Q1. Acrodermatitis enteropathica is due to deficiency of: a. Iodine b. Zinc c. Copper d. Iron 1. Ans: B i.e.

Zinc Ref: Satyanarayanas Biochemistry, 3rd ed., p-420 Acrodermatitis enteropathica is a rare inherited metabolic disease of zinc deficiency caused by a defect in the absorption in the absorption of zinc from the intestine Q2. Each Community development block consists of: a. 100 villages & a population of ten thousand b. 100 villages & a population of one lakh c. 1000 villages & a population of ten thousand d. 1000 villages & a population of one lakh 2. Ans: B i.e. 100 villages & a population of one lakh Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-820 Under the Community Development Programme, the rural areas of the country have been organized into Community Development Blocks each Block comprising approximately 100 villages and a population of one lakh Q3. Minimum distance between latrine & source of water source should be at least: a. 10 metres b. 15 metres c. 50 metres d. 100 metres 3. Ans: B i.e. 15 metres Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-700 In general, it may be stated, that latrines of any kind should not be located within 15 metres (50 ft) from a source of water supply Q4. Herd immunity is seen in all except: a. Poliomyelitis b. Diphtheria c. Tetanus d. Measles 4. Ans: C i.e. Tetanus Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-97, 98 Option a & b: If high level of immunity is maintained & stepped up, by an ongoing immunization programme, to the point where the susceptible persons are reduced to a small proportion of the population, it may lead (but not necessarily) to elimination of the disease in due course. This has been achieved in such diseases as diphtheria & poliomyelitis Option c: In the case of tetanus, however, herd immunity does not protect the individual

Option d: When an infectious disease is introduced into a virgin population, that is, population with a very low or no immunity, the attack & case fatality rates tend to be very high involving practically all susceptible as it had happened in the very severe measles epidemic in the Faroe islands, in 1854, where the population had no previous experience of measles. The epidemic wave declined with a build up of herd immunity following natural infection Q5. Body Mass Index is expressed as: a. Gram/ metre2 b. Gram/ centimetre2 c. Kilogram/ metre2 d. Kilogram/ centimetre2 5. Ans: C i.e. Kilogram/ metre2 Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-368 Body Mass Index is defined as the weight in kilograms divided by the square of the height in metres (Kg/ m2) Q6. All of the following are true for Kyasanur Forest Disease except: a. Caused by Arbovirus b. Transmitted by bite of infective ticks c. Incubation period of 1 week d. Man to man transmission is seen 6. Ans: D i.e. Man to man transmission is seen Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-263, 264 Option a & b: Kyasanur forest disease/ KFD is an febrile disease associated with haemorrhages caused by an arbovirus flavivirus & transmitted to man by bite of infective ticks Option c: Incubation period is estimated to be between 3 & 8 days Option d: There is no evidence of man to man transmission Q7. Mite is a vector for: a. Endemic typhus b. Scrub typhus c. Epidemic typhus d. Trench fever 7. Ans: B i.e. Scrub typhus Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-274t Option a: Flea is the insect vector for endemic / flea borne/ murine typhus Option b: Mite is the insect vector for scrub typhus Option c & d: Louse is the insect vector for epidemic typhus & trench fever Q8. Maximum permissible noise level in hospital wards is: a. 20-35 dBA

b. 35-40 dBA c. 40-45 dBA d. 50-60 dBA 8. Ans: A i.e. 20-35 dBA Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-685t Option a: Acceptable noise level in hospitals (wards) is 20-35 dBA Option b: Acceptable noise level in library is 35-40 dBA Option c: Acceptable noise level in conference is 40-45 dBA Option d: Acceptable noise level in restaurants & workshop is 40-60 dBA Q9. All of the following are duties of a Health worker female/ HWF except: a. Detect malpresentation b. Detect oligohydramnios c. Diagnose renal diseases d. Detect anemia 9. Ans: C i.e. Diagnose renal diseases Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-845 Duties of health worker female/ HWF includes maternal & child health, family planning, medical termination of pregnancy, nutrition, universal programme of immunization, dai training, communicable disease, vital events, record keeping, treatment of minor ailments & team activities There is no mention of diagnosing any medical ailments Q10. Amount of cereal provided in mid-day meal: a. 8 gm b. 30 gm c. 150 gm d. None of the above 10. Ans: D i.e. None of the above Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-612 Cereals & millets provided in mid-day school meal is 75 gram/ day/ child Option a: Oils & fats supplied in mid-day school meal are 8 gram/ day/ child Option b: Pulses, leafy & non-leafy vegetables supplied in mid-day school meal are 30 gram/ day/ child Q11. Which of the following is true for DOTS: a. Treatment under supervision b. Every patient is given the same treatment c. Streptomycin is given to all the patients d. Daily regimen 11. Ans: A i.e. Treatment under supervision

Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-172 DOTS stand for directly observed treatment short course, in which alternate day treatment is used. Drugs is given categorywise Q12. The number of live births per 1000 women in the reproductive age group in a year refers to: a. Gross reproduction rate b. Total fertility rate c. Net reproduction rate d. General fertility rate 12. Ans: D i.e. General fertility rate Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-451 Option a: GRR is number of daughters who would be born to a woman completing her reproductive life at current age specific fertility rates Option b: TFR is average number of children a woman would bear in her reproductive life span. Option c: NRR measures the number of daughters a woman would have in her lifetime if she experiences prevailing age specific fertility & mortality rates Q13. Estimation of free chlorine of water is done by: a. Ortho-tolidine test b. Horrocks apparatus c. Patersons chloronome d. Kata thermometer 13. Ans: A i.e. Orthotolidine test Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-661, 662, 673, 689 Option a: Orthotolidine test enables both free & combined chlorine in water to be determined with speed & accuracy Option b: Horrocks water testing apparatus is designed to find out the dose of bleaching powder required for disinfection of water Option c: Patersons chloronome is one such device for measuring, regulating & administering gaseous chlorine to water supplies Option d: Kata thermometer was originally devised for measuring the cooling power of the air. The Kata thermometer is now largely used as an anemometer for recording low air velocities rather than the cooling power of the air Q14. Preferred bacteriological indicator of faecal contamination of water: a. Faecal streptococci b. Cl. prefringens c. Faecal staphylococci d. E.coli 14. Ans: D i.e. E. coli

Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-666 The primary bacterial indicator recommended for acceptability purpose is the coliform group of organisms as a whole. The coliform group includes both faecal (E.coli) & non-faecal organisms (Klebsiella aerogens) Supplementary indicator organisms, such as faecal streptococci & sulphite-reducing clostridia, may sometimes be useful in determining the origin of faecal pollution as well as in assessing the efficiency of water treatment processes Q15. Vitamin D is not found in sufficient quantities in: a. Fish fat b. Egg c. Halibut liver oil d. Milk 15. Ans: D i.e. Milk Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-570t Option a: Fish fat contains 5-30 microgram/ 100 gram of vitamin D Option b: Egg contains 1.25-1.5 microgram/ 100 gram of vitamin D Option c: Halibut liver oil contains 500-10,000 microgram/ 100 gram of vitamin D Option d: Milk has 0.1 microgram/ 100 gram Q16. Soiling index determines: a. Contraception failure b. Air pollution c. Number of hookworm eggs d. Ratio of mucus secreting glands to thickness of wall of airways 16. Ans: B i.e. Air pollution Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-221, 472, 679 Option a: Pearl index, used for measuring contraceptive efficacy, is defined as the number of failures per 100 woman-years of exposure (HWY), Option b: Smoke/ soiling index is used for monitoring air pollution Option c: Chandler worked out an index on the basis of average number of hookworm eggs per gram of faeces for the entire community, known as Chandlers index Option d: Reids index is defined as ratio between the thickness of the submucosal mucus secreting glands and the thickness between the epithelium and cartilage that covers the bronchi. Q17. Cafeteria approach is related with: a. Diet programme b. Child & maternal health c. National vector borne disease control programme

d. Contraception 17. Ans: D i.e. Contraception Ref: Internet resources A Cafeteria Approach meaning choose whatever method of contraception you like was introduced by the Health and Family welfare minister Prof. Chandrasekhar. Q18. All of the following are components of Child Survival & Safe Motherhood Programme except: a. Medical termination of pregnancy b. Advice of food, nutrition & rest c. Detection & referral of high risk pregnancies d. Birth spacing 18. Ans: A i.e. Medical termination of pregnancy Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-409 Medical termination of pregnancy has not been mentioned as a component of CSSM programme (1992), though it been stated as a major intervention under RCH (Reproductive & Child Health) programme Q19. Millennium Development goals are to be achieved by: a. 2005 b. 2010 c. 2015 d. 2020 19. Ans: C i.e. 2015 Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-830 Governments have set a date of 2015 by which they would meet the Millennium Development Goals/ MDGs, i.e. eradicate extreme poverty & hunger; achieve universal primary education; promote gender equality; improve maternal health; combat HIV/ AIDS, malaria & other communicable diseases; ensure environmental sustainability; and develop a global partnership for development Q20. Maximum permissible level of chloride in drinking water is: a. 200 mg litre b. 300 mg litre c. 600 mg litre d. 800 mg litre 20. Ans: C i.e. 600 mg/ litre Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-665 Option a: The standard prescribed for chloride is 200 mg/ litre Option c: The maximum permissible level of chloride is 600 mg/ litre Q21. Number of postnatal visits by female health worker in her area should be atleast: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3

d. 4 21. Ans: B i.e. 2 Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-845 Health worker female (under the Multipurpose Worker Scheme), should make at least 2 post natal visits for each delivery happened in her areas. Q22. True for epidemiological triad: a. Time, place, person b. Agent, host, environment c. Disease, prevention, treatment d. Agent, man, disease 22. Ans: B i.e. Agent, host, environment Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-31, 32 Option b: Epidemiological triad is a broader concept of disease causation that include the basic factors of agent, host & environment Option d: Germ theory of disease is generally referred to as one-to-one relationship between causal agent & disease. The disease model accordingly is: Disease agent Man Disease Q23. True regarding comparison values of cow & human milk are all except: a. Human milk has comparatively less of protein b. Human milk has comparatively less of calcium c. Human milk has comparatively less of minerals d. Human milk has comparatively less of lactose 23. Ans: D i.e. Human milk has comparatively less of lactose Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-582t Option a: Protein in human milk is 1.1 g, whereas in cow milk it is 3.2 Option b: Calcium in human milk is 28 mg, whereas in cow milk it is 120 mg Option c: Minerals in human milk is 0.1 g, whereas in cow milk it is 0.8 g Option d: Lactose in human milk is 7.4 g, whereas in cow milk it is 4.4 g Q24. True regarding vitamin B3 are all except: a. Tryptophan is a precursor b. Milk is a rich source c. Pellagra results due to deficiency d. Not excreted in urine 24. Ans: B i.e. Milk is a rich source Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-572 Option a: Niacin/ B3 differs from the other vitamins of B-complex group in that an essential amino-acid, tryptophan serves as its precursor Option b: Milk is a poor source of niacin, but its proteins are rich in tryptophan which is converted in the body into niacin

Option c: Niacin deficiency results in pellagra (characterized by three Ds-diarrhea, dermatitis & dementia) Option d: One characteristic of niacin is that it is not excreted in urine as such, but is metabolised to at least 2 major methylated derivatives: N-methyl-nicotinamide & N-methyl pyridones Q25. Not included in Infant mortality rate: a. Perinatal mortality b. Early neonatal c. Late neonatal mortality d. Post neonatal mortality 25. Ans: A i.e. Perinatal mortality Ref: Parks PSM, 21st ed., p-519, 523 Infant mortality rate/ IMR is defined as the ratio of infant deaths (birth to 1 year of age) registered in a given year to the total number of live births registered in the same year; usually expressed as a rate per 1000 live births Option a: Perinatal death includes late foetal deaths (28 weeks of gestation & more) + early neonatal deaths (1st week) Option b: Early neonatal death occurs between births to first 7 days of life Option c: Late neonatal death occurs between 7th days of life till 28th day of life Option d: Post-neonatal deaths occurs between 28th day of life till 1 year