pieces. Then
the sum of kinetic energies of all these pieces will be
a) E b) less than E c) more than E d) 0
196. A body of mass 1 kg has a velocity 3 4

i j + . Its kinetic energy in J is equal to
a) 50 b) 50 c) 25 d) 12.5
197. Assume air resistance to the motion of a rocket is proportional to square of its speed at initial
stages. The ratio of power required at a speed 4 km/s to that required at a speed 8 km/s is
a) 1:1 b) 1:2 c) 1:4 d) 1:8
198. * Imagine a diametrical tunnel dug across earth. A body is dropped into this tunnel. Ignore
friction and other dissipative forces. Check which of the following statements are correct:
a) the acceleration of the body will be zero at the centre of earth.
b) velocity of the body will be zero at the centre of the earth
c) kinetic energy of the body will be maximum at the centre of earth

18
d) potential energy will be zero at the centre of earth
199. A simple pendulum of length l has a bob of mass M. If the string is displaced through an
angle , the potential energy attained will be equal to
a) Mgl cos b) 2Mgl sin
2
(/2) c) 2Mgl cos d) 2Mgl cos
2
(/2)
200. Two cars A and B having equal momentum collide head on. In the process
a) heavier car suffers greater damage b) lighter car suffers greater damage
c) both suffer same damage d) cannot be answered from the data
201. A particle strikes at an angle 30
0
with X-axis with a speed v and
rebounds with the same speed at the same angle as shown . The
change in momentum of this particle will be
a) mvi b) 2mvi
c) mvj d) 2mvj
202. A body of mass m is projected at a certain angle has a time of flight T. When it strikes
ground the change in momentum is equal to
a) mg T b) mg T/2 c) 2mg T d) 0
203. A body of weight W rests on a rough horizontal surface of angle of friction . The minimum
force that will start motion of this body along the surface is
a) W sin b) W cos c) W d) W tan
204. The angle between force of friction and instantaneous velocity of a body when it just starts is
equal to
a) 0 b) 180 c) 90 d) any angle
205. A spring of mass M and length L(stiffness constant K) is compressed vertically downward
against the floor so that its compressed length becomes L/2. On releasing it, the work done by
it on the floor is
a)
2
mKL
2
1
b)
2
2
L
K
2
1
(
c) zero d) KL
2

206. * Which of the following has/have the dimensions of power?
a) force x distance b) force x velocity
c) torque x distance d) torque x angular velocity
207. Two blocks A and B of masses 5 kg and 3 kg respectively rest on a smooth horizontal suface
as shown is fig. If coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.5, then the maximum
horizontal force kg wt which can be applied to A so that A and B move without separation is
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
208. A ball is thrown down so that it will rebound 10 m higher
than the original level. The speed of the throw is
a) 5 m/s b) 14 m/s
c) 20 m/s d) 142 m/s
209. The power supplied by a force acting on a particle moving in a straight line is constant. The
velocity of the particle varies with the displacement x as
a) x b) x c) x
2
d) x
1/3

210. * A force F acts on a body of mass 1 kg moving with an initial velocity v
o
for 1 s. Then the
a) distance covered by the body is v
o
+ (F/2)
b) change in kinetic energy of the body is (1/2) mF
2
c) final velocity of the body is v
o
+F
d) momentum of the body increases by F

19
211. *A body is revolving with a constant speed along a circular path. If the direction of its
velocity is reversed, keeping speed unchanged, then
a) the centripetal force does not suffer any change in magnitude
b) the centripetal force does not suffer any change in direction
c) the centripetal force will have its direction reversed
d) the centripetal force will be doubled
212. *A reference frame attached to the earth
a) is an inertial frame by definition
b) cannot be an inertial frame because the earth is revolving round the sun
c) is an inertial frame because Newtons laws are applicable in this frame
d) cannot be an inertial frame because the earth is rotating about its own axis.
213. A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass M through a distance d at a constant
downward acceleration of g/4. Then the work done by the cord on the block is
a) Mg d/4 b) 3Mgd/4 c) -3Mgd/4 d)-mgd/4
214. Two particles of masses 1 kg and 3 kg move towards each other under their mutual force of
attraction. No other force acts on them. When the relative velocity of approach of the two
particles is 2 m/s, their centre of mass has a velocity of 0.5 m/s. When the relative velocity of
approach becomes 3 m/s the velocity of centre of mass is
a) 0.75 m/s b) 0.5 m/s c) 2.5 m/s d) 0 m/s
215. A body is projected with a velocity just equal to escape velocity. Its kinetic energy plus
potential energy is
a) positive b) negative
c) zero d) cannot be said from the data
216. A wheel starting from rest with uniform angular acceleration rotates through 30 radian in
second second. In the third second it will rotate through an angle
a) 30 radian b) 45 radian c) 50 radian d) 60 radian
217. A body of mass 2 kg has a velocity vector
G

v i =5 and a position vector
G
r j =12
. Its angular
momentum with respect to the origin is
a) 120 units along negative z axis b) 120 units along positive z axis
c) 60 units along positive z axis d) 60 units along negative z axis
218. A light metre scale carries a 1 kg mass at zeroeth division and a mass of 3 kg at 100
th
division.
If this scale is to be rotated with minimum torque with constant angular acceleration, the axis
of rotation should pass through
a) 30
th
division b) 50
th
division c) 66.6
th
division d) 75
th
division
219. Three wheels of moments of inertia in the ratio 1:2:3 rotate with same kinetic energy. They
are stopped by equal torques. The angle of rotation before they come to rest will be in the
ratio
a) 1:2:3 b) 3:2:1 c) 6:3:2 d) 2:3:6
220. A ball moving with constant speed u hits another ball of the same mass at rest. The
coefficient of restitution is e. The ratio of the velocities of two balls after the collision is
a) e b) 1+e c) 1-e d) (1-e)/(1+e)
221. A solid sphere rolls forward . The ratio of its kinetic energy of translation to total energy is
equal to
a) 2/7 b) 2/5 c) 5/7 d) 2/3
222. Three particles A,B and C of equal masses move with equal speeds v each from corners
along the medians of an equilateral triangle. They collide at the centroid G of the triangle.

20
After the collision A comes to rest, B retraces its path with the speed v. The velocity and
direction of C is
a) (v/2) in the direction of B b) v opposite direction of the B
c) v in the direction of B d) retrace of its path with same velocity
223. The moment of inertia of a cylinder about an axis through its centre of mass perpendicular to
its plane is equal to that about its natural axis. The ratio length of the cylinder to radius of the
cylinder is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 2 d) 3
224. Two fly wheels of same size but of different mass have same angular momentum. Then
a) the lighter one has greater kinetic energy of rotation.
b) the heavier one has greater kinetic energy of rotation
c) both have same kinetic energy of rotation
d) cannot be answered from the data
225. From a thin uniform wire two circular loops of radii in the ratio 1:2 are formed. If the loops
are rotated about an axis through centre of mass perpendicular to the plane, the ratio moment
of inertia of bigger loop to smaller loop is
a) 8 b) 4 c) 2 d) 16
226. The orbital speed of a geo- stationary satellite, assuming circular orbit is nearly
a) 0.5 km/s b) 3 km/s c) 5 km/s d) 8 km/s
227. If the orbital radius of an earth satellite increases by 2 % its period of revolution increases by
a) 0.66% b) 1.66% c) 2% d) 3%
228. If the magnitude of the total energy of an earth satellite decreases by 1% its time period of
revolution
a) will increase by 1% b) will decrease by 1%
c) will increase by more that 1% d) will decrease by more than 1%
229. If angular velocity of earth increases to n times the present value, a person at equator feels
weightlessness. Here n is nearest to
a) 2 b) 8 c) 17 d) 17
230. If the radius of earth decreases by 1% with density remaining the same, the acceleration due
to gravity on the surface will
a) decrease by 1% b) increase by 1%
c) decrease by 2% d) increase by 2%
231. A geo-stationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 6R above the surface of earth, R
being radius of earth. The time period of another satellite at a height of 2.5R from the surface
of earth is
a) 62 h b) 6 h c) 6/2 h d) 10 h
232. The masses and radii of earth and moon are m
1
, R
1
and m
2
, R
2
respectively. Their centres are
a distance d apart. The minimum speed with which a particle of mass m should be projected
from a point midway between the two centres so as to escape to infinity is
a)
2
2
1 2 1 2
G m m
d
b
G m m
d
( )
)
( ) + +

c)
G m m
d
d
G m m
d
( )
)
( )
1 2 1 2
2
+ +

233. A satellite is orbiting very close to earth. The minimum percentage increase in velocity that
should be given to it so that it escapes from earths field is
a ) 41 b) 71 c) 100 d) 141

21
234. The melting of polar ice caps of earth
a) will increase the duration of the day
b) will decrease the duration of the day
c) will not affect the duration of the day
d) will increase or decrease the duration of the day depending on the season
235. *A body of weight 100 N on earth is taken to moon. Take acceleration due to gravity in
moon to be (1/5)th of that of earth. Check the correct statement(s):
a) The weight of the body will go on decreasing until it reaches 20 N in moon.
b) The weight of the body will be zero at midway between earth and moon.
c) The weight of the body will be zero at a point somewhere nearer to moon than earth.
d) The mass of the body will remain constant throughout.
236. Imagine a hypothetical planet whose escape velocity is five times that of earth. In this planet
a) all lighter gases will be present, heavier ones will be absent.
b) all heavier gases will be present and lighter ones will be absent.
c) all gases will be present
d) all gases will be absent.
237. The period of an earth satellite will not depend on
a) mass of earth b) distance of the satellite
c) gravitation constant d) mass of the satellite
238. Two missiles A and B are launched with same velocity 4 km/s, A from earth and B from
moon. The sum of their potential and kinetic energy will be
a) negative for B and positive for A b) positive for B and negative for A
c) positive for both A and B d) negative for both A and B
239. The ratio of gravitational field inside a uniform solid sphere at distances r
1
and r
2
from its
centre E
1
/E
2
is
a) r
1
2
/r
2
2
b) r
2
2
/r
1
2
c) r
2
/r
1
d) r
1
/r
2

240. A body is dropped from a height R (radius of earth) from the surface of earth. The velocity
with which it strikes earth is
gR 2 ) d
2
gR
) c gR ) b gR 2 ) a
241. If earth were to rotate with a period T, a person in equator feels half of his weight. Here T is
(in minutes)
a) 84 b)168 c) 84x2 d) 168x2
242. The work done in moving a unit mass from the surface of a planet to 10 m above is 100 J.
The gravitational field due to this planet at this point is (in N/kg)
a) 10 b) 50 c) 100 d) 0


22
SECTION 2: ANSWERS
1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (b)
6 (a) 7 (d) 8 (d) 9 (c) 10 (d)
11 (d) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15 (a)
16 (c) 17 (d) 18 (c) 19 (c) 20 (b)
21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (a) 24 (d) 25 (a)
26 (c) 27 (a) 28 (d) 29 (b) 30 (c)
31 (b) 32 (b) 33 (b) 34 (c) 35 (d)
36 (b) 37 (d) 38 (a) 39 (c) 40 (b)
41 (c) 42 (d) 43 (b) 44 (d) 45 (a)
46 (d) 47 (c) 48 (d) 49 (d) 50 (c)
51 (d) 52 (a) 53 (c) 54 (c) 55 (d)
56 (a) 57 (c) 58 (d) 59 (d) 60 (d)
61 (b) 62 (d) 63 (a) 64 (b) 65 (b)
66 (c),(d) 67 (a) 68 (a),(b) 69 (d) 70 (b)
71 (b) 72 (b) 73 (b) 74 (d) 75 (a)
76 (d) 77 (a) 78 (c) 79 (b) 80 (a)
81 (b) 82 (c) 83 (c),(d) 84 (b) 85 (a)
86 (b) 87 (d) 88 (a) 89 (d) 90 (d)
91 (d) 92 (b),(c) 93 (a),(b),(c) 94 (a) 95 (b)
96 (b) 97 (c) 98 (a) 99 (a) 100 (b)
101 (d) 102 (d) 103 (b) 104 (c) 105 (a)
106 (b) 107 (d) 108 (d) 109 (d) 110 (d)
111 (a) 112 (a) 113 (a) 114 (d) 115 (d)
116 (b) 117 (a) 118 (a) 119 (c) 120 (d)
121 (a) 122 (c) 123 (b) 124 (a) 125 (d)
126 (b) 127 (a) 128 (c) 129 (b) 130 (d)
131 (d) 132 (a) 133 (d) 134 (c) 135 (a)
136 (b) 137 (c) 138 (c) 139 (d) 140 (d)
141 (b) 142 (a) 143 (c) 144 (c) 145 (d)
146 (a) 147 (c) 148 (b) 149 (b) 150 (d)
151 (c) 152 (b) 153 (c) 154 (b) 155 (d)
156 (c) 157 (a) 158 1 s 159 4 s 160 (d)
161 (c) 162 (a) 163 (a),(d) 164 (c) 165 (b)
166 (c) 167 (b) 168 (b) 169 (d) 170 (d)
171 (b) 172 (b),(c),(d) 173 (a) 174 (b) 175 (b)
176 (c) 177 (a) 178 (d) 179 (c) 180 (a)
181 (d) 182 (b) 183 (d) 184 (c),(d) 185 (c)
186 (d) 187 (a) 188 (d) 189 (d) 190 (d)
191 (d) 192 (c) 193 (d) 194 (a) 195 (c)
196 (d) 197 (d) 198 (a),(c),(d) 199 (b) 200 (b)

23
201 (b) 202 (a) 203 (d) 204 (a) 205 (c)
206 (b),(d) 207 (c) 208 (b) 209 (d) 210(a),(c),(d)
211 (a),(b) 212 (b),(d) 213 (b) 214 (b) 215 (c)
216 (c) 217 (a) 218 (d) 219 (d) 220 (d)
221 (c) 222 (b) 223 (d) 224 (a) 225 (a)
226 (b) 227 (d) 228 (c) 229 (d) 230 (a)
231 (a) 232 (b) 233 (a) 234 (a) 235 (c),(d)
236 (c) 237 (d) 238 (b) 239 (d) 240 (b)
241 (c) 242 (a)
SECTION 3
SOLUTIONS
1. If P and Q are the two vectors of magnitudes in the ratio 1:2 angle made by the sum with P =
tan = Q sin / P+(Q cos ). When sum is perpendicular, = 90. P+Q cos = 0, cos = -
1/2 = 120
0
.Ans.c
2. Using Keplers law T
2
= kR
3
. Differentiating 2 |
.
|
\
|
=
R
dR
3
T
dT
. Here dR = 0.01 R . Therefore
T
dT
=
2
3
x 0.01 = 1.5 x 1% = 1.5%. Ans.d
3. a) same dimension T
-1
b) same dimension T
-1
c) dimensions LT
-2
and L
2
T
-2
. d) same
dimension, as electric field. Ans.c
4. Refer to the figure. Force on any mass is due to the other two, F
and F act an angle 60
0
. By the rule of vector sum (Theory notes) it
is 3F. Ans.c
5. When momentum is increased by 10% it becomes 110% and when
decreased to 99%. Net decrease 1% Since kinetic energy K =
p
dp
2
K
dK
.
m 2
p
2
= = 2% decrease. Ans.b
6. Velocity vector v =
dt
dr
= -a sint + a cos t. We notice r. v=0. That is r and v are
perpendicular. Ans.a
7. A is false e.g. angle and solid angle, which have unit but no dimension. B is true. Ans.d
8. Terminal velocity is got when acceleration is 0. i.e. v=2m/s. Initial acceleration (since initial
velocity is 0) is 8 m/s
2
. Velocity when acceleration is half the initial value is got from
4 = 8-4v
1
. This gives v
1
= 1 m/s. Hence, (d) is wrong. (It can be shown by integration the
correct relation is exponential). Ans.d
9. Since all collisions are inelastic after each collision the momentum reduces by 1/2 , 1/3, 1/4
etc. Therefore, the time of collision increases to 2t, 3t, 4t etc, where t = L/v. So, time when
n th block starts moving =
v
L
(1+2+3+......N-1) =
(

2
) 1 N ( N
v
L
. Ans.c
10. Velocity of centre of mass =
mass total
momentum total
=
N
v
Nm
mv
= . Ans.d
6 0
0
m

24
11. P = fv = kv
3
xv = kv
4
, where k is a constant. =
P
dP
= = % 1 x 4
v
dv
4 4%. Ans.d
12. Relative velocity between water jet and the plate = v
1
+v
2.
Force = mass coming out in 1 s x
relative velocity = pV (v
1
+v
2
). Ans.b
13. A vector quantity should have magnitude, direction and obey the rules of vector addition.
Hence, statement y is wrong. Ans.c
14. Angular momentum = mR
2
. =
T
2
. T R
3/2
by Keplers law. Hence angular momentum
= constant x R
1/2
. Ans.d
15. Since they move under mutual gravitational force (internal force) external force is zero.
Hence centre of mass continues to be at rest. Ans.a
16. Work done by the torque = kinetic energy of rotation
2
1
I
2
. This is minimum when I is
minimum ( constant) i.e. axis should pass through the centre of mass. Centre of mass in m
is at
0.4) (0.6
0.4x0) (0.6x1
+
+
= 60 cm. Ans.c
17. Gravitational potential V =
r
Gm
. Adding due to all masses

r
Gm
. ....
04 . 0
1
02 . 0
1
01 . 0
1
(
+ + =
01 . 0
Gm
x2 = -200 Gm [ the sum
of series in the bracket is 2]. Ans.d
18. Refer to fig. T-mg cos = centripetal force
L
mv
2
Therefore T =
mg cos +
L
mv
2
. Ans.c
19. GMm/r
a
= m
2
r. This gives
2
= constant / r
a+1
.
2
= 4
2
/T
2
.
Thus T
2
is proportional to r
n+1
. T will be independent of r if n+1
= 0, n = -1. Ans.c
20. When the rope is made horizontal force applied by the boys by Lamis theorem
90 sin
F
180 sin
1
= . This gives F = inifinity. Work = force x distance = infinity. Ans.b
21. Since centripetal force is provided by gravitational force r m
) r 2 (
Gm
2
2
2
= , T=
2
Gm
r
4
3
.
Ans.b
22. Kinetic energy = work done by braking force before the body is brought to rest ( K = fs).
Here K is same. f is the same. Hence s is also same. Ans.c
23. At the highest point a projectile has only horizontal velocity. The momentum of the
component falling vertically is zero in the horizontal direction. By conservation of
momentum along the horizontal mu cos =
2
m
u + 0. This gives u = 2u cos. Time to
m g
m
g

c
o
s
m
g

s
i
n
T

25
reach ground =
g
sin u
. The horizontal distance travelled by the second piece
=
g
2 sin u
g
sin u x cos u 2
2
=

. Ans.a
24. The direction of motion of a projectile after t seconds is tan =

cos u
gt sin u
. It reaches
maximum height in 2 s. That is is zero. This gives u sin = 2g . After 1s,
tan 45 =

cos u
1 gx sin u
. This gives u cos = g. tan = 2. Ans.d
25. Velocity vector of a projectile is . sin u j
cos u i
v + =
G
Here the ratio of u sin to u cos is
2. Hence parallel is v
G
to j
2 i
+ Ans.a
26. For uniform angular acceleration angle rotated during first, second, third second.....
1
:
2
:
3
.....
n
= 1:3:5......2n-1. Hence
9
5
5
3
=

5
= 180 since
3
= 100. Ans.c
27. By Newtons first law, the net force on the body (Vector sum of forces
3 2 1
f f f
G G G
+ + =0.
Adding and solving for x by equating coefficient of k
, j
or i
to 0, x = -6. Ans.a
28. The acceleration of the satellite is the value of g at the place where it is orbiting. Using the
variation of g with height formula g = gR
2
/x
2
. (Note: Inside the satellite g is apparently zero.
Ans.d
29. Centripetal force is constant only in magnitude. A vector is constant only it magnitude and
direction are constants. Hence b is correct. (T
2
R
3
law is obeyed only if force is
proportional to
2
R
1
. Ans.b
30. Acceleration a =
dt
dv
= (3 ) j
4 i
+ . Magnitude =
2 2
4 3 + = 5 m/s
2
. f = ma = 10 N. Ans.c
31. y = 4ax
2
.
dt
dy
= 4a(2x)
dt
dx
, since
dt
dx
= constant A, v
y
= 8aAx, Acceleration
dt
dv
y
=
8aA
dt
dx
= 8 aA
2
. Since the direction of the acceleration is along the y-axis it is 8aA
2
j
. Ans.b
32. Orbital velocity =
r
Gm
which decreases with increase in orbital radius. T
2
r
3
law tells us
longer orbits means larger periods. Ans.b
33. The equation to the velocity of the aero plane is equal to v = At
2
, where A is a constant
(equation to parabola). Acceleration a =
dt
dv
= 2At. a t. Ans.b
34. The period of a pendulum is equal to T =
k
m
2 . In a magnetic field directed downwards
the restoring force increases k increases and period decreases. (Note: electric field will not
affect the period because the bob is not charged) Ans.c

26
35.
2
1
e
u
v
= = . After each collision its velocity will decrease as eu, e
2
u, e
3
u......etc. If after n
collision velocity becomes 0, e
n
u = 0, which happens, when n = infinite. Ans.d.
36. First height of fall = h. Distance travelled between first and second rebound = e
2
h + e
2
h =
2e
2
h. Simmilarly between second and third rebound 2e
4
h. Adding total distance h + 2e
2
h +
2e
4
h +....to infinity as a geometric series with e = 1/2 , H = 3h . Ans.b
37. Maximum potential energy is proportional to maximum height 50 m. When kinetic energy
becomes 60% potential energy should be 40%. Hence the height should be 40% of 50 = 20
m. Ans.d
38. When the monkey jumps vertically up, it generates upward momentum, which will not affect
the horizontal velocity of the trolley. No horizontal force acts on the trolley. However, the
reduction of mass of the monkey, increases the speed of trolley from 10 to v to conserve
horizontal momentum i.e. 10 x 120 = 100v. v = 12 m/s. Ans.a
39. S F
G G
= 6 i.e. FScos = 6. 2 s =
G
. Component of F in the direction of s is F cos =
2 3 2 / 6 s / s . F = =
G
G
. Ans.c
40. The body is subjected to two forces: its weight F
1
acting vertically downwards and force of
wind F
2
in the horizontal direction. The body moves in the direction of the vector sum of the
two forces
2
2
2
1
F F + and follows straight line path. Ans.b
41. Let the stones meet t seconds after start. Then for A, 1/2 gt
2
= 20. This gives t = 2s. For B,
20 =v
0
t-
2
1
gt
2
with t = 2s, v
0
= 20m/s. Ans.c
42. Instat 1-C being geo-stationary satellite, the time taken by a signal to travel from earth and
back (36000 + 36000 km) nearly is 72000/c, where c is speed of e.m.waves. Taking c =
300000 km/s, t = 0.24 s. Ans.d
43. When the person ultimately catches the train, the relative displacement becomes 0 from the
initial value 8m. Using equation of motion for relative motion s-s
0
=
2
1
(a
1
-a
2
) t
2
, where t is
the time to catch the train. s-s
0
= 8. a
1
a
2
= 2-1=1, which gives t = 4s. Ans.b
44. Angular momentum L = rxp = mv sin. Here velocity and mass are constants. r sin is the
perpendicular distance from the x-axis, which also is constant because of motion parallel to
the axis. Hence L is constant. Ans.d
45. The escape velocity does not depend on the direction of projection, because it is derived from
energy considerations, i.e. when the kinetic energy is greater than or equal to potential energy,
both of which do not depend on the direction. (Indirect theory notes) Ans.a
46. Using Newtons law of gravitation F =
2
2 1
r
m Gm
, with m
1
= m
2
=
3
4
R
3
, r = 2R, we find F.
In the second case m =
3
4
(2R)
3
and r = 4R. This new force will be 16F. Ans.d
47. The velocity of an earth satellite going very close to earth =
R
GM
= 8 km/s. Here for the
given satellite
h R
GM
+
=
2
1
R
GM
Solving we get h = 3R. Ans.c

27
48. The minimum vector sum of the two forces is 150-100 = 50N. a(minimum) =
f(minimum)/mass = 50/100 = 0.5 m/s
2
. Ans.d
49. Centrifugal force is a pseudo force, whose origin or source cannot be traced. Here it arises
due to inertia. (Note: Centrifugal force is not reaction to centripetal force because action-
reaction forces cannot be on the same body). Ans.d
50. The gravitational field inside a sphere = GM/r
2
. Here M is the mass of part of the body
producing gravitational force, which is sphere of radius r. Hence it is
2
3
r 3
r 4
G

= constant x
r. Ans.c
51. Force
2
2
r
k
r
mv
= . This gives mv
2
=
r
k
. Kinetic energy of the particle
2
1
mv
2
=
r 2
k
. Ans.d.
52. Using the formula T = mg ma, T(maximum) = mg-ma (minimum). Here T(max) = 0.6 mg.
This gives a(min) = 0.4 g. Ans.a
53. The centre of mass of triangular lamina is at the centroid, which is closer to largest side.
Using parallel axis theorem moment of inertia about any side is I(c.m) + ma
2
, where a is the
distance of the side from the centroid. Here a is minimum for the side AC. Ans.c
54. Let t
1
and t
2
be the times on smooth and rough inclined planes, force on a rough plane = mg
sin-mg cos. On a smooth plane mg sin. Since acceleration is proportional to
2
t
1
,
2
1
sin g
cos g sin g
a
a
t
t
1
2
2
1
=

= = Squaring and solving with = 45
0
, =
4
3
. Ans.c
55. Since nucleus is at rest before emission by law of conservation of momentum, momentum of
should be equal to that of nucleus. But kinetic energy is p
2
/2m. p is same. So kinetic
energy is more for lighter body, that is . ( Indirect theory notes) Ans.d
56. Moment of inertial I
1
=
12
mL
2
, where L is length. When bent into a ring of radius r, 2r = L.
r =
2
L
. Moment of inertia = I
2
= mr
2
= m
2
2
L
(
.
3 I
I
2
2
1

= . Ans.a
57. Period of satellite close to earth = 2
GM
R
3
. M =
3
4
R
3
, we get period t =
const
. Ans.c
58. Sum of forces equal forces 1 and 1 along the two sides will be along the diagonal and will be
equal to 2 N. This adds with the force along the diagonal 1 N to give a total 1+2 = 2.4 N.
Ans.d.
59. For observer inside earth, earth is an inertial frame. For an observer outside (such as an
astronaut). earth is rotating frame and hence non inertial. Thus it will depend on where the
observer is looking from. Ans.d
60. Let L be the length of the inclined plane and t total time. Then L =
2
1
at
2
. It t
1
is a time to
travel
3
2
of L, we have
3
2
L =
2
1
at
1
2
. This gives t
1
=
3
2
t or 0.8 t. The time taken for last
1/3 of the distance = 0.2 t. This is given as (1/n)t. Therefore n = 1/0.2 = 5. Ans.d

28
61. If maximum acceleration of the car exceeds g, frictional force on the car will be greater than
mg. Frictional force = R. If R is greater than mg i.e. R is greater than mg, there will be
no vertical equilibrium. Hence maximum acceleration is g = 0.8 x 10 = 8 m/s
2
. Ans.b
62. Let v
1
be volume of sea water and v
2
volume of fresh water. Then mass of sea water + mass
of fresh water = mass of mixture. That is
2 1
2 1
v v
1) x (v 1.1) x (v
+
+
= 1.04. This gives
2
1
v
v
=
2
3

Ans.d
63. As disc expands more mass distributed away from the centre of the disc. This increases the
moment of inertia of the disc. By law of conservation of the angular momentum I
1

1
= I
2
2
.
Here I
2
> I
1
. Hence
2
<
1
Since = 2/T, T
2
> T
1
. Ans.a
64. Let the cylinder be given a small push downward so that is submerged through a short
distance x. The total restoring force acting on the cylinder is kx due to the spring and -
Agx, due to the weight of the liquid displaced. The total restoring force on the cylinder = -
kx+Agx=-(k+Ag)x. The restoring force per unit displacement is K
1
= k+Ag. The period
of oscillation is given by T =
1
k
m
2 . The frequency f =
M
g A k
2
1 +
. Ans.b
65. Centripetal force for the planet is provided by gravitational force of attraction between star
and the planet GMmR
-5/2
= m
2
R where M is mass of star, m mass of planet and , angular
velocity of the planet. =
T
2
. Substituting these value in the above equation, we get T
2
=
GM
R 4
2 / 7 2
. Thus T
2
7/2
. Ans.b
66. When force and velocity are always perpendicular, the particle has uniform circular motion.
Hence (d) is correct. In uniform circular motion work done by the force will be zero. Hence
there is no increase in kinetic energy. So (c) is correct. Ans. c & d
67. Here we have balanced the apparent weight of cotton and brass (i.e. weight-loss of weight due
to buoyant force in air). That is true weight of brass here is less. So when the jar is
evacuated, true weight of cotton being more, the cotton pan will go down. Ans.a
68. Since the frictional forces are negligible, by conservation of energy the particle reaches the
same height on the other side. Hence (a) is correct. Acceleration due to gravity is zero at
centre of earth. Hence (b) is correct. Particle has maximum acceleration (g) at the surface
and not at the height (h). Hence (c) is wrong. The particle will oscillate but acceleration is
not proportional to displacement at the point of release. Hence the motion will not be sim;ple
harmonic. Thus (d) is wrong. Ans.a, b
69. Energy and momentum are conserved only in a closed system. The athlete along with earth
forms a closed system. Hence momentum the energy will not be conserved by him. It could
be passed on to earth. Ans.d
70. The frictional force here acts along the wall balancing the weight. Therefore its magnitude
should be equal to the weight of the block = mg = 0.1 x 9.8 = 0.98 N. Ans.b
71. Centripetal acceleration is
r
v
2
= k
2
rt
2
. This gives v = krt. Acceleration experienced by the
particle due to the force acting on it is a =
dt
dv
= kr. Force experienced by the particle F = ma
= mkr. Power delivered to the particle is P = Fv = (mkr)(krt) = mk
2
r
2
t. Ans.b

29
72. Spring and wire are similar to two springs in series. Hence their force constants add as
. k
k k
k k
2 1
2 1
=
+
Force constant of spring k
1
= K. Force constant of the wire k
2
=
extension
force
=
l
F
=
L
YA
. Effective force constant K
1
=
L
YA
K
L
YA
K
+
=
YA KL
YAK
+
.This gives T =
1
K
m
2 =
.
YAK
) YA KL ( m
2
+
Ans.b
73. Friction is force between molecules i.e. inter molecular force. Inter molecular forces are
electromagnetic. Ans.b
74. Refer to Fig.. Distance is arc AB = 2/4 = r/2, where r is
radius of the circle. Displacement r 2 r r s
2 2
= + =
G
.
Ratio of distance to displacement is /(22). Ans.d
75. To walk along east, a person will have to apply a force
along west (action). The force of friction, being always in
a direction opposite to the applied force, will be along east.
Ans.a
76. By Keplers third law T
1
/T
2
= (R
1
/R
2
)
3/2
. T
1
= 365 days.
T
2
= ? (R
1
/ R
2
) = 2. This gives T
2
= (365/2
3/2
) = 365/2.8
= 130 days nearly. Ans.d
77. Air medium will offer a resistance and buoyant force. The buoyant force is volume of the
body x density of medium. The volume is greater for less dense body. Hence it takes longer
time to fall through the same height. Denser body falls through the same height in a shorter
time. Ans.a
78. Refer to figure. When train starts with uniform acceleration towards right, the inertial force
ma will acts towards left. The weight of water mg acts downwards. The resultant of these
two forces is F. The level of water will settle such that normal reaction R opposes F. Hence
level will incline towards rear of the train. Ans.b
79. Acceleration of the system = Resultant force / Total mass = 2g/6 = (1/3)g. For finding tension
of the string draw the free body diagram of B. (A free
body diagram is one in which we mark all forces acting
on a body). The resultant force on B = 2g T = Its mass
x acceleration. 2g-T = 2a. T = 2g-2a = 2g 2x (1/3)g =
(4/3) g N = (4/3)kgf. Ans.b
80. P = Energy/time = (1/2)mv
2
/t. = constant; v
2
= s
2
/t
2
.
Thus s
2
/t
3
= constant. s t
3/2
. Ans.a
81. If A is amplitude, maximum velocity of SHM is A,
where is angular frequency. ( = )
T
2
. But is
proportional to k. (Recall formula
2
= k/m). Here
A
1
1
= A
2
2
. i.e. A k
1
= A
2
k
2
. Therefore A
1
/A
2
= k
2
/k
1
. Ans.b
82. The maximum acceleration of S.H.M is
2
A. Here
2
A
1
=
2
2
A
2
. That is k
1
A
1
= k
2
A
2
. This
gives A
1
/A
2
= k
2
/k
1
. Ans.c
r
r
O
A
B
mg
ma
Level
R
F


30
83. Since total mechanical energy is 160 J, maximum potential or maximum kinetic energy has to
be 160 J. Hence (c) is correct. Minimum potential energy is zero (at equilibrium position).
Thus (d) is correct. Ans.c & d
84. The shortest path is the perpendicular distance that is 1 km. The effective velocity of the boat
in that direction should be = distance/time = 1 km/15 minute = 4 km/h. To get this velocity in
the perpendicular direction, the river current should have such a velocity v that
2 2
v 5 = 4
This gives v = 3 km/h. Ans.b
85. During one oscillation the kinetic energy of a particle becomes maximum twice as the particle
crosses the equilibrium point. Similarly the kinetic energy becomes minimum at two extreme
points. Thus kinetic energy becomes maximum and minimum two times in one oscillation.
That is, its kinetic energy oscillates with a frequency 2f. Ans.a
86. At the highest point projectile has only horizontal component of velocity vcos. The
momentum of the piece = mv cos. The mass of each piece is m/2. Since one piece retraces
its path, its momentum should be (m/2)v cos. If v
1
is the velocity of the second piece, then
by law of conservation of momentum we can write mv cos = -(mv cos)/2 + mv
1
/2. Thus v
1

= 3v cos. Ans.b
87. By dimensional homogeneity, dimension of t = dimension of 1 V
0
/ = distance. . Ans.d
88. At a displacement x, the kinetic energy of a body in SHM is (1/2) m
2
(A
2
-x
2
). Total energy
of the body is all this position is 1/2 m
2
A
2
. Putting x = A/2, we find the ratio of kinetic
energy to total energy is 3/4. (Refer to Table-Theory notes) Ans.a
89. By conservation of angular momentum, I
1
1
= I
2
2
. Since = 2/T, where T is the period
I
1
/T
1
= I
2
/T
2
. I = (2/5)MR
2
, where M is mass and R radius of earth. Therefore R
1
2
/T
1
=
R
2
2
/T
2
. Here T
1
= 24 h. R
2
= (1/n)R
1
. This gives T
2
= 24/n
2
hour. Refer to Indirect Theory
notes. Ans.d.
90. Mass of hanging portion = M/4. Length of hanging portion 1/4. When 1/4 is pulled up work
done = (1/2) f(maximum) x s (maximum) (pulling force is varying, hence average) = (1/2)
(Mg/4) (L/4) = MgL/32. General formula for pulling (1/n)th of fraction MgL/2n
2
Ans.d.
91. Two vectors of different magnitudes cannot be added to get a zero vector . However, we can
add more than two vectors and get zero vector if they form the sides of a polygon in order.
Ans.d
92. Due to apparent loss of weight of block balance A will read less than 2 kg wt. There will be
an equal down thrust on the bottom of the beaker. Thus balance B will read more than 5 kg
wt. Ans.b & c
93. If I is the moment of inertia about an axis passing through centre perpendicular to plane, then
by perpendicular axis theorem I = I
1
+ I
2
(a is correct). I = I
3
+ I
4
( b is correct). Since the
axes are symmetric I
1
= I
2
, I
3
= I
4
. Therefore I = 2I
2
= 2I
3
. It follows I
2
= I
3
. Thus I = I
1
+ I
3
.
Ans. a,b & c
94. Since liquid is incompressible its centre of mass can be taken at
midway. That is at L/2. Centripetal force is equal to (1/2) M
2
L.
This force will be exerted at the other end. Ans.a
95. By tangent law if F is the horizontal force, W is the weight, then
F/W = tan. F = mv
2
/r, W = mg, which gives tan = v
2
/rg = 10
2
/10
x 10 = 1. = 45
0
. Ans.c
96. Refer to figure. Velocity of wind (x)/v = sin v = velocity of wind
/ sin = 5 ms
-1
/ sin. Ans.b
x
v

31
97. Weight of the stone = mg = 2 x 10 = 20 N. Centripetal force mv
2
/ r = 2 x 4
2
/ 1 = 32 N. At
lowest point of the circle tension will be mg + (mv
2
/r) = 20 + 32 = 52 N. Ans.c
98. Using Boyles law, if P is the pressure of water at the surface and P
1
that at the bottom, we
have P.2V = P
1
V. P
1
= 2P. Pressure at the surface is the atmospheric pressure, i.e. 10 m of
water. The pressure at the bottom = 20 m of water. Depth of lake = 10 m. Ans.a
99. The fraction of volume depends on density of body and density of liquid and does not depend
on g directly. Ans.a
100. Since h << R, using variation of g with height formula, we have g = g [ 1-(2h/R)], i.e. g-g/g
= 2h/R..(1). Using variation of g with depth formula, we have g = g(R-x/R). (g-g)/g =
x/R......(2). Equating (1) & (2) 2h/R = x/R, x = 2h. Ans.b
101. The period of oscillation is 2 k / m i.e. period T is proportional to m. This gives T
1
/T
2
=
) 2 m /( m + . Squaring and with T
1
= 2 s, T
2
= 3 s. we get m = 1.6 kg. Ans.d
102. Torque = force x perpendicular distance. Here force is tangential. Therefore radius is the
perpendicular distance. Torque = F x R. Ans.d
103. By law of conservation of energy, mgh = (1/2)mv
2
+ (1/2)1
2
I for cylinder about its natural
axis is mr
2
/2; = v/r. Substituting these values we get v = 3 / gh 4 . Ans.b (Or use the
formula in indirect Theory notes., v = ] ) r / k ( 1 /[ gh 2
2 2
+ k
2
= r
2
/2. This gives the
answer).
104. The arrangement is a simple pendulum. The frequency = (1/2) 1 / g . So f can be doubled
by reducing the length to 1/4. Mass will not change the frequency. Ans.c
105. The rope begins to slide when weight of hanging portion, that is (1/3) mg = force of friction
acting on the part in the table (2/3) mg. This gives = (1/2). Ans.a
106. The weight of bucket and water should provide centripetal force at the highest point. If is
the minimum angular velocity for this m
2
r = mg or = 5 . 2 / 10 r / g = = 2. Maximum
period T
(maximum) =
2/
(minimum)
= s. Ans.b
107. Escape velocity = R / GM 2 on the surface of the earth. This 11.2 km/s. At an altitude 3R,
the escape velocity is R 3 R / GM 2 + = (1/2) x 11.2 = 5.6 kms
-1
. Ans.d
108. Refer to theory notes. The total energy of the two satellites add. So total energy = -GMm/r.
Ans.d
109. The centripetal force m
2
R = mg-N, where mg is true weight and N is normal reaction, and
is the present angular velocity. This reaction is felt as apparent weight. If N = (3/5)mg, in the
above equation the new angular velocity
1
2
= (2/5)g/R.
1
= R 5 / g 2 . Ans.b
110. If F is the applied force, FL/Ax = Y. F = Yax/L. Work done in stretching (since the force is
uniformly varying) = (1/2) x (maximum force) x (maximum extension = YAx
2
/ 2L. Ans.d
111. The escape velocity in moon is nearly 2.4 km/s. A body escapes when kinetic energy of
projection is just equal to or greater than gravitational potential energy. Here kinetic energy is
greater than potential energy. So total energy is positive. Ans.a
112. Refer to figure. Since the first drop reaches the ground when the fourth drop is released the
first drop had been in air for 3 s, second drop for 2s and third drop 1 s. If h
1
, h
2
, h
3
are the
distance travelled first, second and third drop respectively at this instant, they are shown in

32
figure. h
1 =
(1/2)gt
2
=45 m since t= 3s. Similarly h
2
=20 m and h
3
= 5 m. Distance between
second and third drop is 15 m. Ans.a
113. Energy density = Energy/Volume = ML
2
T
-2
/L
3
= ML
-1
T
-2
which is
dimension of pressure. Ans.a
114. = Rr
2
/l. d/ = (dR/R)+2(dr/r)+ dl/l. Therefore percentage error in
= 1%+(2x1)%+1% = 4%. It should be noticed random error
corrections should only be added and not subtracted. Ans.d
115. Except barn all others are units of distance. Fermi is used in Nuclear
physics, astronomical unit and light year in Astro physics. Barn is unit
of measuring nuclear cross sections and has units of area. Ans.e
116. Using dimensions linear momentum/ angular momentum= MLT
-1
/
ML
2
T
-1
= L
-1
. This is the dimension of Rydberg constant which is
measured per metre. Ans.b
117. F= Kv. The units of K = unit of force/ unit of velocity = N/ms
-1
= kgs
-1
. Ans.a
118. By dimensional and unit homogeneity, b/t should have same unit as speed. That is b/t = ms
-1
.
Thus b has units ms
-1
x s = m. Ans.a
119. e
t
and 1 should have same dimension. That is dimension of t should be zero. Therefore
should have dimension T
-1
i.e. that of angular velocity. Ans.c
120. The resistivity has unit ohm metre. That is (volt/ampere)xmetre) = (V/A)m = VA
-1
m. Ans.d
121. Torr is a unit of pressure. Hence it has the dimension of pressure equal to ML
-1
T
-2
. Ans.a
122. If a is the side of the cube, its volume will be a
3
and total surface area (6 faces) will be 6a
2
.
Equating 6a
2
=a
3
, we get a = 6 and a
3
= 216 m
3
. Ans.c
123. By homogeneity of dimension, S
n
should have dimension of u i.e. velocity . (Note: S
n
is not
distance but distance travelled in unit time i.e. nth second and therefore it is velocity). Ans.b
124. This can be written as V
2
t/R. V
2
/R is power. Hence V
2
t/R is energy or work. Ans.a
125. Curie and frequency have same dimension equal to T
-1
. Similarly angular velocity and
velocity gradient same dimension T
-1
. Coefficient of friction and Reynold number are mere
numbers, hence have no dimension. Torque has dimension ML
2
T
-2
, angular momentum
ML
2
T
-1
. Ans.d
126. Solid angle has unit steradian. It has no dimension because it is defined as area / r
2
, where r is
radius. Ans.b
127. The dimension of force MLT
-2
= F. Therefore M = F/LT
-2
= FL
-1
T
2
. Ans.a.
128. Force on unit mass. Force/Mass = Acceleration. Ans.c
129. kgm
-1
s
-1
(dimension ML
-1
T
-1
) is unit of viscosity. Simplifying the SI unit of viscosity Nsm
-2
,
(kgms
-2
) x sm
-2
= kgm
-1
s
-1
. Ans.b.
130. Substituting the respective dimensions and simplifying, we get this EJ
2
/M
5
G
2
has no
dimensions, that is dimension of angle. Ans. d.
131. The modulus of rigidity has dimensions ML
-1
T
-2
. Substituting this value, in order to get the
equation free of mass and length and L will have to appear in the denominator. Ans.d.
132. If the distance travelled in the first second is 5 m, second second is 15 m, third second 25 m,
and fourth second 35 m.(Theory notes). Thus is fourth second is last second. Hence height of
the tower is 5+15+25+35= 80m. Ans a.
133. Do not find the distance travelled during each separate
interval by equation of motion. Draw the velocity time
graph. Distance travelled is equal to the area of
trapezium OABC. This is equal to (300+340)20/2= 6400
1
2
3
4

h
1
h
2
h
3

33
m. Ans.d
134. If a bodys equation of motion is in the form x = at
2
+bt+c, we know it has uniform
acceleration. If the distance depends on the third power of time, the body has increasing
acceleration proportional to the time. [We can differentiate and show that acceleration is
given by (6at+2b)]. Ans.c
135. Use the information supplied in theory notes. If the cyclist takes 2 minutes, he should cover
first (1/4)th in one minute and the next (3/4)th in the second minute, because the body has
uniform acceleration and these distances are in the ratio 1:3. Ans.a
136. If x is speed of boat y is that of river current, D is length of river, then we have (x-y)3t = D.
(1), when the boat travels upstream, because river current opposes and boat takes longer time
to cross. (x+y)t = D. (2), when the boat travels downstream, because river current supports
boats velocity. Equating the left hand sides (x-y)3 = (x+y). This gives x/y =2/1. (Note: The
length of the river is not necessary to solve this question). Ans.b
137. All the statements except (c) are correct. A body cannot have constant (uniform) velocity and
still be accelerating, because constant velocity means no change in velocity, and hence no
acceleration. Ans.c
138. Take the distance covered in the first three seconds = 1+ 3+5 = 9. Distance covered in the
last second = 2n-1, if n is the total time of fall. That is 2n-1 = 9. n = 5s. Ans.c
139. Since it falls freely , the initial velocity u = 0. Hence s = (1/2)gt
2
. That is s is proportional to
t
2
. The graph will be a parabola. Since s = 0, when t = 0, it will pass through origin. Ans.d
140. By the equation of motion (2x)
2
-x
2
= 2ay or 3x
2
= 2ay, where a is acceleration. If x
1
is the
speed after y distance more, then x
1
2
-x
2
= 2a(2y) = 4ay = 6x
2
Therefore, x
1
2
= 7x
2
. x
1
= 7 x.
Ans.d
141. If g
1
,g
2
are acceleration due to gravity in earth and moon respectively t
1,
t
2
time of fall we
have s = (1/2)g
1
t
1
2
=(1/2)g
2
t
2
2
. Therefore t
2
/t
1
= 6 g / g
2 1
= . Since t
1
=2s, t
2
= 2 6 =
24 s. .Ans.b
142. By equation of motion v = 0+na....(1) Velocity 2 seconds before i.e. n-2 seconds from start
v
1
= (n-2)a ...(2) . Distance travelled in last two seconds s = average velocity during last two
seconds x time. 2
2
v v
1
(
+
= v+v
1
. Substituting for v and v
1
from (1) and (2), we get s = na
+ (n-2)a. But a =
n
v
. This gives s =
n
) 1 n ( v 2
Ans.a
143. If s is the thickness of the plank then in the first case, y
2
-x
2
= 2as...(1) by equation of motion.
In the second case, if y
1
is the velocity with which the bullet comes out, then y
1
2
- x
2
= 2as/2 =
as...(2). Dividing (1) by (2) and solving for y
1
, we get y
1
2
=
2
y x
2 2
+
, y
1
=
2
y x
2 2
+
. Ans.c
144. Since the range is same, the angles of projection should be and 90-. Since maximum
height is proportional to sin
2
, the ratio of maximum height will be h
A
/h
B
= sin
2
/ sin
2
(90-)
= sin
2
/cos
2
= tan
2
. Ans.c
145. When the body strikes the ground at the same angle, the angle between initial and final
momentum will be 120 degrees. So the change in momentum = p p p x p
2 2 0
2 120 + + cos =
p. Ans.d

34
146. The relative acceleration of the two projectiles is zero (g-g). Their relative x component of
velocity will be u
1
-u
2
and relative y component of velocity will be v
1
-v
2
. Their X
displacement will be (u
1
-u
2
)t and Y displacement (v
1
-v
2
)t. So X/Y will be constant. The
path will be a straight line. Ans.a
147. If a particle moves with acceleration and velocity always
perpendicular, its path will be a circle. If it moves with
acceleration and velocity in parallel its path will be a straight
line. If the direction of acceleration is changing (as in the case
of a projectile) with respect to velocity, the path will be a
parabola. Ans.c
148. (Fig) Let the length of the string be a and distance between pulleys be 2c. Then a
2
= b
2
+c
2
.
.Differentiating 2a
dt
da
= 2b
dt
db
(c constant) The speed of the mass is
dt
db
=
b
a
dt
da

=
=
(
cos
u
u
cos a
a
. Ans.b
149. Angle made by the vector with y-axis = , which is given by tan = x component/y
component = 2/3. Ans.b
150. Since for uniform circular motion, velocity vector is always perpendicular to acceleration
vector. We have to look for a vector whose dot product with v will be zero. This vector will
be a j b i

Ans.d
151. Let us take east as positive X-axis and north as positive Y-
axis. Initial velocity = 10

i . Final velocity = 10

j .
Acceleration = change in velocity / time = 10

j - 10

i / 10 =
j -
i .Magnitude of acceleration = |

j -
i , = 1 1 2
2 2
+ =
ms
-2
. The direction of the acceleration will be the direction of the vector
j -
i = north west.
Ans.c
152. The body here is acted on by two mutually perpendicular constant forces one its weight which
is vertical and the other the horizontal force. Under the action of these two forces the body
will move in a straight line between horizontal and vertical. Ans.b
153. The minimum velocity for completing vertical circle is equal to 5 5 9 8 rg x = = . 7 m/s. So
the stone will not complete a circle. It will follow a part of a circle and then follow a
parabolic path like a projectile and then will fall down. Ans.c
154. Change in velocity is the vector difference of v
2
and v
1
. By formula of vector addition
G G
v v
2 1
=
0 2 2 0 2 0 2 2
10 sin v 2 10 sin v 4 ) 20 cos 1 ( v 2 0 2 cos v x v 2 v v = = = + Ans.b
155. These vectors form N sides of a regular polygon. Since it is a closed figure, their vector sum
will be zero. Ans.d
156. When N vectors complete a polygon of N sides, the sum of (N-1) vectors will be the side
which completes the polygon. So the sum will have a magnitude x itself. Ans.c
157. The angles of the projection here are and 90-. For short cut, using the relation gT
2
= 2R
tan (given as information in indirect theory notes) we have t
1
= 2R g tan / , and t
2
=
2 90 R g tan ( ) / . t
1
t
2
= 2R/g. Ans.a

35
158. This problem should be solved using equation of relative motion. Then only we can solve
with one equation. If s
1
,s
2
are displacement u
1
,u
2
initial velocity a
1
,a
2
acceleration of two
bodies then s
1
-s
2
= (u
1
-u
2
)t + (1/2)(a
1
-a
2
)t
2
, where t is the time after which the stones meet.
Here u
1
-u
2
= 20-(-20)=40.a
1
-a
2
=g-g=0. (acceleration in the same direction, hence relative
acceleration. Is zero. s
1
-s
2
=40. This gives t = 1 s. Ans.1 s
159. Here also we use relative motion equation. If t is the time necessary for back runner to
overtake, the initial velocity being zero,s
1
-s
2
= (1/2)(a
1
-a
2
)t
2
. This gives 8 = (1/2)(4-3)t
2
and t
= 4s. Ans.4 s
160. Just completes vertical circle means, it should have been projected with a velocity 5gr .
This gives the body a kinetic energy (1/2)mv
2
= (1/2)mx5gr = (5/2) mgr. By law conservation
of energy it should have total energy (5/2)mgr. Ans.d
161. Since breaking tension is 0.4 mg , the apparent weight of the climber should not exceed 0.4
mg. Using information supplied in theory notes. a(min) = (mg - 0.4 mg)/m = +0.6 g. i.e.
the lift should be accelerating down with 0.6g or > 0.6g. Ans.c
162. If the car is not to leave ground, it should stay in the circle, that is reaction of the ground
should not become zero. Therefore its maximum velocity will be the minimum velocity of a
vertical circle at highest point i.e. rg x = 5 9 8 . = 7 m/s. Ans.a ( Or use at the highest point
mg=mv
2
/r).
163. The centripetal force is provided by electrostatic force of attraction. Hence (a) is correct.
Centripetal force cannot be balanced by centrifugal force. Hence (b) is wrong. When
centripetal force vanishes electron moves in a straight line. Hence (c) is wrong (d) is correct.
Ans. a & d
164. If the body is just to complete a vertical circle it should have a minimum velocity 5gr at the
lowest point of the circle. Hence its kinetic energy at that point should be equal to potential
energy mgh. That is at highest point (1/2) mv
2
= (1/2)m (5gr) = mgh. This gives h = (5/2)r =
(5/4)D. Ans.c
165. Since momentum is constant during explosion, kinetic energy will divide in the ratio 3:2.
The larger piece will have smaller energy. Ans.b
166. Given s t
3/2
. ds/dt = velocity v = constant x t
1/2
. Acceleration a = dv/dt = constant x t
-1/2
.
To get a quantity independent of time, we have to multiply v and a. i.e. av is constant. Since
m is constant mav is constant mav = force x velocity i.e. Power. Or use indirect theory notes
short-cuts. Ans.c
167. Potential energy of the driver = Mgh + Mgx = work done by wood .If f is the resisting force
given by wood,. Mg(h+x) = fx. This gives f = Mg[1+(h/x)]. Ans.b
168. The angle between impulse and change in momentum will be zero . Because impulse =
change in momentum, what ever may be the direction of force. Ans.b
169. By law of conservation of momentum the vector sum of momentum of the two pieces should
be equal to the momentum of the other piece in magnitude but opposite in direction. So 1x v
= ( ) ( ) 1 2 2 1
2 2
x x + = 8 m/s. Ans.d
170. Use the formula height of rebound/height of fall =e
2
, for first rebound. After n rebounds, we
have e
2n
=h
n
/h
1
which is given as 1/n. Thus we have e
2n
=1/n. e= (1/n)
1/2n
. Ans.d.
171. When kinetic energy is reduced to half (n=1/2), momentum reduces to 1/2 i.e. 71%.
Therefore momentum decreases from 100% to 71% . That is momentum decreases by 100-71
= 29%. Ans.d

36
172. We cannot draw a triangle with sides 1,2,3. Hence (a) is wrong. But if 2 and 1 act opposite to
3 the body can be in equilibrium . Hence (b) is correct. Maximum force is 6 N. Hence
maximum acceleration = 6/1 = 6 m/s
2
. (c) is correct. The minimum acceleration of the body
is zero (equilibrium). Maximum acceleration 6 m/s
2
. It can have any acceleration between 0
and 6 . Hence (d) is correct. Ans. b,c,d
173. The acceleration of the system is
2 1
2
m m
g m
+
. This is given as
8
1
g. Solving we get 8m
2
=
m
1
+m
2
.
2
1
m
m
=7 Ans.a
174. Two equal vectors at an angle 120 degrees will have a vector sum equal to one of them.
Therefore the vector sum of forces will be F. The acceleration will be same in magnitude. Its
direction will be bisecting two vectors. Ans.b
175. A body of weight 1N has a mass (1/g) kg i.e. (1/9.8) kg. Hence acceleration will be force /
mass = 1/(1/9.8)= 9.8 m/s
2
. Or look at the question like this. The force acting on the body is
equal to its weight. Hence acceleration should be equal to g. Ans.b
176. Acceleration along Y-direction is 4/4 = 1 m/s
2
Distance travelled along the Y-axis =
2
1
at
2
=
2
1
x1x16 = 8 m. Distance travelled along the X-axis = 1..5x4 = 6 m. Distance from
the origin = x y
2 2 2 2
6 8 10 + = + = m. Ans.c
177. The speed of the body = total impulse / mass, because the forces are in the same direction.
That is f
1
t
1
+ f
2
t
2
+ f
3
t
3
/ m = (10x3)+(20x4)+(30x5) / 20 = 13 m/s. Ans.a
178. The applied force in the first case f = f
s
+ ma (1), where f
s
is static frictional force. 2f = f
s
+
4ma (2). Multiplying first equation by 4 and subtracting we get f
s
= 2f/3. Ans.d
179.
G
G
f v . = fv cos 30
0
= 20x10x3/2 = 1003 W. Ans.c
180. In a conical pendulum centripetal force is provided by horizontal component of tension i.e .
Tsin = mv
2
/r The vertical component of the tension balances the weight of the body. i.e
Tcos = mg. Dividing the two equations, we get, tan = v
2
/rg. When the string is horizontal,
the angle will be 90
o
and v becomes infinite. Ans.a
181. When momentum p is constant kinetic energy E is proportional to 1/m (Indirect theory notes).
So kinetic energy will be in the inverse ratio of masses i.e. (1/1) : (1/2): (1/3) = 6:3:2. Ans.d.
182. At the highest point centripetal force is provided by weight i.e. m
2
r = mg. This gives
2
=
g/r. That is 4
2
/T
2
= g/r. T
2
= 4
2
r/g = 4x4 = 16. (since g =
2
)T = 4 s. Ans.b
183. The potential energy of a spring = (1/2)kx
2
. When stretched through 2x more, potential
energy U
1
= (1/2)k (3x)
2
= 9U. Increase in potential energy = 9U-U= 8U. Ans.d
184. The frictional force when the train moves with constant speed is given by
k
mg, where
k
is
coefficient of kinetic friction. Hence it remains constant for all uniform speeds. This makes
(d) correct (a & b) wrong. However when the train accelerates from 30 to 60 the frictional
force changes. This makes (c) correct. Ans.c & d
185. Kinetic energy of the bullet = potential energy of bullet + block. (1/2)mv
2
= (m+2m)gh. This
gives v = gh 6 . Ans.c
186. Here f = ma = constant. Thus we find m (1/a). The graph between two quantities which are
inversely proportional to each other will be a rectangular hyperbola. Ans.d

37
187. If E is the kinetic energy before first impact after first impact, it is E(90/100)=0.9E. After the
second impact it will be 0.9E x (90/100) = 0.81 E. Since velocity is proportional to E, the
velocity after second impact will be (0.81)v = 0.9 v. Ans.a
188. Using a single equation to find loss of kinetic energy
m m
m m
u u e
1 2
1 2
1 2
2 2
2
1
( )
( ) ( )
+
, we
have m
1
=2 , m
2
=1, u
1
=4, u
2
=2, e = 0.5. We get loss of energy = 1J. Ans.d
189. The stopping distance of a lorry is proportional to the kinetic energy it has, which in turn is
proportional to square of momentum. If momentum is doubled, stopping distance becomes 4
times. Ans.d
190. The potential energy of a body projected with an initial energy E will be Esin
2
at highest
point. Therefore the required ratio will be E
1
/E
2
= sin
2
90/sin
2
30 = 4/1. Ans.c
191. The kinetic energy of a body at highest point will be Ecos
2
. The ratio of energies E
1
/E
2
=
cos
2
30/cos
2
60 = 3/1. Ans.d
192. If velocity before impact is u, initial kinetic energy is mu
2
. Velocity after first rebound eu =
0.5 u. Kinetic energy after first rebound m x (0.5u)
2
= (1/2)x(1/4)mu
2
. Hence energy lost
is (3/4)x(1/2)mu
2
= 75% of original energy. Ans.c
193. Let f be this force. Then f = m
1
a
1
= m
2
a
2
. That is m
1
= (f/a
1
). m
2
= (f/a
2
). If a is the
acceleration produced on combined mass f = (m
1
+m
2
)a = [(f/a
1
)+(f/a
2
)]a. Cancelling f and
simplifying we get a = a
1
a
2
/ a
1+
a
2.
Ans.d
194. The loss of potential energy = Gain in kinetic energy. i.e. U = (1/2)mv
2
. m = 2U/v
2
. Ans.a
195. During explosion momentum is conserved. Explosion is produced by internal forces but the
internal energy is shared by all the pieces. Hence kinetic energy will be more. Ans.c
196. Here we are given velocity vector . v
2
= 3
2
+4
2
= 25. Kinetic energy (1/2)mv
2
= (1/2)1x25 =
12.5 J. Ans.d
197. Power = force x velocity = k x v
2
x v = kv
3
, where k is a constant. P
1
/P
2
= 4
3
/8
3
= 1/8. Ans.d
198. At the centre of earth acceleration that is g = 0. Hence (a) is correct. But body passes with
maximum speed . Therefore (b) is wrong (c) is correct. At the centre of earth potential
energy will be zero as this is taken as a reference point for measuring potential energy. Hence
(d) is correct. Ans. a ,c ,d.
199. The potential energy of the bob at an angular displacement is Mgl(1-cos) =
Mgl[2sin
2
(/2)]. Ans.b
200. Lighter car has greater kinetic energy. Hence it has greater
change in energy and greater damage. Ans.b
201. Resolving the momentum as shown in fig. we have the X-
component mv
x
before and after collision are in the same
direction and therefore they add. The Y component of
momentum is along the negative Y-axis before collision and
positive Y-axis after collision. So it cancels. The net momentum will be 2mv
x
= 2mv i
.
Ans.b
202. During its flight the only force acting on its body is the force of gravity f = mg. The change
in momentum = m(v-u) = impulse = fT. This is equal to mgT. Ans.a
203. The minimum force to start motion on a rough surface = static frictional force f
s
. But f
s
=
s

mg =
s
W. But
s
= tan . Therefore f
s
= W tan. Ans.d

38
204. To start a body in a certain direction along say positive X-axis, we have to apply a force along
negative X-axis (action). The reaction produced by friction moves the body along positive X-
axis . Hence the angle between velocity and force of friction at the start will be zero. Ans.a
205. When the spring is compressed work is done on it by the compressing agency. When it is
released it extends releasing the potential energy to itself. So no work is done by it on the
floor. Ans.c
206. Ans. b,d.
207. The frictional force applied by B on A =
s
mg = 0.5x3 kg wt. The frictional force applied by
A on B = 0.5x5 kgwt = 2.5 kg weight. So to keep the blocks horizontal without relative
motion between them, the total force to be applied = 1.5+2.5 = 4 kgwt. Ans.c
208. If v is the speed of the ball then its total energy is equal to (1/2) mv
2
+ mgh. If it is rebound
10 m higher its potential energy will be mg(h+10). Equating the two we get v
2
= 2gx10
v= 14 m/s. Ans.b
209. We have already seen when power is a constant x is proportional to t
3/2
(Theory notes).
Velocity v = dx/dt = (3/2)kt
1/2
. Since t is proportional to x
2/3
, t
1/2
is proportional to (x
2/3
)
1/2
=
x
1/3
. Ans.d
210. Here m = 1. Hence a = F. t=1 second. v = v
o
+ at = v
o
+a = v
o
+F. Hence (c) is correct. s =
v
o
+(1/2)at
2
=v
o
+(F/2). i.e. (a) is correct. Change in kinetic energy = final value - initial value
= (1/2)m(v
o
+F)
2
- (1/2)mv
o
2
which is not equal to that given in (b). Hence (b) is wrong.
Change in momentum m (v-v
o
) = m(v
o
+F) - mv
0
= mF. (d) is correct. Ans.a,c,d
211. Since the speed is same the centripetal force mv
2
/r remains the same in magnitude. Thus (a)
is correct and (d) is wrong. The centripetal force is still towards centre even when the
velocity is reversed. Hence (b) is correct and (c) is wrong. Ans. a,b
212. The earth is a rotating frame because of its spin and motion round sun. Hence it is non-
inertial. Thus (b) and (d) are correct (a) is wrong. An inertial frame is one in which Newtons
first law is obeyed, not all Newtons laws. Hence (c) is wrong. Ans. b,d
213. Tension of the cord = T = Mg-Ma. Here a = g/4. Therefore T = (3/4)Mg. Work = force x
distance = apparent weight x distance = (3/4)Mgd. Ans.b
214. Here only internal forces act. Since external force is zero momentum of centre of mass MV
cm

= constant. That is V
cm
= constant. Ans.b
215. A body escapes from the gravitational field when kinetic energy of projection is just equal to
gravitational potential energy. That is KE = PE. Here potential energy is negative. This
means KE + PE = 0. Ans.c
216. The angle of rotation
n
is proportional to 2n-1. So
2
/
3
= 3/5. This gives
3
= 50 radian as
2
= 30 radian. Ans.c
217. Angular momentum with respect to the origin L = rxp = 12 j x 10 i =-120 k, where we have
used momentum p = mv. So angular momentum has a magnitude 120 units and is along the
negative z axis. Ans.a
218. Torque = I. When is constant torque is minimum The moment of inertia I is minimum.
The axis of rotation should pass through centre of mass. If x is the distance of centre of mass
from zeroeth division. Taking zeroeth division as origin, we have (1x0+3x100)/(3+1) as the
centre of mass x. This gives x = 75 cm. Ans.d
219. Since kinetic energy is same and retarding torques are same the angles of rotation before they
are brought to rest will also be same. Ans.d
220. By Newtons experimental law, the ratio of relative velocity after impact to that before impact
= -e. This gives (v
2
-v
1
)/ u = e. So v
2
-v
1
= eu (1). By law of conservation of momentum, mu

39
= mv
1
+mv
2
. This gives u = v
1
+v
2
(2). Substituting (2) in (1) and solving we get v
1
/v
2
=
(1-e)/(1+e). Ans.d
221. Use theory notes short cut formula. For a solid sphere k
2
= (2/5)r
2
. Therefore the required
ratio will be r
2
/[1+(2/5)]r
2
= 5/7. Ans.c
222. According to the rules of vector addition 3 initial momentum vectors form the sides of an
equilateral triangle. Hence their vector sum is zero. So final sum of momentum should also
be zero. Since A is at rest, B and C should have equal and opposite momentum. Hence C
should move with a velocity opposite to B. Ans.b
223. If L is the length of the cylinder and r radius. Then we have M
(
(
+
4
r
12
L
2 2
= M
(
(
2
r
2
. Solving
this equation we get L
2
= 3r
2
. L/r = 3. Ans.d
224. Since they have same radii, the heavier one has greater moment of inertia. Since L is
constant, E is inversely proportional to I. So, lighter one has greater kinetic energy of
rotation. Ans.a
225. Since wire is uniform, mass is proportional to length i.e 2r. Moment of inertia = Mr
2
, and
hence will be constant x 2r x r
2
= constant x r
3
. So the ratio of moments of inertia will be
2
3
/1
3
= 8. Ans.a
226. The velocity of a satellite very close to earth, that is distance equal to radius of earth from
centre is 8 km/s. The orbital radius of geo-stationary satellite is nearly 7R, where R is radius
of earth. We have GM R GM R / . / = = 8 7 8/7 = 3 km/s nearly. ( Also refer to Indirect
theory notes short cuts.) Ans.b
227. By Keplers law we have T
2
= kR
3
. Differentiating 2(dT/T) = 3(dR/R). Here dR/R is equal to
2%. Therefore dT/T is 3%. Ans.d
228. The total energy is constant /r. When energy decreases by 1% r should increase by nearly 1%.
(
=
r
dr
E
dE
.T is proportional to r
3/2
by Keplers law. Therefore T should increase by
(3/2)x1 = 1.5% nearly. Ans.c
229. For weightlessness, the period of revolution should become 84 minutes from the present value
24x60 = 1440 minutes. That is it should become 84/1440 = nearly 1/17. The angular velocity
should increase by about 17 times . (Indirect theory notes) Ans.d
230. Use the equation connecting density , g and radius of earth R. = 3g/4RG. When is
constant, from this equation we find g is proportional to R. Hence when R decreases by 1%, g
also decreases by nearly 1%. Ans.a
231. Using Keplers law T is proportional to r
3/2
. We have r
1
= 6R + R = 7R. r
2
= 2.5R+R = 3.5R.
T
1
/T
2
= (r
1
/r
2
)
3/2
= (7R/3.5R)
3/2
= 2
3/2
= 22. T
1
= 24 h. Therefore T
2
= 24/22 = 62 h.
Ans.a
232. At the mid point the potential energy of a mass m placed = -Gm
1
m/(d/2) due to earth and -
Gm
2
m/(d/2) due to moon. This total potential energy should be equal to kinetic energy of
projection, for the body to escape. So we have
2 2 1
mv
2
1
d
m ) m m ( G 2
=
+
. This gives v =
2
1 2
G m m
d
( ) +
. Ans.b

40
233. The velocity of the satellite is clearly first cosmic velocity. In order to escape, it should be
given a velocity 2 times this velocity. i.e. 1.41 times or 141%. of this velocity i.e. The
increase will be 141-100=41%. Ans. a
234. When ice caps melt, the water produced will move away from the axis of rotation of earth due
to centrifugal force. This causes increase in moment of inertia of earth. Since angular
momentum of earth I should remain constant, this increase of I causes decrease of . The
decrease in angular velocity increases the period of rotation. Ans.a
235. The weight of the body will decrease due to less gravitational force of earth and more
gravitational force of moon. At some point where the two gravitational forces are equal, the
weight will become zero. This point will not be the midpoint . Hence (a) and (b) are wrong.
Since earths gravitational field is more, this point will be nearer to moon than earth. Hence
(c) is correct.. The mass of a body is always constant, which makes (d) correct. Ans. c, d.
236. The escape velocity of this planet is very high. Therefore no gas molecule can escape from
this planet. Their rms velocity will be too small when compared to escape velocity. Ans.c
237. The period of a satellite is given by T = 4
2 3
r GM / , where M is mass of earth. This
depends on r, the radius of orbit (b), M the mass of earth (a) and G gravitation constant (c).
The satellites period will not depend on its mass. Ans.d
238. The escape velocity from the surface of earth is 11.2 km/s , while that from moon is 2.4 km/s.
So missile B will escape from moon while missile A will return to earth. So As total energy
is negative and Bs total energy is positive. Ans.b
239. Inside a uniform sphere, gravitational field is directly proportional to the distance from the
centre. (Indirect theory notes) Ans.d
240. Do not use equation of motion. This will give an answer (a). The difference in potential
energy at the height and surface of earth is GMm/R-(GMm/2R). This difference should
appear as kinetic energy. i.e (1/2)mv
2
= GMm/2R. This gives v = Rg . Ans.b
241. If the persons apparent weight is (1/2)mg, it means the other half provides centripetal force
for his circular motion along with earth. So mR
2
= (1/2)mg.
= ) g / R 2 ( x 2 T . R 2 / g = . The quantity in the bracket is 84 minutes. (Refer to
Theory Notes-Indirect). Hence the required time period = 84x2 about 117 minutes. Ans.c
242. What is given here is gravitational potential i.e.- GM/r. Gravitational field is GM/r
2
=(poten-
tial /r) = 100/10 = 10 N/kg. Ans.a

THERMAL PHYSICS

SECTION 1
QUESTIONS

1. A balloon is just immersed below the water surface. As it is submerged through a little, it
sinks because of
a) surface tension b) increase in hydrostatic pressure
c) decrease in hydrostatics pressure d) both hydrostatic pressure and surface tension
2. Two rain drops of same radius and of terminal velocity 1 m/s coalesce. The terminal velocity
of resulting drop is
a) 2 m/s b) 2
1/3
m/s c) 2
2/3
m/s d) 2 m/s
3. Coal tar is first heated and then spread. This is because of
a) decrease in surface tension with heating
b) increase in surface tension in heating
c) increase in viscosity on heating
d) decrease in viscosity on heating
4. Some water and a mixture of alcohol and glycerine of same density are provided. Of the two
a) water has greater surface tension and less viscosity
b) water has less surface tension and greater viscosity
c) water has greater surface tension and less viscosity
d) water has same surface tension and same viscosity as that of mixture
5. Liquid rises to a height h in a capillary tube of cross sectional area A. In a capillary tube of
area 2A it will rise to a height
a)
2
h
b) 2h c)
2
h
d) 2 h
6. In a capillary tube pure water rises to a height h. If warm water is used in the same capillary
tube, the capillary rise
a) will be greater than h b) will be less than h
c) will be equal to h d) cannot be answered from the data
7. A liquid rises in a capillary tube to a height h. The capillary rise will be less in
a) a lift accelerating up b) at a place higher altitude
c) all the two places above d) at centre of earth
8. The depression at the centre of a uniform metre scale when loaded is x. If the metre scale is
cut into 2 half metre scales and one of them is used with the same load, the depression will be
a) 2x b) 8x c)
4
x
d)
8
x

9. Read the following statements:
2

42
Statement A: Addition of any impurity decreases surface tension of water
Statement B: Surface tension of water decreases on heating. Of these statements
a) both A and B are correct b) both A and B are wrong
c) A is correct, B is wrong d) A is wrong, B is correct
10. A piece of wood floats in a beaker of water at 0
0
C in a surrounding temperature of 20
0
C. As
water warms up to room temperature the immersed fraction of wood will
a) increase b) decrease
c) remain same d) first decrease and then increase
11. A metal rod of unit length and unit cross-sectional area is heated through 1
0
C If Youngs
modulus of elasticity is E and the linear expansivity /
0
C, then the compressional force
required to prevent the rod from expanding is
a) E b) /E c) E/ d) 3E
12. Water is used to cool in radiators of engines in cars because
a) of its low density b) of its easy availability
c) of its high specific heat d) of its low boiling point
13. When an ice melts at room temperature
a) the molecules gain kinetic energy b) the molecules lose potential energy
c) the molecules gain potential energy d) the molecules lose kinetic energy
14. The coefficient of thermal conductivity of a metal plate depends on
a) temperature difference between the two sides
b) thickness of the metal plate
c) area of cross section of the metal plate
d) material of the plate
15. *The temperature of an isotropic cubical solid of length L, density d and coefficient of linear
expansion per degree kelvin, is raised by 10
0
C. Then at this temperature, to a good
approximation its
a) length is L(1+10 ) b) total surface area is L
2
(1+20)
c) density is d(1+30) d) density is d/(1+30)
16. 3.21 kg of ice at 0
0
C is mixed with 3.21 kg of water at 69.8
0
C. The temperature of the
mixture is
a) 0
0
C b) 17.9
0
C c) 24
0
C d) 34.9
0
C
17. One mole of helium is mixed with one mol of hydrogen. The molar heat capacity at constant
volume of the mixture is
a) 4.2 J mol
-1
K
-1
b) 8.4 mol
-1
K
-1
c) 12.6 mol
-1
K
-1
d) 16.6 mol
-1
K
-1

18. Sodium vapour lamp gives two bright yellow lines. If an arc source is placed behind sodium,
we will get
a) the same two bright yellow lines, under dark background
b) uniform illumination
c) two dark lines under bright background
d) the same two bright sodium lines under brighter background
19. 70 calories of heat are required to raise the temperature of 2 mol of an ideal gas at constant
pressure from 30
0
C to 35
0
C. The amount of heat required (in calories) to raise the
temeperature of the same gas through the same range (30
0
C to 35
0
C) at constant volume is
a) 30 b) 50 c) 70 d) 90
20. An extremely hot star would look
a) violet or indigo b) green or yellow c) orange or red d) white

43
21. Thermal energy of air molecules at room temperature is of the order of
a) 0.2 eV b) 2 eV c) 0.02 eV d) 0.002 eV
22. The rms velocity of oxygen molecules at STP is V ms
-1
. If it is heated at a constant pressure
until the volume becomes 4 times, the original volume, the new rms velocity will be
a) 4V b) 3V c) 2V d) V
23. A beaker full of water kept inside a room during acute winter overflows when heated. If it
had been cooled from the room temperature, it would have over flown. The temperature of
the room is (in
0
C)
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
24. Two metallic spheres S
1
and S
2
are made of the same material and have identical surface
finish. The mass of S
1
is three times that of S
2
. Both the spheres are heated to the same high
temperature and placed in the same room having lower temperature but are thermally
insulated from each other. The ratio of the initial rate of cooling of S
1
to that of S
2

a) 3
1/3
b) (1/3)
1/3
c) 1/ 3 d) 3 /1
25. Three closed vessel A,B and C are at the same temperature T and contain gases which obey
the Maxwellian distribution of velocities. Vessel A contains only O
2
, B only N
2
and C a
mixture of equal quantities of O
2
and N
2
. If the average speed of the O
2
molecule in vessel A
is V
1
that of the N
2
molecules in vessel B is V
2
, the average speed of the O
2
molecules in
vessel C is
a) (V
1
+ V
2
)/2 b) V
1
c) (V
1
V
2
)
1/2
d) M / kT 3
26. When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure, the fraction of the heat energy
supplied which increases the internal energy of gas is
a) 2/5 b) 3/5 c) 3/7 d) 5/7
27. The equation of state of a gas is
)
V
aT
P (
2
+ V
c
= (RT +b)
where a,b,.c and R are constants. The isotherms can be represented by P = AV
m
BV
n
, where
A and B depend only on temperature. Hence
a) m = c and n = -1 b) m = -c and n = -1
c) m = c and n = 1 d) m = -c and n = 1
28. 22 gm of CO
2
at 27
0
C is mixed with 16 gm of O
2
at 37
0
C. The temperature of the mixture is
a) 30.5
0
C b) 34.5
0
C c) 27
0
C d) 32
0
C
29. Heat is flowing through two cylindrical rods of the same material. The diameters of the rods
are in the ratio 1:2 and the lengths in the ratio 2:1. If the temperature difference between the
ends is the same, then the ratio of the rate of flow of heat through them will be
a) 1:1 b) 2:1 c) 1:4 d) 1:8
30. 2 g of hydrogen is mixed with 4 g of He. The ratio of specific heat of this mixture is
a) 23/15 b) 3/2 c) 7/5 d) 5/3
31. A material has a specific heat given by the equation C = 0.5 T J/g
0
C. What is heat required to
raise the temperature of 2 g of this substance from 10
0
C to 20
0
C?
a) 10 J b) 20 J c) 50 J d) 150 J
32. The rms speed of oxygen molecules at T K is v. If temperature is doubled and oxygen
dissociates, the rms speed would be
a) v b) 2v c) 2 / v ) d v 2
33. If earth had no atmosphere, it would have been

44
a) slightly cooler b) very hot
c) slightly hotter d) very cool
34. It is desirable to have for cooking vessels
a) low specific heat and low thermal conductivity
b) low specific heat and high thermal conductivity
c) high specific heat and low thermal conductivity
d) high specific heat and high thermal conductivity
35. The external work done when 1 g of hydrogen is heated through 1
0
C at constant pressure sis
(in cal)
a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 8
36. Two identical gas tanks are placed on the two pans of a beam balance. One tank is empty and
open to the atmosphere. The second tank is evacuated and then filled with helium until the
two tanks balance. The pressure of helium must be (in atmosphere)
a) 1 b) 4 c) 7.5 d) 15
37. A closed vessel contains 4 g of oxygen and 3.5 g of nitrogen. The total pressure is 8 atm. at
the given temperature. If all the oxygen is removed from the system without allowing any
change in temperature, then the pressure will become (in atmosphere)
a) 56/15 b) 64/15 c) 4 d) 70/8
38. Which of the following is the best conductor of heat ?
a) Copper b) Brass c) Aluminum d) Silver
39. If 1 mol of argon is mixed with 1 mol of oxygen. The external work done when this mixture is
heated through 1
0
C at constant pressure is
a) 3R b) 2R c) R d) 4R
40. The equation to a certain gas can be written as TV
2/5
= constant. The heat required to raise the
internal energy of 1 mol of this gas through 1
0
C is
a) 2R b) 3R c) R d) 2.5R
41. A metallic ball and a highly stretched spring are made of the same material and have the same
mass. They are heated so that they melt. The latent heat required
a) will be the same for both b) will be greater for the ball
c) will be greater for the spring d) cannot be answered from the data
42. If denotes thermal conductivity, d density, c specific heat, then the units of /dc will be
a) m
2
s
-1
b) m c) ms
-2
d) s
43. The time period of a pendulum is x and its linear expansivity is . When its temperature is
raised by T, the change in the time period is
a) 2 x T b) 2 T c)
2
1
x T d)
2
1
T
44. During an experiment an ideal gas is found to obey an additional law VP
2
= constant. the
gas is initially at a temperature T and has volume V.When it expands to a volume 2V, the
temperature becomes
a) 22 T b)
2
1
T c) 3 T d) 2 T
45. One of the most efficient engines ever developed operates between 2100 K and 700 K. Its
actual efficiency is 40%. The percentage fraction of its actual efficiency to its maximum
efficiency is
a) 48% b) 60% c) 72% d) 55%

45
46. When a gas is isothermally expanded so that its volume becomes twice, the rms velocity
a) becomes twice b) becomes 2 times
c) remains the same d) becomes 0.7 times
47. If internal energy of a gas decreases by an amount equal to the external work, the gas is
undergoing
a) adiabatic expansion b) adiabatic compression
c) isothermal expansion d) isochoric expansion
48. In a certain process 100 calorie of heat is added to a system and it does 20 J of work on the
surroundings. The internal energy of the system is
a) increased by 400 J b) increased by 120 J
c) increased by 120 cal d) decreased by 400 J
49. If the temperature of a hot body is increased by 50%, the amount of radiation emitted by it
would increase by nearly
a) 50% b) 225% c) 400% d) 500%
50. Two spheres of the same material have radii 1m and 4m and temperatures 4000 K and 2000 K
respectively. The ratio of energy radiated per second by the first sphere to that of the second
is
a) 16:1 b) 1:1 c) 4:1 d) 1:9
51. Two identical rods A and B when joined in series as in (fig1) conduct heat at a rate 4 W at
thermal equilibrium. When they are joined in parallel as shown
(fig.2) under same temperature difference, they will conduct
heat at a rate,
a) 1 W b) 2 W
c) 4 W d) 16 W
52. Two stars radiate maximum energy at frequencies f
1
= 2 x 10
15
Hz and f
2
= 2.5 x 10
15
Hz
respectively. The ratio of the temperature of the first to that of the second is
a) 4:5 b) 5:4 c) 25:16 d) 2:5
53. The ratio of energy emitted by two stars is 1:16. What is the ratio of the wavelengths carrying
maximum energy of first to second
a) 1:2 b) 2:1 c) 4:1 d) 1:4
54. It takes 10 hours to form 1 cm thick layer of ice in a pond where the surrounding at
temperature is 10
0
C. The time to increase the thickness of ice from 1 cm to 2 cm is
a) 10 h b) 20 h c) 30 h d) 40 h
55. A system is in thermodynamic equilibrium if
a) no external force acts on it
b) no chemical reaction takes place
c) no heat exchange takes place with the surroundings
d) all the above three
56. The volume of an ideal gas increases to twice during an adiabatic change. In the process
a) its internal energy increases b) its internal energy decreases
c) it entropy remains constant d) both (b) and (c)
57. A storage battery is charged with 20 A current at 12 V. The rate of transfer of heat from the
battery is 10W. The rate of change of internal energy is
a) 240 J/s b) 230 J/s c) 460 J/s d) 46 J/s
58. Current in a filament lamp is doubled. The temperature of the lamp increases to
a) 2 times b) 4 times c) 2 times d) 22 times
A B
A
B

46
59. Three liquids of equal masses are thoroughly mixed. The specific heat capacities of liquids
are C
1
, C
2
and C
3
and their temperatures are t
1
, t
2
and t
3
respectively. The temperature of the
mixture is
a) (C
1
+ C
2
+ C
3
) / (t
1
+t
2
+t
3
)
b) (C
1
t
1
+ C
2
t
2
+ C
3
t
3
) / (C
1
+ C
2
+ C
3
)
c) (C
1
t
1
+ C
2
t
2
+ C
3
t
3
) / (t
1
+ t
2
+ t
3
)
d) (C
1
t
1
+ C
2
t
2
+ C
3
t
3
) / (C
1
t
2
+ C
2
t
3
+ C
3
t
1
)
60. The temperature at which the average kinetic energy of a molecule of a gas will be same as
that of an electron accelerated through 1 volt is nearest to
a) 800 K b) 6700 K c) 7700 K d) 9200 K
61. If l is the length, A the are of cross-section and , the thermal conductivity, then the thermal
resistance of a block is given by
a) 1/A b) 1/A c) A/l d) A/l
62. A wall has two layers A and B each made of a different material. Both the layers have the
same length and thickness. The thermal conductivity of the material of A is twice that of B.
Under thermal equilibrium, the temperature difference across the wall is 36
0
C, end of A being
at 0
0
C. The temperature of interface of A and B is
a) 6
0
C b) 12
0
C c) 18
0
C d) 24
0
C
63. A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate all made of same material and having the same mass
are initially heated to a temperature of 80
0
C. Which of them cools fastest when left in air at
room temperature?
a) sphere b) cube c) circular plate d) all the same rate
64. A body cools from 70
0
to 60
0
C in 10 minutes. To cool from 60
0
to 50
0
C, under the same
surroundings of temperature 30
0
C, it will take (in min)
a) 10 b) 13.33 c) 14 d) 11
65. Ten litre of benzene weighs:
a) more in summer than in winter b) more in winter than in summer
c) equal in winter and summer d) cannot be answered from the data
66. The kinetic theory of gases breaks down most at
a) low pressure and high temperature b) high pressure and low temperature
c) low pressure and low temperature d) high pressure and high temperature
67. When temperature of a gas is raised while its volume remains constant, the pressure exerted
by a gas on the walls of the container increases because it molecules
a) lose more kinetic energy to the wall
b) are in contact with the wall for a shorter time
c) strike the wall more often with higher velocities
d) collide with each other less frequently
68. The kinetic energy of 1 g of helium gas at STP is
a) 819 J b) 933 J c) 3398 J d) 850 J
69. One mole of a diatomic gas and 1 mole of a monatomic gas are each given 1.5 kilo calories of
heat at constant volume. The ratio of temperature rise of diatomic to monatomic is
a) 7/5 b) 5/7 c) 5/3 d) 3/5
70. A crystal has a coefficient of linear expansion 13 x 10
-7
in one direction and 231 x 10
-7
in each
direction at right angles to it. Then it cubical expansivity is
a) 462 x 10
-7
b) 244 x 10
-7

c) 475 x 10
-7
d) 257 x 10
-7


47
71. An ideal gas is allowed to expand freely against vacuum in a rigid insulated container. The
gas undergoes
a) increase in internal energy
b) increase in temperature
c) decrease in internal energy but increase in temperature
d) neither an increase nor decrease in internal energy
72. Oxygen and helium of equal volume V at the same temperature T and same pressure P are
mixed to have a volume V. The resulting pressure of the mixture will be
a) 2P b) P c) P/2 d) P/4
73. Two stars A and B of equal surface area radiate maximum energy at 3600 A
0
And 4800 A
0

respectively. Then the ratio of total power radiated by A to that of B will be
a) 256:81 b) 3:4 c) 4:3 d) 81:256
74. Check which of the following statements is not correct for an ideal gas
a) the change in internal energy in a constant pressure process from temperature T
1
to T
2
is
equal to nCp (T
2
-T
1
), where Cp is the molar heat capacity at constant pressure and n the
number of moles of the gas.
b) the change in internal energy of the gas and the work done by the gas are equal in
magnitude in an adiabatic process
c) the internal energy does not change in an isothermal process
d) no heat is added or removed in an adiabatic process
75. The adiabatic elasticity of helium at STP is
a) 1.4 x 10
5
Pa b) 1.53 x 10
5
Pa c) 1.66 x 10
5
Pa d) 1 x 10
5
Pa
76. A surface at a temperature T
0
K receives heat from a source at a temperature T K (T >> T
0
), at
a distance r from the source. If the temperature and distance are doubled, the power P
1

received by the surface becomes approximately (P original power)
a) P b) 2P c) 4P d) 16 P
77. Two rods of same length and area but made of different materials are
welded together as shown in the fig. If
1
and
2
are the thermal
conductivity of each of them respectively, the thermal conductivity
of the system will be
a)
1
+
2
b)
1

2
/
1
+
2

c) 2
1

2
/
1
+
2
d)
1
+
2
/2
78. A bullet is stopped by a target the temperature rise of the bullet is T, without loss of energy.
If the bullets velocity is doubled and it loses 50% of the energy, the rise in temperature of the
bullet will be
a) T b) 2T c) 3 T d) 4 T
79. One mol of monatomic gas is heated from 0
0
C to 100
0
C at constant pressure. The change in
its internal energy is
a) 2.3 J b) 12.4 J c) 120 J d) 1250 J
80. If a temperature of source and sink of a Carnot engine is increased by 10% its efficiency
a) increases by 10% b) decreases by 10%
c) increases by 1% d) remains the same
81. A test tube of water at 4
0
C is immersed inside a large block of ice. Which of the following
will happen?
a) Water in the test tube will freeze
b) Water in the test tube will not cool
c) Water in the test tube will reach freezing point but will not freeze
1
2

48
d) water in the test tube will reach between freezing point and 4
0
C
82. Which of the following cases, the work done by a gas is minimum ?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
83. If distance between sun and earth is reduced to half the present value, solar constant
a) increases to 4 times b) increases to 2 times
c) decreases to 4 times d) remains the same
84. A cylinder of radius R made of a material of thermal conductivity K
1
is surrounded by a
cylindrical shell of inner radius R and outer radius 2R
made of a material of thermal conductivity K
2
. The
two ends of the combined system are maintained at
two different temperatures. there is no loss of heat
across the cylindrical surface and the system is in a
steady state. The effective thermal conductivity of the
system is
a) K
1
+ K
2
b) K
1
K
2
/ (K
1
+K
2
)
c) K
1
+ 3K
2
)/4 d) (3K
1
+ K
2
)/4
85. A cube of side a is heated through 1
o
C. If is the linear expansivity of the material of the
cube, its increase in area is
a) a
2
b) 4a
2
c) 6a
2
d) 12 a
2

86. The maximum temperature of 1g hot water which can be mixed with 1g ice at 0
o
C so that the
temperature remains at 0
o
C, is
a) 10
o
C b) 20
0
C c) 50
o
C d) 80
o
C
87. 3.12 kJ of heat is supplied to a mass of monatomic gas produces a temperature rise. If the
same amount of heat is supplied to a diatomic gas of same mass, the temperature rise will be
a) same b) 7/5 times c) 3/5 times d) 5/7 times
88. 16 g of oxygen at STP is mixed with 14 g of nitrogen at 10
o
C . The resulting temperature of
the mixture will be
a) 0
o
C b) 5
o
C
c) slightly more than 5
o
C d) slightly less than 5
o
C
89. A substance of mass M requires an input power P to remain in the molten state at its melting
point. When the power source is turned off the sample completely solidifies in a time t. The
latent heat of fusion of the substance is
a) Pt/M b) P/Mt c) Mt/T d) MP/t
90. 2 g of He is heated through 1
o
C at constant pressure. . The external work done in the process
is
a) R/2 b) R c) 3R/2 d) 2R
91. The RMS speed of hydrogen molecules at a temperature T is x m/s. At a temperature 4T,
hydrogen dissociates. At this temperature the RMS speed of hydrogen will be
a) 2x b) 4x c) (22) x d) 42 x
92. Two metals A and B are used to make a compensated pendulum. If the linear expansivity of
A to that of B is in the ratio 3:1, the ratio of length of A to that of B will be
K
1
K
2
R
2 R
1 2
X
Y
X
Y
X
Y
X
Y
V
P
(1 ) (2 ) (3 ) (4 )

49
a) 3:1 b) 1:3 c) 1.5:1 d) 1:1.5
93. 1 mol of hydrogen is mixed with 1 mol of helium at the same temperature. The ratio of
specific heats of the mixture is
a) 1.67 b) 1.4 c) 1.5 d) 1.53
94. A thin steel wire of length `L increases in length by 1% when heated through a certain
range of temperature. If a thin steel plate of area 2LxL is heated through same range of
temperature, the percentage increase in area will be
a) 1% b) 2% c) 3% d) 4%
95. A gas of = 4/3 is heated at constant pressure what percentage of total heat supplied is used
as external work ?
a) 25% b) 20% c) 10% d) 5%
96. An electric heater of constant power takes 50 seconds to turn x g of ice at 0
o
C into water at
100
o
C. The time it will take to turn this water into steam at 100
o
C is
a) 25 s b) 50 s c) 100 s d) 150 s
97. A mixture is formed with one mol of monatomic gas, 1 mol of diatomic gas and 1 mol of
triatomic gas. The external work done when this mixture is heated through 1
o
C is
a) R b) 6R c) 1.5R d) 3R
98. The ratio of diameter of molecule A to that of B is 1:2. The mean free path of A to B when
they have same concentration, will be in the ratio
a) 1:2 b) 1:4 c) 2:1 d) 4:1
99. 22.2 g of ice at 0
o
C is mixed with 22.2g of water at 22.2
o
C. The resulting temperature of the
mixture is
a) 22.2
o
C b) 11.1
o
C c) 0
o
C d) 5.6
o
C
100. An ideal monatomic gas is heated at constant pressure . What fraction of heat energy
supplied to it is used as increase in internal energy?
a) 2/5 b) 3/5 c) 5/7 d) 3/7
101. If R/C
p
for a gas is 0.28, the gas could be
a) hydrogen b) helium
c) carbon dioxide d) mixture of helium and hydrogen
102. If big ice cube falls from a height 3.36 m. Nearly what fraction of it will melt?
a) 0.1% b) 1 % c) 10% d) 0.01%
103. *A thermos flask containing hot coffee is vigorously shaken . Check the correct statements
a) The temperature of the coffee will increase
b) The internal energy of system will increase
c) Heat is given to the system
d) Work is done on the system
104. The temperature of a hot source is 1000 K. If we use a powerful convex lens to converge
heat radiation from the source to a point, at this point
a) we can produce a temperature well above 1000 K
b) we can produce a temperature of 1000 K
c) we can produce a temperature only below 1000 K
d) we can produce a temperature above 1000 K if the source has sufficient energy.
105. During winter the snow does not melt at once when suns rays fall on it, because it
a) reflects suns rays b) has high specific heat
c) has high latent heat of fusion d) is due to all the three given above

50
106. In an adiabatic change the pressure P and temperature T of a monatomic gas is related by the
equation P is proportional to T
c
. Here c is equal to
a) 5/3 b) 2/5 c) 3/5 d) 5/2
107. An ideal gas is found to obey the equation PV
3/2
= constant. If such a gas at a temperature T
is compressed adiabatically to half its volume the final temperature would be
a) 2 T b) 4 T c) 1.4 T d) 2.8 T
108. The RMS speed of hydrogen molecules is v. The RMS speed of a mixture of hydrogen and
oxygen of volumes in the ratio 5:1 will be
a) 5 v b)
6
21
c)
21
6
d)
3
21

109. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 120 K to 480 K. The rms speed of its
molecules increases by
a) 100% b) 200% c) 300% d) 400%
110. A container of volume 1m
3
is equally divided by a partition . One part contains an ideal gas
at 300 K and the other part is vacuum . The whole system is thermally insulated from the
surroundings. When the partition is removed the gas expands to occupy the whole volume.
The temperature of the gas will be
a) 150 K b) 300 K c) 600 K d) 75 K
111. An ideal gas with a pressure P, volume V and temperature T is expanded isothermally to a
volume 2V and pressure P
i
. If the same gas is expanded adiabatically to a volume 2V, the
final pressure is P
a
. The ratio specific heat of the gas is 1.67. The ratio P
a
/P
i
is equal to
a) 2
1.67
b) 2
-0.67
c) 2
0.67
d) 2
112. The ratio of speed of sound in hydrogen to rms speed of hydrogen molecules at STP is equal
to

5
9
) d
9
5
) c
7
15
) b
15
7
) a
113. The pressure of a gas contained in a vessel is P. If mass of each molecule is reduced to half
and rms speed doubled, the pressure will be
a) P b) P/2 c) P/4 d) 2P
114. A given mass of gas of volume V is heated at a constant pressure so that the rms velocity is
doubled. The new volume it occupies is
a) V/2 b) 2V c) 2V d) 4V
115. The mean free path of molecules is related to the temperature T by proportional to
a) T b) 1/T c) T
2
d) 1/T
2

116. If heat supplied to a gas only increases internal energy of the gas, the process is
a) isothermal b) adiabatic c) isobaric d) isochoric
117. The equation to the adiabatic change of a gas is given by T is proportional to V
-2/5
. The heat
required to raise the internal energy of 1 mol of this gas through 1
o
C is
a) (5/2)R b) (3/2)R c) (7/2)R d) 3R
118. If A is the dimensions of specific heat and B is the dimensions of gravitational potential, the
dimensions of the ratio A/B will be that of
a) temperature b) Weins constant
c) mass x temperature d) 1/temperature
119. *The internal energy of a gas depends on
a) pressure b) volume c) temperature d) molecular separation

51
120. Which of the following remains constant when water boils to steam ?
a) potential energy b) kinetic energy
c) internal energy d) entropy
121. The rms speed of certain gas at a temperature is v. If the temperature of the gas is increased
by 10% and then decreased by 10% , the rms speed
a) remains the same as v b) increases by 1% of v
c) decreases by 1% of v d) decreases by 0.5% of v
122. The pressure and temperature of a given mass of gas is increased to 3 times each. In this
process the rms velocity
a) increases to 3 times b) increases to 9 times
c) increases to 33 times d) increases to3 times
123. The pressure of a gas is decided by
a) total random collision of molecules
b) random collision of molecules per second
c) average collision of molecules per second
d) average collision per unit area per second
124. *Cooking vessels made with stainless steel are provided with extra copper bottom. This is
because
a) copper has more density
b) copper has more thermal conductivity
c) copper has more specific heat
d) copper has less specific heat
125. A body A having 1000 J of heat energy at 20
o
C is mixed with a body B having 500 J of heat
energy at 40
o
C. Check the correct statement:
a) Heat will flow from A to B
b) Heat will flow from B to A
c) Heat will not flow between the two bodies
d) The final temperature of the mixture will be 30
o
C
126. A refrigerator has a coefficient of performance of 10. When it works at a power of 700 W,
the heat removed by it from the substance to be cooled per second is
a) 7000 J b) 70 J c) 700 J d) 4200 J
127. x mol of monatomic gas is mixed with x mol of diatomic gas. The heat in calorie required to
raise the temperature of the mixture through 10
o
C is
a) 40 x b) 80x c) 20 x d) 60 x
128. The efficiency of a Carnots engine is y ( y is a fraction). When the temperature of the sink is
increased by 20
0
C, the efficiency becomes 0.8 y. The temperature of the source is
a) 50/y b) 40/0.2y c) 100/y d) 100/0.2 y
129. The efficiency of a Carnot engine can be increased by
a) increasing both the temperature of source and sink
b) decreasing both the temperature of source and sink
c) decreasing the temperature of source and increasing in the temperature of sink
d) increasing the temperature of source and decreasing in the temperature of sink
130. By what height should water fall so that it will be warmer by 1
o
C? Assume 30% of energy of
water is wasted
a) 600 m b) 300 m c) 240 m d) 420 m
131. If the radius and surface temperature of a black body decrease by 1% each, the power
radiated by it

52
a) decreases by 2% b) decreases by 4%
c) decreases by 5% d) decreases by 6%
132. At upper atmosphere, where kinetic temperature is 1000 K, an astronaut feels
a) very cold b) cold c) very hot d) warm
133. In an atomic bomb explosion, the temperature produced is about 10
6
K. In which region of
electromagnetic spectrum does the emitted radiation belong to?
a) ultra violet region b) infra red region
c) X-ray region d) visible region
134. The unit of thermal resistance is
a) KW
-1
b) mW
-1
K c) WK
-
1 d) Wm
-1

SECTION 2: ANSWERS

1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5 (c)
6 (d) 7 (a) 8 (d) 9 (d) 10 (d)
11 (a) 12 (c) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15 (a),(d)
16 (a) 17 (d) 18 (c) 19 (b) 20 (a)
21 (c) 22 (c) 23 (d) 24 (a) 25 (b)
26 (d) 27 (b) 28 (d) 29 (d) 30 (b)
31 (d) 32 (b) 33 (d) 34 (b) 35 (a)
36 (c) 37 (c) 38 (d) 39 (b) 40 (d)
41 (a) 42 (a) 43 (c) 44 (d) 45 (b)
46 (c) 47 (a) 48 (a) 49 (c) 50 (b)
51 (d) 52 (a) 53 (b) 54 (c) 55 (d)
56 (d) 57 (b) 58 (c) 59 (b) 60 (c)
61 (b) 62 (b) 63 (c) 64 (c) 65 (b)
66 (b) 67 (c) 68 (d) 69 (d) 70 (c)
71 (d) 72 (a) 73 (a) 74 (a) 75 (c)
76 (c) 77 (d) 78 (b) 79 (d) 80 (d)
81 (c) 82 (a) 83 (a) 84 (c) 85 (d)
86 (d) 87 (c) 88 (b) 89 (a) 90 (a)
91 (c) 92 (b) 93 (c) 94 (b) 95 (a)
96 (d) 97 (d) 98 (d) 99 (c) 100 (b)
101 (a) 102 (d) 103 (a,b,d) 104 (c) 105 (c)
106 (d) 107 (c) 108 (c) 109 (a) 110 (b)
111 (b) 112 (a) 113 (d) 114 (d) 115 (b)
116 (d) 117 (a) 118 (d) 119 (c,d) 120 (b)
121 (d) 122 (d) 123 (d) 124 (b,d) 125 (b)
126 (a) 127 (b) 128 (c) 129 (d) 130 (a)
131 (d) 132 (a) 133 (c) 134 (a)

53
SECTION 3
SOLUTIONS
1. When the balloon sinks below the surface, hydrostatic pressure increases, decreasing the
volume (Boyles law). This reduces up thrust (buoyant force), which makes it to sink more
until it sinks to the bottom. (Note: the answer is not surface tension because it will oppose
sinking) Ans.b
2. The terminal velocity is proportional to a
2
(a radius) .v =

9
g ) ( a 2
2
If v
1
is the terminal
velocity of the smaller drop, v
2
that of resulting drop,
2
2
2
1
2
1
a
a
v
v
= . a
2
= 2
1/3
x a
1
. This gives
v
2
= 2
2/3
x v
1
= 2
2/3
x 1 m/s. Ans.c
3. When coal-tar is heated viscosity decreases with heating. Then it is laid. After it cools down
viscosity increases and it settles. ( Indirect theory notes). Ans.d
4. Ans.a
5. r h g = 2 S cos. That is rxh = constant. A = r
2
. Thus we find Axh = constant. When
area is increased to twice, height decreases to 2 times. Ans.c
6. Using the formula r h g = 2S, when warm water is taken surface tension decreases. So the
capillary height will decrease. However density is less for warm water. So the question can
be answered only if the relative decrease of the two are known. Ans.d
7. Once again we use the relation r h g = 2S. Capillary rise h will be less if g is more. This
happens only in the case of lift accelerating upward. Here effectively g is equal to g+a.
Therefore h is less. Ans.a
8. The depression at centre 1 t of a metre scale is given by =
Y bd
Mgl 4
3
3
. Thus is proportional to
1
3
. When metre scale is cut into 2 equal halves, 1 becomes 1/2 becomes (1/2)
3
= 1/8 of x.
Ans.d
9. Heating reduces surface tension. Hence B is correct. But only insoluble and semi soluble
impurities reduce surface tension. Highly soluble impurity increases surface tension of the
solvent. Hence A is wrong. Ans.d
10. When a body floats in a liquid, the immersed fraction is=density of body/density of liquid.
When water is heated its density increases up to 4
0
C, and then decreases . The immersed
fraction therefore first decreases and then increases. Ans.d
11. If e is increase in length, using = =
l l
e
have we
T L
L
. Thus e = . Youngs modulus
e 1
1 F
. e . i ,
Ae
FL
E
= = E. F = Ee = E. Ans.a
12. Heat lost = mc. For a given quality of heat we require only the minimum mass of water for
cooling because of a high value of specific heat. Ans.c
13. During melting, the temperature is constant. Hence the molecules do not gain kinetic energy.
The heat supplied is used to gain potential energy, decreasing the separation of molecules.
The volume of ice decreases on melting. Ans.c

54
14. The coefficient of thermal conductivity is a constant for a given material and will not depend
on any of these. (The heat conducted will depend on these factors). Ans.d
15. Using L
1
= L
0
(1+ T) where is linear expansivity. We have L
10
= L
0
(1+ 10). (a) is
correct. Since areal expansion = 2, A
10
= A
0
(1+t) = L
2
(1+20). But the total area is
that of six faces. Hence (b) is wrong. Since density at 0
0
C, d
0
is related to density at t
0
C by
the equation d
0
= d
t
(1+t), we have
+
=
+
=
+
=
30 1
d
) 10 3 ( 1
d
t 1
d
d
0 0 0
t
(d) is correct and (c) is
wrong. Ans.a,d
16. Use the information supplied in indirect theory notes Here < 80
0
C. Ans.a
17. Cv for helium(monatomic gas) is (3/2) R and for hydrogen (diatomic) is (5/2)R. Hence Cv
for mixture is 4R/2 joule/mole K = 2R J/mol K = 16.6. (Use table given in theory notes)
Ans.d
18. According to Kirchoff law, a good absorber of a certain wavelength is also a good emitter. If
sodium emits two bright yellow lines, it will absorb radiation of the same wavelength when a
more intense source is kept behind it. An arc source is more intense than sodium. Therefore,
sodium absorbs these wavelengths and produces two dark lines under the bright background
of the arc source. Ans.c
19. We have mCp T = 70 cal, m = 2 mol, T = 5
0
C. This gives Cp = 7 cal / mol
0
C. Cp Cv =
R where R = 2 cal/mol
0
C. Therefore Cv = 7-2 = 5. Thus the heat required at constant
volume to raise through 5
0
C = mCvT = 2 x 5 x 5 = 50 cal. Ans.b
20. We have to use here Weins displacement law, mT = constant, where m is the wavelength
of radiation carrying maximum energy and T the temperature of the star. For a very hot star T
is high. m will be low. In the visible region lower wave length corresponds to the violet
Ans.a
21. By Boltzmanns law, thermal energy is of the order of k
B
T where k
B
is Boltzmanns constant
Taking room temperature T = 300 K, E = 1.38 x 10
-23
x 300/(1.6 x 10
-19
) 0.02 eV Ans.c
22. When heated at constant pressure, by Charles law temperature should increase to 4 times.
The rms velocity is proportional to square root of temperature. So the rms velocity becomes
4 = 2 times. Ans.c
23. A given mass of water has minimum volume at 4
0
C. When heated or cooled from this
temperature water expands and overflows. Hence temperature of the room is 4
0
C. Ans.d
24. Heat energy radiated per unit area per second =
3
r
r 4
r
3
4
2
3

which is proportional to r.
2
1
2
1
r
r
S by radiated Heat
S by radiated Heat
= . Mass of S
1
= 3 x mass of S
2
. Therefore
3
4
r
1
3
= 3 x
3
4
r
2
3
.
This gives (r
1
/r
2
) = (3)
1/3
. Ans.a
25. According to Maxwellian distribution of velocities, average velocity of a molecule depends
only on the temperature. (Similar to one postulate of kinetic theory). Since the temperatures
are same in the three vessels, the average speed of molecules will also be same. Ans.b
26. If Cv is molar heat capacity at constant volume, Cp molar heat capacity at constant pressure,
heat required to increase internal energy of n mol of gas in n Cv T. Total heat supplied to
the gas i.e. to increase internal energy and to do external work, is nC
p
T. The ratio of

55
increase in internal energy to total energy is
7
5 1
C
C
T nC
T nC
p
v
p
v
=
= =
for a diatomic gas. This

can also be done from Indirect theory notes short-cuts. Ans.d
27. Re-writing P =
V
aT
V
b RT
2
c

+
= AV
-c
-BV
-1
(1) At constant temperature, RT + b = constant
A and aT
2
= constant B. It is given in the question here P = AV
m
BV
n
. (2). Comparing (1)
and (2) we get m = -c and n = -1. Ans.b
28. 22 gm of CO
2
is half mol of CO
2
16 gm of O
2
is half mol of O
2
. Cv for CO
2
is 3R. Cv for
O
2
is 5R/2. Let t be the final temperature of the mixture. Then by law of mixtures,
0.5 x 3R x (t-27) = 0.5 x
2
5
R x (37-t). This gives t = 31.54 32
0
C. Ans.d
29. If Q
1
and Q
2
are the rate of flow of heat through the rods by the law of heat conduction Q =
1
2
2
2
2
1
1
2
2
1
2
1 2 1
L r
L r
L
L
A
A
Q
Q
,
L
t ) T T ( A
Q
= =
=

=
8
1
2
1
2
1
2
=
(
. Ans.d
30. We are mixing here one mol of hydrogen i.e. monatomic gas with one mol of He that is
diatomic gas. Cv (mixture) =
2
(5R/2) (3R/2) +
=2R. C
p
(mixture) =
2
(7R/2) (5R/2) +
= 3R.
Thus the required ratio is is 3R/2R = 1.5. This information is also given in indirect theory
notes. Ans.b
31. Since specific heat varies with temperature here, this should be done by integration. Heat
required to raise from 10 to 20
0
C is

=
20
10
20
10
V
dT T 5 . 0 x 2 dT mC = 150 J. Ans d
32. v(rms speed) =
M
RT 3
.When temperature is doubled T becomes 2T. When oxygen
dissociates, its molecular mass M becomes atomic mass M/2. Substituting these values the
new rms speed = 2v. Ans.b
33. If earth has no atmosphere, there will be no molecules to communicate heat energy by
collision. Kinetic energy of molecules transferred to us by collision is the main reason for our
feeling of heat. Hence it reduces considerably. Ans.d
34. A cooking vessel should have low specific heat capacity so that smaller amount of heat will
produce larger rise in temperature. Also it should have high thermal conductivity to conduct
maximum heat. Ans.b
35. The external work = C
p
C
v
. For 1 mol C
p
-C
v
= R. 1g of hydrogen is (1/2) mol. Therefore
external work = R/2. R = 2 cal/g. R/2 = 1 cal. Ans.a
36. When the two tanks balance mass of air should be equal to mass of helium. Volume of two
tanks are same. Hence density of helium should be made nearly 7.5 times so that its density
becomes equal to that of air. Density is proportional to pressure. Hence pressure has to be
increased to 7.5 times. Ans.c
37. Clearly the vessel has 1/4 mol of gas with 1/8 mol of oxygen and 1/8 mol of nitrogen. When
all oxygen is removed we have 1/8 mol of gas left. Hence pressure will fall to 1/2 of the 8
atmosphere. Ans.c
38. Ans.d

56
39. For an ideal gas, C
p
C
v
= R, for 1 mol. C
p
-C
v
is the external work done per mol. Here we
have two mol of ideal gas. Hence the external work will be 2 R. Ans.b
40. According to one of adiabatic relations,
1
TV

= constant. Comparing this with given
equation, -1 = 2/5. = 7/5. The gas is diatomic. The heat required to increase internal
energy through 1
0
C = C
V
= 5/2 R. Ans.d
41. Heat required to melt = mL, where m is mass, and is latent heat of fusion. Here m is same. L
depends on material, hence the same. Ans.a
42. Substituting the units of
) K kg J )( m kg (
K s Jm
dc
1 1 3
1 1 1

=
= m
2
s
-1
. Ans.a
43.
g
1
2 x = = l k . Taking logarithms and differentiating T
l
dl
2
1
x
dx
= =
=
2
T
x
dx
.
dx = (1/2)x T. Ans.c
44. For an ideal gas PV = RT (1). It is given VP
2
= constant K (2) . Squaring equation 1 and
dividing by 2, we get
2
2 2
2
2 2
K
T R
VP
V P
= . This gives V = constant x T
2
. That is T is proportional
to V. When the volume is doubled, temperature becomes 2 times. Ans.d
45. The maximum efficiency of a heat engine is =
3
2
2100
700 2100
T
T T
1
2 1
=
. The actual
efficiency is 40%. i.e.
5
2
. The ratio of actual efficiency of maximum efficiency
= % 60 6 . 0
) 3 / 2 (
) 5 / 2 (
= = Ans.b
46. Since expansion is isothermal i.e. at constant temperature, only volume and pressure will
change. Change of pressure at constant temperature will not affect rms velocity. Ans.c
47. Using first law of thermo dynamics dQ = dU + dW, we have here dW = -dU (decrease of
internal energy). dQ=0, means change is adiabatic. Decrease of internal energy decreases
temperature, that is the gas is expanding. . The gas is undergoing adiabatic expansion. Ans.a
48. According to the first law of thermodynamics dQ = dU + dW. Here dQ = 100 cal = 420 J.
External work dW = 20 J. Substituting in the above equation, 420 = dU + 20, dU = 400 J.
Since dU is positive, internal energy increases. Ans.a
49. We use here Stefans law of radiation E = T
4
. If E
1
is the new energy after increasing the
temperature to (3/2)T, E
1
= [(3/2)T]
4
= (81/16)T
4
= nearly 5 T
4
. Energy increases from
T
4
to 5 T
4
i.e. by four times or 400%. Ans.c
50. By Stefans law, heat energy radiated eper second E = AT
4
.
1
E
E
1
2
4
1
T
T
r
r
T r 4
T r 4
E
E
2
1
4 2
2
1
2
2
1
4
2
2
2
4
1
2
1
2
1
=
(
=
(
=

= . Ans.b
51. According to the law of heat conduction heat conducted is directly proportional to area, and
inversely proportional to length at thermal equilibrium. In the second case, heat conducted
doubles due to increase in area, and doubles due to decrease in length. Thus heat conducted
becomes four times, i.e. 16 W. Ans.d

57
52. Using Wiens displacement law
m
T = constant, T
1
/T
2
=
2
/
1
= f
1
/f
2
. (Since frequency is
inversely proportional to wave length). This gives T
1
/T
2
= 2/2.5 = 4/5. Ans.a
53. Assuring the star to be a black body and applying Stefans law, (E T
4
) the ratio of
temperature of the stars should be T
1
/T
2
= (E
1
/E
2
)
1/4
=(1/16)
1/4
= 1/2. By Weins displacement
law,
m
T = constant. The ratio of wavelengths carrying maximum energy of the stars
1
/
2

should be T
2
/T
1
= 2/1. Ans.b
54. Thickness of formation of ice in a pond is given by t =
| |

2
L x x
2
1
2
2
, where t is the time to
increase the thickness of ice from x
1
to x
2
, density, L latent heat and thermal conductivity
of ice. the temperature difference other things being constants, t is proportional to x
2
2
x
1
2
.
3
1
1 2
0 1
t
t
2 2
2 2
2
1
=
= , where t
1
is a time to increase thickness from 0 to 1 and t
2
from 1 to 2.
Here t
1
= 10 hour, t
2
,therefore, is 30 h. Ans.c
55. A system is thermodynamic equilibrium if no force acts, (mechanical equilibrium), no
chemical reaction takes place ( chemical equilibrium), and no heat exchange takes place
(thermal equilibrium). Ans.d
56. This is adiabatic expansion. Since no external heat is supplied internal energy should
decrease. Hence (b) is correct. During adiabatic change entropy remains constant. Hence (c)
is correct. Ans.d
57. Using the first law of thermodynamics, the increase in internal energy dU = dQ-dW. dU is
the difference between external energy supplied (20x12 = 240 W) and heat transferred (10W).
i.e. 230 W. Ans.b
58. By Stefans law energy radiated E = T
4
. When current is doubled heat energy becomes 4
times. (H i
2
) .That is T
4
becomes 4 times. T increases to 4
1/4
= 2 times. Ans.c
59. When liquids of different mass, specific heat and temperature are mixed final temperature is
given by (mc T) / (mc). For three liquids this will be
3 3 2 2 1 1
3 3 3 2 2 2 1 1 1
c m c m c m
t c m t c m t c m
+ +
+ +
..
Here m
1
= m
2
= m
3
. Therefore final temperature will be (c
1
t
1
+ c
2
t
2
+ c
3
t
3
) /c
1
+ c
2
+ c
3
.
Ans.b
60. According to Boltzmanns law average kinetic energy = (3/2)kT, per molecule. When this
energy = 1 electron volt = 1.6 x 10
-19
J, we equate the two.Assuming k = 1.38 x 10
-23
, we get T
= 7700 K. Ans.c
61. The thermal resistance (similar to electrical resistance) is directly proportional to the length
(1) and inversely proportional to the area (A). Therefore, it can be written as R (thermal) =
1/A, where is thermal resistivity . Thermal conductivity is reciprocal of the thermal
resistivity i.e. = 1/. Thus we get R (thermal) = 1/A. Ans.b
62. In thermal equilibrium heat flowing (fig.) across any portion should be same. Hence, if the
temperature of the intervening layer is T, 2 (T-O) = (36-T),
This gives T = 12
0
C. Ans.b
63. The rate of loss of heat is proportional to area of the surface if
other factors affecting radiation like mass, temperature difference remain the same. Since all
have same mass, same density, they have same volume. For a given volume sphere has least
surface area and circular plate maximum surface area. Hence circular plate cools fastest.
Ans.c
A B
0 T 36

58
64. By Newtons law of cooling, rate of cooling is proportional to the mean excess temperature of
the body over the surroundings. In the first case, the mean temperature difference is 65-30
0
C.
In the second case, the temperature difference is 55-30 = 25
0
C. Hence rate of cooling will be
in the ratio 35/25 = 7/5. So the time taken for cooling from 60 to 50 = 10 x (7/5) = 14
minutes. Ans.c
65. Density of a liquid increases with fall in temperature. Density of benzene will be more in
winter. Hence a given volume of benzene will weigh more in winter. Ans.b
66. From kinetic theory we can deduce Boyles law. Boyles law is violated at high pressure and
low temperature. Hence most of the postulates break down at this stage. Ans.b
67. When temperature is increased at constant volume, the average kinetic energy and hence rms
speed of molecules increase. Hence they make more number of collisions on the wall with
higher velocity. Ans.c
68. Kinetic energy of one mol of monatomic gas at STP (3/2)RT, which by calculation (3/2) x 8.3
x 273 = 3400 J. 1 gm of helium is (1/4) mol. Hence its kinetic energy is 3400/4 = 850 J.
(Note: kinetic energy of monatomic gas at STP is one of the constants to be remembered).
Ans.d
69. Heat supplied H = nCv T, where n is number of mole, Cv specific heat at constant volume,
T rise in temperature. Here heat supplied is same. n is same. Hence C
1
T
1
= C
2
T
2
. This
gives T
1
/T
2
= C
2
/C
1
= Cv of monoatomic gas/Cv of diatomic gas. (3R/2)/ (5R/2) = 3/5.
Ans.d
70. For a solid cubical expansivity = 3 nearly. A crystal is anisotropic and hence does not
expand in the same way in all directions. Therefore =
1
+
2
+
3
= (13 + 231 + 231) 10
-7

= 475 x 10
-7
. Ans.c
71. Here the expansion is free. That is not external work is done on the system or by the system.
No heat is supplied to the system either. Therefore there will be no change in the internal
energy of the system. Ans.d
72. According to Boyles law PV = constant at constant temperature. Therefore if P
1
is the new
pressure PV + PV = P
1
V, which gives P
1
= 2P. Ans.a
73. By Weins law
1
T
1
=
2
T
2
, where
1
,
2
are wavelengths carrying maximum energy. This
gives T
1
/T
2
= 4800/3600 = 4/3. Ratio of total power radiated = T
1
4
/T
2
4
= (4/3)
4
= 256/81.
Ans.a
74. Using the first law of thermodynamics, dQ = dU + dW, dQ = 0, for adiabatic process. (d) is
correct, Also |dW|= dU.. (b) is correct). For isothermal process there is no change in
temperature and hence dU is zero. (c is correct). The increase in internal energy whether at
constant pressure or constant volume = nCv T. (a is wrong). Ans.a
75. The adiabatic elasticity of any gas is P. Helium is a monatomic gas. For helium = 1.66
and P = nearly 10
5
Pa. Ans.c
76. When temperature T is doubled, heat energy radiated per second becomes 16 times (Stefans
law E T
4
). When r is doubled heat received becomes 1/4. (inverse square law I 1/r
2
).
Hence heat energy received becomes 16 x 1/4 = 4 times. Ans.c
77. If T
1
and T
2
are the temperatures at the two ends of the system, at thermal equilibrium, the
heat conducted through the rod respectively are Q
1
=
1
A (T
1
T
2
)/x, Q
2
=
2
A (T
1
-T
2
)/x, per
second. The total heat conducted Q = Q
1
+ Q
2
(1) . If is the conductivity of the composite
rod, then heat conducted per second Q = 2A (T
1
-T
2
/x. Substituting these values of Q, Q
1
, Q
2

in (1) we get =
1
+
2
/2. Ans.d

59
78. Here kinetic energy of the bullet is converted into heat energy. If the velocity of the bullet is
doubled kinetic energy of bullet (1/2)mv
2
becomes four times and when 50% of it is lost.
Kinetic energy remains two times. The rise in temperature will be two times. Ans.b
79. The increase in the internal energy = m Cv T. For a monatomic gas Cv = (3/2)R. T =
100
0
C or 100K (Temperature intervals will be same in both scales). Hence dU = (3/2)x 8.3 x
100 = 1245 J. Ans.d
80. = T
1
T
2
/T
1
. When T
1
and T
2
are increased by 10% all temperatures increase by 10%.
Hence (T
1
-T
2
)/T
1
remains the same. Ans.d
81. Water will reach 0
0
C but will not freeze, because it cannot give out latent heat. Latent heat
will not be conducted as there is no temperature difference at this stage. Ans.c
82. The work done by a gas is the area of P-V graph. This area is minimum for graph (1) where
there is no increase in volume i.e. dV = 0. (Alternatively dQ = dU + PdV. Here dV = 0.
Therefore PdV = 0. Ans.a
83. Solar constant is amount of heat energy received per unit area in one second on earth. If P is
power radiated by sun ,. solar constant S
0
= P/4d
2
, where d is the distance between sun and
earth. When d is reduced to half, heat received per unit area per second i.e. S
0
becomes 4
times. Ans.a
84. Heat flowing per second across the cylinder of radius R is given by
x
) ( R K
Q
2 1
2
1
1

= ,
where
1
and
2
are the temperatures at the two ends (
1
>
2
) and x is the distance between
them. Heat flowing across the cylindrical shell is Q
2
=
| |
x
) R R 2 ( K
2 1
2 2
2

. If K is
the equivalent thermal conductivity of the system then, the total heat flowing =
K(2R)
2
(
1
-
2
)/x = Q. Equating Q
1
+ Q
2
= Q, we get K = (K
1
+ 3K
2
)/4. Ans.c
85. Increase in area A = A T, where T is increase in temperature, A original area, areal
expansivity . A cube has 6 surfaces. So the total area A = 6 a
2
. Areal expansivity = 2.
T = 1
o
C = 1K. This gives A = 12a
2
. Ans.d
86. Latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal/gm. So temperature will remain at 0
o
C if we supply a
maximum heat 80 cal. Since specific heat of water in CGS system is 1, 1 g of water when
cools from 80 to 0 can give 80 cal of heat. Use also indirect theory notes for answering this
quickly. Ans.d
87. Heat supplied = mC
v
T, where C
v
is specific heat at constant volume. If C
1
and C
2
are the
specific heat of monatomic and diatomic gases, T
1
and T
2,
temperature rise, we have C
1
T
1

= C
2
T
2,
for the same mass .
(
=
R ) 2 / 5 (
R ) 2 / 3 (
C
C
2
1
This gives T
2
=
5
3
T
1
. Ans.c
88. 16 g of oxygen is half a mole. 14 g of nitrogen is also (1/2) a mole. Both of them are
diatomic. Hence their Cv will be same. Using heat lost by nitrogen = heat gained by oxygen
formula , we have m C
V
(10-T) = m C
V
(T-0). Hence the temperature will be 5
o
C. Ans.b
89. A power P keeps the substance in the molten state i.e in equilibrium . This means the
substance is supplied with an energy Pt to keep in the state. So latent heat of fusion = heat
energy supplied / mass = Pt/M. Ans.a
90. The external work done when 1 mol of gas is heated through 1
o
C or 1 K is equal to C
p
-C
v
=
R. 2 g of helium is (1/2) mole. Hence external work will be (R/2). Ans. a

60
91. The RMS speed =
M
RT 3
where M is molecular mass. When temperature increases to 4T,
hydrogen dissociates, its molecular mass M becomes atomic mass M/2. Thus the RMS speed
becomes x 2 2 x 8
M
RT 3 x 8
2 / M
T 4 x R 3
= = = Ans.c
92. Use information supplied in indirect theory notes. . For compensated pendulum, we should
have lengths in the ratio inverse of expansivity i.e. 1:3. Ans b
93. Use information given in indirect theory notes. This is for practice. Hydrogen is diatomic
and helium is monatomic. Ans.c
94. We have A = 2LxL = 2L
2
. Taking logarithms and differentiating dA/A = 2(dL/L). Here
dL/L = 1%. Therefore dA/A = 2%. Ans.b
95. The external work done = R = C
p
- C
V
, for 1 mol. The heat supplied at constant pressure = C
p

for 1 mol for 1
o
rise in temperature. The required ratio is
4
1 1
1
C
C
1
C
C C
P
V
p
V p
=
= =
.
Use indirect theory short-cuts. Ans.a
96. Use information supplied in theory notes. To melt x g of ice we need 80 x calorie of heat. To
raise the temperature of x g of water from 0 to 100
o
C we need 100 x calorie heat. Total
180x. To turn x g of water at 100
o
C into steam, we need 540x calorie of heat, which is 3
times 180x. So the required time will be 3x50 = 150 s. Ans.d
97. Here we have a total of 3 mol of gas. Whatever may be a gas the external work done for 1
mol C
p
-C
V
= R. For 3 mole the external work will be 3R. Ans.d
98. The mean free path is inversely proportional to the square of the diameter. ( formula =
1/2
2
n). Therefore mean free path will be in the ratio 2
2
:1
2
.= 4:1 Ans.d
99. Use information supplied in in indirect theory notes. Ans.c
100. The ratio of increase in internal energy to the total heat energy supplied is clearly C
v
/C
p
,
which in turn is equal to 1/. For a monatomic gas this value is 3/5. Ans.b
101. Since it is given that R/C
p
=0.28, we have C
p
= R/0.28, which is nearly

3.5 R, or (7/2) R.
This is the value of C
p
of a diatomic gas. The only diatomic gas listed is hydrogen. Ans a
102. Here the potential energy of ice is converted into heat energy for melting. Mgh = mL,where
m is the mass of ice melting, L latent heat of fusion. With g nearly 10 and h = 3.36m, we get
m/M = gh/L= 10x3.36/336000 = 0.0001= 0.01% Ans d
103. Since mechanical work is done on the system during shaking , (d) is correct. Due to this the
temperature of the coffee will increase. (a) is correct. Heat is not directly added to the
system. Hence (c) is wrong. By first law of thermo dynamics Q = U+ W. Here Q =
0. Therefore U = - W ( The negative sign here is due to work done on the system. That is
internal energy of the system increases. (b) is correct. Ans. a,b,d
104. Whatever may be the energy of the source, we cannot produce a temperature above 1000 K at
the point. If the temperature of the point becomes above 1000 K, it would mean that we have
transferred heat from cold body to hot body. This will be in violation of second law of
thermodynamics. Ans.c
105. The latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal/g, which is equal to 336 J/g. This is a large value. So
it takes some time for ice to get this much of heat. Specific heat has nothing to do with
melting, because there is no temperature change during melting. Ans.c

61
106. According to one of the adiabatic relations =
1
P T = constant. This means P = constant
x T
(/-1)
.
Thus we have c =(/-1) For a monatomic gas = 5/3. Therefore c = 5/2. Ans.d
107. Comparing with the standard adiabatic equation PV
= constant, we find = 3/2. The

relation between temperature and volume is TV
-1
= constant. That is TV
(1/2)
= constant .
That is T is proportional to V
-1/2
. When V is halved T becomes (1/2)
-(1/2)
= 2
(1/2)
T = 2 T=
1.4 T. Ans.c
108. The RMS speed is proportional to
1
Density of the mixture is equal to
H
O H
6
21
6
5
=
+

Since
o
= 16 times
H
, The RMS velocity is equal to v
21
6
Ans.c
109. We know C
rms
is proportional to T. So when the temperature increases from 120 to 480 K
that is four times the rms speed should increase to 4 = 2 times. The rms speed thus
increases to 200% and hence it increases by 100%. Ans a
110. Here the gas is undergoing free expansion i.e. no energy is supplied from outside and no
energy is taken from inside. Therefore the temperature will remain the same. Ans.b
111. For isothermal expansion the equation is PV = constant and for adiabatic equation PV
is
constant. PV = P
i
x2V. PV
= P
a
(2V)
. This will give

67 . 0
67 . 1
i
a
2
2
2
2
2
P
P

= = = Ans.b
112. The speed of sound is given by
M
RT
and RMS velocity
M
RT 3
The required ratio is =
3

15
7
, where we have assumed for hydrogen as
5
7
. Ans.a
113. P = (1/3)nmc
2
, where c
2
is mean square velocity. When m is made half , c is doubled, the
pressure becomes [4(1/2)] = 2 times. Ans.d
114. To double the rms velocity the temperature has to increased to 4 times because C
rms
is
proportional to T. When temperature increases to 4 times at constant pressure volume
increases to 4 times. Ans.d
115. When a gas is heated molecules move faster making more number of collisions per second
decreasing distance between collisions. Ans.b
116. From the first law thermodynamics Q = U+W. Here only internal energy changes,
which means W = 0. But W = PdV, where dV is increase in volume. Thus we have dV =
0. That is volume is constant. The process is isochoric. Ans.d
117. Comparing with standard adiabatic relation TV
-1
= constant, we have T proportional to V
1-
.
Here 1- = -2/5. This gives = 7/5. The gas is diatomic. The heat required to raise internal
energy by 1
o
C (which is C
v
)

= (5/2)R. Ans a
118. A = energy/(mass x temperature), while Gravitational potential (B) is energy/mass. This
makes A/B equal to 1/temperature. Ans d
119. The internal energy of a gas molecule is the sum of potential and kinetic energy. The kinetic
energy depends on temperature. (c) is correct. The potential energy depends on distance
between molecules. (d) is correct. Ans.c & d

62
120. When water boils molecular separation changes and hence potential energy changes. So
internal energy also changes. Since temperature is constant during boiling, kinetic energy
remains constant. Entropy increases. Ans.b
121. If T is the temperature, C
rms
is proportional to T. When the temperature is increased by
10%, it becomes (110%)T and when decreased 10% from there, it becomes (110x90/100)T =
99%T. Thus the temperature decreases by 1% and the rms velocity being proportional to T
decreases by 0.5%. Ans.d.
122. When pressure and temperature are increased at the same time, consider first increase of
pressure. The rms velocity does not change. Now consider increase of temperature. When
temperature is increased to 3 times rms velocity increases to 3 times. Ans.d
123. Since the number of molecules is large and they are moving at random, we cannot calculate
exact number of collisions per second. So we take average number colliding per second.
This gives force. Since pressure = force/area we take number of collision per second per unit
area. Ans. d
124. Cooking vessels should have high conductivity to conduct heat. That is (b) is correct. They
should have low specific heat so that smaller amount of heat will produce larger temperature
rise. (d) is correct. Recall the properties of cooking vessels given in one of the previous
questions. Density has nothing to do with conduction. . Ans. b & d.
125. Heat flows from a body of higher temperature to the body of lower temperature and not from
the body of higher heat capacity to that of lower heat capacity. Hence (b) is correct and (a) is
wrong. The temperature attained at thermal equilibrium T is such that heat lost by B is equal
to the heat gained by A. This is calculated using the formula 1000(T-20) = 500(40-T). We
have used 1000 and 500 as the product of mass and specific heat. This gives T not equal to
30
o
C. Ans.b
126. If is the coefficient of performance of the refrigerator, Q
2
heat removed from the sink, W
external energy supplied, then Q
2
/W = . This gives Q
2
=

W = 10x700 = 7000 J/s.
Ans a.
127. Use information supplied in theory notes. The specific heat at constant volume of the mixture
is equal to [(3/2)Rx + (5/2)Rx] /2x = 2R. The heat required to raise the temperature of the
mixture through 10
o
C = (2x)(2R)10 = 40Rx. In CGS system R = 2 cal/mol
o
C. So the
rrequired heat will be is 80x cal. Ans.b
128. Using the formula (T
1
-T
2
)/T
1
= y, when T
2
is increased by 20, this equation becomes
[T
1
-(T
2+
20)]/T
1
= 0.8y. Solving these equations we get T
1
= 100/y. Ans.c
129. The efficiency is given by
1
2
1
2 1
T
T
1
T
T T
=
.To get maximum efficiency

1
2
T
T
should be
minimum. That is T
2
should be decreased and T
1
should be increased. Ans.d
130. The potential energy of water is converted into heat. So if h is the height mgh x 70/100 =
mcT. Here T is 1
o
C and therefore h = cx100/g x 70. c = 4200 J/kg K, g = 10 m/s
2
, h =
600 m. If g is taken as 9.8 m/s
2
the nearest answer will be 600 m. Ans.a
131. The heat radiated by a black body per second is equal to E = 4R
2
T
4
. Taking logarithms
and differentiating,
T
dT
4
R
dR
2
E
dE
+ = = 2x1% + 4x1% = 6%. Ans.d
132. The kinetic temperature 1000 K means each molecule will have a kinetic energy (1/2)kT, with
T = 1000 K. This will be large compared to the energy of a molecule at our place. However,
the number of molecules per unit volume at upper atmosphere is very very small. Hence total

63
energy of the molecules per unit volume will be small and energy communicated to the
astronaut by collision will also be very small. Ans.a
133. Here also we use Weins law. In this question you have to guess the value of Weins constant
approximately. Weins constant = 2x10
-3
mK. So using
m
T = this constant, we have
m
=
2x10
-3
/10
6
= 2x10
-9
m = 2nm. This wavelength is in the X-ray region.. Ans.c
134. Thermal resistance is proportional to length (L),and inversely proportional to area (A). So we
write R(thermal)= R = L/A. where is thermal conductivity i.e. reciprocal of thermal
resistivity. R = (m)/Wm
-1
K
-1
m
2
= KW
-1
. Ans.a

WAVE MOTION AND SHM
SECTION 1
QUESTIONS
1. If is angular frequency and k wave vector of a sound wave, its velocity is
a)
k
b)
k
c) k d) k
2. Which of the following does not represent a wave ?
a) y = f(x-vt) b) y = y
m
sin k(x+vt)
c) y = y
m
log(x-vt) d) y = f(x
2
-v
2
t
2
)
3. When a sound wave reflects from boundary seperating two media, which of the following
could change ?
a) frequency b) wavelength c) speed d) phase
4. Two strings A and B made of same material are stretched by same tension. The radius of
string A is double the radius of B. A transverse wave travels in A with speed V
A
and in B
with speed V
B
. The ratio V
A
/ V
B
is
a) 1/2 b) 2 c) 1/4 d) 4
5. The speed of sound through a certain medium at 27
0
C and 10
5
Nm
-2
pressure is 200 ms
-1
. If
the temperature increases to 127
0
C and pressure falls to 0.5 x 10
5
Nm
-2
, the speed of sound (in
ms
-1
) is
a)
3
2 50
b)
3
400
c) 2 100 d)
3
2 100

6. When temperature increases, the frequency of a tuning fork
a) remains the same
b) decreases
c) increases
d) may increase or decrease depending on the material
7. A sound wave of frequency 500 hertz has a velocity 350 m/s. The minimum distance
between the two particles having a phase difference of 60
0
is nearest to
a) 0.7 cm b) 12 cm c) 70 cm d) 120 cm
8. The speed of sound through oxygen at a temperature T is v ms
-1
. If the temperature increases
to 2T and oxygen gas dissociates into atomic oxygen, the speed of sound
a) remains the same b) becomes 2 v
c) becomes 2v d) becomes nearly 9v/5
9. A supersonic jet produces waves in air. The wave front is
a) spherical b) paraboloidal
c) ellipsoidal d) conical
3

65
10. A vibrating tuning fork is rotated about a vertical axis through its stem. An observer standing
near will hear, in one revolution
a) 4 maxima and 4 minima b) 2 maxima and 2 minima
c) 8 maxima and 8 minima d) uniform sound
11. A rope of length L and mass m hangs freely from a ceiling. If v is the velocity of transverse
wave produced in it and x is the distance from the free end, then v is proportional to
a) x
0
b) x
-1/2
c) x
1/2
d) x
12. A wire has frequency f, under a certain tension. Its length is doubled by uniformly stretching.
Its frequency under the same tension will be
a) 2f b) f c) 1.4 f d) 0.7 f
13. The ratio of velocity of sound in hydrogen to that in helium at STP is
a)
25
42
b)
42
25
c) 2 d)
2
1

14. A hollow metallic tube open at both ends is in resonance with a tuning fork of frequency 256
Hz. If the tube now is immersed half inside water it will resonante to a frequency (in Hz)
a) 1024 b) 512 c) 256 d) 128
15. The quality of a tone
a) decreases with loudness b) depends on the overtones present
c) is proportional to the pitch d) is inversely proportional to amplitude
16. When a motor boat sails in water, the waves produced are
a) longitudinal
b) transverse
c) neither longitudinal nor transverse
d) both longitudinal and transverse
17. The waves produced in a sonometer wire are
a) transverse, stationary but not polarised
b) transverse, progressive and polarised
c) transverse, progressive and unpolarised
d) longitudinal
18. When two waves of equal amplitude A and equal frequency at a phase difference of 60
0

superpose, the amplitude of the resulting wave is
a) 2A b) 2 A c) 22 A d) 3 A
19. A long steel pipe is tapped at one end. A listener at the other end hears two sounds
a) of the same intensity, at the same time
b) less intense sound first, more intense later
c) more intense sound first, less intense later
d) of the same intensity, but at different times
20. A wave represented by the equation y = a cos(kx-t) is superposed on another wave to form a
stationary wave such that the point x = 0 is a node. The equation for the other wave is
a) a sin (kx+t ) b) -a cos(kx-t)
c) -a cos(kx+t) d) -a sin(kx-t)
21. A hospital uses an ultrasonic scanner to locate tumours in a tissue. The operating frequency
of the scanner is 4.2 MHz. The speed of sound in a tissue is 1.7 km s
-1
. The wavelength of
sound in the tissue is close to
a) 4 x 10
-3
m b) 8 x 10
4
m

66
c) 4 x 10
-4
m d) 8 x 10
-3
m
22. A sound wave of wavelength travels towards the right horizontally with a velocity V. It
strikes and reflects from a vertical plane surface, travelling at a speed v towards the left. The
number of positive crests striking in a time interval of five seconds on the wall is
a)
+ ) v V ( 5
b)
) v V ( 5
c)
+
5
) v V (
d)
5
) v V (

23. Two waves represented by equations y
1
= 10 sin (2000 t) and y
2
= 10 sin [2000 t +
2
] are
superposed at a point at an instant t. The amplitude of the superposed wave is
a) 10 units b) 20 units c) 14 units d) zero
24. Which of the following gives a pure sine wave ?
a) a note from a piano b) vibrating veena wire
c) a vibrating tuning fork d) heart beats of a normal person
25. A transverse wave is described by the equation Y = Y
0
sin 2[ft -
x
]. The maximum particle
velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if is equal to (wave length)
Y
0
/4 b)
2
Y
0
c) Y
0
d) 2Y
0

26. A wave equation which gives displacement along the y direction can be written as y = 10
-4

sin(60t+2x) where x and y are in metres and t in seconds. This represents a wave
a) of velocity v = 30 ms
-1
in the negative x-direction
b) of wavelength = m
c) of frequency f = 30/Hz
d) of amplitude = 10
-4
travelling in negative x-direction
27. Which of the following is not a travelling wave equation ?
a) Y = Y
m
sin k(x-vt) b) Y = Y
m
cos 2
(
vt
x

c) Y = Y
m
sin 2
(

T
t x
d) Y = 2Y
m
sin kx cost
28. Spherical waves are emitted from a 5.0 W source in an isotropic non-absorbing medium. The
intensity of wave at a distance of 2.0 m from the source is
a) 0.020 W/m
2
b) 0.20 W/m
2
c) 0.10 W/m
2
d) 0.01 W/m
2

29. The equation to a wave travelling in a spring can be written as y = cos (100t-x), where
distances are in m. Its wavelength is
a) 2 b) 1m c) 0.05m d) 2m
30. In the equation y = 4 cos
50
x 2
sin 100t where x and y are in cm, t in s, the node appears at x
equal to (in cm)
a) 12.5 b) 50 c) 20 d) 100/2
31. Two sound producing bodies produce progressive waves given by Y
1
= 4 sin(400 t), y
2
=
3 sin(404 t). A person situated nearby will hear
a) two beats per second of intensity ratio 4;3
b) two beats per second of intensity ratio 49:1

67
c) four beats per second of intensity ratio 49:1
d) four beats per second of intensity ratio 4:3
32. Two waves having intensity in the ratio 9:1 produce superposition. The ratio of the maximum
to minimum intensity of the superposed wave is
a) 10/8 b) 4/1 c) 9/1 d) 2/1
33. The displacement of particles in a string in x-direction is represented by y. Among the
following expression for y, those describing wave motion are
a) coskx sint b) k
2
x
2
-
2
t
2
c) cos(k
2
x
2
-
2
t
2
) d) cos
2
(kx+t)
34. A plane wave of sound travelling in air is incident on a plane water surface. The angle of
incidence is 60
0
. Assuming Snells law to be valid for sound waves, it follows,
a) the wave will be refracted into water away from normal
b) the wave will be refracted into water towards normal
c) the wave will graze the surface of separation
d) the wave will be reflected into air
35. The equation y = sin 4t + cos 5t is
a) periodic but not harmonic
b) periodic but not simple harmonic
c) periodic and simple harmonic
d) neither periodic nor harmonic
36. The amplitude of a wave disturbance propagating in the positive x-direction is given by y =
1/(1+x
2
) at time t = 0 and by y = 1/[1+(x-1)
2
] at t = 2 seconds, where x and y are in metres.
the shape of the wave disturbance does not change during the propagation. The velocity of
the wave is
a) 1 ms
-1
b) 0.5 ms
-1
c) 1.5 ms
-1
d) 2 ms
-1

37. A wave is represented by the equation y = A sin [10x + 15t +
3
] where x is in metres and t

in seconds. The expression represents
a) a wave travelling in the positive x-direction with a velocity 1.5 ms
-1

b) a wave travelling in the negative x-direction with a velocity 0.66 ms
-1

c) a wave travelling in the negative x-direction having a wavelength 0.2 m
d) a wave travelling in the positive x-direction having a wavelength 0.2 m
38. The displacement y of a particle executing periodic motion is given by y =
4 cos
2

2
t
sin 1000 t. This expression may be considered to be a resultant of the superposition
of
a) three waves b) two waves c) four waves d) five waves
39. A wave is represented by the equation y = A sin 2(10t-20x). Its wavelength is
a) 20m b) /20)m c) 10m d) (/10)m
40. A wave disturbance in a medium is described by y (x,t) = 0.02 cos (50t +
2
) cos (10x),
where x and y are in metres and in seconds. For this wave
a) a node occurs at x = 0.15 m
b) an antinode occurs at x = 0.3m
c) the speed of the component wave is 5.0 m/s
d) all the above are correct

68
41. If
1
,
2
,
3
are the wavelengths of the wave giving resonance in the fundamental, second and
third harmonic modes respectively of a pipe closed at one end, the ratio of the wavelengths,
2
,
2
,
3
in the order is
a) 1:2:3 b) 1:3:5 c) 6:3:2 d) 15:5:3
42. The equation to the motion of a wave can be written as x = 2 sin
6
t. The instants of time at

which the maximum velocity are attained by this wave will be
a) 0, 6, 12 s, etc b) 0, 4, 8 s, etc c) 0, 3,6,9 s, etc d) 2, 4,6 s, etc
43. An object of specific gravity is hung from a thin steel wire. The fundamental frequency
form transverse standing waves in the wire is 300 Hz. The object is immersed in water so that
one half of its volume is submerged. The new fundamental frequency, in Hz, is
a) 300

2
1 2
b) 300
(

2
1 2

c) 300
(
1 2
2
d) 300
1 2
2

44. The velocity of sound in air is 348 m/s. Two sources producing waves of wavelength 2m and
3m are sounded together. Which of the following is not correct ?
a) They will produce 58 beats per second
b) They will produce beats which cannot be detected the human ear
c) The beats can be heard at the given rate in (a)
d) They will produce frequencies whose difference will increase with increasing temperature
45. *The power transmitted in a vibrating string by a wave of frequency f and amplitude A is
proportional to
a) frequency of the wave b) amplitude of wave
c) square of frequency of the wave d) square of the amplitude of the wave
46. Oxygen is 16 times heavier relative to hydrogen. Equal volumes of hydrogen and oxygen are
mixed. The ratio of the velocity of sound in the mixture to that in oxygen is
a)
8
1
b)
17
32
c)
25
17
. d) 8
47. The maximum velocity of simple harmonic motion which produces a wave is 4 m/s. Its
maximum acceleration is 16 m/s
2
. Its amplitude of the motion is
a) 1m b) 2m c) 4m d) 8m
48. A source of sound x gives five beats per second, when sounded with another source of
frequency 100 /s. The second harmonic of the source x together with a source of frequency
205/s gives five beats per second. The frequency of the source x is
a) 100/s b) 105/s c) 205/s d) 95/s
49. If the diameter of resonance tube of constant length is increased, the frequency emitted by it
will
a) remain the same b) increase slightly
c) decrease slightly d) decrease considerably
50. If pressure increases by 1 atmosphere and temperature increases by 1 K, the velocity of sound
a) decreases by 0.6 ms
-1
b) increases by 0.6 ms
-1

c) increases by 60 ms
-1
d) decreases by 60 ms
-1


69
51. A stretched wire is divided into three segments whose frequencies are in the ratio 2:3:4. Their
lengths are in the ratio
a) 2:3:4 b) 4:3:2 c) 3:2:1 d) 6:4;3
52. The linear density of a wire is 1.3 x 10
-4
kgm
-1
. A transverse wave represented by the
equation y = 0.02 sin(x+30t) is propagating along the wire, where x and y are in m and t in s.
The tension of the wire is
a) 0.48 N b) 0.12 N c) 1.2 N d) 4.8 N
53. When beats are produced by two progressive waves of the same amplitude and of nearly the
same frequency, the ratio of maximum loudness produced to loudness of one of the waves
will be n, where n is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 2.5 d) 4
54. A man standing between two cliffs claps his hands and hears a series of echoes such that one
echo is heard at intervals of 1 s and two echoes in every alternate second. If speed of sound in
air is 340 ms
-1
, the distance between the cliffs should be
a) 340 m b) 680 m c) 510 m d) 170 m
55. In a good tuning fork
a) only the fundamental is excited
b) the first overtone and the fundamental mode are excited
c) only the first overtone is excited
d) the fundamental and odd harmonics are excited
56. A man facing a wall holds a tuning fork of frequency 256 between himself and a vertical wall.
He moves the tuning fork towards the wall with a velocity 1/100 of the velocity of sound.
The number of beats heard per minute would be nearly
a) 75 b) 150 c) zero d) 300
57. A tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz is excited and held at the mouth of a closed pipe of
frequency 250 Hz. Pick out the correct statement
a) 6 beats per second will be heard
b) 12 beats per second will be heard
c) 3 beat per second will be heard
d) No beats will be heard
58. A uniform rope of mass 6 kg hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass 2 kg is
attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength 0.06 m is produced at
the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top is ( in m)
a) 0.06 b) 0.12 c) 0.03 d) 0.24
59. *Two identical straight wires are stretched so as to produce 6 beats per second when vibrating
simultaneously. On changing the tension slightly in one of them, the beat frequency still
remains unchanged. Denoting by T
1
, T
2
the higher and the lower initial tensions in the
strings, it could be said that while making the above changes in tension
a) T
2
was decreased b) T
2
was increased
c) T
1
was increased d) T
1
was decreased
60. *The prongs of a vibrating tuning fork are immersed in water. Then
a) velocity of the waves will decrease
b) amplitude of the waves will decrease
c) frequency of the waves will decrease
d) wavelength of the waves will increase
61. Which of the following cannot produce super position?
a) Light waves b) Micro waves c) Radio waves d) Laser beam

70
62. A wave has an angular frequency of 200 rad/s and a wave vector 2 m
-1
. The wave velocity is
(m/s)
a) 100 b) 100/ c) 100 d) 200/
63. The speed of sound in oxygen at a pressure of 1 atmosphere and a temperature of 27
o
C is x
m/s. The speed of sound in hydrogen at a pressure of two atmospheres and at 27
o
C is
a) 2x b) 4x c) 2x d) 2 2x
64. Two waves of equal amplitude and equal wavelength arrive at a point at a path difference of
/6. The ratio of resultant intensity at the point to the maximum intensity will be
a) 1/4 b) 1/2 c) 3/8 d) 3/4.
65. A wave equation is represented by y =2 cos2x sin3t. The phase difference between two
adjacent particles will be ( in degrees)
a) 0 b) 30 c) 60 d) 90
66. Two waves are represented by the equation y
1
= 10 sin t. y
2
= 10 sin [t+
3
]. The amplitude
of the resulting wave at a given point is
a) 10 b) 20 c) 102 d) 103
67. If a graph is drawn between amplitude of a wave from a source arriving at certain point with
distance from the source and if the medium absorbs no energy, the graph will be
a) a straight line having a negative slope
b) an irregular curve
c) a rectangular hyperbola
d) an inverse square law graph
68. The speed of transverse waves through a wire stretched by a tension T is v. If the wire is
doubled in itself and stretched by the same tension, the speed of transverse waves will be
a) same as v b) (2)v c) v/2 d) 2v
69. *When stationary waves are produced in a medium which of the following characteristics
change at the antinodes ?
a) density b) pressure c) phase d) temperature
70. A particle on the trough of a wave of period T at a given instant will come to mean position
after a time
a) T b) 3T/4 c) T/4 d) T/2
71. At the same temperature speed of sound in 50% humid air is v
1
and that in 70% humid air is
v
2
. Then
a) v
1
> v
2

b) v
1
= v
2

c) v
2
> v
1

d) v
1
is greater than or less than v
2
depending on the climate
72. A progressive wave has an equation y = A sin2(10t-20x) where the distances are in metre
and time in seconds. The distance between a crest and the nearest trough of this wave in cm
is
a) 10 b) 2.5 c) 5 d) 5/
73. A wave incident on a medium has an amplitude 1 m. The reflected wave has an amplitude
0.5 m. The percentage of intensity transmitted into the medium is equal to
a) 75 b) 50 c) 25 d) 12.5
74. The amplitude of the transmitted wave in the previous question (in m) is
a) 0.75 b) 0.5 c) 0.25 d) 0.866

71
75. A war plane is flying at a speed Mac 1.5. The waves produced by it will be
a) plane b) spherical c) cylindrical d) conical
76. A wave is represented by the equation y = A sin (t-kx). The ratio of maximum particle
velocity to wave velocity is
a) A/k b) k/A c) kA d) A
77. If the tension of a sonometer wire is increased by 21%, the frequency of the note emitted by
it increases by
a) 10% b) 21% c) 32.5% d) 42%
78. If a source of sound of frequency f and a listener approach each other with a velocity equal to
1/20 of velocity of sound, the apparent frequency heard by the listener will be
a) f
20
21
b) f
19
21
c) f
21
19
d) f
21
20

79. A tuning fork gives 5 beats when vibrated with 40 cm length of a sonometer wire. If the
length of the wire is shortened by 1 cm, the number of beats is still the same. The frequency
of the fork is :
a) 385 b) 320 c) 395 d) 400
80. A tuning fork of frequency f is immersed in water and vibrated. Compared to that in air,
a) its period will decrease
b) the wavelength of sound emitted by it will decrease
c) the velocity of sound waves will decrease
d) its amplitude will decrease
81. An observer moves a tuning fork of frequency 350 Hz towards a wall with a speed (1/100) th
of speed of sound. The number of beats heard by him per second will be
a) 4 b) 5 c) 7 d) 14
82. If temperature increases by 2%, the velocity of sound will increase by
a) 1% b) 2 % c) 2% d) 22 %
83. Two progressive waves represented by the equations y
1
= Asin(100t) and y
2
= A sin(104t)
produce beats. An observer standing near the sources hears a maximum and the next
minimum separated by an interval of time
a) 1/2 s b) 1/4 s c) 3/4 s d) 1 s
84. Imagine a hypothetical gas in which sound travels with a speed equal to the rms speed of
molecules of the gas. The heat required to increase the internal energy of this gas through 1 K
will be
a) 2R b) 3R c) (3/2)R` d) (1/2) R
85. A plane wave train is represented by the equation y = 5 sin
4
4
16
( ) t
x
+ , where distances are
in centimetre and time in second. The phase difference of the same particle at a time
interval of 0.8 second is ( in degrees)
a) 36 b) 72 c) 102 d) 144
86. The equation to a plane wave is given by the equation y = 6 sin
4
2
8
( ) t
x
+ , where distances
are in centimetre and time in seconds. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for
this plane wave?
a) The wave is travelling along the positive x-direction.
b) The wave has a wavelength of 64 cm.

72
c) The wave has a wavelength of 32 cm.
d) The phase difference between two points separated by a distance of 0.2 metre is 112.5
o
.
87. .Read the following statements carefully:
A) Two sine waves of same frequency and amplitude travelling in the opposite direction
superpose, giving stationary waves.
B) A sine wave can superpose only with a sine wave.
Of these statements,
a) B is true but A need not be true.
b) A is true, but B need not be true
c) Both A and B are true
d) Both A and B are not true
88. Assuming that it is always possible to see light from a distant star accelerating away from
earth, which of the following is likely to happen?
a) The star will turn yellow and then red and remain so
b) The star will turn blue.
c) The star will turn violet and remain so
d) The star will turn red and then invisible.
89. Two simple harmonic motions of same period and different amplitudes and no phase
difference are combined at right angles. The path of the resultant motion will be
a) a circle b) a straight line c) an ellipse d) a parabola
90. If the phase difference between the two motions in previous question is 90
o
the resultant
motion will be
91. If the phase difference between the two motions given in the previous question is 90
o
and the
amplitude of the two motions are same,

then the path will be
92. A spring of force constant k and mass m attached with it, has a period T. If the mass is fully
immersed in a liquid of density half its density, the period will be
a) T/2 b) 2T c) T/2 d) 2 T
93. If a graph is plotted with period of a pendulum and its length, the graph will be
a) a parabola b) a rectangular hyperbola
c) a straight line d) an irregular curve
94. The acceleration due to gravity in moon is (1/5)th that of earth. The period of a seconds
pendulum in moon will be
a) 26 s b) 2/6 s c) 12 s d) 2 s
95. The period of a pendulum on the surface of the earth is T. At 3 quarters down earth its period
will be
a) T/4 b) T/2 c) (3/2)T d) 2T
96. *A simple pendulum will have infinite period
a) inside an earth satellite
b) at the centre of earth
c) inside a lift under a free fall state
d) inside a lift accelerating up with a value g
97. A spring mass system makes 12 oscillations per minute. The spring is cut into two halves and
they are suspended from the same point with the other ends carrying the same mass. The
number of oscillations made by the system will be ( in one minute)
a ) 12 b) 24 c) 6 d) 122

73
98. A uniform cubic plank of side L is floating in a liquid of density twice its density. When it
is immersed slightly and released it will oscillate simple harmonically with a period

g
L
4 ) d
g 2
L
2 ) c
g
L 2
2 ) b
g
L
2 ) a
99. A body executing SHM has a velocity 3cm/s when the displacement is 4 cm . It has a
velocity of 4 cm/s when the displacement is 3 cm. The amplitude of motion of this body is
a) 7 b) 6 c) 6.2 d) 5
100. A toy gun uses to fire a spring of force constant K. The spring is compressed by x metre
before a shot is fired . If the mass of the shot is M, the height reached by the shot when
projected vertically is
a) Kx
2
/2Mg b) Kx
2
/Mg c) 2Kx
2
/Mg d) K
2
x
2
/Mg
101. A particle oscillating simple harmonically, has an equation x= 5 cos (4t+/3), where t is in
seconds and x in metre. Its acceleration at a time t = 4 s, in m/s
2
is
a) 20 b) 20
2
c) 40 d) 40
2

102. A simple pendulm oscillates with an angular frequency 4 rad/s. The ratio of maximum
acceleration to maximum velocity of this pendulum will be
a) 4 b) 2 c) 1 d) 0.5
103. A listener and a source are at rest. A strong wind blows from source towards the listener.
The apparent frequency heard by the listener will be
a) equal to the original frequency
b) less than the original frequency
c) more than the original frequency
d) cannot be said from the data
104. A whistle is rotating in a horizontal circle. An observer A is standing at the centre of the
circle and another observer B is standing outside the circle. If f is the true frequency of the
whistle, then the frequency heard by A and B will be
a) changing frequency by both A and B
b) same frequency by B and changing frequency by A
c) same frequency by A and B
d) changing frequency by B and same frequency by A
105. In which of the following cases Doppler effect cannot be observed ?
a) The source and the listener moving with same velocity in opposite direction.
b) The source moving and wind blowing with the same speed
c) The listener moving and wind blowing with the same velocity
d) The source and the listener moving with same velocity in the same direction.
SECTION 2: ANSWERS

1 (a) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5 (b)
6 (b) 7 (b) 8 (d) 9 (d) 10 (a)
11 (c) 12 (d) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (b)
16 (d) 17 (a) 18 (d) 19 (c) 20 (c)
21 (c) 22 (a) 23 (c) 24 (c) 25 (b)
26 (a,b,c,d) 27 (d) 28 (c) 29 (d) 30 (a)
31 (b) 32 (b) 33 (a),(d) 34 (d) 35 (b)
36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (a) 39 (b) 40 (d)

74
41 (d) 42 (a) 43 (a) 44 (c) 45 (c),(d)
46 (b) 47 (a) 48 (b) 49 (c) 50 (b)
51 (d) 52 (b) 53 (d) 54 (c) 55 (a)
56 (d) 57 (d) 58 (b) 59 (b),(d) 60 (b),(d)
61 (d) 62 (a) 63 (b) 64 (d) 65 (a)
66 (d) 67 (c) 68 (b) 69 (a),(b),(d) 70 (c)
71 (c) 72 (b) 73 (a) 74 (d) 75 (d)
76 (c) 77 (a) 78 (b) 79 (c) 80 (d)
81 (c) 82 (a) 83 (b) 84 (d) 85 (d)
86 (a),(b),(d) 87 (b) 88 (d) 89 (b) 90 (c)
91 (a) 92 (c) 93 (a) 94 (d) 95 (d)
96 (a),(b),(c) 97 (b) 98 (c) 99 (d) 100 (a)
101 (d) 102 (a) 103 (a) 104 (d) 105 (d)
SECTON 3
SOLUTIONS
1. V = f=
k / 2
f 2
=

, because 2f = , k
2
=
. Ans.a
2. While (a) and (b) are travelling waves, (d) is the superposition of two travelling waves, f(x-
vt) and f(x+vt). A logarithmic function such as (c) cannot represent a wave motion, because it
has no regular period. Ans.c
3. Frequency is the property of the source and hence does not change. Since wave returns to the
medium, speed does not change. v = f. Hence wavelength also does not change. The
only quantity that could change due to reflection is the phase. Ans.d
4. Velocity of transverse waves through string =
T
, where T is tension, is linear density.
Here T is same. = r
2
d, where d is density r
A
= 2r
B
. i.e.
A
= 4
B
. Therefore
2
1
4
1
v
v
A
B
B
A
= =
= . Ans.a
5. The speed of sound does not change with pressure. It is directly proportional to T.
300
400
V
V
27
127
= . From this V
127
=
3
400
. Ans.b
6. Frequency f =
E
v .
v
When temperature increases, E (Youngs modulus) decreases and
so does density. But the rate of decrease in Youngs modulus is more than the rate of
decrease of density. Therefore v decreases and f also decreases. Ans.b
7. = v/f = 350/500 = 0.7 m. A path difference of = phase difference of 2 radian or 360
0
.
Hence a phase difference of 60
0
= a path difference of /6 = 0.7/6 m = nearly 12 cm. Ans.b

75
8.
M
RT
v

= (1). Temperature T becomes 2T. When oxygen dissociates, molecular mass M
becomes atomic mass M/2. (diatomic) = 7/5, becomes (monoatomic) = 5/3. Substituting
these values in (1), we find nearest answer is d. Ans.d
9. A supersonic jet has a speed more than the speed of sound. Hence wave front coming from it
will be conical. Ans.d
10. When the tuning fork is vibrating condensations travel along the X axis producing two
maxima. Rarefactions travel along the Y axis producing two maxima. Thus we have four
maxima. In between two maxima there will be minimum. Thus, the observer will hear 4
maxima and 4 minima in one revolution. Ans.a
11. The velocity of transverse waves v =
T
. If free lower end of the rope is taken as origin, as
x increases tension also increases because tension is provided by hanging portion of the rope.
Since velocity v is proportional to T, and T x, v x. Ans.c
12. By the law of transverse vibration, frequency is inversely proportional to length and inversely
proportional to square root of linear density. When the wire is stretched, its length becomes
twice and area decreases to half, because the volume is constant. The frequency decreases to
half due to the increase in length and increases to 2 times due to the decrease in area. Thus
frequency becomes (1/2) x 2 = 1/2 of the original value = 0.7 f. Ans.d
13.
M
RT
v

= . When T is constant,
1 2
2 1
2
1
M
M
v
v
= , where subscript 1 is for hydrogen and 2 for

helium.
1
= 7/5,
2
= 5/3. M
1
= 2g/mol. M
2
= 4g/mol. This gives v
1
/v
2
= 25 / 42 . Ans.a
14. The fundamental frequency of an open pipe of length L is v/2L. When it is immersed half
inside water, its length becomes half i.e. L/2, and also it becomes a closed pipe. The
frequency of a closed pipe is v/4L
1
. Substituting in this equation L
1
= L/2, we get the new
frequency as
L 2
v
) 2 / L 4 (
v
=
. Ans.c
15. The tonal quality depends on the number of overtones present, and their relative intensity.
Ans.b
16. When a motor boat travels in water its propeller cuts the water surface lateraly at the same
time pushes backward. This produces both longitudinal and transverse waves. Ans.d
17. The waves produced in sonometer are transverse (vibration perpendicular to the wave
propagation) and stationary. Sound waves cannot be polarised. Ans.a
18. When two waves of amplitudes A
1
and A
2
at a phase difference of superpose, the resulting
amplitude is given by + + cos A A 2 A A
2 1
2
2
2
1
. Here A
1
= A
2
= A. = 60
0
. This gives
the resulting amplitude as 3 A. Ans.d
19. The types of waves reaching the listener are those propagating through air and those through
steel. Steel is more elastic. Hence the amplitude and the intensity of waves through steel will
be more. The velocity of sound waves through steel is greater and hence they reach quicker.
Ans.c
20. The given wave is a cosine wave and one travelling along the positive x-direction. To form
stationary waves, the two waves should travel in the opposite direction. That is the required
wave should have a term (kx+t). Also a cosine wave can be combined only with a cosine

76
wave. The only cosine wave travelling along the negative x-direction in the given list is
a cos(kx+t). We can check combining the two, i.e. a cos (kx-t) and a cos(kx+t), we get
2a sin(kx) sin (t), for which x = 0 is a node. Ans.c
21. Using the equation v = f, we have - = . m 10 x 4
10 2 . 4
1000 7 . 1
f
v
4
6

=
= Ans.c
22. The relative velocity of sound waves with respect to the wall is V+v. Hence the apparent
frequency of the waves striking the wall will be (V+v)/. Each wave has one positive crest.
Hence the number of positive crests will be same as the frequency. For 5 seconds, this
number will be [5(V+v)]/ . Ans.a
23. The resultant amplitude A of two waqves of amplitudes a
1
and a
2
at a phase difference is
(a
1
2
+a
2
2
+2a
1
a
2
cos)
1/2
. Substituting a
1
= 10, a
2
= 10 and = 90
0
, we get A = 14.1. Ans.c
24. A tuning fork emits a pure sine wave and also gives a single frequency. That is, it has no
harmonics. Ans.c
25. The maximum particle velocity of a SHM of amplitude Y
0
and frequency f is 2fY
0
. The
wave velocity is f. For 2fY
0
to be equal to 4f, has to be
2
Y
0
. Ans.b
26. Comparing with the standard equation of a transverse progressive wave, Y = A sin(t + kx),
we find A = 10
-4
, = 2f = 60, which gives f = (30/) Hz. k = 2/ = 2. That is = .m.
Speed of the wave v = /k = 60/2 = 30 m/s. Hence all the answers are correct. Ans.a,b,c,d
27. The first 3 are progressive waves, while the last one is super position of two progressive
waves, i.e. stationary wave. Ans.d
28. Intensity at a point is the energy received per unit area per second or power received per unit
area. Here power is distributed at the point of reception on the surface of a sphere of radius
2m. Therefore I =
2 2
2 4
5
r 4
P

=
= 0.1 Wm
-2
. Ans.c
29. Comparing with the standard equation, Y = A cos(t+kx) with Y = 3 cos(100t-x), we find
= 100, k = ; 2/ = , = 2m. Ans.d
30. Comparing with the standard equation for a stationary wave, y = 2A cos(kx) sin(t) we find
the amplitude term is 2A cos(kx). A node appears when amplitude is 0, i.e. kx =
2
.
2 50
x 2
=
. This gives x = 12.5 cm. Ans.a

31. Comparing with standard equation, Y = A sin (2ft), we find the frequency of waves are 200
Hz and 202 Hz. So, the number of beats will be 2 per second. The intensity ratio will be the
ratio of the square of the maximum amplitude (4+3) and the minimum amplitude (4-3) which
is 7
2
:1
2
= 49:1. Ans.b
32. Intensity is proportional to the square of amplitude. Therefore the amplitudes are in the ratio
3:1. The ratio of the maximum and the minimum amplitudes is 4:2. So the ratio of the
maximum intensity to the minimum intensity is 16:4 = 4:1. You can also use indirect theory
short-cut formula. Ans.b
33. (b) and (c) cannot represent a wave motion because they involve square of x and t and
therefore will not have a regular period. (d) involves cos
2
, hence cannot be negative but cos
2


77
can be written as (1+cos2)/2 and hence could be periodic. (a) represents superposition of
two waves. Ans.a,d
34. Since Snells law is valid, the refractive index n of the medium is given by velocity of sound
in air/velocity of sound in medium = 330/1400 = 0.235, where we have taken velocity of
sound in air and water roughly as 330 and 1400 m/s. If C is the critical angle, then the
refractive index n is given by = sin C/sin90 = n = 0.235. (note the difference with the optics
equation n = 1/sin C). We get C = nearly 14
0
. (We need not actually calculate but only need
know that it is less than 60
0
, incident angle). Thus the angle of incidence is greater than this
critical angle. Hence the wave will totally reflect into air. Ans.d
35. According to Fourier theorem, a period function f(t) can be expanded as a number of
harmonic functions. Here y = f(t) is periodic since RHS is harmonic. But for a simple
harmonic function we should have same period for harmonic functions. Here periods of cos
4t and sin 5t are not same. Hence it is not simple harmonic. Ans.b
36. Writing the general expression for y in terms of x as y =
) x 1 (
1
y , 0 t at ,
) vt x ( 1
1
2 2
+
= =
+
.
At t = 2s, y =
2
)] 2 ( v x [ 1
1
+
. Comparing with the given equation we get 2v= 1 and v = 0.5
m/s. Ans.b
37. Comparing with the standard equation, y = A sin (t-kx+) we is 15 and k = 10.
Velocity = . ms 5 . 1
k
1
=
Also
2
= k = 10. = 0.2 m. The wave is travelling along the
negative x direction with a velocity 1.5 ms
-1
and has a wavelength 0.2 m. Ans.c
38. If we have an equation of the form cos kx sin t, we know, it is due to the superposition of
two wave motions. If we have an equation of the form cos
2
at sin bt, it can be shown to be
superposition of three sine waves. Ans.a
39. Since the equation has no , comparing the standard form y = a sin (t-kx) with the given
equation y = a sin(20t-40x), we find k = 40. 2/ = 40, = /20m. Ans.b
40. The given equation is that of a stationary wave and can be written as y = 0.02 cos (10 x) sin
(50t). Comparing with standard equation y = A cos(kx) sin (t) we find first node appears
when cos 10 x = 0. That is 10x = /2. x = 0.05 m. Next nodes will be at 0.15 m, 0.25 m,
0.35 m etc (choice a) Anti-node appears when cos 10x = 1. That is 10x = n. So the
antinodes will be at 0, 0.1 m, 0,2m, 0.3 m (choice b). Velocity of the wave v = /k = 50/10
= 5m/s. (choice c). Since all are correct the choice is d. Ans.d
41. In a closed pipe of length L resonance appears for wavelengths L =
1
/4, L = 3
2
/4 and L =
5
3
/4, neglecting end correction. This will give
2
:
2
:
3
= 4: (4/3): (4/5) that is
1:(1/3):(1/5) = 15:5:3. Ans.d
42. Velocity dx/dt = 2
6
cos (
6
t). This will be maximum when cos

6
t is maximum. i.e.
6
t =
n, where n is an integer. This gives t = 0, 6,12,18 etc. [Alternate way of doing: Comparing
with the standard equation, cos(2t/T), we find period of wave motion T is 2/T = /6. T =
12 s. In a simple harmonic motion maximum velocity is attained during half the period,
because the particle will cross equilibrium position twice in a period. i.e. 6,12,18 s etc. Ans.a

78
43. By law of transverse vibration f T .
2
1
2
1
2
1
M
M
T
T
f
f
= = where M
1
g is weight in air and
M
2
g is weight under water. M
2
= M
1
- M
1
, where M
1
is loss of weight in water. M
1
= V.
M
2
= V-(V/2)x1. M
1
/M
2
= 2/2-1, where we have taken specific gravity of water as 1.
This gives

= =
2
1 2
300 f
2
1 2
M
M
f
f
2
1
2
1
2
Ans.a
44. Frequency difference = f
1
-f
2
= (V/
1
(V/
2
)) = (348/2)-(348/3) = 174-116 = 58. The beat
frequency will therefore be 58 Hz. (a) is correct. Since human ear cannot detect more than 8
beats/s, (b) is correct. (c) is wrong. When temperature increases, velocity of sound will
increase, frequency will increase and number of beats will also increase (d) is correct. Ans.c
45. The power transmitted by the wave is the energy of simple harmonic motion per second. This
we know as (1/2)m
2
A
2
. Thus the energy will be proportional to the square of frequency f
and square of amplitude A. Ans.c & d
46. The density of the mixture is
m
= (v
1
1
+ v
2
2
)/(v
1
+v
2
) = [(v/2)16 + (v/2)1]/v = 17/2.
Velocity of sound = / P . i.e. velocity of sound is proportional to 1/, since both have
same value for . Therefore v(mixture)/v(oxygen)
=
) oxygen ( v
) mixure ( v
) mix (
) oxy (
=
17
32
2 / 17
16
= .Ans.b
47. v (maximum) = A......(1) and a (maximum)=
2
A.....(2) for simple harmonic motion of
amplitude A and angular frequency . Squaring equation (1) and dividing by (2) we get
2
A
2
/
2
A = 16/16 = 1. That is A = 1m. Ans.a
48. From the first statement frequency of x = 100 5 = 105 or 95. From the second statement,
second harmonic of the source x has to be 205 5 = 210 or 200. This means x is either 105
or 100. The common value of both conclusions is 105 per second. Ans.b
49. According to an empirical formula the end correction of the resonance tube is given by 0.3 d,
where d is the diameter of the tube. The corrected equation will therefore be L
1
+ e = /4, for
first resonance. If d is increased, e increases, increases and f decreases slightly. Ans.c
50. The increase in pressure does not change the velocity of sound. When the temperature
increases by 1
0
C or 1 K, the velocity of sound increases roughly by 0.6 ms
-1
. (Recall formula
V
t
= V
0
+ 0.6 t). Ans.b
51. According to one of the laws of transverse vibration, frequency is inversely proportional to
length. So the ratio of length will be 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/4, which is 6:4:3. Ans.d
52. We compare with the standard equation for a travelling wave, Y = A sin (t + kx). We find
= 30, k = 1, velocity /k = 30 ms
-1
. The velocity of transverse waves in a string is given by V
= / T , where T is the stretching tension is the linear density. here is given as 1.3 x 10
-
4
. T = V
2
= 0.12 N. Ans.b
53. Let a be the amplitude of each wave . Then intensity of one wave is proportional to a
2
. The
maximum amplitude is the sum of the two, i.e. 2a. Hence maximum intensity is proportional
to 4a
2
. The required ratio n here is 4a
2
/a
2
= 4. Ans.d
54. The man should be standing 1/3 from one of the cliffs and 2/3 from the other cliff. The sound
takes 1/2 second to travel to the nearest cliff and 1/2 second to return. Similarly it takes 1

79
second to travel to farther cliff and 1 second to return. Distances between man and nearest
cliff = distance travelled by sound in 1/2 s = 170 m. This gives distance between cliffs 170 x
3 = 510 m. Ans.c
55. A tuning fork gives only the fundamental frequency and it gives a pure sine wave. That
means it has no harmonics. Ans.a
56. Here the tuning fork is a source moving away from the observer, while the sound reflected
from the wall is moving towards the observer. Thus we have two sources of the same
frequency, one moving away and the other moving towards the observer with the same
velocity. If V is the velocity of sound U
s
the velocity of source, the apparent frequency
difference
V
fU 2
U V
Vf
U V
Vf
s
s s
=
+
if U
s
<< V. Substituting U
s
= V
100
1
, we get. number
of beats = frequency difference = 5 per second = 300 per minute nearly. (You can also use
theory short-cut formula given in indirect theory notes.) Ans.d
57. To hear the beats, two conditions are required (i) there should be only a small difference in
frequency so that the beats can be distinguished and (ii) the sources should be independently
excited. Here, only the tuning fork is vibrated. A tuning fork cannot produce resonance and
beats at the same time. Ans.d
58. The speed of transverse waves through a string of linear density and tension T is given by V
= / T = f. Since f and are constants, V and hence is proportional to T. The tension
at the bottom is 2kgwt, while at the top is 2+6 = 8 kgwt. If
1
and
2
are the wavelengths at
the bottom and the top respectively. we have
2
/
1
= 2 / 8 = 2. The wavelength at the top
will be 0.12 m. Ans.b
59. The frequency f and tension T are related by the equation f T. Since T
1
> T
2
, f
1
> f
2
: f
1
-f
2

= 6 Hz. By increasing the lower tension T
2
, we can increase f
2
such that f
2
-f
1
= 6Hz. Siimilar
we can decrease the higher tension T
1
such that f decreases making f
2
-f
1
= 6 Hz. Ans.b & d
60. The amplitude of vibration will decrease due to the resistance produced by the water medium.
Hence (b) is correct. The velocity of sound in water (1400 m/s) is greater than its velocity in
air (340 m/s). Hence (a) is wrong. The frequency is the property of the source and hence
does not change. Thus (c) is wrong. v = f. As v increase, also should increase. Hence (d)
is correct. Ans.b & d
61. The principle of super position is common for all wave motion. But in the case of the laser
beam it is already an intense beam got by a number of photons in phase. So it has a very large
amplitude and hence difficult to superpose. Ans.d
62. The wave velocity in terms of angular frequency and wave vector k is v = /k = 200/2
=100 m/s Ans.a
63. Here the temperature is same. The variation of pressure does not change velocity of sound.
Using the formula v = M / RT , we find v
H
/v
O
= 4 2 / 32 ) H ( M / ) O ( M
2 2
= = . This gives
v
H
= 4x. Ans.b
64. Use the information supplied already in indirect theory notes. A path difference of /6 means
a phase difference of (2/)x(/6) = /3 radian. Intensity at the point I = I
o
cos
2
(/6). This
gives I/I
o
= cos
2
30 = 3/4 . Ans.d
65. Use the information supplied already in theory notes. to recognise that the given equation is
that of a stationary wave. In a stationary wave all particles vibrate in phase. The phase
difference between any two adjacent particles will be zero. Ans.a

80
66. Use the information supplied already in theory notes. The resultant amplitude is got by
substituting a = 10, = 60
o
, which gives 10x3. Ans.d
67. The intensity at a point is inversely proportional to square of the distance from the source.
Hence the amplitude (a
2
= I) is inversely proportional to the distance from the point to the
source. The graph between them will be a rectangular hyperbola. Ans.c
68. The speed of transverse waves through a wire is given by T / , where T is stretching
tension and linear density. When the wire is doubled in length the linear density which is
mass/length becomes half the original value. Thus becomes /2. The velocity becomes 2
times. Ans.b
69. In a stationary wave formation at the antinode pressure is minimum, which means density
also is minimum. Pressure is maximum and density maximum at nodes. Phase does not
change in stationary wave. The temperature changes because when sound wave propagates
through a medium the medium undergoes adiabatic change. Ans.a,b,d
70. Trough is a point of minimum (negative maximum) displacement. From here to mean
position ( point of zero displacement) the time taken will be one quarter of a period. Ans.c
71. The velocity of sound in air at a given temperature = P / . When air is humid, more
water vapour is present. This will decrease the mass of air in a given volume and hence the
density of air. So the velocity of sound will increase. Ans.c
72. Comparing with standard equation y = Asin(t-kx), we find k is equal to 2x20. But k is
equal to 2 /. This gives = (1/20) m = 5 cm. Distance between crest and trough = /2 =
2.5 cm. Ans.b
73. Since amplitude reduces to half after reflection, the reflected intensity which is a square of the
amplitude, reduces to 1/4
th
i.e. 25%. The transmitted intensity will be 75%. Ans.a
74. Since the transmitted intensity is 75% i.e. 3/4 , the transmitted amplitude is 3 4 / = 3/2 =
0.866. Ans.d
75. Use the information supplied already in theory notes.. Speed Mac 1.5 means it travels with a
speed of 1.5 times speed of sound. Hence the waves produced will be conical. Ans.d
76. Use the information supplied already in theory notes. Maximum particle velocity is A.
Wave velocity = /k. Dividing the two equations, the required ratio is kA. Ans.c
77. By one of the laws of transverse vibration, frequency f is proportional to T or = kT. When
tension is increased by 21% f becomes k
121
100
T
= 1.10 kT. This means the frequency
increases to 1.1 f i.e. increases by 10%. Ans.a
78. The apparent frequency heard when a source and listener approach each other with a velocity
U
s
and U
L
respectively, is given by the Doppler effect formula f
V U
V U
f
L
s
' ' =
+
|
\
|
.
| . Substituting
here U
L
= U
s
=(1/20) V, where V is the velocity of sound in air, we get f = (21/19) f. Ans.b
79. If f is the frequency of the tuning fork then f
1
= f-5. f
2
= f+5. Using one of the laws of
transverse vibration, we have f
1
l
1
= f
2
l
2
. That is (f-5)40 = (f+5)39. Solving we get f = 395
Hz. Ans.c
80. Due to high damping (resistance) exerted by water, the amplitude and the intensity will
decrease. So (d) is correct. The period is a property of the source and hence will remain

81
constant. (a) is wrong. The velocity of sound in water is greater than that in air. Hence (c) is
wrong. v= f. When v increases and f remains constant, should also increase. Hence (b)
is wrong. Ans.d.
81. Use the equation supplied in theory notes. The number of beats heard will be 2fU
s
/V. Here
U
s
/V = 1/100. f= 350 Hz. Substituting these values, we get the number of beats per second as
7. ( Note: The velocity of sound in air is not given in the question. Hence you cannot
assume it for calculation. Our formula has only the ratio of velocity of tuning fork to the
velocity of sound. This is the advantage of using it) Ans c.
82. The velocity of sound is directly proportional to the square root of temperature . i. e. v= kT.
To find change of speed for small variation of temperature, we should differentiate this
equation. This is the shortest way to do it. Differentiating, dv/v = (1/2) dT/T. Since it is
given here dT/T = 2%, we get dv/v = 1%. Ans a
83. Comparing with the standard equation to a progressive wave y = A sin t, we have the
frequencies of the waves producing beats are 2f
1
= 100, and 2 f
2
= 104t. This gives f
1
=
50 Hz and f
2
= 52 Hz. The number of beats produced per second, that is difference in
frequency = 2. The time interval between two beats is, therefore, 1/2 a second. The time
interval between one maximum and next minimum is 1/4 a second. Ans b.
84. We have already seen in answering a similar question in one of previous section, the ratio of
velocity of sound to rms velocity of molecules of the gas is 3 / . If these two are same, the
gas must have

= 3. That is C
p
/C
v
= 3. This gives C
p
= 3 C
v
. What is required is C
v
. C
p
-C
v

= R. 3C
v
- C
v
= R. This gives C
v
= R/2. Ans. d
85. We have to find the wave period first and then use information given in theory notes . For
this we compare with any standard equation , but it is always good to rely on one standard
equation, which is given in the theory notes. The comparison between y =A sin (t+kx)
gives as equal to . That is = 2f. This gives f = 1/2 and the wave period T as 2
seconds. Now use the information in theory notes . We get the time difference of 0.8
second corresponds to a phase difference of 360x0.8/2 = 144
o
. Ans d
86. Comparing with the standard equation as in the previous question, we find k = /32 = 2/.
This gives = 64 cm. This makes (b) correct and (c) wrong. A difference in the path of 64
cm is equal to a phase difference of 2 radian or 360
o
. Thus 20 cm should produce a phase
difference of 360x20/64 = 112.5
o
. This makes (d) correct Since there is a positive sign
between t and x terms, the wave is travelling along the negative x direction. Thus (a) is
correct. Ans a,b,d
87. The statement (A) is correct. But sine wave can superpose with a cosine wave, because
cosine wave is a sine wave with a phase difference of 90
o
. Hence (B) need not always be
true. Ans b
88. As the star is moving away from the observer, it should show red shift. As its velocity is
increasing , the light from it will shift towards red, will become red and then infrared. The
star will become invisible since then, as infrared is invisible. Ans d
89. If two motions are represented by equations x = a sint and y = b sint, we have x/a = sint,
y/b = sint. So x/a = y/b. i.e. y = (b/a)x. This is an equation to a straight line passing through
the origin inclined at an angle tan
-1
(b/a). Ans.b
90. Here the two motions can be represented by equations x = a sint and y = b sin(t+/2) =
b cost. Squaring and adding, we get (x
2
/a
2
)+(y
2
/b
2
) = 1. This is equation to an ellipse, whose
axes coincide with coordinate axes. Ans.c

82
91. Here the two motions can be represented by equations x = a sint and y = a sin(t+/2) =
a cost Squaring and adding, we get x
2
+y
2
=a
2
. This is equation to a circle whose centre is
origin and whose radius is a. Ans.a
92. The period T = 2 m k / . When the mass is fully immersed in the liquid, the buoyant force
will be (m/2)g. Hence the apparent weight will be (m/2)g. The new period will be
2 2 m k / = T/2. Ans.c
93. The period of a pendulum T is directly proportional to L. That is T = kL. Squaring T
2
=
constant x L. So the graph between T and L will be a parabola. (Note: The graph between
T
2
and L will be a straight line which usually is drawn in a school laboratory). Ans.a
94. A seconds pendulum by definition is one which has a period of two seconds, wherever it is .
Ans.d.
95. T = 2 L g / . At 3 quarters down earth the value of acceleration due to gravity is equal to g
1

= [R-(3/4)R]g/R. g
1
= (1/4)g. The period will be equal to 2 L g /
1
= 2T. Ans. d
96. A simple pendulum will have infinite period when acceleration due to gravity is zero or
effectively zero. This happens inside a satellite, at the centre of earth and a lift in free fall
state. This makes first three answers correct. In a lift accelerating up g will be effectively
more than the normal value. This makes the last answer wrong. Ans a,b,c
97. The frequency of oscillation of a spring is given by n = 1/( 2 m k / ). When the spring is
cut into two halves, each half will have a force constant of 2k. When they are suspended from
the same point with a common mass, they are in parallel. Hence the force constants add to
4k. The new frequency n
1
will be equal to
m
k
2
1
= 2n = 24. Ans.b.
98. If x is the distance through which plank is immersed, A cross sectional area, then weight of
liquid displaced = -Ax2dg = -kx. Here this force provides restoring force. Force constant k =
A2dg. The period of oscillation will be = = = dg 2 A / ALd 2 k / m 2 2 g 2 / L . (Can
also be answered from indirect theory short-cuts.) Ans.c
99. The velocity of SHM having an amplitude A at a displacement x is given by v=
A x
2 2
. Here we have v= 3 when x= 4 . This gives 3 = A
2 2
4 (1). Also v= 4
when x= 3. This gives 4 = A
2 2
3 . (2). Dividing (1) by (2), squaring and simplifying
we get A = 5 cm. Ans d
100. The potential energy when the spring is compressed is (1/2)Kx
2
. When the shot is fired
upward, this energy is converted into gravitational potential energy of the shot. This gives
(1/2)Kx
2
= Mgh. h= Kx
2
/2Mg. Ans a
101. The acceleration of SHM is -
2
x. Here = 4. Hence the acceleration will be -16
2
[5 cos
(4t+/3)]. When we substitute t = 4, this reduces to 80
2
cos(/3) = 40
2
. Ans d.
102. The maximum velocity of SHM in terms of is A, where A is the amplitude and the
maximum acceleration will be
2
A, in magnitude(because acceleration has negative sign).
Dividing the two, we get the ratio of maximum acceleration to maximum .velocity as
2
A/A
= = 4. Ans. a
103. The apparent change in the frequency due to Doppler effect depends on the relative velocity
between the source and observer. The motion of medium alone cannot produce Doppler

83
effect. Here the relative velocity between the source and the observer is zero and hence no
change in frequency. . Ans.a
104. For an observer standing outside the circle maximum and minimum (i.e. more than and less
than f) will be heard due to Doppler effect. For an observer at the centre of the circle, the
velocity of the source is always perpendicular to the line joining the observer and the source.
Hence no Doppler change in frequency. Ans.d
105. Except (d), in all other cases Doppler shift in frequency will take place. In (d) the relative
velocity between the source and the observer is zero. Hence no Doppler effect. Ans.d

ELECTROSTATICS
SECTION 1
QUESTIONS
1. When a body is negatively charged by electostatic conduction, its mass will
a) slightly increase
b) slightly decrease
c) remain same
d) increase or decrease depending on material
2. Two charges q
1
, q
2
are separated by a distance r. If a metal plate of thickness x is introduced
between the charges the force between the charges F will now be
a) F = 0 b) F = A[q
1
q
2
/(r-x)
2
]
c) F = A(q
1
q
2
/r
2
) d) F = A[q
1
q
2
/(r+x)
2
]
3. Two point charges +4 mC and 1mC are separated by a distance of d. The ratio force acting
on them will be
a) 1:4 b) 1:16 c) 1:1 d) 1:-1
4. *Two insulated copper spheres of radius 0.1 m and 0.15 m are given equal charges. They are
connected by a wire. Then
a) both spheres attain the same charge
b) both spheres attain the same potential
c) smaller sphere attains greater charge
d) bigger sphere attains greater charge
5. Three point charges +q each are placed on the vertices of an equilateral triangle, which lie on
the circumference of a circle of radius r. The electric field at the centre of the circle is
a) Aq/r
2
b) zero c) 3Aq/r
2
d) 3q/r
2

6. Inside a uniformly charged solid sphere,the electric field intensity at any point distant r from
the centre of the sphere varies as
a) 1/r
2
b) r
2
c) r
2
d) r
7. A charge q is located at the centre of a cube. The electric flux through any one face of the
cube is
a) q/
0
b) zero c) q/4o d) q/6o
8. When a soap bubble is negatively charged
a) it collapses b) it increases in size
c) it decreases in size d) it remains as such
9. Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 2 cm are given charges 10
-2
C and 5 x 10
-2
C,
respectively. If they are connected by a conducting wire, the final charge on the smaller
sphere is
a) 2 x 10
-2
C b) 4 x 10
-2
C c) 1 x 10
-2
C d) 3 x 10
-2
C
4

85
10. There is an electric field E along x-direction. If the work done in moving a charge 0.2 C
through a distance 2 metres along a line making anangle 60
0
with the x-axis is 4 J, the value
of E is
a) 4 N/C b) 8 N/c c) 3 N/C d) 20 N/C
11. A particle of mass 1 kg and charge 1 C falls through a potential of 1 V. Its velocity is
a) 1.4 ms
-1
b) 2 ms
-1
c) 0.5 ms
-1
d) 1 ms
-1

12. The dimensions of
v
is the same as that of
a) capacitance b) capacitance/unit length
c) capacitance/area d) potential/length
13. The radius of the hydrogen atom is 5 x 10
-11
m and the charge on electron or proton is of
magnitude 1.6 x 10
-19
C. At the ground state, the dipole moment of the atom ( in C m)is
a) 8 x 10
-30
b) 16 x 10
-30
c) 0 d) 4x10
-30

14. Two conductors of capacitances 1 F and 2 F are charged to 200 V and 100 V respectively,
and then connected by a wire. The final potential of the connected system is
a) 150 V b) 106 V c) 133 V d) 187 V
15. The dielectric strength of a certain material is 10
6
Vm
-1
. The breakdown voltage to be applied
across a 1 mm thick specimen is
a) 10
6
V b) 10
9
V c) 10
3
V d) 2 x 10
6
V
16. A charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q. The system of the
three charges will be in equilibrium if q is equal to
a) -Q/2 b ) -Q/4 c) +Q/4 d) +Q/2
17. *A parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charging battery is then disconnected. If the
plates of the capacitor are moved farther apart by means of insulating handles,
a) the charge on the capacitor increases
b) the voltage across the plates increases
c) the capacitance increases
d) the electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor increases
18. A certain charge is divided in the ratio m: n so that when kept at a given distance, the force
between them is maximum. The ratio m:n is
a) 2;1 b) 4:1 c) 1:1 d) 3:1
19. A condenser is connected to a battery . If a dielectric slab is introduced fully in the
intervening space between the condensor plates, the electric field between the plates will
a) decrease b) increase
c) remain the same d) cannot be answered from the data
20. An electron falls between two parallel plates of separation 2m, in which a uniform electric
field 2.5 V/m exists. The energy gained by electron is equal to
a) 2.5 eV b) 1 eV c) 4 x 10
-19
J d) 8 x 10
-19
J
21. A condenser of capacity C is connected to a battery of potential difference V. If q is the
charge given by the battery, the energy given by the battery and energy stored by the
condenser are respectively
a) (1/2)qV, (1/2) qV b) qV, (1/2) QV c) (1/2)qV, qV d) qV, qV
22. The potential due to an electric dipole on the axial line at a point r from the dipole is V. The
potential at a distance 2r from the dipole will be
a) V/2 b) V/4 c) V/8 d) V/16
23. *Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
a) If electric field at a point is zero, electric potential will always be zero

86
b) If electric potential at a point is zero, electric field will always be zero
c) Electric field can exist at point even when the potential is zero at the point
d) Electric potential can exist even when the field is zero at the point
24. The number of lines of force coming out from +1C is
a) 1.11 x 10
11
b) 1.11 x 10
-10
c) 1.1 x 10
19
d) 1
25. Two identical capacitors are joined in parallel and charged to a potential V. Then these are
separated and connected in series with the positive plate of one connected to the negative of
the other. Then
a) the charges on the plates connected together are destroyed
b) the charges on the free plates are enhanced
c) the energy stored in the system increases
d) the potential difference between the plates becomes 2V
26. If the distance between the plates of a parallel plates condenser is increased, its potential will
a) remain the same b) decrease
c) increase d) decrease expontentially
27. The insulating property of air breaks down at the intensity of electric field 3 x 10
6
Vm
-1
. The
maximum charge that can be given to a sphere of diameter 5m is about
a) 2 x 10
-9
C b) 2 x 10
-3
C c) 2 x 10
-5
C d) 2 x 10
-6
C
28. A hollow metallic sphere of radius 5 cm is charged such that the potential on its surface is
10V. The potential at the centre of the sphere is
a) 10 V
b) zero
c) same as at a point 10 cm away from the surface
d) same as at a point 25 cm away from the surface
29. Two identical small metal balls are given charges equal to 10 units and 20 units. They are
allowed to touch each other and are again separated to the same distance as before. The ratio
of the force between the two balls in the two cases respectively is
a) -8:1 b) 8:1 c) 1:8 d) 1:8
30. Two concentric thin metallic spheres of radii R
1
and R
2
(R
1
> R
2
) bear charges Q
1
and Q
2

respectively. The potential at radius r between R
1
and R
2
is
a) 1/4
0
[ (Q
1
/R
1
) + (Q
2
/R
2
)]
b) 1/4
0
[(Q
1
/r ) + (Q
2
/r)]
c) 1/4
0
(Q
1
/R
1
) + (Q
2
/r)
d) 1/4
0
(Q
1
Q
2
/ R
1
R
2
)
31. A parallel plate capacitor is charged. With charging battery connected, the plates of the
capacitor are moved further apart by means of insulating handles
a) the electric field between the plates increases
b) the electric field between the plates decreases
c) the electric field between the plates remains the same
d) cannot be said from the data.
32. (Fig) A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and
separation is filled with dielectric as shown. The dielectric
constants are k
1
and k
2
. The capacitance will be
a)
0
A (k
1
+k
2
)/t b)
0
A (k
1
+ k
2
)/k
1
k
2
t
c) 2
0
A k
1
k
2
/(k
1
+k
2
)t d) 2
0
A (k
1
+k
2
)/k
1
k
2
t
K
2
K
1
t
1
t
2

87
33. Three protons A,B and C are located between the plates of a parallel plate condenser such that
B is midway between the plates, A at a distance from one plate and C is at an equal distance
from the other plate. (Fig.) Check the correct statement(s)
a) The force on all the protons will be same
b) The force on proton B will be zero
c) The force on A and C will be same in magnitude and direction
d) The force on the proton A and C will be equal and opposite
34. There is a non-uniform electric field along x-axis as shown in fig.. The
field increases at a uniform rate along +ve x-axis. A dipole is kept
inside the field as shown. Which one of the following statements is
correct for dipole ?
a) dipole moves along positive x-axis and rotates clockwise
b) dipole moves along negative x-axis and rotates clockwise
c) dipole moves along positive x-axis and rotates anticlockwise
d) dipole moves along negative x-axis and rotates anti-clockwise
35. Two spheres A and B of radius a and b respectively are at the same
potential. The ratio of the surface density of charge of A to that of B
is
a) b/a b) a/b c) a
2
/b
2

d) b
2
/a
2

36. In a certain region of space there exists a uniform electric field of 2 000 k Vm
-1
. A
rectangular coil of sides 10 cm x 20 cm is kept in XY plane. The electric flux through the coil
in SI will be
a) zero b) 40 c) 4 x 10
5
d) 4
37. An lisolated metal sphere of radius R is given a charge q. Its potential energy will be
a) q
2
/4oR b) q/4oR c) q/8oR d) q
2
/8oR
38. The electric field at a certain point is 10 NC
-1
. The electric lines of force crossing unit area
around the point at right angles to it is
a) o b) 1/o c) 5 d) 10
39. The number of lines crossing at an angle 30
0
with the surface in previous question is
a) o b) 1/o c) 5 d) 10
40. A rectangular coil of area 200 cm
2
is placed in an electrostatic field 200 k
, in Y-Z plane. The

electric flux through the coil will be
a) zero b) 4 x 10
4
c) 40 d) 4
41. Two small balls are given equal positive charge Q coulomb each and are suspended by two
insulating strings of length L each (metre) from a hook fixed to a stand. If the arrangement is
taken to a satellite orbiting round earth, the angle between the two strings will be
a) 0
0
b) 90
0
c) 180
0
d) 0
0
< < 180
0

42. The tension of each string in this position as given in previous question will be
a) 0 b)
2
0
2
L 16
Q

c)
2
0
2
L 8
Q
d)
2
0
2
L 4
Q

+ q
-q
x-axis
A C
B

88
43. An electron kept in an electric field of strength E experiences a force equal to its weight. If m
is the mass of electron, the value of E is equal to
a) mg b) mg/e c) mg/e
2
d) e/mg
44. A hollow charged metal sphere has a radius r. If the potential difference between its surface
and a point at distance 3 r from the centre is V, then the electric field intensity at a distance 3r
from the centre is
a) V/6r b) V/4r c) V/3r d) V/2r
45. If one penetrates into a uniformly charged sphere, the electric field strength E will
a) decrease
b) increase
c) remain the same as that at the surface
d) be zero at all points
46. If all the electrons are removed from 1 g of hydrogen atom, the charge it will have would be
nearly
a) 10
6
C b) 10
4
C c) 1.6 x 10
-19
C d) 10
5
C
47. The electric potential V at a certain point distant x (in metre) is given by V(x) = 5x
2
+10x-9
volt. The electric field at x = 1 m will be
a) 20 V/m b) -10 V/m c)- 23 V/m d) -20 V/m
48. At any point on the right bisector of an electric dipole
a) the electric field is zero
b) the electric potential is zero
c) the electric field is perpendicular to the dipole
d) the electric field is parallel to the dipole
49. A parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and plate separation d is charged to potential
difference V and then the battery is disconnected. A slab of dielectric constant K is then
inserted between the plates of the capacitor so as to fill the space between the plates. The
work done on the system in inserting the slab is
a)
0
AV
2
/d b)
0
KAV
2
/2d
c)
0
(K-1)AV
2
/2Kd d)
0
AKV
2
/2d(K-1)
50. *A proton moving with a constant velocity passes through a region of space without any
change in its velocity. If E and B represent the electric and magnetic fields respectively, this
region of space may have
a) E = 0, B = 0 b) E = 0, B not equal to 0
c) E not equal to 0, B = 0 d) E not equal 0, B not equal to 0
51. Two equal negative charge q are placed at points (0,a) and (0,-a) . A positive charge Q is
released from rest from a point 2a, 0 on the x-axis. The charge Q will
a) execute S.H.M about the origin
b) move to origin and remain at rest
c) move to infinity
d) execute oscillations but not simple harmonic
52. 1000 small water drops each of radius and charge q coalesce to form a single bigger drop.
The ratio of potential of the bigger drop to that of the smaller one is
a) 1 b) 10 c) 100 d) 1000
53. An infinite number of electric charge each of magnitude +e are arranged along the X-axis at
distance x= 1m, x = 2m, x = 4m, x = 8m ....etc. The electrostatic potential at the origin is
a) b) e/2o c) e/3o d) e/5o

89
54. If the charges in the above question are alternately + and beginning with a positive charge,
the potential at the origin will be
a) zero b) e/2o c) e/3o d) e/6o
55. In the arrangement as given in question (53), the electric field at the origin will be
e) e/6o
56. In the arrangement as given in question (54), the electric field at the origin will be
57. Two condensers of capacity 0.3 F and 0.6 F respectively are connected in series. the
combination is connected across a potential of 6 volts. The ratio of energies stored by the first
condensor to that of second will be
a) 1/2 b) 4 c) 1/4 d) 2
58. A solid conducting sphere having a charge Q is surrounded by an uncharged concentric
conducting hollow spherical shell. Let the potential difference between the surface of the
solid sphere and that of the outer surface of the solid sphere and that of the outer surface of
the hollow shell be V. If the shell is now given a charge of 3Q, the new potential difference
between the same two surface is
a) V b) 2V c) 4V d) -2V
59. A ball carrying a positive charge hangs from a silk thread. If we keep a positive test charge q
0

at a point and measure the force F on the test charge, then it can be said that the electric field
strength E at the point will be
a) > F/q
0
b) = F/q
0
c) < F/q
0
d) F/2q
0

60. A condenser of capacitance 2 F is charged to 200 V. It is now discharged through a resistor
the heat produced in the resistor is
a) 400 J b) 0.02 J c) 0.04 J d) 0.08 J
61. The capacity of a parallel plate f condenser is 5 F. When a glass plate is placed between the
plates of the condenser, its potential difference reduces to 1/8 of the original value. the value
of the dielectric constant of glass is
a) 1.6 b) 8 c) 5 d) 40
62. The force acting on a charged particle kept between the plates of a charged parallel plate
condenser is F. If one of the plates of the condenser is removed, then the force acting on the
same particle will be
a) 0 b) F/2 c) F d) 2F
63. Two identical capacitors are connected first in series and then in parallel to the same source.
The ratio of energy of the system will be
a) 1:4 b) 4:1 c) 1:2 d) 2:1
64. *Two identical charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal length making an angle of
40
0
with each other. If they are immersed in a liquid of density less than the density of the
material of the spheres, then
a) the electrostatic force between them will increase
b) the electrostatic force between them will decrease
c) the net downward force on the spheres will decrease
d) the net downward force will remain the same
65. Vandergraff generator can be used for
a) charging of batteries
b) checking voltmeter markings

90
c) producing very high magnetic fields
d) accelerating charged particles
66. Three point charges +q, -q, -q are placed on the corners of an equilateral triangle of side r.
The potential energy of the system will be (A = 1/4o)
a) 0 b) 3Aq
2
/r c) -2Aq
2
/r d) Aq
2
/r
67. An uncharged metallic sphere A suspended between positively and negatively charged metal
plates is given a small push towards the +ve plate. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
a) A touches +ve plate and remains there
b) A touches +ve plate and then moves towards ve plate and remains there
c) A oscillates between the two plates with a constant time period
d) A oscillates between the two plates with an increasing time-period
68. A particle A has charge +q and another particle B has charge +4q. Each of them has a mass
of m. They are allowed to fall from rest through the same electrical potential difference. The
ratio of their speeds v
A
/v
B
will be
a) 2:1 b) 1:2 c) 1:4 d) 4:1
69. The radius hydrogen atom is 0.53 x 10
-10
metre. The electrostatic potential produced by the
proton at the side of the electron will be
a) 27.2 V b) 13.6 V c)-27.2V d) -13.6 V
70. The effective capacitance between the points A and D in adjacent figure is
a) 3 F b) 21 F
c) 1/3 F d) 1 F
71. A charged particle of mass 8 g remains stationary on a vertical electrical field 1000 kN/C.
The number of fundamental quantum of charges carried by it is
a) 5 x 10
11
b) 5 x 10
13

c) 5 x 10
14
d) 5 x 10
15

72. Two identical copper spheres of mass 1 g each kept at
a distance of 1m carry equal unbalanced negative
charge. They repel with a force of 2.56 nN. The
number of extra electrons carried by either of them is
a) 3.3 x 10
9
b) 3.3 x 10
10

c) 3.3 x 10
11
d) 3.3 x 10
12

73. Voltx coulomb has a dimensions of
a) force b) acceleration c) velocity d) torque
74. An electron moves along x-direction with a uniform speed. An electric field is applied along
the z-direction. the path of electron will be
a) a parabola in x-y plane b) a circle in x-y plane
c) a parabola in x-z plane d) a straight line along z axis
75. If the applied field is uniform magnetic in the z-direction, path of electron will be
a) a helix in x-z plane b) a helix in x-y plane
c) a circle in x-z plane d) a circle in x-y plane
76. A conducting plate carries a charge +q. Another identical plate carrying zero charge is
brought from infinity and kept at a distance r from the first plate. The second plate is earthed.
The electrostatic energy between the plates is (A = 1/4 o)
a) 0 b) -Aq
2
/r
2
c) Aq
2
/r d) -Aq
2
/r
A
B
C
D
3 3 3 3 3
3
3

91
77. The electric field at a distance 2 m from a charged plane sheet is E. When electric field at
infinity will be
a) E b) E/2 c) infinity d) 0
78. A simple pendulum having a bob of mass m carries a charge q. When the bob is kept in a
uniform electric field E in the horizontal direction, the inclination of the string with vertical is
a) cos
-1
(qE/mg) b) tan
-1
(qE/mg)
c) sin
-1
(qE/mg) d) cot
-1
(qE/mg)
79. If electric field at a point from a charged needle is plotted with distance which of the
following will be the correct graph ?
a) a straight line of negative slope
b) a straight line with positive slope
c) a rectangular hyperbola
d) an exponential graph
80. A charged particle of mass m charge q is released from rest in an electric field of strength E.
After a time t seconds the kinetic energy of the particle will be
a) 2E
2
t
2
/mq b) E
2
mq
2
/2t
2
c) E
2
q
2
t
2
/2m d) qE
81. Two charges exert a force F when kept at a distance r between them in air. The distance at
which they exert same force in a medium of relative permittivity 4 is
a) r/4 b) r/2 c) 4r d) 2r
82. Two conducting spheres of radii 5 cm and 3 cm are equally charged. The ratio of their
potentials is
a) 3:5 b) 5:3 c) 9:25 d) 25:9
83. Two conducting spheres of radii 5 cm and 3 cm charged to the same potential. The ratio of
their charges will be
a) 3:5 b) 5:3 c) 9:25 d) 25:9
84. Two conducting spheres of radii 5 cm and 3 cm are equally charged. The ratio of electric
fields on their surfaces will be
a) 3:5 b) 5:3 c) 9:25 d) 25:9
85. Two conducting spheres of radii 5 cm and 3 cm are charged so that the electric field on their
surfaces is same. The ratio of the charges will be
a) 3:5 b) 5:3 c) 9:25 d) 25:9
86. A charge q
1
exerts some force on another charge q
2
. If a third charge q
3
is brought near q
1
, the
force exerted by q
1
on q
2

a) decreases b) remains unchanged
c) increases d) decrease for like and increase for unlike
87. Twelve identical condenser plates are given. Two such plates will give a capacitance of 1 F.
The maximum capacitance which we can have from these plates is (in F)
a) 1 b) 6 c) 10 d) 11
88. A point charge q is placed at the corner of a square of side a. The potential difference
between one adjacent corner and opposite corner is [A = 1/4o]
a) Aq/a b) 10.7 Aq/a c) 0.35 Aq/a d) 0.29 Aq/a
89. Two conducting spheres A and B are charged to +10 C and +20 C. They have radii 3 cm
and 6 cm respectively. If they are connected by a wire
a) charge flows from A to B and heat is produced in the wire
b) charge flows from B to A and heat is produced in the wire
c) no charge flows between A and B and no heat is produced in the wire

92
d) charge flows from B to A and no heat is produced in the wire
90. The Coulombs law will not operate at a distance less than
a) 10
-8
m b) 10
-10
m c) 10
-12
m d) 10
-15
m
91. A charged particle will move along an electric line of force if
a) it is free
b) it is accelerated
c) it is moving with a uniform velocity
d) it is moving with a non uniform velocity
92. Two given point charges are placed at a fixed distance in the following media. In which of
the medium the Coulomb force between them will be minimum?
a) water b) oil c) mica d) paper
93. Three charges q
1
, q
2
, q
3
are kept at the corners of an equilateral triangle. The force between q
1

and q
2
is F. If q
3
is removed from the third corner force between q
1
and q
2

c) remains the same d) cannot be said from the data
94. Three charges +2q, -q, -q are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle. If V is electric
potential and E the electric field at the centre of the triangle, then
a) E = 0, V 0 b) E 0, V = 0
c) E 0, V 0 d) E = 0, V = 0
95. An electric line of force in x-y plane is given by the equation x
2
+y
2
= 1. A particle with a unit
positive charge initially at rest at a point x = 1, y = 0 in the x-y plane
a) will move opposite the line of force
b) will move at an angle to the line of force
c) will continue to be at rest
d) will move along the line of force
96. A charge of one coulomb is placed at the centre of a cube of side a. The number of lines of
force coming out from one face of the cube is
a) 1.11x 10
11
/a
2
b) 1.11x 10
11
a
2
c) 6x1.11x 10
11
/a
2
d) 1/6) 1.11x 10
11

97. Two charges +1C and -1C are placed at points (0,0) and (1,0) respectively. A non-uniform
electric field exists along the X axis which increases at a uniform rate of 1V/m
2
. If the force
on +1C is 5 N, the force on -1C is
a) 6 N b) -6 N c) 5 N d) -5 N
98. The electric lines of force coming out a charged body A is parallel and equidistant up to
infinity. This body is
a) a solid sphere b) a hollow sphere c) a needle d) a plane sheet
99. The electric field due to a dipole at a distance 2 m from it is E. The electric field at a distance
4 m from it will be
a) E/2 b) E/4 c) E/8 d) E/16
100. A hollow metallic sphere P is charged to a potential V volt . Another sphere Q is charged to
a potential V/2. If Q is placed inside P and they are connected by a wire, then
a) charge will flow from P to Q until the potential becomes 3V/4
b) whole charge will flow from P to Q
c) the whole charge will flow from Q to P
d) no charge flows
101. The potential due a point charge at a distance 2 m from it is 6 V. The field at the same point
due to the same charge will be
a) 3 N/C b) 6 N/C c) 12 N/C d) 0

93
102. An electric dipole kept in a uniform electric field is disturbed slightly. Which of the
following will happen?
a) It returns immediately to the equilibrium state
b) It moves away from the equilibrium state
c) It oscillates and returns to the equilibrium state
d) It oscillates for ever.
103. An electric dipole is subjected to two mutually perpendicular uniform fields F along the X
axis and 2F along the Y axis. The dipole will
a) oscillate in XY plane
b) settle at an angle 45
o
with X axis
c) settle at an angle tan
-1
(2) with X axis
d) settle at an angle tan
-1
(1/2) with X axis
104. An charged particle is moving with a velocity 10

k m/s. It is subjected to an electric field
50

i N/C. The path of the particle will be
a) a straight line b) a parabola in XZ plane
c) a parabola in YZ plane d) a parabola in XY plane
105. If the applied field in the above question is magnetic, the path of the particle will be
a) a straight line b) a circle in Y-Z plane
c) a circle in X-Y plane d) a circle in X-Z plane
106. Three point charges each 1/3 C are brought from infinity and are placed at the corners of an
equilateral triangle of side 1 m. The work done for this will be
a) 9 mJ b) 3 mJ c) 0 d) 4.5 mJ
107. Two spheres of radii 1 cm and 2 cm have equal charge density. The ratio of the electric field
on their surfaces in the given order will be
a) 1 b) 2/1 c) 4/1 d) 1/2
108. A cube of side a is placed in an electric field E
o

i . The net number of flux lines passing
through the cube is
a) 6a
2
E
o
b) 2a
2
E
o
c) 4 a
2
E
o
d) 0
109. The relative permittivity of a medium is x and the dielectric strength of the medium is y. For
the medium to be a good insulator, it should have
a) high x and low y b) high y and low x
c) low y and low x d) high x and high y
110. A point charge q is kept at the centre O of a circle of radius r. A and B are two points in the
circumference of the circle. AOB = 60
o
. The work done in taking a unit positive charge
from A to B along the smaller arc will be
a)
r 4
q
o
b)
r 4 x 6
q
o
c)
r 4 x 6
q 5
o
d) zero.
111. A solid sphere of radius R has a uniform charge density per unit volume. The electric field
at a point inside at a distance r ( r < R) from the centre of the sphere is given by
a) zero b)
r
o
3
c)
R
o
3
d)
2
3
r
o

112. Two soap bubbles P and Q are charged with same surface density of charge , but P
positively and Q negatively. Then
a) both the bubbles expand b) P contracts while Q expands

94
c) Q contracts while P expands d) both the bubbles contract

113. Two capacitors 1 pF and 2 pF are charged to 200Vand 100 V respectively. They are then
connected so that the positive plate of the one is connected to the negative plate of the other.
The final potential of the connected system will be
a) 150 V b) 106 V c) 133 V d) 0 V
114. The mass of an particle is nearly 8000 times the mass of an electron. An particle is
accelerated through 1 volt. The energy of this particle will be
a) 1 eV b) 2 eV c) 8000 eV d) 16000 eV
115. *An electric dipole is formed with charges +q and -q points (-1,0) and (+1,0) respectively on
the x axis. Check the correct statements.
a) The y-axis will be an equipotential line.
b) The electric field at all points on the y-axis will have same magnitude and direction.
c) The electric field at all points on the y-axis will be along the positive x-axis.
d) The electric field at all points in the y-axis will have same magnitude but different direc
tions.
116. The magnitude of torque on a dipole is doubled, when the angle made by the dipole with the
field is increased to three times. The initial angle of the dipole with the field is
a) 15
o
b) 45
o
c) 60
o
d) 30
o
117. Three identical capacitors are connected in parallel. Then they connected in series. The
difference between the effective capacitance is 16 F. Then capacity of each in F is
a) 3 b) 6 c) 8/3 d) 16/3
118. A condenser of capacitance 2 F is connected to a battery through a resistor 3 ohm. The
battery spends energy of 4 m J to charge the condenser fully. The heat produced across the
resistor during charging is equal to (in mJ)
a) 1 b) 3/2 c) 2 d) 2/3
119. n identical capacitors are connected in parallel to a potential difference V. These capacitors
are reconnected in series, their charges being left undisturbed. The potential difference
obtained is
a) V/n b) (n-1)V c) n
2
V d) nV
120. An isolated metallic object is charged in vacuum to a potential V, its electrostatic energy
being E. It is then disconnected from the source of potential, its charge being left unchanged.
It is immersed in a large volume of dielectric with dielectric constant K. Its electrostatic
energy becomes
a) E/K b) KE c) EK/V d) E
2
K/V
121. A small metal ball is suspended in a uniform electric field using an insulated string. If high
energy X-ray beam falls on the ball
a) the ball will be deflected towards positive plate
b) the ball will be deflected towards negative plate
c) the ball will continue to remain in equilibrium
d) the ball will oscillate between the plates
122. Two metal spheres of radii R
1
and R
2
are charged with Q
1
and Q
2
respectively. Then they are
connected by a wire. The charge flows
a) until Q
1
= Q
2
b) until Q
1
R
1
= Q
2
R
2
c) until Q
1
R
2
= Q
2
R
1
d) never

95
123. A capacitor of capacitance 5 F is charged to a potential difference of 100 V. The battery is
disconnected, and then it is connected in parallel to an uncharged capacitor of capacitance C.
The potential difference measured across this combination is 25V. The capacitance C is
a) 20 F b) 10 F c) 5 F d) 15 F
124. In the previous question , the ratio of electrostatic energy of the system before to that after the
connection of C is
a) 4/1 b) 1/2 c) 2/1 d) 1/4
125. A parallel plate condenser has an energy U. The plates of the condenser are pulled using an
insulating handle until their separation is 3 times the original value. The work done in the
process is
a) 3U b) 2U c) U d) 3/2 U
126. The minimum radius of a body which will hold a charge of 1 C so that the surrounding air
will not become ionised is nearest to
a) 1 cm b) 1 m c) 50 m d) the radius of earth
127. One thousand identical drops each of capacity 2F are charged to a potential 100 V each. If
they coalesce into a single drop, the capacity of single drop will be
a) 20F b) 200F c) 2000F d) 4000F
128. The potential of the resulting drop given in the previous is equal to
a) 100 V b) 1000 V c) 10000 V d) 10
5
V
129. Check which one of the following statements is not correct.
a) The SI unit of charge is greater than CGS (esu).
b) The SI unit of capacity is greater than CGS(esu)..
c) The SI unit of energy is greater than CGS unit
d) The SI unit of potential is greater than CGS (esu)
130. The capacity of a parallel plate condenser with air as dielectric is C. If the condenser is filled
with 3 dielectrics of equal thickness and dielectric constants 2,3,4 the capacity will be
a) (36/13)C b) (13/12)C c) (18/13)C d) 9C
131. Two condensers of capacitance C each are connected in series to a battery of potential
difference V. The same condensers are later connected in parallel to the same battery. The
ratio of energy of the system in the two cases in the given order is
a) 1/2 b) 1/4 c) 2 d) 4
132. A parallel plate condenser contains a dielectric of relative permittivity 2. The condenser is
charged by a battery. The battery is disconnected and the dielectric slab is removed. In the
process the energy of the condenser
a) decreases by 50% b) increases by 50%
c) decreases by 100% d) increases by 100%
133. An external electric field E
0
is applied across a dielectric. At any point inside the dielectric
the electric field
a) will be greater than E
0
b) will be less than E
0

c) will be equal to E
0
d) will be greater or less depending on direction.
134. * If the negatively charged plate of a parallel plate condenser is removed to infinity
a) the potential of the positive plate increases
b) the potential of the positive plate decreases
c) the capacity of the positive plate increases
d) the capacity of the positive plate decreases

96
135. Ten identical charged drops each having an energy E, coalesce to form a single drop. The
energy of the resulting drop is
a) 10 E b) 10
3/2
E c) 10
5/3
E d) 10
2/3
E
136. What is a capacitance between A and B in theadjacent diagram ?( all capacitances are in F)

a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
137. The effective capacitance between the points A and B in the adjacent diagram (all in F) is
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 0.5
138. In the adjacent figure, each edge of the cube contains a capacitor of value C. The total
capacitance of the circuit when a battery is connected between A and B will be,
a) (5/6) C b) (6/5) C
c) zero d) infinite
139. An infinite network of capacitors, each 2 F, is made as shown in the figure below. The
capacitance between A and B (in F) is
a) 2 b) 2.6
c) 3.2 d) 0
140. A parallel plate capacitor has a separation d and a capacitance of 100 pF. If a metal foil of
thickness d/3 is introduced between the plates, the new capacitance will be (in pF )
a) 300 b) 150
c) 100 d) 67
141. Two conductors have equal volume and carry equal charge. Then
a) they have same potential
b) they have same capacity
c) they have same energy
d) all the above three will be different.
Solve the following two problems within a maximum time of 2 minutes
using only one equation.
142. A capacitor of capacitance 2F is charged to 200 V. Another capacitor
of capacitance of 2F is charged to 100 V. They are connected in
parallel. What is the heat energy produced in the connection wires?
143. Three capacitors of capacitance 1F, 2F and 3F are connected to a
source of potential difference 110 V. What is the potential difference
across each of them?
144. If E is the electric field, E
2
r
has the dimensions of


97
a) energy b) energy per unit area
c) energy per unit length d) energy per unit volume
145. Two point charges q and -3q are placed at a given distance. The electric field at the site of q
is E. Then the electric field at the site of -3q is
a) -E b) -E/3 c) -3E d) +E/3
146. A ring of radius R carries a uniformly distributed charge +Q. A point charge -q is placed on
the axis of the ring at a distance 2R from the centre of the ring and released from rest. The
charge
a) executes oscillatory motion but not simple harmonic.
b) moves to the centre of the ring and remains at rest there
c) remains in equilibrium at the point
d) executes simple harmonic motion along the axis
147. Three identical spheres of masses m
1
, m
2
, m
3
are charged positively and negatively and no
charge respectively. Which of the following is correct ?
a) m
1
> m
2
> m
3
b) m
2
> m
3
> m
1

c) m
2
> m
3
< m
1
d) m
2
> m
3
= m
1

148. A parallel plate air capacitor has a capacitance of 100 pF. The plates are at a distance apart.
If a metallic wire of very small thickness is introduced parallel to plates between them, the
new capacitance will be
a) 100 pF b) < 100 pF c) >100 pF d) 0
149. * A capacitor C
1
of capacitance 1 microfarad and another capacitor C
2
of capacitance 2
microfarad are separately charged fully by a common battery. The two capacitors are then
separately allowed to discharge through equal resistors at time t = 0. Then
a) the current in each of the two discharging circuits is zero at t = 0
b) the currents in the two discharging circuits at t = 0 are equal but not zero
c) the currents in the two discharing circuits at t = 0 are unequal
d) capacitor C
1
loses 50% of its initial charge sooner than C
2
loses 50% of its initial charge
150. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C are connected to a battery of emf
12V. A dielectric of relative permittivity K is introduced in between the plates of the
capacitor. The capacitance C and potential V
a) both increase to K times
b) both remain the same
c) C increases K times and V decreases to K times
d) C increases to K times and V remains the same
151. Two point charges are kept at a distance in a medium. Each charge feels the presence of the
other
a) instantaneously b) in about a second
c) after a small but finite time d) after a time of the order of a few minutes
152. The maximum amount of electrostatic energy density which air can have so that it will not
break its insulating property is
a) 900 J/m
3
b) 90 J/m
3
c) 40 J/m
3
d) 1 J/m
3

153. Two point charges -2 C and +4 C are placed at points A and B as shown in figure below.
Which of the points marked in the figure is a possible null point (point of zero electric field)
for the arrangement ?

98
a) P b) R c) Q d) all the three points

154. In the figure given along with previous question, which point will possibly a point of zero
potential ?
a) P b) R c) Q d) P and R
155. An infinite number of capacitors each of 2 F are connected as shown in the figure below.
What is the capacitance between the points A and B?

a) 1.6 F b) o.66 F c) 0.8 F d) 1.2 F

156. Two rings each of radius R are kept perpendicular to the plane of the paper so that their
centres P and Q are at a distance R. They carry uniform charge q each.
The potential due to one ring at its centre is V. Then the potential due to
both rings at the centre P will be
a) 2V b) 2V
c) 0 d) (2+1)V/2
157. Four identical condensers connected in series have an effective
capacitance 1 F. One of them is removed from the combination and
connected in parallel with the rest. The effective capacitance will now be (in F)
a) 7/4 b) 7/3 c) 16/3 d) 3/4
Solve the following problems within a maximum time of 2 minutes.
158. 12 identical capacitors each of 1 F are given to you. How will you get a capacitance of 3/4
F using all of them? Draw the circuit diagram.
159. How will you obtain a capacitance of 1/3 F using all of them?
SECTION 2:ANSWERS

1 (a) 2 (a) 3 (d) 4 (b),(d) 5 (b)
6 (d) 7 (d) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (d)
11 (a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (c) 15 (c)
16 (b) 17 (b),(d) 18 (c) 19 (c) 20 (d)
21 (b) 22 (b) 23 (c),(d) 24 (a) 25 (d)
26 (c) 27 (b) 28 (a) 29 (a) 30 (c)
31 (b) 32 (c) 33 (a),(c) 34 (d) 35 (a)
36 (b) 37 (d) 38 (d) 39 (c) 40 (a)
41 (c) 42 (b) 43 (b) 44 (d) 45 (a)
46 (d) 47 (d) 48 (b),(d) 49 (c) 50 (a,b,d)
51 (d) 52 (c) 53 (b) 54 (d) 55 (c)
56 (d) 57 (d) 58 (a) 59 (c) 60 (c)

99
61 (b) 62 (b) 63 (a) 64 (b),(c) 65 (d)
66 (d) 67 (c) 68 (b) 69 (a) 70 (d)
71 (a) 72 (a) 73 (d) 74 (c) 75 (d)
76 (d) 77 (a) 78 (b) 79 (c) 80 (c)
81 (b) 82 (a) 83 (b) 84 (c) 85 (d)
86 (b) 87 (d) 88 (d) 89 (c) 90 (d)
91 (a) 92 (a) 93 (c) 94 (b) 95 (d)
96 (d) 97 (b) 98 (d) 99 (c) 100 (c)
101 (a) 102 (c) 103 (c) 104 (b) 105 (b)
106 (b) 107 (a) 108 (d) 109 (d) 110 (d)
111 (b) 112 (a) 113 (d) 114 (b) 115 (a),(c)
116 (d) 117 (b) 118 (c) 119 (d) 120 (a)
121 (b) 122 (c) 123 (d) 124 (a) 125 (b)
126 (c) 127 (a) 128 (c) 129 (d) 130 (a)
131 (b) 132 (d) 133 (b) 134 (a),(d) 135 (c)
136 (d) 137 (a) 138 (b) 139 (c) 140 (b)
141 (d) 142 1/200 J 143 60,30,20 144 (d) 145 (b)
146 (a) 147 (b) 148 (a) 149 (b),(d) 150 (d)
151 (c) 152 (c) 153 (a) 154 (d) 155 (d)
156 (d) 157 (c) 158 3/4 159 1/3

SECTION 3
SOLUTIONS
1. Charging by conduction is addition of electrons when
negatively charged) or removing electrons when positively
charged). Here electrons are added. The mass slightly
increases. Ans.a
2. A metal plate has infinite dielectric constant. The force
between charges separated partly or fully by it will be
(1/4
0
r
) (q
1
q
2
/r
2
) with
r
= . Thus the force between them
will be zero. Ans.a
3. The force between two point charges q
1
and q
2
kept at a distance F
12
and F
21
will have same
magnitude (since the force depends on the product of the charges) and opposite direction. i.e.
F
21
= -F
12
. Hence the ratio will 1: -1. Ans.d
4. The potential on the surface of a charged sphere is Aq/r. When
same charges are given sphere of smaller radius will have greater
potential. When connected by wire charge flows from higher to
lower potential making the potential same (choice b). This
reduces charge of smaller sphere and increases charge of bigger
sphere (choice d) Ans.b & d
5. Refer to the adjacent figure. The electric field at the centre of the
q
q q
E
E
E
r
R

100
circle 0 has a magnitude Aq/r
2
due to each charge. Their directions are shown. Three such
vectors form the sides of an equilateral triangle and by rules of vector addition the sum will be
zero. Ans.b
6. Refer to the adjacent figure. If is the charge per unit volume, = q/4R
3
. Charge on the
smaller sphere will be q(4/3)r
3
/(4/3)R
3
= qr
3
/R
3
where r is the radius of the smaller sphere.
The electric field at the point is A (charge inside the sphere)/r
2
. This gives field = Aqr
3
/R
3
r
2

i.e. to r. Ans.d
7. According to Gausss theorem total flux crossing normally through the whole cube = q/
0
.
This is flux coming out of all the six faces of the cube. Hence flux through one face = q/6
0
.
Ans.d
8. When a conductor is charged, there is an outward mechanical force given by (
2
/2
0
)N/m
2
,
where is charge radius of the bubble. It goes on expanding until surface tension of soap
solution balances this force and brings about an equilibrium. Ans.b
9. The capacitance of a spherical conductor is 4
0
r. When connected by a wire the final
potential = V = q
1`
+q
2
/c
1
+c
2
= (1 x 10
-2
+ 5 x 10
-2
)/4
0
x3x10
-2
= 2/4
0
volt. Charge of
smaller sphere = potential x capacity = (2/4
0
) x 4
0
(1 x 10
-2
)= 2 x 10
-2
C. Ans.a
10. Work W = Fscos, where F is force, s is distance is angle between force and displacement.
Here F = qE, where q is charge E is electric field. Thus W = qE cos. That is 4 = 0.2 x E x 2
x cos60
0
. This gives E = 20 N/C. Ans.d
11. If v is the velocity of a particle of mass m, falling under a potential difference of V volt,
electrostatic potential energy eV = kinetic energy (1/2) mv
2
v = 2 m/s. Ans.a
12. Unit of
0
is farad/metre, capacitance per unit length. This can be easily checked from the
equation of capacitance of a parallel plate condenser, C =
0
A/d, where a is area of the plates
and d distance between the plates.
0
= Cd/A. Ans.b
13. At ground state of hydrogen atom, the centre of mass of the revolving electron and that of the
nucleus will be same point that is centre of atom. Hence the separation will be zero. The
dipole moment is the product of charge and separation. Dipole moment P = qa = qx0 =0.
Ans.c
14. The resulting potential is total charge/total capacitance (q
1
+q
2
)/(C
1
+C
2
)
=(C
1
V
1
+C
2
V
2
)/(C
1
+C
2
) = 133 V. Ans.c
15. Dielectric strength is the minimum value of the electric field to break down the specimen.
The corresponding potential difference is field x distance = 10
6
Vm
-1
x 10
-3
m = 1000 V.
Ans.c
16. Charge q is already in equilibrium. Consider the equilibrium of one of the Qs.This will be in
equilibrium if force between Q and Q is equal and opposite to force between Q and q. If we
take distance between Q and Q as 2a, distance between Q and q is a. Then, we have AQq/a
2
=
-A(QxQ)/(2a)
2
. This will solve to q = -Q/4. Ans.b
17. When the charging battery is disconnected, the charge on the capacitor remains constant.
Hence answer (a) is wrong. When plates are separated more the capacitance of the condenser
r
A/d decreases as d increases. So answer (c) is wrong. Q = V/C. Q is constant. C
decreases. Hence V increases (b) is correct. The electrostatic energy of a condenser is Q
2
/2C.
Q is constant C decreases and therefore energy increases. (d) is correct. Ans.b & d
18. Let Q be the charge and q be its fraction. Then the charges are q and Q-q. The force between
charges, F = [A(Q-q)q]/r
2
. The force is maximum when dF/dq = 0. This gives q = Q/2.
Hence force is maximum between two charges when kept at a given distance if they are
divided in the ratio 1:1. Ans.c

101
19. Since battery connection exists, potential difference V is constant. Distance between the
plates d is constant . Electric field V/d, therefore, is constant. Ans.c
20. Energy gained by the electron = q x V, where q is charge and V is potential difference. Since
electric field E is uniform, V = Exd, d separation between the plates. Therefore energy = qEd
= 1.6 x 10
-19
x 2.5 x 2 = 8 x 10
-19
J. Ans.d
21. The work done by the battery to charge the condenser is qV J. However, the energy stored by
the condenser is only (1/2)qV. The factor 1/2 appears here because during charging potential
increases uniformly from 0 to V. Hence we take the average value. Ans.b
22. The field due to a dipole on the axial line at a distance is Ax 2p/r
3
. Since field is potential
gradient, potential should be proportional to 1/r
2
. Hence when r is doubled, V becomes V/4.
Ans.b
23. At a point electric potential or field can exist even when the other is zero. Examples are given
in indirect theory notes. Ans.c, d.
24. The number of lines of force coming out from a unit charge in CGS system is 4 and iun SI =
1/
0
. Value of
0
= 8.85 x 10
12
. Hence 1/
0
= 1/(9 x 10
-12
) = 10
12
/9 = 1.11 x 10
11
. This is also
given in indirect theory notes. Ans.a
25. Two plates get equal potential V and charge Q = CV. They are joined in series. No charge
flows as they carry the same potential, and in a series connection the charge is same.
Potential difference = 2V. Ans.d
26. When the distance is increased capacitance =
0
0
A/d decreases. Since charge is the same, the
potential increases by the equation, Q = CV. Ans.c
27. If q is the maximum charge it can hold, q/4
0
r
2
is the electric field on the surface. q =
4
0
r
2
E. Here r = 5/2 m. 4
0
= (9 x 10
9
)
-1
. We have from this q = 2 x 10
-3
C. Ans.b
28. The field inside a charge hollow sphere is zero. Therefore the potential at all points will be
same inside. Ans.a
29. Force of attraction (F
1
) = A(10) x (-20)/r
2
= -200A/r
2
where A is the constant appearing in
Coulombs law. When the balls touch each other, the radii being the same, the capacitance
will also be the same. So the charge will distribute equally. The charge q
1
= q
2
= (10-20)/2 =
-5 units. (F
2
) = A(-5) x (-5)/r
2
= 25 A/r
2
, F
1
:F
2
= -8:1. Ans.a
30. Taking 1/4
0
= A, the potential at the surface of larger sphere AQ
1
/R
1
should be = potential
inside at a distance r from the centre because then only the electric field inside larger sphere
will be zero. The potential due to smaller sphere will be AQ
2
/r, assuming charge concentrated
at centre. So the total potential = (AQ
1
/R
1
) + (AQ
2
/r). Ans.c
31. When charging battery is connected V remains constant. When distance is increased, electric
field V/d dcreases.. Ans.b.
32. Using the formula C =
0
Ak
1
k
2
/ (k
1
t
2
+ k
2
t
1
), for a parallel plate condenser filled with 2
dielectrics, we have here t
1
= t
2
= t/2, where is total distance between the plates. This gives C
= 2
0
Ak
1
k
2
/(k
1
+k
2
)t. Ans.c
33. The electric field between parallel plate condenser is uniform and is given by E = /
0
, from
Gausss law. Force = charge x field. Hence the force on all the protons will be same in
magnitude and direction. Ans.a,c
34. Since the field increasing along x-axis force on q is greater than force on +q. Hence the
dipole will move along direction of greater force i.e. negative x-axis. The force on charge
will produce a torque which rotates the dipole anti-clockwise. Ans.d
35. Taking 1/4
0
= A, we have Aq
1
/a = Aq
2
/b. That is q
1
/q
2
= a/b ....(1) If
1
and
2
are ratio of
surface density of the two spheres,
1
/
2
= (q
1
/4a
2
)/(q
2
4b
2
) = (q
1
/q
2
)(b
2
/a
2
). Substituting
from (1) for q
1
/q
2
, we get
1
/
2
= b/a. Ans.a

102
36. . k
200 E =
G
The area vector S
G
is perpendicular to the plane of the coil that is along the z
axis. Therefore S
G
= 10 x 20 x 10
-4
S . E flux The . k
G G
= = 2000 x 200 x 10
-4
( ) k
. k
= 40
units. Ans.b
37. The energy of a charged conductor is given by (1/2) qV or (1/2) CV
2
. For a spherical
conductor V = q/4oR. Therefore energy will be q
2
/8oR. Ans.d
38. The intensity of electric field at a point is the number of lines of force crossing unit area
around the point normally. Here it is 10. Ans.d
39. S d . E
G G
= E dS cos, where is the angle between field vector and area vector. Here the
lines make an angle 30
0
with the surface, which means they make an angle 60
0
with the area
vector. (Recall area vector is normal to the surface). Thus = 10 x 1 x cos60
0
= 5. Ans.c
40. Since the coil is Y-Z plane, its area vector will be 200 i
cm
2
. = E. dS = (200 k
). (200 x
10
-4
) i
=0, because i
. k
= 0. Ans.a
41. Inside a satellite there is no other force except electrostatic force (apparent weight of the balls
is zero). Therefore due to the electrostatic force of repulsion the balls settle at maximum
distance. Both the strings will be horizontal. Angle between them will be 180
0
. Ans.c
42. The tension of each string will be equal to the electrostatic force of repulsion experienced by a
ball. The distance between the balls is 2L. Therefore the force =
(
(
2
0
) L 2 (
QxQ
4
1
Ans.b
43. Force on electron due to electric field = eE. If this is equal to weight of electron, we have mg
= eE. E = mg/e. Ans.b
44. Taking A = 1/4o, potential on this surface = Aq/r. Potential at a point 3r from the centre
Aq/3r. It is given (Aq/r)-(Aq/3r) = V. That is V = (2/3)Aq/r. field at 3r = -d/dr = (Aq/3r) =
Aq/3r
2
= V/2r. Ans.d
45. Refer theory notes and previous similar question, in which it has been shown that the electric
field inside a charged conducting sphere is proportional to distance from the centre.
Therefore field decreases as we penetrate from the surface towards the centre. Ans.a
46. 1 g of hydrogen 6 x 10
23
atoms nearly. If all electrons are removed it will have 6 x 10
23

protons left. The total charge of all these protons will be 1.6 x 10
-19
x 6 x 10
23
= 9.6 x 10
4

10
5
C. Ans.d
47. Electric field E = -dV/dx. That is E = -(10x+10). At the point x = 1m, E will be equal to
(10x1+10) = -20 V/m. Ans. d
48. At a point on the perpendicular bisector of a dipole, the charges are at equal distance. Hence
the electric potential will be A(q/r) + A(-q/r) = 0. That is (b) is correct. The electric field at
this point (on the equitorial line) will be Ap/r
3
, and this always be parallel to the axis of the
dipole. (d) is correct. Ans.b & d. (Note A = 1/4o)
49. Since the battery is disconnected, charge Q on the condenser remains the same. The
capacitance of the condenser when the slab is inserted increases to K times. Work done =
difference in the electrostatic energy = (Q
2
/2C)-(Q
2
/2CK) = Q
2
(K-1)/2KC. Since Q = CV and
C = oA/d, this reduces to oAV
2
(K-1)/2dK. Ans.c
50. If both E and B are zero, the proton will certainly continue with constant velocity. (a) is
correct. Even when B is not equal to zero, if it is parallel to proton motion, it will go
undflected. Hence (b) is correct. If E is not equal to zero proton will be accelerated (c) is
wrong. If both E and B exist, and the force due to the fields are equal and opposite i.e. eE =
evB, the proton would move with constant velocity v = E/B. (d) is correct. Ans. a,b & d
51. When the positive charge is released, the x-components 2F
x
of coulomb force F will provide
restoring force for oscillatory motion, while y components cancel. However, coulomb force

103
obeys inverse squarelaw, while we need a force proportional to displacement for SHM.
Hence the charge will oscillate but not simple harmonically. Ans.d
52. If n drops of same radius and charge coalesce, the potential of resulting drop V
1
can be found
by the formula V
1
= n
2/3
V ( Indirect theory notes), where V is the potential of smaller drop.
The required ratio, therefore, V
1
/V is (1000)
2/3
= 100. Ans.c
53. Taking A = 1/4o, the potential at the origin will be V(0) = (Ae/1)+(Ae/2)+(Ae/4)+(Ae/8)
+.....to infinity. This is equal to Ae[1+(1/2)+(1/4)+(1/8)....]= 2e/4o, where we observe the
sum of geometric series in the bracket is 2. Ans.b
54. In this case V(0) = (Ae/1) (Ae/2) + (Ae/4)- (Ae/8)+.....= Ae[(1)-(1/2)+(1/4)-(1/8)....]=
Ae(2/3) = e/6o, where we observe the sum of geometric series in the bracket is 2/3. Ans.d
55. The electric field at the origin E(0) = (Ae/1
2
)+(Ae/2
2
) + (Ae/4
2
) + (Ae/8
2
) ...= Ae[1+(1/2
2
) +
(1/3
2
) + (Ae/4
2
)-(Ae/8
2
)+......= Ae[1+(1/2
2
) + (1/4
2
) +.......] = 3/4o, where we observe the
sum of geometric series in the bracket is 4/3. Ans.c
56. The electric field E(0) = (Ae/1
2
) (Ae/2
2
) + (Ae/4
2
)-(Ae/8
2
) +....= Ae[1-(1/2
2
)+ (1/4
2
).....] =
Ae(4/5), where we observe the sum of the geometric series in the bracket is 4/5. Hence E(0)
= e/5o. Ans.d
57. Since charge is same we use equation for energy (1/2)q
2
/C. This means energy U 1/C. The
ratio of energy will be U
1
/U
2
= C
2
/C
1
= 0.6/0.3 = 2. Ans.d
58. The field inside a charged hollow conductor is zero. This will be satisfied only if the potential
difference remains the same value V. Ans.a
59. In order to measure electric field, we place a test charge q
0
. The test charge will have to be as
small as possible because otherwise it will produce its own field at the point and thus will
disturb the electric field to be measured. Hence the measured field will always be less than
the actual field. Ans.c
60. The electrostatic energy lost is the heat energy produced. Hence (1/2) CV
2
is the heat energy
produced. Hence C = 2 x 10
-6
F. V = 200 volt. We get energy = 0.04 J. Ans.c
61. When glass plate is fully inserted, capacitance increases to
r
times, where
r
is dielectric
constant of glass. Since charge is constant potential will decrease to 1/
r
times. Here 1/
r
is
1/8. Therefore
r
= 8. Ans.b
62. Electric field between parallel plate condenser is uniform and is /
0
, where is charge per
unit area. When one plate is removed, the field becomes that due to one charged plate. The
field will be either /2
0
or - /2
0
. Force on a charged particle = field x charge. Hence the
force will reduce to half. Ans.b
63. Since they are connected to the same source, V is constant. Use the equation for energy
(1/2)CV
2
. In the first case capacitance is C/2 and in the second case 2C. So the ratio of
energy will be 1: 4. Ans.a
64. When the spheres are immersed in liquid due to buoyant force their apparent weight will be
less. Hence net downward force will decrease (c) is correct. Electrostatic force is balanced
by the horizontal component of tension. Hence (b) is correct. Ans.b & c
65. Vandegraff generator produces very high electric potential of the order of one million volt so
that charged particles can be accelerated using its potential. Ans.d
66. Potential energy of a system of three given point charges = (-Aq
2
/r) + (-Aq
2
/r) + (Aq
2
/r) = -
Aq
2
/r. Ans.d
67. A uniform electric field exists between the plates. A metal sphere suspended as shown when
slightly displaced will move towards one plate. Due to restoring force produced by the string
it moves in the opposite direction. Thus it will oscillate with a constant period. Ans.c
68. The electrostatic energy gained by A and B will be respectively qV, 4qV. This is equal to
respective mechanical kinetic energies (1/2) mv
A
2
, (1/2)mv
B
2
. From this we get v
A
2
/ v
B
2
=
1/4. v
A
/ v
B
is 1:2. Ans.b

104
69. At the ground state, potential energy of hydrogen atom is 27.2 eV. Its kinetic energy (half of
potential energy) is 13.6 eV, which makes the total energy as 13.6 eV. Since electrostatic
potential energy of electron is 27.2 eV, electrostatic potential at the site of electron due to
proton is +27.2 V (+ as its is due to proton). Ans.a
70. The effective capacitance between B and C is 3F. (Balanced Wheatstones bridge of
capacitors). This is in series with 3 F between A and B and 3 F between C and D. These
three 3 F capacitors in series add to 1 F by series addition rule. Ans.d
71. Here weight mg = qE. Therefore q = mg/E = 8 x 10
-3
x 10/1000 x 10
3
= 8 x 10
-9
C. The
number of quantum charges = q/charge of electron = 8 x 10
9
/ 1.6 x 10
-19
= 5 x 10
11
. Ans.a
72. If n is the number of electrons carried by each and e is the electron charge, we have A(ne)
2
/I
2

= 2.56x10
-9
N by Coloumbs law, where A = 1/4o = 9 x 10
9
. This simplifies to n
2
= 10
20
/9.
n = 10
10
/3 = 3.33 x 10
9
. Ans.a. (Note: The numbers given here are easy for simplification)
73. Volt x coulomb = potential x charge = energy, which has the same dimension as torque.
Ans.d
74. When electric field is perpendicular to the direction of motion of electron with uniform speed,
electron will have velocity and acceleration perpendicular at the beginning. Hence its path
will be a parabola in the plane of velocity (X) and acceleration (Z). Ans.c
75. When applied magnetic field is along Z direction and velocity along X-direction by Lorentz
force equation q v x B the force will be along Y direction. So electron will move in a circle
containing velocity vector and force vector. That is X-Y plane. Ans.d
76. Here we have two plates forming a parallel plate condenser. The electrostatic energy between
the plates = Aq(-q)/r = -Aq
2
/r. Ans.d
77. The field due to charged plane sheet = /2o, which is uniform and does not depend on
distance. So it will be same at infinity. Ans.a
78. If is angle made by the string with vertical, the forces acting on the bob are mg vertically
downward and qE horizontal. The string will settle at an angle , such that tan = horizontal
force/vertical force = qE/mg. (Recall tangent law in dynamics). Ans.b
79. The electric field due to a cylinder = /2
0
r, where is charge per unit length. The field is
proportional to 1/r. The graph between two quantities inversely proportional to each other
will be a rectangular hyperbola. Ans.c
80. Acceleration = qE/m. Velocity after t seconds v = vo+at = 0 + (qE/m)t. Kinetic energy =
(1/2) mv
2
= (1/2)m(qEt/m)
2
= (1/2)q
2
E
2
t
2
/m. Ans.c
81. According to Columbs law if r is distance in air and r
1
is a distance in the medium for the
forces to be equal r
2
should be equal to
r
r
1
2
. Equating we get r
1
= r/r = r/2. Ans.b
82. Potential V = Aq/r, where A = 1/4o. Here q is the same. Hence V 1/r. V
1
/V
2
= r
2
/r
1
=
3/5. Ans.a
83. Here V is same. Using V = Aq/r, q r. q
1
/q
2
= r
1
/ r
2
= 5/3. Ans.b
84. Electric field at the surface = Aq/r
2
, where A = 1/4o. Here q is same. Hence E 1/r
2
.
E
1
/E
2
= r
2
2
/r
1
2
= 9/25. Ans.c
85. Since electric field in the surfaces are same , Aq/r
1
2
= Aq
2
/r
2
2
. This gives q
1
/q
2
=25/9. Ans.d
86. The force between q
1
and q
2
depends only on q
1
and q
2
and their separation according to
Coloumbs law. Any intervening charge q
3
will not change the force between these two.
Ans.b
87. With twelve condenser plates we can form eleven condensers. If the plates are arranged
parallel at equal distance and alternate plates are connected to positive of a battery, other

105
alternate plates to negative, these condensers will be parallel. Its capacity will be 11 F.
Ans.d
88. Taking A = 1/4o, potential due to charge at the adjacent corner = Aq/a. Potential due to
charge in the opposite corner = Aq/2a. Potential difference = Aq/a [1-(1/2)]= Aq/a[1-0.71]
= 0.29 x Aq/a, where we have taken 1/2 = 0.71. Ans.d
89. Potential on the surface of A is = potential on the surface of B, because the ratio 10/3 = 20/6
(potential = 1/4 o(q/r). Since there is no potential difference charge will not flow. Ans.c
90. Use the information supplied already in theory notes.. This law fails inside the nucleus. The
inter-nuclear distance is of the order of 10
-15
m. The nuclear forces follow a different set of
laws. Ans.d
91. An electric charge will move along the line of force only if it is free, i.e. it is not under the
action of any other force. Hence it cannot move along the line of force if it is accelerated. If
its velocity is uniform, still it need not follow the line of force if its velocity is inclined to the
field. Ans.a
92. The dielectric constant of pure water is 81. Among the given media water has maximum
dielectric constant. Since the coulomb force is inversely proportional to dielectric constant
r

, it is minimum for water. Ans a
93. Use the information supplied already in theory notes.. The force between q
1
and q
2
will not
change due to the presence or absence of the third charge q
3.
. Ans.c
94. At the centre the electric potential due to the charges will be
1
4
2
o
q
r
q
r
q
r
( ), where r is
the distance from the corner to the centre of the triangle. The electric field at the centre will
not be zero, because the fields are in different directions due to charges and hence will not
cancel. Ans.b
95. In an electric field the line of force is the path followed by an isolated (or free) charge.
Initially the charge is in the line of force because x = 1, y= 0 is a point in the circle. Hence
when it is free, it will move along the line of force. Ans.d.
96. Use the information supplied in theory notes.. The total number of lines of force coming from
the charge is 1.11x 10
11
. This is distributed to six faces. The number of lines of force coming
from one face = (1/6) 1.11x 10
11
. Ans.d.
97. The force on 1C is 5 N means electric field at the origin is (force / charge) = 5/1 = 5 volt/m.
Since the field increases at a rate 1 V/m for every metre, the field at x = 1 should be 5+1 = 6
V/m. The force on -1 C = charge x field = -1x6 = -6 N. Ans.b
98. Use information supplied in theory notes. The electric field due to a charged plane sheet (
/2o ) is same at all points. The field is uniform throughout. Ans.d..
99. Use the information supplied already in theory notes. When the distance increases to twice
the field decreases to 1/2
3
of E. i.e. E/8. Ans.c
100. The field inside a charged hollow conductor is zero. In order to make the field zero, the
charges will have to flow from inner hollow sphere Q to the outer one. Ans.c
101. The potential due to a point charge q is given by V = q/ 4
o
r. The field due to a point charge
at the same point will have a magnitude E = q/4
o
r
2
. From these two equations, we find E =
V/r = 6/2 = 3 N/C. Ans.a
102. When a dipole is disturbed slightly, there will be a restoring torque trying it bring back to
equilibrium. Due to the action of the torque, it returns. But it would have acquired kinetic
energy of rotation, when it returns to equilibrium. Therefore, it continues in the opposite

106
direction. Thus it oscillates. When all its energy is spent against dissipative forces, it returns
to equilibrium. Ans.c
103. The two torques acting on the dipole are pFsin and p2F sin(90-), where is angle made by
the dipole with X axis at equilibrium. When the two torques are equal, the dipole will remain
in equilibrium. Equating, we get tan = 2. Ans.c
104. The particle here is subjected to an electric field perpendicular to its velocity, because velocity
is along Z-axis and the field along X axis. Hence the path will be a parabola in the plane of
velocity and the field vectors. Ans.b
105. According to Lorentzs force equation the force on the particle will be F qv xB
z x
= . Since the
vector product of velocity and field will be perpendicular to them, the force vector will be
along the Y axis. This will provide centripetal force for circular motion. Therefore, the
particle will have a velocity along Z-axis and centripetal acceleration along the Y-axis. The
particle will move in a circle in Y-Z plane. Ans.b
106. The work done is the total potential energy of the system. If each charge is q, then the total
energy will be 3Aq
2
/r. Here A = 1/4
o
= 9x10
9
. q = (1/3 C) = (10
-6
/ 3) C. This gives work
as equal to 3 m J. Ans.b
107. The electric field on the surface of a sphere charged with q is q/4
o
r
2
, where r is radius of the
sphere. This can be written as /
o
, because = q/4r
2
. Since is same, the electric field
will also be same. Ans.a
108. The cube is placed so that the electric field is parallel to one of the edges along the X-axis. .
The number of lines of force entering the face perpendicular to the edge is equal to the
number of lines of force leaving. Hence the net flux will be zero. Ans.d
109. It is essential that a good insulator should have high value for dielectric constant or relative
permittivity. The dielectric strength is the electric field to produce break down in the
substance. This also will have to be high. Ans.d
110. The potential at the points A and B due to the point charge kept at the centre are same. This
means potential difference is zero. Hence work done when a charge is moved between the
points will be zero. You can also use theory note short cuts given. Ans.d
111. If we imagine a sphere of radius r inside bigger sphere, the question asks to find the field at
the surface of this smaller sphere. The electric field at the surface of this smaller sphere is
produced by the charge inside it. Since volume distribution of charge is uniform, the charge
inside the smaller sphere will be (4/3)r
3
. Let this charge be q
1
. The electric field will be q
1
/
4
o
r
2
. Substituting for q
1,
we get the field at the surface of smaller sphere as
r
o
3
. Ans.b
112. If the surface density of charge is , there will be an outward force on the soap bubble =
(
2
/2
o
)

N/m
2
due to charging. This force will always expand the soap bubble, whether is
positive or negative. So the soap bubble will always expand when charged. Ans.a.
113. The resulting potential is total charge/total capacitance. Since the positive plate of one is
connected to the negative plate of the other, the charges cancel, i.e. total charge will be q
1
-q
2
.
Thus V= 0
2 1
100 2 200 1
2 1
2 2 1 1
2 1
2 1
=
+
=
+
=
+
x x
C C
V C V C
C C
q q
. Ans.d
114. The electrostatic potential energy = charge x potential = qV. This will be in joule. If we
write it in terms of electron charge e, then the charge carried by the particle q = 2e. The
energy will be 2eV joule = 2V electron volt = 2 x1 electron volt. Ans.b

107
115. Any point on the y-axis is at equal distance from both the charges. Hence the potential due to
them will be equal in value and opposite in sign, which makes (a) correct. Any point on the
y-axis is a point on the equitorial line of the dipole. Hence the field will depend on 1/y
3
.
(Look up Theory notes supplied). So (b) and (d) are wrong. The electric field at all points on
the y-axis will be in a direction parallel to the axis of the dipole, in this case +x axis. This
makes (c) correct. Ans.a,c
116. The magnitude of the torque is given by pE sin, where is the angle made by the dipole
with the field. When the angle is made three times the torque becomes twice only if = 30
o
,
since sin 30
o
= 0.5 and sin 90
o
= 1. Ans.d
117. Use the information supplied in theory notes.. When three identical condensers are joined in
parallel the effective value is 3C and in series the effective value is C/3. It is given here 3C-
(C/3) = 16. Solving C = 6F. Ans.b
118. Use the information supplied in theory notes. The half of the energy spent by the battery is
used to charge the condenser, while the other half goes as heat. Therefore, heat produced is 2
mJ. Ans.c
119. When capacitors are in parallel, the charge is nCV. When they are in series, the charge is
(C/n)V
1
, where V
1
is the new potential. Since charge is constant, we have nCV = CV
1
/n. This
gives V
1
= n
2
V. You can also use theory notes to get this straight. Ans.d
120. The electrostatic energy of a charged body E = (1/2)QV. When this body is immersed in a
dielectric, its capacity becomes KC and potential becomes V/K. [Use information given in
theory notes tables]. The new energy will be E
1
= (1/2)QV/K = E/K. Ans.a
121. When X-rays fall on the metal ball, some of the electrons are removed from the metal due to
ionisation. This produces a net positive charge on the metal ball. Due to this the ball will
deflect towards negative plate. Ans.b
122. Use the information supplied in theory notes. Charge flows until the potentials are equal i.e.
Q
1
/4
o
R
1
= Q
2
/4
o
R
2
. That is Q
1
/R
1
= Q
2
/R
2
or Q
1
R
2
= Q
2
R
1.
Ans.c
123. Use the information supplied in theory notes. Here the potential is reduced from 100 to 25 V.
This means the capacitance has been increased to 4 times i.e. from 5 to 20 due to the
connection. So increase in capacitance is 20-5 = 15 F. Ans.d
124. Since charge is conserved, use equation for electrostatic energy E = QV/2. V decreases from
100 to 25 V.i.e. to 1/4 th. So energy also decreases to 1/4. Ans.a
125. Use the equation for energy U = Q
2
/2C. When plates are separated to 3 times capacitance
becomes C/3. The energy becomes 3Q
2
/2C = 3U. Thus the energy increases from U to 3U.
The work done = increase in energy = 2U. Ans.b
126. Use the information supplied in theory notes. If a sphere of radius R holds 1 C of charge the
electric field on its surface should not exceed 3x10
6
N/C. This means Q/ 4
o
R
2
= 3x10
6
V/m.
That is, 9x10
9
/R
2
=3x10
6
, which gives R = 3000 , which is nearly 50 m. Ans. c
127. Use the information supplied already in theory notes. The resulting capacity is equal to
1000
1/3
x 2 = 10x2 = 20F. Ans.a
128. Use the information supplied in indirect theory notes. The potential of resulting drop is equal
to 1000
2/3
x100 = 100x100 = 10000 V. Ans.c
129. Usually in international system, units are bigger than those in in CGS system. The units in
CGS system are stat coulomb for charge, stat volt for potential and stat farad for capacitance
and erg for energy. 1C = 3x10
9
stat -coulomb. 1F = 9x10
11
stat farad. 1 J = 10
7
erg. 1V =

108
(1/300) stat volt. From these we find the CGS unit of potential stat volt = 300 V i.e. bigger
than volt. Ans.d
130. Using the equationc C
1
=
0
1 1 2 2 3 3
A
t k t k t k ( / ) ( / ) ( / ) + +
. With air C
t
A
0
. Here
t
1
=t
2
=t
3
=t/3. k
1
=2. k
2
=3 k
3
=4. Substituting these values we get C
1
= (36/13)C. Ans.a
131. Since the potential is same we use equation for energy (1/2) CV
2
. So E
1
/E
2
=C
1
/C
2
. C
1
/C
2
.=
1/4 from indirect theory notes. Thus the ratio E
1
/E
2
= 1/4. Ans.b
132. When the battery is disconnected the charge remains constant. Hence use the equation for
energy as Q
2
/2KC with dielectric and Q
2
/2C without the dielectric . Thus energy increases in
the ratio 1/K:1 i.e.1/2:1 That is,the energy increases by 100%. Ans.d.
133. When an electric field is applied to a dielectric it becomes polarised. Polarisation produces
dipoles. These dipoles produce a field at any point inside which opposes the external field.
Hence the field at any point will be E
0
- the field produced by the dipoles i.e. it will be less
than E
0
. Ans.b
134. When an uncharged plate is brought from infinity near to a positively charged plate, the
potential of positive plate decreases and its capacity increases. (Principle of a condenser). So
when this plate is removed capacity decreases and potential increases. So (a) and (d) are
correct, (b) and (c) are wrong. Ans.a,d.
135. Use the information supplied already in theory notes. If Q is the charge of each drop and V is
the potential, when drops coalesce the charge becomes 10 Q and potential becomes 10
2/3
V.
Since energy is proportional to the product of Q and V, it will become 10x10
2/3
= 10
5/3
of
that of one drop. You can also use theory notes short-cuts. Ans.c
136. Since all the capacitors are in parallel total capaci tance C is equal to
F 8 ....
8
1
4
1
2
1
1 4 to ....
16
1
8
1
4
1
2
1
1 2 4 =
(
+ + + = + + + + + +
. Ans.d
where we have used the information that geometric
series in the bracket has a sum 2. Ans.d
137. The arrangement in the triangle part ABC is a
balanced Wheatstones bridge of capacitors. The
effective capacitance between the points A and B of
this bridge is 1F. This is parallel with 1F across
DE. Therefore the total capacitance 1+1 =2F. Ans.a
138. Let a charge of 6q flow from the battery. It divides into three equal values 2q each as shown
in figure. Each of the 2q divides to two condensers as q
each. Then these charges rejoin as 6q. Taking any closed
path and adding potential difference across each capacitor,
we have 2q/C + q/C+2q/C = 6q/C
1,
where C
1
is the
equivalent capacitance of A and B.C
1
= (6/5) C. Ans.b
139. Let X be the capacitance between A and B. (fig below). In
this infinite network we have repeating units. Here one unit
is a parallel an series capacitor. Break the circuit after one such unit. We find the circuit will
have the same structure as the original network. Hence the capacitance between E and F will
also be X itself. X across EF is in series with 2 . This gives 2X/2+X. This is in parallel with

109
2 across CD. This will give (2X/2+X)+2. This should be equal to X, i.e. capacitance across
AB. Therefore, we have
2
2
2
X
X
X
+
+ = . Solving this equation we gets X = 3.2F. Ans.c
140. Before introducing the metal, let the capacitance be C. The C =
o
A/d. If a dielectric of
thickness t and dielectric constant K is introduced the new capacitance C
1
is given by
3 / d t and K Here
)
K
1
1 ( t d
A
C
0
1
= =

= . C
1
= 100 x
2
3
C
2
3
d 2
A 3
0
= =
= 150 pF. Ans.b

141. The potential, the capacity and energy depend on the shape and the charge of the conductor.
Hence they will not be same even if they have same volume. Ans.d
142. Use the information supplied already in theory notes. The electrostatic energy lost is equal to
heat energy gained. Therefore the heat energy produced =
1
2
2 2
2 2
10 200 100
1
200
6 2
x
x J
+
=
( ) .
143. In a series connection capacitors get same charge. Using the equation Q =VC, we find V is
proportional to 1/C. V
1
:V
2
:V
3
= (1/1): (1/2): (1/3) = 6:3:2. So all we have do is to divide 110
volt in this ratio. The potentials will be 60V, 30V and 20V respectively.
144. The equation for energy density i.e. energy per unit volume is given by (1/2)
o
r
E
2
. Ans.d
145. When two charges are placed at a distance, the force on them will be the same in magnitude
and opposite in direction. Force on q = field x charge = Eq. Force on -3q = Eq. Field at the
site of -3q = force/charge = = qE/-3q = -E/3. Ans.b
146. When the charge is released there will be force of attraction towards the ring. The horizontal
component of the force along the axis will provide the restoring force. This force will always
be directed towards the centre of the ring. The particle, thus, will have oscillatory motion.
But the coloumb forces follow inverse square law. For simple harmonic motion we need
force proportional to displacement. Hence the motion will not be simple harmonic. Ans.a
147. A negatively charged body gains electrons. So its mass increases. A positively charged body
loses electrons and its mass decreases. Hence negatively charged sphere has more mass and
positively charged one has less mass. Ans.b
148. Use the equation for capacitance of a parallel plate condenser with a dielectric of thickness t
introduced . If C is the capacitance when medium is air we have C =
o
A/d.
. t and K Here .
)
K
( t d
A
C 0
1
1
0
1
= =

=

This gives C
1
= C. Ans.a
149. A condenser discharges according to the equation q = q
o
e
-t/RC
, where R is the value of the
resistor in series with C. Current i = dq/dt = -q
o
e
-t/RC
(1/RC). Since q
0
/C is constant equal to
charging potential V, we find, the current i is not zero at time t = 0,but is constant equal to
q
0
/CR. Therefore (a) and (c) are wrong but (b) is correct. Also dq/dt is more when C is less,
from the above equation. This means condesner of smaller capacitance loses charge more
quickly. Hence (d) is correct. Ans.,b, d
150. Since the condenser is connected to the battery, whatever may happen, the potential remains
the same. When a dielectric is introduced, the capacity will increase to K times. Ans. d.
151. The electromagnetic force is transferred through photons. A charge feels the presence of the
other when photons are exchanged between them. Hence the time taken will be the time for

110
photons to travel the distance between them which will be about 10
-8
s. This time is small but
finite. Ans.c
152. Use the information supplied in theory notes . The insulating property of air breaks down
when the electric field 3x10
6
V/m. The corresponding energy density is
=
1
2
1
2
9 10 3 10 40
2 12 6 2 3
o
E x x x x J m = =
( ) / . Ans.c
153. Since the charges are of opposite sign no null point will be got between the charges. So R is
not a null point. Since the field will have to be equal in magnitude, the point will have to be
nearer to the smaller charge. Hence a possible null point is P. Ans.a
154. The potential at any point is produced by positive and negative charges. Hence it may cancel
at a point between them, or at a point nearer to the smaller charge. Since potential is a scalar,
we need not look for the direction. Hence the two points P and R could have zero potential.
Note in these questions we find only location of points and
not the distance. Ans.d
155. The solution to this question is similar to the one given in
indirect theory notes for resistors. Here one repeating unit
is a series and a parallel capacitor. Break the circuit after
one unit and replace it with X, as shown in adjacent figure.
We get 2+X and 2 in series which is equal to
2(2+X)/2+2+X. Thus we have 2(2+X)/2+2+X = X.
Solving we get X= 1.2 F. Ans.d
156. At centre of one ring, say P, the potential V due to the charge on it is V = q/4
o
R. At the
same point the elements of the other ring are at a distance 2R. Therefore the potential at P
due to the other ring is q/(4
o
2R) = V/2. Total potential is equal to V+V/2 =
(2+1)V/2. Ans.d.
157. Use the information supplied in theory
notes. Each condenser should have a
capacitance 4 F. When one of them is
removed the other three are in series.
They will have a capacitance 4/3 F.
This in parallel with 4 F will give a net
capacitance 16/3 F. Ans.c
158. Connect 4 condensers in series. It will
have a capacity of 1/4 F. Connect such three groups in parallel. Total capacity will be
3x(1/4) = 3/4 F. This is shown in the figure below.
159. Connect six of them in series. The effective capacitance will be 1/6 F. Make two such
groups and connect both groups in parallel. This will give 2x1/6= 1/3 F

ELECTRICITY
SECTION 1
QUESTIONS
1. The current through 60 ohm resistor in A is (Fig)
a) 0.025 b) 1/30 c) 2/30 d) 1
2. The current through 60 ohm resistor in the following network in A is (Fig)
a) 0.08 b) 0.06 c) 0.04 d) 0.02
3. A uniform wire of resistance 4 ohm is bent into a square loop. The resistance between the
midpoints of its opposite sides would be
a) 4 b) 2 c) 1 d) 0.5
4. It is required to get largest amount of heat energy from a resistance wire of length 0.5 m
connected with a battery of negligible resistance. This can be done
a) by joining the wire directly to battery
b) by cutting the wires in two equal parts and then joining all of them in parallel to the
battery
c) by cutting the wire in two four equal pieces and then connecting all of them in parallel to
the battery
d) by joining only half the wire
5. A silver voltameter and a zinc voltameter are connected in series and current i is passed for a
time t liberating w kg of zinc. The mass of the silver deposited is nearly
a) W b) 3.5 W c) 2.4 W d) 1.7 W
5
Fig. 3
40 60
30
30
70
50
6V
120 60
60 1 20
6 V

112
6. An electric immersion heater of 1.08 kW is immersed in water. After the water has reached a
temperature of 100
0
C, how much time will be required to produce 100 g of steam ?
a) 50 s b) 420 s c) 105 s d) 210 s
7. Two resistors in parallel have their resistances in the ratio 1:3. A source is connected to the
combination. The ratio of heats produced in a given time in the two resistors is
a) 3:1 b) 9:1 c) 1:3 d) 1:9
8. The terminals of battery of emf 12 V and internal resistance 1 are connected to a circular
coil of resistance 16 at two points distant a quarter of the circumference of the coil. The
current flowing through the smaller arc of the circle in A is
a) 3.0 b) 2.25 c) 0.75 d) 0.5
9. A uniform wire of length 5 cm is carrying a steady current. The electric field inside it is 0.2
V/m. The potential difference across the ends of the wire is
a) 0.1 V b) 0.5 V c) 5 V d) 10
-2
V
10. Two wires A and B are in series. When heated, the combination has same resistance at all
temperatures. A is of germanium. Then B should be of
a) carbon b) aluminium
c) silicon d) alloy of carbon and silicon
11. A cell of emf X is connected across a resistor R. The potential difference across the wire is
measured as Y. The internal resistance of the cell should be
a) X-Y/(R-X) b) (X-Y)R c) (X-Y)R/X d) (X-Y)R/Y
12. A battery of 2 volt emf and internal resistance 1 ohm sends a current of 1 A through an
external load. If two such batteries are connected in series, the current through the same load
would be
a) 1A b) 2 A c) 1.5 A d) 1.33 A
13. A rectangular loop carrying a current i is situated near a long
straight wire such that the wire is parallel to one of the sides of
the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current i is
established in the wire as shown in the fig. 1, the loop will
a) rotate about an axis parallel to the wire
b) move away from the wire
c) move towards the wire
d) remain stationary
14. A wire of given length is first bent in one loop and the next it
is bent in three loops. If the same current is passed in both the
cases, the ratio of magnetic induction at their centres will be
a) 1:4 b) 1:9 c) 9:1 d) 1:3
15. A circular loop of mass m and radius r is in a horizontal (x-y plane) table as shown in fig 2. A
uniform magnetic field B is applied parallel tro x-axis. The
current in the loop, so that its one edge just lifts from the table
is
a) mg/r
2
B b) mg/rB
c) mg/2rB d) rB/mg
16. The magnetic field at the centre of the cube of edge of length
a carrying a current i is
a) zero b) (8oi)/(2 a)
c) (8oi)/22 a) d) (2oi)/22 a)

113
17. An electron enters along east in a region in magnetic equator. It will be deflected
a) vertically up
b) horizontally along east
c) horizontally along west
d) vertically down
18. A current of i ampere is flowing through a loop of a circle
of radius r metre which subtends an angle as shown.
The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is
a) oi/4r b) oi sin/r
2

c) oi sin/2r d) oi/4r
19. If a graph is plotted between magnetic field due to a long
straight conductor and distance, the graph will be
a) straight line with positive slope
b) straight line with negative slope
c) parabola
d) rectangular hyperbola
20. A conducting circular loop of radius r carries a constant current i. It is placed in a uniform
magnetic field Bo such that Bo is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The magnetic force
acting on the loop is
a) irBo b) 2riBo c) zero d) riBo
21. A proton and electron of equal momentum enter into a uniform field at right angles to the
velocity. The radius of their tracks will be in the ratio
a) 1:1840 b) 1840:1 c) 1:43 d) 1:1
22. A charged particle is undergoing a circular motion in a uniform magentic field. The time
period is independent of
a) speed b) mass
c) charge d) intensity of magnetic field
23. A one MeV energy alpha particle describes a circle of radius x in a uniform magnetic field. A
proton of the same energy will describe in the same field a circle of radius
a) x b) x/2 c) 2x d) 1.4 x
24. A circular coil of wire having 100 turns and radius 1m is arranged in plane perpendicular to
the magnetic meridian. A current of 1 A is passed through
the coil. A horizontal magnetic needle at the centre will
show a deflection
a) tan
-1
(1.57) b) tan
-1
(3.14) c) 0
d) tan
-1
(0.85)
25. In the Lorentz force equation F = qv x B,. which of the
following is correct ?
a) v and B are always perpendicular
b) v and F are always perpendicular
c) v and B cannot be parallel
d) F and B be parallel
26. A long straight conduct or is bent into the shape as shown in Fig.6 It carries a current i A and
the radius of the circular loop is a m, The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is
a) 0 b) o i/2 a
c) o i(+1)2 a d) o i(-1)/2 a

114
27. A thin wire is bent to the form of a square loop
ABCD.(fig.7) A battery is connected between A and C
as shown in fig. the magnetic induction due to the
current in the loop at the centre O
a) points into the plane of the paper
b) points along OP, the bisector of angle BOC
c) zero
d) points out of the plane of the paper
28. The magnetic field produced by any side at the centre
of the square loop in the adjacent figure 8 is of
magnitude B. The magnetic field at the centre due to the whole loop is
a) 0 b) 4B
c) 2B d) B
29. The magnetic induction at a point P distant 4 cm from a
long current carrying wire is X tesla. The induction at a
distance 12 cm from the same wire would be (in tesla)
a) X b) X/3
c) 9X d) X/9
30. A circular loop carrying a current of i A is bent into a
circular coil of 4 turns.The new magnetic moment of
the coil will be
a) 4 times the original b) 2 times the original
c) 1/4 of the original d) half of the original
31. Two particles X and Y having equal charges, after being accelerated through the same
potential difference, enter a region of uniform magnetic field and describe circular paths of
radii R
1
and R
2
respectively. The ratio of mass of X that of Y is
a) (R
1
/R
2
)
1/2
b) (R
2
/R
1
) c) (R
1
/R
2
) d) (R
1
/ R
2
)
2
32. Am
2
has the same dimension of
a) IT b) NT c) JT
-1
d) NT
-1

33. The torque acting in a magnetic needle when it make 30
0
with a uniform field is x. The
torque acting when it is perpendicular to the field is
a) x b) 3x c) 2x d) (3/2) x
34. A thin uniform magnetic needle of period T is broken into n parts of equal length. The period
of one part will be
a) nT b) T/n c) n
2
T d) T/n
2

35. Magnetic shielding to an instrument can be provided by covering with
a) soft iron b) plastic c) copper d) aluminium
36. Isogonic lines are those which join places of
a) zero dip b) zero declination
c) equal dip d) equal declination
37. If a dip needle stands horizontal at a place, the place is
a) magnetic meridian b) perpendicular to magnetic meridian
c) magnetic pole d) magnetic equator
38. Two magnets placed one over the other oscillate with a period of 16 s. When one of them is
reversed, the period is 8 s. The ratio of their magnetic moments is
a) 3;1 b) 1:3 c) 5:3 d) 3:5

115
39. The susceptibility of a substance is negative. This substance could be
a) bismuth b) iron c) nickel d) aluminium
40. Two magnets of same pole strength p but of lengths 3L and 4L respectively are arranged to
form a right angle so that the north pole of one touches the south pole of the other. The
moment of the combination is
a) pL b) 7 pL c) 5 pL d) 6 pL
41. The correct dip at a place is . If the dip is measured in a plane making and angle with the
magnetic meridian as
1
, then
1
will be
a) tan
-1
(tan cos) b) tan
-1
(tan sec )
c) tan
-1
(tan sin) d) tan
-1
(tan cosec )
42. The total intensity of earths magnetic field at the magnetic equator is 0.4 cgs units. At a
place where the dip needle reads 90
0
, the vertical intensity will be (in cgs units)
a) 0.1 b) 0.2 c) 0,.4 d) 0
43. Which of the following substance has magnetism independent of temperature?
a) copper b) aluminium c) iron d) manganese
44. Which of the following material shows the property of hysterisis ?
a) copper b) cobalt c) aluminium d) silver
45. Which of the following is most suitable for making the beam of a chemical balance ?
a) brass b) iron c) aluminium d) nickel
46. The field due to a short magnet on the axis at distance x is n times the field due to the magnet
at a distance 2x. Here n is
a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16
47. Soft iron is used for electromagnets because of
a) high limit of magnetic saturation
b) large area for hysterisis curve
c) large coercivity
d) large retentivity
48. Which of the following is a paramagnetic substance ?
a) bismuth b) antimony c) water d) chromium
49. A steel wire of length L has a magnetic moment M. It is bent into a semi circular arc. The
new magnetic moment is
a) M/ 2 b) ML/2 c) M/L d) 2 M/
50. A magnet of moment m is kept in stable equilibrium in a uniform magnetic field of intensity
B. If it is rotated through an angle of 180
0
, the work done is
a) mB b) 2mB c) mB/2 d) zero
51. A line joining all places on the earth having zero magnetic dip is
a) magnetic line of force b) magnetic equator
c) magnetic meridian d) isoclinic line
52. A magnet falls vertically through a horizontal copper ring. Its acceleration will be
a) always less than g
b) always greater than g
c) always equal to g
d) less than g when approaches and greater than g when recedes
53. The phase difference between the flux linkage and gthe induced e.m.f in a rotating coil in a
uniform magnetic field is

116
a) b) /2 c) /4 d) zero
54. The induced emf in a coil of wire produced by motion of a magnet will not depend on
a) number of turns in the coil b) area of the coil
c) resistance of the coil d) speed of the magnet
55. The energy stored in an inductor is in the form of
a) electric b) mechanical
c) thermal d) magnetic
56. An aeroplane with wing span of 50 m flies at 540 km/h horizontally along north south. The
vertical component of earths magnetic field is 0.2 gauss. The induced emf across the wing
tips is
a) 0.15 b) 15 V
c) 1500 V d) 150 V
57. A square loop PQRS of resistance 1 and side 10 cm is moved perpendicular to a uniform
magnetic field of 1 T. The ends
of the loop are connected to a net
work of resistors as shown in fig.
The speed of the loop so that a
current of 1 mA flows through it
is (in m/s)
a) 10
-2
b) 2 x 10
-2

c) 20 d) 10
58. A circuit has a coil of self
inductance 20 mH and a
resistance of 3 . The induced emf in the circuit when current changes at a rate 5 A/s is (in
volt)
a) 0.1 b) 0.1/3 c) 0.3 d) 0.2
59. Lenzs law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
a) charge b) momentum c) mass d) energy
60. An electron moves along the line AB which lies in the same
plane as the circular loop of conducting wire as a shown in
the fig.2 What will be the direction of the current induced if
any in the loop?
a) no current will be induced
b) the current will be clockwise
c) the current will be anti-clockwise
d) there will be an emf but no current
61. In what way should be conductor AB be moved in a
magnetic field such that the current flows as shown in fig. 3.
a) vertically up ward
b) towards left
c) towards right
d) vertically downward
62. J A
-2
is the unit of
a) permeability b) permittvity
c) self indction d) energy density
63. A fan leaf of length L rotates in a uniform magnetic field of

117
intensity B, with a constant angular velocity . The induced emf between the centre and end
of the leaf will be
a) B1
2
b) 2 B1
2
c) (1/2)B1
2
d) B 1
64. A coil has a self inductance L. If the length and breadth of the coil are doubled keeping
number of turns per unit length constant the self inductance will
a) remain same b) become 2 times c) become 4 times d) become 8 times
65. The coefficient of mutual induction between the two coils will not depend on
a) number of turns of the secondary
b) distance between primary and
secondary
c) cross sectional area of the primary
d) the rate of change of current in the
primary
66. The equivalent inductance between
points P and Q in fig.4 is
a) 2H b) 6H
c) 8/3H d) 4/9H
67. Two coils have self inductances L
1
= 8 mH and L
2
= 2mH. The current in the two coils are
increased at the same constant rate. At a certain instant the power given to the two coils are
same. At that instant if currents in the coils are I
1
and I
2
respectively, then I
1
/I
2
=
a) 4/1 b) 1/4 c) 2/1 d) 1
68. A conducting square loop of side L and resistance R moves in its plane with a uniform
velocity v perpendicular to one of its sides. A magnetic induction B constant in time and
space pointing perpendicular to and into the plane of the loop exits everywhere. The current
induced in the loop is
a) BLv/R clockwise b) BLv/R anti-clockwise
c) BLv/R clockwise d) 2BLv/R anti-clockwise
69. Which of the following has the dimension of time ?
a) LR b) L/R c) R/L d) 1/CR
70. Which of the following is not correct ?
a) ohm = henry per second b) farad x henry = second
2

c) farad = joule/volt d) ohm x farad = second
71. The flux through a closed circuit of resistance 10 varies with time according to the equation
= 12t
2
+ 4t + 1. The induce current in the circuit 1/4 second after start will be (in ampere)
a) 10 b) 2.75 c) 0.275 d) 1
72. The emf in an AC circuit is represented by the equation e = 5 sin t and current by i
= 2 cos t. The average power consumed in the circuit is (in W)
a) 10 b) 102 c) 0 d) 52
73. An alternating voltage of rms value V is applied to a circuit containing a resistor, inductor,
and a capacitor. Four voltmeters are connected across resistor, inductor, apacitor and supply.
If their readings are V
1
, V
2
, V
3
and V respectively, then
a) V
1
+ V
2
+ V
3
= V b) V
1
2
+ V
2
2
+ V
3
2
= V
2

c) V
1
2
+ (V
2
V
3
)
2
= V
2
d) (V
1
V
2
)
2
+ V
3
2
= V
2

74. If V
1
, V
2
, V
3
are instantaneous voltage across the components and V = Vo sint supply
voltage
a) V
1
+ V
2
+ V
3
= V

118
b) V
1
2
+ V
2
2
+ V
3
2
= V
2

c) V
1
2
+ (V
2
V
3
)
2
= V
2

d) (V
1
V
2
)
2
+ V
3
2
= V
2

75. In figure2 a 6 volt battery is connected to a Neon lamp which needs 10 volts to glow. An
inductor L is connected in parallel. When the key K is switched on which of the following
happens ?
a) bulb glows immediately but dimly
b) bulb first does not glow but glows dim
later
c) bulb never glow
d) bulb glows bright
76. When the current is switched off in the
above circuit in previous
a) bulb goes off immediately
b) bulb goes off slowly
c) bulb keeps on glowing
d) bulb turns brighter and goes off
77. An A.C voltage of rms value 200 V is applied to a circuit containing a resistor of 60 ,
inductor of reactance 180 and a capacitor of reactance 100 . The rms value of current in
the circuit is (in A)
a) 2 b) 2.8 c) 10/7 d) 10/19
78. The phase difference between current and voltage in the above circuit given in previous
question is
a) tan
-1
(3/4) b) tan
-1
(4/3) c) tan
-1
(5/3) d) tan
-1
((3/5)
79. The power factor of circuit given in previous question is
a) 0.44 b) 0.8 c) 0.6 d) 1
80. The average power consumed by the circuit in watt is
a) 400 b) 200 c) 282 d) 240
81. An electro magnetic wave can be produced by
a) positive and negative charge
b) steady current in a wire
c) varying electric current
d) a strong magnet
82. An alternating voltage 230 V, 50 Hz is applied to a circuit containing an inductance,
resistance and a capacitance. At any moment for rms voltages,
a) the total voltage across each when added will be equal to 230 V
b) the voltage across each will be 230 V
c) the voltage when added across the three should be less than 230 V
d) the voltage across the inductance can be greater than 230 V
83. We have a source of red light and a blue light of same power. Then the red light gives
photons per second
a) same in number, but of less energy
b) more in number, but of less energy
c) less in number and of less energy
d) more in number and of more energy
84. The instantaneous values of current and voltage in an A.C circuit are I = 4 sin t and E = 100
cos[t + (/3)] respectively. The phase difference between voltage and current is

119
a) 7/6 b) 5/6 c) 2/3 d) /3
85. An A.C given by e(t) = 282 sin (120 t) is applied across a resistance of 20 . An A.C
ammeter connected in series records a current of
a) 14.1 A b) 7.05 A c) 10 A d) 5 A
86. Two coils of inductance L
1
, L
2
are connected in series. The value of inductance is equal to L
1

+ L
2
if
a) distance between them is large b) distance between them is small
c) they are would one over the other d) same always
87. Which of the following is least scattered by a medium
a) X-rays b) visible light c) infra red d) radiowaves
88. Take wave length of blue light roughly as 440 nm and that of red light as 660 nm. The ratio
of intensity of red light scattered to that of blue light by earths atmosphere is nearly equal to
a) 2/3 b) 3/2 c) 4/9 d) 1/5
89. Assuming the radius of earth to be 6400 km, the maximum distance to which a TV signal can
be received on earth using an antenna of height 500 m is equal to
a) 80 km b) 80 x 2 km c) 40 x 2 km d) 160 km
90. If we plot a graph between the reactance of a capacitor and frequency of A.C passing through
it , the graph will be
a) a straight line having a positive slope
b) a straight line having a negative slope
c) a parabola
d) a rectangular hyperbola
91. Two point charges +q and q are held fixed at (-d,0) and (d,0) respectively, of (X,Y)
coordinate system. Then
a) E at all points on the Y-axis is along i

b) the electric field E
G
at all points on the X-axis, has the same direction.
c) dipole moment is 2 pd directed along i

d) work has to be done in bringing a test charge from infinity to the origin.
92. A battery is connected between two points
A and B on the circumference of a
uniform conducting ring of radius r and
resistance R. One of the arcs AB of the
ring subtends an angle at the centre.
The value of the magnetic induction at the
centre due to the current in the ring is
(fig)
a) proportional to 2 (180
0
-)
b) inversely proportional to r
3

c) zero only if = 180
0

d) zero for all values of
93. The wire loop PQRSP formed by joining two semicircular wire of radii R
1
and R
2
carries a
current i as shown in the fig. 3. The magnetic field B at the point C is
a)
(
2 1
0
R
1
R
1
2
I


120
b)
(
2 1
0
R
1
R
1
4
I

c)
(
2 1
0
R
1
R
1
4
I

d)
(
2 1
0
R
1
R
1
2
I

94. A proton of mass 1.67 x 10
-27
kg
and charge 1.6 x 10
-19
C is projected with a speed of 2x10
6
m/s at an angle of 60
0
to the X-
axis . If a uniform magnetic field of 0.104
Tesla is applied along the Y-axis, the path of
the proton is
a) a circle of time eperiod x 10
-7
s
b) a circle of time period 2 x 10
-7
s
c) a helix of time period 2 x 10
-7
s
d) a helix of time period 4 x 10
-7
s
95. H
+
, He
+
and O
2+
all having the same kinetic
energy pass through a region in which there is a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to their
velocity. The mass of H
+
. He
+
and O
2+
are 1 amu, 4 amu and 16 amu respectively. Then
a) H
+
will be deflected most b) O
2+
will be deflected most
c) He
+
and O
2+
will be deflected equally d) all will be deflected equally
96. A microammeter has a resistance of 100 and a full scale range of 50 A. It can be used as
a voltmeter or as a higher range ammeter provided a resistance is added to it. Pick the correct
range and resistance combination(s)
a) 50 V range with 10 k resistance in series
b) 10 V range with 200 k resistance in series
c) 5 mA range 1 resistance in parallel
d) 10 mA range with 1 resistance in parallel
97. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The
resistance of
a) each of them increases
b) each of them decreases
c) copper increases and germanium decreases
d) copper decreases and germanium increases
98. A battery of internal resistance 4 is connected to the network of resistance as shown. In
order to give the maximum power to the network, the value of R in should be
a) 4/9 b) 8/9
c) 2 d) 18
99. The current through a wire changes with time as given by the equation i = t . the correct
value of the rms current within the time interval t = 2 to t = 4 s will be
a) A 2 3 ) d A 3 3 ) c A 3 ) b A 3
100. Two heater wires of equal resistance are first connected in series and then in parallel, to the
same source. The ratio of heat produced in them are in that order
a) 2:1 b) 1:2 c) 4:1 d) 1:4

121
101. The electric flux through a hemispherical surface of radius R placed in a uniform electric field
of intensity E parallel to the axis of its circular plane is
a) 2RE
2
b) 2R
2
E c) R
2
E d) 4/3R
3
E
102. To get maximum current in a resistance of 3, one uses n rows of m cells each, connected in
parallel. If the total number of cells is 24 and internal resistance of a cell 0.5 , then
a) m = 12 n = 2 b) m = 8, n = 3
c) m = 2 n = 12 d) m = 6, n = 4
103. A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at rest in a uniform electric field E and released
along the y-axis. The kinetic energy it attains after moving a distance y is
a) 1/2 qEy b) qE
2
y c) qEy d) 1/2 m(qEy)
104. An electric dipole in a uniform field is slightly disturbed from equilibrium position. Its period
of oscillation is
p / IE 2 ) d IE / p 2 ) c I / pE 2 ) b pE / I 2 ) a
105. A house is served by a 220 V supply line. In a circuit protected by a fuse marked 9 A, the
maximum number of 60 W lamps in parallel which can be turned on at the same time is
a) 44 b) 20 c) 22 d) 33
106. The unit of thermo electric power is
a) W b) VK
-1
c) V d) Vs
-1

107. A uniform wire of resistance 2 and length 4 m is melted and reformed into a uniform wire
of length 2m. Its resistance now will be (in )
a) 2 b) 0.5 c) 4 d) 0.25
108. A particle carrying a charge of 1 C enters into a uniform magnetic field 3 j with a velocity
2j+k. The force on the particle has magnitude in N and direction respectively
a) 7, +x axis b) 7, -x axis c) 3, + x axisi d) 3, -x axis
109. ML
2
T
-3
I
-2
is the dimension of
a) potential difference b) electric field
c) permitivity d) resistance
110. Which of the following is correct ?
a) Resistivity = electric field/current density
b) Resistivity = current density/electric field
c) Resistivity = 1/current density
d) Resistivity = current density/potential
111. Four bulbs connected in series consume a total power of P watt. One of the bulbs is fused
and the other three are connected in series to the same source. The total power consumed (in
W) is
a) P b) 3P/4 c) 8P/3 d) 4P/3
112. The best combination of properties of a metal to make a standard resistor are
a) high resistivity and low temperature coefficient
b) high temperature coefficient and high linear expansivity.
c) low linear expansivity and high temperature coefficient
d) low temperature coefficient and high melting point .
113. Two wires A and B of same material have same mass but radii in the ratio 1:2. Their
resistance ratio R
A
/R
B
will be
a) 1:4 b) 1:8 c) 1:16 d) 16:1
114. A primary and a secondary cell have same emf. Then

122
a) both give same current b) primary gives more current
c) secondary gives more current d) cannot be said from the data
115. You are supplied with two resistors. Using them it is possible to get resistance value 9,27,6
and 18 ohms. The resistance of resistors are
a) 9 and 18 b) 27 and 18 c) 6 and 18 d) 27 and 6
116. Four cells each of same emf and same internal resistance are connected in series. The
combination gives a current i. If one of the cells is reversed the current decreases by
a) 25% b) 50% c) %
3
1
33 ) d %
3
2
66
117. An ammeter of resistance G reads 1 ampere per division. It is to be converted into an
ammeter reading n amperes per division. The resistance to be connected in parallel is
a) nG b) G/(n-1) c) G/n d) (n-1)G
118. *Two resistors having resistances R
1
and R
2
at 0
o
C and temperature coefficient
1
and
2

respectively are joined in series. Check the correct statement(s):
a) This combination will have same resistance at all temperatures if R
1
2
= R
2
1
b) This combination will have same resistance at all temperatures if R
1
1
= R
2
2

c) Both resistors should be made of metals
d) One resistor should be made of metal and the other of semi
conductor.
Solve the following problems within a maximum time of 2 minutes
119. What is the reading of the ammeter (A) in figure1?
120. What is a current through 2 ohm resistor in the network shown in fig 2
Fig.1 Fig.2 Fig.3
121. What is the reading of the ammeter A in the fig 3?

Fig.4 Fig.5


123
122. What is the reading of ammeter A in the figure 4?
123. A uniform circular loop has a resistance of 2 ohm. A straight
conductor of resistance 1 ohm is connected diametrically in
this conductor across AB, as shown in figure 5. What is the
number of electrons flowing through the section AB (straight)
per second ?
124. A battery of emf E and internal resistance 1 ohm is connected
as driving cell in a potentiometer. The balancing length of a
Daniel cell is found to be L m. If another battery of same emf
and internal resistance 2 ohm is connected as driving cell, the
balancing length of the same Daniel cell will be
a) more than L b) less than L
c) equal to L d) cannot be said
from the data.
125. Four wires of same material, labelled as P, Q, R, S, lengths in the ratio 1: 2 : 3: 2 and radii
also in the same ratio are available. Which of them would be
most suitable for making a fuse wire?
a) P b) Q
c) R d) S
126. *Which of the following statements are correct?
a) the terminal voltage of a cell will always be less
than its emf
b) the terminal voltage of a cell can exceed its emf under certain conditions
c) the terminal voltage of a cell can be less than or greater than its emf
d) the terminal voltage of a cell will always be greater than its
emf
127. In the adjacent figure two cells of emf E
1
and E
2
are connected as shown with a resistor 9
ohm. The terminal voltage across E
1
is (in volt)
a) 7.66 b) 8.33 c) 8 d) 0
128. In the same fig. terminal voltage across E
2
is (in V)
a) 12 b) 12.66
c) 11.34 d) 8
129. In the same figure the potential difference across the points P
and Q is ( in volt)
a) 11.33 b) 11
c) 8.33 d) 3 .
130. In the adjacent figure, the heat developed per second across
the 3 ohm resistor is H. The heat developed across 1 ohm
resistor per second is
a) H/3
b) 2H/11
c) 11H/2
d) 3H
131. In the adjacent figure the lamp of resistance 4 ohm shines with maximum brightness. The
internal resistance of the cell is (in ohm)
a) 4
b) 2

124
c) 8
d )nearly zero
132. The equivalent resistance between the points A and B in the figure below is (in ohm)
a) 1 b) 3/4
c) 4/3 d) 10
133. A heater has three coils in parallel having resistances 100, 100 and 200 ohm with the option
of using any one or all of them. When 200 ohm coil alone is used, the heat required to boil
certain mass of water is 5 minutes. When all the three coils are used, the heat required to boil
the same amount of water will be ( in minutes)
a) 25 b) 1
c) 5/4 d) 10/3
134. Charge flows at a steady rate through a conductor of non-uniform cross sectional area.
Which of the following remains constant?
a) drift speed of electrons b) current density
c) current d) all the three
135. *The resistivity of a wire depends on
a) its length b) its cross sectional area
c) its material d) temperature
136. An electric bulb rated as 500 W at 100 V is to be used in a circuit of supply voltage 150 V.
Then for the bulb to deliver 500 W, a resistance R
a) equal to 20 ohm is to be connected in series
b) equal to 20 ohm is to be connected in parallel
c) equal to 20/3 ohm is to be connected in series
d) equal to 10 ohm is to be connected in series
137. A wire is uniformly stretched to two times its length. The
conductance of the wire
a) remains the same b) becomes 1/2
c) becomes 1/4 d) becomes 4 times
138. Three cells each of emf E are connected in series to an external
resistor of value 10 ohm. The current through the external
resistor is i . When the same cells are connected in parallel to
the same resistor, the current is still i. The internal resistance
of each cell (in ohm) is
a) 30 b) 10/3 c) 10 d) 3
139. A conductor has n electrons per unit volume. It has current density j. If specific charge of
electron is K, then the total momentum of n electrons is equal to
a) jK b) K/j c) j/K d) j
2
K
140. Two electrons of speeds v and 2v enter into a uniform transverse magnetic field. The ratio of
their frequencies of circular motion will be
a) 1:1 b) 1:2 c) 2:1 d) 1:4
141. A charged particle of mass m moving with a velocity is subjected to a magnetic field of
. j
1000 field electric an and i
20 If this particle continues with the same velocity in the same

direction, its momentum is ( all units in SI)
a) 100m b) 50m c) 200m d) (1/50)m
142. A cyclotron cannot be used to accelerate
a) particles b) protons c) electrons d) deuterons

125
143. A circular loop is placed so that its plane is parallel to a uniform magnetic field. In this
magnetic field, it experiences
a) a torque b) a force
c) both a torque and a force d) neither a torque nor a force
144. A circular loop carrying current is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. It
experiences
a) a torque b) a force
c) both a torque and a force d) neither a torque or a force
145. Two circular loops are made from wires of lengths in the ratio 1:2 . If they carry same
currents, the ratio of their magnetic moments is
a) 1:2 b) 2:1 c) 1:4 d) 4:1
146. In a uniform transverse magnetic field, a charged particle in motion has
a) constant momentum and kinetic energy
b) varying momentum but constant kinetic energy
c) constant momentum but varying kinetic energy
d) varying momentum and varying kinetic energy
147. The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of a current carrying circular coil of radius R to the
field at a distance R from the centre along its axis is
a) 1:8 b) 1:4 c) 1:22 d) 8:1
148. An electron describes a circular orbit of radius r, with a speed v. The magnetic field produced
at the site of nucleus is
0 ) e
r 2
ev
) d
r 2
v e
) c
r 2
ev
) b
r 4
ev
) a
2
o
2
o o
2
o

149. The final energy of a charged particle coming out of a cyclotron is independent of
a) mass of the particle b) charge of the particle
c) the magnetic field d) speed of the particle
150. A proton and a deuteron of same kinetic energy enter into a uniform magnetic field. The ratio
of radius of the track of deuteron to that of proton

will be

a) 1:1 b) 2:1 c) 1:2 d) 2:1
151. An electron enters into a uniform magnetic field with equal components of velocity parallel
and perpendicular to the field . The path of electron will be
a) a circle b) an ellipse
c) a helix d) a straight line making an angle 45
o
with field
152. In a hollow copper pipe carrying DC, the magnetic field produced will be
a) only outside b) only inside
c) both inside and outside d) neither inside nor outside
153. A charged particle accelerated by a potential V enters into a uniform magnetic field. The
radius of its path will be proportional to
a) V b) 1/V c) V
2
d) V
154. Two long parallel straight conductors at a distance a carry equal currents i. If the force
between them is F, which of the following graphs will be a parabola?
a) between F and i b) between F and i
2

c) between F and a d) between F and 1/a
155. A beam of electrons move from north to south. A straight conductor is held horizontally with
current flowing from north to south below the electron beam. The electron beam will
a) be pulled down b) remain unaffected

126
c) be pulled up d) be pulled horizontally
156. Three identical conductors AB, BC, CA are joined to
form the sides of an equilateral triangle and carry
same current as shown in the adjacent figure. The
magnetic field due to each conductor at the centroid
of the triangle of side ais X. The total magnetic
field at the centroid due to all the conductors will be
a) 3X towards the reader
b) 3X into the paper
c) be zero
d) 3X cos 60
o
towards the reader
157. A helium nucleus makes a full rotation in a circle of radius 0.8 m in 2 s. The value of
magnetic induction at the centre of the circle (in T) is
a) 10
-19
/
o
b) 10
-19
o
c) 2 x 10
-19
/
o
d) 2 x 10
-10

o

158. A steel needle of length L has a magnetic moment M. The needle is bent at the mid point so
that two parts are at right angles. The magnetic moment now will be
a) M b) M/2
c) 2M d) M/2
159. A uniform circular loop has a resistance of 4 ohm. It is connected to a battery as shown in fig.
The ratio of resistance of smaller and larger arc is 1:3.
When current is passed as shown, the magnetic field at the
centre due to the longer arc ABC to the smaller arc AC
a) will be in the ratio 1:3 in the same direction
b) will be in the ratio 3:1 in the same direction
c) will be in the ratio 1:3 in the opposite direction
d) will be zero
160. A tangent galvanometer has a deflection of 45
o
, for a
given current i when the coil is in magnetic meridian. If
the coil is inclined at an angle 10
o
with the meridian, the deflection for the same current will
be
a) more than 45
o
b) less than 45
o

c) 45
o
161. The period of oscillation of a magnet in a uniform field is T. If two such identical magnets
are placed one over the other so that the like poles point in the same direction, the period in
the same field will be
a) T/2 b) T c) 2T d) T/2
162. The magnetic field at a point (P) distant r from one end of a long straight conductor carrying
a current is

r
i
) d
r 4
i
) c
r 8
i
) b
r 2
i
) a
o o
o o

163. *Check which of the following statements are correct
regarding diamagnetism:
a) Diamagnetism is present in all the substances
b) Diamagnetism can be explained from Lenzs law.

127
c) Diamagnetic effect increases with temperature
d) Diamagnetic effect of an atom depends on the radius of electron orbits
164. Two long straight conductors P and Q carry currents i and 2i respectively in the same
direction. A third conductor carrying a current i is kept midway between P and Q. Then R
a) will remain in equilibrium
b) will move towards P
c) will move towards Q
d) will oscillate between P and Q
165. Which of the following is out of place here with respect to
conservation of energy principle ?
a) Lenzs law b) Kirchoffs loop theorem
c) Recoil of a gun d) Bernoullis theorem
166. A war plane is flying in the region of magnetic equator. In
which of the following cases will there be no induced emf on the wings of the plane?
a) when flying vertically b) when flying horizontally
c) when climbing up at an angle d) when coming down at an angle
167. A constant current is flowing through a straight conductor from left to right due to a source of
emf. When the source is switched off
a) an induced current will flow from left to right
b) an induced current will flow from right to left
c) no induced current will flow
168. .The flux linking with a circuit is given by = t
3
+3t-7. The graph between induced emf and
time will be
a) a straight line through origin b) a straight line but not through origin
c) a parabola through origin d) a parabola but not through origin
169. A straight wire is held by an insulating handle and moved across a uniform magnetic field .
Then
a) an emf is induced in the wire
b) a current is induced in the wire
c) a charge is induced in the wire
d) all the three are induced in the wire
170. If the induced emf and the inducing emf are in the same direction, it will violate
a) the law of conservation of momentum
b) the law of conservation of charge
c) the law of conservation of current
d) the law of conservation of energy
171. In order to move a conductor in a non-uniform magnetic field with a velocity 2 m/s, energy is
spent at a rate 20 W. The force acting on the conductor is
a) 10 N b) 5 N c) 20 N d) 40 N
172. An A.C of frequency 50 Hz and rms value 2 A flows through the primary of a transformer.
If mutual inductance between primary and the secondary is 1 H, the maximum induced emf in
the secondary is (in volt)
a) 280 b) 400 c) 560 d) 140
173. Two similar circular coaxial loops carrying equal currents in the same direction approach each
other along their common axis. Then
a) the current in each loop will increase

128
b) the current in each loop will decrease
c) the current in both the loops will remain the same
d) current in one loop will increase and that in the other loop will decrease
174. A current is sent through a vertical spring carrying a weight, from top to bottom. The spring
a) will stretch more b) will remain as such
c) will contract d) will break
175. The self inductance of a coil depends on
a) change of flux through the coil b) rate of change of flux through a coil
c) cross sectional area of the coil d) number of turns in the coil
176. When a DC is passed through an inductor of self inductance L, the energy stored in it is
a) 1/2 Li
2
b) Li
2
c) 2Li
2
d) 0
177. A circuit has a self inductance of 1 H and carries a current of 2A. To prevent sparking when
the circuit is broken, a capacitor which can withstand 400 volts is used. The least capacitance
of the capacitor is
a) 12.5 F b) 50 F c) 25 F d) 100 F
178. The maximum mutual inductance between two coils is 6 H and the difference in their self
inductance is 5 H. Then, the sum of their self inductance is (in H)
a) 11 b) 13 c) 20 d) 22
179. *If L,Q,R represent inductance, charge and resistance respectively then the units of
a) QR/L will be that of current
b) Q
2
R
3
/L
2
will be that of power
c) QL/R will be that of current
d) Q
3
R
2
/L will be that of power
180. A coil of metal wire is stationary in a strong non-uniform magnetic field . Then
a) no e.m.f. is induced in the coil
b) a varying e.m.f. is induced in the coil but no current
c) a constant e.m.f. and a current are induced in the coil
d) a constant e.m.f is induced in the coil, but no current.
181. The e.m.f. across the secondary of a transformer will not depend on
a) voltage across the primary b) spacing of the primary turns
c) core of the primary d) resistance of the secondary
182. Ohm per henry has the dimensions of
a) time b) current
c) angular velocity d) magnetic flux
183. An AC voltage E = 2002 sin (100t) is applied to a 1F capacitor through an AC ammeter.
The reading of the ammeter will be (in mA)
a) 10 b) 20
c) 40 d) 80
184. The phase angle between current and voltage in an AC
circuit is tan
-1
(4/3). The power factor of the circuit is
a) 3/4 b) 3/5
c) 4/5 d) 0
185. A coil and a magnet move along a common axis as
shown in the adjacent figure. In which of the following
cases will there be no induced emf in the coil?
a) When both move with same velocity in same

129
direction as shown in figure
b) When both move with the same velocity in the
opposite direction
c) When the coil moves with a velocity v while
the magnet is at rest
d) When the magnet moves with a velocity v while coil is at rest.
186. An AC represented by the equation e = 282 sin (100t) is applied to the primary of a step up
transformer whose turns are in the ratio 1:2. If an AC voltmeter is connected across the
secondary, the reading of the voltmeter will be
a) 350 V b) 282 V
c) 564 V d) 400 V
187. An AC voltage represented by the equation e = 200 sin(100t) is applied to a circuit which
contains a pure inductor. The time lag between voltage and current in the inductor will be ( in
s)
a) 1/200 b) 1/100 c) 1/50 d) 1/25
188. The equation for energy density of magnetic field is
a) (1/2)
o
B
2
b) B
2
/2
o
c) B
2
/
o
d)
o
B
2

189. A conductor of length L and resistance R kept in a uniform magnetic field B is removed from
the field with a velocity v. The power spent in this process is
a) B
2
L
2
v
2
/R b) BL
2
v
2
/R c)B
2
L
2
v
2
/2R d) BLv/R
190. Three identical coils A,B,C are placed with their planes parallel as shown in the adjacent
figure. The coils A and C carry currents as shown in figure. The coils B and C are fixed
while the coil A moves with uniform velocity towards B. Then
a) no current is induced in B by the two coils.
b) a clockwise current is induced in B.
c) equal currents are induced in B by the two coils which cancels
d) an anti-clockwise current is induced in B
191. *An AC voltage of angular frequency is applied to a
circuit which consists of an inductor of inductance L and
a capacitor of capacitance C in parallel. Then across the
inductance
a) current is maximum when
2
= 1/LC
b) voltage is maximum when
2
= 1/LC
c) current is minimum when
2
= 1/LC
d) voltage is minimum when
2
= 1/LC
192. In an LCR circuit given below an AC voltage
200V, 50 Hz is applied. V
1
, V
2
, V
3
are three volt-
meters connected across the resistor, the inductor
and the capacitor. A is an ammeter. At
resonance the reading of V
2
is 300 V. Then the
reading of V
1
and V
3
are respectively
a) 200 V, 100 V b) 300 V, 100 V
c) 200 V, 0 V d) 200 V, 300 V
193. If the resistance R = 200 ohm in the above circuit, the reading of the ammeter A at resonance
will be equal to (in ampere)
a) 1 b) 1/4 c) 1.4 d) 2.8


130
194. If in the above circuit when not in resonance, the volt meter V
1
reads 40 V, V
2
reads 50 V and
V
3
reads 20 V. The source voltage is
a) 110 V b) 10 V c) 50 V d) 70 V
195. An AC circuit has voltage and current represented respectively by E = 100 sin(100t) V and I =
100 sin (100t+/3) mA . The average power dissipated in the circuit is
a) 0 W b) 5000 W c) 5 W d) 2.5 W
196. A 1.0 F condenser is charged to 50 volts. The charging battery is then disconnected and a
10 mH coil is connected across the capacitor so that it oscillates . What is the maximum
current in the coil ? (Assume that the circuit contains no resistance) :
a) 0.25 A b) 0.50 A c) 0.75 A d) 1.00 A
197. When an AC voltage of rms value 240 V is applied to a circuit having a pure inductor, the
current through the circuit is 3 A. When the same voltage is applied to a circuit having a pure
resistor, the current is 4 A. If the same voltage is applied to a circuit having this resistor and
inductor in series, the current through the circuit will be ( in A)
a) 3.5 b) 7 c) 1 d) 2.4
198. A capacitor, an inductor are connected to an electric bulb with a source of AC. If the
frequency of AC supplied is increased from a small value, then the brightness of the bulb
c) remains the same d) first increases and then decreases
199. If x is the relative permeability and y is the relative permitivity of a medium, the refractive
index of the medium is equal to
a)
y
x
b)
xy
1
c) xy d)
x
y


131
SECTION 2: ANSWERS
1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (b)
6 (d) 7 (a) 8 (b) 9 (d) 10 (b)
11 (d) 12 (d) 13 (c) 14 (b) 15 (b)
16 (a) 17 (d) 18 (a) 19 (d) 20 (c)
21 (d) 22 (a) 23 (a) 24 (c) 25 (b)
26 (d) 27 (c) 28 (b) 29 (b) 30 (c)
31 (d) 32 (c) 33 (c) 34 (b) 35 (a)
36 (d) 37 (d) 38 (c) 39 (a) 40 (c)
41 (b) 42 (c) 43 (a) 44 (b) 45 (a)
46 (c) 47 (d) 48 (d) 49 (d) 50 (b)
51 (b) 52 (a) 53 (b) 54 (c) 55 (d)
56 (a) 57 (b) 58 (a) 59 (d) 60 (a)
61 (d) 62 (c) 63 (c) 64 (d) 65 (d)
66 (a) 67 (b) 68 (b) 69 (b) 70 (c)
71 (d) 72 (c) 73 (c) 74 (a) 75 (b)
76 (d) 77 (a) 78 (b) 79 (c) 80 (d)
81 (c) 82 (d) 83 (b) 84 (b) 85 (c)
86 (a) 87 (d) 88 (d) 89 (a) 90 (d)
91 (a) 92 (d) 93 (c) 94 (c) 95 (a),(c)
96 (b),(c) 97 (d) 98 (c) 99 (a) 100 (d)
101 (b) 102 (a) 103 (c) 104 (a) 105 (d)
106 (b) 107 (b) 108 (d) 109 (d) 110 (a)
111 (d) 112 (d) 113 (d) 114 (c) 115 (a)
116 (b) 117 (b) 118 (b),(d) 119 1A 120 0.3 A
121 6/11A 122 0 123 1.25x10
19
124 (a) 125 (a)
126 (b),(c) 127 (b) 128 (c) 129 (d) 130 (d)
131 (a) 132 (a) 133 (b) 134 (c) 135 (c),(d)
136 (d) 137 (c) 138 (c) 139 (c) 140 (a)
141 (b) 142 (c) 143 (a) 144 (d) 145 (c)
146 (b) 147 (d) 148 (a) 149 (d) 150 (b)
151 (c) 152 (a) 153 (d) 154 (a) 155 (c)
156 (b) 157 (b) 158 (d) 159 (d) 160 (a)

132
161 (b) 162 (c) 163 (a),(b),(d) 164 (c) 165 (c)
166 (b) 167 (a) 168 (d) 169 (a) 170 (d)
171 (a) 172 (b) 173 (b) 174 (c) 175 (c),(d)
176 (d) 177 (c) 178 (b) 179 (a),(b) 180 (a)
181 (d) 182 (c) 183 (b) 184 (b) 185 (a)
186 (d) 187 (a) 188 (b) 189 (a) 190 (d)
191 (b),(c) 192 (d) 193 (a) 194 (c) 195 (d)
196 (b) 197 (d) 198 (d) 199 (c)
SECTION 3
SOLUTIONS
1. Take the current from the battery as 2i. It divides i each through 2 branches. Applying
Krchoffs law to any closed network containing battery, we have 120i + 60i = 6. i = 1/30 A.
Ans.b
2. No current will pass throgh 40 resistor because of the short-circuited path. Add 70 and 50
in series gives 120 . Hence current 6V has to divide between two parallel paths 60 and
120 . Take the current from the battery as 3i for convenience of division. Of this, 2i flows
through 60 and i through 120 . By Kirchoffs law for a closed path (30x3i) + (60x2i)
+ (30x3i) = 6. i = 1/50 A. Current through 60 resistor = 2i = 0.04 A. Ans.c
3. Since the wire is uniform, the two sections between mid points A and B of the sides have
resistance 2 each. They are in parallel. The effective resistance would be 1 . Ans.c
4. When the wire is cut into four equal parts, each part will have a resistance R/4. When these
four are joined in parallel the resistance will be R/16. Heat produced = E
2
/(R/16) = 16 E
2
/R
which is more than E
2
/R and more than any of the other alternatives. Ans.c
5. By Faradays second law of electrolysis, the masses of silver and zinc deposited will be
proportional to the respective equivalent weights. Equivalent weight of silver is 108 and that
of zinc 32. These are nearly in the ratio 3.5:1. Ans.b
6. L is the latent heat of vapourisation of water, the heat required for producing 1 g of steam. L
= 540 cal = 540 x 4.2 J. Energy supplied = 1080 J/s. Time to boil 100 g of water = (540
x 4.2 x 100)/1080 = 210 s. Ans.d
7. Let E be the voltage of the source. The heat produced in the two wires is E
2
/R, E
2
/3R
respectively. The ratio of heat produced is 3:1. Ans.a
8. Here the two parts of the coil having resistance 12 and 4 are in parallel. The effectrive
resistance is 12x4/16 = 3. Current = emf/total resistance = 12/(3+1) = 3 A. When this
current branches into two parts of the coil having resistance 12 and 4 , the current passing
through smaller resistance part of the cloil is = total current x 3/4 = 3x(3/4) = 2.25 A. Ans.b
9. Electric field strength = 0.2 Vm
-1
. Length of the wire = 5 x 10
-2
m. Therefore required
potential difference across the ends of the wire = 0.2 V x 5 x 10
-2
= 10
-2
V. Ans.d
10. If the combination has the same resistance at all temperatures, the rate of increase of one
should be equal to the rate of decrease of the resistance of other. Germanium is a
semiconductor. So its resistance should decrease on heating.. Therefore the other should be
aluminium. Ans.b

133
11. Let B be the internal resistance of the cell. The current through the circuit is X/(R+B). The
potential difference across the resistance = XR/(R+B). This is given as Y. Equating
XR/(R+B) = Y, we get B = (X-Y)R/Y). This can also be answered directly from theory notes
short-cuts. Ans.d
12. Let R be the external load. Current = 2/(1+R) = 1 A. Thus the load = 1 . When two
batteries are in series, emf becomes 4 V and total resistance is 2 (internal) + 1(external) = 3.
Current = 4/3 = 1.33 . Ans.d
13. There will be attractive force between wire and nearer side of the loop, repulsive force
between wire and farther side of the loop. There will be no force between wire and
perpendicular sides. Since attractive force is greater, this side being nearer, net force will be
attractive. Ans.c
14. Magnetic field at the centre = oni/2a. When wire is bent into three loops, field becomes 3
times (B n). Radius becomes 1/3. Due to this field becomes 3 times (B 1/a). Thus field
becomes 9 times. Ans.b
15. In a uniform magnetic field torque due to the field = iAB. When this torque is equal and
opposite to that produced by weight of the loop about edge, the edge will start to lift.
Therefore mgr = iAB = i r
2
B. i = mg/ rB. Ans.b
16. The magnetic field produced by current in the four edges of one face of the loop at centre will
cancel with the magnetic field produced by the currents in the four edges of opposite face.
Thus the net field will be zero. Ans.a
17. Applying Flemings left hand rule with forefinger from south to north (earths field), middle
finger from east to west (opposte to electron motion-current), the thumb will point down.
Ans.d
18. According to Biot-Savart law, magnetic field = o i dl sin 90
0
/4 r
2
. Here dl = length of the
loop = r x . Substituting this value, we get field = oir/4r
2
= oi/4r. Ans.a
19. The magnetic field due to a long straight conductor is given by B = a 2 / I
0
That is field B
is proportional to 1/a. The graph between two inversely proportional quantities will be a
rectangular hyperbola. Ans.d
20. When the magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the loop, area vector is parallel to the
field. (Recall area has direction along the normal to the loop). The force depends on AxB
and will be zero. Ans.c
21. The radius of a charged particle in a uniform field is given by r = mv/qB, where p is
momentum. Here p, q and B are same. Hence radius will also be same. Or you can use
indirect theory notes short-cuts. Ans.d
22. Use theory notes short-cuts. Ans.a
23. The radius of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field is r = mv/qB = mE 2 /qB, where
p is momentum, K kinetic energy. The mass of a particle is 4 times that of proton and its
charge is 2 times that of proton. So the radius will be same as that of proton. Ans.a
24. The magnetic field produced by a circular loop at centre =
0
ni/2a. The field will be along
north-south in the horizontal plane when the coil is perpendicular of magnetic meridian. The
horizontal component of earths magnetic field Bo will be parallel to it. Thus the two field
add. There will be no deflection of magnet in compass box. Ans.c

134
25. v x B is a vector perpendicular to the plane of v and B. Thus F is always perpendicular to v
and B. Any angle is possible between v and B. The angle between v and B decides the
magnitude of the force, not the direction. Ans.b
26. The field due to the straight portion of the conductor at the centre = oi / 2a. The field due
to circular portion of the wire is oi / 2a. These two fields are in the opposite direction.
Hence net field = | | 1
a 2
i
a 2
i
a 2
i
0 0 0

=
(
. Ans.d
27. Magnetic field produced by AB and CD are equal and opposite in direction at the centre.
Similarly magnetic field produced by BC and AD are equal and opposite. Hence net field will
be zero. Ans.c
28. pplying dl x r rule of Biot-Savart law to find the direction of magnetic field due to a straight
conductor, we find the field due to all four conductors at the centre will be pointing into the
paper and hence they add. Ans.b
29. The magnetic induction due to a straight wire is inversely proportional to the distance (B
=
0
i / 2a). When the distance is increased from 4 to 12 cm, magnetic induction decreases
to 1/3 of X. Ans.b
30. The magnetic moment of a current loop = inA = inr
2
. When the loop is bent as 4 turns, the
radius reduces to 1/4. The area becomes 1/16. Area of n loops (n = 4) will be 4 x 1/16 = 1/4
times. Magnetic moment becomes 1/4 of the original. Ans.c
31. The radius of the particles r = mv/qB = p/qB = qB / mE 2 . Here q is same. Since the
accelerating potential is same, energy E is same. Hence r is proportional to m. R
1
/R
2
=
2 1
m / m . m
1
/m
2
= R
1
2
/ R
2
2
. Ans.d
32. Am
2
is the unit of magnetic moment. Similarly joule/tesla is also a unit of magnetic moment.
This can be seen from the equation potential energy = mB cos. m has the unit of energy/B =
JT
-1
Ans.c
33. |Torque | = mB sin . So T
1
/ T
2
= sin 30/sin 90 = 1/2. Here T
1
= T. Therefore T
2
= 2T.
=2x. Ans.c
34. When magnet is cut into n pieces, each piece will have a mass 1/n and length 1/n, so that
moment of inertia ( mass x 1
2
/12) becomes 1/n
3
. Moment of magnet (length x polestrength)
becomes 1/n. Period becomes n x ) n / (
3
1 = (1/n) of T. You can also use theory notes short-
cuts. Ans.b
35. Magnetic shielding is protection from external magnetic field. By using a material such as
soft iron of high permeability, the lines of force of external field can be confined to the cover.
Ans.a
36. Isogonic lines join places of equal declination, while agonic lines join places of zero
declination. Look up indirect theory notes. Ans.d
37. A dip needle stands in the direction of earths resultant magnetic field. At magnetic equator,
earths field has only horizontal component, that is, vertical component is zero. Hence it
stands horizontal. Ans.d
38. Using the formula, m
1
/m
2
= (T
1
2
+ T
2
2
) / (T
1
2
T
2
2
), we get m
1
/m
2
= 5/3. Ans.c
39. The susceptibility of a diamagnetic substance is negative. In the given list the only
diamagnetic substance is bismuth. Ans.a

135
40. Magnetic moment is a vector. The moment of smaller magnet = 3Lp. The moment of larger
magnet 4Lp. Adding them as vectors, the sum=
2 2
) pL 4 ( ) pL 3 ( + = 5pL. Ans.c
41. If V is the vertical component of earths field. H horizontal component, the angle of dip at
the place is given by tan = V/H. If the dip is measured when the instrument makes an angle
with magnetic meridian, it is called apparent dip. Here we have to substitute H cos in the
place of H. If
1
is the apparent dip, tan
1
= V/Hcos = tan sec .
1
= tan
-1
(tan sec )
Ans.b
42. A dip needle reads 90
0
(or stands vertical) at magnetic poles. Here only vertical component of
earths field exists, i.e. horizontal component is zero. Hence the total intensity will also be 0.4
cgs units. You can also answer this question from the table given in indirct theory notes.
Ans.c
43. The magnetism of a diamagnetic substance is independent of temperature. So we look for a
diamagnetic substance, the only one in the list being copper. Ans.a
44. Hysterisis is the property shown by only ferro magnets. The only ferro magnet in the given
list is cobalt. Ans.b
45. If the beam of a chemical balance is made of a magnetic material, earths vertical component
will exert a torque on it and it will deflect losing accuracy. Hence a non-magnetic material
such as brass can be used. Ans.a
46. The field due to a short magnet at a distance on the axial line is given by [o/4] 2m/d
3
. The
field is proportional to 1/d
3
. The ratio of field at distance x and 2x will be 2
3
:1
3
= 8:1.
Therefore n, here is equal to 8. Ans.c
47. Electromagnets are temporary magnets. So they need high degree of retention of magnetism.
Large area would mean more loss of energy while high coercivity would mean larger field to
destroy magnetism, which are not desirable for temporary magnets. Look up indirect theory
notes too. Ans.d
48. Ans.d
49. If p is the pole strength, M moment, then M = pL. When bent into a semicircle of radius r, L
= r. r = L/. The new magnetic moment = pole strength x distance between poles = p x 2r =
p x 2L/ = 2M/. Ans.d
50. When a magnet is in stable equilibrium (parallel to the field) its potential energy mB. When
rotated through 180
0
, it becomes anti-parallel to the field. Its potential energy then = -
mBcos180
0
= + mB. The work done in the process = difference in the potential energy =
2mB. Ans.b
51. At all places in magnetic equator, angle of dip will be zero. (Note: isoclinic line is the line
joining places of equal dip not zero dip.) Ans.b
52. By Lenzs law induced emf in the ring will oppose relative motion between the ring and the
magnet. Hence the magnet will always have acceleration less than free fall acceleration g.
Ans.a
53. Flux linkage in the coil = NAB cos . Induced emf = -d / dt = NAB sin . The phase
difference therefore will be 90
0
. (i.e.that between cos and sin ) Ans.b
54. The induced emf will depend on all the three except the resistance of the coil. Induced
current will depend on the resistance, but not the induced emf. Ans.c

136
55. The energy stored in the inductor = (1/2) Li
2
is due to magnetic field produced inside the
conductor coil when a current passes through it. Hence the energy is stored as magnetic field.
Ans.d
56. Induced emf = Blv sin . Since it flies along the north-south, it will intercept only vertical
lines of force of earth. B = 0.2 x 10
-4
T, 1 = 50 m, v = 540 x 5/18 ms
-1
. = 90
0
gives e = 0.15
V. Ans.a
57. The network is a balanced wheatstones bridge of effective resistance 1 between points
connected to the loop. Induced emf = BLv sin 90
0
, Induced current = BLv/R , which given
as 1 mA . With B = 1 T, L = 0.1 m,R = resistance of the loop (1) + resistance of the
network (1) = 2, we get V = 2 x 10
-2
m/s. Ans.b
58. |e| = LdI / dt = 20 x 10
-3
x 5 /1 = 0.1V. (The resistance of the coil is not necessary here
because we are finding emf. ) Ans.a
59. Both induced emf and inducing emf are energies. Only if they are in the opposite direction
the total energy will be conserved. Hence it is the consequency of law of conservation of
energy. (Also given in indirect theory notes). Ans.d
60. Magnetic lines of force produced by flow of electron (current) are not intercepted by the loop,
because they are in the same plane. Hence d /dt = 0. Ans.a
61. Applying Flemings right hand rule fore finger in direction of the field, middle finger in the
direction of the current, the thumb will point into the paper, that is vertically downward.
Ans.d
62. Using the formula energy of an inductor E = (1/2) Li
2
we can see the unit of self induction can
also be swritten as E/i
2
, J/A
2
. Ans.c
63. The equation to induced emf of a fan leaf is similar to equation to induced emf between the
two ends of a conducting rod in a uniform magnetic field. It is (1/2) B1
2
. Ans.c
64. Self inductance L = orN
2
A/l. Since N/l is constant, we rewrite the equation as L =
Al
l
N
2
2
r 0
(
(
. When length and breadth are doubled A becomes 4 times, length l becomes
twice. So, self inductance L becomes 8 times, because N
2
/l
2
is constant. Ans.d
65. The coefficient of mutual induction does not depend on the current or rate of change of
current in the primary. (Note the equation of M = or NpNs/L). Only the induced emf in
the secondary depends on the rate of change of current in the primary. Ans.d
66. Inductances add according to the rule of addition of resistors. 2 and 4 in parallel will give
2x4/6 = (4/3) H. This in series with 2/3 gives (4/3) + (2/3) = 2H. Ans.a
67. Let induced emf in the two coils at the instant of time t be respectively
dt
dI
L
1
1
and
dt
dI
L
2
2

Power = voltage x current is same. That is I
1
dt
dI
L
1
1
= I
2
dt
dI
L
2
2
. It given
dt
dI
1
=
dt
dI
2
.
Hence I
1
L
1
= I
2
L
2
. Therefore,
8
2
L
L
I
I
1
2
2
1
= = . Ans.b
68. Since magnetic field perpendicular to the plane and the loop moves in its plane, the flux
intercepted by the loop changes. Using palm rule induced emf will be BLv and induced
current BLv/R anticlockwise.. Ans.b
69. Use indirect theory notes. Ans.b

137
70. Farad = coulomb / volt and not joule/volt. Hence (c) is wrong. All others can be checked and
found to be correct remembering L/R , CR and LC have dimensions of time. Ans.c
71. e = -d / dt = -(24t +4). At the time t = 1/4 s induced emf will have a magnitude (24 x 1/4) +
4 = 10 V. The induced current will be induced emf / resistance = 10/10 = 1 A. Ans.d
72. The average power in an A C circuit = E
rms
I
rms
cos , where is the phase difference between
current and voltage. Here = 90
0
. (Phase difference between cos t and sin t) therefore cos
= 0. Ans.c
73. Voltmeters read rms value of A.C voltages. In AC circuit voltages add according to vector
rules. There is no phase difference between current and voltage in a resistor. Current lags 90
0

in an inductor and leads 90
0
in a capacitor. The vector sum is of voltages will be
2
3 2
2
1
) V V ( V + = V
2
. Ans.c
74. In an AC circuit instantaneous voltages follow Ohms law. So we can write just as for DC
circuit, V
1
+ V
2
+ V
3
= V. Ans.a
75. When the current is switched on the induced emf in the coil will oppose the growth of the
current due to self induction. So the bulb will not glow immediately. When current becomes
steady it glows dim because it gets only 6 V when it needs 10. Ans.b
76. During decay of current the induced emf in the inductor will oppose decay of current by
Lenzs law and momentarily shoots up current, and then goes off. Ans.d (Note:These two
questions are drawn from experimental demonstration of of self induction).
77. Impedance Z =
2
c L
2
) X X ( R + where X
L
, X
c
are inductive and capacitative reactance.
Here R = 60, X
L
E
rms
/Z = 200/100 = 2 A. Ans.a
78. Refer to theory note tabales.. Tan = X
L
X
c
/R = (180-100)/60 = 4/3. Ans.b
79. Power factor = cos = R/Z = 60/100 = 0.6. Ans.c
80. Average power P
rms
= E
rms
I
rms
cos = 200 x 2 x 0.6 = 240 W. Ans.d
81. An electro magnetic wave is produced by a tuning circuit which consists of an inductor and a
cpacitor. Here is exchange of inductors magnetic energy 1/2 Li
2
and condensors
electrostatic energy 1/2 CV
2
produces electro-magnetic waves. Ans.c
82. In an AC circuit, voltages add according to a vector rule. Voltages across inductance and
capacitance oppose. Hence all that we can say is V
R
2
+ (V
L
V
c
)
2
= V
2
where V
R
. V
L
, V
c

and V are the voltages across the resistor, inductor, capacitor and the supply voltage
respectively. Hence it is possible for V
L
or V
c
to exceed V. Ans.d
83. The energy of a photon is given by Plancks law E = hv = hc/. The blue light has less wave
length and hence gives photons of more energy. If P is the power of the source, n is no. of
photons emitted per second, we have nhc/= P. Since nhc/ is constant, the number of
photons is more for light of larger wave length, i.e. red. Hence red light gives photons of less
energy but more in number. Ans.b
84. To compare the phase difference between voltage and current, we should have both voltage
and current either as sine functions or cosine function. So we rewrite E = 100 sin [t + /2 +
/3] = 100 sin {t + 5/6]. Comparing this with current I = 4 sin t, we find phase difference
is 5/6. Ans.b
85. The peak values of AC, E
0
= 282 V. Rms value of AC R
rms
= E
o
/2 = 282/1.41 = 200 V. I
rms

= E
rms
/ resistance = 200/20 = 10 A. AC instruments show rms value. Ans.c

138
86. The effective inductance between them is given by L = L
1
+ L
2
2M, where M is the mutual
inductance between them. When the coils are far apart, mutual inductance between them
becomes zero. Then only the self inductance becomes L
1
+ L
2
. Ans.a
87. Scattered intensity is proportional to 1/
4
. Of the given electro-magnetic radiation radio
waves have longest wavelength. Hence they are scattered least. Ans.d
88. Using the Rayleighs scattering law I 1/
4
, (blue)/ (red) = 440/660 = 2/3. I(red)/I(blue)
= [(blue)/ (red)]
4
= (2/3)
4
= 16/81 = 1/5 . Ans.d
89. The maximum distance ground waves can reach by an antenna of height h = Rh 2 , where R
is radius of earth. Here h = 0.5 km. This gives the maximum distance as 80 km. Ans.a
90. The capacitative reactance X
c
= 1/C = 1/2f C. Thus Xc is inversely proportional to f. The
graph between them will be rectangular hyperbola. Ans.d
91. Any point on the Y-axis is on the equitorial line of the dipole. Hence field will be parallel to
the axis. (a is correct). Electric field at a point between the charges will be along positive X-
axis, but outside along negative X-axis (b is wrong). Dipole moment = -2pd i, as it is
negative to positive charge. (c is wrong) work = potential difference x charge. Since
potential at infinity and origin are zero, work will be zero. (d is wrong). Ans.a
92. Flux density the centre =
2
0
r 4
Idl
by Biot-Savart law. Since resistance is proportional to

length, flux density = constant x I
1
R
1
/r
2
for one arc for the other arc constant x I
2
R
2
/r
2
. As the
potential difference across the two paths are same I
1
R
1
= I
2
R
2
, The fields will be same in
magnitude. Since currents are in the opposite direction, the fields ancel. Ans.d
93. We have here two semi circular coils of radii R
1
and R
2
. The field due to one
o
i/4R
1
( half of
a coil of one turn) and due to the other
o
i/4R
2
. Since the currents are in the opposite
directions field oppose. Ans.c
94. Since the proton is projected at an angle (not parallel or perpendicular) to the field its path
will be a helix. Hence choices a and b are wrong. Time period (independent of velocity) =
2m/qB = 2x1.67x10
-27
/ 1.6 x 10
-19
x 0.104 = 6.3 x 10
-7
s or 2x10
-7
s. Ans.c
95. The radius of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field r = p/qB = qB / mE 2 , where E
is the kinetic energy and p momentum. Thus we find r q / m Deflection is proportional
to 1/r and hence m / q Deflection of H
+
is proportional to q/1. (choice a) Deflection of
He
+
is proportional to q/4 = q/2. Deflection of O
2+
is proportional to 2q/16 = q/2. choice c).
Ans.a & c
96. The shunt resistance S to make a galvanometer an ammeter is given by S = I
g
/I-I
g
, where I
g
is
the current through galvanometer I is current through the main circuit, G galvanometer
resistance. To convert into an ammeter we have to add a resistor in parallel. Since the answer
carries 1 we substitute S = 1, Ig = 50 A, G = 100 , we get I = 5 mA. (choice c). To
convert into voltmeter we have to connect a high resistor in series. If R is the value of the
resist or in series R = (V/Ig) G. Here substituting V = 10 volt, Ig = 50 A, G = 100 , we
get R = 200000 , i.e. 200 k. (choice. b) Ans. b & c
97. Copper is a metal and its resistance decreases on cooling. Germanium is a semi conductor.
Its resistance increases on cooling. Ans.d
98. Redrawing thediagram we find the arrangement is a balanced Wheasones bridge. The
effective value of resistance between A and B is R
AB =
3R x 6R/9R = 2R. Maximum power is

139
transfered when internal resistance is equal to external resistance . That is 2R = 4, R = 2 .
Ans.c
99. I
rms
= 3 dt I
2
1 4
2
2
=
A. Ans.a
100. Use the information supplied in theory notes. Ratio of two equal resistors when connected in
series and in parallel is n
2
. Here n = 2. Hence ratio of resistances in series and parallel will be
4. Heat produced = E
2
/R. The required ratio will be 1:4. Ans.d
101. Electric flux by Gausss theorem = E ds cos. Here the area intercepting the lines of forces
which is parallel to the axis of the circular plane is the surface area of the hemisphere.
Therefore = 2R
2
E. Ans.b
102. The current through the arrangement, which consists of n cells each of emf E and internal
resistance r connected in series with m rows in parallel is
nR mr
mnE
+
, where R is external
resistance. The current will be maximum if mr = nR. Here r = 0.5 and R = 3. This gives
m = 6n. Since mn = 24, total no. of cells we have m = 12 and n = 2.. Ans.a
103. Kinetic energy of a charged particle in an electric field = Charge x potential difference =
charge x electric field x distance if the field is uniform. Here it is qEy. Ans.c
104. The torque on a dipole when it makes an angle = pE, when is small. This restoring
torque should be equal to 1. Thus 1 = -pE. = -(pE/I). The angular acceleration is
proportional to angular displacement. The motion is S.H.M. The period is 2 pE / I This
answer can also be found from similarity with period of magnet in a uniform field
2 mB / I . In the place of a magnetic field B, electrif field E will come. Ans.a
105. Current through one bulb = 60/220 A. If n is maximum number of bulbs that can be used,
then n x 60/220 = 9. This gives n = 33. Ans.d
106. Thermo electric power = dE/dT = emf/temperature difference. Ans b
107. Use the information supplied in indirect theory notes. When the wire is halved in length the
resistance becomes 1/4. Ans.b
108. Using the equation F = q vxB with q = 1 C, we have the force as 3i. Ans.d
109. ML
2
T
3
is the dimension of power. Hence the given quantity is power/current
2
= resistance.
Ans.d
110. We start from Ohms law j = E. Resistivity = 1/ = E/j = electric field / current density.
Ans.a
111. Let the voltage across the source be E and resistance of each bulb be R. Then power across
the bulbs will be E
2
/4R. This is given as P. When one of them is removed, the power
consumed will be E
2
/3R. Since E
2
/3R = ( E
2
/4R) x (4/3), it will be equal to (4/3)P. Ans.d
112. A standard resistor should not change resistance. So it should have low temperature
coefficient. It should not melt quickly due to the heat produced in it. Hence it should have
high melting point. Ans.d
113. Since the masses and hence the volumes are equal r
1
2
L
1
= r
2
2
L
2
. From this we get
2
1
2
2 1
r
r
2 L
L
= . The ratio
4
1
2
2
1
2
2
2
1
2
2
2
1
2
2
2
1
2
2
2
2
1
1
2
1
r
r
r
r
x
r
r
r
r
x
L
L
r
L
/
r
L
R
R
|
|
.
|
\
|
= = =
= .This is equal to
4
1
2
|
.
|
\
|

= 16. Ans.d

140
114. A secondary cell has less internal resistance compared to a primary cell. Hence it gives more
current. Ans.c
115. Using two resistors we can get 4 resistance values. They are each of their value, both of them
in series and both of them in parallel. In a series connection the resistances add . So you
should choose two values given in the question whose sum is the third value given there.
Hence the resistances should be 18 and 9. 18 and 9 in series gives 27 and in parallel gives 6
Ans.a
116. If E is emf of each cell and r its internal resistance, when connected in series current i = 4E/4r
= E/r. When one of the cells is reversed the emf is equal to E+E+E-E = 2E. However internal
resistances still add to 4r. The new current i
1
= 2E/4r = (1/2)i. The current reduces by 50%.
Ans.b
117. When n ampere enters the combination, 1 ampere should flow the ammeter while n-1 ampere
should flow through the shunt. If S is the resistance of the shunt, then (n-1)S = 1xG. S=
G/n-1. Ans.b
118. The increase in resistance when it is heated through T is given by R
1
1
T. For the other
resistor it should be R
2
2
T. These should be equal for all T. This makes (b) correct and
(a) wrong. If the combination in series should have same resistance at all temperatures, the
resistance of one should increase by the same amount as that of the decrease of the other. So
one should be a metal and the other a semi-conductor. This can also be answered from
indirect theory notes. Ans. b & d
119. The network here is repeated network . Reduce it starting from left end. The value will be
outer resistance 2 ohm. Current is equal to emf / resistance = 2/2= 1 A.
120. Use the information given in theory notes. Current through parallel network divides in the
ratio of reciprocal of resistance. So divide 1.1 A in the ratio (1/1): (1/2): 1/3) = 6:3:2. Current
through 2 ohm resistor equals 1.1 x (3/11) = 0.3 A
121. Use the information current divides in the reciprocal ratio of resistance. Take the current
from 6V battery as 3i. Of these 2i passes through 1 ohm and i through 2 ohm. By Kirchoffs
law 1x2i+3x3i = 6. Solving, i = 6/11 A
122. The arrangement between P and Q (that is points connected to battery) is a balanced
Wheatstones bridge. 3 ohm here is in the place of galvanometer, while 2 ohm resistors are 4
arms of the bridge. Since the current through galvanometer is zero in a balanced bridge, i =0.
123. The arrangement is three one ohm resistors in parallel. They are each half of the loop and
diametrical wire AB. Take the current as 3i. Applying Kirchoffs law to a closed loop
containing i = 2A. Use the information supplied in theory notes. The number of electrons
will be 2x6.25x10
18
= 1.25x10
19
.

124. The balancing length L of a cell of emf E
1
is given by E
1
= irL, where r is the resistance per
unit length of potentiometer wire and i current through it. When driving cell has more
internal resistance, current i decreases and for a given E
1
, L increases. Ans.a

125. Use the information supplied in theory notes. We look for wire of maximum resistance.
Resistance R = L/r
2
. Resistance is maximum for the wire which has L/r
2
maximum. Their
values are 1/1, 2/2, 3/3, 2/4. Hence it is maximum for the wire P. Ans.a
126. Usually in a circuit consisting of one cell the terminal voltage cannot exceed emf. However if
the circuits has two or more cells connected in opposition, the terminal voltage of a cell of
smaller emf can exceed its emf. Hence statements b,c are correct (a) and (d) are wrong.
[There is a question which follows to illustrate this ]. Ans.b,c.

141
127. The current through the circuit is equal to net emf / total resistance = (12-8)/(1+2+9) = (1/3)
A. The drop across E
1
= current x internal resistance = (1/3)V. So terminal voltage is equal
to 8+(1/3) = 8.33V. Ans.b (Note:-The drop is added with the emf because current flows from
positive to negative inside the cell. This is due to the presence of a cell of higher emf 12V)
128. The drop across E
2
= current x internal resistance = 2/3 V. Terminal voltage = 12-(2/3) =
11.34V. Ans.c
129. The potential difference across the points P and Q is the same as the potential difference
across the resistor 9 ohm, because the point P is one end of the resistor and Q the other end.
The required voltage = currentxresistance = (1/3)x9 = 3 V. Ans.d
130. Whatever may be the value of R, the potential difference across the 3 resistors 1,2,3 ohm are
same. Let this potential difference be V. It is given V
2
/3= H. We are asked V
2
/1. This is
3H. Ans.d
131. Since the lamp lights with maximum brightness,
maximum power is transferred from the source to the
lamp. This happens when resistance of the lamp is equal
to internal resistance of the source (Maximum power
transfer theorem)i.e. 4 ohm Ans.a
132. (Fig) .Looking carefully into the network, we can find
that it has symmetry. The upper and lower parts are two
balanced Wheatstones bridges. Since the current
through galvanometer is zero, remove those 2 ohm
resistors at centre and redraw the figure as shown in
figure above. This reduces as shown in adjacent figure. Here three resistors 4,2,4 are in
parallel. The effective resistance R is given by 1/R=(1/4)+(1/2)+(1/4), which gives R = 1
ohm Ans.a
133. Since all the resistors are in parallel, use the equation for heat produced V
2
/R per second. Let
V
2
/200 = H. When all the resisitors are connected in parallel, the effective resistance (adding
them) is 40 ohm. The heat produced now will be V
2
/40 per second which is 5H. So time to
boil same amount of water will be (1/5) of 5 minutes. Ans.b
134. Unless you read carefully, you will miss the correct answer. Since the rate of flow of charge
is constant, current is constant. Ans c
135. The resistivity of a wire depends on its material. Note that the resistivity does not depend on
the length or cross sectional area It is the resistance which depends on them. So (c) is correct
while (a) and (b) are wrong. The resistivity also depends on the temperature, which makes
(d) correct. Ans. c,d
136. The resistance of the bulb R = V
2
/P = 100
2
/500 = 20 ohm. When 150 V is supplied 100 V
should be across the bulb and 50 V should be across a series resistor. In a series connection
potential difference across a resistor is proportional to the resistance. Hence the value of the
resistor should be half of that of the bulb = 10 ohm. Ans.d
137. Use information supplied in theory notes The resistance of the wire becomes 2
2
= 4 times.
The conductance of the wire which is reciprocal of resistance becomes 1/4. Ans.c
138. If E is the emf of each cell and r internal resistance i =
3
10 3
E
r +
. When in parallel i will be
E
r 10 3 + ( / )
. Equating the two and solving r = 10 ohm. Ans.c

142
139. If v is the drift speed of electron, current i = nev. Multiplying both sides by m, mi = mnev =
e(nmv). Here nmv is a total momentum p of all electrons. This gives p= mi/e = i/(e/m)= i/K,
where K is the specific charge e/m of the electron. Ans.c
140. Use the information supplied in theory notes. Both electrons will have same period and hence
the same frequency. Ans.a
141. Use the information supplied in theory notes The speed of the particle = E/B = 1000/20 = 50.
Its momentum is equal to mass x velocity = 50m. Ans.b
142. When a particle is accelerated, its velocity increases. According to the theory of relativity, its
mass also increases. The mass increase is more for lighter particle electron as it can be
accelerated to close to the speed of light. The period T = 2m/qB does not remain constant
and hence the resonance condition will not be satisfied. Ans c.
143. A current loop is like a magnet. In a uniform magnetic field a magnet experiences only a
torque. No force Torque
G
G G
= i Ax B. When plane of the loop is parallel to the field, the
area vector is perpendicular to the field. Hence = iAB sin 90
o
. Ans.a
144. Here angle between area vector and field vector is 0. Hence = iAB sin0
o
= 0. No torque,
no force. Ans.d
145. Since the lengths are in the ratio 1:2, the radii of loops will be also in the ratio 1:2. Areas
will be in the ratio 1:4. Magnetic moment = current x area of loop. Ratio of moments 1:4.
Ans.c
146. Use the information supplied in theory notes. The charged particle here has uniform cir-
ular motion. In a uniform circular motion speed is constant. Hence kinetic energy = (1/2)
mv
2
= constant. But the velocity varies. Hence momentum also varies. Ans.b
147. F(axis) =
o
nR i
R R
2
2 2 3 2
2( )
.
/
+
F(centre) =
o
ni
R 2
Dividing, we get F (centre)/ F(axis) =
8R
3
/R
3
= 8/1. Ans.d
148. When an electron moves with a speed v , current i = charge x frequency = e x (v/2r)
=
ev
r
Field B
i
r r
ev
r
ev
r
o o o
2 2 2 2
4
2
. = =

(
= Ans.a
149. Use information supplied in theory notes The final momentum p = qBR. The final kinetic
energy = p
2
/2m = q
2
B
2
R
2
/2m which is independent of the speed. Ans.d
150. Use the information supplied already in theory notes Since E is same, radius of the tracks will
be proportional to the ratio (m)/q. 2
e
e
x
m
m 2
q
q
x
) p ( m
) d ( m
) proton ( Radius
) deuteron ( Radius
d
p
= = = .Ans.b
151. Since the velocity components are equal the electron should be entering at an angle 45
o
with
the field. Use the information supplied in theory notes. The path will be a helix. Ans.c
152. If B is the magnetic field, then by Amperes circuital theorem,
G
B dl i
o
.
= , where i is the
current enclosed by the path along which integral is taken. If the point is outside , path will
enclose a current, and hence the field B will not be zero. If the point is inside, the integral
path will not enclose a current. The current i and hence the field B will be zero. Ans.a

143
153. Use the information supplied in theory notes. The energy E = qV, where V is the
accelerating potential. Since r is proportional to E, it will be proportional to V as well.
Ans.d
154. The equation for force between the parallel wires is
a 2
i
F
2
0
= . The graph between F and i

will be a parabola, since F is proportional to i
2
. The graph between F and i
2
will be a straight
line. The graph between F and a will be a rectangular hyperbola while the graph between F
and 1/a will be a straight line. Ans.a
155. Since the electron is moving from north to south, it is equal to a current flowing from south
to north. Thus the electron current and the current through the conductor are in opposite
direction. Hence they repel. The electron beam will be pulled up. Ans.c
156. The magnetic field due to each conductor X has same magnitude. Its direction is given by
the vector i dl x r and will be pointing into the plane of the paper . All the fields add in
magnitude and direction Ans.b
157. Current i = charge / time = 2e/T, where 2e is charge of helium nucleus. The magnetic field at
centre B =
19
o
19
o o o
10
2 x 8 . 0 x 2
10 x 6 . 1 x 2 x
T
e 2
r 2 r 2
i

=
(
. Ans.b
158. Let p be the pole strength. Then the magnetic moment M is equal to px L. When the needle is
bent the poles are at A and B as shown in the adjacent figure. The length of the magnet is
equal to the distance between poles = L/2. So the new magnetic moment = pL/2 = M2.
Ans.d
159. The magnetic field at the centre is
o
iLsin90
o
/4r
2
. = constant x iL, where L is the length of
the arc. Since the loop is uniform its length is proportional to the resistance. So the field
becomes constant x iR. For a parallel connection i
1
R
1
=i
2
R
2
i.e. iR =constant. So the
magnetic field will be same due to the two arcs. But the field will be the opposite direction as
the currents are in opposite directions. They cancel. Ans.d
160. For a tangent galvanometer i = K tan, where K is 2rB
H
/
o
n. When the coil is arranged at an
angle 10
o
with the meridian, the horizontal component of earths field B
H
will only be B
H
cos
10
o
. For a constant current i the deflection will increase. Ans.a
161. The period of oscillation of a magnet is given by 2 I MB / , where I is moment of inertia of
the magnet. For two identical magnets, one placed over the other as given, I becomes 2I and
M becomes 2M. Thus the period remains the same. Ans.b
162. The field at one end point along the perpendicular bisector of a straight conductor is got
from the equation
o
i
r 4
(sin
1
+sin
2
) =

o
i
r 4
as here
1
= 0 and
2
= 90. Ans. c
163. Diamagnetism is produced due to induced effect when the
atom is placed in a magnetic field Hence it is present in all
substances. But it shows only in substances where para and
ferro effects are absent. (a) is correct. Since it is due to
electromagnetic induction it can be explained by Lenzs law.
(b) is correct. It does not depend on temperature. (c) is wrong.
Induced magnetic moment depends on induced current and on
the radius of the orbit. Hence (d) is correct. Ans.a,b,d
164. The force between parallel conductors carrying current in the

144
same direction will be attractive . Since the distance of R is same from P and Q, the force
will be proportional to the product i
1
i
2
. i
1
i
2
= i
2
, for P and R and 2i
2
for R and Q. Therefore
the attractive force of Q will be greater. Thus R will move towards Q . Ans.c.
165. Except recoil of gun all others are one or other form of law conservation of energy. In recoil
of gun momentum is conserved . But kinetic energy of the gun is less than that of a shot. So
kinetic energy is not conserved. Ans.c
166. In the region of magnetic equator earths magnetic field has only horizontal component. So
when the plane flies horizontally it cannot intercept magnetic lines of force of earth. Hence no
induced e.m.f. In all other cases the magnetic lines of force are intercepted . Ans.b
167. When the source is switched off, the current decreases. By Lenzs law, induced current
should oppose the decrease and hence should flow in the same direction, i,e, from left to right.
Ans.a
168. The induced emf |e| = d/dt = 3t
2
+ 3. This is equation to a parabola . When t = 0, e = 3.
Hence the graph will not pass through the origin. Ans.d
169. When a conductor moves across (perpendicular to) the field , an emf is induced in the
conductor. Since the circuit is not closed, no current flows through the wire and hence no
charge flows through the wire. Ans.a
170. Use the supplied in theory notes . If the induced and inducing emf are in the same direction, it
does not obey Lenzs law. Lenzs law follows from law of conservation of energy. Ans.d
171. Using the formula force x velocity = power, we have power = 20 W, v = 2 m/s. This gives F
= 10 N..Ans.a
172. The peak value of AC = I
rms
2 = 2A. The current changes from 2 A (positive maximum) to -
2 A (negative maximum) in half of a cycle, i.e. (1/100) s. So induced emf |e | = M di/dt =
1[2-(-2)]100 = 400 V. Ans.b
173. When loops come nearer, the flux linking with each loop due to the current in the other will
increase. That is d /dt is positive. The induced emf, therefore -d /dt will be negative. That
is current in each loop will decrease due to this induced emf. This is in accordance with the
Lenzs law. Ans.b
174. Each turn of the spring can be considered as a loop. So each turn becomes a magnet. It will
have opposite poles at top and bottom. One turn will be attracted by the next turn because of
the opposite polarity near. Thus the spring will contract. Ans.c
175. The self inductance L is given by
l
A N
2
r o

. Thus self inductance depends on A and N/l.
This makes (c,d) correct. The self inductance will not depend on flux or rate of change of
flux. It is the induced emf which depends on rate of change of flux. Hence (a) and (b) are
wrong. Ans.c,d
176. An inductor stores magnetic energy when current is changing and an emf is induced. A
steady current does not produce induced emf. Ans.d
177. Here the magnetic energy of the inductor (1/2)Li
2
is converted into electrostatic energy of the
capacitor (1/2)CV
2
. When V is maximum C is minimum. Equating the two C = 1x2
2
/400
2
=
25x10
-6
F. Ans.c
178. If L
1
and L
2
are self inductance, maximum mutual inductance M = L L
1 2
. Here M = 6, so
L
1
L
2
= 36, L
1
-L
2
= 5. L
1
+L
2
= ( ) L L L L
1 2
2
1 2
4 + = 13 H. Ans.b

145
179. Use the information supplied in theory notes. We know L/R has the dimensions of time .
QR/L will be Q/t = charge / time = current. Q
2
R
3
/L
2
= (Q
2
R
2
/ L
2
) x R = (Q
2
/t
2
)xR = I
2
xR,
because Q/t = current. I
2
xR is power. Ans .a ,b
180. To have induced e.m.f there should be a change in the flux linking with the wire, i.e. there
should be relative motion. Here the coil is at rest. Ans.a
181. The induced e.m.f. in the secondary of a transformer will depend on the mutual inductance
which, in turn, depends on spacing of primary (number of turns per metre), core (
r
) of the
transformer. The induced e.m.f. will not depend on the resistance of the secondary. Only the
induced current will depend on the resistance of the secondary. Ans.d
182. Use the information supplied in theory notes. ohm/henry = R/L, which has the dimensions of
reciprocal of time i.e .dimension of angular velocity T
-1
. Ans.c
183. Comparing with standard equation E = E
o
sint, E
o
= 2002. E
rms
= 200 V, = 100. I
rms
=
E
rms
/Z. Here Z = reactance = 1/ C I
rms
= E
rms
C = 200x1x10
-6
x100 = 20x10
-3
A = 20
mA. Ans.b
184. If is the phase angle between current and voltage, it is given here tan = (4/3). Power factor
of a circuit = cos. cos will be (3/5). Ans.b
185. To have an induced emf in the coil, there should be a relative velocity between the magnet
and the coil. When both move with same velocity in the same direction , the relative velocity
is zero. There is no change in flux. Hence the induced emf is zero. Ans.a
186. Comparing the given equation with the standard equation e = E
o
sint, we find E
o =
282 V.
E
rms
=282/2 = 200 V. Since the transformer is step-up, the secondary voltage will be 200x2=
400 V. (Recall that the AC voltmeter will show only rms value). Ans.d
187. Here again, comparing with the standard equation E
o
sint, we find = 100. 2f = 100,
which gives the frequency of AC f= 50 Hz. Period of AC = 1/50 s. The time lag of 1/50
second corresponds to a phase lag of 360
o
. In a purely inductive circuit, the phase lag
between current and voltage is 90
o
. This corresponds to a time lag of (1/4) of 1/50 = 1/200 s.
Ans. a
188. The energy density ( energy per unit volume) of magnetic field is given by B
2
/2
o.
Note the
difference in the equation for energy density of electric field (1/2)
o
E
2
. Ans.b
189. The induced emf in the conductor e = BLv. The power when removed from the field = e
2
/R =
B
2
L
2
v
2
/R. Ans. a
190. Since there is a relative motion between A and B a current will be induced in B by the motion
of A. By Lenzs law the current in B will be in an opposite direction to that in A, i.e. anti-
clockwise. There will be no current due to C, because there is no relative motion (no change
of flux) between B and C. Ans.d
191. In a parallel resonant circuit, current is minimum at resonance.
2
= 1/LC is the condition for
resonance. Hence (c) is correct. Across L the voltage and the current differ by a phase angle
90
o
. Hence when current is minimum voltage will be maximum. Thus (b) is correct. Ans. b,
c
192. At resonance the voltage across L and that across C should be equal and opposite. So the
reading of V
3
should be 300 V. The supply voltage 200 V should be across the resistor. So
V
1
will be 200 V. Ans.d
193. Use the information supplied already in theory notes. At resonance inductive reactance and
capacitative reactance cancel. Hence the net impedance Z = R = 200 ohm. Current = E
rms
/ Z
= 200/200 = 1 A. Ans.a

146
194. Use the information supplied in theory notes. The voltages add according to vector rule. i.e.
V = V V V
R L c
2 2 2 2
40 50 20 + = + ( ) ( ) = 50V. Ans.c
195. P = E
rms
I
rms
cos =
3
cos
2
10 x 100
x
2
100
3
(
(

= 2.5 W (Note the current is in mA) Ans.d.
196. The electrostatic energy of the condenser (1/2) CV
2
is converted into magnetic energy (1/2)
Li
2
during discharge. Equating the two we get i = CV L
2
/ = 1 10 50 10 10
6 2 3
x x x

/ = 0.5
A. Ans.b
197. The reactance X = 240/3 = 80 ohm. Resistance R = 240/4 = 60 ohm. When the two are
connected in series, we have an LR circuit. The impedance Z = R X
2 2 2 2
60 80 + = + =
100 ohm. Current i = E
rms
/Z = 240/100 = 2.4 A. Ans.d
198. This is an LCR circuit. Here R is the resistance of the bulb. When the frequency of AC is
increased, the current increases. When the frequency becomes equal to the resonant
frequency (L = 1/C), the current reaches a maximum value. Then it decreases. Since
brightness of the bulb depends on the current, it also increases and then decreases. Ans.d.
199. The speed of e.m waves through a medium c
1 =
xy
c c 1 1
r r r r 0 0
=

=

=
,
where c is the speed of e.m.waves through free space. From Optics, we know speed through
a medium c
1
= c/n, (2)where n is the refractive index of the medium. Comparing the two
equations(1)and (2) we find n = xy Ans.c

OPTICS

SECTION 1
QUESTIONS
1. A diverging beam of light falls on a plane mirror. The image formed by the mirror is
a) real, erect b) virtual , inverted
c) virtual, erect d) real, inverted
2. In a pond water is 10 m deep. A candle flame is held 15 m above the surface of water. If the
refractive index of water is 4/3, the image of the candle flame is formed at
a) 15 m deep b) (45/4)m deep c) 10 m deep d) (30/4)m deep
3. Which of the following colours will have minimum critical angle when light passes from
glass to air ?
a) green b) blue c) yellow d) orange
4. *A ray of light is incident at an angle 45
0
in an equilateral prism of refractive index 2. The
ray
a) will totally reflect from the second face.
b) will just graze the second surface.
c) will run parallel to the incident ray.
d) will undergo minimum deviation.
5. Light of wavelength and frequency f is incident from air to glass of refractive index .
Inside glass the frequency and the wavelength of the light are
a) f, b) f, c) f, / d) f, /
6. Two convex lenses of equal focal length f are kept at a distance coaxially. A parallel beam of
light incident on the first lens emerges from the second lens as a parallel beam. The distance
between the lenses is
a) f b) 2f c) f/2 d) f/4
7. Imagine a hypothetical convex lens which can pass all the electromagnetic radiations through
it. For which of the following radiations will the lens have maximum focal length?
a) X-rays b) rays c) micro waves d) infra red rays
8. If a is the distance of an object from the focus of a concave mirror and b is the distance of its
real image from the focus, the graph between a and b will be
a) a straight line of positive slope b) a rectangular hyperbola
c) a straight line with negative slope d) a parabola
9. A thin rod of length f/3 is placed along the optical axis of a concave mirror of focal length f
such that its image which is real and elongated, just touches the rod. Its magnification is
a) 3/2 b) 5/2 c) 1/2 d) 7/2
10. A concave mirror has a focal length of f cm. An object is placed such that it forms a two
fold magnified real image. The distance between the object and the image will be ( in cm)
6

148
a) f b) 1.5f c) 2f d) 2.5f
11. Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other at a certain angle. A ray of light first incident on
one of them at an angle of 10
0
with the mirror retraces its path after five reflections. The
angle between the mirror is
a) 12
o
b) 22
o
c) 30
o
d) 20
o

12. If
21
represents the refractive index of the second medium with respect to the first
medium, then
21
32
43
will be equal to
a)
41
b)
31
c)
14
d)

13
13. The intensity of light at a distance r from the axis of long cylindrical source is proportional to
a) 1/r
2
b) 1/r c) 1/r
1/2
d) 1/r
3

14. A ray of light incident on an equilateral prism of refractive index 1.41 suffers minimum
deviation. The angle of incidence on the first face is
a) 60
o
b) 30
o
c) 40
o
d) 45
o

15. A ray of light is incident on two plane mirrors inclined at an angle deviates through 240
o
.
The number of images of an object formed by the mirrors is equal to
a) 3 b) 2 c) 5 d) 6
16. A fish is at a depth of 4 m from the water surface. A bird is at a height 3 m vertically above
from the water surface. The distance at which the fish sees the bird is
a) 7 m b) 9 m c) 8 m d) 10 m
17. A fish under water at a depth h sees the outside world within a cone of radius r at water
surface. If is refractive index of water, the value of r here is

1
h
) d
1
h
) c 1 h ) b 1 h ) a
2
2

18. A plano-convex lens of focal length f and radius of curvature R
is silvered on the plane surface as shown in the adjacent figure
The focal length of this will be
a) f b) f/2
c) R d) R/2
19. The above plano-convex lens is silvered on the convex surface,
as shown in the adjacent figure, so that it
becomes a concave mirror. The focal length of
this concave mirror will be
a) R/2 b) R
c) (R/2) d) 2R/
20. A ray of light passes through three media of
refractive indices as shown in the adjacent
figure. Then
a)
1
=
2
,
3
>
2

b)
1
=
2
,
3
<
2

c)
1
=
2
=
3

d)
1
<
2
,
2
=
3
21. A planoconvex lens fits exactly with a plano-concave lens as
shown in the adjacent figure. Their refractive indices and focal
lengths are shown in the figure. The focal length of the
combination is

149

1 2
1 2 1 2
R
) d R ) c
) (
R 2
) b
) ( 2
R
) a

22. Light energy falls at a rate E Wm
-2
on a perfectly reflecting plane mirror. The pressure
exerted by the light on the mirror is (c speed of light)
a) E/c b) 2E/c
c) E/3600 c d) E/7200 c
23. A ray of light is incident at an angle 45
o
into a medium of =2 . A part of light is reflected
and a part refracted. The angle between reflected and refracted rays in degrees will be
a) 45 b) 75 c) 90 d) 105
24. An object is kept symmetrically between two plane mirrors inclined at an angle 90
o
. The
images formed by the mirror will lie in
a) a circle b) a parabola c) a straight line d) an irregular curve
25. A source of light is kept in an isotropic medium. If the amplitude of wave reaching a point is
plotted with distance from the source to the point, the graph will be
a) a straight line b) an inverse square law graph
c) a parabola d) rectangular hyperbola
26. A lamp is suspended vertically above a table at a height. When the height of suspension is
reduced by 2%, the intensity at the centre of the table
a) increases by 4% b) increases by 3%
c) increases by 2% d) increases by 8%
27. Two lamps A and B are placed at a distance 2 m and 3 m from a screen respectively. The
intensity of illumination on the screen due to the two lamps are equal. If P
A
and P
B
are the
powers of two lamps, then P
A
/P
B
=
a) 2/3 b) 4/9 c) 3/2 d) 9/4
28. The refractive index of a prism depends on
a) angle of the prism A b) angle of minimum deviation D
c) both A and D d) neither A nor D
Solve the following two problems within a maximum time of 2 minute. Use only one equation.
29. In a displacement method the distance between object and the screen is 90 cm. The focal
length of the lens is 20 cm. What is the distance through which lens is displaced between
magnified and diminished image ?
30. In a displacement method the lens is displaced through a distance 45 cm. The magnification
of one of the images = 4. What is the focal length of the lens?
31. Youngs experiment is performed with white light, which of the following colours will have
minimum band width ?
a) green b) yellow c) blue d) red
32. If Youngs experiment were performed so that interfering beams travel in water. The ratio of
width of band in air to that in water i.e. (air) / (water) =
a) 1 b) 1/2 c) 3/4 d) 4/3
33. Two light beams have same wave vector k. One travels through a distance L
1
in a medium of
refractive index
1
and the other L
2
in a medium of refractive index
2.
On emerging their
phase difference will be
a) k (
1
L
1
-
2
L
2
) b) k(
1
L
2
-
2
L
1
)

150
c) (
1
L
1
-
2
L
2
)/k d) (
1
L
2
-
2
L
1
)/k
34. If one of the slits is twice as wide as the other in Youngs experiment, the ratio of intensity of
bright band to dark band will be
a) 4:1 b) 2:1 c) 3:1 d) 9:1
35. *.Which of the following cannot produce interference?
a) Two narrow sources of blue light and red light
b) One real narrow source and one narrow virtual source of same colour
c) Two virtual monochromatic sources
d) Two different parts of the same source
36. *If the width of both the coherent slits in Youngs experiment is progressively increased
a) the width of bands will increase
b) the width of bands will decrease
c) the contrast between dark and bright bands will decrease
d) the bands will disappear after some time
37. The relation between critical angle 'C' and angle of polarisation of a medium 'i' is
a) i = tan
-1
(cosec C) b) i = cot
-1
(cosec C)
c) i = sin
-1
(tan C ) d) i = tan
-1
(sin C)
38. A laser beam of wave length passing through a slit of width a is sent to moon. The linear
spread of the beam when it reaches to moon is
a) Da/ b) D/a c) Da/2 d) D/2a
39. When the laser beam given in previous question reaches moon, the area to which it spreads is
equal to
a) D
2
a/ b) D
2
2
/a
2
c) ( Da/2)
2
d) D
2
/a
2

40. Which of the following colours will have minimum polarising angle in a given medium?
a) violet b) blue c) green d) indigo
41. If D
10
2
= x, D
15
2
= y, D
20
2
= z, where D
10
, D
15
and D
20
are the diameters of 10
th
, 15
th
and 20
th

dark ring of a Newtons ring system, then
a) y-x = 2(z-y) b) 2(y-x) = z-y c) z-x = 2y d) y-x = z-y
42. For a certain experiment it is required to diffract H

line of Balmer series. The wave length of
this line is about 660 nm. Which of the following grating would be most suitable for this?
a) A grating having 10
6
lines /m
b) A grating having 10
4
lines/m
c) A grating having 6000 lines/m
d) A grating having 3x10
8
lines/m
43. *. Which of the following statements are correct about optic axis?
a) It is a line
b) It is a direction
c) The crystal is symmetric about it
d) The speed of O and E rays will be same along it.
44. If the acute angle of a biprism is increased, the width of the fringes produced by it
a) decreases b) increases
45. The polarising angle of ordinary glass is equal 57
o
. If this glass is immersed in water, the
polarising angle will be
a) more than 57
0
b) equal to 57
0

c) less than 57
0
d) exactly equal to 45
0


151
46. In the earths atmosphere the ratio of amplitude of blue light scattered to that of red light , if
their wave lengths are 400 nm and 600 nm respectively, is
a) 9/4 b) 4/9 c) 81/16 d) 16/81
47. In the figure below unpolarised light of intensity I
0
= 64 W/m
2
is incident on the first
polaroid N
1
. The intensity of light coming from the second polaroid N
2
is I
2,
= 2 W/m
2
. The
angle between the axis of N
1
and that of N
2
is equal to
a) 30
o
b) 60
0
c) cos
-1
(1/4) d) cos
-1
(1/8)
48. Suppose the polaroid N
2
in the previous question is rotated keeping N
1
fixed. During one
rotation, an observer will see
a) a maximum and a minimum
b) four maxima and four minima
c) two maxima and two minima
d) light of varying intensity but no minimum and maximum
49. Laser beam can be used to standardise
a) distance b) time c) angle d) temperature
50. A laser beam of frequency 3x10
14
Hz passes through an aperture of diameter 1 mm. The
angular spread of the beam in radian is equal to
a) 10
-2
b) 10
-4

c) 5x10
-3
d) 10
-3

51. Which of the following statement(s) are true for photons ?
a) Their rest mass is zero
b) Their rest mass is infinite
c) They cannot produce interference
d) They travel with a speed equal to that
of light waves
52. If the width of source slit in Youngs
experiment is increased,
a) the fringe width will increase
b) the fringe width will decrease
c) the bright bands will become more bright
d) the visibility of the system will become less
53. A ray of light of intensity I is incident on a
parallel glass-slab at a point A as shown in
adjacent figure. It undergoes partial
reflection and refraction. At each reflection 25% of incident energy is reflected. The rays AB
and AB undergo interference. The ratio I
max
/I
min
is:
a) 4:1 b) 8:1
c) 7:1 d) 49:1

152
54. The position of the direct image obtained at O, when a monochromatic beam of light is passed
through a plane transmission grating at normal incidence is shown in the adjacent figure.
The diffracted images A,B and C correspond to the first, second and third order diffraction.
When the source is replaced by another source of shorter wavelength
a) all the four images shift in the direction C to O
b) the images C,B and A will shift towards O
c) all the four images shift in the direction O to C
d) the images C, B and A will shift away from O
55. If the coherent slits in Youngs experiment are narrowed so that
their width becomes comparable with the wavelength of light,
a) the fringes will become broad
b) the fringes will become narrower
c) the fringes will become unequally spaced
d) the fringes will disappear and uniform illumination will set in
56. A mixture of red light of = 6000 A
o
and blue light of = 4400 A
o
is incident normally on an
air film. The minimum thickness of the film for which the reflected light will appear blue is
a) 3x10
-7
m b) 6 x 10
-7
m
c) 2.2 x 10
-7
m d) 4.4 x 10
-7
m
57. Which of the following gives maximum field of view ?
a) plane mirror b) concave mirror
c) convex mirror d) cylindrical mirror
58. A ray of light falls on a plane mirror at angle of incidence i. The deviation produced on the
ray by the mirror is
a) 2i b) (180-2i) c) (180 + 2i) d) (360-2i)
59. When a convergent beam of light is incident on a plane mirror, the image formed is
a) erect and real b) erect and virtual
c) inverted and real d) inverted and virtual
60. When the moon is near horizon, it appears bigger due to
a) refraction b) scattering of light
c) diffraction d) all the three
61. How many images of himself does an observer see on the mirror surfaced two adjacent walls
and the ceiling of a rectangular room?
a) 3 b) 5 c) 6 d) 9
62. A glass slab is placed in the path of converging beam of light. The point of convergence of
light
a) moves towards the glass slab b) moves away from the glass slab
c) remains at the same point d) undergoes a lateral shift
63. A plane glass slab is placed on the letters of the following colours. The letters of which
colour is raised maximum ?
a) red b) yellow c) green d) blue
64. A ray of light passes from vacuum into a medium at an angle of incidence twice the angle of
refraction. The angle of incidence is
a) cos
-1
(/2) b) 2 cos
-1
(/2) d) 2 sin
-1
(1/) d) 2 sin
-1
(/2)
65. A light wave of frequency 5 x 10
14
Hz enters a medium of refractive index 1.5. In the
medium the velocity of the light wave is
a) 3 x 10
8
m/s b) 2 x 10
8
m/s
c) (5/10
14
/1.5) m/s d) 1.5 x 5 x 10
14
m/s

153
66. A small plane mirror is rotating with a constant frequency of n rotations per second. With
what linear velocity (in m/s) a spot of light reflected from the mirror moves along a spherical
screen of radius of curvature R, if the mirror is at the centre of curvature of screen ?
a) 2nR b) 2nR c) 4nR d) 4nR
67. When a source of light is 1 m away, a photosensitive meter gives a delfection of 8 divisions, if
the source is moved 1m more, the deflection will be
a) 8 divisions b) 4 divisions c) 2 divisions d) 9 divisions
68. The critical angle of a prism is 36
0
. The maximum angle of the prism for which an emergent
ray is possible is
a) 72
0
b) 54
0
c) 36
0
d) 16
0

69. A thin prism P
1
of angle 4
0
and ,made from glass of refractive index 1.54 is combined with
another thin prism P
2
made from glass of refractive index 1.72 so that ray undergoes no
deviation. The angle of prism P
2
is
a) 5.33
0
b) 4
0
c) 3
0
d) 2.6
0

70. The distance between an object and a divergent lens is x times the focal length of the lens.
The lateral magnification m produced by the lens will be
a) x b) 1/x c) x+1 d) 1/x+1
71. The colour of light which travels with minium speed in glass is
a) red b) yellow c) green d) blue
72. A convex lens is placed between an object and screen which are at a fixed distance apart. For
one position of the lens the magnification of the image obtained on the screen is m
1
. When
the lens is moved by a distance d, the magnification of the image obtained on the same screen
is m
2
. The focal length of the lens is (m
1
> m
2
)
a) d/(m
1
-m
2
) b) d/(m
1
+ m
2
) c) dm
1
/m
2
d) m
2
/m
1

73. In a displacement method using convex lens we obtain two images for separation of the lens
d. One image is magnified as much as the other is diminished. If m is the magnification of
one image, the focal length of the lens is
a) d/(m-1) b) md(m
2
-1) c) d/(m
2
-m) d) dm
2
/m
1

74. If the earth had no atmosphere, the duration of the day would have been
a) longer b) the same
c) shorter d) shorter or longer depending on the season
75. A short linear object of length b lies along the axis of a concave mirror of focal length f at a
distance u from the pole of the mirror. The size of the image is approximately equal to
a) b
2 / 1
f u
f
(
b)
2
f u
f
b
(
c)
2
f
f u
b
(

d)
(

f
f u
b
76. Two convex lenses separated by a distance are brought into contact. The focal power of the
combination
a) decreases b) increases
77. A transparent cube of 12 cm edge contains a small air bubble. Its apparent depth is 5 cm
when viewed through one face and 3 cm when viewed through the opposite face. The
refractive index of the material of the cube is
a) 1.5 b) 12/7 c) 12/5 d) 5/3
78. A source of light located at a point A where AB = BC = 1 m as shown in fig. The intensity of
illumination at B is P. The intensity of illumination at C is

154
a) 0.36 P b) 0.5 P
c) 0.7 P d) 0.44 P
79. A diver from inside water looks at an outside object
whose natural colour is green. He sees the object as
a) green b) red
c) violet d) yellow
80. An ant is approaching a convex lens with a constant
speed up to the first focus. The speed of the image of
ant formed by the lens.
a) remains the same
b) increases uniformly
c) first decreases and then increases
d) first increases and then decreases
81. A thin lens of focal length f and aperture diameter d forms an image of intensity I. The
central part of the aperture up to diameter d/2 is blocked by an opaque paper. The focal
length and image intensity would respectively be
a) f, I/4 b) f/2, I/2 c) 3f/4, I/2 d) f, I/2
82. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f
1
and f
2
are placed at a distance d between them. For power
of the combination to be zero, the separation of the lenses must be
a) f
1
+ f
2
b)
2
f f
2 1
+
c)
2
1
f
f
d)
2 1
f f
83. A blue cross illuminated by white light under white background is observed through a red
filter. The observer will see
a) a red cross on a black background
b) a red cross on a blue background
c) a black cross on a red background
d) a black cross on a blue background
84. The angle of a prism is A and the angle of minimum deviation is 180-2A. the refractive index
of the prism is
a) sin (A/2) b) cos (A/2) c) tan (A/2) d) cot (A/2)
85. A glass prism has a refractive index of 1.5 and refracting angle of 90
0
. A ray of light is
incident on it at an angle of incidence of 30
0
. The angle of emergence will be in degrees
a) 60 b) 30 c) 45 d) the ray will not emerge
86. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 60
0
on one face of a prism of refracting angle 30
0
. The
emergent ray makes an angle 30
0
with the incident ray. The refractive index of the prism is
a) 1.41 b) 1.73
c) 1.5 d) 1.6
87. A ray of monochromatic light is incident on one face of a
prism of angle 75
0
. It is incident on the second face at
critical angle. If = 2, the angle of incidence on the first
face of the prism is (in degrees)
a) 30 b) 45
c) 60 d) 90
88. A beam of light consisting of red, green blue colours is
incident on right angled prism normally on the face AB. The
refractive indices of the prism for red, green and blue are
B
A C

45

155
1.39, 1.44 and 1.47 respectively. The prism will
a) separate red colour from blue and green
b) separate part of blue colour from red and green
c) separate all the three colours from one another
d) not separate even partially any colour from the others
89. A prism of critical angle 42
0
is immersed in water of critical angle 49
0
. The critical angle of
the prism inside water will be
a) between 42
0
and 49
0
b) less than 42
0

c) greater than 49
0
d) equal to 49
0

90. The angle with horizontal at which an under-water swimmer will see the setting sun is
a) 41
0
b) 32
0
c) 49
0
d) 60
0

91. A spherical air bubble in water will act as
a) a convex lens b) a concave lens
c) plane glass plate d) plano-concave lens
92. When a lens is moved towards the object from a distance 20 cm to 15 cm, the
magnification of the image remains the same. The focal length of the lens is
a) 16.8 cm b) 15.5 cm c) 18.2 cm d) 17.5 cm
93. Which of the following is an achromatic combination pair of a telescope objective?
a) Lenses of of power +3D and - 5D
b) Lenses of f = 40 cm and power 3 D
c) Lenses of f = -50 cm and power +2D
d) Lenses of f = +20 cm and power 4.5 D
94. A convex lens A of focal length 20 cm
and a concave lens B of focal length 5
cm are kept along the same axis with a
distance d between them.. If a parallel
beam of light falling on a leaves B as
a [parallel beam of light falling on A
leaves B as a parallel beam, then d is
equal to (in cm)
a) 25 b) 22.5 c) 20 d) 15
95. A parallel beam of white light falls on a combination of a concave and a convex lens, both of
the same material. Their focal lengths are 15 and 30 cam respectively for the mean
wavelength in white light. On the other side of the lens system, one sees
a) white pattern
b) no pattern at all
c) coloured pattern with violet at inner side
d) coloured pattern with violet at outer side
96. Consider Fraunhofer diffraction pattern obtained with a single slit, illuminated at normal
incidence. At the angular position of the first diffraction minimum, the phase difference (in
radians) between the wavelets from the opposite edges of the slit is
a) b) 2 c) /4 d) /2
97. *A planet is observed by an astronomical refracting telescope having objective of focal length
16 m and eyepiece of focal length 2 cm. Then
a) The distance between objective and eyepiece is 16.02 m
b) The angular magnification of the planet is 800
c) The image of the planet is inverted
d

156
d) The objective is larger than the eye-piece
98. Interference fringes are formed with light of wavelength 400 nm in Youngs experiment with
separation of slit 1 mm and screen distance 1 m. The angular width of fringe (in radian) is
a) 0.4 b) 0.04 c) 0.004 d) 0.0004
99. If Youngs experiment with one source of light and two slits be performed so that interfering
beam traverse in water instead of air,
a) the fringes will be less in number
b) the fringes will be broader
c) the fringes will be narrower
d) no fringes will be obtained
100. In Youngs interference experiment with one source and two slits, one slit is covered with a
cellophane sheet so that only half of the intensity is transmitted. Then
a) no fringes will be obtained
b) bright fringes will be brighter and dark fringes will be darker
c) all fringes will be darker
d) bright fringes will be less bright and dark fringes will be less dark
101. In a Youngs double slit experiment, the interference pattern is found to have an intensity
ratio of 9 between bright and dark fringes. This implies that
a) the intensities at the screen due to the two slits are 5 units and 4 units respectively
b) the intensities all the screen due to the two slits are 4 units and 1 unit respectively
c) the amplitude ratio is 3/2
d) the amplitude ratio is 3
102. In Youngs double slit experiment the central fringe is white. What colour of fringe will you
see nearest to the central fringe ?
a) violet b) green c) red d) yellow
103. *White light is used to illuminate the two slits in a Youngs double slit experiment. The
separation between the slits is b and the screen is at a distance d ( >> b) from the slits. At a
point on the screen directly in front of one of the slits, certain wave lengths are missing.
Some of these missing wavelengths are
a) = b
2
/d b) = 2b
2
/d c) = b
2
/3d d) = 2b
2
/3d
104. In Youngs double slit experiment using light of wavelength , the intensity of one bright
fringe is I units. The intensity of light at a point where the path difference is /4 is
a) I/2 b) I/4 c) I/3 d) I/9
105. The polarising angle of diamond is 67
0
. The critical angle of diamond is nearest to
a) 22
0
b) 34
0
c) 45
0
d) 60
0

106. A ray of light enters from a rarer medium to a denser medium at an angle of incidence i. The
reflected and refracted rays make an angle of 90
0
with each other. The angles of reflection
and refraction are r and r respectively. The critical angle of denser medium is
a) sin
-1
(tan r)
-1
b) sin
-1
(tan r1)
-1

c) sin
-1
(tan i)
-1
d) tan
-1
(sin i)
107. Two nicol prisms (polariser and analyser) have their axes an angle 30
0
in between. If I is the
intensity of light falling on first nicol,. Then the intensity of emerging light from second nicol
is
a) (1/8) I b) (3/8)I c) (1/4)I d) (1/2)I

157
108. A point source of light is to be suspended above the centre of a circular table of radius R. In
order to produce maximum illumination at the edge of the table, the height of the light source
should be
a) R b) b) 2 R c) R / 2 d) R/2
109. If a star emitting yellow light starts accelerating towards the earth, its colour as seen from
earth will
a) turn gradually red b) turn gradually yellow
c) remain unchanged d) turn gradually blue
110. An astronomical telescope has large aperture to
a) reduce spherical aberration b) have high resolution
c) have low dispersion d) increase the span observation
111. The distance between virtual sources in a biprism of angle and refractive index , if the
source is placed at distance a from it, is
a) 2 (-1) b) (-1) a/2 c) (-1) d) 2(-1) a
112. In Newtons rings the radius of the first dark ring 2 mm. The radius of the third dark ring will
be
a) 3 mm b) 2 mm c) 1.7 mm d) 3.4 mm
113. If Youngs experiment could be performed with the following radiations, which of them will
give bands of minimum width?
a) red light b) radio waves c) violet light d) micro waves
114. Which of the following is inevitable for a Fraunhoffer diffraction experiment?
a) White light source b) a colour filter
c) a telescope d) a convex lens
115. Which of the following can be polarised ?
a) rays b) rays c) rays d) all the three
116. Energies of photon of four different electromagnetic radiations are given below. Which
energy value corresponds to a visible photon ?
a) 1 eV b) 2.5 eV c) 5 eV d) 1000 eV
117. The first crucial experiment if in favour of wave theory was carried out by
a) Huygens b) Foucault c) Newton d) Thomas Young
118. An interference pattern is observed by Youngs double slit experiment. If now the separation
between coherent sources is halved and the distance of screen from coherent sources is
doubled ; the now fringe width
a) becomes double b) becomes one-fourth
c) remains the same d) becomes four times
119. The two slits in Youngs double slit experiment are illuminated by two different parts of same
sodium lamp. Then
a) uniform illumination will be seen
b) interference pattern with dark and bright fringes is observed
c) interference pattern with circular yellow fringes is observed
d) complete darkness will be seen
120. Youngs experiment is performed with while light. The wavelength of red light = 660 nm.
The wavelength of blue light = 440 nm. The minimum order of the red light fringe which
coincides with a blue light fringe is equal to
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

158
121. In Youngs experiment monochromatic light is used to illuminate the slits A and B.
Interference fringes are observed on a screen placed in front of the slits. Now if a thin glass
plate is placed in the path of the beam coming from A, then
a) the fringes will disappear
b) the fringe width will increase
c) there will be no change in the fringe width
d) the fringes will shift
122. The wavelength of light plays no role in
a) interference b) diffraction c) polarisation d) resolving power
123. The critical angle of a certain medium is sin
-1
(3/5). The polarising angle of the medium is
a) sin
-1
(4/5) b) tan
-1
(5/3) c) tan
-1
(3/4) d) tan
-1
(4/3)
124. Double refraction of light is shown by
a) quartz and calcite only b) calcite only
c) calcite and ice only d) calcite, ice and quartz
125. A diffraction grating has 5000 lines/cm. The maximum order visible with wavelength
6000A
0
is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 50
126. If a drop of water is introduced between the glass plate and a convex lens in a Newtons ring
system, the ring system
a) contracts b) expands
c) remains the same d) first expands, then contracts
127. A fly is sitting on the objective of a telescope pointed towards the moon. What effect is
expected in a photograph of the moon taken through the telescope?
a) the entire field of view will be blocked
b) there will be image of the fly on the photograph
c) there will be no effect at all
d) there ill be reduction in the intensity of the image
128. A lens is placed between a source of light and a wall. It forms images of area A
1
and A
2
on
the wall for its two different positions. The area of the source of light is

1
2 1
2
2 1
2 1 2 1
)] A / 1 ( ) A / 1 [( ) d ] 2 / A A [( ) c
2 / ) A A ( ) b A A ) a
+ +
+

129. The diameter of the moon is 3.5 x 10
3
km and its distance from the earth is 3.8 x 10
5
km. It is
seen by a telescope having the focal lengths of the objective and the eye piece 4 m and 10 cm
respectively. The diameter of the image of moon would be approximately
a) 2
0
b) 20
0
c) 40
0
d) 50
0

130. An eye piece consists of two lenses of focal lengths f
1
and f
2
. In order that the combination is
achromatic, the lenses are to be separated by a distance
a) 2f
1
f
2
/f
1
+ f
2
b) 2f
1
f
2
/ f
1
f
2
c) f
1
+ f
2
/2 d) f
1
f
2

131. A person can see clearly up to 3 m. What is the power of the lens he should use so that he can
see upto 12 m ?
a) +0.5 D b) -0.5 D c) +0.25 D d) -0.25 D
132. If the accelerating potential increases to 4 times in an electron microscope, its resolving
power R would change to
a) R/4 b) 4R c) 2R d) R/2
133. Which of the following is true for a quarter wave plate ?

159
a) It is made of glass and produces a phase difference /2
b) It is made of glass and produces a phase difference /4
c) It is made of quartz and produces a phase difference /2
d) It is made of quartz and produces a phase difference /4
134. Which of the following can diffract sound waves from a tuning fork of the frequency 384 Hz?
a) a sphere of diameter 10 m b) a sphere of diameter 1 m
c) a sphere of diameter 1 cm d) a sphere of diameter 1 mm
135. The exposure time of a camera lens at the f/2.8 setting is 1/200 second. The correct time of
exposure at f/5.6 setting is
a) 0.02 sec b) 0.04 sec c) 0.20 sec d) 0.40 sec
SECTION 2: ANSWERS

1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (b) 4 (d) 5 (c)
6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (b)
11 (d) 12 (a) 13 (b) 14 (d) 15 (c)
16 (c) 17 (c) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (a)
21 (d) 22 (b) 23 (d) 24 (a) 25 (d)
26 (a) 27 (b) 28 (d) 29 30 cm 30 12 cm
31 (c) 32 (d) 33 (a) 34 (d) 35 (a),(d)
36 (c),(d) 37 (a) 38 (b) 39 (b) 40 (c)
41 (d) 42 (a) 43 (b),(c),(d) 44 (a) 45 (c)
46 (a) 47 (c) 48 (c) 49 (a) 50 (d)
51 (a),(d) 52 (d) 53 (d) 54 (b) 55 (c)
56 (a) 57 (c) 58 (b) 59 (a) 60 (a)
61 6 62 (b) 63 (d) 64 (b) 65 (b)
66 (d) 67 (c) 68 (a) 69 (c) 70 (d)
71 (d) 72 (a) 73 (b) 74 (c) 75 (d)
76 (b) 77 (a) 78 (a) 79 (c) 80 (c)
81 (a) 82 (a) 83 (c) 84 (d) 85 (d)
86 (b) 87 (b) 88 (a) 89 (c) 90 (a)
91 (b) 92 (d) 93 (d) 94 (d) 95 (d)
96 (b) 97 (a,b,c,d) 98 (d) 99 (c) 100 (d)
101 (b) 102 (a) 103 (a),(c) 104 (a) 105 (a)
106 (c) 107 (b) 108 (c) 109 (d) 110 (b)
111 (d) 112 (d) 113 (c) 114 (d) 115 (c)
116 (b) 117 (b) 118 (d) 119 (a) 120 (a)
121 (d) 122 (c) 123 (b) 124 (d) 125 (b)
126 (a) 127 (d) 128 (a) 129 (b) 130 (c)
131 (d) 132 (c) 133 (c) 134 (b) 135 (a)

160
SECTION 3
SOLUTIONS
1. Use the information supplied in theory notes. The diverging beam is coming from a real
object. Hence the plane mirror forms a virtual image. Virtual images are erect. Ans.c
2. Here we are getting reflected image of the flame. So its distance will be equal to the distance
of the object. Ans.a
3. Use the information supplied in the table in indirect theory notes. Critical angle is minimum
for light which has minimum wave length in the given list. Here it is blue. Ans.b
4. By Snells law of refraction sin i
1
/ sin r
1
= 2. This will give r
1
= 30
o
, as i
1
= 45
o
. Since
r
1
+ r
2
= A = 60
0
, r
2
will also be 30
o
. This gives i
2
= 45
o
. Thus the ray will emerge from the
second face at an angle of 45
o
. So (a), (b),(c) are wrong . Since i
1
= i
2
and r
1
= r
2
, the ray
undergoes minimum deviation. So (d) is correct. Ans. d
5. Use the information supplied in indirect theory notes wave motion part. The frequency of a
wave remains constant. Therefore we eliminate answers (b) and (d). The wavelength
decreases when light passes from rarer to denser medium. Ans.c
6. Use the formula for focal length of combination of two lenses or power. Since parallel beam
emerges as a parallel beam, the focal power of the system should be zero. i.e.

f x f
a
f
1
f
1
F
1
+ = .
F
1
=P=0.a = 2f. Ans.b
7. Use the information supplied in the table given in indirect theory notes in Optics. The focal
length of a lens increases with wavelength. In the given list of electromagnetic radiations,
micro waves have the maximum wave length. Ans.c
8. We use Newtons equation for the relation between distance of an object and real image from
the focus, ab = f
2
. Since ab is equal to a constant, the graph between a and b will be a
rectangular hyperbola. Ans.b
9. The image of an object at a distance of 2f is formed at 2f itself. Hence one end of a rod
should be at 2f. The image of this end at 2f is formed at 2f itself. The other end will be at a
distance 2f-(f/3)=5f/3. The image of this end at a distance 5f/3 is formed at distance v given
by the equation 1/u + 1/v = 1/f, with u = 5f/3. This gives v = 5f/2. The length of the image of
the rod is thus 5f/2-2f = f/2. The length of the rod is f/3.
2
3
3 / f
2 / f
object of Length
image of Length
ion Magnificat = = = . Ans.a
10. Use the formula given for magnification. m= f/u-f. Here m=+2 (real image). This gives u =
1.5 f. Since v/u=2, v= 3f. The distance between object and image for real image = v-u =3f -
1.5 f = 1.5 f. Ans.b
11. Use information supplied in theory notes. Let be the angle between the mirrors. After the
first reflection, the ray is deviated through 180-2i, where i is the angle of incidence. It finds
the second mirror at an angle . So it deviates through 2. ( In direct theory notes) During
third, fourth and fifth reflections it undergoes a deviation of 2 each. The total deviation of
the ray after five reflections is therefore 180-2i+ 8. Since the ray retraces its path, we have
180-2i+8 =180
o
. The angle i=10
0
. This gives = 20
o
. Ans.d

161
12. Using the relation
21=
1
2
, we can rewrite the given quantity as =

41
1
4
3
4
2
3
1
2
x x =
. Ans a
13. If E is the total light energy given by the source per second , the light energy received per
unit area per second of the curved surface of the cylinder = E/2r per unit length. Thus
intensity is proportional to 1/r. Ans.b
14. Refractive index = sin
2
A
sin /
2
) D A ( +
. At minimum deviation, (A+D)/2 = angle of
incidence i. Substituting A= 60
o
, we get sin i/ sin30 = =1.41 or 2. This gives i = 45
o
.
Ans.d
15. Use the information supplied in theory notes. The angle between the mirrors is given by
360-2 = angle of deviation. This gives 360-2 = 240. = 60
o
. Number of images =
(360/)-1 = 5. Ans.c
16. The apparent height of the bird from the surface of water as seen by the fish = refractive index
of water x 3 = (4/3) x 3 = 4. The total distance between the fish and the bird as seen by the
fish is equal to 4+4 = 8 m. Ans c
17. Use the information supplied theory notes . tanC = r/h. (1) To find tan C, sinC = 1/ .
cosC = . / 1
2
. tanC =1/ 1
2
r = h tanC = h/ 1
2
. Ans.c
18. Since plane surface is silvered, when a ray of light is incident it reflects normally on this
surface. So it refracts twice on the spherical surface. Therefore, this is equal to a convex
lens. Use the information in indirect theory notes, which gives the focal length of convex
lens made of two plano-convex lenses is half of that of plano-convex lens. Ans. b
19. Here refraction takes place on the two plane surfaces and reflection the spherical surface. If F
is the focal length of the system, 1/F = (1/f) of mirror + 2(1/f) of lens. Focal length of mirror
is equal to R/2. (1/f) of lens is equal to ( -1)/R. Substituting these values in the above
equation ,we get
R
) 1 ( 2
R
2
F
1
+ =
.
R
2
F
1
= F=
2
R
..Ans.c
20. Light is passing from first medium to second medium goes straight. Hence
1
=
2
. When it
passes from second medium to third medium it diverges. That means the third medium is
denser compared to the second. That is
3
>
2
. Ans.a
21. Using lens makers formula P = ( -1)/R, we have for the first lens P
1
=-(
1
1)/R and P
2

=+(
2
1)/R. (negative sign for concave). The power of the combination P = P
1
+ P
2
=
(
2
-
1
) / R. Focal length of the combination = 1/P = R/(
2
-
1
). Ans.d
22. Momentum of a photon p = h/. Energy E = hc/ = pc. So
p = E/c. Force = change in momentum per second = p-(-p) =
2p = 2E/c. Since energy is falling on unit area, this force
will be equal to pressure. Ans.b
23. Refer to the adjacent fig. Angle of refraction r
1
is got from
the equation sin45/sinr
1
= 2. This gives r
1
= 30
o.
. Angle
between reflected and refracted rays = 180-75= 105
0
. Ans.d
24. There will be three images at equal distance from the object.
They will lie in a circle. Ans.a

162
25. By inverse square law , the intensity of light at a point is proportional to 1/r
2
. The amplitude
(square root of intensity) is proportional to 1/r. The graph will be rectangular hyperbola.
Ans.d
26. The intensity I = P cos/r
2
. Taking logarithm and differentiating, dI/I = -2(dr/r). Here dr/r =
2%. Therefore dI/I = -4%. The minus sign shows intensity increases when r decreases. Ans. a
27. By inverse square law I = P cos/r
2
. Here = 0
o
. So P
A
/2
2
= P
B
/3
2
. P
A
/P
B
= 4/9. Ans.b
28. This is tricky question. The refractive index depends only on the material of the prism and
the colour of light. It does not depend on A and D. You should not be carried off by the
equation = sin
2
A
sin /
2
) D A ( +
. This is only a relation between , A, D. That is you can
calculate , if you know A and D. Ans.d
29. Use the simplified formula for finding d. d = cm 30 ) 90 x 20 x 4 ( 90 fD 4 D
2 2
= = .
.Ans. 30 cm
30. Use the simplified formula connecting focal length f, distance of displacement d and
magnification m. cm 12
1 4
45 x 4
1 m
md
f
2 2
=
= . .Ans.12 cm
31. Use the information supplied in theory notes. . Of the given colours blue has minimum
wavelength and hence will have minimum band width. Ans.c
32. Use the information supplied already in two sections of earlier theory notes The band width
decreases according to the formula = =
water in light of velocity

air in light of velocity
) water (
) air (
) water (
) air (
3
4

(refractive index of water). Ans.d
33. When the beams travel through different media, their path difference can be compared if we
find their equivalent path in air. If a beam travels L
1
in a medium of refractive index
1,
its
equivalent path in air is
1
L
1
. Similarly for the second beam, equivalent path in air is
2
L
2
.
Therefore their path difference is (
1
L
1
-
2
L
2
). Use the information supplied in wave motion
theory notes to convert path difference to phase difference. The corresponding phase
difference is equal to
2
(
1
L
1
-
2
L
2
)= k(
1
L
1
-
2
L
2
). Ans.a
34. Use the information supplied in theory notes in wave motion. The amplitude of wave
transmitted is proportional to the slit width. The maximum amplitude is 3 units and the
minimum amplitude 1 unit. The ratio I
max
/I
min
= A
max
2
/ A
min
2
= 9/1. Ans.d
35. This question is to test whether all the necessary conditions of interference are known to
you. The necessary condition for interference is that the sources should be coherent. That is,
they should emit light of (1)same wavelength, (2) same amplitude and (3) zero or constant
phase difference. (a) violates the first condition while (d) violates the third condition. (Note
that virtual sources can produce interference. For example two virtual coherent sources are
used in Biprism, while one real source and one virtual source is used in Lloyds mirror.)
Ans. a, d.
36. There will be no change in the fringe width because the fringe-width does not depend on width
of slits but depends on the distance between slits. [Theory notes]. Hence (a) and (b) are
wrong. The contrast between bright and dark bands will decrease, bright bands becoming less
bright and dark bands becoming less dark. When the width becomes very large, interference

163
condition will be violated and bands will disappear, uniform illumination will set in .
Ans. c,d
37. We have tan i = . Also = 1/sin C = cosec C. This gives tan i = cosec C. i = tan
-1
(cosec C).
Ans.a
38. The spread of a laser beam is only due to diffraction when it passes through the slit. The
angular spread is equal to the angle of diffraction = /a. If D is the distance to moon, the
linear spread = angular spread x distance = D/a. Ans.b
39. The areal spread = square of linear spread = (D)
2
= (D/a)
2
Ans.b
40. Use the information given in table in indirect theory notes. The refractive index is minimum
for green. Since tan i =, we have i is minimum for green. Ans.c
41. Use the information supplied in theory notes. D
n
2
-D
m
2
(n-m). Hence D
15
2
- D
10
2
= D
20
2
- D
15
2
.
That is y-x = z-y. Ans.d
42. For diffraction the spacing of the grating should be of the order of wave length of light.
Number of lines = 1/ = 1/6.6x10
-7
m = 1.5x10
6
/m. (Note: 10/6.6 = 3/2), which is nearest to
answer a. Ans.a
43. Optic axis is a direction and not a line. So (b) is correct. (c) and (d) are the other two
properties of optic axis. Ans. b,c,d
44. Use the information supplied in theory notes . When is increased, the distance between
virtual sources d increases. The band width = D/d (same as Youngs experiment
)decreases. Ans.a
45. Using the equation tani = , when glass is immersed in water, we have to replace by
gw
,
where
gw
is refractive index of glass with respect to water.
gw
=
g
/
w
, which is less than .
Hence tan i decreases, when immersed in water. Ans.c.
46. Use Rayleighs law of scattering. The intensity of scattered light is proportional to 1/
4
.
Since intensity is proportional to square of amplitude, the amplitude will be proportional to
1/
2
. The ratio of required amplitudes will be A(blue)/A(red) = 600
2
/400
2
= 9/4. Ans.a
47. Use the information supplied in indirect theory notes
2
cos I
I
2
0

= . Here I
o
= 64, I
2
=2.
cos
2
=
16
1
cos =
4
1
. Ans.c
48. Here again use the same theory note as in previous question . When angle of rotation of N
2

changes from 0 to 360
o
, I
2
reaches two maxima ( = 0 and 180) and two minima (when =
90 and 270). Ans.c
49. Laser beam is highly coherent, monochromatic and unidirectional. Hence it can be used to
standardise distance. Ans.a
50. Use the information and formula found in a similar question in this section. The spread of
laser beam is due to diffraction at the aperture . Angle of diffraction =/a. = velocity /
frequency = 3x10
8
/ 3x10
14
= 10
-6
m. This gives = 10
-6
/10
-3
= 10
-3
radian. Ans.d
51. Statements (a),(d) are true for photons. Since photons have zero rest mass, (b) is wrong. They
can produce interference, which we explain due to their wave nature . Hence (c) is not true.
Ans.a,d
52. Let x be the width of the source slit and y the distance between the sources slit and the plane
of the two coherent slits. For a distinct visibility of interference fringes, the condition to be
satisfied is x/y < /d. So if x is increased or y is decreased, visibility will be poor. Ans.d

164
53. The percentage of light reflected from A is 25% = 0.25. If a is the amplitude of the incident
light, the amplitude reflected at AB = 25 0. a= 0.5a = (1/2)a Intensity reflected from C =
0.25 of 0.75I. Light transmitted at A = 0.75x0.25x0.75 of the total I. The amplitude of AB
= 75 . 0 x 25 . 0 x 75 . 0 a = 0.375a = (3/8)a. Thus the amplitude of two components are AB and
AB are (1/2)a and (3/8)a. I
max
/I
min
= [(1/2)a+(3/8)a]
2
/ [(1/2)a-(3/8)a]
2
= 49/1. Ans.d
54. The equation for diffraction grating sin= Nn, where n is the order, N no. of lines /m of
grating and the wavelength of light used. When decreases, also decreases. Hence
A,B,C move towards O. However there will be no change in O because it is centre of image
i.e. direct and not diffracted . Ans.b
55. When the width of slits become comparable with the wavelength of light used, two slit
diffraction pattern results. The diffraction bands are of unequal width. Hence we shall see
small number of unequally spaced bands. Ans.c
56. The condition for a film to appear dark by reflection is 2t cosr = n. For minimum
thickness n = 1, for normal vision r = 0, for air = 1. This reduces the above equation to 2t =
. The film will appear blue if red is missing . So here we substitute the value of for red=
6000A
o
=6x10
-7
m. This gives t=3x10
-7
m..Ans.a
57. All the objects from the convex mirror to infinity are brought to focus between the pole and
the focus of the mirror. Hence large span can be covered. Also the image is erect (This is the
reason for using convex mirror as rear view mirror in a motor car). Ans.c
58. The angle of the deviation is the angle between incident ray and reflected ray. Producing the
incident ray we find it is 180-2i here. Ans.b
59. A beam of light converging to a reflecting or a refracting surface is coming from a virtual
object. The image of a virtual object formed by a plane mirror is real. Also plane mirror
images are erect. Ans.a
60. Ans.a
61. No of images between two adjacent perpendicular mirror = (360/90)-1 = 3. We have here
three pairs of perpendicular mirrors. The number of images seen will be 9. Three of them
will be common. Thus the number of images will be 9-3 = 6.
62. The glass slab produces an extra path difference of (-1)t, where is a refractive index, t
thickness of the slab. This increased path moves the converging point farther. Ans.b
63. Refractive index = actual depth / apparent depth. Thus apparent depth is proportional to
1/. The letter is raised maximum, when apparent depth is minimum. That is should be
maximum. For the given colours it happens for blue. Ans.d
64. sin i/sin r = . Here i = 2r. That is sin 2r/sin r = .. 2 sinr cosr/sin r = . This gives cos r =
/2. r = cos
-1
( /2). i = 2r =2cos
-1
(/2). Ans.b
65. Speed of light in the medium = speed of light in air / i.e. 3 x 10
8
/ 1.5 = 2x 10
8
m/s
(Frequency of light is not necessary here) Ans.b
66. When the mirror rotates through an angle , the reflected ray rotates through an angle 2. The
angle turned by the reflected ray in one second = 2 x 2n = 4n rad/s. The linear velocity
of the spot of light will be equal to v = R = 4nR m/s. Ans.d
67. According to the inverse square law, the intensity will be inversely proportional to the square
of the distance from the source. When the distance is doubled, the intensity becomes one-
fourth. The deflection is proportional to the intensity and hence will be 2 divisions. Ans.c

165
68. The maximum angle for which an emergent ray is possible is 2C. This can be shown as
follows: Angle of prism A
max
= (r
1
)
max
+ (r
2
)
max
. The maximum values of i
1
and i
2
will be 90
0

each, Hence the maximum values of r
1
and r
2
each will be equal to C. A
max
= 2C. If the angle
of the prism increases beyound 2C, the ray will totally reflect from the second face. You can
also answer this question from theory notes shortcuts. Ans.a
69. If
1
and
2
are the refractive indices of the two prisms the conducrion for non deviation is
(
1
1) A
1
= (
2
-1) A
2
, where we have used the formula for deviation of small angle prisms,
d = ( -1) A. Here A
1
= 4
0
,
1
= 1.54,
2
= 1.72 we get A
2
= 3
0
. Ans. c
70. Using the formula for magnification in terms of object distance u, m = f/ (u-f). Here u = xf.
Therefore m = f/(xf-f). i.e. m = -f/[xf-(-f) ] = -1/(x+1), applying signs. The negative sng in
magnification shows that the image is virtual. Ans.d
71. The speed of light is inversely proportional to the refractive index. Blue has the maximum
refractive index in the given set and hence has the minimum velocity. This question can be
answered from the theory notes table. Ans.d
72. This is displacement method. If D is the distance between the object and the screen, d the
separation of the two positions of the lens throwing two images on the screen, then m
1
=
(D+d)/(D-d), and m
2
= (D-d) / (D+d), m
1
m
2
= d/f, f = d/(m
1
m
2
). This also can be
answered from the indirect theory notes. Ans.a
73. f = d/(m
1
-m
2
). Here if m
1
is taken as m, m
2
= 1/m. Then f becomes md/ (m
2
-1). Ans.b
74. The molecules of the earths atmosphere refract the sunlight so that the sun is visible before
sunrise and after sunset. Thus presence of atmosphere makes the day longer. In the absence
of atmosphere, sunlight can been seen only after sunrise and before sunset. The day will be
shorter. Ans.c
75. The linear magnification of an object is magnification when the object is placed parallel to the
principal axis. This is given by dv/du. Differentiating mirror formula 1/u+ 1/v = 1/f,
2
2
2
2 2
f u
f
u
v
du
dv
0
v
dv
u
du
(
= = = . =
object of Length
image of Length
2
f u
f
(
. This gives the

length of the image as b
2
f u
f
(
.This formula is given in indirect theory notes. Ans.d

76. The power of the combination P = P
1
+ P
2
dP
1
P
2
, where d is their separation. When they are
brought into contact, d = 0 and hence P increases. Ans.b
77. Let x be the actual depth of air bubble. When viewed from one face = x/5. When viewed
from the opposite face = (12-x)/3. This gives x = 7.5 and = 1.5. Ans.a
78. If S is the power of the source, angle of incidence, intensity of illumination is P =
Scos/r
2
. In the first case ( = 0) P = S cos/1
2
and in the second case power P
1
=
Scos45
0
/(2)
2
. This gives P
1
= P/22 = 0.35 P. Ans.a
79. The speed of light and hence wavelength of light in water is less than that in air . (water ) =
(air) / . Taking = 4/3, we find wavelength of green (nearly 540 nm,) could reduce to 540
x 3/4 = that of nearly violet. (Note: This question can be answered even without the above
calculation, because the only wavelength less than of green given here is violet.) Ans.c
80. Differentiating lens formula 1/u + 1/v = 1/f, with respect to time we get, dv/dt = (v
2
/u
2
) du/dt.
Since v/u = m, magnification and object speed du/dt is constant, dv/dt is proportional to m
2
.
When the object approaches from infinity to focus the image is real and hence m is positive,
dv/dt is negative i.e. it decreases. When the object is at the focus the image moves to infinity

166
on the other side and hence is virtual m is ve and dv/dt is positve. Hence dv/dt first decreases
and then increases. Ans.c
81. There will be no change in focal length. However, reduction of diameter to half reduces the
area covered to 1/4 and hence intensity reduces to 1/4. Ans.a
82. Power of the combination of two lenses separated by a distanc d is 1/f = p = (1/f
1
) + (1/f
2
)-d/f
1

f
2
). When p = 0, we have (1/f
1
) +(1/f
2
) = (d/f
1
f
2
.) This gives d = f
1
+ f
2
. Ans.a
83. The red filter allows only red light from the white background. The blue cross will appear
dark under red light. Hence one sees black cross under red back ground. Ans.c
84. Here D = 180 2A. = sin [(A+D) / 2 ] / sin [A/2] becomes cot (A/2). Ans.d
85. sini
1
/ sinr
1
= 1.5, i
1
= 30
0
. Hence r
1
< 30
0
. r
2
= 90-r
1
should be greater than 60
0
. Thus the ray
is incident in the second face at an angle greater than critical angle which is nearly 42
0
for a
prism of = 1.5. It will totally reflect from the second face. Ans.d
86. Here i
1
= 60
0
, d = 30
0
. i
1
+ i
2
= A+d. With A = 30
0
, we get i
2
= 0. Hence r
2
= 0. r
1
+ r
2
= A.
This gives r
1
= 30
0
. = sin
1
/ sinr
2
= sin 60/sin 30 = 3. Ans.b
87. Here r
2
= critical angle C. Since = 1/sin C = 2, C = 45
0
r
1
+r
2
= 75
0
. Thus r
1
= 30
0
. Using
sini
1
/ sin r
1
=2, we get i
1
= 45
0
. Ans.b
88. All radiation pass normally the face AB and is incident on the face AC at an angle 45
0
.
1/sinC = . Also 1/sin 45 = 2 = 1.41. for red = 1.39, hence C is greater than 45
0
.Thus red
will refract. But for the other two colours, > 1.41, hence C is less than 45
0
. Thus they will
totally reflect from the face AC. So the prism will separate red from the other two colours.
Ans.a
89. The relation between critical angle C and refractive index is = 1/sin C. When a prism is
immersed in water, the refractive index of the prism with respect to water
w
g
gw
=

is
less than that of water or glass. Hence the critical angle will be more than that of water and
glass. (Claculation of critical angle is not necessary here, but it can be shown to be 62
0
).
Ans.c
90. This is given in indirect theory notes. An underwater swimmer sees the setting sun at an angle
with vertical equal to critical angle of water 49
0
The angle with the horizontal will be 90
0

49
0
= 41
0
. Ans.a
91. A lens may be convex or concave depending on where we are looking from. The usual
convention is to look from the rarer medium. An air bubble inside water will act as a concave
lens when we look from inside air, which rarer medium here...Ans. b
92. It is clear that one image is real and the other image virtual. Using the equation for
magnification in terms of object distance f/u f, we have, f/(20-f) = -f/(15-f), which gives f =
17.5 cm. Ans.d
93. An achromatic combination of lenses should be made from one concave and one convex lens,
with the convex lens having a greater focal power (or shorter length). This is to make the rays
forming the final image to converge. These two conditions are satisfied only for the
combination given as d, where focal powers are +5D and 4.5 D. Ans.d
94. Since the parallel beam incident leaves as such, the system here acts as a plane glass i.e.
power P = 0. Refer to the solution of question (26) the distance between the lenses should
be d = f
1
+ f
2
. Here f
1
= 20 cm and f
2
= -5 cm. Therefore d = 15 cm. Ans.d

167
95. The given combination has focal length 30 cm, using the combination formula (1/f
1
) + (1/f
2
)
= 1/F. Hence light falling on the system will produce divergence of the rays. Since violet has
more deviation that red, violet will appear to then outer edge. Ans.d
96. The diffraction minimum appears for a path difference equal to n ( a sin = n). A path
difference of = a phase difference of 2 radian. Hence the minimum appears for phase
difference 2 , 4, 6 etc. Ans.b
97. The distance between objective and eye-piece is f
0
+ f
e
= 16 + 0.02 = 16.02 m (a is correct).
Since the final image is virtual the magnificatrion is negative and equal to f
0
/f
e
= -800 (b is
correct). An astronomical telescope produces inverted image and hence (c) is correct. The
objective is larger than the eye-piece in aperture, (d) is correct. Ans.a,b,c,d
98. The width of a fings =
d
D
, where D is the distance between the source and the
microscope. d separation of slits and wavelength of light. Angular width of the fringe /D
= /d = 400 x 10
-9
/1 x 10
-3
. = 4 x 10
-4
rad = 0.0004 rad. Ans.d
99. The speed of light inwater is less, and hence the wavelength of light in water is less than that
in air. From the equation = D/d, we understand will decrease, other values remaining
the same. Ans.c
100. Here the amplitude of the waves producing interference is not the same. If the amplitude of a
wave coming from the full slit is a that coming from the other is only a/ 2 . The maximum
amplitude is less than 2a. Hence bright fringes will be less bright. The minimum amplitude
is not zero. Hence dark fringes will not be perfectly dark. Ans.d
101. I (maximum )/I(minimum) = [a
1
+ a
2
/ a
1
a
2
]
2
where a
1
, a
2
are amplitude of the two waves.
Here (a
1
+ a
2
)
2
= 1. Thus a
1
+ a
2
= 3, a
1
a
2
= 1. The amplitudes a
1
and a
2
are 2 and 1 unit
respectively. The intensity of the two waves will be 4 and 1 unit respectively. It should be
noticed that intensity cannot be subtracted, as it is a scalar quantity. Amplitude is a vector
quantity. This can also be answered using intensity formula given in indirect theory notes.
Ans.b
102. Because the central fringe is white, the source is white light. The band width is proportional
to wave length . The band width is smaller for shorter wavelength. Violet has the shortest
wavelength in the visible region. Hence violet fringe will be seen next white. Ans.a
103. When the waves from the two slits reach a point directly in
front of a slit as shown in fig. distance travelled by one
wave is d and the other
2 2
b d + . Since b << d, the path
difference between the two waves = (d
2
+ b
2
)
1/2
d =
2 / 1
2
2
d
b
1 d
(
(
+ =
d 2
b
2
, where we have used (1+x)
1/2
= 1+
(x/2) when x < < 1. If this path difference is equal to an
odd multiple of /2, the point will be dark. Thus b
2
/2d =
/2 or 3/2, gives two missing wavelengths as b
2
/d and b
2
/3d. Ans.a & c
104. Intensity of a point is proportional to cos
2
(/2), where is the phase difference. If I is the
maximum intensity ( = 0) the intensity at any apoint where the phase difference is , is
Icos
2
(/2). For a path difference of /4, phase difference is /2 i.e. = /2. Here /2 = /4.
Intensity at the point is I cos
2
/4 = I cos
2
45
0
= I/2. Ans.a

168
105. If i is the polarising angle, = tani (Brewesters law). = tan 67
0
is greater than 2
(remembering tan 60 = 3). We also know 1/sinC = . sin C = 1/, where C is the critical
angle. SinC is less than 0.5. Hence c is less than 30
0
. The only possible answer is 22
0
.
Ans.a
106. Clearly r + r = 90
0
, r = (90-r) the angle of reflection r = i. Refractive index = sin i/sinr =
sin i / sin (90-r) = sin i/ cos r = sin i / cos i =- tan i. Thus 1/ sinC = tan i. SinC = (tan i)
-1
.
C = sin
-1
(tan i)
-1
. You can also start with Bewsters law and write tani = 1/ sinC. Ans.c
107. Using theory note short-cut formula for intensity of transmitted light by the nicol prism, I
2
=
8
I 3
2
cos I
2
=
. Ans.b
108. Let h be the height at which the lamp is suspended. Intensity of illumination at 0
1
=
Pcos/(R
2
+h
2
) = Ph(R
2
+h
2
)
3/2
since cos = h /(R+h)
1/2.
. The intensity of illumination I at 0
1

is minimum if dI/dh = 0.. Differentiating as a product
with (P constant) and equating to 0, we get h = R/ 2 .
Ans.c
109. As the star accelerates towards the earth, its velocity will
increase. By Doppler effect in light, a source
approaching an observer shows violet shift. So the
colour of the star will shift towards the shorter
wavelength region, that is blue. Ans.d
110. The limit of resolution of a telescope of aperture
diameter a for light of wavelength is d =
a
22 . 1
,
where d is the smallest angle at which two objects appear distinct, that is, they just resolve.
Larger the aperture smaller will be d. This will increase resolution. Ans.b
111. In a biprism, the distance between sources is due to deviation produced by two small angled
prisms. The deviation produced by each prism is (-1). The total deviation is 2(-1).
Linear separation of sources since the beam travels a distance a is 2(-1)a. Ans.d
112. The radius of dark ring in Newtons rings is proportional to the square root of natural numbers
i.e. r
n
n. Hence the ratio of the diameter of the first ring to that of the third ring will be
1;3. Thus the diameter of the third ring would be 2x3 = 2x1.73 = 3.46 mm. Ans.d
113. This question probes into two theory aspects. 1. Whether you know the equation for band
width = D/d and (2) whether you know which of the given electro-magnetic radiations has
shortest wavelength. Since is proportional to , is minimum for violet light in the given
set. Ans.c
114. We can always perform a diffraction experiement with any source of light and hence (a) and
(b) are not inevitable. Even if the telescope is absent, we can use a screen. But for
Fraunhoffer diffraction either the source or screen should be at infinity. Hence we have to use
a convex lens at some stage. Ans.d
115. Only transverse waves can be polarised. The only transverse wave , motion in the given list is
rays, which are electro-magnetic radiations of extremely short wavelength. Ans. c
116. Taking wavelength of visible light roughly as 500 nm and using the formula E = hc/ = 6.63 x
10
-34
x 3 x 10
8
/500 x 10
-9
x 1.6 x 10
-19
we get the answer as nearly 2.5 eV Or better use short-

169
cut formula given in indirect theory notes to relate energy and wavelength, E = 12345/.
Ans.b
117. According to wave theory of light, light travels fastest in air and slower in denser media.
Focaults experiment to find speed of light showed that light travelled slower in denser media.
This is the experimental conformation of wave theory. Ans.b
118. Band width = D/d. When d is reduced to half, D is increased to 2 times; band width
becomes 2 x 2 = 4 times. Ans.d
119. Different parts of the same source will not be coherent because it violates the most important
requirement of constant phase difference between interfering beams. Hence, no interference
will be seen, only uniform illumination will be seen. Ans.a
120. Since band width is proportional to let nth order red fringe be formed at (n+1) the order
blue fringe. Then their distances from the centre should be equal, i.e. (n+1) 440 = n x 660.
This gives n = 2. Ans.a
121. When a glass plate of thickness t and refractive index is introduced in the path of one of
interfering beams, there will be an extra path difference (-1)t. Due to this n fringes will shift
the cross wire such that (-1)t = n. There will be no change in , i.e. fringe width. Ans.d
122. The maximum and minimum of interference condition involves . Hence (a) ands (b) are not
correct. Resolving power is a/1.22 . Hence (d) is not correct. In polarisation light attains
one-sidedness. No wavelength is involved here. Ans.c
123. Given Sin C = 3/5. Hence = 5/3. If i is the polarising angle tan i = . i = tan
-1
() =
tan
-1
(5/3). Ans.b
124. The property of double refraction on is shown by quartz, calcite and ice ( to a small degree)
also. Ans.d
125. The relation among angle of diffraction, order n and no.of lines per cm of the grating N is
sin = Nn. The maximum value of sin = 1. Hence maximum value for n = 1/N. =
6000 x 10
-8
cm, N = 5000 lines/cm we get n = 3.33. The order of spectrum is an integer.
Thus we cannot see the fourth order of this line, but can see the third order. Ans.b
126. The diameter of nth dark ring in Newtons rings is given by d
n
= / nR 4 . Thus d
n
is
inversely proportional to . When a liquid is introduced the diameter of the ring decreases.
The system contracts. Ans.a
127. Ans.d
128. If A is area of the object, A
1
, A
2
area of images, then using formula for displacement method,
magnification m
1
= A
1
/A. Magnification m
2
= A
2
/A. Since m
1
m
2
= 1 (A
1
/A) x (A
2
/A) = 1,
A
1
A
2
= A
2
, which gives A =
2 1
A A . Ans.a
129. (Note: Rough calculation can lead to correct answer) Angle substended by moon = d/D =
(3.5 x 10
3
)/(3.8 x 10
5
) = 1/100 radian. Angular magnification / = f
0
/f
e
= 400/10 = 40. =
40 = 40/100 radian. Taking radian as 57
0
, we get 0.4 = 22
0
. Ans.b
130. It can be shown that chromatic aberration is minimum when distance between the lenses = f
1

+ f
2
/2. Ans.c
131. Since person can see upto 3 m, the images of all objects should be formed within 3m. When
u = 12 m, v has to be 3m. Using the formula (1/u)+ (1/v = 1/f, we have f = -4m. Power P =
1/f = -0.25 D. Ans.d

170
132. Resolving power R = a/1.22. That is R 1/ de-Broglie wave length of electron =
V / 150 A
0
. Thus we find resolving power is proportional to V. When accelerating
potential is increased to 4 times, R increases to 4 = 2. Ans.c
133. A quarter wave plate is made of a doubly refracting crystal like quartz or calcite, and produces
a path difference of /4 or a phase difference of /2 between ordinary and extra ordinary rays.
Ans.c
134. For diffraction wave length should be of the order of dimension of the object, which diffracts
it. Here = v/f = 330/384 = nearly 1 m, where we have assumed velocity of sound in air as
roughly 330 m/s. Ans.b
135. What is given in the question is f-no of a camera lens. It is the ratio of focal length of the lens
to diameter of the aperture. Here f no. changes from f/2.8 to f/5.6. This means diameter of
the aperture increases to twice. The area of aperture increases to four times. Intensity of light
(light energy received per unit area in one sec) reduces to one fourth, assuming we are using
the same source. Hence to get the same intensity of light, the exposure time has to be
increased to four times i.e. (1/200) x 4 = 1/50 second = 0.02 second. Ans.a

MODERN PHYSICS

SECTION1
QUESTIONS

1. The binding energy per nucleon of 0
16
is 7.97 MeV and that of 0
17
is 7.75 MeV. The energy,
in MeV, required to remove a neutron from 0
17
is
a) 3.52 b) 3.64 c) 4.23 d) 7.86
2. An energy of 24.6 eV is required to remove one of the electrons from a neutral helium atom.
The energy (in eV) required to remove both the electrons from a helium atom is
a) 79.0 b) 51.8 c) 49.2 d) 38.2
3. A photolectric cell is illuminated by a small bright source placed at 1 m. If the same light
source is placed two metres away, the electrons emitted by the cathode
a) each carries one quarter of its previous energy
b) each carries one quarter of its previous momentum
c) are half the previous number
d) are one quarter of the previous number
4. *The threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission from a material is 5200 A
0
.
Photoelectrons will be emitted when this material is illuminated with monochromatic
radiation from a
a) 50 W infrared lamp b) 1 W infrared lamp
c) 50 W ultraviolet lamp d) 1W ultraviolet lamp
5. The kinetic energies of the electron in the hydrogen atom in its first, second and third orbits
are in the ratio
a) 1:1/4:1/9 b) 1:1/2:1/3 c) 1:2:3 d) 1:4:9
6. A star initially has 10
40
deuterons. It produces energy via the process of nuclear fusion where
hydrogen is converted into helium. The average energy released during this reaction is 26
MeV. If the average power radiated by the star is 10
16
W. The deutron supply of the star is
exhausted in a time of the order of
a) 10
6
s b) 10
8
s c) 10
12
s d) 10
16
s
7. If elements of quantum no. greater than four were not possible in nature, the number of
possible elements would have been
a) 60 b) 32 c) 4 d) 64
8. The ratio of wavelength of first line of Lyman series to first line of Balmer series is
a) 1:4 b) 5:27 c) 27:20 d) 20:27
7

172
9. Shining light of wavelength and intensity I on a surface S produces photoelectrons at rate R
and with maximum kinetic energy E. Consider the following statements for the effect of
changing one parameter at a time
1) doubling I always doubles R
2) doubling I does not change E at all
3) making half always makes E more than two-fold
The statements true are
a) 1 & 2 only b) 2 & 3 only c) 1 & 3 only d) all the three
10. *When a monochromatic point source of light is at a distance of 0.2 m from a photoelectric
cell, the cut-off voltage and the saturation current are respectively 0.6 volt and 18.0 mA. If
the same source is placed 0.6 m away from the photoelectric cell, then
a) the stopping potential will be 0.2 volt
b) the saturation potential will be 0.6 volt
c) the saturation current will be 6.0 mA
d) the saturation current will be 2.0 mA
11. The decay constant of a radioactive sample is . The half-life and meanlife of the sample are
respectively given by
a) 1/ and In 2/ b) (ln 2)/ and 1/
c) (In 2) and 1/ d) /(in 2) and 1/
12. The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is increased. As a result, in the emitted
radiation
a) the intensity increases b) the minimum wave length increases
c) the intensity remains unchanged d) the minimum wavelength decreases
13. An X-ray photon has a wavelength 0.01 A
0
. Its momentum (in kg ms
-1
) is
a) 6.6 x 10
-32
b) 6.6 x 10
-32
c) 0 d) 3.3 x 10
-32

14. Molydenum is good target for an X-ray tube because of its
a) heaviness b) high melting point
c) high thermal conductivity d) availability in pure form
15. Which of the following need not be necessarily obeyed in a nuclear reaction?
a) Conservation of charge b) Conservation of mass + energy
c) Conservation of mass d) Conservation of momentum
16. A freshly prepared radiactive source of half life 2 h emits radiation of intensity which is 64
times the permissible safe level. The minimum time after which it would be possible to work
safetly with this source is
a) 6 h b) 12 h c) 24 h d) 64 h
17. Photolectric effect supports quantum nature of light because
a) There is a minimum frequency of light below which no photoelectrons are emitted
b) The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends only on the frequency of light
and not on its intensity
c) Even when the metal surface is faintly illuminated, the photoelectrons leave the surface
immediately
d) Electric charge of the photoelectrons is quantized
18. When a hydrogen atom is raised from the ground state to an excited state,
a) both kinetic energy and potential energy decrease
b) potential energy increases and kinetic energy decreases
c) potential energy decreases and kinetic energy increases
d) both kinetic energy and potential energy increase

173
19. An electron makes a transition from orbit n = 4 to the orbit n = 2 of a hydrogen atom. The
wave number of the emitted radiation (R = Rydergs constant) will be
a) 4R/16 b) 5R/16 c) 2R/16 d) 3R/16
20. What is the respective number of and particles emitted in the radio active decay given by
Y X
108
90
100
90

a) 8 and 6 b) 6 and 6 c) 8 and 8 d) 6 and 8
21. If we consider electrons and photons of the same wavelength, they they have the same
a) momentum b) velocity
c) angular momentum d) energy
22. An electron of mass m, when accelerated through a potential difference V, has de Broglie
wavelength . The de Broglie wavelengths associated with a proton of mass M, acelerated
through the same potential difference, will be
a) M/m b) m/M c) m / M d) M / m
23. If the speed of light were half of its present value,
a) the nuclear force between a proton and proton would be one half of its present value.
b) the binding energy of a nucleus would be come (1/4) the present value.
c) the binding energy of a nucleus would be become (1/2) of its present value.
d) the energy released in nuclear fission would become (1/4)the the present value.
24. The binding energies per nucleon for a deuteron and an particle are x
1
and x
2
respectively.
What be the energy Q released in the reaction Q He H H
4
2
2
1
2
1
+ +
a) 4(x
1
-x
2
) b) 2 (x
2
x
1
) c) 4 (x
1
+ x
2
) d) (2x
1
+x
2
)
25. The distance between the body entered atom and a corner atom in sodium ( a = 4.225 A
0
) is
a) 3.17 A
0
b) 2.54 A
0
c) 3.66 A
0
d) 2.99 A
0

26. The adjacent figure represents the observed intensity of X-
rays emitted by an X-ray tube as a function of wavelength.
The sharp peaks A and B denote
a) continuous spectrum
b) band specturm
c) white radiations
d) characteristic radiations
27. The equation 4 26 e 2 He H
4
2
1
1
+ +
+ + +
MeV represents
a) decay b) decay
c) fusion d) fission
28. If the total energy of a particle is exactly twice its rest energy, then its speed in terms of the
speed of light c is
a) c b) c/2 c) 3c/4 d) (3/2)c
29. A rectangle moves with a speed of 0.999 c, parallel to one of its sides. To an observer it
appears as
a) rectangle b) square c) a point d) a straight line
30. Two space ships A and B move with velocities 0.9 c and 0.8 c respectively in the opposite
direction. The velocity of A as measured by an observer in B is
a) 1.7 c b) 1.7 c/1.72 c) 0.1 c d) c
31. The life time of a nuclear particle is 10
-23
s. The uncertainty in its energy is nearest to
a) 10
-11
J b) 10
3
J c) 10
-4
J d) 10
-67
J

174
32. An electromagnetic pulse of energy 3 x 10
-2
J when incident on a perfectly reflecting mirror
produces an impulse of
a) 3 x 10
-10
kgms
-1
b) 2 x 10
-10
kgms
-1

c) 56 x 10
-10
kgms
-1
d) 10
-10
kgms
-1

33. Which of the following is most unstable ?
a) proton b) electron c) neutron d) particle
34. If
0
stands for mid-wavelength in the visible region, the de Broglies wavelength for 100 V
electrons is nearest to
a)
0
/ 5 b)
0
/50 c)
0
/500 d)
0
/5000
35. The converse of photo-electric effect is
a) production of cathode rays b) production of X-rays
c) production of positive rays d) all the three
36. Which of the following property is not true for nuclear force ?
a) They depend on the charges.
b) They are attrtactive.
c) They depend on spin of neucleons
d) They are repulsive.
37. The angular momentum of electron in the hydrogen atom at ground state is
a) 2h b) h/2 c) h/2 d) h/4
38. If the temperature of a tungsten filament is doubled, the current density becomes nearly
a) 4 times b) 2 times c) 22 times d) 42 times
39. According to Bohrs theory the radius of electron in an orbit having by principal quantum
number n and the atom having atomic number Z is proportional to
a) Z
2
n
2
b) (n
2
/Z) c) (Z
2
/n
2
) d) Z
2
/n
40. Of the following the one which can penetrate through 20 cm thick steel plate is
a) -rays b) -rays c) -rays d) positive rays
41. A triode having r
p
= 25 k is used as an oscillator with a load of 50 k. If gain is 20,
amplification factor is
a) 25 b) 30 c) 50 d) 75
42. The current in a diode is relatred to the voltage V by the equation
a) 1 V b) I V
2
c) I V
3/2
d) I V
1/2
43. In a half wave rectifier rms value of the a.c. compoment is
a) equal to d.c. value b) more than d.c. value
c) less than d.c. value d) zero
44. The collector current varies by 0.9 mA and the emitter current by 1 mA in a transistor. The
of the transistor is
a) 0.9 b) 1.1 c) 10 d) 9
45. A transistor is operated in the
a) saturation region b) cut off region
c) active region d) all regions
46. The phase difference between input and output of an amplifier is
a) 0
0
b) 90
0
c) 360
0
d) 180
0

47. A power amplifier
a) increases power of a signal b) increases voltage of a signal
c) converts a.c. power to d.c. power d) converts d.c. power to a.c. power

175
48. A modulator is used for
a) creating a signal wave b) splitting carrier and signal
c) increasing carrier power d) superposing carrier and signal
49. The decibel gain of an amplifier is 30. Its stage gain is
a) 3
3
b) 100 c) 1000 d) 2
3

50. of a transistor is 100, its input resistance is 10 and output resistance is 100 . Power gain
of the resistor is (under CE configuration)
a) 10000 b) 10000 c) 10
5
d) 10
6

51. A constant d.c. voltage is required from a variable surface a.c. voltage. Which of the
following is the correct order of operation that is required for obtaining the same?
a) Rectifier, regulator, filter b) Rectifier, filter, regulator
c) Regulator, rectifier, filter d) Regulator, filter, rectifier
52. An important use of a zener diode as a
a) regulator b) rectifier c) oscillator d) detector
53. The following truth table is for which gate ?
a) NOR b) NAND
c) OR d)) AND
54. *In an n-p-n transistor circuit, the collector
current is 10 mA. If 90% of
the electrons emitted reach the collector
a) the emittor current will be 9 mA
b) the emitter current will be 11 mA
c) the base current will be 1 mA
d) the base current will be 1 mA
55. The probability of electrons to be found in the conduction band of an intrinsic semiconductor
at a finite temperature
a) decreases ecponentially with increasing band gap
b) increase eccponentially with increasing band gap
c) decreases with increasing temperature
d) is independent of the temperature and the band gap
56. One astronomical unit is
a) 1.5 x 10
8
km b) 1.5 x 10
11
km c) 9 x 10
12
km d) 2.7 x 10
12
km
57. Colour of star depends on its
a) surface temperature b) mass
c) size d) gravity
58. The term albedo of a planet means
a) reflecting power b) force of gravity
c) ratio of mass to mass of sun d) absorptive power
59. The impurity atoms with which pure silicon should be doped to make a p-type semiconductor
are those of
a) phosphorus b) boron c) antimony d) aluminium
60. A source of power W emitting light of wavelength is used for producing photoelectrons. If
the efficiency of the source to produce photo electrons is one in thousand, then the number of
photoelectrons emitted when light from the source falls on the photo electric cell will be

W
hc 1000
) d
hc
W 1000
) c
1000
Whc
) b
hc 1000
W
) a
A B X
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0

176
61. X rays are incident on a surface. They do not transfer to the surface
a) energy b) momentum c) impulse d) force
62. One of the following particles is not relevant to the forces in nature. Which one would be
that?
a) photon b) proton c) meson d) graviton
63. If X is the circumference of nth Bohr orbit and de-Broglie wavelength of electron in that
orbit, then X is equal to
a) 0.53 n b) n c) 13.6 d) n
64. If
d
is the de Broglie wavelength of electron in the nth Bohr orbit of radius r
n,
, then they are
related by
a)
d
r
n
b)
d
r
n
2

c)
d
r
n
d) independent on r
n

65. A photo electric emitter has a threshold frequency f
o
. When light of frequency 2f
o
is
incident, the speed of photoelectrons is v. When light of frequency 5f
o
is incident, the speed
of photo electrons will be
a) 4v b) 2v c) 2.5v d) (2.5) v.
66. The ratio highest possible wavelength to lowest possible wavelength of Lyman series is
a) 4/3 b) 9/8 c) 27/5 d) 16/5
67. A ray interacts with matter producing an electron positron pair. The minimum energy ray
should have for this to happen is (in MeV)
a) 0.5 b) 1 c) 2 d) 931
68. An electron has an a total energy equal to 3 times its rest energy. Its kinetic energy is equal to
(in MeV)
a) 0.5 b) 1 c) 2 d) 9
69. A free electron cannot exist inside a nucleus. This can be explained by its
a) negative charge b) small mass c) wave nature d) particle nature
70. What is the maximum wavelength of radiation which will ionise hydrogen atom at the ground
state?( in A
0
)
a) 1200 b) 3646 c) 472 d) 914
71. * An X-ray tube is operating at 50 kV and 20 mA. The target material of the tube has a mass
of 1 kg and a specific heat of 495 J/kg
0
C. One percent of the supplied electric power is
converted into X-rays and the rest is used in heating the target. Then,
a) a suitable target material should have a high melting temperature.
b) a suitable target material should have a low thermal conductivity.
c) the average rise of temperature of the target would be 2
0
C/s
d) the minimum wavelength of X-rays emitted would be about 0.24x10
-10
m.
72. A radioactive material decays by simultaneous emission of two particles with half lives 1620
and 810 years. The time (in years) after which one fourth of the material remains is
a) 1080 b) 2430 c) 3240 d) 4860
73. The radius of a proton is 1.2 f. The radius of aluminum nucleus is ( in f)
a) 2.4 b) 4.8 c) 3.6 d) 1.2x(14)
1/3

74. At superconducting stage a substance behaves as a
a) para magnet b) ferro magnet
c) dia magnet d) non-magnetic material
75. The ratio of frequency of electron in the second Bohr orbit to that in the third Bohr orbit is
a) 2/3 b) 4/9 c) 27/8 d) 8/27

177
76. A photon does not have
a) rest mass b) energy c) momentum d) angular momentum
77. If we consider X-ray photon, -ray photon, visible photon, the mass of these photons in
decreasing order will be
a) -ray, visible, X-ray b) -ray, X-ray, visible
c) visible, -ray, X-ray d) visible, X-ray, -ray
78. An electron and a proton have same the de Brogle wave length. Then
a) both have same kinetic energy
b) electron has less kinetic energy
c) electron has greater kinetic energy
d) the kinetic energy will be in the ratio of 1:23
79. The ratio of kinetic energy of electron to rest energy, when it has 20 MeV energy is
a) 20/1 b) 19/1 c) 9/1 d) 39/1
80. The ratio of rest mass energy of electron to an X-ray photon on wave length 1.2 A
0
is
a) 5 b) 50 c) 5x10
4
d) 500
81. If is wavelength of radiation which will ionise hydrogen atom at the ground state, what is
the kinetic energy of electron when radiation of wavelength /2 is incident on the hydrogen
atom at the ground state ?
a) 6.8 eV b) 3.2 eV c) 13.6 eV d) 27.2 eV
82. The characteristics of a certain triode are parallel lines represented by the equation I =
0.125V-7.5 where I is in mA and V in volt. The plate resistance of this triode in kilo ohm is
a) 8 b) 10 c) 15.5 d) 12.5
83. The energy gap of an insulator is 6 eV. What is a maximum wavelength of radiation which
will be absorbed by this substance ?
a) 100 A
0
b) 200 A
0
c) 2050 A
0
d) 4000 A
0

84. In a certain pnp transistor 95% of holes in the emitter side reach the collector. The of this
transistor is
a) 95 b) 19 c) 20 d) 190
85. Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of distance in Astro physics ?
a) parsec, light year, astronomical unit
b) light year, astronomical unit, parsec
c) astronomical unit, light year, parsec
d) light year, parsec, astronomical unit
86. A triode has a load resistance which is twice the plate resistance. The ratio of amplification
factor to voltage amplification of this triode is
a) 1/3 b) 1/2 c) 1 d) 2/3
87. Three triodes have amplification factors 10,20,30 and trans conductance 3,6,4 A/V
respectively. If they connected in parallel, the trans conductance will be (in A/V)
a) (10x3)+(6x20)+(4x30) b) 13
c)
4
30
6
20
3
10
) d
4
1
6
1
3
1
g
1
m
+ + + + =
88. When a P-N juction diode is reverse biased, the flow of current across the junction is mainly
due to
a) diffusion of charges b) the nature of material
c) drift of charges d) both drift and diffusion of charges

178
89. Assume that the dimmest star visible to the eye has brightness of magnitude 6. If its
brightness is compared with that of Venus which has brightness of magnitude -4, the ratio of
brightness of Venus to that of the star is
a) 1000 b) 5000 c) 10000 d) 20000
90. The density of a cubical gold block at rest is . If this block moves with a speed v parallel to
one of its edges, its density will be
)
c
v
1 ( ) d
c
v
1 ) c
c
v
1
) b
c
v
1
) a
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2

91. Which of the following combination is ideal for an electronic filter?
a) two high value condensers and a high value resistor
b) Two low value condensers and a high value inductor
c) Two low value condensers and a low value inductor
d)Two high value condensers and a high value inductor
92. A transistor has = 0.99. The change in collector current when the base current changes by
10 A is nearest to
a) 10 mA b) 5 mA c) 9 mA d) 1 mA
93. The entropy at superconducting stage is
a) very high b) very low c) moderate d) zero
94. A rocket is moving away from earth with a speed of 0.6 c. A beam of light is sent from it
towards earth. The speed of light beam measured by an observer in earth is
a) 1.6 c b) 0.4 c c) 0.8 c d) c
95. Take the wavelength of red light to be about 600 nm and that of green light to be about 550
nm. With what speed ( in m/s)should a star move away from earth so that the green emitted
by it appears as red for an earth observer?
a) 5x10
7

b) 2.5x10
7
c) 5.5x10
7
d) 6x10
7


179
SECTION 2: ANSWERS

1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (d) 4 (c),(d) 5 (a)
6 (c) 7 (a) 8 (b) 9 (d) 10 (b),(d)
11 (b) 12 (c),(d) 13 (a) 14 (b) 15 (c)
16 (b) 17 (a),(b),(c) 18 (b) 19 (d) 20 (a)
21 (a) 22 (d) 23 (b),(d) 24 (a) 25 (c)
26 (d) 27 (c) 28 (d) 29 (d) 30 (b)
31 (a) 32 (b) 33 (c) 34 (d) 35 (b)
36 (a),(c) 37 (d) 38 (a) 39 (b) 40 (b)
41 (b) 42 (c) 43 (b) 44 (d) 45 (c)
46 (d) 47 (d) 48 (d) 49 (c) 50 (c)
51 (b) 52 (b) 53 (b) 54 (c),(d) 55 (a)
56 (a) 57 (a) 58 (a) 59 (b),(d) 60 (a)
61 (d) 62 (b) 63 (d) 64 (a) 65 (b)
66 (a) 67 (b) 68 (b) 69 (c) 70 (d)
71 (a),(c),(d) 72 (a) 73 (c) 74 (c) 75 (c)
76 (a) 77 (b) 78 (c) 79 (d) 80 (b)
81 (c) 82 (a) 83 (c) 84 (b) 85 (a)
86 (d) 87 (b) 88 (a) 89 (c) 90 (b)
91 (d) 92 (d) 93 (b) 94 (d) 95 (b)

SECTION 3
SOLUTIONS
1. Total binding energy of 0
16
= 7.97 x 16 MeV. Total binding energy of 0
17
= 7.57 x 17 MeV.
Energy difference between 0
17
and 0
16
is the binding energy of neutron in 0
17
= 4.23 MeV.
Ans.c
2. After removal of first electron, it becomes singly ionised helium with n = 1. By Bohrs theory
the energy of the second electron E
n
= -13.6Z
2
/n
2
= -13.6x4 /1 = -54.4 eV. Total energy to
remove both electrons = (54.4 + 24.6) = 79 eV. Ans.a
3. By inverse square law, when distance is doubled intensity of light and hence no of
photoelectron becomes 1/4. Therewill be no change in the momentum and energy of the
electron since it depends on wavelength of light. Ans.d
4. If the threshold wavelength is 5200 A
0
photoelectric emission will be produced at
wavelengths smaller than this. Thus it will be produced by ultra violet light and not by infra
red light. Power (intensity) of the lamp decides only the number of photoelectrons and not
their energy or emission itself. Ans.c & d
5. Kinetic energy of electron in nth orbit is given by e
2
/8
0
r
n
where r
n
is the radius of the nth
orbit = kn
2
. Thus kinetic energy is inversely proportional to n
2
. The ratio in the first three
orbits 1:(1/4):(1/9) Ans.a

180
6. The energy released in this fusion is 26 MeV = 26 x 1.6x x 10
-13
J. Total energy of 10
40

deuterons is 10
40
x 26 x 1.6 x 10
-13
J. Let this be E. The average power radiated by the star =
10
16
W. So the time in which deutrons supplied runs out = E/10
16
= 1.3 x 10
12
s. Ans.c
7. According to Paulis exclusion principle the number of electrons in a shell of quantum
number n is 2n
2
. If the maximum quantum number is 4, the maximum number of electrons
which can be accommodated = 2 (1
2
+ 2
2
+3
2
+4
2
) = 60. Thus the maximum possible atomic
number = 60. The number of possible elements would also be 60. Ans.a
8. For first line of Lyman series 1/ = R [(1/1
2
)- (1/2
2
)] = 3R/4. For first line of Balmer series,
1/ = R [(1/2
2
) (1/3
3
) = 5R/36. Dividing the equations we get / = 5/27. Or use short-cut
formula given for Balmer series lines in indirect theory notes. Ans.b
9. According to the laws of photoelectric emission, the number of photoelectrons produced
depends on the number of photons incident. Thus, doubling the intensity of light produces
double the number of photoelectrons. When is halved, the incident energy is doubled. But
kinetic energy = incident energy-work function. Hence kinetic energy will more than double
the value. Also intensity of light does no change the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons only
frequency does. Thus all three statements are correct. Ans.d
10. The stopping potential depends only on wavelength of incident radiation according to
Einsteins equation. Therefore it doesnot change when distance between light source and
photo electric cell is varied. The intensity of the light is inversely proportional to the square
of the distance from the point source. The photoelectric current depends on the intensity of
the incident light. Therefore it is I/I
o
= (0.2 /0.6)
2
= (1/2)
2
. I = I
0
/9 = 18/9 = 2mA. (choice d)
Ans. b & d
11. Half period T = In 2/ . Average life time of a radioactive substnace is = 1/ . Ans.b
12. In the case X-ray tube, the wavelength of X-rays is given by = hc/eV, or by a simplified
formulas, = [12345/V] A
0
(Theory notes short-cuts) where V is potential difference applied
across the tube. When V is maximum, is minimum. So if V is increased decreases.
(choice d) The intensity of X-rays is decided by the filament current. It does not depend on
potential difference (choice c) Ans.c & d
13. Momentum p = h/ = 6.6 x 10
-34
/ 0.01 x 10
-10
= 6.6 x 10
-22
kgm/s. Ans.a
14. In an X-ray tube, more than 99% of the incident energy of electrons is converted into heat.
Hence an X-ray tube should have a target material of high melting point to with stand this
heat. Ans.b
15. In nuclear reaction, mass need not be necessarily conserved. If mass disappears, it appears as
energy according to Einsteins equation E = (M)c
2
. But mass + energy remains constant.
Ans.c
16. Use No/N = 2
t/T
(Theory notes) which is same as N = N
0
e
-t
. Here No is number of atoms at
the beginning, N is number of atoms after t, T is half period. Here T = 2 h. No = 64, N =
1.64/1 = 2
t/2
. This gives 2
6
= 2
t/T
. That is 6 = t/T. t = 12 h. Ans.b
17. The first three answers follow from quantum theory. The quantization of electron charge does
not follow from the photo electric emission; hence that is the only wrong one here. Ans.a,b &
c
18. The potential energy of an electron in the nth Bohr orbit is given by E
n
= -e
2
/4
0
r
n
, where r
n

is the radius of nth Bohr orbit. Kinetic energy = e
2
/8
0
r
n
, When n increases r
n
increases,
potential energy increases and kinetic energy decreases. This can also be answered from the
indirect theory notes right away. Ans.b

181
19. This gives wave number of second line of Balmer series 1/ = R [(1/2)
2
-(1/4)
2
] = R[1/4-
1/16] = 3R/16. This formula is given in indirect theory notes. Ans.d
20. The change in mass number is due to emission of alone. Hence number of particles is
200-168/4 = 8. The change in the atomic number in the reaction is 10, while due to the
particles it has to be 8 x 2 = 16. So 6 particles have been emitted. Ans.a
21. The de-Broglie wavelength
d
= h/p, where h is Plancks constant and p momentum. is the
same, if p is the same. So they have same momentum. Ans.a
22. The de-Broglie wavelength of a charged particle is given by
d
= h/ mE 2 , where m is mass
and E is kinetic energy of the particle. Here both particles have same kinetic energy because
they are accelerated through same potential. Hence
d
is proportional to 1/m.
(proton) / (electron) = = ) proton ( mass / ) electron ( mass M / m . Here (electron) is given
as . Therefore (proton) = M / m . Ans.d
23. The energy released in fission is (m) c
2
, where m is the mass difference before and after
fission. Similarly binding energy be m c
2
, where m is the mass defect. Both of this
become 1/4 since they involve c
2
. Nuclear force does not depend on the speed of light.
Ans.b & d
24. The total binding energy of two nucleons in deuteron is 2x
1
. For two deuterons it is 4x
1
. The
binding energy of particle is 4x
2
. The energy released Q = the difference in the binding
energy of LHS and RHS = 4x
1
4x
2
= 4(x
1
-x
2
). Ans.a
25. For bcc cubical cell. If r is the radius of the atom and a distance between the atoms 4r = 3a.
2r = 3a/2 = 3.66 A
0
. Ans.c
26. X-rays emitted from the tube consists of continuous radiation, which depends on the potential
difference applied and characteristic radiation which depends on the target material. The peak
in the X-ray sppectrum corresponds to the characteristic material of the target. Ans.d
27. Here hydrogen is converted into helium, with the nucleus releasing two positrons and energy.
Because of positron emission, we cannot call it decay. The order of energy emitted and
participation of light nuclei tell us the reaction is fusion. Ans.c
28. Given mc
2
= 2m
0
c
2
, m = 2m
0
,
) c / (v - 1
m
2 2
0
This gives ) c / v (
2 2
1 = 1/2. Solving, we get
v = c ) / ( 2 3 Ans.d
29. The side of the rectangle parallel to motion reduces to nearly a point by length contraction
formula (Theory notes) L = L
0

2 2
1 c / v . L becomes nearly zero, since v = 0.999 c. There
is no change in the side perpendicular to the motion. Hence the rectangle appears nearly as a
straight line. Ans.d
30. Using law of relativistic addition of velocity (Theory notes), we have u
2
= u+v./(1+uv/c
2
).
Here u = 0.9 c, v = 0.8 c, we get u = 1.7 c/1.72. Ans.b
31. Using Heisenbergs uncertainity relation (E t) = nearly h, where E is uncertainty in
energy and t that in life time of the excited state of that particle. Here t = 10
-23
s, h 10
-34
,
E = 10
-11
J. Ans.a
32. Impulse = change in momentum. Momentum of incident photon p = h/. A perfect reflection
means return with the same momentum. Change in momentum = p (p) = 2p = 2h/. = 2E/c
(because E = hc/ = pc) = (2 x 3 x 10
-2
) /(3x 10
8
) = 2 x 10
-10
kgms
-1
. Ans.b

182
33. Neutron disintegrates to form an electron and a proton. Ans.c
34. Using the simplified formula,
d
= 100 150 150 / V / = nearly equal to 1.2 A
0
. Wavelength
of visible region
0
is about 5000 A
0
.
d
is nearly
0
/5000 . Ans.d
35. In photoelectric effect, the incident light (or electromagnetic radiation) produces
photolectrons. In X-ray production, electrons striking a target produce electromagnetic
radiation or X-rays. Hence X-ray producetion is reverse of photo electric effect. Ans.b
36. This question probes into the properties of Nuclear forces. Nuclear forces are independent of
charge but depend on spin of nucleons. Also they are both attractive and repulsive but do not
obey inverse square law. Ans. a & c
37. At the gound state of hydrogen atom, the orbital angular momentum is zero as orbital angular
momentum quantum number 1 is equal to 0. The electron has only spin angular momentum
and that is equal sh/2, where s is spin quantum number. With, s = 1./2, this be h/4. Ans.d
38. This can be done in two ways. Either we use Richardsons thermoionic emission formula
current density j = AT
2
e
-b
/T. Ignoring the second term when T is doubled, j becomes four
times. Or we use Stefans law of radiation, which says the energy emitted from the filament
is proportional to T
4
. Since energy is proportional to i
2
, where i is current, i
2
is proportional
to T
4
and i (and hence j) is proportional to T
2
. Ans.a
39. According to Bohrs theory radius r
n
, radius of the nth orbit is proportional to n
2
and inversely
proportional to Z. Hence it is proportional to n
2
/Z. Ans.b
40. Ans.b
41. The term voltage gain is used under dynamic conditions, when there is a load. The gain A
v
=
R
L
/(r
p
+ R
L
). Here it is given, A
v
= 20, r
p
= 25 k, R
L
= 50 k. We have = 30. Ans.b
42. The space-charge limited current in a diode is related to the voltage by the equation I = KV
3/2
.
Ans.c
43. The output of a rectifier consists of an a.c. component (called ripple) and a.d.c component.
The ratio of the a.c. and d.c. component will be greater than one for a half wave rectifier
while it will be less than one for a full wave rectifier ( Theory notes). Ans.b
44. = I
c
/I
E
= 0.9 mA/ 1 mA = 0.9; = /(1-) = 9. Ans.d
45. Refer to theory notes. Ans.c
46. The input and output of an amplifier differ in phase by an angle 180
0
. Ans.d
47. A power amplifier does not increase the power of a signal, because it will violate the law of
conservation of energy. It only increases the power of the a.c. signal at the expense of d.c.
power supplied by the source. Ans.d
48. A modulator is a device which combines a high frequency carrier wave with a low (audio
frequency) signal wave so that the resulting modulated wave can travel a long distance. The
signal and carrier are separated at the receiving end by the reverse process called
demodulation. Ans.d
49. Decibel is a unit of power and in logarithmic scale. Power in decibel, P = 10 log (p
2
/p
1
). If P
= 30 log (p
2
/p
1
) = 3, p
2
/p
1
= 10
3
. Therefore stage gain or actual gain is 10
3
= 1000. Ans.c
50. The power gain of a transistor is A
p
=
2
R
0
/R
i
= where R
o
is the output resistance and R
i
input
resistance. Here = 100, R
0
= 100 and R
i
= 10. Therefore, A
p
= 10
5
. Ans.c
51. First a.c. voltage is converted into d.c.using a rectifier. Then it is filtered by an electronic
filter. Then its value is made steady using a regulator. Ans.b
52. Ans.b

183
53. Ans.b
54. By transistor equation I
C
/I
E
= 90%. Therefore I
E
= 10/0.9 = 11 mA (choice b) Base current =
I
E
I
c
= 11-10 = 1mA. (choice c) Ans.c & d
55. Number of electrons in the conduction band will be proportional to
kT
E
g
e
which decreases
with increase in band gap E
g
and increases with increase in temperature T. That is, if band
gap is more, less electrons are found (choice a). If temperature is more, more electrons are
found. Ans.a
56. One astronomical unit is distance between sun and earth = 1.5 x 10
8
km or 1.5 x 10
11
m. It is
a unit of distance in Astro physics. Ans.a
57. According to Weins displacement law
m
T = constant. A star at higher temperature radiates
maximum energy at shortest wavelength. Hence a very hot star will appear violet-blue, while
comparatively cooler stars red. Ans.a
58. Ans.a
59. P type of semi conductors are got by adding trivalent impurities in pure silicon. Ans.b & d
60. We know the energy of a photon is hc/. If n is the number of photons emitted by the source
per second, the energy of all the photons will be nhc/ , which is equal to W. This gives n =
W/hc. Since the efficiency is 1 in 1000, the number of photo electrons produced will be
1/1000 of the number of photons incident. That is W/1000hc. Ans. a
61. Force is not directly transferred. All others namely momentum, impulse, energy are
transferred. Ans.d
62. Each of the particles given here except proton is an exchange particle for fundamental forces
in nature. Electromagnetic force is exerted by the exchange of photon, gravitational force by
exchange of graviton, nuclear force by exchange of meson and weak nuclear forces by
exchange of boson. Ans.b
63. If we start from Bohrs quantum condition, angular momentum mvr = nh/2, we have the
circumference 2r = nh/mv = n (de Broglie wavelength). Ans.d
64. In the answer to previous question, we have shown that 2r= n
d
, where
d
is de broglie
wavelength. This means
d
r
n
. Ans.a
65. Using Einsteins equation hf = W + T, where W is the work function hf
o
, we have T = hf
o
in
the first case and 4hf
o
in the second case. This means kinetic energy of electrons is made
four times. Since kinetic energy is proportional to v
2
, the electron velocity is doubled. Ans. b
66. The cut off wavelengths of Lyman series are got by substituting in the equation
(
(
2
2
2
n
1
1
1
R
1
, n
2
=2 and n
2 =
. This gives
3
4
) lowest (
) highest (
2
1
=
. Or use theory short-cut

to get the ratio directly. Ans.a
67. Use the information supplied in theory notes. The energy of the ray should at least be
equal to the rest mass the two particles produced, which is 0.5+0.5 = 1 MeV. If ray has
more energy, the additional energy will go as kinetic energy of the particles, while if it does
not have this energy, pair production phenomenon will not take place. Ans.b
68. By Einsteins equation the total energy of a relativistic particle mc
2
is equal to m
0
c
2
+T, where
T is kinetic energy. Here mc
2
= 3m
0
c
2
. This gives kinetic energy T = 2 m
0
c
2
, which we
know from the m
0
c
2

value as 1 MeV. Ans.b

184
69. The answer to this question is also the explanation of emission during radioactivity. If we
calculate the de Broglie wavelength of electron, it will come out to be more than the nuclear
dimension, telling us why electron is emitted as soon as it is formed as a particle. Ans.c
70. We know ionisation energy of hydrogen atom at the ground state is equal to 13.6 eV. All that
we have to find here is the wavelength of radiation which will have this energy. Use the
information in theory note short-cuts to find wavelength from energy quickly. The
corresponding wavelength is (max) = 12345/ E(min) = 12345/13.6, which is nearest to 910.
Ans.d
71. Since 99% of the energy supplied goes as heat, the target material should have a very high
melting point to withstand this. Thus (a) is correct. It should quickly conduct this heat, So it
should have a high conductivity. This makes (b) wrong. The power of the tube = current x
voltage=50000x20/1000 = 1000 W. Power converted into heat = 1000x99/100 = 990 W.
Using the equation, m C T = 990, where m is mass of target, C specific heat, T rise in
temperature, we get T = 2
0
C/s. This makes (c) correct. The minimum wavelength is
calculated from theory short-cut formula 12345/50000 = 0.24 A
0
= 0.24x10
-10
m. Thus (d) is
correct. Ans. a,c,d
72. When a radioactive material emits two particles simultaneously, the equivalent half life can be
shown to be T=
2 1
2 1
T T
T T
+
. Taking T
1
and T
2
respectively as 1620 and 810, we get T as equal to
540 years. So after 540 years it will reduce to 1/2 and after another 540 years it will reduce
to 1/4. Ans.a
73. Use the equation R = R
0
A
1/3
. Here R
0
= 1.2 f and A= 27 for aluminum. This gives R= 3.6 f.
Ans.c
74. One of the important properties of super-conductivity is that a substance at this stage
behaves as a dia-magnet. (Refer to theory notes for details.). Ans.c
75. Use the information supplied in theory notes. Since the period is proportional to cube of
quantum number n, the frequency should be proportional to 1/n
3
. Hence the required ratio is
f
2
/f
3
=3
3
/2
3
=27/8. Ans.c
76. The rest mass of a photon is zero. Ans.a
77. If f is the frequency of a photon, its energy as a wave is hf. Its energy as a particle is mc
2
.
Equating m = hf/c
2
. Thus photons mass is proportional to frequency. -ray has maximum
frequency, visible light minimum frequency. Ans.b
78. Use information already supplied in theory notes.. They have the same momentum. Use
theory note in dynamics , according to which lighter body should have more kinetic energy.
Ans.c
79. Use information supplied in theory notes,. The rest energy of electron = 0.5 MeV. Kinetic
energy = 20-0.5 = 19.5 MeV. The ratio = 19.5/0.5=39. Ans.d
80. Use the information supplied in theory notes. The energy of photon is 12345/1.2 = 10000 eV
nearly. Use theory notes to know rest mass of electron, which is 0.5 meV. The required ratio
is 0.5 x 10
6
/ 10000 = 50. Ans.b
81. Use the information that the energy of hydrogen atom at ground state is -13.6 eV. The
incident radiation has a wavelength half that needed to ionise means, it has twice the energy =
27.2 eV. Of this 13.6eV it used to ionise the atom and the rest 13.6 eV goes as kinetic energy
of electron. Ans. c

185
82. The plate resistance r
p
= V/I. Differentiating the given equation I = 0.125 V. V/I =
1/0.125x10
-3
(current in mA) = 8x10
3
ohm = 8 k. Ans.a
83. Use the information in theory notes. In order to absorb a photon it should have a minimum
energy equal to that of the energy gap. The corresponding maximum wavelength =
12345/E = 12345/6 = 2060 A
0
. All wavelengths less than this will be absorbed. Ans.c
84. Since 95% of carriers reach the collector, collector current I
C
should be 95% of emitter
current I
E
. This gives = I
C
/I
E
= 0.95. = /1- = 0.95/1-0.95 = 19. Ans.b
85. .One astronomical unit = 1.5x10
11
m. 1 light year = 9.5 x 10
15
m. 1 parsec = 3x10
16
m. Ans.a
86. The voltage gain of a triode
L p
L
v
R r
R
A
+
= . Here R
L
/r
p
= 2, this gives A
v
/ = 2/3. Ans.d
87. Conductance is the reciprocal of resistance. In parallel connection resistances add by a
reciprocal rule. Therefore conductances add directly. So g
m
= 3+6+4 = 13. Ans.b
88. During reverse bias, the minority carriers diffuse across the junction. Ans.a
89. m
2
-m
1
= 6-(-4) = 10. The brightness ratio is given by
5 / 10 5 / m m
100 100
) star ( L
) Venus ( L
1 2
= =

. =
10000. Ans.c
90. Density = M/L
3
, where M is mass, L is length of one of the sides. When it moves with a
velocity parallel to one of its edges, that side will contract to the value
2
2
o
2
2
c
v
1 / M M and
c
v
1 L = . Substituting these values we get new density as (b).
Ans.b
91. An electronic filters separates AC and DC. Two high value condensers ( usually called by-
pass condensers) allow AC to flow through them, while the high value inductor will let DC to
flow through, without producing much heat. Ans.d
92. = 0.99. This gives = /1- =99. We also have I
c
/I
B
= 99 Here I
B
= 10 A. I
c
= 990 A = nearly 1 mA. Ans.d
93. Super conducting state is highly ordered state. We know entropy is a measure of disorder.
Hence it has to be low. Note that the entropy cannot be zero because it happens only at 0 K.
Ans.b
94. By one of the postulates of special theory of relativity, the speed of light in free space is a
constant in inertial frames. It does not change with the relative motion of observer ,source or
both. Ans.d.
95. Use the simple Doppler effect equation in light d/ = v/c, where d is the change in
wavelength, which here is 600-550= 50 nm, and , the original wavelength = 600 nm. Taking
c=3x10
8
m/s, we get v= 2.5x10
7
m/s. Ans.b

TWO MINUTE PROBLEMS
SECTION 1
QUESTIONS
1. Maximum time for one problem is 2 minutes
2. Assume value of popular physical constants (for example, g = 9.8 m/s
2
)
3. Assume 2 = 1.4, 3 = 1.7, for quick calculation,.
1. A stone is projected with an initial kinetic energy 20 J at an angle 30
0
to the horizontal. Find
its potential energy at the highest point.
2. A fott-ball had been in air for three seconds. How high did it rise ?
3. A body is dropped from a height. It rebounds to 0.81 of the initial height after impact. What
is value of coefficient of restitution?
4. A man can jump to a maximum vertical height 2m. What is the maximum he can jump in a
long jump?
5. A body falls freely through a certain height in earth in two seconds. How much will it take to
fall through the same height in moon?
6. A pendulum oscillates with a period of 1.1 s inside a lift at rest. What will be its period of
oscillation when the lift moves up with acceleration 0.21 g?
7. Light of intensity 20 Wm
-2
is incident on a polaroid at an angle 30
0
. What is the intensity of
the out coming light?
8. Three forces are represented by a triangle of sides in the ratio 1:1.73:2. What are the angles
between the forces?
9. A long thin magnetised needle oscillates in the earths field with a period of two seconds. If it
is cut into two equal halves perpendicular to length what will be period of oscillation of either
half?
10. It takes two minutes to heat water to boiling point using a 10 m length heater coil. What time
will it take for the same using 5m of heater coil connected to the same source?
11. A cell of emf 2 V and internal resistance 1 is connected to an external load supplied a
current of 1 A. If one more identical cell is joined in parallel with the cell, what is current
through the load ?
12. A disc has a moment of inertia I about an axis through center perpendicular to its plane. A
coaxial disc is cut off from the centre with a radius half of the disc. What is the moment of
inertia of what is left?
13. The frequency of a wave motion is 2 Hz. What is phase difference of a point at an interval of
0.25 s.?
8

187
14. Two identical capacitors are joined in series and then in parallel. The difference in effective
capacitance is 3 F. What are the values of capacitors?
15. The critical angle of an equilateral prism is 45
0
. What is its angle of minimum deviation ?
16. The period of an earth satellite orbiting very close to earth is 80 minutes. What is the period
of another satellite orbiting at an altitude of 3R, where R is the radius of earth ?
17. A particle executing S.H.M has a velocity of 12 ms
-1
at the mean position and an acceleration
of 16 ms
-2
at the extreme position. What is its amplitude and period ?
18. If the length of a seconds pendulum is increased by 1 per cent, how many seconds will it lose
or gain per day ?
19. The distance of an object from the focus of a concave mirror is 0.49 m and distance of its real
image is 0.36 m. What is the focal length of the mirror ?
20. An electron has a de Broglie wavelength of 0.52 A. What is the de Broglie wavelength of a
proton of same momentum ?
21. The wavelength of transverse wave generated at the bottom of a vertical rope of mass 3 kg
under a tension of 1 kg is 1 m. What is its wavelength when it reaches the top of the rope ?
22. The acceleration down a smooth inclined plane for a solid sphere rolling is 0.6 ms
-2
. What is
the acceleration of an identical hollow sphere of the same radius?
23. A body is thrown vertically up. The air resistance is 1/4 of its weight. Find the ratio of the
time taken to reach the maximum height and time to return.
24. A proton and an particle of the same momentum enter into a uniform magnetic field of
same value at right angles. Find ratio of the radius of track of proton to that of ..
25. An observer measures the speed of two ends of a train moving with uniform acceleration as
15 ms
-1
and 20 ms
-1
. What would have been the speed of the middle point of the train ?
26. A vessel of height 0.2 m is filled to half each by two liquids of refractive indices 1.5 and 1.6.
What is the apparent depth of an object at the bottom of the vessel ?
27. Four identical rigid spheres of radius 1 m and mass 1 kg are placed on the corners of a square
of side 2m. Find the moment of inertia of the system about an axis through the centre of the
square and perpendicular to its plane.
28. A ballet dancer revolves at 24 rpm with her hands folder. If she stretches her hand so that
moment of inertia increases by 20 per cent, what is the new rpm ?
29. A long thin magnetised needle oscillates in the earths field with a period of 4 s. It is broken
into two equal halves. If one half is placed over the other with like poles pointing in the same
direction and oscillated, what would be the period ?
30. A mass of 2 kg has been suspended for the lower end of a spring so that it is stretched by 1
cm. How much work will be done in pulling this mass downwards by 2 cm? (Take g = 10
ms
-2
)
31. The maximum velocity of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is 16 cm/s and its
amplitude is 4 cm. Find its maximum acceleration.
32. A battery of emf E is connected in series with three resistors R, 2R and 3R. The voltage
across 2R is measured with a voltmeter whose resistance is 10R. What is the percentage error
in the voltmeter reading?
33. Under the action of a force, a 2 kg body moves such that its position x is a function of time
given by x = t
3
/3, where x is in metres and t in seconds. What is the work done by the force
in the first two seconds. ?

188
34. What is the change in wavelength of H line coming from a distant star moving with a speed
of 10
-4
% the speed of light, if the wavelength measured on earth is 656.3 nm ?
35. Assume that the mass m of the largest stone that can be moved by a flowing river depends
upon the velocity v of water, its density and acceleration due to gravity g. Show that m is
proportional to v
6

36. A particle moves along a straight line according to the equation s = at
2
+ 2bt +c , where s is
the distance travelled in tie t and a,b,c are constants. Find the acceleration.
37. A car travelled the first one-third of a given distance at a speed of 10 ms
-1
, the second one-
third at a speed at 20 ms
-1
and the last one-third at a speed of 30 ms
-1
. Find the average speed
of the car.
38. A particle is projected with a velocity v, so that its range on a horizontal plane is twice the
greatest height attained. Find its range.
39. The string of a pendulum having a bob of weight mg is kept horizontal and then it is released.
Find the tension in the string at the lowest position.
40. A body is projected at an angle of 30
0
to the horizontal with a speed of 30 ms
-1
. Find the
direction of motion with the horizontal after 1.5 seconds (Take g = 10 ms
-2
)
41. A bomb of mass 9 kg explodes into two pieces of masses 3 kg and 6 kg . The velocity of the
mass 3 kg piece is 16 ms
-1
. Find the kinetic energy of the 6 kg piece.
42. The mass and diameter of a planet are twice those of the earth. What will be the period of
oscillation of a pendulum on this planet, if it beats seconds on earth?
43. If sun were to become a black hole, what would be its radius? Assume mass of sun nearly
2x10
30
kg.
44. When the kinetic energy of an particle is E, its nearest distance of approach to the nucleus is
x. What the kinetic energy is 2E, what would be the nearest distance ?
45. In an equally tempered scale, what is the musical interval between two adjacent notes? What
is the musical interval between the first note and the sixth note ?
46. The first order diffraction maximum using a diffraction grating appears for a certain
wavelength of radiation at an angle of sin
-1
(0.26). Find the maximum number of order of this
line visible using this grating.
47. Two condensers of capacity 2 F and 4 are charged using the same battery source 300 V.
then they are joined in parallel so that the positive plate of one is connected to the negative
plate of the other. Find the potential difference across them.
48. The atomic mass of copper is 63 and Avogadro constant 6 x 10
23
per gram. If a copper sphere
of mass 1 g carries 1% extra negative unbalanced charge, find the extra number of electrons in
it.
49. A ball rolls down from the top of a staircase with horizontal velocity of 2 ms
-1
. The width of
each step is equal to the height of each step = 0.2 m. If the ball just grazes the edge of the nth
step, find the value of n. (g = 10 ms
-2
)
50. A helicopter flying at an altitude of 0.5 km with a speed 144 km/h drops a food packet to a
relief camp at a point B on the ground, when it is vertically above a point A on the ground. If
the food packet reaches the camp, find the distance AB. (g = 10 ms
-2
)
51. A body is projected with an initial velocity 40 ms
-1
at an angle 30
0
to the horizontal. Find the
speed of the body after two seconds. (g = 10 ms
-2
)
52. A body is subjected to three equal forces and is in equilibrium. Find the angle between
forces.

189
53. Three particles of masses into the ratio 1:2:3 are along a line, one of 2 unit mass at equal
distance r from other two. Find the centre of mass of the system.
54. The moment of inertia of a cylinder about its natural axis is equal to the moment of inertia
about the centre of mass axis perpendicular to its plane. Find the ratio of the length of the
cylinder to its radius.
55. When a stone is used as tension in a vibrating wire, the length of the wire resonating with a
tuning fork is 20 cm. When the stone is immersed in water the resonating length reduces to
16 cm. Find the specific gravity of the stone.
56. A pendulum bob of mass m is subjected to a horizontal electric field E. What is the
inclination of the string to the vertical, when the bob is charged with q ?
57. A pendulum bob of mass m is kept in an upward electric field E. If charge carried by the bob
is q, find the period of oscillation, assuming the weight is greater than the force of electric
field.
58. Two light rays are in phase initially and are of same wavelength . The first ray travels
through a distance /4 in a medium of refractive index 1.6 and second ray travels through a
distance /3 in a medium of refractive index 1.5. When they recombine, what is their phase
difference ?
59. Monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm is incident on two slits of separation 0.3 mm.
What is the angular width of the 2
nd
bright band observed ?
60. A laser beam of wavelength 6000 A is passed through an aperture of 0.5 mm diameter. Find
the angular spread and areal spread when the beam reaches the moon. The distance of the
moon is 4 x 10
8
m.
SECTION 2
SOLUTIONS
1. Velocity at the highest point = u cos . Kinetic energy at the highest point = (1/2) mu
2
cos
2

= E cos
2
. Potential energy = Total energy kinetic energy = E E cos
2
= E sin
2
. Here
= 30
0
. Potential energy = 5 J.
2. h = gT
2
/8 = 11m
3. e = , h / h
1 2
where h
2
is height of rebound, h
1
height of fall. Ans. 81 . 0 = 0.9
4. Maximum vertical height = u
2
/ 2g. Maximum horizontal distance = u
2
/ g = 2 x 2=4m
5. If g
1
and g
2
are acceleration due to gravity in earth and that in moon, (1/2)g
1
t
1
2
= (1/2) g
2
t
2
2
,
t
1
= 2 s, t
2
= 2 6 2 g / g
2 1
= s
6. T = 2 1 . 1 21 . 1 g / ) a g ( T / T , ) a g /( 1 2 T , g / 1
1 1
= = + = + = T
1
= 1 s
7. I
1
cos
2
= 20 x cos
2
30 = 15 Wm
-2

8. By law of triangle of forces, f side of triangle. Since the ratio of sides of the triangle is
1: 3 : 2, ratio of angles of the triangle will be 30, 60, 90. Angle between forces will be 150
0
,
120
0
and 90
0

9. T = 2 MB / I . When the needle breaks into two, moment of inertia I becomes (ml
2
/ 12) =
I/8. Moment of magnet M becomes M / 2 (Length reduces to half). T becomes T /2. Period
of oscillation of one half = 1 s.

190
10. When length of heater coil is reduced to half, resistance becomes half of the value (E
2
/ R) t
1
=
[E
2
/ (R/2) ] t
2
, t
1
= 2 minutes. Hence t
2
= 1 minute..
11. If E is emf of the cell, R external resistance and B internal resistance E / (R +B) = i. We get R
= 1 . When two cells are joined in parallel, E remains same. Internal resistance adds in
parallel as 0.5 . i = 2/1.5 = 1.33 A
12. MR
2
/ 2 = I. Remaining mass (being proportional to area) is
M
4
3
R
] R ) 4 / 1 ( R [ M
2
2 2
=
. Moment of inertia of the remaining portion of the disc is

I
16
15
MR
32
15
2
] R ) 4 / 1 ( R [
M
4
3
2
2 2
= =
+

13. Period = 1/2 s. Phase difference of 360
0
corresponds to a time difference of 1/2 s. Hence
0.25 s corresponds to a phase difference of 180
0

14. If C is the capacitance of each, C
s
= C/2, C
p
= 2C. C
p
C
s
= 3. C = 2F.
15. I/sinC = n = 2, sin [(60 + D) / 2] sin (60 / 2) = 2, D = 30
0

16. T
1
2
/ T
2
2
= R
1
3
/ R
2
3
, R
1
= R, R
2
= 3R + R = 4R, T
1
= 80 min. T
2
= T
1
(4)
3/2
= 8T
1
= 8 x 80 =
640 min.
17. A is the amplitude,
2
A
2
= 144, A = 144 / 16 = 9 m, = 4/3, T = 2 / = (3/2) s.
18. A seconds pendulum gains or loses according to a formula dT =
(
l
dl
g
dg
43200 seconds.
Using this formula we find that the pendulum loses nearly 432 s for 1% increase in length
that is nearly 7 minutes.
19. Newtons formula : f = m 42 . 0 36 . 0 x 49 . 0 ab = =
20.
d
= h/p. Since momentum is same,
d
is also same. Hence wavelength = 0.52 A.
21. velocity v, v = ) 3 1 /( 1 T / T / Thus . / T
2 1 2 1
+ = = = 1/2,
2
= 2
1
= 2m.
22. Acceleration down an inclined plane a = g sin / (1+(K
2
/r
2
), where K is radius of gyration of
the sphere. For the solid sphere, K = (2/5)r
2
and for the hollow sphere K = (2/3) r
2
. a (hollow
sphere) /a (solid sphere) = 21/25. a (hollow sphere) = 0.6 x 21/25 = 0.5 ms
-2

23. Time to reach maximum height if initial velocity is u, and retardation due to air resistance is a,
is u/(g+a). Time to return = u/(g-a). Ratio of times is (g-a) / (g+a). Here a = 1/4 g. Hence
the required ratio is 3/5.
24. Radius of the trace r = mv / qB; mv is same; r (proton)/r() = q()/q (proton) = 2e/e = 2
25. Velocity of middle point of the train moving with uniform acceleration, with one end crossing
the observer with velocity u and other end v is 2 / ) v u (
2 2
+ Here u = 15, v = 20. Therefore,
velocity of middle point = 17.7 ms
-1

26. Apparent depth (t
1
/
1
) + (t
2
/
2
) = (0.1 / 1.5) + (0.1 / 1.6) = 0.128 m
27. The moment of inertia of each sphere about a diameter = (2/5) Mr
2
= 2/5 kgm
2
. Diagonal of
square = 22. Half diagonal 2m. M.I about centre of square, by parallel axis theorem is
(2/5) + (1 x 2)
2
= (2/5) + 2 = 12/5. Moment of inertia of all spheres about the centre = 4 x
12/5 = 48/5 kgm
2
.

191
28. By law of conservation of angular moment , I
1

1
= I
2

2
; no. of revolutions/second.
I
1
n
1
= I
2
n
2
, I
1
x 24 = I
1
x (120 / 100) n
2
= 20 rpm.
29. When broken into two equal halves the moment of inertia becomes I/8 each. Total moment of
inertia = 1/4. Moment of magnet = M/2 + M/2 = M itself. T
1
= 2 MB / I ) 4 / 1 ( = 1/2 T = 2s
30. Force constant = 2 x 10/1 x 10
-2
= 2000 Nm
-1
. Work done = energy U = (1/2)kx
2
. Here x =
2 cm. U = 0.4 J
31. A = 16 cm/s. Maximum acceleration
2
A =
2
A
2
/ A = 16
2
/4 = 64 cms
-2

32. The potential difference across the 2R resistance is E / 3. (E x 2R / 6R) . A voltmeter of
infinite resistance will show this potential difference. If the voltmeter has a resistance of 10R,
when connected across 2R, the effective resistance is 10R x 2R / 12R = 1.66 R. The potential
difference read by the meter now is E x 1.66 R / (R + 1.66R + 3R) = 0.29 E. The difference
in the reading thus is nearly 0.33 E-0.29 E = 0.04 E. The percentage error is thus
(0.04 E / 0.33 E) x 100 = nearly 12%
33. Velocity v = dx/dt = t
2
. Velocity at the end of 2 seconds = 4 m/s. Work done = kinetic energy
= (1/2)mv
2
= 16 J
34. Using d / = v/c, we have v / c = 10
-4
% = 10
-6
. d = x 10
-6
= 656.3 x 10
-6
nm
35. Using dimensions, m v
x
y
g
z
and solving, we get m v
6

36. Differentiating, velocity v = ds / dt = 2at + 2b. Acceleration, dv / dt = 2a
37. Using simplified formula for finding the average velocity for a body having velocities v
1
, v
2
,
v
3
during three equal distances,
v(average) =
1
3 1 3 2 2 1
3 2 1
ms 18
v v v v v v
v v v 3

=
+ +

38. Using the equation between the maximum height h and the horizontal range R, 4h = R tan ,
with R = 2h, we get tan = 2. This gives sin = 2/5 and cos = 1/5. Horizontal range =
2v
2
sin / g = 4v
2
/ 5g
39. At the lowest point, if v is the velocity, r length of string and T tension, we have T = mg +
mv
2
/ r. But by equation of motion, v
2
= 2gr. Substituting for v
2
, we get T = 3 mg.
40. There are two ways of solving this. (1) The direction of motion of a projectile after t seconds
is tan =

=
cos u
gt sin u
component horizontal
component vertical
= 0; = 0
0
. (2) The time to reach maximum
height for the projectile is u sin / g = 1.5 s. After 1.5 seconds the projectile has only
horizontal the component of velocity. Hence angle = 0
0

41. The momentum of each piece p is same by law of conservation of momentum = 48 SI.
Kinetic energy = p
2
/ 2m = 48
2
/ 2 x 6 = 192 J
42. Using the formula for acceleration due to gravity, g = GM / R
2
, when the mass and diameter
are twice, g becomes 1/2 the value of that on earth. Period T 1/g, the period becomes 2
times. That is 22 s.
43. The radius of a black hole is given by r = GM / c
2
. Substituting we get the radius of the sun
when it becomes a black hole as nearly 1 km.
44. An particle approaching a nucleus just deflects when its kinetic energy E = potential energy
of repulsion Aq
1
q
2
/r, where r is the nearest distance of approach, q
1
charge of and q
1
charge
of the nucleus. Clearly when the kinetic energy is doubled, the distance r reduces to half. i.e.
x/2

192
45. In an equally tempered scale, there are 12 notes in an octave. The musical interval between
adjacent note is 2
1/12
= 1.05 nearly. The interval between the first note and the 6
th
note is 2
6/12

= 2 = 1.4
46. Using the diffraction grating equation, sin = Nn, where N is the number of lines per metre
of the grating and n the order of the spectrum, for first order, we have 0.26 = N . If m is the
maximum visible order for which sin = 1, 1 = Nm. Dividing the equations and solving
for m, we get m = 3.8. The highest possible order visible is therefore 3.
47. Since the positive of one plate is connected to the negative of the other, some charges cancel.
Hence the final potential is V 100
C C
V C V C
C C
Q Q
2 1
2 2 1 1
2 1
2 1
=
+
=
+

48. No. of copper atoms in 1g, N = 6 x 10
23
/ 63. Each copper atom has 29 electrons. So the total
number of electrons in 1 g of copper = 29 N. The unbalanced electrons are 1% of 29 N = 2.76
x 10
21

49. Let y be the height of each step and x width of the step. Let the ball graze the nth step. Then
during the time it grazes, it should have travelled a horizontal distance of nx and vertical
distance of ny. Using the parabola equation for projectile projected horizontally with an
initial velocity u, we have ny = g n
2
x
2
/ 2u
2
. Here x = y = 0.2 m, u = 2 ms
-1
, g = 10 ms
-2
. We
get n = 4. It will graze the fourth step.
50. Using the parabola equation for the projectile projected horizontally y = gx
2
/ 2u
2
, we have
here y = 500 m, u = 144 km/hr = 40 ms
-1
, x = 400 m. AB = 400 m
51. The time to reach the maximum height for the body = u sin /g. Here this value is 2 s. Thus
after two seconds, the body is at the maximum height. At the maximum height of the body
has only the horizontal component of velocity ucos = 40cos 30 = 34.6 ms
-1

52. When three equal forces acting on the body keep the body in equilibrium the vector sum of
two forces should be equal and opposite to the third. If the forces are F and F, the um is also
F. Using the formula for finding the sum of forces, we have F
2
= F
2
+ F
2
+ 2F x F cos. This
gives = 120
0
.
53. All the particles are along the X-axis.. Using the formula for finding the centre of mass taking
the location of the 1 unit mass as origin, we have x cm = r
3
4
3 2 1
r 2 x 3 r x 2 0 x 1
=
+ +
+ +
, from
the origin, where r is the distance between the masses.
54. If R is the radius of the cylinder and L its length, it is given here
2
R
M
2
=
(
(
+
12
L
4
R
M
2 2
,
which solves to L = R.
55. Using the law of transverse vibration, tension T l
2
, if l
1
and l
2
are resonating lengths and T
1

(weight in air), T
2
(weight under water) the corresponding tensions, we have T
1
= Kl
1
2
and T
2

= Kl
1
2
. The specific gravity is 8 . 2
Kl Kl
Kl
T T
T
water in weight of Loss
air in Weight
2
2
2
2
2
1
2 1
1
=
=
56. The forces acting on the bob of the pendulum is (i) weight W acting vertically downwards and
(ii) horizontal force due to the electric field = qE. (Charge x field). By tangent law, the string
carrying the bob will settle at an angle to the vertical such that tan = F / W = qE/mg

193
57. The restoring force here is horizontal component of mg=qE, when the pendulum swings
through an angle . For small amplitudes this force will be proportional to the displacement
with force constant k = mg qE.. Period = 2
m
qE
q
1
2
k
m
=
58. To find their path difference when they travel in different media, we compare their equivalent
paths in air. If the beam travels in L
1
in a medium of refractive index n
1
, its equivalent path in
air is n
1
L
1
(speed in air is n
1
times speed in the medium). So the path difference in this case is
n
2
L
2
n
1
L
1
. Here n
1
= 1.6 and L
1
= /4, n
2
= 1.5 and L
2
= /3. Thus the path difference is
0.1 . The phase difference when they recombine is 2/ (path difference) = 0.2 radian =
36
0

59. The angular width of a band in Youngs experiment is given by = /D = / d, where is
the width of the band, d separation of the slits and D distance from the source to the viewing
screen or microscope. Substituting the given values, we get = 2 x 10
-3
radian. Width and
angular width of all bands are same.
60. The only spread of laser beam is due to diffraction at the aperture. Angular spread = angle of
diffraction = = /d. Here = 6000 x 10
-10
m and d = 0.5 x 10
-3
m, = 1.2 x 10
-3
rad. Linear
spread = distance x angle of spread = D. D = 4 x 10
8
m. This comes out to be 480 km.

IIT-SCREENING TEST QUESTIONS 2002

1. A particle of mass m and charge q moves with a constant velocity v along the positive x
direction. It enters a region containing a uniform magnetic field B directed along the negative
z direction, extending from x = a to x = b. The minimum value of v required so that the
particle can just enter the region x > b is
a)
m
qbB
b)
m
B ) a b ( q
c)
m
qaB
d)
m
B ) a b ( q +

2. Two equal point charges Q each are fixed at x = -a and x = +a on the x-axis. Another point
charge q is placed at the origin. The change in the electrical potential energy of q, when it is
displaced by a small distance x along the x-axis, the approximately proportional to
a) x b) x
2
c) x
3
d) 1/x
3. A long straight wire along the z-axis carries a current I in the negative z direction. The
magnetic vector field B
G
at a point having coordinates (x,y) in the z = 0 plane is

) y x (
) j
y i
x (
2
I
) d
) y x (
) i
y j
x (
2
I
) c
) y x (
) j
y i
x (
2
I
) b
) y x (
) j
x i
y (
2
I
) a
2 2
0
2 2
0
2 2
0
2 2
0
+
+
+

4. A 100 W bulb B
1
and two 60 W bulbs B
2
and B
3
are
connected to a 250 V source, as shown in the figure. Now
W
1
, W
2
and W
3
are the output powers of the bulbs B
1
, B
2

and B
3
respectively, then
a) W
1
> W
2
= W
3
b) W
1
> W
2
> W
3

c) W
1
< W
2
= W
3
d) W
1
< W
2
< W
3

5. As shown in the figure 2 P and Q are two coaxial
conducting loops separated by some distance. When the
switch S is closed, a clockwise current I
p
flows in P (as seen
by E) and an induced current I
Q1
flows in Q. The switch
remains closed for a long time. When S is opened, a current
I
Q2
flows in Q. Then the direction of I
Q1
and I
Q2
(as seen
by E) are
a) respectively clockwise and anti-clokwise
b) both clockwise
c) both anti-clockwise
d) respectively anti-clockwise and clockwise
6. A short-circuited coil is placed in a time-varying magnetic
field. Electrical power is dissipated due to the current
induced in the coil. If the number of turns were to be quadrupled and the wire radius halved,
the electrical power dissipated would be
9

195
a) halved b) the same c) doubled d) quadrupled
7. Two identical capacitors have the same capacitance C. One of them is charged to potential V
1

and the other to V
2
. The negative ends of the capacitors are connected together. When the
positive ends are also connected, the decrease in energy of the combined system is

2
2 1
2
2 1
2
2
2
1
2
2
2
1
) V V ( C
4
1
) d ) V V ( C
4
1
) c ) V V ( C
4
1
) b ) V V ( C
4
1
) a + + a
8. The magnetic field lines due to a bar
magnet are correctly shown in fig.3
9. An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A BCA, as shown
in the figure 4. If the net heat supplied to the gas in the cycle is
5 J, the work done by the gas in the process C A is
a) -5 J
b) -10 J
c) -15 J
d) -20 J
10. Which of the following graphs correctly represents the variation
of = -(dV/dP)/V with P for an ideal gas at constant temperature

11. A Hydrogen atom and a Li
++
ion are both in the second excited state. If l
H
and l
Li
are their
respective electronic angular momenta, and E
H
and E
Li
their respective energies, then
a) l
H
> l
Li
and |E
H
| > |E
Li
|
b) l
H
= l
Li
and |E
H
| < |E
Li
|
c) l
H
= l
Li
and |E
H
| > |E
Li
|
d) l
H
< l
Li
and |E
H
| < |E
Li
|
12. An ideal black-body at room temperature is thrown into a furnace. It is observed that
a) initially it is the darkest body and at later times the brightest
b) it is the darkest body at all times
c) it cannot be distinguished at all times
d) initially it is the darkest body and at later times it cannot be distinguished
13. The potential difference applied to an X-rays tube is 5 kV and the current through it is 3.2
mA. Then the number of electrons striking the target per second is
a) 2 x 10
16
b) 5 x 10
16

c) 1 x 10
17
d) 4 x 10
15


196
14. Which of the following processes represents a gamma-decay ?
a)
A
X
Z
+
A
X
Z-1
+ a + b
b)
A
X
Z
+
1
n
0

A-3
X
Z-2
+c
c)
A
X
Z

A
X
Z
+ f
d)
A
X
Z
+ e
-1

A
X
Z-1
+g
15. The half-life of
215
At is 100 s. The time taken for the radioactivity of a sample of
215
At to
decay to 1/16
th
of its initial value is
a) 400 s b) 6.3 s c) 40 s d) 300 s
16. An observer can see through a pin-hole the top
end of a thin rod of height h, placed as shown
in the figure. The beaker height is 3h and its
radius h. When the beaker is filled with a
liquid up to a height 2h, he can see the lower
end of the rod. Then the refractive index of
the liquid is (fig.6 below)
a) 5/2
b) ) 2 / 5 (
c) 2 / 3
d) 3/2
17. Which one of the following spherical lenses
does not exhibit dispersion? The radii of
curvature of the surfaces of the lenses are as
given in the diagrams.(fig 6 next column)?
18. In the ideal double-slit experiment, when a glass-plate (refractive index 1.5) of thickness t is
introduced in the path of one of the interfering beams (wave-length ), the intensity at the
position where the central maximum occurred previously remains unchanged. The minimum
thickness of the glass-plate is
a) 2 b) 2/3
c) /3 d)
19. Two plane mirrors A and B are aligned parallel to each other,
as shown in the figure. A light ray is incident at an angle of
30
0
at a point just inside one end of A. The plane of incidence
coincides with the plane of the figure. The maximum number
of times the ray undergoes reflections (including the first one)
before it emerges out is
a) 28 b) 30
c) 32 d) 34
20. A wooden block, with a coin placed on its top, floats in water as shown in fig. The distance l
and h are shown there. After some time the coin falls into the water (fig.8). Then
a) l decreases and h increases b) l increases and h decreases
c) both l and h increase d) both l and h decrease

197
21. A simple pendulum is oscillating without damping. When the
displacement of the bob is less than maximum, its acceleration
vector a is correctly shown in (fig.9)
22. A cylinder rolls up an inclined plane, reaches some height, and then rolls down (without
slipping throughout these motions). The directions of the frictional force acting on the
cylinder are
a) up the incline while ascending and down the incline while descending
b) up the incline while ascending as well as descending
c) down the incline while ascending and up the incline while descending
d) down the incline while ascending as well as descending
23. A circular platform is free to rotate in a horizontal plane about a vertical axis passing through
its center. A tortoise is sitting at the edge of the platform. Now, the platform is given an
angular velocity
0
. When the tortoise moves along a chord of the platform with a constant
velocity (with respect to the platform), the angular velocity of the platform (t) will vary with
time t as (fig.10)

198
24. A particle, which is constrained to move along the x-axis, is subjected to a force in the same
direction which varies with the distance x of the particle from the origin as F(x) = -kx + ax
3
.
Here k and a are positive constants. For x 0, the functional form of the potential energy
U(x) of the particle is (fig.11)
25. Two blocks of masses 10 kg and 4 kg are
connected by a spring of negligible mass and placed on a frictionless horizontal surface. An
impulse gives a velocity of 14 m/s to the heavier block in the direction of the lighter block.
The velocity of the center of mass is
a) 30 m/s b) 20 m/s c) 10 m/s d) 5 m/s
26. A siren placed at a railway platform is emitting sound of frequency 5 kHz. A passenger
sitting in a moving train A records a frequency of 5.5 kHz while the train approaches the
siren. during his return journey in a different train B he records a frequency of 6.0 kHz while
approaching the same siren. The ratio of the velocity of train B to that of train A is
a) 242/252 b) 2 c) 5/6 d) 11/6
27. A sonometer wire resonates with a given tuning fork forming standing waves with five
antinodes between the two bridges when a mass of 9 kg is suspended from the wire. when
this mass is replaced by a mass M, the wire resonates with the same tuning fork forming three
antinodes for the same positions of the bridges. The value of M is
a) 25 kg b) 5 kg c) 12.5 kg d) 1/25 kg
28. An ideal spring with spring-constant k is hung from the ceiling and a block of mass M is
attached to its lower end. the mass is released with the spring initially unstretched. Then the
maximum extension in the spring is
a) 4 Mg/k b) 2 Mg/k c) Mg/k d) Mg/2k
29. A geo-stationary satellite orbits around the earch in a circular orbit of radius 36000 km. Then,
the time period of a spy satellite orbiting a few hundred kilometers above the earths surface
(R
Earth
= 6400 km) will approximately be
a) 1/2 h b) 1 h c) 2 h d) 4 h
30. The effective resistance between points P and Q of the electrical circuit shown in the figure is
a)
r R
Rr 2
+
b)
r R 3
) r R ( R 8
+
+
)

199
c) 2r+ 4 R d)
r 2 2
R 5
+

SOLUTIONS
1. The radius of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field is r = mv/qB. If the particle is
not to enter the region x > b, the radius should have only a maximum value b-a. So b-a =
mv/qB b = qB (b-a) /m. Ans.B
2. The potential energy between the two charges q,q and the charge Q at the origin is
(
+
+
x a
Qq
x a
Qq
0
4
1
when charge is displaced by a distance x. Before displacement the
potential energy is
a
Qq 2
4
1
0
. The change in energy can be found by finding the
difference between the two terms. This will be
3
0
2
a 2
Qqx
U
= , which is proportional to x
2
.
Ans.B
3. The radius vector joining the conductor to the point is r = ix+jy. The magnitude of the field
will be
2 2
0 0
2
2
y x
I
r
I
+

=
. (1) The direction of the field will be unit vector perpendicular

to the radius vector r. This will be
2 2
y x
x j
y i
(2). From (1) and (2) the magnetic field vector

will be
) y x (
) j
x i
y (
2
I
2 2
0
+
. Ans.A
4. In a parallel connection power is same. So power across B
3
is the same as power across B
1

and B
2
together. So W
3
is maximum. In a series connection power is directly proportional to
resistance. 60 W lamp has greater resistance. So it has greater power. i.e. W
2
> W
1
. Thus
W
1
< W
2
< W
3
. Ans.D
5. When the current is increasing in P clockwise induced current in Q is anti-clockwise by
Lenzs law. When current is decreasing in P, the induced current in Q is clockwise. Ans.D
6. Induced emf e is proportional to number of turns N. Power is proportional to (emf)
2
. When
the number of turns is made for four times, power increases to 16 times. When radius of wire
is halved, resistance increases to four times. Since length increases to four times, resistance
increases to 4 x 4 = 16 times. Thus power e
2
/r remains constant. Ans.B
7. Use the short cut equation for loss of electrostatic energy
2
2 1
2 1
2 1
) V V (
) C C ( 2
C C
U
+
= . We have
here C
1
= C
2

2
2 1
4
1
) V V ( C U = Ans.C
8. Magnetic lines of force start from north pole and end at south pole outside and continue from
south pole to north pole inside the magnet. Ans.D
9. Work done along AB = 10 (2-1) = 10 J. Work done along BC = 0 (no change in volume).
Work done along AC be equal to W. Then 10 + 0 + W = 5, that is heat supplied. This gives
W = -5J. Ans.A

200
10. Bulk modulus of an ideal gas = K =
) V / V (
P
. Compressibility =
P
V / V
K
1
= . Thus we
find is inversely proportional to P. The graph between them will be a rectangular
hyperbola. Ans.A
11. By Bohrs postulate, the angular momentum in nth orbit = n(h/2). So it is same for hydrogen
and helium atom. The energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6/n
2
eV for n
th
state and -13.6 Z
2
/ n
2
,
for helium atom. So it is more for helium atom. Ans.B
12. A black body is a good emitter and a good absorber. When it is thrown into the furnace, it
first becomes dark. Then it reemits all radiations. It becomes brightest. Ans.A
13. If n is the number of electrons striking the target, e its charge, current I = ne. n = I/e = 3.2 x
10
-3
/ 1.6 x 10
-19
= 2 x 10
16
. Potential will not decide the number of electrons. It decides
only the energy of electrons. Ans.A
14. Only in a decay there will be no change in mass number and atomic number. Ans.C
15. Use the short cut equation
T / t 0
2
N
N
= Here N
0
/N = 16 t/T = 4 t is four times T.=
400 s. Ans.A
16. From fig. when the lower end of the rod is seen, the angle of incidence is 45
0
.
ga
ag
r sin
i sin
r sin
i sin
= =
1
. r = 45
0
. This gives sin i = 1/ 5 2 / 5 = . Ans.B
17. We use here Lens makers formula
|
|
.
|
\
|
+ =
2 1
R
1
R
1
) 1 (
f
1
. For no dispersion, d (1/f) should be
zero R
1
= -R
2
. i.e. one surface must be convex and the other concave. Ans.C.
18. If is the refractive index of glass, n is a number of fringes shifting, for central maximum to
remain unchanged (-1)t = n t = 2. Ans.A
19. During each reflection, there is a lateral displacement of x = d tan 30
0
, where d is the distance
between the glass plates. If n is the number of reflections, then n d tan 30 = length of the
plate L. n x 0.2(1/ 3 ) = 2 3 n=30. Total number = 30+initial+final = 32. Ans.C
20. By law of flotation, weight of floating body = weight of liquid displaced. When the coin is
removed, the weight of body decreases. Hence it rises and l decreases. When the coin falls
into water, it displaces water equal to its volume. The volume of coin is numerically less than
its mass. Hence water level falls h decreases. Ans.D
21. A body in motion along a curve has two accelerations. They are tangential acceleration a
t

along the tangent and centripetal acceleration a
r
along the radius towards centre. Its vector
sum
r t
a a a
G G G
+ = . Ans.C
22. On an inclined plane the force of gravity is always downwards, even if the cylinder moves up
or down. Hence frictional force is always upwards. Ans.B
23. The initial distance of the tortoise from centre of circle O is equal to radius of platform r. As
it moves from A its distance from O decreases, reaches minimum at O, then increases. Its
moment of inertia I = mr
2
ecreases and then increases. As the platform is a closed system I
= C
rms
. So first increases and then decreases. Ans.B

201
24. If F is the force and U potential energy, F=
4
ax
2
Kx
dx F U
dX
dU
4 2
+ = =

. For U = 0, the
equation is quadratic in x. Hence the graph of U against x will touch x axis at two points.
This will eliminate answers B and C From the equation we find F = 0 when x = 0 .
0 x
dX
dU
=
(
= 0 The slope of graph U against X should be 0 at the origin. This eliminates

answer A. Ans.D
25. The spring mass system has only internal force velocity of centre of mass v(c.m) =

14
) 0 x 4 ( ) 14 x 10 (
m m
v m v m
2 1
2 2 1 1
+
=
+
+
= 10 m/s Ans.C
26. If V
A
is velocity of A, V
B
that of B, V velocity of sound, the frequencies heard by the
passenger are
f
1
=
V
) V V ( f
f ,
V
) V V ( f
B
2
A
+
=
+
2 =
A
B
V
V
. Given f = 5, f
1
= 5.5 f
2
= 6, we get Ans.B
27. The frequency of sonometer wire when it vibrates in n
th
mode (in n loops) is f
n
=
M n
Mg
L 2
n T
L 2
n
= constant, n is the number of nodes. =

1
2
2
1
n
n
M
M
M
1
= 9 kg.
M
2
= 25 kg Ans. A
28. If A is maximum extension, the work done in stretching = kinetic energy of the opring. Work
= force x distance. the force here is constant = Mg
2
kA
2
1
MgA =
k
Mg 2
A = Ans.B
29. By Keplers third T R
3/2
if T is the period of geostationary satellites T
s
that of spy satellite
7 7
24
T 7 7
6400
6400 36000
T
T
s
2 / 3
s
= =
(
+
= nearly 2h. One can also answer the question with
the theory information that the period of a satellite very close to earth is 84 minutes. The
distance of spy satellite should be slightly more as it is orbiting a few hundred km above
earth. The nearest answer is 2h. Ans.C
30. By symmetry remove 2R from the centre of the net work. (Note this is similar to
Wheatsones bridge.) This leaves three resistances 2R + 2R, 2R+2R, r+ r, in parallel. This
gives
r R
Rr 2
+
Ans.A


202

IIT-SCREENING TEST QUESTIONS 2001

1. A quantity X is given by
t
V
L
0
, where
0
is the permittivity of free space, L is a length, V
is a potential difference and t is a time interval. The dimensional formula for X is the same
as that of
A) resistance B) charge
C) voltage D) current
2. The pulleys and strings shown in the figure are smooth and
of negligible mass. For the system to remain in
equilibrium, the angle should be
A) 0
0
B) 30
0

C) 45
0
D) 60
0

3. A string of negligible mass going over a clamped pulley of
mass m supports a block of mass M as shown in the figure.
The force on the pulley by the clamp is given by

g M ) m M ( ) D
g m ) m M ( ) C
mg 2 ) B
Mg 2 ) A
2 2
2 2
+ +
+ +

4. An insect crawls up a hemispherical surface very slowly
(see Fig). The coefficient of friction between the insect and
the surface is 1/3. If the line joining the centre of the
hemispherical surface to the insect makes an angle with
the vertical, the maximum possible value of is given by
A) cot = 3
B) tan = 3
C) sect = 3
D) cosec = 3
5. Two particles of masses m
1
and m
2
in projectile motion have
velocities v
1
and v
2
respectively at time t = 0. They collide
at time t
0
. Their velocities become v
1
and v
2
at time 2t
0

while still moving in air. The value of |m
1
v
1
+ m
2
v
2
)-(m
1
v
1
+ m
2
v
2
)| is

A) zero B) (m
1
+ m
2
) gt
0

C) 2(m
1
+ m
2
) gt
0
D)
2
1
(m
1
+ m
2
) gt
0

m m
2 m

M
m

203
6. One quarter sector is cut from a uniform circular disc of radius R. This sector has mass M. It
is made to rotate about a line perpendicular to its plane and passing through the centre of the
original disc. Its moment of inertia about the axis of
rotation is

2 2
2 2
MR 2 ) D MR
8
1
) C
MR
4
1
) B MR
2
1
) A

7. A simple pendulum has a time period T
1
when on the
earths surface and T
2
when taken to a height R above the
earths surface, where R is the radius of the earth. The value of T
2
/T
1
is
A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 2
8. A small block of shot into each of the four tracks as shown below. Each of the tracks rises to
the same height. The speed with which the block enters the track is the same in all cases. At
the highest point of the track the normal reaction is maximum in
9. A hemispherical portion of radius R is removed from the bottom of a cylinder of radius R.
The volume of the remaining cylinder is V and its mass is M. It is suspended by a string in a
liquid of density , where it stays vertical. The upper surface of the cylinder is at a depth h
below the liquid surface. The force on the bottom of the
cylinder by the liquid is
A) Mg
B) Mg-V g
C) Mg- R
2
h g
D) g (V+R
2
h)
10. The ends of a stretched wire of length L are fixed at X = 0
and X = L. In one experiment, the displacement of the wire is Y
1
= A sin (x/L) sin t and
energy is E
1
and in another experiment its displacement is Y
2
= A sin (2x/L) sin 2t and
energy is E
2
. Then
A) E
2
= E
1
B) E
2
= 2E
1

C) E
2
= 4E
1
D) E
2
= 16 E
1

11. Two pulses in a stretched string whose centres are initially 8
cm apart are moving towards each other as shown in the
Fig. The speed of each pulse is 2 cm/s. After 2 seconds, the
total energy of the pulses will be
A) zero B) purely kinetic
C) purely potential D) partly kinetic and partly potential
12. P-V plots for two gases during adiabatic processes are
shown in the Fig. Plots 1 and 2 should correspond
(A) (B) (C) (D)
v v v v

2R
h

8 cm

204
respectively to
A) He and O
2

B) O
2
and He
C) He and Ar
D) O
2
and N
2

13. Three rods made of the same material and having
the same cross section have been joined as shown
in the Fig. Each rod is of the same length. The left
and right ends are kept at 0
0
C and 90
0
C
respectively. The temperature of the junction of the
three rods will be
A) 45
0
C
B) 60
0
C
C) 30
0
C
D) 20
0
C
14. When a block of iron floats in mercury at 0
0
C, a
fraction k
1
of its volume is submerged, while at the
temperature 60
0
C, a fraction k
2
is seen to be submerged.
If the coefficient of volume expansion of iron is
Fe
, and
that of mercury
Hg
then the ratio k
1
/k
2
can be expressed as

Fe
Hg
Hg
Fe
Hg
Fe
Hg
Fe
60 1
60 1
) D
60 1
60 1
) D
60 1
60 1
) B
60 1
60 1
) A
+
+

+
+

+
+

15. In a given process on an ideal gas, dW = 0 and dQ < 0. Then for the gas
A) the temperature will decrease
B) the volume will increase
C) the pressure will remain constant
D) the temperature will increase
16. Three positive charges of equal value q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle.
The resulting lines of force should be sketched as in
17. A uniform electric field pointing in positive x-direction exists in a region. Let A be the origin,
B the point on the x-axis at x = +1 cm and C be the point on the y-axis at y = +1 cm. Then the
potentials at the points A,B and C satisfy
A) V
A
< V
B
B) V
A
> V
B

C) V
A
< V
C
D) V
A
> V
C
P
V
1
2
(A) (D) (B) (C)
90C
0C
90C

205
18. Consider the situation shown in the Fig. The capacitor A has a charge q on it whereas B is
uncharged. The charge appearing on the capacitor B a long time after the switch is closed is
A) zero B) q/2
C) q D) 2q
19. A coil having N turns is wound tightly in the form of a
spiral with inner and outer radii a and b respectively. When
a current passes through the coil the magnetic field at the
centre is

a
b
In
) a b ( 2
NI
) D
a
b
In
) a b ( 2
NI
) C
a
NI 2
) B
b
NI
) A
N
0 0
0 0

20. Two particles A and B of masses m
A
and m
B
respectively
and having the same charge are moving in a plane. A
uniform magnetic field exists perpendicular to this plane.
The speeds of the particles are v
A
and v
B
respectively and
trajectories of particles are as shown in the Fig. Then
A) m
A
v
A
< m
B
v
B

B) m
A
v
A
> m
B
v
B

C) m
A
< m
B
and v
A
< v
B

D) m
A
= m
B
and v
A
= v
B
21. Two circular coils can be arranged in any of the three situations shown in the Fig. Their
mutual inductance will be
A) maximum in situation (A) B) maximum in situation (B)
C) maximum in situation (C) D) the same in all situations
22. A wire of length L and 3 identical cells of negligible internal resistances are connected in
series. Due to the current the temperature of the wire is raised by T in a time t. A number N
of similar cells is now connected in series with a wire of the same material and cross-section
but of length 2L. The temperature of the wire is raised by the same amount T in the same
time t. The value of N is
A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) 9
23. A ray of light passes through four transparent media with refractive indices
1
,
2
,
3
and
4

as shown in the Fig. The surfaces of all media are parallel. If the emergent ray CD is
parallel to the incident ray AB, we must have
+
+
+
+
_
_
_
_
q
A
S
B
A
B
(A) (B) (C)

206
A)
1
=
2
B)
2
=
3

C)
3
=
4
D)
4
=
1

24. A given ray of light suffers minimum deviation in an
equilateral prism P. Additional prisms Q and R of
identical shape and of the same material as P are now
added as shown in the Fig. The ray will now suffer
A) greater deviation
B) no deviation
C) same deviation as before
D) total internal reflection
25. Two beams of light having intensities 1 and 4I interfere
to produce a fringe pattern on a screen. The phase difference between the beams is /2 at
point A and at point B. Then the difference between the resultant intensities at A and B is
A) 21 B) 41 C) 51 D) 71
26. The transition from the state n = 4 to n = 3 in a hydrogen-like atom results in ultraviolet
radiation. Infra-red radiation will be obtained in the transition
A) 2 1 B) 3 2 C) 4 2 D) 5 4
27. The intensity of X-rays from a Coolidge tube is
plotted against wavelength as shown in the Fig.
The minimum wavelength found is
C
and the
wavelength of the K line is
K
. As the
accelerating voltage is increased
A)
K
-
C
increases
B)
K
-
C
decreases
C)
K
increases
D)
K
decreases
28. The electron emitted in beta radiation originates from
A) inner orbits of atoms
B) free electrons existing in nuclei
C) decay of a neutron in a nucleus
D) photon escaping from the nucleus
29. In the given circuit with steady current, the potential
drop across the capacitor must be
A) V B) V/2
C) V/3 D) 2V/3
D
A
B
C

1 2 3 4
P
Q
R
I
K C
R
V
V
2V
2R
C

207
30. A metallic square loop ABCD is moving in its own
plane with velocity v in a uniform magnetic field
perpendicular to its plane as shown in the Fig. An
electric field is induced
A) in AD, but not in BC
B) in BC but not in AD
C) neither in AD nor in BC
D) in both AD and BC
31. A radioactive sample consists of two distinct species having equal number of atoms initially.
The mean life time of one species is and that of the other is 5. The decay products in both
cases are stable. A plot is made of the total number of radioactive nuclei as a function of
time. Which of the following Fig.s best represents the form of this plot ?
32. In the given circuit, it is observed that the current I is independent of the value of the
resistance R
6
. Then the resistance values must satisfy
A) R
1
R
2
R
5
= R
3
R
4
R
6

B)
4 3 2 1 6 5
R R
1
R R
1
R
1
R
1
+
+
+
= +
C) R
1
R
4
= R
2
R
3

D) R
1
R
3
= R
2
R
4
= R
5
R
6

33. In a Youngs double slit experiment, 12 fringes are
observed to be formed in a certain segment of the screen when light of wavelength 600 nm is
used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, number of fringes observed in the
same segment of the screen is given by
A) 12 B) 18 C) 24 D) 30
34. A non-planar loop of conducting wire carrying a
current I is placed as shown in the Fig. Each of the
straight sections of the loop is of length 2a. The
magnetic field due to this loop at the point P(a,0,)
points in the direction

) k
(
2
1
) D ) k
(
3
1
) C
) i
(
3
1
) B ) k
(
2
1
) A
+ + +
+ + +

35. A particle executes simple harmonic motion between x = -A and x = +A. The time taken for
it to go from 0 to A/2 is T
1
and to go from A/2 to A is T
2
. Then
A
D C
B
(A) (B) (C) (D)
N N N N
t t t t
I
R
R
R
R
R
R
1
5
2
6
3
4
z
y
x
I
2a

208
A) T
1
< T
2
B) T
1
> T
2
C) T
1
= T
2
D) T
1
= 2T
2

SOLUTIONS
1. Substituting the units of the given quantity we have
dt
dV
L
o
= . A
t
C
t
FxV
t
V
xmx
m
F
= = = .
Thus the given quantity is current. Ans.D
2. Consider the free body diagram of mass m. We find mg = T (1). Next consider the free body
diagram of mass2 mg. We find that the vertical component of the tension should be equal to
weight 2mg2mg = 2Tcos = 2mgcos ,since T = mg from equation (1). = 45
o
.
Ans.C

3. Consider free body diagram of the block as shown in fig.1. We can write Mg = T (1). Now
consider figure 2 which is the free body diagram of the pulley. If F is the net force on the
pulley, it should be equal to the vector sum of the two forces mg+T and T.
F=
2 2 2 2
) Mg ( ) Mg mg ( T ) T mg ( + + = + + = . g M ) M m (
2 2
+ + Ans.D
4. Let P be the point where insect leaves the sphere. This happens when the centripetal force
vanishes. i.e. N-mgcos = mv
2
/r should become
zero. N= mg cos (1). At this point the
frictional force along the tangent N should be
equal to mgsin i.e. N = mgsin (2). Dividing
equation (2) by (1), we get tan = cot =
1/ = 3. Ans.A
5. The given quantity |(m
1
v
1
'
+m
2
v
2
'
)- (m
1
v
1
+m
2
v
2
)|
is the magnitude of change in momentum of the
projectiles. Change in momentum = Impulse I.
Impulse I =force x time. The only force acting on the system here is the force of gravity. i.e.
weight for the two bodies (m
1
+m
2
)g. The time for which the force acts is 2t
o
. So the impulse
= (m
1
+m
2
)g x 2t
o
. Ans. C.
T
Mg
T
T
F
F
1
mg
mg sin
m
g

c
o
s
N
P
mg
T T
T sin T sin
2T cos
2 mg
m
T
mg

209
6. Moment of inertia is a scalar quantity. It can be added , if the axis of rotation is the same. The
moment of inertia of the quarter sector is one-fourth of the moment of inertia of the disc as a
whole. The moment of inertia of the disc about an axis passing through centre of mass
perpendicular to the plane is 4MR
2
/2, since 4M is the mass of the disc. The moment of inertia
of the sector = (1/4) 4MR
2
/2 = MR
2
/2. Ans. A
7. If g
1
is acceleration due to gravity at the surface of earth and g
2
its value at an altitude h=R,
we have
2
1
R
GM
g = (1) and
4
g
R 4
GM
) R R (
GM
) h R (
GM
g
1
2 2 2
2
= =
+
=
+
= (2). Dividing the two
equations, g
1
/g
2
= 4. The periods of the pendulum at the surface of earth and at the altitude R
are given T
1
=
1
g
l
2 , T
2
=
2
g
l
2
2
1
4
1
g
g
T
T
1
2
2
1
= = = T
2
= 2T
1
.. Ans.D
8. If N is the normal reaction at the highest point, mg weight, R radius of the track, then the
centripetal force is given by
R
mV
mg N
R
mV
N mg
2 2
= = , where V is velocity at highest
point..Here reaction N is maximum, when radius of the track R is minimum because v is
constant. In the given choices R is minimum in fig. (A). Ans.A
9. The force on the bottom of the cylinder F' - Force on the top (F) = Buoyant force (B). This
gives force at the bottom F' = F+B. F = Thrust on the top surface g h r
2
. Buoyant force B =
Weight of liquid displaced = Vg. F' = g h r
2
+Vg = g( h r
2
+V). Ans.D. This question
can also be answered by simple reasoning, once we know the thrust at the bottom is sum of
thrust at the top and buoyant force. The thrust at the top depends only on the height, density of
liquid and g. The buoyant force will depend only on the volume of cylinder and density of the
liquid. So the required equation should not contain the mass of the cylinder. This eliminates
all the first three choices.
10. The energy of SHM is given by (1/2)m
2
A
2
, where A is the amplitude. In both the given
equations maximum displacement (amplitude) is A. But the angular frequency of the first is
, while that of the second is 2. This gives
1 2
2
2
1
2
E 4 E 4
) 2 (
E
E
= =
= .. Ans. C.
11. After two seconds each pulse would have travelled 4 cm and would arrive at the same point so
that their maximum will be at the same points. That is, each particle will be at the respective
mean position i.e position of zero displacement. At mean position the energy of a simple
harmonic particle is purely kinetic. Ans.B
12. The slope of an adiabatic curve is equal to the ratio of specific heats xP. The slope of curve
2 is greater than that of 1. of monatomic gas is greater than that of diatomic gas. This
would mean that curve 2 corresponds to monatomic and curve 1 diatomic. Oxygen is diatomic
and He monatomic. Ans. B.
13. Let T be the temperature of the common junction of three rods at thermal equilibrium. Then
heat conducted/s between the left end and common junction= heat conducted per s between
common junctions and the two right ends. i.e.
x
) T 90 ( A
x
) T 90 ( A
x
) 0 T ( A
+

=

, where
is the thermal conductivity of the material of the rod, x length of each rod, A cross sectional
area. This gives T = 60
0
. Ans. B.

210
14. Fraction of the immersed volume = density of body/density of liquid. This gives
) Hg ( d
) Fe ( d
C 0 at Hg of density
C 0 at Fe of density
k
0
0
o
o
1
= = , =
2
k
C 60 at Hg of density
C 60 at Fe of density
o
o
=
) Hg ( d
) Fe ( d
60
60
. We know
) 60 1 ( d ) Fe ( d
Fe 60 0
+ = , ) 60 1 ( d ) Hg ( d
Hg 60 0
+ = . This gives =
2
1
k
k
Hg
Fe
60 1
60 1
+
+
, . Ans.A.
15. We use the first law of thermodynamics dQ = dU+dW. It is given dQ is negative and dW= 0.
This would mean dU is negative. The internal energy decreases. Temperature of system
decreases. Ans.A.
16. In choice (A), lines of force starting from a positive charge end at another positive charge.
Hence (A) is wrong. In choice (B) and choice (D) lines of force form closed loops. This
cannot happen for positive charges. Therefore, choice (C) is correct. Ans.C.
17. Since a uniform electric field exists along the positive X-axis, a free positive charge will
move from A to B. We also know a positive charge moves from higher to a lower potential.
This means potential at V
A
is greater than V
B
. Ans.B.
18. The right plate of the capacitor B is isolated. For charges to flow from A to B, and B to work
as a capacitor, the right plate will have to be earthed or connected by a wire to some other
plate. Under the given condition B cannot attain any charge. Ans.A.
19. The equation for magnetic field due to a spiral of inner radius a and outer radius b will act as a
coil of width b-a and should contain both a and b. This rules out the choices (A) and (B). In
choice (D) the power of current is I
N
. This will make the equation for magnetic field
dimensionally incorrect. The correct choice, therefore, is (C). Ans.C.
20. The radius of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field is given by r =
qB
mv
. Here q and B
are same for both the particles. From figure r
A
is greater than r
B.

qB
v m
A A
>
qB
v m
B B
m
A
v
A
>
m
B
v
B
. Ans.B.
21. The mutual inductance between the two coils is maximum when the flux produced by one coil
links maximum with the other. The magnetic field produced by a coil is along the axis. So
flux lines will come along the axis. The second coil will intercept maximum flux when it
presents maximum cross sectional area to the flux. This happens in a situation shown in
fig.(A). Ans.A.
22. We shall assume that the wires are uniform so that the length is proportional to mass and
proportional to resistance. If E is the emf of each cell, c the specific heat of the wire, then the
heat produced in the two cases respectively will be ) 1 ( T mc
R
] E 3 [
2
=
) 2 ( T mc 2
R 2
] NE [
2
= Dividing the two equations we get N
2
= 36 N=6. Ans.B.
23. By Snell's law of refraction for media 1 and 4,
1 4
1
4
4
1
4 4 1 1
sin
sin
sin sin =
=
since
1
=
4
.Ans.D.
24. If we consider the prisms Q and R joined together, they form a parallel-sided glass. A ray of
light entering from P to this combination should go parallel after refraction through the

211
combination Q and R. So the deviation of the ray after passing through P will remain the
same even after passing through Q and R. Ans.C
25. The resultant intensity when two waves of intensity I
1
and I
2
superpose at a phase difference
is given by + + = cos I I 2 I I I
2 1 2 1
. Using this I 5 2 / cos I 4 I 2 I 4 I I
A
= + + =
and I cos I 4 I 2 I 4 I I
B
= + + =
A
I -I
B
= 4I. Ans.B
26. The energy difference between quantum states goes on decreasing as E
n
is proportional to
1/n
2
. The energy difference for infrared should be less than that for for ultraviolet radiation.
If transition from 4 to 3 produces ultra-violet radiation, then the energy difference will be less
only for transition from 5 to 4. Ans. D
27. The wavelength of K radiation
K
is a constant for a given target material. The wavelength
of radiation is related to accelerating voltage by the equation
C
=
eV
hc
. That is is inversely
proportional to V. When the accelerating voltage is increased,
C
decreases.
K
-
C
increases. Ans.A.
28. Electrons do not exist in the nucleus. Decay of neutron produces electron and proton. Ans.C.
29. At the steady state no current flows through the branch containing condenser. Considering
the rest of the circuit, the current i = .
R 3
V
R 2 R
V V 2
=
+
If we now consider the upper part of the

loop and the part containing condenser, the charging potential of the condenser is V+
R 3
VR
-V =
3
V
. Ans.C.
30. The induced e.m.f when a conductor of length l moves in a magnetic field B with a velocity v
is Blv sin. Here the sides AD and BC are perpendicular to the field = 90
0
and hence will
have induced e.m.f.s. The sides AB and CD are parallel to the field and hence the induced
e.m.f will be Blv sin0 =0. The induced e.m.fs produce potential difference in the side AD and
BC and hence an electric field. Ans.D
31. What ever may be the value of mean life or half life, the number of atoms remaining to
undergo disintegration should only decrease with time according to the exponential law
t
0
e N N

= .This rules out answers (A),(B) and (C). Ans.D.
32. If the current through R
6
is independent of the value of R
6
, then the branches R
1
, R
3
, R
4
, R
2

should form a balanced Wheat stone's bridge, with R
6
taking the place of galvanometer
resistance. For balance, we should have
3 2 4 1
4
2
3
1
R R R R
R
R
R
R
= = Ans.C.
33. The bandwidth in Young's experiment is given by . to al proportion is . e . i
d
D

= When
decreases from 600 to 400 nm, the bandwidth decreases to 2/3. The number of bands in a
given distance x = x/ increases to 3/2 times i.e. 12x3/2 = 18. Ans.B
34. Treat the given loops as two separate loops one in the YZ plane and the other in the XY plane.
The magnetic field produced by the loop is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. So it
should be respectively along +X axis and +Z axis from the current direction. Our answer

212
should, therefore, contain unit vectors along the X-axis i
and Z-axis k
.The unit vector in the

direction of k
+ is the unit vector in the direction of magnetic field. This is

2
1
( ) k
+ .
Ans.D.
35. The equation to displacement of S.H.M is given by A sin or A sin t, where A is amplitude.
We know sin increases fast first and then increases slowly. ( For example sin 0 = 0, sin 30
0
=
1/2 and sin 90
0
=1). So the displacement increases from 0 to A/2 quicker than that from A/2
to A. So time necessary to cover the first half of the amplitude is less than that for the second
half. ( If T is the period of S.H.M, we can easily prove that T
1
= T/12 and T
2
= T/6.) Ans.A

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MECHANICS

) t cos a ( r + = . The velocity vector is

+ t. The magnitude of force acting on it at

for a diatomic gas. This

= constant, we find = 3/2. The

. This will give

.To get maximum efficiency

] where x is in metres and t

t. The instants of time at

= , where subscript 1 is for hydrogen and 2 for

. This gives x = 12.5 cm. Ans.a

t). This will be maximum when cos

, in Y-Z plane. The

= 150 pF. Ans.b

1000 field electric an and i

20 If this particle continues with the same velocity in the same

by Biot-Savart law. Since resistance is proportional to

= . The graph between F and i

, we can rewrite the given quantity as =

water in light of velocity

. This gives the

.This formula is given in indirect theory notes. Ans.d

. Or use theory short-cut

. Moment of inertia of the remaining portion of the disc is

. (1) The direction of the field will be unit vector perpendicular

(2). From (1) and (2) the magnetic field vector

= 0 The slope of graph U against X should be 0 at the origin. This eliminates

= constant, n is the number of nodes. =

If we now consider the upper part of the

.The unit vector in the

+ is the unit vector in the direction of magnetic field. This is

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