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 In This Issue
Regulars
Editorial 933
October 2009 Science and Technology 934
Year—12 Issue—140 Latest General Knowledge 937
Inspiring Young Talents—
(i) Topper : Uttarakhand, PMT 2009 (3rd Position)
—Pavitra Saxena 941
(ii) Topper : U.P. CPMT 2009 (Rank-13)—Satyendra Singh 943
Science Tips 945

Physics
Editor
MAHENDRA JAIN Sound-II : Interference and Beats 947
Nuclear Physics-II : Structure of Nucleus 953
Typical Model Paper 957
Typical Model Paper 962

Chemistry
Alcohols 967
Typical Model Paper 978
Typical Model Paper 984

Zoology
Editor/Publisher is not responsible for Communicable Diseases and Control of Microbes 989
views, data, figures etc. expressed in the Anatomy of Liver and its Disorders 995
articles by the authors.
—Editor Human Population 999
Typical Model Paper 1002
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No part of this publication can be
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without the prior written permission from
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Funaria : A Terrestrial Moss 1010
Reproduction and Development in Angiosperms 1014
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 To Our Readers
Dear Readers,
It gives us great pleasure and satisfaction in presenting to you the October
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also revealed, for the first time, the
changes in rock and mineral com-
position.’’
Researchers say the presence of
magnesium, calcium, iron and silicon
in lunar rocks could help to confirm
whether the Moon was covered with
molten magma ocean early in its
history.
Brain Surgery with
Ultrasound
Neurosurgeons might soon be
able to say goodbye to the scalpel. A
new technique uses ultrasound waves
to remove parts of the brain. High-
intensity ultrasound—a different type
than what is used in prenatal screen-
ing—heats up parts of the brain,
thereby killing sections of tissues that
are damaged.
Focussed ultrasound surgery has
now been performed successfully on
nine human patients, according to a
preliminary study done. The ground
breaking finding here is that you can
make lesions deep in the brain—
through the intact skull and skin—with
extreme precision, accuracy and
safety.
The traditional treatment involves
destroying a small part of the
thalamus, a structure that relays mes-
sages between different brain areas.
In the past, this has been accom-
plished with radio frequency ablation,
in which a probe is inserted into the
skull or with radio surgery which
focuses radiation on the area.
Surgeons believe that the new tech-
nique will be faster—acting and more
precise than the current methods.
In this procedure ultrasound
beams are focussed on a specific
point in the brain; the exact location
depends on the condition being
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 935 / 2
treated. The small portion of brain
tissue at the focus (about the size of
the rice grain) absorbs the energy and
converts it to heat; the temperature in
this area rises to about 130 degree
Fahrenheit, killing the cells. The entire
system is integrated with a magnetic
resonance scanner, which allows
neurosurgeons to make sure they
target the correct piece of brain tissue.
Ultrasound could also potentially
be used to treat other brain disorders,
such as parkinson disease.
India’s Third Base in
Antarctica
India’s first permanent research
station, Dakshin Gangotri, in South
Polar region set up in 1984, was
buried in ice and had to be abandoned
in 1990, a year after India set up
Maitri, the second polar station.
Twenty-five years after India esta-
blished Dakshin Gangotri in South
Polar region, it is all set to build the
third such centre in Antartica to take
cutting-edge research in various
fields. The new station, tentatively
named Bharti, is scheduled to be
operational in 2012, making India a
member of an elite group of nine
nations that have multiple stations in
the region.
Maitri station in Antarctica
The National Centre for Antarctic
and Ocean Research (NCAOR), Goa,
will set up the new station on
Larsmann Hill, 3000 km from
Schirmacher Oasis, where Maitri
stands. While Maitri is more than 100
km from Antaractic Sea, Bharti will
be on promontory by the sea.
Dr. R. Ravindran, Director of
NCAOR, said, ‘‘Bharti will enable us to
take up rare research on marine
ecology of polar region. Antarctica is
a continent spread across 13 million
sq km and we should not confine
ourselves in just one area.’’ Bharti,
like Maitri, will also conduct research
on seismic activities, climate change
and medicine.
The station will be a compact
structure of 30 × 50 metre, accom-
modating 25 scientists. While living in
Antarctica, where temperatures rang-
ing from – 89 degree celsius in winter
to – 25 degree celsius in summer, can
be tough and constructing a perma-
nent structure is a huge challenge.
The station will use wind power and
solar power as sources of energy and
leave minimum carbon footprint, while
ensuring optimum heating and other
facilities for scientists.
Experiments in extreme cold
climates, as in the polar region, have
contributed immensely to scientific
developments.
India was admitted to the Scienti-
fic Committee on Antarctic Research
(SCAR), an international body that
coordinates scientific activities in the
region. On October 1, 1984 India held
the Vice-Chairman’s post in the
Committee. Russia, U.S.A., U.K.,
France, China, Chile, France,
Australia and Argentina have multiple
stations in Antarctica
‘Copernicium (CP)’—A
New Element in Periodic
Table
Discovered 13 years ago, and
officially added to the periodic table
recently, element 112 finally has a
name. It will be called ‘Copernicium’,
with the symbol ‘CP ’, in honour of the
astronomer Nicolaus Copernicus. The
team of scientists who discovered the
element chose the name to honour
the man who changed our view. The
International Union of Pure and
Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) will
officially endorse the new element’s
name.
●●●

AWARDS/HONOURS
Miss Universe 2009
Eighteen-year-old Stefania Fer-
nandez of Venezuela was crowned
Miss Universe 2009 on August 24,
2009 in Los Angeles by incumbent
crown holder compatriot Dayana
Mendoza. She is the sixth Miss
Universe from a South American
country, known for its obsession with
beauty.
Stefania Fernandez
The first runner-up title is shared
by Miss Australia Rachael Finch and
Miss Puerto Rico Mayra Matos Perez
with the title of second runner-up going
to Miss Kosovo Gona Dragusha.
Magsaysay Awards 2009
Names of the winners of Mag-
saysay Awards 2009 were announced
in Manila on August 3, 2009. India’s
social activist, Deep Joshi, who has
done pioneering work for develop-
ment of rural communities, was
named for Ramon Magsaysay Award.
Ms. Ka Hsaw Wa of Myanmar,
cofounder of Earth Rights Inter-
national, was chosen for the Award
for dauntlessly pursuin non-violent yet
effective channels for redress, expo-
sure and education for the defence of
human rights, environment and demo-
cracy.
Other winners are—Yu Xiaogang
and Ma Jun of China, Antonio Oposa
Jr. of Philippines and Ms. Krisana
Kraisintu of Thailand.
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 937
Gallantry Awards—On the
occasion of Independence Day, Presi-
dent Pratibha Patil approved 148
gallantry medals, including 2 Ashok
Chakra, 4 Kirti Chakra, 26 Shaurya
Chakra, 2 Bar to Sena Medals, 100
Sena Medals, 4 Nao Sena Medals, 5
Vayu Sena Medals and 3 Tatrakshak
Medals. Ashok Chakra is the country’s
highest peace time gallantry award.
Major Mohit Sharma (posthumously)
from 1 Para Special Force and Major
D. Shree Ram Kumar from 30 Assam
Rifles were awarded Ashok Chakra.
Kirti Chakra Awardees are—
Major Amit Oskar Fernandes of 7
Maratha Light Infantry.
Major Deepak Tiwari of Electro-
nics and Mechanical Engineering
Corps.
Shabir Ahmed Malik (posthu-
mously) of para Brigade. Naik
Rishikesh Gujjar of 10 Rashtriya Rifles
(Rajput).
Nooyi, Sonia, Kochhar and
Mazumdar Shaw in Forbes List—
PepsiCo Chief Executive Indira Nooyi,
Congress President Sonia Gandhi,
ICICI Bank Chief Chanda Kochhar
and Kiran Majumdar Shaw, Chair-
person of Biocon have been listed
among the world’s 100 most powerful
women by Forbes magazine. Nooyi
has been ranked third, Sonia Gandhi
13th, Kochhar 20th and Mazumdar
91th.
Reliance names Yusuf Pathan
and Jadeja as Brand Ambas-
sadors—Two prominent cricketers
Yusuf Pathan and Ravindra Jadeja
are picked up by the Reliance
Industries Ltd. (RIL) as its Brand
Ambassadors on a long term contract.
Their main job will be to identify bud-
ding sportspersons, particularly in the
field of cricket, which may ultimately
lead to the RIL forming its own team.
BOOKS
Jinnah : India Partition Inde-
pendence—Jaswant Singh (The
author is the former Union Minister
and a senior leader of BJP. Now he is
expelled from BJP. In this book,
Jaswant Singh has highly appreciated
Mohammad Ali Jinnah and bitterly
criticised great Indian leaders like
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and others.
The book is controversial).
Midnight Diaspora—Ed. Daniel
Herwitz and Ashutosh Varshney
(Various reading of Pakistan as a
country in the light of its portrayal in
Rushdie’s novels).
Why People Protest—Subhash
Sharma (In this book, the author
analyses the theory and practice of
ecological movements in general. It
presents a study of six such move-
ments in the third world from an
ecological and socio-economic stand
point).
DAYS
September 2—Coconut Day
September 5—Teachers’ Day,
Sanskrit Day
September 8—International
Literacy Day (UNESCO)
September 14—Hindi Divas
September 15—Engineers’ Day
September 16—World Ozone
Day
September 21—Alzheimer’s Day,
Day for Peace and Non-violence
(U.N.O.)
September 22—Rose Day (Wel-
fare of Cancer Patients)
September 26—Day of the Deaf
September 27—World Tourism
Day
Gayatri Devi—Former Queen
Mother of the erstwhile Jaipur State
and once ranked among the ten most
beautiful women in the world. Maha-
rani Gayatri Devi, passed away in
Jaipur after brief illness. She was 90
and is survived by her grand children
and step sons, who include the
former Maharaja of Jaipur, Bhawani
Singh.
 She was the former princess of
Cooch Bihar in West Bengal. She
studied in Shantiniketan. She was the
third wife of the former ruler of Jaipur,
Man Singh-II. Her husband passed
away in 1970. Among the first royals
to join the democratic process of
elections, Ms. Gayatri Devi won the
Lok Sabha elections in 1962, 1967
and 1971 contesting on Swatantra
Party ticket. During emergency, she
underwent a jail term in Tihar.
She was given a State honour
and her step son Bhawani Singh lit
the pyre. Just after departure of
Rajmata, royal battle for property has
erupted.
Leela Naidu—Hindi actress
Leela Naidu passed away in Mumbai
after prolonged illness. She was 69.
She made her debut in 1960 with
Balraj Sahni in Hrishikesh Mukherjee’s
‘Anuradha ’. However, she achieved
fame only after starring with in a non-
orthodox role with Sunil Dutt in ‘‘Yeh
Raste Hain Pyar Ke’’ (1963). She
married Bikki Oberoi, owner of Oberoi
chain of hotels with whom she had twin
daughters. She divorced Oberoi and
married a poet and journalist and got
settled in Hong Kong.
Devendra Nath Dwivedi—
Constitutional expert Devendra Nath
Dwivedi, who was recently appointed
Governor of Gujarat, passed away in
New Delhi due to liver problem, even
before he could take up his assign-
ment. He was 74.
Subhash Chakraborty—Senior
leader of Communist Party of India
(Marxist) and West Bengal’s Minister
for Transport, Sports and Youth
Services, Subhash Chakraborty
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 938
passed away on August 3, 2009 in
Kolkata. He was very popular in West
Bengal.
Beithullah Mehsud—Pakistan’s
most wanted man, Beithullah Mehsud,
was killed in a United States missile
strike on August 7, 2009 in South
Waziristan tribal area. The 35-year old
Mehsud was the face of the Pakistani
Taliban and he was involved in
several dreadful terrorist attacks.
Earlier this year, Govt. of Pakistan
announced a 50 million bounty for
him. Before that, the U.S. Govt. had
announced a $ 5 million head money
for him.
Nandita Das (New Chief, CFSI )
—Film actress Nandita Das took over
as the Chairperson of Children’s Film
Society of India (CFSI). She will have
a tenure of three years. The actress,
who created waves with her roles in
films like ‘Fire’ and ‘Earth’ has bagged
several national and international
awards.
Her predecessor, Nafisa Ali, had
resigned.
Jagannath Pahadia (New
Governor, Haryana)—Former Chief
Minister of Rajasthan, Jagannath
Pahadia, took over as the new
Governor of Haryana. He succeeded
A. R. Kidwai. Mr. Pahadia (77) was
born in Bhusawar village in Bharatpur
district of Rajasthan. He served Union
Ministry as Deputy Minister for several
years and Chief Minister of Rajasthan
since June 6, 1980 till July 14, 1981.
He had also been the Governor of
Bihar.
Margaret Alva (New Governor,
Uttarakhand)—Senior Congress
leader, Margaret Alva took over as
the Governor of Uttarakhand. She is
the first woman Governor of this hill
state.
Justice J. Bhalla (New CJ,
Rajasthan )—Justice Jagdish Bhalla
was sworn in on August 8, 2009 as
the Chief Justice of Rajasthan High
Court. He has been transferred to
Rajasthan from Himachal Pradesh.
Born on November 1, 1948, Justice
Bhalla started legal practice in
Allahabad High Court in 1971. He
was elevated as Judge of Allahabad
High Court in 1995 and Chief Justice
of Himachal Pradesh High Court in
February 2008.
Ahmad Tariq Karim (New High
Commissioner of Bangladesh )—A
former career diplomat, Mr. Ahmad
Tariq Karim, presented his credentials
to the President, Pratibha Patil, as the
new High Commissioner of Bangla-
desh to India. During 1980s, Mr.
Karim had served as the Deputy High
Commissioner in New Delhi. Mr.
Karim will head Bangladesh mission
here at a time when both the countries
are attempting to forge a new
relationship based on consultation
and trust.
Jaswant Singh—The Bhartiya
Janata Party on August 19, 2009
expelled Jaswant Singh its veteran
leader and the M.P. A meeting of the
Parliamentary Board in Shimla
unanimously decided to remove the
Jaswant Singh
former Union Minister from the primary
membership. The decision is being
read in the party as a stern message
of zero tolerance to ideological devia-
tion and indiscipline. In the meeting,
the tempers were high among the
senior leaders. They viewed his praise
of Pakistan’s founder Mohammad Ali
Jinnah, and his adverse comments
on India’s first Deputy Prime Minister,
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, as ideologi-
cal heresy. Mr. Singh did his comment
in his recently launched book, Jinnah :
India-Pakistan-Independence (Rupa &
Co. New Delhi, 2009, 669 pages).
Mr. Jaswant Singh’s Jinnah is an
impressive, personally attractive,
intellectually brilliant freedom-loving,
politically iron-willed, tactically unstop-
pable figure.
Deep Joshi (Magsaysay Award
Winner 2009)—Joshi (60) has been
honoured with Ramon Magsaysay
Award 2009 for his extraordinary
achievement in seeking to transform
the lives of 68,000 families in several
backward states, mainly the naxal-
affected belt Jharkhand and Bankura
and Purlia in West Bengal. He is
recognised for bringing professiona-
lism to the NGD movement in India.
Making an Impact : Joshi
Mr. Joshi took his B. Tech. degree
from NIT Allahabad and M. Tech. and
MBA degrees from Massachusetts
Institute of Technology, U.S.A. He
also worked as a Ford Foundation
Programme Officer.
In 1983, he co-founded the non-
profit organization : ‘‘Professional
Assistance for Development Action
(PRADAN)’’ that recruits college
graduates to do community works. In
2006 Joshi had received Harmony
Silver Award for his contributions to
society.
SPORTS
Cricket
Indian Team for Champions
Trophy and Tri-Series—Rahul Dravid
is a prominent member of the India’s
ODI squad for the tri-series in Sri
Lanka and the ICC Championship
Trophy. The National Selection Panel
which met in Chennai on August 16,
2009, picked the same 15 for both the
tournaments. Dravid’s return will add
the quality to the Indian top-order. The
key batsman Virender Sehwag,
recovering from a shoulder surgery,
has not been considered by the selec-
tion panel headed by Krishnamachari
Srikanth.
In the pace bowling section,
Praveen Kumar, with his swing
change of pace and yorkers has been
preferred over Munaf Patel. Praveen’s
ability to swing the new ball and
reverse the old could have clinched
the argument in his favour.
The tri-series in Sri Lanka, since
September 8 till 14, involves the host,
India and New Zealand. The Cham-
pions Trophy will be held in South
Africa since September 22 till Oct. 5.
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 939
The squads (for Sri Lankan tri-
series and the Champions Trophy)
—M.S. Dhoni (Captain), Yuvraj Singh
(Vice Captain), Sachin Tendulkar,
Gautam Gambhir, Rahul Dravid,
Suresh Raina, Yusuf Pathan,
Harbhajan Singh, Aashish Nehra, R.P.
Singh, Ishant Sharma, Dinesh Karthik,
Praveen Kumar, Amit Mishra and
Abhishek Nayar.
Sri Lanka-Pakistan ODI Series
—Sri Lanka clinched the ODI series
3-2 against Pakistan. On August 9,
2009 in Colombo, Pakistan beat Sri
Lanka by 132 runs in the fifth and the
final match. Sri Lanka won first three
matches of the series while Pakistan
clinched the last two matches. Thilan
Tushara of Sri Lanka was adjusted
the Man of the Series.
Sri Lanka had already clinched
the Test Series 2-0 against Pakistan.
Wrestling
World Wrestling Champion-
ship : Indian Squad—Seventeen
wrestlers have been selected to
represent India in the World Wrestling
Championship to be held in Herning
(Denmark) since September 20 till 27.
Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna awardee
and Olympic bronze medalist, Sushil
Kumar will lead the India squad.
The squad : Men (Freestyle)—
Balaraj Singh (55 kg), Hardeep Singh
(60 kg), Sushil Kumar (66 kg),
Ramesh Kumar (74 kg), Anil Mann
(96 kg) and Joginder Kumar (120 kg).
Greco-Roman—Rajender Kumar
(55 kg), Ravinder Singh (60 kg), Sunil
Kumar (66 kg), Anil Kumar (96 kg)
and Dharmender Dalal (120 kg).
Women—Nirmal Devi (48 kg),
Babita (51 kg), Alka Tomar (59 kg),
Suman Kundu (63 kg), Geetika Jakhar
(67 kg) and Gursharanpreet Kaur (72
kg).
Chess
Asian Youth Meet—Asian Youth
concluded on August 8, 2009 in New
Delhi. Living up to the expectations
Indians came up with a strong finish
in the most sections to reassert their
supremacy in the Asian Youth Chess
Championship at the Tivoli Garden
Resort in New Delhi. India won 23 out
of 36 medals at stake and its haul
included 8 gold, 7 silver and 8 bronze
medals. This was an improvement
over last year’s performance of 5
gold, 5 silver and 8 bronze, out of 30
medals.
Medalists—1. Guliskhan (Kaza-
khstan), 2. Krithika, 3. Bhakti.
Medals tally (read as country,
gold, silver, bronze, total).
India 8-7-23; Vietnam 2-1-1-4;
Iran 1-1-2-4, UAE 1-0-0-1; Kaza-
khstan 1-0-0-1; Uzbekistan 0-2-1-3.
Asian Zonal Chess Champion-
ship—International Master Shriram
Jha emerged as the men’s champion
with 10 points out of a possible 12 in
the Asian Zonal Chess Championship
on August 17, 2009 at the Airports
Authority of India Club in New Delhi.
He beat Asharaf Ahmed of Maldives
in the 13th and final round.
Drought in 177 Districts—
South-West monsoon has proved to
be unpredictable, variable and uncer-
tain this year—with the official
announcement that 177 districts suffer
from either drought or drought-like
conditions indicating the magnitude of
the crisis.
Little or no rain, late rain and
heavy rain have all been features of
monsoon behaviour so far in different
parts of India. Officially, the monsoon
ends on September 30, 2009 and it is
possible that September will witness
heavy rain at some places, leading to
floods and damage to crops. For
agriculture, what matters is not total
rainfall, but its distribution.
It is crucial for the Union and
State governments to formulate plans
on the understanding that drought-
like crises hit the poor, especially agri-
cultural labourers and land-poor
peasants, the socially underprivileged
sections and women the hardest.
Women are badly affected, because
they do not have equal access to non-
farm employment opportunities and
are forced to take up jobs involving
high drudgery but low wages.
The first priority for the ‘National
Crisis Management Committee ’,
chaired by Finance Minister Pranab
Mukherjee, will be to ensure that the
drought relief and rehabilitation pro-
grammes are pro-poor, pro-socially
underprivileged and pro-women.
●●●
 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ Inspiring Young Talent ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
‘‘Hardwork, a strong will to succeed, encouragement of my parents and
teachers and above all blessings of the Almighty are the main elements
of my success.’’
—Pavitra Saxena
Topper—Uttarakhand, PMT 2009 (3rd Position)

[‘Competition Science Vision’ arranged an exclusive interview with Miss Pavitra Saxena who has the
credit of securing a high position on the list of successful candidates of Uttarakhand PMT, 2009. In addition,
she has also cleared other pre-medical tests with equivalent ranks viz., AFMC, CBSE 09, AIPVT and UPTU.
For her brilliant success she deserves all praise and our heartiest congratulations. This important interview
is presented here in its original form.]
CSV—Congratulations on your
brilliant success.
Pavitra—I am very thankful to
you.
CSV—Before knowing your result
what did you think about those who
achieve top positions ?
Pavitra—I thought that they were
apart from the general mass like that
of us.
CSV—Achieving top position has
come as surprise to you or were you
confident of achieving it ?
Pavitra—Actually I did my papers
well, but I never thought that I would
attain such a meritable position in
such a renowned examination.
CSV—What do you think is the
secret of your success ?
Pavitra—First of all I would like
to thank the Almighty, my parents, my
teachers for my success. Actually it is
the hardwork and the will of a person
which can make him lead the world.
The same is with me.
CSV—In how many attempts did
you get this success ?
Pavitra—Frankly speaking in two
years I was able to grasp the exam.
CSV—What were the shortcom-
ings in your preparation for earlier
attempts ? How did you make up for
them this time ?
Pavitra—Earlier I never bothered
about the theory of Chemistry and
Physics. But now with the help of my
teachers and with my more efforts,
paying more attention on class
lectures I was able to cope up with
my shortcomings.
CSV—From where did you get
the inspiration of choosing a medical
career ?
— It is a very helpful maga-
zine containing conceptual and
important questions related to
various pre-medical tests. This
magazine has been highly useful
to me in grasping these examina-
tions so easily.
—Pavitra Saxena
Pavitra—From my father who is
Chief Pharmacist in S. N. Medical
College, Agra.
CSV—From when did you start
the preparation for it ?
Pavitra—After 12th examination.
CSV—What planning did you
make for preparation ? Please tell
something in detail.
Pavitra—I actually planned very
little for that. My schedule was not so
much arranged whenever I thought to
study a subject I picked it up.
CSV—How much time did you
devote daily and regularly for Physics,
Chemistry, Zoology and Botany ?
Pavitra—Frankly, I didn’t plan
time individually for these subjects
but roughly around 2-21/ 2 hours. I
used to give separately for Physics,
Chemistry, Zoology and Botany.
CSV—Out of the above four
subjects, to which subject did you give
more weightage and why ?
Pavitra—In my views having
command in Biology is like covering
half of the exam paper which can
make a path of success. Secondly,
commanding Chemistry and Physics
is the most important.
Bio-Data
Name—Pavitra Saxena
Father’s Name—Mr. Pravin Kumar
Saxena
Mother’s Name—Mrs. Neeta
Saxena
Educational Qualifications—
H.S./Std. X—86% (St. Francis Sec.
School, Agra), 2005.
Inter/Std. XII—84% (St. Patrick’s
Junior College, Agra), 2007.
Special Ahievements—
● Stood 3rd in UPMT-09
● Obtained position in merit list of
AFMC-09
● Selected in CBSE (Mains)-09
● Selected in AIPVT (120 rank)
● 17th position in UPTU
CSV—Did you make complete
study of all topics or of some selective
topics ?
Pavitra—Initially I made thorough
study of each and every chapter of
each subject but finally around the
time of exam. I made selective topics
to study.
CSV—How did you give final
touches to your preparation ?
Pavitra—By solving those ques-
tions which were of utmost impor-
tance and were conceptual and by
reading the underlined parts of my
notes.
CSV—Did you prepare notes ?
Pavitra—Yes, actually notes
should be like that in which each and
every important thing can be summed
up and these notes can help to give a
final touch to our preparation.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 941

 CSV—What was your attitude for
solving numerical questions ? What
weightage did you give them ?
Pavitra—I used to solve the
questions myself whether I was able
or not then only used to see its
answer and solution and then used to
repeat the way of solving the same
question. They are of utmost impor-
tance counting a lot in exam.
CSV—How much time is suffi-
cient for preparing for this examina-
tion ?
Pavitra—About two years time is
sufficient for the preparation of these
examinations.
CSV—From what level of educa-
tion should an aspirant begin pre-
paring for it ?
Pavitra—From 11th a student
should start preparing for it and should
pay attention both to his medical
target and his school studies along-
with his/her recreation time.
CSV—What was your order of
preference for various branches for
which this test is held ?
Pavitra—First of all I prefer
MBBS. Secondly, it is BDS and
nothing other than these.
CSV—What help do the science
magazines render in the preparations
for this examination ?
Pavitra—Science magazines
give a child new and foremost infor-
mations which are very helpful in
competing these competitive exami-
nations.
CSV—What will be your criterion
for selecting a magazine for these
examination ?
Pavitra—A magazine containing
new and important informations which
could help in competing these exams
would be most preferred.
CSV—What is your opinion about
our ‘Competition Science Vision’ ?
How much helpful and useful do you
find it ?
Pavitra— It is a very helpful
magazine which a student can opt
containing the conceptual and
important questions related to
competitive examinations. I am
very thankful to this because this
magazine helped me to grasp the
exam easily.
CSV—Please suggest in what
way CSV can be made more useful
for medical aspirants.
Pavitra—Although it contains a
number of useful facts but more and
more new informations could be
added to it which can make a child to
lead the world.
Personal Qualities
Hobbies—Seeing T.V., hearing
music, playing
Strong Point—My family
Weak Point—My attitude towards
theoretical studies
CSV—Please mention your posi-
tion in the merit list as well as the
marks obtained in different subjects.
What was your aggregate percentage
of marks ?
Pavitra—In UPMT-09, I secured
3rd rank and obtained 163 marks with
42 in Physics, 40-40 in Botany and
Zoology, 41 Chemistry. Also came in
merit list of AFMC, selected in CBSE
(mains), UPTU and AIPVT.
(Continued on Page 944 )

New Release Exam. Date

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UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2 ● Website : www.upkar.in UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2 Website : www.upkar.in

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 942

 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ Inspiring Young Talent ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
‘‘Regular daily study, confidence in my study, hardwork and faith in
God’s grace are the secrets of my success.’’
[‘Competition Science Vision’ arranged an exclusive interview with Mr. Satyendra Singh who has the
credit of being successful in U.P. CPMT–2009 with high rank. For his brilliant success he deserves all praise
and our heartiest congratulations. This important interview is presented here in its original form.]
CSV—Congratulations on your
brilliant success.
Satyendra—Thank you, sir.
CSV—Before knowing your result
what did you think about those who
achieve top positions ?
Satyendra—I thought that those
are extra brilliant persons, but now I
realised regularity and hardwork is
the key of success.
CSV—Achieving top position has
come as surprise to you or were you
confident of achieving it ?
Satyendra—I was confident of
good rank but not such a top rank.
CSV—What do you think is the
secret of your success ?
Satyendra—As above regularity
and hardwork is the key of success.
CSV—In how many attempts did
you get this success ?
Satyendra—I had tried for four
years.
CSV—What were the shortcom-
ings in your preparation for earlier
attempts ? How did you make up for
them this time ?
Satyendra—In earlier attempts, I
could not be able to revise the whole
syllabus in last month, but this time I
had started revision before 2 months.
CSV—From where did you get
the inspiration of choosing a medical
career ?
Satyendra—My father is a doctor
and many poor people come to him
for treatment. To see the happiness
on the faces of these patients, I chose
a medical career.
CSV—From when did you start
the preparation for it ?
Satyendra—I had started pre-
parations since 2005.
CSV—What planning did you
make for preparation ? Please tell
something in detail.
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 943 / 3
Topper—U.P. CPMT 2009 (Rank-13)
Satyendra—Physics was my
weak point at the time of preparation.
So firstly, I decided to do hardwork in
Physics. I solved MCQs of GRB
objective and before 2 months from
exam I had started complete revision.
—‘Competition Science Vision’
is a unique magazine for pre-
medical competitions. It gives
full study material in all the four
subjects. Its good quality ques-
tions and facts sharpen the brain
and thinking power of the
readers.
—Satyendra Singh
CSV—How much time did you
devote daily and regularly for Physics,
Chemistry, Zoology and Botany ?
Satyendra—Daily I devoted 7-8
hours for study, but I focussed mainly
on Physics and it took 3-4 hours.
CSV—Out of the above four
subjects, to which subject did you give
more weightage and why ?
Satyendra—I gave more atten-
tion on my Physics because I thought
it requires more and more practice.
CSV—Did you make complete
study of all topics or of some selective
topics ?
Satyendra—I studied all the
topics completely and before exam. I
revised my syllabus.
CSV—How did you give final
touches to your preparation ?
—Satyendra Singh
Satyendra—By revising my
topics frequently and solving a lot of
MCQs.
CSV—Did you prepare notes ?
Satyendra—Yes, I prepared my
own notes. These helped me during
revision at the time of exam.
CSV—What was your attitude for
solving numerical questions ? What
weightage did you give them ?
Bio-Data
Name—Satyendra Singh Yadav
Father’s Name—Shri Bhoop
Narayan Singh
Mother’s Name—Smt. Madhu
Yadav
Educational Qualifications—
H.S./Std. X—65% (Subhash Smark
Inter College, Kanpur), 2003.
Inter/Std. XII—68% (Subhash
Smark Inter College, Kanpur), 2005.
Special Achievements—
● 13th rank in U.P. CPMT 2009
(OBC-7)
● 9th rank in AIPVT 2009
Satyendra—I always tried to
clear the concepts of Physics for
question solving and did to proper
revision of Biology and Chemistry.
CSV—How much time is suffi-
cient for preparing for this examina-
tion ?
Satyendra—If anyone studies
7-8 hours regularly in a day then
2 years are sufficient for preparing for
this examination.
CSV—From what level of educa-
tion should an aspirant begin prepar-
ing for it ?
Satyendra—According to me
student should start preparation for it
after 10th standard.
CSV—What was your order of
preference for various branches for
which this test is held ?
Satyendra—MBBS, BDS, BAMS,
BHMS.
 CSV—Please mention various
books in each subject and magazines
on which you based your preparation.
Satyendra—CSV objective for
Physics, Ramesh Gupta’s Modern
Zoology, R. K. Pillai for Zoology,
Modern Botany of M.P. Kaushik and
O.P. Tandon for Chemistry. I used
CSV for all subjects.
CSV—Did you take coaching in
your preparation ?
Satyendra—Yes, I had taken
coaching in New Light Institute,
Kanpur and this year I also joined
New Tech Education for Physics.
Personal Qualities
Hobbies—Listening to music, see-
ing films.
Ideal Person—My mother and my
elder brother.
Strong Point—Hardwork .
Weak Point—Silly mistakes during
solving MCQs.
CSV—What help do the science
magazines render in the preparations
for this examination ?
Satyendra—I used science
magazines CSV for solving MCQs
and Learning Science Tips.
CSV—What will be your criterion
for selecting a magazine for these
examination ?
Satyendra—I selected a maga-
zine for revision which contains impor-
tant points and formulae which are
helpful to me during revision in last
month.
CSV—What is your opinion about
our Competition Science Vision ? How
much helpful and useful do you find
it ?
Satyendra—It helped me to pre-
pare my own notes. I collected impor-
tant points, formulae and important
MCQs on my notes. These helped
me during last month revision.
CSV—Please suggest in what
way CSV can be made more useful
for medical aspirants.
Satyendra—By adding NCERT
based topics. Many new points had
been added in NCERT. So I think
CSV should contain a separate
NCERT corner containing extra points
for revision.
CSV—Please mention your posi-
tion in the merit list as well as the
marks obtained in different subjects.
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 944
What was your aggregate percentage CSV—Please tell us something
or marks ? about your family.
Satyendra—13th position in Pavitra—Actually mine is a joint
CPMT–2009 family. I have an elder brother
Physics—43/50 Pavneet Saxena obtaining engineer-
Chemistry—47/50 ing education, my father Pravin Kumar
Saxena, mother Neeta Saxena.
Zoology—47/50
CSV—What in your frank opinion
Botany—49/50
has been the biggest mistake in your
Total—186/200 = 93%.
preparation for this test ?
CSV—What books/magazines/
newspapers did you read for G.K. Pavitra—Frankly speaking I
never paid more attention on theory
preparations ?
of Chemistry and Physics which was
Satyendra—I had read only
a mess.
newspaper (Dainik Jagaran). In CPMT
exam. G.K. is not asked. CSV—What message would you
CSV—Whom would you like to like to give for our readers of CSV ?
give the credit for your success ? Pavitra—Never loose confidence,
Satyendra—I would like to give always try to do better than what you
the credit of my success to God, my have done earlier. Always pay atten-
parents and my elder brother. They tion and think on each and every
were always with me during my pre- question which you read.
paration. I also thankful to my
respected teachers. ●●●
CSV—Please tell us something
about your family. A Unique Book on Personality
Satyendra—My father is a Development
Doctor. My mother is a housewife. I
have one brother and two sisters. UPKAR’S
They are all elder to me. My brother
is doing M. Tech. from I.I.T., Kanpur, HOW TO ADD NEW
my one sister is doing BPT from
Kanpur University and the other is
DIMENSIONS TO
doing B.Ed. YOUR PERSONALITY
CSV—What in your frank opinion By : (Prof.) R. P. Chaturvedi
has been the biggest mistake in your
preparation for this test ?
Code No. 1521 Rs. 65/-
Satyendra—My biggest mistake UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA–2
was that after giving the test in my
coaching I lost 2-3 days. I could not
studied 4-5 hours continuously.
CSV—What message would you
like to give for our readers of CSV ?
Satyendra—Always maintain
regularity, study 6-7 hours regularly
daily. To be confident on your study
and faith on God. Best wishes to all
readers of CSV. ●●●
(Continued from Page 942 )
CSV—What books/magazines/
newspapers did you read for G. K.
preparations ?
Pavitra—Daily reading any news-
paper is my hobby which can give
new and new informations. General
knowledge books from Upkar are the
best ones.
CSV—Whom would you like to
give credit for your success ?
Pavitra—Firstly, the Almighty, my
parents, my relatives and teachers.
 18. Thermoelectric power is defined as the
Physics ➠ Rate of change of thermo emf with temperature
19. What is the use of Doppler effect ?
➠ In determining the velocity of an aeroplane in air
1. What is the value of the nuclear radius ?
and of submarine moving under water
➠ 1·3 × 10–15 metre
20. For a system of particles under central force field, the
2. Given vectors are neither perpendicular nor parallel total angular momentum is conserved because
when ➠ Torque on such a system is zero
➠ Neither their dot product nor their cross
product is zero
3. Name some body centred lattices (bcc). Chemistry
➠ Na, K, Rb, Cr, Mo
4. Slope of a time-velocity graph is increasing. It repre-
sents 21. Hydrated carbonate of lead, used in paintmaking is
➠ Motion with increasing acceleration known as
5. What type of semiconductor is the silicon doped with ➠ White lead
boron ? 22. What is the chemical name and formula of war gas,
➠ p-type semiconductor lewisite ?
6. The area under the velocity-time graph gives
➠ β-chlorovinyldichloroarsine, ClCH —
— CH–AsCl2
➠ The distance covered by the particle
1 23. A soluble silicate of sodium or potassium is known as
7. What are the very small stars having diameter th
50 ➠ Water glass
that of sun are called ?
24. What is the blasting gelatin ?
➠ White dwarfs
8. Automobiles are provided with spring system to mini-
➠ Mixture of gun-cotton and nitroglycerine
mise the damage of the automobile by jerks. What 25. The friction of a liquid against its carrier is known as
does the spring do ? ➠ Viscosity
➠ It increases the time of jerk
26. What is the Brinell test used for ?
9. What is the unit of self-inductance ?
➠ A test for hardness of metals
➠ Henry
10. The relation between millibar and Pascal unit of pres- 27. The property by which some compositions become
sure is solid at rest and liquefy again on agitation is known
➠ 1 milli bar = 100 Pa as
11. Which of these two has a greater permeability–soft ➠ Thixotropy
iron or steel ? 28. What is the name of an instrument used for measure-
➠ Soft iron ment of viscosity ?
12. 105 N m– 2 is called ➠ Ostwald viscometer
➠ 1 bar 29. The resolution of a compound into its parts is known
13. What is the order of drift velocity ? as
➠ 10–4 metre/second ➠ Analysis
14. The energy per unit volume of a stretched wire is 30. What is an instrument used for measuring density and
1 expansivity of a liquid, known as ?
➠ 2 (Stress × Strain) ➠ Pyknometer
15. What is the axial chromatic aberration of a lens of 31. A knifelike instrument with flexible blade used for
dispersive power 0·02 and mean focal length 15 cm ? mixing very small amounts of chemicals is known as
➠ 0·3 cm ➠ Spatula
16. From phase considerations the output voltage and the 32. What is a purple pigment, consisting of colloidal gold
input voltage of diode are and tin (IV) acid, known as ?
➠ In phase ➠ Purple of cassius
17. What is the Sabine’s formula for reverberation time ? 33. A material which passes into solution when mixed
KV with a solvent, is known as
➠ T = As ➠ Solute

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 945

34. What are the alloys which emit sparks when scraped 50. Which branch of medicine deals with the study of
or struck, known as ? signs and symptoms ?
➠ Pyrophoric alloys ➠ Semeiology
35. Potassium carbonate (K2CO3.H2O) is also known as 51. What kind of receptors are present in lateral line
➠ Salt of tartar system of fishes ?
36. What is the common name of an intensely poisonous ➠ Mechanoreceptors
solution of hydrocyanic acid ? 52. What is called an assemblage of an ecological
➠ Prussic acid community ?
➠ Interacting population
37. A rare metal used for pen-point alloys and for harden-
ing platinum is 53. Where are located the cell bodies of neurons bringing
afferent informations into the spinal cord ?
➠ Ruthenium ➠ Dorsal root ganglia
38. What is a powder of finely divided silver and protein 54. Name the hormones which function both as hormones
known as ? and neurotransmitters ?
➠ Protargol ➠ Epinephrine and norepinephrine
39. A ferric oxide, produced by heating copperas 55. What are called the lymphocytes that inhibit the deve-
(FeSO4), used as a pigment and for polishing glass, lopment and proliferation of T and B cells ?
metal or gems, is known as ➠ Suppressor T cells
➠ Rouge 56. The release of which hormone is inhibited when the
40. What is the absorption of a gas into the bulk of a solid stomach acidity reaches 2 pH ?
is known as ? ➠ Occlusion ➠ Gastrin
57. How a camel is able to tolerate the heat of a desert ?
➠ By allowing its body temperature to drop at night
Zoology 58. Which enzyme is involved in light production in certain
insects ?
➠ Luciferase
41. What is the effect of interspecific competition on
niches ? 59. Which part of the body acts as ‘thermostat’ in a
mammal ?
➠ Make niches smaller
➠ Hypothalamus
42. By which kind of control system our body temperature
60. What acts as a shock absorber to cushion the tibia
is controlled ?
and femur ?
➠ Negative feedback ➠ Cartilage
43. How old is the human embryo when it becomes
foetus ?
➠ 2 months
Botany
44. Which cell organelles in human beings produce lyso-
somes ? 61. Which enzyme catalyses the joining of the ends of
➠ Golgi apparatus two chains ?
45. Which ion must be present for binding of the cross ➠ DNA ligase
bridges which connect two molecules of a fibril dur- 62. Who noticed a colour substance, chromatin, while
ing muscle contraction ? studying salamander cells ?
➠ Calcium ions ➠ Walter Flemming
46. Which male reproductive paired glands open into the 63. During which pathway electrons more from water
urethra at the base of the penis and release a buffer- through photosystem-II to photosystem-I and then to
ing and lubricating fluid ? NADP+ ?
➠ Bulbourethral glands ➠ Non-cyclic electron pathway
47. What acts as a shock absorber to cushion the tibia 64. What are the two important classes of higher fungi ?
and femur ? ➠ Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes
➠ Cartilage 65. What is called alcoholic distillate obtained from fer-
48. Which enzyme catalyzes the synthesis of a new strand mented sugar ?
for a DNA molecule, by linking nucleotides to the ➠ Rum
developing strand ? 66. What type of gland is found in Utricularia plant ?
➠ DNA polymerase ➠ Digestive gland
49. Which fat derivative synthesizes all the hormones of 67. What is the central theme of evolution ?
adrenal cortex ? ➠ Descent with modification
➠ Cholesterol (Continued on Page 988 )

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 946

Principle of Superposition = (A1 + A2 cos φ)2 + A22 sin2 φ
Two or more progressive waves can travel simul- = A12 + A22 + 2A1 A 2 cos φ
taneously in a medium without affecting the motion of one
another. In such a situation the displacement of each or A = A12 + A22 + 2A1A2 cos φ
particle of medium at any instant is equal to the vector Thus for maximum A i. e., constructive interference,
sum of the displacements each wave would produce in cos φ = 1 or φ = 2n π
absence of the other wave or waves.
or in terms of path difference
P
Interference δ = nλ
Interference is the characteristic property of all wave where n = 0, 1, 2, 3, … S1 -•-
-
motion. Since sound is wave motion, it exhibits the - -- - - ----- O
phenomenon of interference. Thus when two waves Thus for constructive inter- S2 •δ Q
travelling in the same direction in the medium, it should be ference
possible under suitable conditions to have minimum and δ = 0, λ, 2λ, 3λ… nλ
maximum intensities at definite points of the medium and 2λ 4λ 6λ λ
the resultant intensities in the region of superposition is in = 0, , , … 2n
2 2 2 2
general different from the sum of intensities due to
λ
individual waves acting separately. This modification in i.e . the path difference should be even multiples of
2
the distribution of intensity due to the superposition
of waves is called interference. and for minimum A i.e., destructive interference,
If the resultant intensity exceeds the sum of cos φ = –1
intensities due to individual waves, the phenomenon is or φ = (2n + 1)π
called constructive interference and if the resultant or in terms of path difference for destructive interference
intensity is less than this sum, the phenomenon is called λ
destructive interference. If the resultant intensity is zero, δ = (2n + 1)
2
the phenomenon is termed completely destructive
λ , 3λ , 5λ , … λ
interference. = (2n + 1)
2 2 2 2
Analytical Treatment of Interference i.e ., for destructive interference the path difference
Let the amplitudes of the two waves be A 1 and A2 λ
should be odd multiples of .
and the two waves differ in phase by an angle φ. So 2
y 1 = A1 sin(kx – ωt ) Condition for Interference
and y 2 = A2 sin(kx – ω t + φ) For sustained interference between two sound waves,
The resultant wave is given by the following conditions must be fulfilled—
y = y1 + y 2
(1) The phase difference between the waves must
= A1 sin(kx – ωt ) + A2 sin(kx – ωt + φ) remain constant—If the phase difference between
= A1 sin(kx – ωt ) + A2 sin(kx – ωt ) cos φ interferring waves changes with time, the intensity of
+ A2 cos(kx – ωt) sin φ sound at any point will also change with time and the
= sin(kx – ω t) (A1 + A2 cos φ) interference will not be sustained. Hence for observing the
interference both the waves should originate from the
+ cos(kx – ωt)A2 sin φ same source.
Let A1 + A2 cos φ = A cos ε …(i)
(2) The amplitudes of the waves should be nearly
and A2 sin φ = A sin ε …(ii) equal—If the difference in amplitudes is large, the intensity
∴ y = A[sin(kx – ωt ) cos ε at points of destructive interference will be quite large.
+ cos(kx – ωt) sin ε] Hence, the interference will not be clear. For best inter-
ference the amplitudes of the waves must be exactly
= A sin(kx – ωt + ε)
equal.
Thus, the resultant is indeed a sine wave of
(3) The displacements produced by the two waves
amplitude A with a phase difference ε with the first wave. must be along the same straight line—If it is not so, the
By (i) and (ii), intensity at the point where the waves meet in opposite
A2 cos 2 ε + A2 sin2 ε = A2 (cos2 ε + sin2 ε) = A2 phases will not be zero.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 947

Beats In 1 second the intensity of sound will be (n 1 – n 2 )
times maximum and (n 1 – n 2) times minimum i.e.,
When two sounding bodies of nearly equal frequen-
(n 1 – n 2) beats will be heard in 1 second.
cies are sounded together, the resultant sound comprises
of alternate maxima and minima of sound. The pheno- ∴ No. of beats per sec (beat frequency)
menon of alternate waxing and waning of sound at regular = n1 – n2
intervals is called beats. = Difference of the frequencies of the two
Beat frequency—The number of beats heard per sound sources.
second is called beat frequency. It is equal to the
difference in frequencies of the two sounding bodies. Graphical Representation of Beats
Beats are heard only when the difference in Formation of beats is shown in the figure.
frequencies is not more than ten.
Beat period—The time from each loud sound to the
next loud sound is called one beat-period.
Beat—One loud sound plus the subsequent faint
sound constitute one beat.
Analytical Treatment of Beats
Let there be two waves of slightly differing fre-
quencies n1 and n2. Let a be the amplitude of each wave.
There displacements y 1 and y 2 are given as
y 1 = a cos 2πn1t
y 2 = a cos 2πn2t
If they superimpose, the resultant displacement is
y = y 1 + y 2 = a cos 2πn 1t + a cos 2πn 2t
⎡⎢ 2π(n 1 + n 2)t 2π(n 1 – n 2)t ⎤
⎥
= a ⎢⎣ 2 cos 2
· cos
2 ⎥⎦
= 2a cos π(n 1 + n 2)t · cos π(n 1 – n 2)t
= A cos π(n 1 + n 2)t Uses of Beats
where A = 2a cos π(n 1 – n 2)t (i) Determination of unknown frequency—The
A is the amplitude of the resultant wave. tuning fork of unknown frequency N′ is sounded with a
For maximum A, standard tuning fork of known frequency N and the
cos π(n 1 – n 2)t = 1 number of beats per second ‘x ’ is heard. Then N′ is
or π(n 1 – n 2)t = nπ ; n = 0, 1, 2, … (N + x) or (N – x). Now one of the prongs of the tuning fork
n of unknown frequency is loaded with wax. This slightly
or t = decreases its frequency.
(n 1 – n 2)
1 , 2 , 3 Both the tuning forks are again sounded together.
= 0,
(n 1 – n 2) (n 1 – n 2) (n 1 – n 2) Now if the beat frequency is found to be greater than ‘x ’,
Hence time interval between successive maxima N´ is (N – x); but if the beat frequency is found to be less
1 than ‘x ’ N´ is (N + x).
=
n1 – n2 (ii) Tuning the musical instruments—The tension
or the frequency of beats in the string of the two instruments is altered till beats are
= (n 1 – n 2) heard. Adjusting is continued till beats disappear. The
Similarly for minimum A, instruments get tuned.
cos π(n 1 – n 2)t = 0
(iii) In electronics—Electronic beat frequency
. oscillators are commonly used to generate a beat fre-
1
or π(n 1 – n 2)t = n + π quency which is audible. Also in modern radio receivers,
2
ultrasonic beats are generated and radio reception is
1 obtained.
n+
2 (iv) In mines—The presence of dangerous gases in
t =
(n 1 – n 2) mines may be detected by the use of beats. The
1/2 3/2 5/2 apparatus consists of two identical pipes; one blown with
= , ,
(n 1 – n 2) (n 1 – n 2) (n 1 – n 2) the air from a reservoir and the other with the air from the
So the time inerval between two successive minima mine. If both the airs are the same, no beats will be heard.
1 But if the air in the mine is polluted, beats will be heard.
= Thus, the method serves as an early warning system to
n1 – n2
safeguard workers against possible dangerous explo-
∴ The frequency of beats = (n 1 – n 2) sions.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 948

 SOME IMPORTANT SOLVED EXAMPLES

Example 1. Two sound sources are vibrating in Solution :

the same phase with a frequency of 100 sec–1 each.
Speed of sound is 340 m/s. For what value of path
difference x one would hear the successive maximum
and minimum sounds ?
Solution :

Example 2. A tuning fork is in unison with another

tuning fork of frequency 260 c.p.s. When waxed, it
produces 4 beats per second. What is its frequency
when waxed ? Example 6. Two waves having intensity in the
Solution : ratio 9 : 1 produce superposition. What is the ratio of
maximum to minimum intensity ?
Solution :
Example 3. A tuning fork that is in unison with
another tuning fork of frequency 400 c.p.s. is filed.
Now it produces 3 beats per second with the same
tuning fork. What is its new frequency after filing ?
Solution :
Example 7. When beats are produced by two
progressive waves of the same amplitude and of
nearly the same frequency, what is the ratio of
maximum loudness to the loudness of one of the
Example 4. A tuning fork of frequency 250 is used waves ?
to tune a piano. As the string of piano is tightened,
the number of beats decreases till it reduces to 4 Solution :
beats per second. What is the new frequency of the
piano string ?
Solution :

Example 8. A fork of unknown frequency produces

4 beats with a fork of 256 Hz frequency. When the fork
of unknown frequency is loaded with wax, it again
produces 4 beats per second with the other fork. What
is unknown frequency of the fork ?
Solution :

Example 5. Calculate the frequency of the beats

heard by stationary observer when a source of sound
of frequency 100 Hz moves directly away from him
with a speed of 10·0 ms –1 towards a vertical wall.
(speed of sound in air = 340 ms–1)

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 949


1. Which of the following represents
the superposition of two progres-
sive waves ?
(A) y = f (x – vt)
(B) y = ym sin k(x + vt)
(C) y = ym log(x – vt)
(D) y = f (x 2 – v 2t 2)
2. Two waves represented by
y 1 = 10 sin (2000 πt ) and
π.
y 2 = 10 sin 2000 π t + are
2
superposed at a particular ins-
tant. The resultant amplitude is—
(A) 10 units (B) 20 units
(C) 14·1 units (D) Zero
3. An accurate oscillator is used to
standardise a tuning fork marked
as 512 Hz. When the oscillator
reading is 514, two beats are
heard per second. When the
oscillator reading is 510, the beat
frequency is 6. The frequency of
the tuning fork is—
(A) 506 (B) 510
(C) 516 (D) 518
4. An earth satellite has a velocity
component of 7 km/s towards an
earth observer. It emits a signal
of frequency 100 MHz. This is
combined with a signal of same
frequency produced by a local
oscillator. The approximate beat
frequency will be—
(A) 1200 (B) 2400
(C) 3600 (D) 4800
5. 56 tuning forks are so arranged
in series that each fork gives 4
beats per second with the
previous one. The frequency of
the last fork is the octave of the
first. The frequency of the first
fork is—
(A) 220 Hz (B) 224 Hz
220
(C) Hz (D) 110 Hz
7
6. When two simple harmonic
motions of same periods, same
amplitudes, having phase diffe-
3π
rence of and at right angles to
2 Find the displacement of the
each other are superimposed.
The resultant wave form is a—
(A) Circle
(B) Parabola
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 950
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
(C) Ellipse 12. A man facing a wall holds a
(D) Figure of eight tuning fork of frequency 256
between himself and a vertical
7. A wave of frequency 500 Hz has
wall. He moves the tuning fork
a speed of 360 ms– 1. The
towards the wall with a velocity
distance between two points 60° 1
out of phase will be— of the velocity of sound. The
100
(A) 72 cm (B) 36 cm number of beats heard per
(C) 12 cm (D) 1·8 cm minute would be nearly—
8. A, B and C are three tuning (A) 75 (B) 150
(C) 300 (D) Zero
forks. The frequency of A is
350 sec–1. A and B produce 13. A tuning fork of frequency 256
5 beats/sec, while B and C Hz is excited and held at the
produce 4 beats/sec. When A is mouth of a resonance column of
loaded with some wax, it frequency 254 Hz. Pick up the
produces 2 beats/sec with B, and correct statement—
6 beats/sec with C. Frequencies (A) 2 beats per second will be
of B and C respectively are— heard
(A) 345, 347
(B) 4 beats per second will be
(B) 341, 345 heard
(C) 345, 341
(C) 1 beat per second will be
(D) None of these heard
9. When two simple harmonic (D) No beats will be heard
vibrations of the same frequency
14. The displacement of a particle
and amplitude are combined
executing periodic motion is
while acting on a particle at right
given by
angles. The resulting motion of .
.
the particle is circular when the 1
y = 4 cos 2 t sin (1000 t)
phase difference between them 2
is— This expression may be con-
π sidered to be a result of the
(A) π (B)
4 superposition of—
π (A) Two waves
(C) 2π (D)
2 (B) Three waves
10. A tuning fork of frequency 480 (C) Four waves
Hz produces ten beats per (D) Five waves
seconds when sounded with a
15. What is the speed of sound in a
vibrating sonometer. What should
gas in which two waves of
be the frequency of the sono-
wavelengths 1·00 m and 1·01 m
meter wire if a slight increase in
produce 3 beats in 10 seconds ?
tension produces less number of
beats ? (A) 303 m/s
(A) 460 (B) 480 (B) 340 m/s
(C) 320 m/s
(C) 470 (D) 490
11. Two sound producing bodies (D) None of these
produce progressive waves 16. Two waves passing through a
given by y 1 = 4 sin 400πt, y 2 = 3 region are represented by
sin 404 πt. A person standing y 1 = (1·0 cm) sin[(3·14 cm–1)x
nearby will hear— – (157 s –1)t ]
(A) 2 beats per second of inten- y 2 = (1·5 cm) sin[(1·57 cm–1) x
sity ratio 4 : 3
– (314 s –1)t ]
(B) 2 beats per second of inten-
sity ratio 49 : 1
particle at x = 4·5 cm at time
(C) 4 beats per second of inten-
t = 5·0 ms—
sity ratio 7 : 2
(A) 0·5 cm (B) 2·5 cm
(D) 4 beats per second of inten-
sity ratio 4 : 3 (C) 0·35 cm (D) – 0·35 cm
17. The equations of the two waves 23. For destructive interference
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
are phase difference between two
π. waves should be (in radians)—
y 1 = 10 sin 3πt + π
3
(A) (B) π
2
and y 2 = 5(sin 3πt + 3 cos 3πt )
π
What is the ratio of the ampli- (C) (D) Zero
4
tudes ?
24. For constructive interference path
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2:1
difference between two waves
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 2:3 should be—
18. Following is the resultant wave λ λ
produced by— (A) (B)
4 2
A B 3λ
(C) λ (D)
C D 2
25. For destructive interference, path
difference between two waves
(A) Two sources of slightly diffe- should be—
rent frequencies sounded at
λ λ
the same time (A) (B)
4 2
(B) Two sources of exactly equal
frequencies sounded at the (C) λ (D) Zero
same time 26. Two waves of I1 and I2 intensities
(C) A single sound source interfere. The intensity of the
(D) Two coherent light sources resultant wave will be—
19. In order for two sound waves to (A) I 1 + I2 + 2 I 1I 2 cos φ
produce beats it is most impor-
(B) I 1 + I2 + 2I1I 2 cos φ
2 2
tant that the two waves—
(A) Have the same frequency (C) I 1 + I2 + 2I1I 2 cos φ
(B) Have slightly different ampli-
(D) I 12 + I22 + 2I1I 2 cos φ
tudes
(C) Have slightly different fre- 27. In interference intensity changes—
quencies (A) With time
(D) Have the same number of
(B) With distance
overtones
(C) Both with time and distance
20. When two sound waves of
(D) Neither with time nor with
exactly equal frequencies moving
distance
in same directions superpose,
then— 28. In interference total energy—
(A) Beats are produced (A) Increases
(B) Interference of sound takes (B) Decreases
place (C) Remains constant and is not
(C) Stationary waves are pro- redistributed
duced (D) Remains constant and is
(D) None of the above redistributed
21. Interference of sound can be 29. Can beats be observed by two
demonstrated by— light sources ?
(A) Kundt’s tube (A) Yes (B) Never
(B) Quineke’s tube (C) Seldom (D) Indiscernible
(C) Resonance tube 30. The composition of two S.H.M. of
(D) Hebb’s method equal periods at right angles to
22. For constructive interference, each other and with a phase diffe-
phase difference between two rence of π results in the displace-
waves should be (in radian)— ment of the particles along a—
π (A) Straight cone
(A) (B) π
2 (B) Circle
π (C) Ellipse
(C) (D) 2π
4 (D) Figure of eight

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 951

 Important Points to Remember Binding Energy
Nucleus 1. The minimum energy required to keep the neutrons
and protons bound inside the nucleus is defined as
1. The nucleus is very small part which exists at the binding energy.
centre of the atom.
2. The minimum energy required to dissociate the nuc-
2. Nucleus was discovered by Rutherford through his leus into its constituent particles is also equal to its
α-scattering experiments. binding energy.
3. The whole positive charge and almost the whole 3. Binding energy
mass of an atom resides inside the nucleus. ΔE = Δ mc2
4. The charge on the nucleus is (+ Ze). It is due to = [Nmn + Zmp – mZA ] × c2
protons present in the nucleus. 4. Binding energy represents the stability of nucleus.
5. The nucleus is highly dense. Its density is of the order Total binding energy
5. B.E. per nucleon =
of 1014 gm/c.c. No. of nucleons
6. The radius of the nucleus is of the order of 10–15 to ΔE
=
10–14 m. A
[Nmn + Zmp – mZA ] c 2
7. If the nucleus is presumed to be spherical its radius =
A
r = r0 A1/3 where r0 = 1·2 × 10 –15 m and A is atomic
where A is mass number and is equal to the sum of
mass number.
neutrons and protons present in the nucleus.
8. The constituents of nucleus are neutrons and pro- 6. The binding energy per nucleon represents the stabi-
tons. In an atom electrons, equal in number to pro- lity of nucleus. Higher the binding energy per nuc-
tons, revolve round the nucleus. leon, more stable is the nucleus.
9. In lighter nuclei the proton number equals the neutron
number (N = Z) e.g. 7N14, 9Fe 18 etc. Binding Energy Curve

10. In heavier nuclei the number of neutrons is greater A graph of the binding energy per nucleon and the
than the number of protons (N > Z) e.g. 90Th 232 , mass number of nuclei is called the binding energy curve.
238 etc. It is shown in the figure.
92 U
N We have following important informations from the
11. For all stable nuclei = 1 to 1·5. binding energy curve.
Z
12. The neutrons and protons present inside the nucleus 1. The nuclei having mass number A ≈ 60 (e.g. Fe with
taken together are known as nucleons. A = 56) have maximum binding-energy per nucleon
(≈ 8·7 MeV). So these nuclei are most stable.
Formation of Nucleus 9.0
Binding energy per nucleon (MeV)

O16 Fe
56
1. When neutrons and protons combine to form a 8.0 C412 F18
He 14 U238
nucleus, then the mass of the nucleus is some- 7.0 N
what less than the sum of the masses of its 6.0 7
Li
constituent particles.
5.0
2. The decrease in mass in the process of formation of
4.0
nucleus is called mass defect.
3.0
3. The mass defect
2.0
Δ m = Total mass of neutrons + Total mass of H2
1.0
protons – Mass of the nucleus.
0.0
= N × mn + Z × mp – mZA 0 20 40 60 80 100 120 140 160 180 200 220 240
Mass number (A)
where N = number of neutrons present in nucleus.
2. For nuclei having mass number above about 60, the
4. When neutrons and protons combine to form a nuc- binding energy per nucleon gradually decreases. For
leus, then its Δ m mass transforms into energy i.e., example, for uranium (A = 238) it is about 7·6 MeV.
ΔE = Δ m × c2 3. For nuclei having mass number below 56 also, the
where c is the speed of light. binding energy per nucleon decreases and below 20,

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 953

 it decreases very rapidly. For example, for heavy
hydrogen (A = 2) it is only 1 MeV. This means that
nuclei having mass number below 20 are relatively
less stable.
4. The special positions for He 4, C1 2 and O16 on the
curve show that these nuclei are more stable than the
nuclei in their vicinity.
5. The binding energy of every nucleus is positive which
represents that there exist attractive forces among
the nucleons due to which these remain stable.
These forces are known as nuclear forces.
Packing Fraction (P)
1. Packing fraction is defined as mass defect per
nucleon. Thus
Mass defect M – A
P = = used.
A A
where M is actual mass of the nucleus and A is the
mass number.
2. Packing fraction may be positive or negative.
3. P also represents the stability of nucleus.
4. The nuclei having negative value of packing fraction
are more stable.
5. In general, the smaller the value of packing fraction,
the more stable are the nuclei.
Nuclear Forces
The forces which keep protons and neutrons bound
inside the nucleus are known as nuclear forces. They
have following characteristics :
1. They are strongly attractive, otherwise the nucleus
would be disrupted under electrostatic repulsion bet-
ween protons.
2. They are non-electric. If they were electric, the pro-
tons would repel one another. Thus leading to disrup-
tion rather than to stability.
3. They are non-gravitational. The gravitational forces
between the nucleons are found to be about 10–40
times the attractive forces demanded. Thus nuclear
forces cannot be gravitational in nature.
4. They are extremely short range forces. The
nuclear forces do not obey inverse square law and
are effective for only very short distances ≈ 10–15 m.
5. They are charge-independent. Nuclear forces do
not at all depend on charge. Thus the nuclear force
between all nucleons (e.g. between p-p, n-n or n-p)
is the same.
6. They are non-central forces. The force between two
nucleons does not act along the line joining their
centres and is, therefore, called a non-central force.
7. They are exchange forces. According to Yukawa
the nuclear force between two nucleons is the result
of exchange of π mesons (π0, π+, π–) between them.
Classification of Nuclei
The nuclei have been classified on the basis of the
number of protons (atomic number Z) or the total number
of nucleons (mass number A) in them.
1. Isotopes—The atoms of an element having same
number of protons (Z) but different number of nucleons
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 954
(A) i.e. different number of neutrons are called isotopes,
e.g.
Hydrogen : 1H1, 1H2, 1H3
Oxygen : 8O16, 8O17, 8O18
Special Features
Isotopes :
1. All isotopes of an element have same number of protons
( i.e. same number of electrons). Hence their chemical
properties of different isotopes of an element are same.
Hence they cannot be separated by any chemical
process.
2. The mass number (i.e. number of nucleons) of all isotopes
of an element are different. Hence their physical proper-
ties are not the same to separate them atomic mass
dependent physical properties, like gaseous diffusion, are
3. Among isotopes of the same element, some may be
stable and some radioactive. This is due to difference in
their nuclear structure. For example 6C12 is stable while
14 is radioactive similarly N 23 is stable while Na24
6C 11 11
is radioactive.
Isobars :
1. Their atomic numbers (Z) are different, hence they occupy
different places in periodic table.
2. They differ in chemical properties.
3. Isobars differ in physical properties also.
4. Nuclei of isobars belong to different elements.
5. The daughter nucleus remaining after emission of β-
particles is an isobar of the parent nucleus.
2. Isobars—The nuclei having same number of
nucleons (A) but different number of protons (Z) are called
isobars. They also have different number of neutrons. For
example :
(a) 1H3 and 2He 3
(b) 6C14 and 7N14
(c) 8O17 and 9F17
are isobars.
3. Isotones—The nuclei having equal number of
neutrons are called isotones. For them both Z and A are
different but (A – Z) is same. For example :
(a) 3Li7 and 4Be8, A – Z = 4
(b) 1H3 and 2He 4, A – Z = 2
(c) 11Na 23 and 12Mg24, A – Z = 12
are isotones.
Proton
1. Proton is a fundamental particle and was discovered
by Rutherford in 1919 in artificial nuclear disinte-
gration.
2. It has a positive charge (+ 1·6 × 10–19 coulomb) and
mass 1·673 × 10–27 kg.
3. It is represented by 1H1.
4. In free state proton is a stable particle.
5. The number of protons in the nucleus of the atoms of
an element gives the atomic number (Z) of that
element.
6. Elements can be disintegrated artificially by bombar-
ding them with protons
Neutron Pair-production
1. Neutron was discovered by James Chadwick. When an energetic γ-ray photon falls on a heavy
2. For this important discovery, Chadwick was honoured substance, it is absorbed by some nucleus of the subs-
by Nobel Prize in Physics in 1935. tance and an electron and a positron are produced. This
3. Neutron is a fundamental particle of matter and it phenomenon is called ‘pair-production’. It may be repre-
resides in the nucleus along with proton. sented as
4. Its mass is 1·675 × 10–27 kg, which is slightly greater
than the mass of proton.
5. It is uncharged particle.
6. It is represented by 0n1 because its atomic number
(charge) is zero and atomic mass number is 1.
7. It is not deflected by electric and magnetic fields. hυ = 1β
0 + –1 β
0

8. Being chargeless, it does not ionise gases and does Photon Positron Electron
not produce a track in Wilson Cloud Chamber. Rest-mass energy of each of the electron and the
9. Its penetrating power is very high. It penetrates proton is
through thick sheets of lead. E0 = m0c 2
10. On striking an atom, it easily enters its nucleus = (9·1 × 10–31) × (3·0 × 108)2
because it being chargeless is not deflected by the
= 8·2 × 10–14 joule
positive charge of the nucleus. Hence neutron has
proved most useful for nuclear disintegration and = 0·51 MeV
fission. Hence for pair-production, the energy of γ-photon
11. A free neutron outside the nucleus is unstable and is must be at least 2 × 0·51 = 1·02 MeV.
converted into a proton by emitting β-particle (elec-
tron) and an antineutrino.
Pair-annihilation
It is converse to pair-production. When an electron
0n1 ⎯→ H1 + 1 β0 + –
–1 υ
and a positron come very close to each other they annihi-
Neutron Proton Electron Antineutrino
late each other by combining together and two γ-photons
Positron are produced.
1. Positron is a fundamental particle and was dis-
covered by an American scientist Anderson in 1932.
Anderson was honoured by Nobel Prize in physics in
1936.
2. Positron is a positively charged particle whose mass
and charge are exactly equal to the mass and charge
of electron.
+1β –1 β hυ hυ
0 + 0 = +
3. Positron is anti-particle of electron. Positron Electron γ-photon γ-photon

SOME IMPORTANT SOLVED EXAMPLES

Example 1. How many electrons, protons and Example 2. How many α and β particles are emit-
neutrons are there in 14 gram of 6C14 ? Avogadro’s ted when 92U238 changes into 82Pb 206 ?
number N = 6 × 1023. Solution :
Solution :

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 955

 Example 3. An electron-positron pair is produced
by the materialisation of a γ -ray photon of 2·26 MeV.
How much kinetic energy is imparted to each of the
charged particle ?
Solution :

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. The atoms of an element differ- (C) Neutrino
ing in mass though possessing (D) α-particle
the same chemical properties are
called— 9. When α-particles are bombarded
(A) Isobars (B) Isotopes on 4Be9, then 6 C12 is formed.
The particle emitted is— ●●●
(C) Isotones (D) Isomers
(A) –1 β0 (Continued from Page 952 )
2. The daughter nucleus remaining
after emission of β-particle is an (B) +1 β0
……… of the parent nucleus. (C) 1
1H
(A) Isotope (B) Isobar (D) 0n
1
(C) Isotone (D) Isomer
10. Which particle is X in the
3. The equation following nuclear reaction ?
3Li
6 + 1H2 ⎯→ 4Be7 + ……
2He
4 + 7N14 ⎯→ ZXA + 1H1
will be completed by—
(A) Oxygen with mass 16
(A) α-particle (B) 2β-particles
(B) Nitrogen with mass 17
(C) Neutron (D) None of these
(C) Oxygen with mass 17
4. Isotopes have—
(D) Nitrogen with mass 16
(A) Same number of protons
(B) Same number of neutrons
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
(C) Same number of nucleons
(D) None of these
5. Which of the following particles is
unstable ?
(A) Electron (B) Proton
(C) α-particle (D) Neutron

6. An electron and a positron are

formed by a photon of energy
2·62 MeV. The total kinetic
energy of both these particles will
be—
(A) 2·6 MeV (B) 1·6 MeV
(C) 1·0 MeV (D) 3·6 MeV
7. Which of the following is correct ?
Positron is called antiparticle of
electron because—
(A) It has opposite charge
(B) Its mass is equal
(C) It collides with electron
(D) It is destroyed by combining
with electron
8. Which one of the following is not
a fundamental particle ?
(A) Proton
(B) Meson ●●●

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 956


1. What is the number of significant
figures in 0·002305 × 10–27 kg ?
(A) 7 (B) 6
(C) 4 (D) 3
2. The given figure is a graph of—
↑ 6. The amplitude and the time
v period of a simple pendulum are
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
t →
(A) Speed time of a body pro-
jected under gravity
(B) Acceleration-time graph of a
body projected under gravity
(C) Velocity-time graph of a
body projected under gravity
(D) None of these
3. Which of the following curves
does not represent motion in one
dimension ?
4. Two springs A and B are alike
and W is the work done in
stretching the spring. A is stiffer
than B(KA > KB ). If they are
elongated through the same dis-
tance, then—
(A) WA > WB (B) WA < WB
(C) WA = WB (D) None of these
5. A pendulum bob of weight 2N is
pulled to the right by a horizontal
30°
F material of the prism both
force F until the string makes an
angle of 30° to the vertical. Which
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 957
are the force for and tension in
the string needed to sit at 30° ?
(A) 2 newton, 1 newton
(B) 4 newton, 3 newton
(C) 3 newton, 3·5 newton
(D) 1·2 newton, 2·3 newton
0·05m and 2 second respectively.
The maximum velocity of the
pendulum is—
(A) 0·157 m/s (B) 1·57 m/s
(C) 3·14 m/s (D) 6·28 m/s
7. A block of mass 2 kg rests on a
rough inclined plane making an
angle of 30° with the horizontal.
The coefficient of static friction
between the block and the plane
is 0·7. The frictional force on the
block is—
(A) 9·8 N
(B) 0·7 × 9·8 × 3N
(C) 9·8 × 3 N
(D) 0·7 × 9·8 N
8. The displacement of a particle
dwelling in some wave motion is
y = 5 sin 2πnt. If the phase
difference between two particles
be 30° within a time-interval of 4
second and 6 second, then n
should be—
1
(A) 1·2 (B)
12
1 6°C. If the specific heat of air at
(C) (D) 24
24
9. A man is at rest in the middle of
a pond on perfectly smooth ice.
He can get himself to the shore
by making use of Newton’s—
(A) First law (B) Second law
(C) Third law (D) All the laws
10. A mass M of a certain gas is
enclosed in a vessel at tempera-
ture T and pressure P. A mass
2M of the same gas is filled in
the same vessel until the final
volume and temperature become
V T
and respectively. The new
9 3
pressure will be—
(A) 3P (B) 9P
(C) 27P (D) None of these
11. A body of 5 kg moves on a
frictionless horizontal surface
with a speed 3 m/s. It com-
presses a spring put along its
way and stops. What is the com-
pression in spring ? The force
constant of spring =10 kg wt per
metre.
(A) 0·68 m (B) 1 m
(C) 0·2 m (D) None of these
12. The number of degrees of free-
dom for oxygen molecule is—
(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7
13. If the change in the value of ‘ g ’
at a height h above the surface
of the earth is the same as at a
depth x below its, surface then—
(Both x and h being much
smaller than the radius of the
earth)
(A) x = h (B) x = 2h
h
(C) x = (D) x = h2
2
14. The liquid surface towards the
upper end of the capillary will be
concave when—
(A) The liquid is denser than
water
(B) The surface tension of the
liquid is zero
(C) The liquid moistens the
capillary
(D) The nearby medium is air
15. 5 gm air is heated from 4°C to
constant volume be 0·172 cal/
gm-°C, the increase in the inter-
nal energy of air will be—
(A) 7·2 erg (B) 17·2 joule
(C) 7·2 calorie (D) 1·72 calorie
16. The dispersive power of a prism
depends on—
(A) Angle of the prism
(B) Material of the prism
(C) Angle of the prism and
(D) None of the angle of prism
and material of prism
17. The temperature of the filament 23. The resistance of a wire is 10 Ω. 3 and 2 cm respectively. The
of a lamp is 2100 K and its Its length is increased by 10% by distance between the plates of
surface area is 4 × 10–4 m2. If the stretching. The new resistance an equivalent air condenser is—
emissivity of the filament is 0·453 will now be— (A) 5 cm (B) 3 cm
then the power of lamp is— (A) 12 Ω (B) 1·2 Ω (C) 2 cm (D) 2·5 cm
(A) 100 watt (B) 200 watt (C) 13 Ω (D) 11 Ω 29. A circular disc of area
(C) 400 watt (D) 0 watt ∧ ∧
24. The plane of a tangent galvano- (4 i + 5 j ) × 10–3 m2 is placed in
18. Fluorescence is caused— meter is lying in a plane perpen- a uniform magnetic field of inten-
dicular to the magnetic meridian. ∧ ∧
(A) In all substances due to
A neutral point is obtained at sity (0·2 i + 0·3 j ) tesla. The flux
ultraviolet light
the centre when a current is crossing the disc will be—
(B) In some specific substances passed through the coil. If the (A) 23 weber
by any a kind of light plane of the coil is rotated through (B) 23 × 10–2 weber
(C) In some specific substances 90°, the deflection in the needle
(C) 23 × 10–3 weber
by only a specific light will be—
(D) 23 × 10–4 weber
(D) By only long wavelength (A) 0° (B) 45°
light (C) 60° (D) 30° 30. A galvanometer of 600 Ω is
19. In Meldis experiment the string connected in series with a 300
25. If two bulbs of wattage 25 and
vibrates in 7 segments under Ω resistance and a battery of 18
100 respectively each rated at
tension of 9 gm-wt. If the string is volt. If the galvanometer is shun-
220 volt are connected in series
to be vibrated in 3 segments, the with the supply of 440 volt, then ted with a 200 Ω resistance, the
tension required will be— which of the bulbs will fuse ? potential difference across the
(A) 1·4 gm-wt (B) 49 gm-wt (A) 100 watt bulb galvanometer will be—
(B) 25 watt bulb (A) 4·5 volt (B) 6 volt
(C) 61 gm-wt (D) 13 gm-wt
(C) None of these (C) 9 volt (D) 12 volt
20. The phenomenon of bending of
(D) Both (A) and (B) 31. If applied voltage on a motor is
light at opaque edges is called—
200 volt and back e.m.f. is 160
(A) Refraction (B) Reflection 26. An oil drop floats between the
volt. The efficiency of the motor
parallel plates of a condenser.
(C) Diffraction (D) Interference is—
The plates are horizontal and the
lower plate has got + Q charge. (A) 100% (B) 80%
21. Two small spheres each having
Area of each plate is A and the (C) 50% (D) 25%
the charge + Q are suspended
distance between them is D. 32. Kilowatt hour is the unit of—
by insulating threads of length L
Mass of oil drop is M. Charge on (A) Energy
from a hook. This arrangement is
the drop in CGS units will be— (B) Power
taken in space where there is no
(g is the acceleration due to (C) Electric charge
gravitational effect, then the gravity)
angle between the two suspen- (D) Electric current
sions and the tension in each
thread will be—
(A) ( )( )
A
Q
g
M
(B)
(Mg A)
(4π Q)
33. An electromagnetic radiation has
an energy 14·4 keV. To which

(A) 180°,
1 Q2
4πε0 (2L)
2
(C) – ( ) gA
D
Q (D) –
(Mg A)
4πQ
region of electromagnetic spec-
trum does it belong ?
(A) Infra red region
1 Q2 27. The magnetic flux density
(B) 90°, 2 applied in a cyclotron is 3·5 tesla. (B) Visible region
4πε0 L (C) X-rays region
The frequency of the electric field
1 Q2 that must be applied between the (D) γ -ray region
(C) 180°, 2
4πε0 2L dees in order to accelerate 34. Hot wire ammeter is used to
1 1 Q2 protons, will be— measure—
(D) , · 2
180° 4πε0 L (A) 6·53 × 107 Hz (A) Ionisation currents
(B) 3·55 × 107 Hz (B) Direct current only
22. The wavelength of first line of
(C) 5·34 × 107 Hz (C) Alternating current only
Balmer series in hydrogen spec-
° (D) None of these (D) Direct current and alterna-
trum is 6561 A. What is the wave- ting current both
length of the second line of 28. The distance between the plates
of a parallel plate condenser is 35. The power of lens in the spec-
Balmer series ? tacles of a person is + 2D. The
5 cm. It is filled with two media of
° ° dielectric constants 3 and 2. person suffers from—
(A) 4860 A (B) 5400 A
Media and the plates have equal (A) Hypermetropia
° °
(C) 3600 A (D) 6000 A area. Thickness of the media are (B) Myopia

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 958

 (C) Colour blindness
(D) Presbyopia
36. Voltameter is a device—
(A) To measure the potential
difference between two
points
(B) To measure electrochemical
equivalent by electrolysis
(C) To compute electric power
(D) Made from voltaic pile of
volta
37. Electrons move at right angles to
a magnetic field of 0·03 T and
enter with a velocity 9 × 107 m/s.
e (A) 0 watt
The value of will be—
m (A) An attractive force on each
(Given radius of circular
path = 1·764 cm)
(A) 1·7 × 1011 C kg–1
(B) 2 × 1011 C kg–1
(C) 2·5 × 1011 C kg–1
(D) None of these
38. An electric charge moving with
uniform speed creates—
(A) Only electric field
(B) Only magnetic field
(C) Both the electric and mag-
netic fields
(D) No such a field
39. The activity of sea water is
about—
(A) 5 Bq per c.c.
(B) 7 Bq per m3
(C) 3 × 1010 Bq
(D) 11 Bq per litre
40. When the current flowing through
a conductor suddenly breaks,
then—
(A) No current is induced in the
conductor
(B) A current is induced in the
direction of primary current
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 959 / 4
(C) A current opposite to the
primary current is induced
(D) None of the above
41. For a common base transistor if
the values of emitter current and
collector current are respectively
103 μA and 0·96 mA, then the
value of base current will be—
(A) 0·04 mA (B) 4 mA
(C) 0·4 mA (D) 0·004 mA
42. The average power consumed
on connecting a 200 volt 50 hertz
A.C. source on 50 ohm resis-
tance will be—
(B) 200 watt
(C) 400 watt (D) 800 watt
43. To form a p-type semiconductor
the germanium crystal must be
doped with an impurity of
valency—
(A) 6 (B) 5
(C) 4 (D) 3
44. In state of saturation the dynamic
resistance of diode is—
(A) Zero
(B) 103 kilo ohm
(C) In between 1 kΩ at 10 kΩ
(D) Infinite
45. A jocker can throw balls upto a
maximum height of 20m. He
throws up four balls in succes-
sion with the same initial velocity
of 20 m/s and keeps them in air.
While one ball is passing through
his hand, find the position of
other three balls from his hand—
(g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 10 m, 15 m, 20 m
(B) 20 m, 15 m, 10 m
(C) 15 m, 15 m, 20 m
(D) 15 m, 20 m, 15 m
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
46. When a tuning fork of frequency
341 Hz is vibrated with another
tuning fork of unknown frequency,
6 beats per second are heard.
When the tuning fork of unknown
frequency is waxed, the number
of beats heard per second
becomes 2. What is the funda-
mental frequency of the second
tuning fork ?
(A) 335 Hz (B) 339 Hz
(C) 343 Hz (D) 347 Hz
47. Two parallel wires are carrying
electric currents of equal magni-
tude and in the same direction.
They exert—
other
(B) A repulsive force on each
other
(C) No force on each other
(D) A rotational torque on each
other
48. An astronomical telescope has an
objective of focal length 125 cm
and an eyepiece of focal length
25 cm. The diameter of the
objective is 4 cm. Find the dia-
meter of the image—
(A) 5 cm (B) 50 cm
(C) 20 cm (D) 0·8 cm
49. The temperature at and above
which a ferromagnetic material
becomes paramagnetic is
called—
(A) Critical temperature
(B) Temperature of inversion
(C) Curie temperature
(D) Debye temperature
50. What is the angle made by
vector ^i – k^ with y-axis ?
(A) 30° (B) 45°
(C) 60° (D) 90°

1. The displacement in the n th
second, of a uniformly accele-
rated motion is given by
a at an angle of 45° from the verti-
s n = u + (2n – 1)
2 cal, its escape velocity will be—
This equation is dimensionally—
(A) Correct
(B) Not correct
(C) Can be made correct by
multiplying the right hand
side of the equation by n
(D) Can be made correct by
dividing the left hand side of
the equation by n
2. An inductor L has resistance R. It
is connected to an alternating
voltage source of variable frequ-
ency. The current in the circuit—
(A) Decreases with increase of
frequency
(B) Does not change with
change in frequency
(C) Varies linearly with fre-
quency
(D) It is inversely proportional to
the square of the frequency
3. A particle thrown upwards
returns to the earth after 4s. At
t = 3 second it is at a height of—
(A) 14·7 m (B) 19·6 m
(C) 29·4 m (D) 39·2 m
4. The moment of inertia of a
collapsing star changes to one-
third of its initial value. The ratio
of the new rotational kinetic
energy to the initial rotational
kinetic energy is—
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 3
(C) 9 : 1 (D) 1 : 9
5. Two springs A and B of spring
constants k1 and k2 are hanging
from a ceiling in series with a
mass m . The effective spring
constant of the combined system
of two springs described will
be—
(A) k 1 + k2
(B) k 1 – k2
(C) k 2 – k 1 > 1
(D) k 1 k2/ k1 + k2
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 962
12. The current amplification of
common base N-P-N transistor is
0·96. What will be the current
gain if it is used as common
emitter amplifier ?
(A) 16 (B) 24
6. The vertical escape velocity of a (C) 20 (D) 32
body from earth’s surface is 11·2 13. A bottle weighing 200 gm and of
km/sec. If the body is projected area of cross section 50 cm2 and
height 4 cm oscillates on the
surface of water in verticle posi-
(A) 11·2 × 2 km/s tion. Its frequency of oscillation is
(Hz)—
11·2
(B) km/s (A) 1·5 Hz (B) 2·5 Hz
2
(C) 3·5 Hz (D) 4·5 Hz
(C) 11·2 × 2 km/s
14. Amplification factor of a triode is
(D) 11·2 km/s
20 and its plate resistance is 20
7. A stone of mass m 1 moving with
kΩ. Its mutual conductance will
a uniform speed v suddenly exp-
be—
lodes into two fragments. If the
fragment of mass m 2 is at rest, (A) 2 × 105 mho
the speed of the other fragment (B) 2 × 104 mho
is—
(C) 500 mho
(A) m 1v /(m 1 – m 2)
(D) 2 × 10–3 mho
(B) m 2v /(m 1 – m 2)
(C) m 1v (m 1 + m 2) 15. A person measure the time period
(D) m 1/ m 2 ·v of simple pendulum inside a
stationary lift and finds it to be T.
8. The focal length of a convex lens If the lift starts accelerating up-
is f . When it is divided in two wards with an acceleration 2g
parts by a plane parallel to the the time period of pendulum will
principal axis, focal length of be—
each part will be—
f (A) 3T (B) 3/2 T
(A) f (B)
2 (C) T/ 3 (D) T/3
(C) 2f (D) Zero
16. If p is the pressure of a gas and ρ
9. Acceleration due to gravity varies
is its density, then dimension of
with height ( h ) at which g i s
velocity is given by—
measured, as proportional to—
(A) 1/ h (B) 1/ h 2 (A) p1/2 ρ–1/2 (B) p1/2 ρ1/2
(C) g · h (D) g /h 2 (C) p–1/2 ρ1/2 (D) p–1/2 ρ–1/2
10. The maximum intensity in the 17. By leaving the door of a small
interference pattern of two equal standard domestic refrigerator
and parallel slits is I. If one of the open it is not possible to cool a
slits is closed, the intensity at the room, because it violates the—
same point is I0. Then— (A) First law of thermodynamics
(A) I = I0 (B) Second law of thermodyna-
(B) I = 2I0 mic
(C) I = 4I0 (C) Law of conservation of mo-
(D) There is no relation between mentum
I and I0
(D) Law of conservation of
11. The semi major axes of the orbits energy
of Mercury and Mars are respec-
18. If the horizontal range of a pro-
tively 0·387 and 1·524 in astro-
jectile is equal to the maximum
nomical units. If the period of
height reached, then the corres-
Mercury is 0·241 year, what is
ponding angle of projection is—
the period of Mars ?
(A) 1·9 year (B) 9·1 year (A) tan –1 1 (B) tan –1 3
(C) 19 year (D) 91 year (C) tan –1 4 (D) tan –1 12
19. Speed of sound in mercury at a
certain temperature is 1450 m/s.
Given the density of mercury as
13·6 × 103 kg/m3. Bulk modulus
for mercury is—
(A) 2·86 × 1010 N/m2
(B) 3·86 × 1010 N/m2
(C) 4·86 × 1010 N/m2
(D) 5·86 × 1010 N/m2
20. The acceleration of a particle
performing S.H.M. is 12 cm/s2 at
a displacement of 3 cm from the
mean position. Its time period
is—
(A) 6·28 s (B) 3·14 s
(C) 10·0 s (D) 5·0 s
21. Sound travelling at 340 m/s
enters water where the speed of
sound becomes 1480 m/s. Critical
angle for total reflection is—
(A) 10·3° (B) 13·3°
(C) 86·7° (D) 89·7°
22. An electron of mass 9 × 10–31 kg
revolves in a circle of radius
° around the nucleus of
0·53 A
hydrogen atom with a velocity of
2·2 × 106 ms–1. What is the ang-
ular momentum of the electron ?
h 2h
(A) (B)
2π 3π
h h
(C) (D)
π 2π
23. In Doppler effect, if the source
moves towards the observer, the
spectral line is shifted towards
the—
(A) Violet end of the spectrum
(B) Green end of the spectrum
(C) Red end of the spectrum
(D) Blue end of the spectrum
24. According to Rutherford model of
atom the atom consists of—
(A) Positively charged nucleus
surrounded by a cloud of
negative charge
(B) Electrons orbiting a posi-
tively charged nucleus in
definite orbits
(C) Same as (B) with electrons
spinning
(D) A rigid sphere only
25. In minimum deviation conditions
a light ray passing through an
equilateral prism travels—
(A) Parallel to the base (non-
refracting side) of the prism
(B) Perpendicular to the base
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 963
(C) Perpendicular to the first
refracting surface
(D) Perpendicular to the second
refracting surface
26. Along with β-particle emission
from a radioactive nucleus one
more particle with zero charge is
emitted to conserve the energy
and momentum. This particle is
called—
(A) Meson (B) Positron
(C) Antineutrino (D) Neutron
27. On a rainy day, if there is an oil
drop on tar road, coloured rings
are seen around this drop. This
is because of—
(A) Interface pattern produced
due to thin oil film
(B) Diffraction pattern
(C) Polarization
(D) Total internal reflection of
light
28. A doubly ionised lithium atom is
hydrogen like with atomic
number Z = 3. The wavelength of
radiation required to excite the
electron in Li2+ from first to third
Bohr orbit will be—
(Ionisation energy of hydrogen
atom is 13·6 eV)
° °
(A) 72·53 A (B) 113·74 A
° °
(C) 212·52 A (D) 17·72 A
29. Conductivity is the reciprocal
of—
(A) Drift velocity (B) Resistivity
(C) Inductance (D) Permittivity
30. A current carrying coil is freely
suspended in a uniform magnetic
field. The coil tends to set its
plane—
(A) Parallel to the magnetic field
(B) Perpendicular to the magne-
tic field
(C) Inclined to the magnetic field
(D) Continuously rotating
31. The magnetic field due to a very
long wire carrying current varies
according to—
(A) Square of the distance from
the wire
(B) Inverse of the distance from
wire
(C) Square root of the distance
from wire
(D) Linearly as the distance from
wire
32. The figure shows the view
through the eyepiece of a prism
spectrometer with its slit illumina-
ted by a source of light emitting
wavelengths corresponding to
yellow (Y), green (G) and an
unknown colour (X). The colour
X may be—
X G Y
(A) Red (B) Orange
(C) Pink (D) None of these
33. The induced electromagnetic
field in a coil is proportional to—
(A) Magnetic flux through the
coil
(B) Area of the coil
(C) Rate of change of magnetic
flux through the coil
(D) Product of magnetic flux and
area of the coil
34. SI unit of Stefan’s constant is—
(A) Nm–2K–4 (B) Jm–1K–4
(C) Jm–2K–4 (D) Wm–2K–4
35. The hard ferromagnetic material
is characterised by—
(A) Narrow hysterisis loop
(B) Fat hysterisis loop
(C) High mechanical hardness,
all over
(D) Mechanically hard surface
36. The radioactive constant of
radium is 4·28 × 10–4 per year,
its half period is approximately—
(A) 2000 year (B) 1240 year
(C) 1620 year (D) 2440 year
37. The total energy of the electron in
the hydrogen atom in the ground
state is –13·6 eV. The kinetic
energy of this electron is—
(A) – 13·6 eV (B) 0
(C) 6·8 eV (D) 13·6 eV
38. Energy equivalent to 1 kg of
matter is about—
(A) 1011 joule (B) 1016 joule
(C) 1017 joule (D) 1020 joule
39. N0 is the number of radioactive
atoms at any instant and N the
number of the radioactive atoms
remaining undecayed after time
 ‘t’. The graph drawn with loge N,
where e is the base of natural
logarithm along Y-axis and ‘t ’
along the X-axis will be a straight
line with slope—
(A) λ (B) –λ
(C) 1/λ (D) –1/λ
40. If the elements with principal
quantum number n > 4 were not
exhisted in nature, the number of
possible element would be—
(A) 60 (B) 32
(C) 4 (D) 64
41. Express 1 BeV in joule—
(A) 1·6 × 1010 J
(B) 1·6 × 10–9 J
(C) 1·6 × 10–10 J
(D) None of these
42. An electron moving with uniform
velocity enters a uniform electric
field perpendicular to its direction
of motion. The path of the elec-
tron will be—
(A) Circular (B) Parabolic
(C) Straight line (D) Helical
43. In Thomson’s method of determi-
ning e / m of cathode rays, mag-
netic field (B) and electric field
(E) are parallel, a parabola is not
obtained on the screen. The
reason is—
(A) Cathode rays consist of
electrons which carry nega-
tive charge
(B) Electron is a very light
particle
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 964
(C) There is no velocity distribu-
tion in cathode rays
(D) Parallel fields B and E do
not interact with electrons
44. A body is projected vertically
upward from point A, the top of a
tower. It reaches the ground in t 1
sec. If it is projected vertically
downwards from A with the same
velocity, it reaches the ground in
t 2 sec. If it falls freely from A, it
would reach the ground in—
t1 + t2 t1 – t2
(A) sec (B) sec
2 2
(C) t 1 t 2 sec (D) t 1t 2 sec
45. The acceleration of a particle
performing S.H.M. is 12 cm/sec 2
at a distance of 3 cm from the
mean position. Its time period is—
(A) 2 sec (B) 4 sec
(C) 1·54 sec (D) 3·14 sec
46. Which is the correct relation bet-
ween inter-atomic force-constant,
Young’s modulus and the normal
distance a0 between the atoms of
a wire ?
(A) Y= k × r 0 (B) k = Y × r0
(C) k = Y × r02 (D) k = Y × r0
47. To decrease the magnifying
power of an astronomical tele-
scope—
(A) Focal length of objective
should be increased
(B) Focal length of eyepiece
should be decreased
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
(C) Focal length of eyepiece
should be increased
(D) Focal length of objective
should be increased and
that of eyepiece should be
decreased
48. The aperture of the objective of a
telescope is 0·1 m and wave
° . The
length of light is 6000 A
resolving limit of the telescope
will approximately be—
(A) 6 × 10–5 rad
(B) 6 × 10–4 rad
(C) 6 × 10–3 rad
(D) 6 × 10–6 rad
49. A spot light S rotates in a
horizontal plane with constant
angular velocity of 0·1 rad/sec.
The spot of light P moves along
the wall at a distance of 3 m from
S. The velocity of the spot P,
where θ = 45° is—
S
˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙
P θ A
(A) 0·3 m/s (B) 3·0 m/s
(C) 0·6 m/s (D) 6·0 m/s
50. A stationary wave y = 2a sin kx
cos ω t in a closed organ pipe is
the result of the superposition of
y = a sin (ωt – kx) and—
(A) a sin (ω t + kx)
(B) – a sin (ωt – kx)
(C) – a sin (ωt + kx)
(D) a sin (ω t + kx)
Introduction 2. Hydration of alkenes—Direct hydration takes
place by adding water in presence of catalyst.
The word alcohol is derived from the Arabic Kuhl
(also Kohl or Kohol). It originally was used to mean a ‘very CH3
fine powder’ but gradually came to cannote ‘essence’. | H⊕
Later the term was applied to wine spirits, which were — CH2 + H2O ⎯⎯→
CH3—C —
referred to as alcool vini, and eventually simply alcohol. 2-methylpropene
⊕ –H⊕
The compounds derived from hydrocarbons by replace- (CH3)3C—OH2 ⎯⎯→ (CH3)3—C—OH
ment of one or more hydrogens by hydroxyl groups are 2-methylpropane-2-ol
known as organic hydroxy compounds. The parent hydro-
carbons may be acyclic aliphatic saturated or unsaturated. ● Indirect hydration is achieved by addition of sulphuric
The hydroxyl compounds which are derived from acyclic acid to alkene followed by hydrolysis of the alkyl
and alicyclic hydrocarbons are called alcohols. Those hydrogen sulphate.
obtained by replacement of nuclear aromatic hydrogens CH2 —— CH2 + H2SO4 ⎯→
are called Phenols. Since phenols differ from alcohols in Ethene
many respects, they are treated separately from alcohols. H O
CH3CH2OSO2OH ⎯⎯→
2
CH3CH2OH
Aryl substituted alcohols (C6H5CH2OH) are also known as Δ
aromatic alcohols. Ethanol
— CH2 + H2SO4 ⎯→
CH3CH —
General Methods of Preparation Propene
H O
1. Hydrolysis of halides—Alkyl halides, when boiled CH3CH(OSO2OH)CH3 ⎯⎯→
2
CH3CH(OH)CH3
Δ
with aqueous solution of an alkali hydroxide, give alcohols 2-propanol
through nucleophilic substitution mechanism.
3. Hydroformylation of alkenes—Lower molecular
R—X + KOH ⎯→ R—OH + KX weight olefins react with carbon monoxide and hydrogen
This general procedure produces primary and secon- in the presence of a catalyst in a reaction called hydro-
dary alcohols. Glycerol can be synthesized from propy- formylation or the oxo reaction.
lene by a series of reactions including the hydrolysis of a
| O
halide as one step in the process. Cobalt
C——C + CO + H 2 ⎯⎯→ CH —C —C
● Unsaturated alcohols can be prepared by high tem- | H
perature chlorination followed by hydrolysis of interme- Alkene Aldehyde
diate halide of an alkene. An example is the production The resulting aldehyde is, subsequently, hydrogenated
of alkyl alcohol from propylene. to form an alcohol.
CH2 —— CHCH3 + Cl2 ⎯⎯→ CH2 — — CHCH2Cl + HCl | O |
Propylene Allyl chloride CH—C —C + H2 ⎯⎯→ CH —C —CH2OH
— CHCH2Cl + NaOH ⎯⎯→
CH2 — | H |
CH2 —
— CHCH2OH + NaCl Alcohol
Allyl alcohol 4. Hydroboration-oxidation of alkenes—Alkenes
Note : There is a serious limitation of this method. when treated with diborane (BH3)2, give alkylboranes,
Elimination is a serious competing reaction R3B. Alkylboranes on oxidation with alkaline hydrogen
specially with sec. and tert-halides. However, if
a weaker nucleophile like silver acetate peroxide give alcohols.
(AgOAc) replaces alkali hydroxide, better (BH3) 2 H2O2/OH–
— CH2 ⎯⎯⎯→
6CH2 — 2(CH3CH2)3B ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
results are obtained even with tert. halides.
For example : Ethene Triethyl borane
(CH3)3CCl + AgOCOCH3 ⎯⎯→ 6 CH3CH2OH
tert-butyl chloride Ethanol
(CH3)3C—O—COCH3 + AgCl (BH3) 2
tert-butyl acetate — CH2 ⎯⎯→ 2(CH3CH2CH2)3B
6CH3CH —
H 2O Propene Tri-n-propylborane
(CH3)3—C—O—COCH3 ⎯⎯→
H2O2/OH–
(CH3)3C—OH + CH3COOH ⎯⎯⎯→ 6CH3CH2CH2OH
tert-butyl alcohol 1-propanol
● As alkyl halides themselves are prepared from alco- Note : It is significant to note that this method
hols, this method will be of interest only when alkyl always leads to the anti-Markovnikov’s
halides are readily available and are very cheap. addition of water to alkenes.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 967

 5. Grignard synthesis—All the three types of alco- Note : Aldehydes and ketones, in presence of
hols (primary, secondary, tertiary) can be prepared from metals like magnesium undergo bimolecular
the Grignard reagents by interaction with suitable carbonyl reduction to form symmetrical glycols
compounds. (Pinacols). For example :
R' CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
R—MgX + R" C — —O→ | | | |
Mg
Grignard Ketone CH3—C + C—CH3 ⎯→ CH3—C—– C—CH3
reagent || || | |
O O O O
R' R'
H 2O
R C—OMgX ⎯→ R C—OH + Mg(OH)X Propanone Mg
R" H+ R"
CH3 CH3
Alcohol | |
● The reaction of Grignard reagent with formaldehyde H 2O
⎯⎯→ CH3—C—– —C—CH3
leads to primary alcohols, that with aldehydes other | |
than formaldehyde yield secondary alcohols and that OH OH
with ketones give tertiary alcohols. 2, 3-dimethyl butane
2, 3-diol (Pinacol)
● Mechanism of above reaction is illustrated as :
: – + More about the Preparation of Alcohols
(i) R—: MgX → R : + MgX
● Oxymercuration—Demercuration of alkenes leads
| | – + to the formation of alcohols. It involves the reaction of
(ii) R : + C——O → R—C —O MgX alkene with mercuric acetate in presence of tetra-
| | hydrofuran (THF). This step is known as Oxymer-
+ curation as :
+ MgX R R3 R1 R3
| – + | | | | |
Hg(OCOCH 3) 2
(iii) R– C —O—MgX + HOH → R—C—OH + Mg(OH)X R2—C == C —R4 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ R2—C—– C—R4
| THF-H2O | |
|
OH HgOCOCH3
(iv) Mg(OH)X + H+ → Mg2+ + X– + H2O
This is followed by the reduction of intermediate
6. Reduction of carbonyl compounds—Carbonyl hydroxy mercuryl compounds known as demercura-
compounds i.e., aldehydes and ketones etc. give alcohols tion.
on reduction. This reaction can be effected by :
(i) Catalytic hydrogenation R1 R3 R1 R3
| | | |
NaBH4
(ii) The use of metal-solvent combination such as R2—C—– C—R4 ⎯⎯→ R2—C—– C—R4
sodium or potassium in alcohol. | | | |
(iii) The use of complex metal hydrides. OH HgOCOCH3 OH H
Hydroxy mercuryl Alcohol
For example : compound
O OH Alcohols obtained are those which will be formed by
|| | the Markovnikov’s addition of H 2O to carbon-carbon
PtO2
● CH3—C—CH3 + H2 ⎯⎯→ CH3CH—CH3 double bond.
2-propanone 2-propanol ● Grignard reagents also react with ethylene oxide to
Ni form primary alcohols containing two carbon atoms
● CH3CHO + H2 ⎯⎯⎯→ CH3CH2OH
or LiAlH4 more than the Grignard reagent.
Ethanal Ethanol
H2O/H+
CH3MgBr + CH2 —CH2 ⎯⎯→ CH3CH2CH2OH
OH
CH3 | Grignard reagent O Propanol-1
Ni
● — O + H2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ CH3CH—CH3
C— Ethylene oxide
CH3 or LiAlH4
Mechanism of this reaction can be illustrated as
Propanone 2-propanol below :
O ·· ⊕
|| Na CH3—MgX ⎯⎯→ CH3 + MgX
● CH3—C—CH2CH2CH3 + H2 ⎯⎯→
EtOH
Pentanone-2 CH2 —CH2
CH3CHOHCH2CH2CH3 : CH3 + ⎯⎯→ CH3CH2CH2 O
⎯⎯→

2-pentanol O
H+
Na
● C2H5COOC2H5 + 2H2 ⎯⎯→ C2H5CH2OH
EtOH CH3CH2CH2OH
Ethyl propanoate 1-propanol Propanol-1
+ C2H5OH Note : This reaction sequence is useful in ascending
Ethanol the series of organic compounds.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 968

● Hydroxylation of alkenes leads to the formation of ● Additional hydroxyl groups in an alcohol enhances its
1, 2-glycols. For example : sweetness. For example ethanol is not sweet; pro-
OH OH pylene glycol, C3H6(OH)2 is slightly sweet; glycerol,
| | C3H5(OH)3 is quite sweet; and mannitol C 6H8(OH)6
KMnO 4
CH2—CH2 ←⎯⎯⎯ — CH2
CH2 — is so sweet that it is known as sweet alcohol.
Ethane-1‚ 2-diol Ethene
OH OH Chemical Properties of Alcohols
| | In alcohols –OH group is functional group, therefore,
C H CO OH
⎯⎯⎯⎯→
6 5 2
+
CH2—CH2 the chemical properties of alcohols generally involve the
H2O/H
Ethane-1‚ 2-diol reactions of –OH group. These undergo substitution and
Note : KMnO 4 leads to syn-hydroxylation or cis- elimination reactions. The chemical reactivity of alcohols
hydroxylation and per acids to anti-hydroxy- also depends upon the carbon chain attached to –OH
lation or trans -hydroxylation of alkenes, group. The reactions of alcohols can be classified into
where structure permits. three types :
● All esters, except that of formic acid yield tertiary (i) Reactions involving cleavage of O—H bond
alcohols on reaction with Grignard reagent followed (ii) Reactions involving cleavage of C—OH bond
by acidic hydrolysis. The esters of formic acid give
(iii) Reactions involving both the alkyl and hydroxyl
secondary alcohols.
⎡ ⎤
groups.
O OMgBr
||
CH3 — C—OC2 H5 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
CH 3MgBr ⎢ |
⎥ Reactions Involving Cleavage of O —— H
:

⎢
CH3—C—OC2H5
⎥ Bond
:

⎣ ⎦
Ethyl ethanoate |
CH3 (a) Acidic nature of alcohols—Since the oxygen
O attached to hydrogen in alcohols is highly electronegative,
– C2H5OMgBr || CH 3MgBr it facilitates the separation of the relatively positive hydro-
⎯⎯⎯⎯→ CH3—C—CH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ gen as H+. In other words alcohols behave as acids as is
OMgBr OH evident from the following reactions :
| | Br ● Reactions with metals—When treated with metals like
H2O/H+
CH3—C—CH3 ⎯⎯⎯→ CH3—C—CH3 + Mg Na and K these liberate hydrogen with the formation of
| | OH alkoxides.
CH3 CH3 : –
2CH3CH2O— H + 2Na ⎯→ 2CH3CH2 O Na+ + H2 ↑
General Physical Properties of Alcohols :
Ethanol Sod. ethoxide
The lower members of alcohols are colourless, vola- : –
tile liquids with a characteristic alcoholic smell and burning 2 (CH3)3CO — H + 2K ⎯→ 2 [(CH3)3 CO] K+ + H2 ↑
:
taste, whereas higher alcohols are odourless and taste- tert-butyl alcohol Pot. tert-butoxide
less. Alcohols having 12 or more than 12 carbon atoms :
are solids. Branched chain alcohols with much fewer car- 6 (CH3)2CHO — H + 2Al ⎯→
:
bon atoms are, however, solids. Isopropyl alcohol
Boiling points—Boiling points of alcohols are much –
2[(CH3)2CHO] 3 Al 3+ + 3H2 ↑
higher than those of alkanes, haloalkanes or ethers of
Aluminium isopropoxide
comparable molecular mass. This is due to the inter-
molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols as : ● Reactions with metal hydrides—Formation of
alkoxide with evolution of hydrogen takes place.
R R
: – +
| | R—O — H + MH ⎯→ R—OM + H2 ↑
:
- -O
-- - -O
--- --- - ● Alcohols are very weak acids (K a = 10–16 — 10 –18 )
H- H -- H- ---
- -H
O --
-
--- O-- even feeble than water (Ka = 1·78 × 10 –16 ). They do
| | not turn blue litmus red. Thus alcohols are weaker
R R acids than water but stronger than acetylene as is
● For isomeric alcohols, the boiling points follow the evident from the following reactions :
– + +–
order as : primary alcohol > secondary alcohol > R O Na + H — OH ⎯→ Na OH + RO — H
tertiary alcohol. Stronger Stronger Weaker Weaker
● Lower alcohols are found to form solid derivatives base acid base acid
with CaCl2 and MgCl2. –
HC ≡ C Na+ + ROH ⎯→ RO – Na+ + HC ≡ CH
CaCl2 + 4CH3OH ⎯→ CaCl2·4CH3OH
Stronger Stronger Weaker Weaker
MgCl2 + 6C2H5OH ⎯→ MgCl2·6C2H5OH base acid base acid
It is because of this reason that alcohols cannot be ● Thus the decreasing order of acid strength is
dried with anhydrous CaCl 2 and MgCl2. H2O > ROH > HC ≡ CH
● Alcohols are known to have intoxicating effects. ● The decreasing order of basic strength of the corres-
Methanol is poisonous and is not good for drinking ponding anions is as :
purposes. It causes blindness. Ethanol on the other – – –
hand is used for drinking purposes. HC ≡ C : > RO : > HO:

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 969

● Relative acid strength—Acid strength of substance (d) Reaction with acid halides or acid anhy-
depends on how well the resulting anion can accommo- drides—When treated with acid chloride or acid anhy-
date the negative charge. An alkyl group being electron dride in the presence of bases like pyridine or dimethyl
releasing, intensifies the negative charge on alkoxide aniline (as catalyst) alcohols form esters. This reaction is
ion and consequently the anion is rendered less stable. called acylation.
Thus electron releasing inductive effect of alkyl O O
groups makes alcohols weaker acid than water. || ||
Base
| | – R—C—Cl + H — OR' ⎯→ R—C—OR' + HCl
R →⎯ C — OH R →⎯ C—O + H+ Acid chloride Alcohol Ester
| | O O O
This inductive effect will be greatest for tertiary || || ||
alcohols, less for secondary, still less for primary and least R—C—O—C—R + H—OR' ⎯⎯→ R—C—OR'
for methanol. The decreasing order of acid strength of Acid anhydride Alcohol Ester
alcohols is as : O
CH3OH > Primary > Secondary > Tertiary alcohols. ||
H R R + R—C—OH
| Acid
R →⎯ C →⎯ OH > R →⎯ C→⎯OH > R →⎯ C→⎯ OH :
Reactions Involving Cleavage of C — OH
| | :
H H
R Bond :
Primary Secondary Tertiary (a) Reactions with hydrogen halides—The hydro-
alcohol alcohol alcohol gen halides react with alcohols to form alkyl halides.
(b) Reaction with Grignard reagent—Alcohols Various reactions are summarised below :
react with Grignard reagents to form alkanes. In these HCl/Zn
reactions the alkane is obtained from alkyl part of Grig- ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→R—Cl + H2O
nard reagent.
X 48% HBr
: : R—OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ R—Br + H2O
RO— H + CH3— MgX ⎯→ CH4 ↑ + Mg or NaBr + Conc. H2 SO 4
: : OR
Stronger Weaker 58% HI
acid acid ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ R—I + H2O
or KI + H3PO 4
● This reaction can be considered as displacement of
weaker acid (R – H) from its salt (Grignard reagent) by ● The order of reactivity of various alcohols is as :
stronger acid alcohol (R – OH). tertiary > secondary > primary alcohols.
● This reaction makes basis of the Zerevitinov method ● The order of reacting hydrogen halides is as :
for the estimation of the number of –OH groups in an HI > HBr > HCl.
unknown compound. The volume of evolved methane
is measured. A Closer Look
(c) Reaction with carboxylic acids—In presence of ● Secondary and tertiary alcohols react with hydrogen halide
an acid (H 2SO4 or HCl gas) ester is formed. This reaction through S N 1 reaction mechanism as :
is known as esterification. ⊕
O O (a) R—OH + HX ROH2 + : X
|| H+ || ⊕ ⊕
: : (b) R—OH2 R + H2O
CH3C — OH + H— OC 2H5 CH3 COC2H5 + H2O
: :
Ethanoic acid Ethanol Ethyl ethanoate ⊕
(c) R +:X → R—X
● Esterification is a reversible reaction. It can be pushed ● In step (a) : The alcohol accepts hydrogen ion to form
forward by using any of the reactants in large excess protonated alcohol which dissociates into carbocation and
or by removing any of the products as soon as it is water in step (b). The carbocation then combines with
formed. halide ion to form alkyl halide. In this sort of mechanism
● This reaction shows considerable steric hindrance. alkyl group of alcohol may undergo rearrangement due to
rearrangement in the intermediate carbocation.
The bulkier the acid or alcohol, the slower the rate of
esterification. For example : CH 3 H CH 3 H
| | HCl | |
CH3OH > CH3CH2OH > (CH3)2 CHOH > (CH3)3C–OH CH 3—C——C——CH 3 ⎯→ CH3—C— C—CH 3
HCOOH > CH3COOH > (CH3)2 CHCOOH > (CH3)3– | | | |
CCOOH H OH Cl H
● Isotopic tracer technique shows that the esterification ● Primary alcohols react through SN 2 mechanism as :
involves the cleavage of the O—H bond of alcohol and ⊕
C—OH bond of acid : (a) R—OH + HX R—OH2 + :X
O O
||
R—C —OH + H— OR'
* H+ || *
R—C—OR' + H2O
⊕
(b) R—OH2 + :X ⎯→ [ δ– δ+
X - - - R - - - O H2 ]
* ⎯→ X—R + H2O
O is the radio isotope of oxygen.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 970

 (b) Reactions with phosphorus halides—Alkyl hali- A Closer Look
des are formed as :
● The mechanism of dehydration of alcohol is as :
R–OH + PCl5 ⎯→ R–Cl + POCl3 + HCl ↑
H H H H
Alcohol Alkyl halide | | | |
Protonation ⊕
C2H5OH + PCl5 ⎯→ C2H5Cl + POCl3 + HCl ↑ (a) H—C—C—OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
+
H—C—C—OH2
Ethanol Chloro ethane | | +H | |
3ROH + PX3 ⎯→ 3RX + H3PO3 H H H H
Oxonium
3C 2H5OH + PCl3 ⎯→ 3C 2H5Cl + H3PO3
H H H H
● PBr3 and PI3 are generally prepared in situ by reaction | | | |
⊕ Loss of H2O
between phosphorus bromine and iodine respectively. (b) H—C—C—OH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ H—C—C⊕ + H2O
(P4 + I2) | | | |
3C 2H5OH + PI3 ⎯⎯⎯→ 3C2H5I + H3PO3. H H H H
(c) Reaction with thionyl chloride (SOCl2)—Alco- H H
hols react with SOCl2 in the presence of pyridine to form | | Loss of H+
chloroalkanes. (c) H—C—C⊕ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ H—C —
— C—H
| | –H+ | |
Pyridine
R–OH + SOCl2 ⎯⎯→ RCl + SO2 ↑ + HCl ↑ H H H H
Pyridine ● The relative ease of dehydration of alcohols—Step (b)
C2H5OH + SOCl2 ⎯⎯→ C2H5Cl + SO2 ↑ + HCl ↑ involving the formation of carbocation is slowest and rate-
Thionyl determining step. The more easily a carbocation is formed,
Ethanol Chloride Chloroethane the more easily that alcohol would dehydrate. Further, the
● The order of reactivity of various alcohols towards this greater the stability of a carbocation, the greater the ease
type of reaction is : with which it would be formed. Since the decreasing order
of stability of carbocations is
tertiary > secondary > primary alcohols. Tertiary > Secondary > Primary
● This can be explained in terms of electron releasing the decreasing order of dehydration of alcohols should be :
inductive effect of alkyl groups. The alkyl groups by Tertiary > Secondary > Primary alcohols.
their electron releasing effect tend to increase the ● Formation of unexpected products—Sometimes the
electron displacement towards oxygen. alkenes containing double bonds at position different from
R R those anticipated from the original position of the –OH
H group are formed in predominating amounts. For example.
|
H+
R→⎯C→⎯OH > R→⎯C→⎯OH > R→⎯C→⎯OH CH 3CH 2CH — — CH 2 ←⎯⎯ CH3CH 2CH 2CH 2OH
| | –H2O

⎯⎯⎯→
1-butene (20%)
H H (expected)
R
● In other words, the polarity of C—O bond increases H – H2 O
and this makes the breaking of the bond between CH 3CH = CH CH3
carbon and oxygen easier. Therefore, the alcohols with 2-butene (80%)
greater number of alkyl groups attached to carbon will (unexpected)
be more effective. This justifies the above order of Such migration of double bond is in agreement with the
reactivity of alcohols in this type of reactions. mechanism proposed for dehydration of alcohols. The
carbocations always rearrange whenever, possible, to a
Reactions Involving both Alkyl as well as stabler carbocation by 1, 2-hydride or alkyl shifts. The
Hydroxyl Groups : primary, n-butyl cation will, therefore, rearrange to a more
The important reactions of this type are : stable secondary butyl cation in above example and 2-
(a) Acidic Dehydration, (b) Oxidation, (c) Dehydro- butene rather than 1-butene is major product.
genation ⊕
CH3CH2CH—CH2 1‚ 2 hydride ⊕
(a) Acidic dehydration—When heated with concen- ⎯⎯⎯→ CH3CH 2CHCH 3
trated H2 SO4, phosphoric acid or boric acid, alcohols Shift sec-butyl cation
H (more stable)
undergo dehydration to form alkenes. The reaction with
n-butyl cation
concentrated H 2SO4 is carried out at 443 K, whereas (less stable)
phosphoric acid and boric acid react at higher tempera-
ture. ● Dehydration of ethanol under different experimental
˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙ conditions gives different products.
˙˙˙˙

˙˙˙˙

H OH
˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙
| | At 383 K, ethyl hydrogen sulphate is obtained.
conc. H2SO 4 383 K
H—C—C—H ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ H—C — — C—H + H2O C2H5OH + H2SO4 ⎯⎯→ C2H5HSO 4 + H2O
| | 443 K | | Distillation under reduced pressure gives diethyl sul-
H H H H phate.
Ethanol Ethene Heat
2C 2H5OH + H2SO4 ⎯⎯→ (C2H5)2SO4 + 2H2O
H ˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙
˙˙˙˙

˙˙˙˙

H OH At 413 K, if alcohol is used in excess, the loss of H 2O

| ˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙
| |
conc. H2SO 4 molecule takes place from two different molecules of
H—C—C—C—H ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ CH3—CH —
— CH2 + H2O alcohol and ether is obtained as the product.
| | | 443 K Propene
H H H Conc. H2SO 4
2C 2H5OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ C2H5OC2H5 + H2O
1-propanol 413 K

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 971

 (b) Oxidation of alcohols—Alcohols undergo oxida- ● A variation of the above oxidation reaction is observed
tion with oxidising agents (in neutral or acidic or alkaline when vapours of an alcohol are passed over reduced
medium) such as chromium trioxide (CrO3), potassium copper at high temperature. The primary, secondary
dichromate (K2Cr2O7), potassium permanganate (KMnO4) and tertiary alcohols give different products.
and nitric acid. ● Primary alcohols—They give aldehydes as :
● Primary alcohols—They are oxidised to carboxylic H H
acids by potassium permanganate. | Cu/575 K |
R—C—OH ⎯⎯⎯→ R—C ⎯ ⎯ O + H2 ↑
RCH2OH + KMnO4 ⎯→ RCOOK + MnO2 ↓ + KOH
|
RCOOK + H+ ⎯→ RCOOH + K+ H
An acidic solution of potassium dichromate can oxi- ● Secondary alcohols—They give ketones as :
dise them to aldehydes, provided the products are dis- R R
tilled away as soon as they are formed. If the aldehyde | Cu/575 K |
formed continues to be available to the oxidant, carboxylic R—C—OH ⎯⎯⎯→ R—C ⎯ ⎯ O + H2 ↑
acids are formed ultimately. |
H
H OH ● Tertiary alcohols—They do not undergo this type of
| Cr2O72– |
RCH2OH + Cr2O72– ⎯→ R—C — — O ⎯⎯→ R—C ⎯ ⎯O reaction due to absence of α-hydrogen. However, it
gets dehydrated to form an alkene.
Thus, primary alcohols are oxidised to aldehydes CH3 CH3
and carboxylic acids containing the same number of | Cu/575 K |
carbon atoms as the original alcohol. CH3—C—OH ⎯⎯⎯→ CH3—C ⎯ ⎯ CH2 + H2O
| Isobutylene
● Secondary alcohols—They are oxidised to ketones
CH3
by chromic acid.
tert-butyl alcohol
K2Cr2O7 + H 2SO4 or Cr2O3 + CH3 COOH or CrO3 in Since this oxidation reaction literally involves loss of
(Pyridine) hydrogen from alcohol, it is known as catalytic dehydro-
Cr2O72– genation. On the basis of products of oxidation, the dis-
R2CHOH ⎯⎯→ R2C ⎯
⎯O tinction between primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols
A secondary Ketone can be made.
alcohol
Ketones resist the further oxidation, but under vigo- More about the Distinction of Primary, Secondary
rous conditions they are oxidised to a mixture of carboxylic and Tertiary Alcohols
acids. For example. ● Lucas test—On treating with Lucas reagent (a mixture of
conc. HCl and ZnCl2), alcohols give cloudy appearance
OH due to formation of alkyl chlorides. A tertiary alcohol
| reacts very fast, a secondary alcohol reacts within five
CH3—CH—CH3 ⎯→ CH3COOH + HCOOH minutes and a primary alcohol does not react appreciably
Isopropyl alcohol Acetic acid Formic acid at ordinary temperature.
Thus, the ketones, the first stage oxidation pro- ● Victor Meyer’s test—The alcohol is subjected to the
reaction sequence given below and the colours obtained
ducts of sec. alcohols, contain same number of car- are noted.
bon atoms as original alcohol, but carboxylic acids
Primary Secondary Tertiary
contain fewer carbon atoms than the parent alcohol.
alcohol alcohol alcohol
● Tertiary alcohols—They are not oxidised under neutral
RCH2OH R2CHOH R3C–OH
or alkaline conditions, but acidic oxidising agents
⎯→

⎯→

⎯→

oxidise them, presumably, through the alkene formed P4 + I2 P4 + I2 P4 + I2

under the acidic conditions, to a mixture of aldehydes,
ketones and acids. For example : RCH2I R2CHI R3CI
CH3 CH3
⎯→

⎯→

⎯→

| | AgNO2 AgNO2 AgNO2

H+
CH3—C—OH ⎯→ CH3—C —
— CH2
| RCH2NO2 R2CHNO 2 R3C–NO2
CH3
⎯→

⎯→

⎯→

2-methylpropane-2-ol 2-methylpropene HONO HONO HONO

⎯⎯→

O R No reaction
R—C—NO2 R C—NO2
⎯→

CH3 O | KOH
| || ||
N–OH NO
CH3—C ⎯
⎯ O + H—C—H
Nitrolic acid Pseudo nitrol
Propanone Methanal
⎯→

⎯→

KOH KOH
⎯→

⎯→

O O
Red colour Blue colour Colourless
CH3COOH + HCOOH HCOOH

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 972

Some Important Alcohols filtered off, boiled with calculated amount of caustic potash
(1) Methyl alcohol or methanol, CH3OH—It is manu- and distilled. Pure methyl alcohol distills over at 65°C. It is
factured by following methods : dried over quick lime.
COOH COOCH3 COOK
(i) From water gas— 2KOH
| + 2CH3OH → | ⎯→ | + 2CH3OH
C + H2O (steam) → CO + H2 COOH COOCH3 COOK
14243 Oxalic acid Methyl oxalate
Water gas Uses of methyl alcohol—It has following important
CuO/ZnO/Cr O
CO + 2H2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
2 3
CH3OH uses :
300–400°C/200 atm
(i) Methanol is an important source material for the
The crude methanol is fractionally distilled. This production of formaldehyde. Formaldehyde is a
method gives methanol of excellent purity and in raw material for plastic industry.
excellent yield.
(ii) Important chemicals like methylaniline, dimethyl-
(ii) From natural gas—Controlled air oxidation of aniline, methyl chloride, dimethyl sulphate,
marsh gas by passing its mixture with oxygen (9 : 1) methyl salicylate, terylene, polyvinyl alcohol etc.
through a copper tube at 200°C, under a pressure of are manufactured from methanol.
100 atm. gives methanol.
(iii) Methanol is used for denaturing alcohol rende-
1 Cu tube
CH4 + O 2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ CH3OH ring it unfit for drinking.
2 200°C/100 atm
(iv) Methanol finds application in antifreeze composi-
(iii) From pyroligneous acid—This is also referred to tion for automobile and aeroplane radiators.
as destructive distillation of wood.
(v) Methanol finds important place as a solvent in
Wood many industrial processes, in certain adhesive
Destructive Distillation at 400°°C compositions and in wood stains.
(vi) It is also used as component of motor spirit
↓ ↓ blends.

Volatile Gases Non-volatile residue
Passed into condenser (Wood charcoal)
↓ ↓
Uncondensed gases Distillate
(Wood gases used as fuel) allowed to settle
(CO, CH 4, C2H4, C2H6, H2 etc.)
↓ ↓
Upper aqueous layer Lower layer
Pyroligneous acid Wood Tar
(Acetic acid, Methanol, Acetone) (A mixture of cresols,
10% 2-4% 0·5% used for preservation of timber
under the name of creosote)
The aqueous layer is distilled and the vapour is passed
over milk of lime. Acetic acid is retained as calcium
acetate, but methanol, acetone and other volatile com-
pounds pass over as wood spirit. The wood spirit is then
fractionally distilled to give a low boiling fraction, a crude
methanol fraction and a higher boiling fraction containing
a mixture of alcohols and ketones. The crude methanol
fraction is then carefully refractionated to give pure
methanol.
Purification—Methanol obtained from pyroligneous
acid is treated with anhydrous CaCl 2, when crystalline
derivative, CaCl2·4CH3OH is formed, leaving acetone
unaffected. The crystals are filtered and boiled with water
when alcohol is regenerated. This is distilled. To remove
last trace of water, the distillate is dried over quick lime.
In another method, impure methanol is treated with
oxalic acid when solid methyl oxalate is obtained. This is
(2) Ethyl alcohol or ethanol, C2H5OH—It is manu-
factured by following methods :
Fermentation of carbohydrates—Molasses and
starchy materials are two important raw materials for large
scale preparation of ethyl alcohol. Fermentation is actually
decomposition of organic compounds into simpler com-
pounds through the agency of enzymes, the bio-catalysts.
In commerce the ethyl alcohol is known as spirit of wine
or grain alcohol.
(a) From molasses—Molasses, the mother liquor left
after the crystallisation of canesugar from sugarcane juice,
is diluted with water to reduce the concentration of sugar
to about 10 per cent, sterilised by heating with live steam
for a short time and acidified with sulphuric acid to pH = 4.
This checks the growth of any undesirable bacteria. Suit-
able quantities of ammonium sulphate and ammonium
phosphate may be added which act as supplementary
food for yeast. The liquid (wort) so obtained, is placed in a
large fermentation tank, maintained at the temperature of
about 35°C. In the presence of yeast culture, fermentation
starts accompanied by the following reactions :
(i) The enzyme, invertase present in yeast converts
sucrose into glucose and fructose.
Invertase
C12H22O11+ H2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ C6H12O6 + C6H12O6
(Yeast)
Sucrose Glucose Fructose
(ii) The enzyme Zymase, further converts the glucose
and fructose into ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide.
Zymase
C6H12O6 ⎯⎯⎯→ 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 ↑
(Yeast)

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 973

 When the alcohol content of fermented liquor rises to
about 15%, the yeast cells are killed and the process of
fermentation stops. The liquor thus obtained is subjected
to fractional distillation to get following fractions :
First runnings—These consist of acetaldehyde and
are used as an important source of acetaldehyde.
Rectified spirit or Industrial alcohol—This consists
of 93 – 95 per cent of ethyl alcohol.
Final runnings or Fusel oil—This is obtained bet-
ween temperature range 125 – 140°C and is a mixture of :
n-propyl, n-butyl, isobutyl, n-amyl, isoamyl and active
amyl alcohols.
It must be noted that these alcohols are not produced
by the fermentation of sugar but are formed by the action
of yeast on certain amino acids obtained from the proteins
present in raw materials.
(b) From starch—The starchy materials like pota-
toes, maize, barley, rice etc. are used. The production of
ethanol from starchy materials can be outlined as follows :
(i) Malting—Barley moistened with water and spread
in a room in layers about five inches thick, is allowed to
germinate in the dark at about 15°C. After suitable time
the germination is stopped by heating the barley to about
60°C. This germinated product is known as malt.
(ii) Liberation of starch—The malt is crushed and
treated with steam at 140 – 150°C under pressure when
the starch present in the malt is brought into solution. This
solution is known as mash.
(iii) Saccharification—Malt is added to the mash and
is kept at 50°C. The enzyme, diastase present in malt
converts the starch into maltose.
Diastase
(C6H10O5)n + n/2 H2O ⎯⎯⎯→ n/2 C12H22O11
(Malt)
Starch Maltose
In an alternative method, starch may be converted
into glucose by heating with dilute sulphuric acid or
hydrochloric acid, and the excess of acid is neutralised by
adding lime.
(C6H10O5)n + n H2O ⎯→ n C6H12O6
Starch Glucose
(iv) Fermentation—The maltose solution, obtained in
step (iii) is cooled to about 30°C and fermented as usual
by yeast for 3 days, when the following reaction occurs :
Maltase
C12H22O11 + H2O ⎯⎯⎯→ 2C 6H12O6
(Yeast)
Maltose Glucose
Zymase
C6H12O6 ⎯⎯⎯→ 2C 2H5OH + 2CO2 ↑
(Yeast)
Glucose Ethyl alcohol
The fermented liquor contains about 10 per cent
alcohol and is subjected to fractional distillation to
industrial alcohol.
By-products of alcoholic fermentation—Following
are important by-products of alcoholic fermentation :
(i) Acetaldehyde
(ii) Fusel oil
(iii) Carbon dioxide—Compressed in iron cylinders
used in aerated water industry or as a dry ice.
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 974
(iv) Spent wash—It is the solid mass left after distilla-
tion of various fractions, and is used as a Cattle Feed.
Absolute alcohol—Ethyl alcohol forms a constant
boiling mixture i.e. , azeotrope, containing 95·87% by
weight of alcohol with water. Since this mixture boils at
78·15°C, a temperature slightly lower than the boiling point
of pure ethanol (78·3°C), it is not possible to effect a
complete separation of ethyl alcohol from water by
fractional distillation alone. Alcohol containing only 0·8%
water (lime alcohol) can be prepared by distilling rectified
spirit repeatedly over fresh quick lime. The last trace of
water is removed by distilling the lime-alcohol over a
requisite amount of metallic sodium or magnesium or
calcium.
On large scale the absolute alcohol is prepared by
the azeotropic distillation of industrial alcohol. In this
method the advantage is taken of the fact that alcohol
forms a ternary constant boiling mixture with water and
benzene.
Water = 7·5%
Alcohol = 18·5%
Benzene = 74·0% by w/W
This mixture boils at 64·9°C. The industrial alcohol
which contains 4·13% water is mixed with benzene,
sufficient enough to form a ternary constant boiling
mixture with almost the entire amount of water present
and then distilled. The ternary azeotrope distils at 64·9°C
carrying entire water present and absolute alcohol is left
behind which is totally free from water and benzene.
Absolute alcohol blended with petrol in the ratio of
20%, is used as a motor fuel, hence it is named as power
alcohol also.
Uses of ethyl alcohol—Following are important uses
of ethyl alcohol :
(i) Ethyl alcohol is important component of alcoholic
Beverages.
For example :
Beer contains 3 – 5% of ethyl alcohol
Cider contains 2 – 4% of ethyl alcohol
Gin contains 35 – 40% of ethyl alcohol
Brandy contains 35 – 40% of ethyl alcohol
Whisky contains 35 – 40% of ethyl alcohol
Rum contains 35 – 40% of ethyl alcohol
(ii) Ethanol is used as a solvent for gums, resins,
paints, varnishes, stains, pharmaceutical products, per-
fumes, flavourings etc.
(iii) Ethyl alcohol is used for the preparation of
acetaldehyde, acetic acid, acetic anhydride, esters,
chloral, chloroform etc.
(iv) Biological specimen are preserved in ethanol.
(v) Ethanol is used as a low freezing and mobile
liquid in scientific equipments like thermometers, spirit
levels etc.
(vi) It is used as a component of fuels (power alcohol)
for the internal combustion engines in many countries.
(vii) It is also used as ethylating agent in the manu-
facture of dye intermediates, drugs etc.
 Points to Remember
● The strength of an alcohol preparation is expressed in the terms of proof spirit. Proof spirit is the aqueous ethyl alcohol
containing 57·1% by volume of ethyl alcohol. The sample is referred to as over-proof or under-proof according as it is stronger
or weaker than proof-spirit.
A 20° under-proof sample means that 100 volumes of the sample contain as much alcohol as 80 volumes of proof-spirit.
Similarly 20° over-proof sample is one whose 100 volumes contain as much alcohol as 120 volumes of proof-spirit.
● The terms distilled and undistilled are used in describing alcoholic beverages. The undistilled beverages, which have low
alcoholic content, are generally prepared by fermentation of fruit juices. The distilled beverages containing much higher
alcoholic contents are made by distillation of fermented liquors.
● Since ethanol can be used for drinking purposes, it is heavily taxed. But the ethanol used for industrial purposes is duty
free. In order to make industrial alcohol unfit for drinking, it is denatured by mixing poisonous substances like methanol,
acetone, rubber thinner, and pyridine or bone oil. Such a denatured alcohol is known as methylated spirit.
● Mineralised methylated spirit is coloured and is made by adding 0·5 part by volume of crude pyridine and 9·5 parts by volume
of methanol to 90 parts by volume of rectified spirit (95·5% ethanol) and adding to every 100 gallons of resulting mixture not
less than 3/8 of a gallon of mineral naphtha and not less than 1/40 oz. of the dye methyl violet.
● In 1860, the pioneer worker Pasteur suggested that fermentation is purely a physiological process carried out by living micro-
organisms. However, Liebig considered it to be purely a chemical reaction. Buchner (1897) showed that the presence of living
cells is not necessary for this reaction. Thus the truth regarding the nature of fermentation lies between the views of Pasteur
and Liebig.
The fermentation is slow decomposition of complex organic compounds by the activity of non-living complex nitrogenous
substances (enzymes) produced in living organisms.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. The number of alcohol isomers (C) 2-methyl propane-2-ol 12. In the reaction sequence
arrived at from molecular formula HBr alc.KOH
(D) None of these X ⎯→ CH3—CH—CH3 ⎯⎯→
C4H10O is— |
7. Denatured spirit is mainly used
(A) 2 (B) 3 Br
as a—
(C) 4 (D) 5 HBr
(A) Medicine Y ⎯⎯⎯→ Z
2. When equimolar quantities of (B) Good fuel Peroxide
ethanol and methanol are mixed X, Y and Z are respectively—
and heated with conc. H2 SO4, (C) Solvent
(D) Component of beverages (A) 2-propanol, Propene,
the product formed is—
1-bromopropane
(A) C2H5OC2H5 8. An organic compound when (B) Propene, 2-bromopropane,
(B) CH3OCH3 passed over heated copper at Propene
(C) C2H5OCH3 575 K, gives an alkene, the com- (C) 2-propanol, Propyne,
(D) All of these pound is— 2-bromopropane
3. The alcohol which reacts fastest (A) Alkane (D) 1-propanol, Propene,
with Luca’s reagent at normal (B) Akyne 1-bromopropene
temperature is— (C) Secondary alcohol 13. An organic compound (A) gives
(A) 2-methyl propane-1-ol (D) Tertiary alcohol positive Lucas test in 5 minutes.
(B) 2-methyl propane-2-ol
9. Which of the following com- When 6·0 gm of (A) is treated
(C) Butane-1-ol
pounds has highest boiling point ? with sodium metal, 1120 ml of
(D) Butane-2-ol
(A) Ethanol hydrogen is evolved at STP. The
4. Which of the following com- (B) Methoxymethane organic compound is—
pounds can be used for the
(C) Chloromethane (A) CH3CH2—CH —CH3
preparation of chloroform ?
(D) Propane |
(A) CH3CH2COC3H7
OH
(B) CH3COC2H5 10. Which of the following bonds of (B) CH3—CH —CH3
(C) CH3CH2COCH2CH3 an alcohol is cleaved when it |
(D) All of these reacts with carboxylic acids ? OH
5. Ethanol when e hated with conc. (A) C—H (B) C—O CH3
H2SO4 may give— (C) O—H (D) All of these |
(A) Diethyl sulphate only (C) CH3—C—OH
11. Which of the following alcohols |
(B) Diethyl ether only cannot be dehydrogenated ? CH3
(C) Ethylene only (A) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH (D) CH3CH2OH
(D) All of these OH
| 14. Which of the following alcohols
6. The compound which is not iso-
(B) CH3CH—CH2CH3 can be obtained from HCHO ?
meric with diethyl ether is—
(A) Butane-1-ol (C) (CH3)3COH (A) CH3OH
(B) n-propylmethyl ether (D) (CH3)2CHOH (B) C2H5OH

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 975 / 5

 (C) CH3CH2CH2OH
(D) All of these
15. Phenol can be distinguished from
ethyl alcohol by all reagents
except—
(A) NaOH (B) FeCl3
(C) Br2/H2O (D) Na
16. Alcohol can be obtained by all
methods except—
(A) Hydroboration–oxidation
(B) Oxymercuration–demercura-
tion
(C) Reduction of aldehydes with
Zn-Hg/HCl
(D) By fermentation of starch
17. Which of the following alcohols is
least soluble in water ?
(A) n-butyl alcohol
(B) Iso-butyl alcohol
(C) Tert-butyl alcohol
(D) Sec-butyl alcohol
18. Which of the following com-
pounds is isomeric with 1-pro-
panol ?
(A) Ethanol
(B) 2-methyl-2-propanol
(C) 1-butanol
(D) Ethyl-methyl ether
19. Which of the following com-
pounds would yield carboxylic
acid as the product on oxidation
with acidified K2Cr2O7 ?
(A) 1-butanol
(B) 1-propanol
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
20. Which one of the following can
convert 2-propanol to acetone ?
(A) K2Cr2O7/H+
(B) Cu/575 K
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
21. The enzyme which converts
glucose and fructose into ethyl-
alcohol is—
(A) Diastase (B) Invertase
(C) Zymase (D) Maltase
22. A solution of ethyl alcohol—
(A) Decolourises the litmus
paper
(B) Changes red litmus blue
(C) Changes blue litmus red
(D) Does not affect litmus paper
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 976
23. On industrial scale ethanol is 33. The percentage of ethanol by
manufactured by the fermen- weight in proof spirit is—
tation of— (A) 90 (B) 10
(A) C6H12O6 (B) CH3COOH (C) 48 (D) 4·5
(C) Molasses (D) C12H22O11
34. Fermentation of starch solution
24. The percentage of ethyl alcohol to ethanol does not require—
in rectified spirit is— (A) Maltase (B) Diastase
(A) 75·00 (B) 85·5
(C) Invertase (D) Zymase
(C) 95·6 (D) 100·0
35. The correct order of boiling point
25. Which of the following alcohols
of alcohols having comparable
will be most acidic ?
molar mass is—
(A) CH3OH (B) R–CH2OH
(C) R2CHOH (D) R3COH (A) 1° < 2° < 3°
(B) 3° < 2° < 1°
26. Dehydration of ethanol cannot
give— (C) 2° < 1° < 3°
(A) C2H5OC2H5 (B) C2H5HSO 4 (D) None is correct
(C) C2H4 (D) C2H2
36. The —OH group of CH3OH can
27. An alcohol on oxidation gives not be replaced by the chlorine
CH3COOH and CH3CH2COOH, by the action of—
the alcohol is— (A) HCl (B) PCl3
(A) CH3CH(OH) CH2CH2CH3
(C) PCl5 (D) Cl2
(B) CH3(CH2)2CHOH
(C) (CH3)2 C(OH) CH2CH3 37. Which of the following com-
pounds is known as wood spirit ?
(D) CH3CH2CH2OH
(A) Wood tar (B) Methanol
28. Which of the following com-
pounds gives a positive iodoform (C) Ethanol (D) 95% ethanol
test ? 38. Cyclohexanol is a—
(A) 3-pentanol (A) Phenol
(B) 2-phenyl-ethanol (B) Primary alcohol
(C) 1-phenyl ethanol (C) Secondary alcohol
(D) Pentanal (D) Tertiary alcohol
29. Determination of percentage of 39. During the dehydration of alco-
alcohol in wine is called— hols, the ease of formation of
(A) Iodometry carbocation follows the order—
(B) Iodimetry (A) 1° > 2° > 3° (B) 3° > 2° > 1°
(C) Alcoholometry (C) 3° > 1° > 2° (D) 2° > 1° > 3°
(D) Acidometry
40. C2H5OH can be distinguished
30. Formation of 2-butene as major from CH3OH—
product by dehydration of 2- (A) By the action of HCl
butanol is according to—
(B) By the action of NH 3
(A) Saytzeff rule
(B) Peroxide effect (C) By determining the solubility
in water
(C) Markownikoff’s rule
(D) By iodoform test
(D) Anti-Markownikoff’s rule
31. Primary, secondary and tertiary 41. Which of the following products is
alcohols are distinguished by— formed when ter-butanol reacts
(A) Oxidation with C6H5MgBr ?
(A) Methane (B) Methanal
(B) Lucas reagent
(C) Victor Meyer method (C) Benzene (D) None of these
(D) All of these 42. Propanol-1 and propanol-2 can
32. Which will respond to iodoform be best distinguished by—
test ? (A) Oxidation with K 2Cr2O7 fol-
(A) CH3OH lowed by reaction with CuO
(B) (CH3)3C·CHO (B) Oxidation by heating with Cu
(C) (CH3)2CHOH followed by reaction with
(D) CH3CH2CH2OH Fehling solution
 (C) Oxidation with KMnO4 fol- 46. Which one of the following is H
used as rubbing alcohol ? (B)
lowed by reaction with OH
Fehling solution (A) CH3OH
OH
(D) Oxidation with conc. H 2SO4 (B) C2H5OH (C)
followed by reaction with OH
(C) CH3CH2OH
copper (D) (CH3)2CHOH (D) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–
43. Cyclohexanol can be converted CH2OH
47. Which of the following is the least
into cyclohexene on reacting 50. Which of the following products is
suitable solvent for dissolving an
with— formed from catalytic hydrogena-
ionic compound ?
(A) conc. HBr (B) conc. H 3PO4 tion of CH3CH== CHCH2CHO ?
(A) H—OH
(C) HCl + ZnCl2 (D) conc. HCl (A) Unsaturated alcohol
(B) CH3—OH
(B) Saturated alcohol
44. When 0·037 gm of an alcohol (C) CH3CH2—OH
(ROH) reacts with excess of (C) Saturated aldehyde
CH3MgBr, 11·2 cm 3 of gas was (D) CH3(CH2)3CH2OH
(D) None of these
evolved at STP. What will be the 48. What is the correct decreasing
molecular weight of alcohol ? order of the boiling point of ANSWERS
(A) 33·00 (B) 74·00 pentanol-1(A), 2-methylbutanol-2
(C) 66·00 (D) 47·00 (B) and 3-methylbutanol-2(C) ?
(A) A > B > C (B) A > C > B
45. What is the correct IUPAC name
H OH (C) B < A < C (D) B > C > A
49. Which of the following products
of ? is expected from the reaction of

(A) Cyclohexanol == O with LiAlH4 ?

(B) Cyclohexenol
(C) Cyclohexenol-3 H
(A)
(D) 3-cyclohexene-1-ol OH ●●●

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C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 977

 15. What is the correct relationship
between the pH of isomolar
solutions of sodium oxide (pH1),
sodium sulphide (pH2), sodium
selenide (pH 3) and sodium tellu-
ride (pH4) ?
(A) pH 1 > pH2 > pH3 > pH4
1. The mass of carbon anode con- to zero order kinetics. The time
sumed (giving only carbondi- required for completion will be— (B) pH 1 > pH2 ≈ pH3 > pH4
oxide) in the production of 270 kg a k0 (C) pH 1 < pH2 < pH3 < pH4
of aluminium metal from bauxite (A) (B)
k0 a (D) pH 1 < pH2 < pH3 ≈ pH4
by the Hall process is— a
(C) (D) 2k aa 16. The number of atoms in 200 g of
(Atomic mass : Al = 27) 2k 0
an f.c.c. crystal with a density
(A) 270 kg (B) 540 kg 9. Which of the following would have ρ = 10 g cm–3 and cell edge 200
(C) 90 kg (D) 180 kg a permanent dipole moment ? pm is equal to—
(A) SiF4 (B) SF 4
2. If the electron is present in the (A) 3 × 10 (B) 4 × 1025
n = 5 level, how many lines (C) XeF 4 (D) BF 3
(C) 1 × 1025 (D) 2 × 1025
would be observed, in case of 10. For the reaction A + B C + D,
H-atom ? 17. The absolute enthalpy of neutrali-
the initial concentration of A and
(A) 10 (B) 5 sation of the reaction :
B were taken as 0·9 mole dm–3.
(C) 7 (D) 4 At equilibrium the concentration MgO(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq)
of D was found to be 0·6 mole + H2O(l)
3. A nuclide of an alkaline earth dm–3. The value of equilibrium will be—
metal undergoes radioactive constant will be—
decay by emission of the α-parti- (A) – 57·33 kJ mol – 1
(A) 9 (B) 3 (B) Greater than – 57·33 kJ
cles in succession. The group of
(C) 8 (D) 4 mol– 1
the periodic table to which the
resulting daughter element would 11. In face centred cubic lattice, a (C) Less than – 57·33 kJ mol– 1
belong is— unit cell is shared equally by how (D) 57·33 kJ mol– 1
(A) Gr. 4 (B) Gr. 6 many unit cells ?
18. Which of the following electrolyte
(C) Gr. 14 (D) Gr. 16 (A) 2 (B) 4 is least effective in coagulating
(C) 6 (D) 8 ferric hydroxide sol ?
4. Δ = XA – XB = 2. What is the per-
12. Bronsted Lowry acid is— (A) K3Fe(CN)6 (B) K2CrO4
cent ionic character for a cova-
(A) BF 3 (C) KBr (D) K2SO4
lent molecule A – B ?
(A) 46 (B) 50 (B) C2O42– 19. The rate of reaction between two
(C) [N(Me)4] + reactants A and B decreases by a
(C) 20 (D) 30
factor of 4 if the concentration of
5. The correct sequence of increas- —CO reactant B is doubled. The order
(D) NH
ing covalent character is repre- —CO of this reaction with respect to
sented by— reactant B is—
13. The vapour pressure of two (A) 2 (B) – 2
(A) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl 2 liquids ‘P’ and ‘Q’ are 80 and 60
(C) 1 (D) – 1
(B) BeCl 2 < LiCl < NaCl torr, respectively. The total vapour
pressure of solution obtained by 20. The density of the gas is equal
(C) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl 2
mixing 3 mole of P and 2 mole of to—
(D) BeCl 2 < NaCl < LiCl (A) P/RT (B) n P
Q would be—
6. Three fold symmetrical axis is (A) 72 torr (B) 140 torr MP
(C) (D) M/V
RT
associated with the molecule— (C) 68 torr (D) 20 torr
(A) NH3 (B) C2H4 21. Which of the following pairs for a
14. One equivalent of Na2CO3 and
chemical reaction is certain to
(C) CO2 (D) SO2 0·5 equivalent of MgCO3 are
result in a spontaneous reaction ?
treated with excess of HCl in two
7. Which one of the following oxides (A) Exothermic and increasing
separate vessels. The volume of
is expected to exhibit paramag- CO2 evolve at STP will be res- disorder
netic behaviour ? pectively— (B) Exothermic and decreasing
(A) CO2 (B) SiO2 disorder
(A) 22·4 lit., 11·2 lit.
(C) Endothermic and increasing
(C) SO2 (D) ClO2 (B) 11.2 lit., 5·6 lit. disorder
8. A substance whose initial con- (C) 11.2 lit., 11·2 lit. (D) Endothermic and decreasing
centration is ‘a’ reacts according (D) 22.4 lit., 22·4 lit. disorder

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 978

22. Solubility of sparingly soluble 30. Which species are present in 36. Different layers of graphite are
salt, S, specific conductance k , acidic and basic media respec- held together by—
and equivalent conductance ° ^ tively ? (A) Ionic bonding
(A) CrO42– in basic and Cr2O72– (B) Metallic bonding
are related as—
in acidic. (C) Covalent bonding
1000 ^ ° (B) Cr2O72– in basic and CrO42–
(A) S = (D) van der Waals forces
k in acidic.
37. Which one of the following com-
(B) S = k ° ^ (C) CrO42– is present in acidic
pounds is most acidic ?
k and basic both. (A) Cl—CH2—CH2—OH
(C) S = (D) Cr2O72– is present in acidic
1000 ^ ° OH
and basic both.
1000 k (B)
(D) S = 31. Which of the following undergoes
°
^ nucleophilic substitution exclusi-
OH
vely by S N1 mechanism ?
23. 4·5 g of aluminium (at mass 27 (A) Ethyl chloride (C)
amu) is deposited at cathode (B) Isopropyl chloride NO2
from Al3+ solution by a certain (C) Chlorobenzene
OH
quantity of electric charge. The (D) Benzyl chloride
volume of hydrogen produced at (D)
32. CsAuCl3 is diamagnetic com-
STP from H+ ions in solution by CH3
pound. It should contain—
the same quantity of electric (A) Au(II) ions 38. HO
charge will be— (B) Au(III) ions
(A) 44·8 L (B) 22·4 L (C) Au(I) ion only
(D) Equal number of Au(I) and
(C) 11·2 L (D) 5·6 L Au(III) atoms
24. The metal which is found in free 33. Which one of the following has the IUPAC name—
and combined state in nature— alkenes will react faster with H 2 (A) 3, 4-dimethyl-1-penten-3-ol
under catalytic hydrogenation (B) Isopropyl-3-methyl vinyl
(A) Na (B) Mn
conditions ? carbinol
(C) Cu (D) Au (R = Alkyl substituent) (C) 2, 3-dimethyl-4-penten-3-ol
25. The mole fraction of the solute in R R (D) None of the above
one molal aqueous solution is— (A)
H H 39. Electrolytic reduction of nitro-
(A) 0·009 (B) 0·018 R R benzene in weakly acidic medium
(C) 0·027 (D) 0·036 (B) gives—
R R (A) N-phenylhydroxylamine
26. The ore associated with ruby, R R
amethyst, sapphire, topaz etc. (B) Nitrosobenzene
(C)
is— R H (C) Aniline
(A) CuFeS2 (B) Na 3AlF6 R R (D) p-hydroxyaniline
(C) Cu 2O (D) Al2O3 (D) 40. Optical active compound is—
H R
27. The surface tension of which of (A) n-butanol
34. The chemical composition of
the following liquid is maximum ? (B) n-propanol
‘Slag’ formed during the smelting
(A) C2H5OH (B) CH3OH process in extraction of copper (C) 2-chlorobutane
(C) H2O (D) C6H6 is— (D) 4-hydroxy heptane
(A) CuO + FeS (B) FeSiO 3
28. Sodium peroxide in contact with 41. In a set of reactions acetic acid
(C) CuFeS2 (D) CuS + FeO
moist air turns white due to the yielded a product D.
35. Aniline in a set of reactions SOCl Benzene
formation of— CH3COOH ⎯⎯→
2
A ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ B
(A) Na 2CO3 (B) NaHCO3 yielded a product D. Anhy. AlCl3
HCN H . OH
(C) NaNO2 (D) NaOH NH2
NaNO2 ⎯⎯→ C ⎯⎯→ D
⎯⎯⎯→ A The structure of D would be—
29. The chirality of the compound HCl
CuCN H2 HNO2 COOH
Br ⎯⎯→ B ⎯→ C ⎯⎯→ D |
| Ni
CH2—C—CH3
C H The structure of the product D (A) |
H3C Cl would be— OH
(A) C6H5NHOH CN
is— (B) C6H5NHCH2CH3 |
C—CH3
(A) R (B) S (C) C6H5CH2NH2 (B) |
(C) E (D) Z (D) C6H5CH2OH OH

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 979

 OH enthalpy (with negative sign) of (C) Manganese (Z = 25)
| the given atomic species ? (D) Iron (Z = 26)
CH2—C—CH3
(C) (A) S < O < Cl < F
| 48. Which of the following reaction
CN (B) Cl < F < S < O comes within the frame work of
OH (C) F < Cl < O < S elimination ?
|
(D) O < S < F < Cl (A) (CH3)2CHCl + SH
C—COOH
(D) | 46. All the three hydrocarbons X, Y (B) (CH3)3C–Br + Ethanolic KCN
CH3 and Z of molecular formula C5H8
decolourises Br2 in CCl4 solution. (C) CH3CH2CH2Cl + I
42. What is the theoretical yield of (D) (CH3)2 CHBr + aq KOH
All the three are soluble in cold
ethane in the following reaction
conc. H2SO4. In presence of
(in volume) ? 49. Which one of the following is
Cl 2 Na metal catalyst X and Y on hydro- expected to exhibit optical iso-
CH4 ⎯⎯→ CH3Cl ⎯⎯⎯→ C2H6 genation yield n-pentane. X gives
ether merism ? (en = ethylenediamine)
white precipitate with ammonia-
(A) 1 lit (B) 2 lit (A) cis-[Pt(NH3)2 Cl2]
cal silver nitrate solution while Y
(C) 1·5 lit (D) 0·5 lit and Z donot. What are X, Y and (B) trans-[Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
43. The cell membranes are mainly Z respectively ? (C) cis-[Co(en)2Cl2] +
composed of— (A) 1-pentyne, 2 pentyne, cyclo- (D) trans-[Co(en)2Cl2] +
(A) Fats pentene 50. Alkaline hydrolysis of C4H8Cl2
(B) Proteins (B) Ethylmethylacetylene, cyclo- gives a compound which on
(C) Phospholipids pentene, 2-pentyne heating with NaOH and I2 pro-
(D) Carbohydrates (C) 3-methyl-1-butyne, 2-pen- duces a yellow precipitate of
tyne, 1-pentyne CHI3. The compound should
44. Secondary gem halide of pro-
pane on heating with zinc (D) 1-pentyne, 2-pentyne, 3- be—
gives— methyl -1-butyne
(A) CH3CH2CH2CHO
(A) Sym. dimethyl ethylene 47. Four successive members of the (B) CH3—CH2— C —CH3
(B) 2-butene first row transition elements are ||
listed below with their atomic O
(C) 2, 3-dimethyl-2-butene
numbers. Which one of them is (C) CH3—CH— C H — CH2
(D) β-butylene expected to have the highest third | | | |
ionization enthalpy ? OH O H
45. Which one of the following
(D) CH3— C H — CH —CH3
arrangements represents the (A) Vanadium (Z = 23) | | | |
correct order of electron gain (B) Chromium (Z = 24) OH OH

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 980

 15. The most efficient packing of
similar spheres is obtained in—
(A) The simple cubic system and
the body centred cubic
system
(B) The simple cubic system and
the hexagonal close packed
1. The increasing order of energy of 8. A liquid boils at that temperature
system
electromagnetic radiation can be at which the pressure of satu-
represented as— rated vapour is— (C) The face centred cubic
system and the hexagonal
(A) Microwave < infrared < visi- (A) More than atmospheric close packed system
ble < X-ray pressure
(D) The body centred cubic sys-
(B) X-ray < visible < infrared < (B) Double to atmospheric pres- tem and the face centred
microwave sure cubic system
(C) Microwave < infrared < visi-
(C) Equal to atmospheric pres- 16. In which compound the number
ble < radiowaves
sure of 3° carbon is maximum ?
(D) X-ray < infrared < visible <
microwave (D) Less than atmospheric pres- (A) 2, 5 dimethyl hexane
sure (B) 2, 3, 4 trimethyl pentane
2. The work function of a metal is
° 9. The depression in the freezing (C) 2, 2, 4, 4 tetramethyl pen-
1eV. If 3300 A wavelength light tane
point of water (ΔT) caused by
is incident, the value of stopping (D) 2, 2, 3 trimethyl pentane
0·5M HCl, 0·5 M glucose and 0·5
voltage is— M MgCl2 are in the order— 17. The chemical composition of
(A) 1V (B) 3·75 V
(A) ΔTglucose > ΔTMgCl2 >ΔTHCl ‘slag’ formed during the smelting
(C) 3·2 V (D) 0·75 V process in the extraction of
3. For a real gas, PV is a constant (B) ΔTMgCl2 > ΔTglucose >ΔTHCl copper is—
over a small range of pressures, (A) Cu 2O + FeS
(C) ΔTHCl > ΔTMgCl2 > ΔTglucose
at— (B) FeSiO 3
(A) Boyle’s temperature (D) ΔTMgCl2 > ΔTHCl > ΔTglucose (C) CuFeS2
(B) Critical temperature (D) Cu 2S + FeO
10. If a proton totally converts into
(C) Inversion temperature 18. Dichlorocarbene is—
energy, the value of energy will
(D) Ordinary temperature be— (A) A neutral diamagnetic
4. A monoatomic ideal gas is (A) 190 MeV (B) 931 MeV (B) A carbonation
compressed to its 1/8 volume (C) A carbanion
(C) 93·1 MeV (D) 931 joule
adiabatically at 17°C. Tempera- (D) A free radical
ture after compression will be— 1
11. The plot of log K versus is linear 19. Na 2CO3 + Fe2O3 → A + CO2 ;
T
(A) None (B) 17°C
with a slope of— A is—
(C) 136°C (D) 887°C (A) NaFeO2 (B) Na 3FeO 3
Ea – Ea
(A) (B)
5. The electronegativities of ele- R R (C) Fe 3O4 (D) Na 2FeO 2
ments P, As, Cl and S decrease Ea – Ea
(C) (D) 20. Which test is not ideal to
in the order— 2·303R 2·303R distinguish 2-butanol and 1-
(A) S > Cl > As > P propanol ?
12. In the following nuclear reaction
(B) As > P > Cl > S (A) Hydrogenation
2He
3 + zXa → z + 1Ya + 2 + Q
(C) P > Cl > As > S (B) Iodoform test
(D) Cl > S > P > As What is Q ?
(C) Lucas test
(A) Neutron (B) Proton
6. Which formula is incorrect for (D) Oxidation test
root mean square velocity ? (C) Positron (D) Electron
21. Thallium shows different oxida-
3RT 3PV 13. The pH of 10 –3 M solution of tion states because—
(A) (B) Ca(OH)2 is—
M M (A) Of its high reactivity
3d 2KE (A) 8·0 (B) 11·3 (B) Of inert pair effect
(C) (D) (C) 10·5 (D) 5·0
P M (C) Of its amphoteric nature
7. The oxidation number of oxygen 14. Work function of photoelectric (D) It is a transition metal
in Cl2O and H2O2 are respecti- metal is 3·13 eV. Threshold
22. The hydrocarbon formed by elec-
vely— frequency is—
trolysis of sodium propionate—
(A) – 2 and + 1 (B) + 2 and + 1 (A) 4 × 1011 Hz (B) 5 × 1011 Hz (A) CH3—CH = CH2
(C) – 2 and – 1 (D) + 2 and – 1 (C) 8 × 1014 Hz (D) 8 × 1010 Hz (B) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH3

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 984

 (C) CH3—CH2—CH3 28. The electronic configuration of 35. Nessler’s reagent is used to
(D) CH3—CH3 Fe 26 is [Ar]— detect the presence of—
(A) 3d 8 4 s 2 (B) 3d 7 4 s 2 (A) CrO42 – (B) PO43 –
23. Dental amalgam is composed
(C) 3d 6 4 s 2 (D) 3d 5 4 s 2
of— (C) MnO4– (D) NH+4
(A) Hg + Ag + Cd + Au + Fe 29. In Kjeldahl’s method, nitrogen
present is estimated as— 36. The compound obtained by the
(B) Cu + Sn + Hg + Ag + Zn
(A) N2 (B) NH3 reaction of acetic anhydride and
(C) Cd + Cu + Ni + Au + Fe
(C) NO2 (D) None of these ammonia is—
(D) Cu + Sn + Au + Hg + CO
(A) CH3COONH4
24. The product of the reaction bet- 30. The element with electronic
(B) CH3CN
ween ethylene and ozone, when configuration 1s 2, 2s 2p 6, 3s 2p 6,
hydrolysed in presence of Zn, the 4s 2 shows same property as— (C) CH3CONHCH3
new product formed is— (A) Mo (B) Rb (D) CH3CONH2
(A) Alcohol (C) Ca (D) Sr 37. The precipitate of CaF2 (Ks p =
(B) Ethylene oxide 31. The following compound is used 1·7 × 10 –10 ) is obtained when
(C) HCHO as— equal volumes of the following
(D) CH2OHCH2OH O are mixed—
|| –4
25. For the molecule PF4Cl3, which of (A) 10 M Ca2 + + 10– 4 M F–
O—C—CH 3
the following structures is the (B) 10– 2 M Ca2 + + 10– 3 M F–
most stable, considering that
(C) 10– 5 M Ca2+ + 10– 3 M F–
CH3— is more electropositive COOH
than F ? (A) An anti-inflammatory com- (D) 10– 3 M Ca2+ + 10– 5 M F–

F pound 38. When aniline reacts with acetic

F | (B) Analgesic anhydride the product formed
(A) P—CH 3 (C) Hypnotic is—
F |
(D) Antiseptic (A) p-aminobenzoic acid
F
32. The formula of acetaldehyde (B) m-aminobenzoic acid
CH 3
F | semicarbazone— (C) Acetanilide
(B) P—F (A) CH3—CH = N NHCONHCH3 (D) o-aminobenzoic acid
F |
(B) CH3—CH = N—OH 39. The cyanide ion, CN– and N2 are
F
CH 3 (C) CH3CH = N—NHCONH2 isoelectronic but in contrast to
F | F (D) CH3—CH = N—NHCONH CN–, N2 is chemically inert, beca-
(C)
P use of—
F F —CONH2
(A) Low bond energy
F 33. Which of the following cannot be
(B) Absence of bond polarity
| diazotised ?
(D) F CH3 (C) Unsymmetrical electron dis-
P NH2
tribution
F F (A)
(D) Presence of more number of
26. The chemical formula of potash electrons in bonding orbitals
alum is K2SO4·Al 2(SO4)3 XH 2O. CH 3
Here X is— (B) 40. The element with highest ioni-
(A) 7 (B) 12 NH2 sation potential is—
(C) 6 (D) 24 (A) N (B) S
CH 3
(C) C (D) Be
27. In the following groups,
(C)
—OAc—OMe—OSO2Me 41. The order of reactivities of the
following alkyl halides for a SN 2
I II III NH 2
reaction is—
—OSO2CF3 (D) C6H5CH2NH2 (A) RF > RCl > RBr > RI
IV 34. Phenol, chloroform and caustic (B) RF > RBr > RCl > RI
the order of leaving group ability potash are heated. The com- (C) RCl > RBr >RF > RI
is— pound formed is—
(D) RI > RBr > RCl > RF
(A) I > II > III > IV (A) Salicylic acid
(B) IV > III > I > II (B) p-hydroxybenzaldehyde 42. Maximum melting point is of—
(C) III > II > I > IV (C) m-hydroxybenzaldehyde (A) MgCl2 (B) BaCl 2
(D) II > III > IV > I (D) Salicylaldehyde (C) CaCl2 (D) BeCl 2

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 985

43. The colour of the colloidal parti- (A) –2≤x≤2 48. Mixture used in Holmes’s signal
cles of gold obtained by different (B) 0<x≤1 is—
methods differ because of— (C) x≤1 (A) CaC2 and CaCl2
(A) Variable valency of gold (B) CaCl2 and Ca 3F2
(D) x is always non-negative
(B) Different concentration of
(C) CaC2 and Ca 3N2
gold particles 46. A piece of magnesium ribbon
(C) Different types of impurities (D) CaC2 and Ca 3P2
was heated to redness in an
(D) Different diameters of colloi- atmosphere of nitrogen and on 49. Percentage of gold in 21·6 carat
dal particles cooling water was added. The gold is—
44. The process requiring the absor- gas evolved was— (A) 21·6 (B) 90
ption of energy is— (A) Ammonia (B) Hydrogen (C) 10 (D) 70
(A) F → F– (B) Cl → Cl– (C) Nitrogen (D) Oxygen
50. Chlorine acts as a bleaching
(C) O → O2– (D) H → H–
47. The end product of 4n series is— agent only in the presence of—
45. Which statement, regarding the (A) 82Pb208 (B) 82Pb207 (A) Dry air (B) Sunlight
mole fraction x of a component in
solution is correct ? (C) 82Pb209 (D) 83Pb205 (C) Moisture (D) Pure oxygen

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 986

 ●●●
(Continued from Page 946 )
68. What are amino acids in a protein called ?
➠ α-amino acids
69. What is the basis of modern classification of plants ?
➠ Phylogeny
70. Who gave the term ‘plasmid’ for the first time ?
➠ Lederberg
71. What are called those blue-green algae which live in
protozoans ? ➠ Cyanellae
72. In what type of solution the plant cells neither lose nor
gain water ? ➠ Isotonic solution
73. What is called the spatial arrangement of atoms in a
protein ? ➠ Conformation
74. How many polypeptides of a protein is/are specified
for each gene ? ➠ One
75. What are the three simple sugars of monosac-
charide ? ➠ Glucose, Fructose, and Galactose
76. What are the two important components of fluid-
mosaic model of plasma membrane ?
➠ Lipids and proteins
77. What is called a group of structural and regulating
genes that functions as a single unit ? ➠ Operon
78. Which is the earliest era in the geological record ?
➠ Precambrian
79. What measures the gel electrophoresis ?
➠ Measures the charge and size of proteins and DNA
fragments
80. What is generally called the lower portion of the meso-
phyll in the leaf cell ? ➠ Spongy parenchyma
●●●
(Continued from Page 983 )

●●●

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 988

 Communicable diseases are caused by pathogenic
microbes and readily transmitted from infected to healthy
persons. Therefore, the diseases transmitted directly or
indirectly between hosts are called communicable
diseases. The pathogenic microbe may be bacteria,
viruses, protozoa, fungi. Microbes are capable of growing
in human tissues and cause diseases.
Pathogens vary in the severity of the diseases they
cause. Some produce mild to moderate discomfort
(common cold and flu) and are quickly controlled by the
body’s defenses, if affected person is healthy. Other
pathogens, such as these causing rabies, cholera, and
plague, overwhelm the body defenses of every healthy
people and may prove fatal.
Some microbes infect and cause disease only if an
opportunity arises. They are appropriately called oppor-
tunistic pathogens and produce opportunistic infections.
These microbes often infect a host whose health or
natural defenses have been diminished in some way.
Pneumocystic pneumonia is an opportunistic infection
of lung found in AIDS patients with severely impaired
immune defenses.
Even without illness, some beneficial microbes of the
normal flora can become opportunistic pathogens if they
gain access to a different body location. For example,
when beneficial bacteria in the digestive tract called
Escherichia coli accidently gain access to the urethera
and bladder, they can cause a urinary tract infection.
Methods of Pathogens Entry into the Body
Before pathogens can grow and cause disease, they
may first gain access, they must first gain access to

Selected Microbial Diseases, the Scientific Names of Microbes and the Areas of the Body Infected
Disease Microbe Primary Location of Infection
Bacteria
Botulism Clostridium botulinum Neuromuscular junction
Cholera Vibrio cholerae Intestine
Food poisoning Staphylococcus aureus Intestine
Gas gangrene Clostridium perfringens Infected tissues
Gonorrhea Neisseria gonorrhoeae Reproductive tract
Syphilis Treponema pallidum Reproductive tract
Chlamydia Chlamydia trachomatis Reproductive tract
Infantile and traveler’s diarrhea Escherichia coli (E. coli) Intestine
Salmonellosis Salmonella enteritidis Intestine
Tetanus Clostridium tetani Nerves
Tuberculosis Mycobacterium tuberculosis Lungs
Typhoid Salmonella typhi Intestine
Protozoa
Amoebic dysentery Entamoeba histolytica Intestine
Giardiasis (beaver fever) Giardia lamblia Intestine
Malaria Plasmodium malariae Bloodstream
Fungi
Aspergillosis Aspergillus fumigatus Lungs
Athlete’s foot Trichophyton Skin
Histoplasmosis Histoplasma capsulatum Lungs
Candidiasis (yeast infection) Candida albicans Mouth, intestine, vagina
Viruses
Influenza Influenza virus Upper respiratory tract
Chicken pox Varicella virus Skin
Rabies Rabies virus Brain, spinal cord
Hepatitis B Hepatitis B virus Liver
Hepatitis A Hepatitis A virus Intestine, liver
Fever blisters, genital herpes Herpes simplex Skin
German measles Rubella Skin
Polio Poliovirus Spinal cord (paralytic polio)
AIDS HIV Immune system

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 989

tissues. The sites through which pathogens enter the
body are called portals of entry. Portals of entry are
breaks in the skin or the exposed mucous membranes of
the eye or the respiratory, digestive, reproductive, and
urinary tracts. Some pathogens have specific protals of
entry and others do not. For example, cold viruses enter
through the mucous membranes of the eyes and upper
respiratory tract but not the mucous membranes of the
reproductive and urinary tracts. By contrast, the bacteria
that cause the sexually transmitted disease gonorrhea
can enter through the mucous membranes of the eye,
upper respiratory tract, reproductive tract and anus.
Transmission of Pathogens
Many pathogens are transmitted by passing directly
from an infected host, either human or nonhuman, to an
uninfected host. Some are transmitted indirectly by
contact with contaminated objects. Microbes may not
actually grow on these objects but may remain alive long
enough to be passed to others upon contact. There are
many possible ways in which pathogens are transmitted.
It is important to realize that not all pathogens are trans-
mitted in the same way. The viruses for the common cold
and hepatitis can be transmitted after exposure to dry
conditions on non-living objects, but this is not the case
for other viruses. For example, the virus responsible for
AIDS (HIV) is easily inactivated by exposure to air,
dryness, and soap and water. For transmission, it requires
a moist medium—a body fluid such as blood or semen.
This fact explains why the disease profile for AIDS is very
different from the disease profile for the common cold
(Prologue).
Actions of Pathogens
If pathogens are not killed by the host’s initial defen-
ses, the process of infection begins. During an infection, a
microbe enters a tissue area, multiplies in number, and
begins to cause tissue damage. The accumulated tissue
damage eventually alters body functions and produces
the symptoms characteristic of the disease. Each type of
pathogen has particular processes which allow it to
invade, multiply, and damage a specific tissue or group of
tissues.
Actions of Pathogenic Bacteria
Bacteria damage tissues in many ways. Usually they
produce and release enzymes and chemical toxins that
help them invade and destroy tissues. As bacteria destroy
cells, nutrients are, liberated which the bacteria use for
their growth, making more bacteria. More bacteria lead to
more tissue damage. Most types of bacteria proliferate in
the space outside cells and do their damage from the
outside. However, a few bacteria penetrate into cells,
destroying them.
Tissue Damage by Secreted Enzymes
Enzymes are proteins that speed up specific chemi-
cal reactions. Through the action of enzymes secreted by
bacteria, the structure and chemical composition of
tissues can be changed rapidly to benefit the microbe and
damage the host.
The bacteria that cause gas gangrene secrete an
enzyme that allows them to disrupt the molecular ‘glue’
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 990
that binds cells together in a tissue. This permits the
bacteria to pass between the cells and spread throughout
the tissue. These bacteria are often introduced by wounds
that penetrate deeply and cause extensive tissue
damage. A variety of other enzymes are secreted by
different bacteria for tissue penetration and destruction.
Some of these enzymes destroy molecules in the plasma
membranes of the host cell, causing its membrane to
burst open and resulting in the host cell’s death. Other
secreted enzymes destroy white blood cells and allow
captured bacteria to escape phagocytosis.
Tissue Damage by Bacterial Toxins
Poisonous chemicals that damage host tissue are
called toxins. There are two categories of bacterial
toxins—
(i) Those produced and released by living, growing
bacteria and
(ii) Those released from dead, disintegrating bacteria.
The first category consists of toxins produced either
by pathogenic bacteria infecting the body (cholera and
tetanus) or by bacteria contaminating the food (staph food
poisoning).
Cholera bacteria enter the digestive tract with conta-
minated food and water. As these bacteria grow in the
intestines, they release a toxin that irritates the intestinal
lining causing severe diarrhea. Such diarrhea results in
rapid dehydration and electrolyte loss.
Tetanus bacteria typically enter the body through a
wound. As they grow in the tissues, tetanus bacteria
release a toxin which is transported by the blood and
causes damage elsewhere. The toxins affects the nerves
that stimulate skeletal muscles. As a consequence,
muscles do not relax properly and spasms result.
Staph food poisoning, once known as ptomaine
poisoning, results from toxins produced by staphyloccus
bacteria growing on food. These bacteria can be part of
the normal flora of the nasal passages but can also cause
boils, pimples, and other skin infections. Therefore,
sneezing and coughing on food and preparing food with
unprotected hands can lead to the deposition of millions of
staph bacteria. If such contaminated food remains at room
temperature for a few hours, the bacteria will have time to
grow, producing and releasing harmful quantities of toxin.
When ingested with food, the toxin irritates the gastroin-
testinal tract, causing vomiting, nausea, and diarrhea.
The second category of toxins are released from the
disintegrating cell wall of dead bacteria. Such toxins are
associated with the bacteria that cause salmonellosis, a
common contaminant of poultry. When these bacteria are
ingested, stomach acid and other digestive secretions kill
many of them. As the bacteria disintegrate, the toxin is
released. These toxins cause fever, weakness, intestinal
bleeding, and even shock.
Actions of Pathogenic Viruses
Viruses reproduce by entering a living host cell. Once
they are inside, viral nucleic acid (RNA or DNA) repro-
grammes cell operations to serve the goals of viral repli-
cation. The specific symptoms of a viral disease are due
to the type of cell infected, damaged and killed.
 Viral infection of a host cell is traditionally divided into reactivate the viruses. Upon reactivation, they leave the
four sequential phases : attachment, penetration, biosyn- nerve cells (without damaging them) and infect epithelial
thesis and assembly, the release of viruses from host cells of the skin, where damage occurs. These active and
cells occur in several different ways, depending on the inactive episodes can be periodically repeated throughout
type of virus. Viruses lacking an envelope are often all a lifetime.
released rapidly as the dead host cell disintegrates.
Chicken pox is another lifelong viral disease. After the
Viruses with an envelope are released slowly over a
usual childhood case of chicken pox, this virus remains
period of time without immediate disintegration of the host
inactive in a person’s nerve cells. If reactivated later in life,
cell. As single viral particles are released, they acquire a
it causes the painful skin condition known as shingles.
little bit of the host’s plasma membrane, and this
constitutes their envelope. Of course, the host cell There is yet another strategy for viral survival, repro-
eventually disintegrates as a result of the accumulated duction, and damage to host cells. After penetrating a cell
damage. some viruses do not immediately follow the sequence of
Envelope
Protein of envelope
Nucleic acid
Capsid

Attachment
Receptor Protein of virus envelope binds to
sites protein receptors on host cell
membrane.

Penetration
Plasma Virus envelope fuses with plasma
Membrane membrane, and virus capsid and
nucleic acid enter host cell. Capsid
disintegrates and nucleic acid is
released.

Copies of m-RNA Biosynthesis

nucleic acid Copies of viral nucleic acid are
replicated. Viral nucleic acid is
New used to synthesize new capsid
proteins by employing organelles
capsid of host cell.
protein

Assembly
Newly synthesized capsid
Newly proteins and viral nucleic acid
assembled molecules are assembled into
new viruses.
virus

Release
Viruses with envelopes acquire
their envelopes as they are relea-
sed from host cell.

Fig. : Stages and associated events of viral multiplication. The virus shown here has an envelope.

In addition to rapid release and slow release, there is
a third possibility. In this case, new viruses do not kill the
host cell and are not immediately released. Instead, they
become lifelong residents of the host cell. During this
residency, their periodic release may cause painful symp-
toms. The herpes simplex virus that causes fever blisters
and genital herpes is an example of this possibility.
Initially, the herpes virus infects and damages epithe-
lial tissue. It then spreads to nerve cells and becomes
inactive. During the inactive period, the viruses reside in
nerves near the skin. Physical and emotional stress may
events outlined above. Instead, before it produces viru-
ses, the viral nucleic acid is inserted into and becomes
part of the host cell’s DNA, a process called viral
integration. The viral nucleic will remain integrated within
the host cell’s DNA for the life of the cell. Every time the
host cell’s DNA is replicated before mitosis, the viral
nucleic acid will also be replicated. When the host cell
divides after mitosis, the viral nucleic acid will be passed
with the cellular DNA to the two progeny cells.
Viral integration may persist for months or years
without damage to the host cells. However, all is not well.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 991

Eventually the viral nucleic acid may become activated by
chemicals or other microbial infections. Upon activation,
the integrated viral nucleic acid produces nucleic acid and
viral proteins that are assembled into viruses. This pro-
cess damages and eventually destroys the host cell. For
good reason, such viruses are getting much attention
today. The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) that
causes Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is
an RNA virus, and its integration into the host’s DNA
chromosomes requires that its RNA be copied as DNA.
Actions of Pathogenic Fungi and Protozoa
Fungi have mechanisms similar to those of bacteria
for invading and killing human tissues. By releasing
enzymes and chemical toxins, pathogenic fungi invade
and digest the tissues, using the breakdown products as
nutrients for their growth. Pathogenic fungi have two main
portals of entry : the respiratory system and the skin.
Fungal spores may be inhaled with the air.
A common respiratory system disease caused by a
fungus is histoplasmosis. This fungus grows in soils rich
in nutrients from birds congregate are often places where
histoplasmosis infections are prevalent.
The most common fungal infections of the skin affect
its upper layer and associated structures. Ringworm is the
collective name of such fungal skin diseases, which
include athlete’s foot. These fungi release an enzyme
which breaks down the keratin of the skin’s upper layer,
hair, and nails. Yeasts are fungi, and some yeast infec-
tions are caused by a pathogenic yeast named Candida.
These fungi can infect the upper skin surface as well as
the mucous membranes of the mouth, the intestinal tract,
and the vagina.
Pathogenic protozoa infect a range of organs, includ-
ing the intestinal tract, brain, liver, and blood. Intestinal
tract infections are contracted from food and liquids
contaminated with the pathogen. Amoebic dysentery
and Giardiasis are two common intestinal tract infections
caused by protozoa. In these two diseases, the active
protozoa cells are destroyed by stomach acid before
entering the intestines. However, their cysts are resistant
to stomach acid and they enter the intestinal tract, where
they develop into active cells. It is these cells that invade
the intestinal lining, causing violent attacks of diarrhea,
abdominal cramps and nausea.
Malaria is the world’s most widespread disease
caused by protozoa. It is transmitted by between humans
by a mosquito that feeds on human blood. In malaria, the
protozoa enter the bloodstream, mature in the liver and
then reenter the blood to infect red blood cells (RBCs).
Over a period of weeks, RBCs are destroyed, leading to
anaemia, capillary obstruction, and general tissue
damage. However, with appropriate care, most patients
recover.
Control of Microbes
Microbes are everywhere in the environment. There
are medical and economic situations in which microbes
must be greatly reduced. Sterilization destroys all the
microbes present, while various other processes, such
as pasteurization, greatly reduce their numbers. These
processes and methods are of direct personal impor-
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 992
tance in the prevention of infections disease and food
spoilage.
Physical methods of controlling microbes—To
survive and grow, all microbes require certain minimum
conditions of moisture, pH, temperature, and O2 or CO2.
These physical conditions vary among bacteria, fungi, and
protozoa and among the microbes in each group. Such
variation means that some microbes are more suscep-
tible to physical damage than are others. Methods such
as heating, cooling, drying, and radiation are used to
destroy microbes, reduce their numbers, or slow their
growth.
Chemical methods of controlling microbes— A
variety of chemical substances either destroy microbes or
inhibit their growth. Chemicals that do this on nonliving
surfaces such as kitchen equipment and bathroom facili-
ties are known as disinfectants. Milder chemicals called
antiseptics do the same thing on body surfaces without
causing irritation.
Disinfectants and antiseptics act by disrupting plasma
membranes, cell walls, nucleic acid molecules, or pro-
teins, including enzymes. If applied at appropriate concen-
trations, chemicals such as alcohols, chlorine, and iodine
are effective in destroying microbes. Chemicals are also
used to purify drinking water. For example, drinking water
can be purified by adding 2 drops of household bleach
(such as chlorox or purex) to a litre of water and waiting
30 minutes before drinking.
Use of Antibiotics
Antibiotics are natural chemical substances produces
by a variety of bacteria and fungi. Antibiotics are effective
against bacteria because they interfere with cellular
processes and structures unique to bacteria. Protozoa,
viruses, fungi, and human cells which lack these struc-
tures are not harmed. Antibiotics kill or inhibit bacteria by
inhibiting cell wall synthesis and protein synthesis or by
damaging the plasma membrane.
Antibiotics such as penicillin and bacitracin interfere
with the production of bacterial cell walls. A weakened cell
wall decreases the bacteria’s ability to withstand the
osmotic pressure of the surrounding tissue fluid, and the
bacterial cell ruptures and dies.
Other antibiotics, such as tetracycline and erythromy-
cin, inhibit bacterial protein synthesis without affecting
protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells. This fortunate distinc-
tion occurs because bacterial ribosomes, the site of
protein synthesis, are slightly different from eukaryotic
ribosomes.
Bacterial plasma membranes have the same general
molecular structure as the plasma membranes of euka-
ryotic cells. However, bacterial membranes are composed
of different lipids. Antibiotics such as colistin and poly-
myxin B react with these lipids and damage the mem-
brane. The damaged membrane leaks, and as a result,
the bacteria die.
In general, antibiotics have been wonder drugs
against specific pathogenic microbes. Many of us are
alive today because of them. New antibiotics that have
been discovered in nature or synthesized in the laboratory
have greatly increased our ability to successfully treat
infections diseases. However, more and more, physicians
and scientists are finding pathegenic bacteria that are
resistant to antibiotics.
Antibiotic Resistance
Antibiotics kill susceptible cells, but there are always
a few cells whose genes make them resistant to
antibiotics. Before the widespread use of antibiotics, there
were so few resistant cells that they did not present much
of a problem. However, with widespread indiscriminate
use of antibiotics over 50 years, these resistant cells have
survived and flourished. Today, resistant microbes are a
major medical concern. Tuberculosis, gonorrhea, syphilis,
and pneumonia are examples of bacterial diseases whose
pathogens have developed some degree of antibiotics
resistance.
A recent and serious example of antibiotic resistance
is provided by the bacteria that cause tuberculosis (TB).
Tuberculosis is a serious infection of the lungs. It is
transmitted through the air and is extremely contagious.
Before antibiotics, TB was difficult to treat, debilitating,
deadly. TB has been in decline for the last four decades.
With antibiotics, patients with TB could be effectively
treated at home without risk to family members, friends,
and the general population. However, since 1985, the
number of reported TB cases has increased an alarming
20 per cent.
This resurgence of TB has occurred for several
reasons. Difficult economic times have reduced the
money available for medical diagnosis, care, and antibio-
tics. At greatest risk are the impoverished, the homeless,
and drug adicts. A lack of adequate health care among
these populations had made it difficult to initiate and
complete antibiotic therapy for TB. To successfully treat
TB, antibiotics must be taken continuously for 6 to 9
months. If treatment is discontinued before completion,
the surviving tuberculosis bacteria become most resis-
tant to be killed by antibiotics. As a consequence, anti-
biotic-resistant forms of the bacteria proliferate and are
spread to others. Because the TB pathogen is spread
through the air, everyone is potentially susceptible to
infection.

A Summary of Selected Methods Used to Kill Microbes or Inhibit their Growth

Method of How to Perform Control Method Suggested Uses Action on Microbes
Control
Heat
Incineration Burn by fire or pass material Flammable objects (paper); Destroys living microbes, endospores,
through open flame inflammable objects (knife) and cysts
Dry heat Oven temperatures : 2 hours at Glassware, metals, soil Destroys living microbes, endospores,
160°C (320°F) and cysts
Moist heat Boiling water or steam for 30 Glassware, metal, food Destroys living microbes and cysts; does
minutes not destroy endospores, some viruses
Autoclave or pressure cooker (15 Glassware, metal, food Destroys living microbes, endospores,
minutes at 121°C (250°F) cysts, and viruses
Pasteurization 15 seconds at 72°C Foods such as milk and beer Reduces microbe numbers; destroys
(162°F) pathogens
Cold
Refrigeration Temperature at 4°C (40°F) Foods and other perishables Slows growth of microbes
Freezing Temperature below 0°C (32°F) Foods and other perishables Destroys some microbes; stops growth
of others
Drying
Elimination of water from product Foods Destroys some microbes; stops growth
of others
Radiation
Ultraviolet Surfaces of materials Radiation destroys living microbes,
Gamma rays Surface and interior of materials endospores, cysts and viruses
Chemicals
Isopropyl Apply at 70–90% concentration Minor cuts and abrasions; non- Destroys living microbes ineffective for
alcohol living surface structures endospores, cysts and some viruses
Chlorine Household bleach Nonliving surface structures Destroys living microbes and viruses;
slowly destroys endospores and cysts
(5–10% concentration)
Household bleach Treat questionable drinking water Destroys living microbes but ineffective
for 30 minutes for endospores, cysts, and many viruses
(2 drops per litre)
Iodine Tincture of iodine Minor cuts and abrasions Destroys living microbes, endospores,
cysts, and many viruses
(2% dissolved in alcohol)

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 993

 Review at a Glance
G Bacteria are prokaryotes. Bacterial shapes are maintained by a rigid cell wall.
G Fungi are eukaryotes and have a cell wall chemically different from that of bacteria. Fungi are either unicellular (yeast) or multi-
cellular filaments (molds).
G Protozoa are eukaryotes and lack a cell wall. Some protozoa develop protective cysts that are resistant to environmental extre-
mes.
G Viruses must infect a host cell to produce new viruses. A virus consists of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a capsid of
protein. Some viruses have an outer envelope surrounding the capsid.
G Pathogens are microbes that cause disease.
G Opportunistic pathogens usually infect only when there is an opportunity for their growth.
G Communicable diseases are transmitted between individuals either directly or indirectly.
G Bacteria produce disease by releasing either enzymes or toxins that damage tissue. Enzymes and many toxins are secreted by
living bacteria, some toxins are released from the cell wall after bacteria die.
G Virus infection of a host cell occurs in four stages : attachment, penetration, synthesis and assembly, and release.
G Viral release can happen in four ways : rapidly killing the host cell; slowly over time without immediately killing the host cell;
periodically without killing the host cell, and slowly after integration into host DNA.
G Fungi and protozoa release enzymes and toxins for invading and destroying tissues.
G Physical methods for controlling or killing microbes include heating, cooling, drying, and radiation.
G Chemical methods for killing or inhibiting microbes include disinfectants for use on nonliving surfaces and antiseptics for use on
body surfaces.
G Antibiotics are natural chemicals produced by certain bacteria and fungi.
G Antibiotics resistance is a worldwide concern.
G Tuberculosis is a disease caused by bacteria that are now resistant to many antibiotics.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. The disease commonly called (C) Fungal disease (C) Kwashiorkor
‘Lock Jaw’ is caused by— (D) None of the above (D) Malaria
(A) Bacillus pertusis
7. The toxins produced by tetanus 12. Which of the following set inclu-
(B) Mycobacterium microbes affects— des bacterial diseases ?
(C) Clostridium tetani (A) Voluntary muscles (A) Cholera, typhoid, mumps
(D) None of the above (B) Involuntary muscles (B) Tetanus, tuberculosis, mea-
2. Food poisoning is caused by— (C) Both voluntary and involun- sles
(A) Entamoeba coli tary muscles (C) Malaria, mumps, poliomye-
(B) Salmonella (D) None of the above litis
(C) Giardia (D) Diphtheria, leprosy, plague
8. Mumps is a viral disease caused
(D) Shigella due to inflammation of— 13. Diarrhea causes—
3. A dreaded viral disease which (A) Submaxillary gland (A) Typhoid
has been almost completely era- (B) Parotid gland (B) Pneumonia
dicated all over the world— (C) Sublingual gland
(A) Chicken pox (C) Dehydration
(D) Infraorbital gland
(B) Polio (D) Whooping cough
9. All the following diseases are
(C) Measles related with respiratory system 14. Viral disease Trachoma is rela-
(D) Small pox except— ted with—
4. Syphilis is a veneral disease (A) Asthma (A) Eyes (B) Skin
which is caused by— (B) Bronchitis (C) Liver (D) Muscles
(A) Treponema pallidum (C) Encephalitis 15. Bacillary dysentery is caused
(B) Neisseria (D) Pneumonia by—
(C) Vibrio (A) Shigella
10. Which of the following disease is
(D) Cornybacterium
caused by protozoa ? (B) Salmonella
5. Which one of the following is not (A) Amoebic dysentery (C) Entamoeba
a communicable disease ? (B) Tuberculosis (D) Proteus
(A) Tuberculosis
(C) Taeniasis
(B) Diphtheria
(D) Typhoid ANSWERS
(C) Cholera
(D) Cancer 11. Which one of the following is a
6. Meningitis is— communicable disease ?
(A) Viral disease (A) Diabetes
(B) Bacterial disease (B) Hypertension ●●●

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 994

Anatomy
Liver is largest gland, usually
endodermal in origin and arising as a
diverticulum of gut. It is situated on
right side beneath the diaphragm;
occupies the right hypochondrium,
epigastrium and part of left hypo-
chondrium; level with bottom of
sternum; undersurface concave;
covers stomach, duodenum; hepatic
flexure of colon, right kidney and
suprarenal capsule. Liver consists of
a continuous parenchymal mass
arranged to form a system of walls
through which venous blood emana-
ting from the gut must pass. This stra-
tegic localization between nutrient-
laden capillary beds and the general
circulation is associated with hepatic
regulation of metabolite levels in the
blood through storage and mobili-
zation mechanisms.
Ligaments supporting
Diaphragm
liver
Right lobe
Left lobe
Falciform
ligament
Ligamentum teres
Gall bladder
Liver of Man (Anterior view)
The human liver is a massive
wedge-shaped organ divided into a
large right lobe and a smaller left
lobe. It is completely covered by a
tough fibrous sheath, Glisson’s
capsule, which is thickest at the
transverse fissure. At this point the
capsule carries blood vessels and
hepatic duct, which enter the organ at
the hilus. Strands of connective tissue
originating from the capsule enter the
liver parenchyma and form the
supporting network of the organ and
separate the functional units of the
liver, the hepatic lobules. Structural
unit lobule is roughly hexagonal block
of cuboidal cells (hepatocytes).
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 995
The many intrahepatic bile
passages converge and anastomose,
finally leading into the hepatic duct,
the excretory channel of the liver.
This structure receives the cystic
duct, on the end of which is situated
the gall bladder. The union of the
cystic and the hepatic ducts forms the
common bile duct or the ductus
choledochus, which enters the
duodenum at the papilla of vater. A
ring of smooth muscle at the terminal
portion of the choledochus, the
Sphincter of Oddi, permits the
passage of bile into the duodenum by
relaxing. The bile leaving the liver
enters the gall bladder, where it
undergoes concentration principally
through loss of fluids absorbed by the
gall bladder mucosa. When bile is
needed in the small intestine for
digestive purposes, the gall bladder
contracts and the sphincter relaxes,
thus permitting escape of the viscid
gall bladder bile.
Usually, within the wall of
duodenum the first portion of the
small intestine, the common bile duct
and the main channel for pancreatic
juice come together to form the
channel called the ampulla of vater,
which then empties into the
duodenum. The portion of the
common duct within the duodenal
wall is encircled by muscle fibres
called the Sphincter of Oddi.
Gross Structure
The liver has been described as
a collection of units called lobules,
each of which contains in its centre, a
branch of the hepatic vein and in its
outer areas, a complex known as a
portal tract. The portal tract includes a
bile duct, a small branch of the portal
vein and a branch of the hepatic
artery. Between the tributary of the
hepatic vein and the portal tract are
columns of hepatic cells and blood
channels called sinusoids.
The walls of the sinusoids are
made up of two types of cells,
endothelial or lining cells and Kupffer
cells. The Kupffer cells are capable of
phagocytosis—the ingestion of other
cells and foreign particles. They also
have important functions in the
production of antibodies. Ligaments
and pressures exerted by the mus-
cles of the abominal wall hold the
liver in position. The hepatic cells, the
functioning cells that make up about
60 per cent of the liver are polyhedral.
Each cell usually has one nucleus
and the cells multiply by mitosis.
Between the hepatic cells and the
walls of the sinusoids there is tissue
fluid, which flows outward into the
lymphatic vessels. The lymph chan-
nels are located in connective tissue
around the portal vein.
Liver cells are metabolically very
active cells, having abundant
organelles, particularly the mitochon-
dria and also abundant glycogen
granules, fat globules and vacuoles
filled with enzymes (urease, peroxi-
dase etc.) and iron—containing com-
pounds (ferritin, haemosiderin etc.).
Intracellular Structure
The hepatic cell, also called the
hepatocyle, has more metabolic
functions than any other cell of the
Bile Intra lobular Inter lobular
capillary vein vein
Bile duct
Vein Hepatic cord
Artery
Kupffer's
cells
Hepatic cells
Sinusoid
Glisson's
capsule
Lymph vessel
Kupffer's
cells
Sinusoid
Hepatic
cells
Intracellular Structure of Liver
body and is the producer of bile. In its
cytoplasm (substance outside the
nucleus) the net like structure known
as the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
is the site at which the bile pigment
bilirubin is metabolized and many
enzymes, such as those necessary to
make glucose available to the blood,
are synthesized. The bile, needed in
the digestion of fats, are formed at
this point and drugs are detoxicated.
The rough endoplasmic reticulum
produces certain proteins, such as
the albumin and clotting factors of the
blood. The mitochondria have many
functions, including the production of
enzymes that play a role in the
synthesis of glycogen and enzymes
involved in the metabolism of fats.
Other structures of the hepatic
cell cytoplasm—the network of fine
tubes known as the Golgi apparatus
and the minute bodies and channels
known, respectively, as the lysosomes
and canaliculi—act as the cells
excretory apparatus. The canaliculi
and the nearby tissues are especially
involved in bile excretion.
Blood Supply
Venous blood from the intestine
(carrying digested nutrients), and to a
lesser extent from spleen and
stomach, converges upon a short
broad vessel, called the hepatic portal
vein which enters the liver through a
depression in the dorsocaudal surface
termed the porta hepatis. There the
hepatic portal vein divides into a short
right branch and a longer left branch.
These vessels then ramify into small
branches which actually penetrate the
functional parenchymal mass as the
inner tubes of the portal canals.
The hepatic artery (a branch of
celiac artery) also enters at the portal
hepatis and ramifies into smaller
branches, which flank the portal
venules within the portal canals. The
branches of the portal vein and
hepatic artery then empty into
sinusoids, which are major regions of
hepatovascular exchange. They
communicate with small branches of
the hepatic veins and through the
hepatic vein, the blood is returned to
the heart by way of the vena cava.
Gall Bladder
It is a hollow muscular organ pre-
sent in humans and most vertebrates
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 996
Key Concepts
● Liver is also known as HEPAR.
● Liver is characterised by presence
of Glisson’s capsule.
● Glisson’s capsules are polygonal
and formed by connective tissue.
● Liver is largest gland of body.
● Kupffer’s cells are found in liver.
● Liver is endodermal in origin.
● Liver of man is bilobed, right lobe is
much larger than left lobe.
● Liver of Frog is trilobed.
● Liver of Rabbit is 5—lobed :
1st lobe — Caudate
2nd lobe — Right central and is
largest lobe.
3rd lobe — Left central
4th lobe — Left lateral
5th lobe—Spigelian and is smallest.
● Gall bladder is situated with right
lobe.
● Gall bladder is absent in horses.
● Bile capillaries unite to form hepatic
duct.
● Bile duct is also known as
choledochus duct.
● In Rabbit bile duct opens into
duodenum separately.
● In man bile duct first opens into
Ampulla of vater.
● Ampulla of vater also receives
pancreatic duct in Man.
● Opening of Ampulla of vater is
surrounded by Sphinctor of Oddi.
● Pancreatic duct is also known as
Wirsung duct.
● Sinusoids are present between
hepatic cords.
● Liver is attached with the wall of
coelom by septum transversum.
(absent in horses), which receives
dilute bile from the liver, store and
concentrates it, discharges it into the
duodenum. Although not a vital
organ, it is of great importance in
humans because it stores bile and
regulates binary tract pressures.
In humans, evacuation of the gall
bladder is accomplished by a trigger
mechanism which is set off by the
presence of fatty foods, meat and
hydragogue cathartics in the duode-
num and upper jejunum. Absorption
of these substances by the mucous
membrane results in the release of
cholecystokinin, a hormone which
rapidly circulates in the bloodstream
and simultaneously produces con-
traction of the gall bladder and
relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi.
The most effective food is egg yolk
which contains certain l -amino acids.
Gallstones and Cholecystitis
Gallstones are round, oval or
faceted concretions formed within the
gall bladder from the salts and pigment
of bile. Such stones may also be
formed in any of the bile ducts within or
outside the liver but the incidence there
is low compared to the number
originating in the gall bladder.
Gallstone may be composed solely of
calcium, cholesterol or bilirubin, but the
most common type is the cholesterol—
containing stone gallstones form when
the bile contains more cholesterol than
can be kept in solution. The most
frequent complication of gallstones is
cholecystitis.
Cholecystitis is inflammation of
the gall bladder, a common disease in
humans. It is nearly always associated
with gallstones and is particularly
common in obese middle-aged
women.
Functions of Liver
The liver receives blood from the
portal vein and thus in the first organ
to receive blood from intestines,
where the blood has absorbed the
final products of digestion and decom-
position products. From this blood the
liver removes glucose, from which it
synthesizes glycogen, which it stores.
It deaminizes amino acids with the
resultant formation of ammonia, which
is converted into urea. Hippuric acid
and uric acid are synthesized in the
liver. The liver incorporates such
proteins as albumin, prothrombin
component, fibrinogen, transferrin and
glycoprotein. The liver is important in
the biotransformation (i.e., so called
detoxification) of such substances as
indole and skatole, which may be
absorbed into the blood from the
intestine.
The liver excretes bile pigments
bilirubin and biliverdin, formed in the
cells of the reticuloendothelial system
in various parts of the body from
haemoglobin derived from effete
(exhausted and no longer functioning)
red corpuscles. It synthesizes fibrino-
gen and prothrombin, blood consti-
tuents essential for clotting. Liver is
the source of heparin, an anticoagu-
lant and of red blood cells in the
foetus and is the main site for the
production of plasma proteins.
Reticuloendothelial cells (Kupffer
cells) present in the lining of the
sinusoids, act to filter out and destroy
bacteria present in the blood stream.
 The liver also performs the
following functions. It is a storage
place for vitamin B12 (the anti-
pernicious anaemia factor) and the
fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E and K. It
plays a role in the regulation of blood
volume and is one of the main
sources of body heat. It is important
in lipid metabolism. Cholesterol, which
is found in most body cells and is a
major constituent of bile, is manu-
factured mainly in the liver.
Bile
Bile is secretion of liver. It is a
thick, viscous fluid with a bitter taste.
The bile from liver is straw coloured,
while that from the gall bladder varies
from yellow to brown and green. Liver
secretes 800 to 1000 ml of bile in 24
hrs. The rate of bile secretion is
greatly increased during digestion.
Bile is slightly alkaline having pH 7·8
to 8·6. The secretion of bile by liver is
called choleresis.
Bile Acids
Bile acid is a steroid acid produ-
ced in the liver. The bile acids lower
surface tension and promote emulsi-
fication of fat to aid in digestion and
absorption of fats from the intestine.
The bile acids have a five-carbon side
chain and occur in the liver in
combination, through peptide linkage,
with glycine and taurine, forming
glycoholic acid and taurocholic acid
respectively. Other bile acids are
cholic, deoxycholic, lithocholic and
chenodeoxycholic acid.
Bile Salts
Bile salts are alkali salts of bile
sodium glycocholate and sodium
taurocholate.
Bile Pigments
Bile pigments are principally bili-
rubin and biliverdin. In addition, bile
contains cholesterol, lecithin, mucin
and other organic and inorganic subs-
tances.
Bilirubin is the predominant
orange pigment of bile. It is the major
metabolic break down product of
haeme, the prosthetic group of
haemoglobin in red blood cells and
other chromoproteins such as myo-
globin, cytochrome and catalase. In
mammalian bile essentially all of the
bilirubin is present as a glucuronide
conjugate. Bacterial flora of intestine
further reduces the bilirubin to colour-
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 997
less urobilinogen. Most of the urobili-
nogen is either reduced t o sterco-
bilinogen or oxidized to urobilin.
These two compounds are then con-
verted to stercobilin, which is ex-
creted in the faeces and gives the
stool its brown colour.
Pathological Tests
Gmelin’s Test—A test for bile in urine.
Hay’s Test—A test for bile acids in
urine.
Van den Bergh’s Test—A test to
detect the type of bilirubin.
Iodine Test—A test for bile in urine.
Disorders of Liver
Jaundice
Jaundice is the yellowness of the
eyes and skin that comes from
excess amounts of bile pigment—
bilirubin in the blood, may arise in any
of a number of ways. (1) The hepatic
cells may form more bilirubin than
usual, because of an abnormally high
level of red blood cell destruction.
This type is called haemolytic jaun-
dice. (2) Impaired uptake or transport
of bilirubin by the hepatic cells may
occur. This congenital disorder is
known as Gilbert’s syndrome. (3)
A defect within the hepatic cell itself
or an obstruction in the bile duct
system may prevent the excretion of
bilirubin glucuronide into the bile. (4)
A number of these defects may occur
at one time. In hepatocellular jaun-
dice, for example, there may be
abnormalities in the transport of biliru-
bin, in its combining with glucuronic
acid to form bilirubin glucuronide and
its excretion in the bile.
Hepatitis
It is an inflammation of the liver
caused by a number of etiological
agents, including viruses, bacteria
fungi, parasites, drugs and chemi-
cals. All types of hepatitis are charac-
terized by distortion of the normal
hepatic lobular architecture due to
varying degrees of necrosis of liver
cells, inflammation and Kupffer cell
enlargement and proliferation.
The most common infectious
hepatitis is of a viral etiology. The two
well-recognized forms are infectious
hepatitis (hepatitis-A) and Serum
Hepatitis (hepatitis-B). Hepatitis-A is
orally acquired, has an incubation
period of 15 to 50 days. Hepatitis-B is
parenterally transmitted, has an
incubation period of 60 to 90 days.
The incubation of delta agent hepa-
titis is 14 to 70 days.
Hepatitis-A and delta agent
hepatitis are spread mostly by person
to person via the faecal-oral route but
may occur by water or food contami-
nated by the virus. Hepatitis-B is
spread by blood and serum—derived
fluids.
Cirrhosis
Cirrhosis is a chronic disease of
the liver characterized by formation of
dense perilobular connective tissue,
degenerative changes in parenchy-
mal cells, alteration in structure of the
cords of liver lobules, fatty and
cellular infiltration and sometimes
development of areas of regeneration.
In addition to clinical signs and
symptoms inherent in the cause of
the cirrhosis, those due to cirrhosis
are the result of loss of functioning
liver cells and increased resistance to
flow of blood through the liver (portal
hypertension). When severe enough,
this leads to ammonia toxicity. Most
common form is that of nutritional
(also known as alcoholic;
Laennec’s or portal) cirrhosis.
Wilson’s Disease
Copper deposits in the liver and
in other tissues are characteristic of a
rare form of cirrhosis known as
Wilson’s disease or hereditary, hepa-
tolenticular degeneration. Deposits of
copper in the brain may cause tremor
and other abnormalities related to the
nervous system. A brownish-green
colouration of the cornea of the eye,
called Kayser—Fleischer rings, is
also caused by the copper deposits.
Alcoholism is clearly associated
with liver cirrhosis. An alcoholic with
cirrhosis shows striking improvement
in condition when he has rested in
bed and stopped consumption of
alcohol.
Weil’s Disease
Weil’s disease is a form of
hepatitis caused by infection with
Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae
from the urine of infected rats. It
occurs most often in men engaged in
such pursuits as farm work or coal
mining. The disease results in deep
jaundice.
Other diseases of liver are
carcinoma of liver cells, syphilis of
liver, pyrogenic liver abscess and
tuberculosis of liver.

1. Site of heat production in the
body is—
(A) Liver (B) Lung
(C) Kidney (D) Spleen
2. Liver is also excretory organ
because—
(A) Urea is formed these
(B) Deamination takes place
(C) Eliminates of bile pigments
(D) None of the above
3. Choleresis is related with—
(A) Pancreatic juice secretion
(B) Bile secretion
(C) Bacterial infection of liver
(D) None of the above
4. Bile pigments are—
(A) Helpful in digestion
(B) Toxic in nature
(C) Helpful in emulsification
(D) None of the above
5. Cystic duct arises from—
(A) Kidney
(B) Pancreas
(C) Gall bladder
(D) Liver
6. Liver is—
(A) Ectodermal in origin
(B) Endodermal in origin
(C) Mesodermal in origin
(D) None of the above
7. Liver of frog is—
(A) Bilobed (B) Trilobed
(C) Five-lobed (D) Single-lobed
8. The site at which bilirubin is
metabolized—
(A) Smooth endoplasmic reticu-
lum
(B) Rough endoplasmic reticu-
lum
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
9. In liver, albumin and blood clot-
ting factors are produced by—
(A) Smooth endoplasmic reticu-
lum
(B) Rough endoplasmic reticu-
lum
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
10. Liver is characterised by the
presence of—
(A) Glisson’s capsule
(B) Kupffer’s cells
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 998
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
11. Bile duct in Man is known as—
(A) Whartons’s duct
(B) Wirsung duct
(C) Choledochus duct
(D) Cisternae
12. Bilirubin is produced from haemo-
globin by—
(A) Liver
(B) Reticuloendothelial cells in
bone marrow
(C) Gall bladder
(D) All of the above
13. Biliverdin is formed by—
(A) Oxidation of bilirubin
(B) Liver
(C) Urea
(D) None of the above
14. Smallest lobe of liver of Rabbit
is—
(A) Caudate lobe
(B) Right central lobe
(C) Spigelian
(D) None of the above
15. In man Ampulla of vater
receives—
(A) Pancreatic duct
(B) Bile duct
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
16. Bile acids is/are—
(A) Glycoholic acid
(B) Taurocholic acid
(C) Lilhocholic acid
(D) All of the above
17. Bile salts are alkali salts of—
(A) Sodium glycocholate
(B) Sodium taurocholate
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
18. Emulsification of fat is brought
about by—
(A) Bile pigments
(B) Bile salts
(C) Pancreatic juices
(D) HCL
19. Bile pigments are—
(A) Secretory product
(B) Excretory product
(C) Digestive product
(D) All of the above
20. Cholecystitis refers to—
(A) Stone in gall bladder
(B) Appendix pain
(C) Stomach pain
(D) None of the above
21. Gilbert’s syndrome is related
with—
(A) Jaundice
(B) Hepatitis
(C) Cirrhosis
(D) All of the above
22. Which of the following is trans-
mitted by blood and serum-
derived fluids ?
(A) Hepatitis-A
(B) Hepatitis-B
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
23. Laennec’s disorder is related
with—
(A) Cirrhosis
(B) Hepatitis
(C) Jaundice
(D) All of the above
24. Liver cirrhosis caused by copper
deposition is known as—
(A) Weil’s disease
(B) Wilson’s disease
(C) Laennec’s disorder
(D) None of the above
25. Hepatitis caused by Leptospira
icterohaemorrhagiae is known
as—
(A) Weil’s disease
(B) Wilson’s disease
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
ANSWERS
●●●
 The ever-growing human population is overexploiting
natural ecosystems to satisfy the variety of needs, which
reflect the increasingly energy-intensive lifestyle. This
overexploitation is disturbing the natural balance.
Modern humans appeared around fifty thousand years
ago. Initially the human population was small. Therefore,
human interference with nature was minimal. Human
population reached the one billion mark around 1850. It
increased to 2 billion by 1930, and reached 6·1 billion by
2000.
Exponential Growth and Human Population
Explosion
In 1700 A.D., human population was around 6·6
billion. At the beginning of the twentieth century, it reached
to 1·6 billion and by the end of the century, the human
population stood at 6·1 billion. This dramatic increase in
population size over a relatively short period is called
population explosion. In the 150 years from 1700 A.D.,
human population doubled from 0·6 billion to 1·2 billion. In
contrast, it increased five-fold during the next 150 years.
There is a limit to the maximum population size that
can be supported with a given space and resource base.
The maximum population size that can supported by the
environment is called the maximum carrying capacity.
Environment has the following three major compo-
nents :
1. The first component consists of productive systems,
such as croplands, orchards, etc. and provides food
and fibre.
2. The second component comprises protective sys-
tems, such as climax forests, oceans etc. It buffers air
and water cycles, moderates extremes in temperature
etc.
3. The final component has waste assimilative systems,
such as water ways, wetlands, etc. that assimilate the
wastes produced by human activities.
The first two of these components constitute the life-
supporting capacity and third makes up the waste-
assimilative capacity of the environment. The maximum
carrying capacity of the environment depends on the
above two capacities. It is understandable that the popu-
lation size should not exceed the maximum carrying
capacity and the utilisation of resources should be such
that lasting damage to the environment does not occur.
The carrying capacity of the human environment has
been increased many times by clever application of
science and technology, particularly to the productive sys-
tems of the environment. As a result, human population
has been able to maintain exponential growth during the
past 100 years.
When the population increase is nearly a fixed pro-
portion of its own size during any period of time, the
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 999
growth is said to be exponential (J-shaped growth curve).
When population grows exponentially, utilisation of
resources and generation of wastes also grow exponen-
tially. However, the exponential growth in resource use
and waste generation cannot continue indefinitely.
Environment and Human Population Pressure
The increased levels of environmental degradation
experienced today arise from the following :
Firstly, the world population has increased dramati-
cally and secondly, population densities within different
parts of the world are markedly different.
About half of the 6·1 billion people live in poverty and
at least one-fifth are severly undernourished or malnour-
ished. It is estimated that it takes 12–20 times as much
resource to raise a child in a developing nation. An impor-
tant related fact is that 15 per cent of the world’s popu-
lation controls about 85 per cent of the resources.
This imbalance is connected to the demographic
transition in developed countries. This process has led to
aggressive natural resource acquisition and colonialisa-
tion. Developing nations, like India, contain the majority of
the world’s population. They also have a large rural popu-
lation, which is shifting to thickly populated urban areas in
search of material wealth.
Typically, urban areas produce little food, consume
more natural resources and generate more waste products
per capita than rural areas. In most cases, urban wastes
are hazardous and contaminate the environment with
compounds that are foreign to natural ecosystem and are
less subject to natural degradation. Increased urbanisation
also puts pressure on agriculture to produce more food
less land, leading, to increased pollution by intensive
agriculture practice. Thus, the huge human population
pressurises and degrades the environment physically,
chemically, biologically and even ethically.
Development and Environment
The extent of resource exploitation is determined by
the size of human population, socio-economic structure
and technological advancement of a country. Techno-
logical advancement causes an increasing detachment of
the society from nature, and interferes with the physio-
chemical and biological interactions of resources in the
form of excessive deforestation, intensive agriculture,
indiscriminate mining operations and thoughtless use of
fossil fuel, etc., deplete in the environment.
Rapidly growing population demands more resources
and is seldom concerned about the consequences of
resource acquisition and use. The issues of development
versus environment have led to the concept of sustainable
development. The most widely quoted definition of sus-
tainable development is the ‘development that meets the
needs of the present without compromising the ability of
future generations to meet their own needs.’
 Sustainable development encourages a process of
change in which the exploitation of resources, the direction
of investments, the orientation of technological develop-
ment and institutional changes are all in harmony. Such
development enhances both present and future potential
to meet human needs and aspirations. Development
should not endanger the natural systems that support life.
Human Population Growth
Human population growth rate is measured as the
annual average growth rate which can be calculated as
follows :
Average annual growth rate (in per cent)
⎡⎢ P2 – P1⎤⎥
= ⎢⎣ P1 × N ⎥⎦ × 100
where P1 is the population size in the previous census; P 2
is population size in the present census and N is number
of years between the two census.
Census ascertains the number of individuals present
in a given region at a given time. The time required for a
population to double itself is called the doubling time.
Annual average growth rate and doubling time are the two
important indicators of the pace of population growth.
Growth rate depends on several factors such as rates of
birth, death and migration and age-sex ratio.
Growth Curves
Two basic forms of growth curves can be identified,
the J-shaped growth curve and the S-shaped or sigmoid
growth curve.
The S-shaped or sigmoid growth curve describes a
situation in which a new environment, the population den-
sity of an organism increases slowly initially, as it adapts
to new conditions and establishes itself, then increases
rapidly, approaching an exponential growth rate. It then
shows a declining rate of increase until a zero population
growth rate is achieved where rate of reproduction
(natality) equals rate of death (mortality). This type of
population growth is said to be density-dependent since,
for a given set of resources, growth rate depends on the
numbers present in the population. The point of stabilisa-
tion or zero growth rate is the maximum carrying capacity
of the given environment for the organism concerned.
No. of individuals
J-shaped
Time
(a)
The J-shaped growth curve describes a situation in
which, after the initial establishment phase (lag phase),
population growth continues in an exponential form until
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1000
K
No. of individuals
S-shaped
Time
(b)
Fig. : Population growth forms : (a) J-shaped, (b) S-shaped.
K represents the carrying capacity.
stopped abruptly, as environmental resistance becomes
suddenly effective. Growth is said to be density-
independent since regulation of growth rate is not tied to
the population density until the final crash.
Fertility
Fertility is the deteminant of the current growth of
population. Birth rate is the number of babies produced
per thousand individuals. It is distinct from the population
growth rate as it can never be negative, while the latter
can be negative.
Total fertility rate (TFR) is the average number of
children that would be born to a woman during her lifetime,
assuming the age-specific birth rate of a given year.
Replacement level (RL) is the number of children, a
couple must produce to replace themselves. Fertility is
largely controlled by economics and by human aspirations.
Mortality
Mortality is the death rate per thousand individuals. In
most countries, the death rate has dropped almost conti-
nuously since the industrial revolution, mainly due to
improved personal hygiene, sanitation, and modern medi-
cine. A decrease in death rate would result in increased
population growth rate.
Demographers usually employ crude birth rate and
crude death rate, which are the numbers of live births and
deaths per thousand persons, respectively in the middle of
a given year, i.e., on July 07. The difference between the
number of births and that of deaths is the rate of natural
increase. If birth and death rates were equal, a zero popu-
lation growth rate would result, which is called demo-
graphic transition.
Migration
Migration is the movement of individuals into (immi-
gration) or out of (emigration) a place or country. Migra-
tion may also occur within a country, from one region to
another. But migration only between country, influences a
nation’s population. Only the net immigration, i.e., immi-
gration minus the emigration, is added to the population
growth by birth. The net immigration may be positive, zero
or even negative.
Age and Sex Structures
The age structure of a given population refers to the
proportion of individuals of different ages within that
population. This aspect is important because many
functional aspects of the individuals are related to age. males and females in a population influences the popu-
For example, infants below one year of age and the older lation growth. The number of female individuals in active
people have higher mortality rate than individuals of other reproductive age influences the birth rate within a
ages. In addition the proportion of reproductively active population.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following does not (C) Both (A) and (B) (B) Birth
affect the biotic potential ? (D) None of these (C) Emigration
(A) Carrying capacity of environ- 5. Population growth is said to be (D) Both (A) and (B)
ment density-independent when there
(B) Female’s age 9. The main factor for population
is— growth in India is—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) J-shaped growth curve
(D) None of these (A) More birth rate
(B) S-shaped growth curve
(B) Less death rate
2. Carrying capacity of environment (C) Both (A) and (B)
is determined by— (C) Lack of education
(D) None of these
(A) Birth rate (D) All the above
6. Essay of population was pub-
(B) Death rate lished by— 10. Population explosion being wit-
(C) Limiting resources (A) Darwin nessed at present is mainly due
(D) Population growth rate (B) Malthus to—
3. Exponential growth is associated (C) Hugo de Vries (A) Increase in agricultural pro-
with— (D) None of these duction
(A) J-shaped growth curve 7. The physiological capacity to pro- (B) Better job facilities
(B) S-shaped growth curve duce offspring is called—
(A) Population growth (C) Better health care
(C) Sigmoid growth curve
(D) All the above (B) Birth rate (D) None of these
(C) Biotic potential
4. The population is said to be den- ANSWERS
(D) Population explosion
sity-dependent when the growth
has— 8. The number of individuals in
(A) Sigmoid growth curve population are added by—
(B) J-shaped growth curve (A) Immigration ●●●

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C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1001


1. Logistic growth occurs when
there is—
(A) Asexual reproduction only
(B) Sexual reproduction only
(C) No inhibition from crowding
(D) A fixed carrying capacity
2. Which of these were first formed
during origin of life ?
(A) Coaservates (B) Cells
(C) Eobionts (D) Genes
3. Which of the following snake is
viviparous ?
(A) Krait (B) Viper
(C) Cobra (D) Hydrophis
4. The term anaerobic means—
(A) Presence of oxygen
(B) Without oxygen
(C) With glucose
(D) Without glucose
5. The extra-embryonic membranes
of mammalian embryo are
derived from—
(A) Formative cells
(B) Trophoblast
(C) Follicle cells
(D) Inner mass cells
6. Nucleus pulposus is found in—
(A) Medulla oblongata
(B) Femur
(C) Intervertebral disks
(D) Testes
7. Basic unit of protein is—
(A) Amide (B) Proton
(C) Amino acid (D) Peptide
8. The primates are—
(A) Gregarious
(B) Plantigrades
(C) Omnivorous
(D) All of the above
9. Intermediate host of Liver Fluke
is—
(A) Pila and Unio
(B) Pila and Lymnaea
(C) All the above
(D) None of these
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1002
10. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
is related with—
(A) Gonorrhea
(B) Chlamydiosis
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
11. Antigenic determinant sites bind
to which portion of an antibody
molecule ?
(A) Heavy chains
(B) Light chains
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
12. Recombination nodules are asso-
ciated with—
(A) Axons
(B) Synaptonemal complex
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Synovial fluid
13. Liver cirrhosis caused by copper
deposition is known as—
(A) Weil’s disease
(B) Laennec’s disease
(C) Wilson’s disease
(D) None of the above
14. Each redia larva of Fasciola
hepatica produces—
(A) 14 to 20 cercaria larvae
(B) 1 to 5 cercaria larvae
(C) 14 to 20 metacercaria larvae
(D) 100 cercaria larvae
15. Parasympathetic effect—
(A) Lowers blood pressure
(B) Slows heart rate
(C) Promotes digestion
(D) All the above
16. In earthworm (Pheretima), the
arrangement of blood vessels is—
(A) Different in middle 13 seg-
ments
(B) Different in last 15 segments
(C) Different in first 13 segments
(D) Same throughout
17. Yawning is due to more—
(A) CO2 concentration in blood
(B) O2 concentration in blood
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
18. Which of the following dissolves
blood clots during fibrinolysis ?
(A) Fibrin
(B) Platelet vector VIII
(C) Plasmin
(D) Thrombin
19. Ratio of oxyhaemoglobin and
haemoglobin in the blood is
based upon—
(A) Oxygen tension
(B) Carbon dioxide tension
(C) Carbonate tension
(D) Bicarbonate tension
20. The genetic material in ‘HIV’ is—
(A) Single-stranded DNA
(B) Double-stranded DNA
(C) Single-stranded RNA
(D) Double-stranded RNA
21. Sum of constructive processes in
body cells is called—
(A) Catabolism
(B) Anabolism
(C) BMR
(D) All the above
22. The scientific (zoological) name
of ‘pork tapeworm’ is—
(A) Taenia solium
(B) Fasciola hepatica
(C) Rhabditis citaria
(D) Hystrichis engenia
23. The reaction in which glucose
and fructose combine to form
sucrose and water is—
(A) Exergonic
(B) Endergonic
(C) Spontaneous
(D) Both (A) and (B)
24. Which of these are stellate cells ?
(A) Astrocytes
(B) Kupffer’s cells
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
25. In human embryo and foetus, the
bypasses which limit the blood
flow to the liver and lungs is—
(A) Ductus venosus
(B) Foramen ovale
(C) Ductus arteriosus
(D) All the above
26. Which form of Trypanosoma gam- 35. Catabolism takes place in— 44. A working combination of an
biense contains reduced fla- (A) Golgi bodies apoenzyme and a coenzyme is
gellum ? (B) Nucleus termed as—
(A) Leptomonad (C) Mitochondria (A) Enzyme-substrate complex
(B) Crithidial (D) All the above (B) Prosthetic group
(C) Trypanosomid (C) Enzyme-product complex
36. Ligaments join—
(D) Leishmanial (D) Holoenzyme
(A) Muscle to bone
27. Which of the layer of heart-wall 45. Which of the following arthropods
consists cardiac muscles ? (B) Muscle to muscle is a chelicerate ?
(A) Endocardium (C) Bone to bone (A) Horseshoe crab
(B) Myocardium (D) Cartilage to bone (B) Lobster
(C) Epicardium 37. Tumour in blood vessels is (C) Millipede
(D) All the above called— (D) Grasshopper
28. Epithelium that contains fat (A) Arteriosclerosis 46. Pressure filtration is associated
globules is known as— (B) Varicose vein with—
(A) Nepiepithelium (C) Angioma (A) Distal convoluted tubule
(B) Duraepithelium (B) Collecting duct
(D) Phlebitis
(C) Pioepithelium (C) Glomerular capsule
(D) Seismoepithelium 38. Which of the following body parts
(D) None of the above
is the major cholesterol producing
29. Septicemia is—
site in the human ? 47. Meckel’s discs are example of—
(A) Food poisoning
(A) Gall bladder (A) Tangoreceptors
(B) Blood poisoning
(C) Mental disorder (B) Liver (B) Phonoreceptors
(D) None of these (C) Pancreas (C) Algesireceptors
(D) All of the above (D) Proprioreceptors
30. Which of the following animals has
no need of a gallbladder ? 48. A virus that can reproduce
39. Fishes migrating from ocean to
(A) Human (B) Horse without killing its host is called—
fresh water for breeding are
(C) Dog (D) Lion called— (A) Temperate virus
(B) Lytic virus
31. Cardiac output is determined (A) Catadromous
(C) Virion
by— (B) Anadromous
(D) Retroactive virus
(A) Heart rate (C) Amphidromous
49. Angulo-splenial bone is found
(B) Stroke volume (D) Bathydromous
in—
(C) Both (A) and (B) 40. Which of these factors has little (A) Lower jaw of rabbit
(D) None of these effect on blood flow in arteries ? (B) Lower jaw of frog
32. Which of the following is caused (A) Skeletal muscle contraction (C) Pectoral girdle of frog
in human liver by anaerobic bac- (B) Heart beat (D) Pelvic girdle of frog
teria ? (C) Total cross-sectional area of
50. A human population has a higher
(A) Hobnail fever vessels
than usual percentage of indi-
(B) Liver spots (D) Blood pressure viduals are expected to make up
(C) Foamy liver 41. Which of the following animal is a larger proportion of the next
(D) None of the above an example of class mammalia ? generation. The most likely expla-
(A) Planorbis (B) Manis nation is—
33. Which particular fatty acid is not
synthesized in the human body ? (C) Hydrophis (D) Psittacula (A) Genetic drift
(A) Linoleic acid (B) Gene flow
42. Interstitial fluid closely resem-
(B) Glycerol bles— (C) Natural selection
(C) Cholesterol (A) Lake water (B) Rain water (D) None of the above
(D) All the above (C) Sea water (D) Pond water
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
34. Which of the following is called 43. Most appropriate term to describe
living fossil ? the life-cycle of Obelia is—
(A) Latimarice (A) Neoteny
(B) Sphenodon (B) Metagenesis
(C) Heloderma (C) Metamorphosis
(D) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (Continued on Page 1006 )

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1003


1. Czermak's space is found in—
(A) Vertebral column
(B) Tooth
(C) Sternum
(D) Synovial joint
2. Capsule of Tenon is associated
with—
(A) Brain (B) Eyeball
(C) Skin (D) Kidneys
3. The inherited cystic fibrosis
disease is associated with—
(A) Exocrine glands
(B) Apocrine glands
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
4. Which type of brain wave pattern
is observed in persons solving
mathematical problems ?
(A) Beta waves
(B) Alpha waves
(C) Theta waves
(D) Delta waves
5. Curschmann's spiral are related
with—
(A) Asthma patients
(B) Tuberculosis patients
(C) Neuritis patients
(D) Congenital heart patients
6. Heart murmur produced
aneurysm, is called—
(A) Hemic murmur
(B) Bruit
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
7. In which of the following organs
ketone bodies are produced ?
(A) Kidneys (B) Spleen
(C) Liver (D) Brain
8. The arrangement of numerous
setae in a ring in each segment
of earthworm is known as—
(A) Lumbricine
(B) Oligochaetine
(C) Otochaetine
(D) Perichaetine
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1004
17. Insertion of viral nucleic acid into
DNA of host cell, is called—
(A) Integration
(B) Biosynthesis
(C) Assembly
(D) None of these
9. Scyphozoan medusae are more
commonly known as— 18. Clisere is related with—
(A) Sea anemones (B) Hydra (A) Serial community
(C) Jellyfish (D) Corals (B) Xerosere community
(C) Climax community
10. Which of the following is called
(D) Pioneer community
tissue membrane ?
(A) Serous membrane 19. In humans, removal parathyroid
(B) Cutaneous membrane gland leads to—
(A) Tetany
(C) Mucous membrane
(B) Acromegaly
(D) All the above
(C) Polyuria
11. Diaderm is composed of—
(D) Diabetes insipidus
(A) Ectoderm
20. Muscles associated with hair-
(B) Endoderm
roots are responsible for goose-
(C) Both (A) and (B)
flesh are—
(D) None of these
(A) Smooth muscles
12. Accumulation of free radicals in (B) Antagonistic muscles
human body, can cause— (C) Striated muscles
(A) Cancer
(D) None of these
(B) Hardening of the arteries
21. Scotopic vision is—
(C) Cataracts (A) Night vision
(D) All the above (B) Daytime vision
13. Ginglymus is— (C) Defective vision
(A) Hinge joint (D) None of these
(B) Fixed joint 22. New systematics based on
(C) Synovial joint genetic inter-relationship is known
as—
(D) None of these
(A) Cytotaxonomy
14. ‘Tree line’ is a biological indicator (B) Numerical taxonomy
of environmental conditions. Tree
(C) Experimental taxonomy
line is—
in (D) Chemotaxonomy
(A) Line of similar trees in a
23. When a person is alert with eyes
forest
open, and actively trying to solve
(B) Last line of trees beyond
complex problems, the EEG
which no trees occur
shows—
(C) A line of trees of uniform
(A) Alpha waves
height and productivity
(B) Beta waves
(D) Trees growing in shade that
(C) Delta waves
survive acid rain
(D) Gamma waves
15. Which of the following is warm-
blooded animal ? 24. Which tumour is capsulated ?
(A) Benign
(A) Bat (B) Shark
(B) Malignant
(C) Snake (D) Lizard
(C) Both (A) and (B)
16. Which developmental structure in
(D) None of these
mammalian embryo is regarded
as phyletic ? 25. Endoneurium is also called—
(A) Gill pouches (B) Lungs (A) Henle's ligament
(C) Heart (D) Kidneys (B) Henle's sheath
 (C) Henle's tubule 34. Which of the following helps (C) Weismann
(D) Henle's layer in consolidation of long-term (D) None of these
memory ?
26. Enzyme that perform condensa- 43. Bells palsy is caused due to
(A) Medulla and pons
tion reactions involving ATP swelling of which cranial nerve ?
cleavage is— (B) Hippocampus
(A) Seventh (B) Tenth
(A) Ligases (B) Isomerases (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these (C) Fourth (D) Fifth
(C) Lyases (D) Transferases
35. Osteoarthritis disease is usually 44. Schlemm’s canal is located in—
27. Involuntary discharge of urine in
children below the age of five, is associated with aging and is (A) Eye (B) Cochlea
called— called a— (C) Spinal cord (D) Vertebra
(A) Entrain (B) Enuresis (A) Communicable disease
45. The haploid complement of chro-
(C) Entotic (D) Entropy (B) Degenerative disease
mosomes of an organism cons-
(C) Deficiency disease titute its—
28. Thebesian valve occurs at the
entrance of— (D) Allergy (A) Genome
(A) Coronary sinus into right 36. Septicemia is— (B) Genotype
auricle (A) Food poisoning (C) Phenotype
(B) Left auricle into left ventricle (B) Blood poisoning (D) Genetic system
(C) Sinus venosus into right (C) Mental disorder
auricle 46. Inherited Rh factor gene is found
(D) None of these
(D) None of these in—
37. Which brain wave pattern is (A) Rh + individuals
29. The membranous lining of the common in young children and
spinal canal is— sleeping adults ? (B) Rh – individuals
(A) Endorrhachis (A) Beta waves (C) AB blood group individuals
(B) Endosalpingia (B) Alpha waves (D) O blood group individuals
(C) Endosalpinx (C) Theta waves 47. Which of the following dance is
(D) None of these (D) Delta waves performed by worker honeybee,
30. The reaction in which glucose 38. Which particular fatty acid is not when food is far away ?
and fructose combine to form synthesized in the human body ? (A) Round dance
sucrose and water, is— (A) Linoleic acid
(B) Waggle dance
(A) Exergonic (B) Glycerol
(B) Endergonic (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Cholesterol
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (D) None of these
(D) None of these 48. The prominence in the neck
39. The shock caused by bee and
31. The cartilage forming the lower wasp sting bite is called— region known as Adam’s apple is
jaw of cartilaginous fishes is (A) Anaphylatic shock formed by—
termed— (B) Hyperglycemic shock (A) Cartilage hyaline
(A) Dentary (C) Hypovolemic shock (B) Cartilage semilunar
(B) Mentomeckelian (D) None of these (C) Cartilage yellow
(C) Meckel's cartilage 40. The posterior part of Amoeba is (D) Cartilage thyroid
(D) Angulosplenial called—
(A) Amniton (B) Basal disc 49. The protein which maintains the
32. Which of the following is ‘inborn
muscular storage of oxygen is—
error of metabolism’ ? (C) Uroid (D) None of these
(A) Myosin
(A) Colour blindness 41. Which of the following enzyme is
(B) Haemophilia activated by peptide hormone to (B) Myoglobin
convert ATP to cyclic AMP ? (C) Actomyosin
(C) Hurler syndrome
(A) Pepsin (D) All the above
(D) None of these (B) Adenylate cyclase
33. Sympathetic nerves in humans (C) Trypsin 50. Which type of tissue forms the
arise from— (D) All the above inner lining of a blood vessel ?
(A) Sacral region (A) Connective
42. The phenomenon of fertilization
(B) Cervical region was first perceived by— (B) Epithelial
(C) Thoraco-lumbar region (A) Hertwig (C) Muscular
(D) None of the above (B) Leuwenhoek (D) None of these

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1005

 (C) Proprioreceptors
(D) Teloreceptors
17. In protein synthesis, the polyme-
rization of amino acids involves
three steps. Which one of the
following is not involved ?
1. Hemoccult test is done to spot an 10. When the individual’s genotype (A) Elongation
early stage of cancer in— is XXX, the person is affected (B) Transcription
(A) Colon (B) Breast by—
(C) Termination
(C) Blood (D) Skin (A) Metafemale syndrome
(D) Initiation
(B) Turner’s syndrome
2. Hellin’s law is related with— 18. Ring chromosomes can pro-
(C) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(A) Eye defect duce—
(D) Down’s syndrome
(B) Twins (A) Cat-eye syndrome
11. The transgenic animals are those (B) Cri-du-chat syndrome
(C) Helminth infection
which have—
(D) Hearing defect (C) Jacob’s syndrome
(A) Foreign DNA is some of its
cells (D) Edward’s syndrome
3. In mitochondria, cristae act as
sites for— (B) Foreign DNA in all its cells 19. Which of the following evidences
(A) Breakdown of macromolecu- (C) Foreign RNA in all its cells does not favour the Lamarckian
les (D) Both (B) and (C) concept of inheritance of acquired
chracters ?
(B) Protein synthesis 12. Which of the following is a clam-
worm ? (A) Asence of limbs in snakes
(C) Oxidation-reduction reaction
(A) Earthworm (B) Presence of webbed toes in
(D) Phosphorylation of flavopro-
(B) Hook worm aquatic birds
teins
(C) Nereis (C) Lack of pigment in cave-
4. Bowman’s membrane is found (D) Filarial worm dwelling animals
in—
13. The concept that ‘population (D) Melanization in peppered
(A) Lungs (B) Kidneys moth
tends to increase geometrically
(C) Liver (D) Eyes while food supply increases arith- 20. The dark band of a muscle is—
5. A cell-coded protein, that is metically’ was put forward by—
(A) Isotropic band
formed in response to viral infec- (A) Stuart Mill
(B) Anisotropic band
tion, is— (B) Adam Smith
(C) Henson band
(A) Antigen (B) Interferon (C) Thomas Malthus
(D) None of these
(C) Histone (D) Antibody (D) Charles Darwin
21. The heart sound ‘dup’ is produ-
6. An abnormal decrease in total 14. Menstrual cycle in mammals is
ced when—
number of WBCs is termed— influenced by—
(A) Tricuspid valve is opened
(A) Leucocytopenia (A) Estrogen only
(B) Mitral valve is opened
(B) Leucocytopiania (B) FSH, LH and estrogen
(C) Mitral valve is closed
(C) Leucocytosis (C) Progesterone only
(D) Semi-lunar valves at the
(D) None of these (D) FSH and LH only
base of aorta get closed
7. Hassall’s corpuscles are present 15. Although much CO 2 is carried in
blood, yet blood does not become 22. Community health services
in—
acidic, because— involve—
(A) Thymus (B) Thyroid
(A) CO2 combines with water to (A) Control of communicable
(C) Kidney (D) Liver diseases
form H2CO3, which is neutra-
8. Which of these viruses has diffe- lized by NaCO3 (B) School and health education
rent and varied associations in (C) Awareness of clean environ-
(B) CO2 continuously diffuses
different geographical regions ? ment
through the tissues
(A) Kapos’s virus
(C) Buffer system of blood plays (D) All of the above
(B) Epstein-Barr virus
an important role 23. Which of the following cell not
(C) Papova virus
(D) All the above found in connective tissues ?
(D) All the above
16. Sensation of stomach pain would (A) Chondroblasts
..
9. Hurthle cells are present in— be carried by— (B) Osteoblasts
(A) Thyroid gland (B) Liver (A) Exteroreceptors (C) Myoblasts
(C) Spleen (D) Lymph (B) Interoreceptors (D) Fibroblasts

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1007

24. Why cholera patients are pro- (C) Pulmonary vein 41. The most striking example of
vided with saline drips ? (D) None of the above point mutation is found in a
(A) NaCl is important contituent disease, called—
32. The primates are—
of the blood which maintains (A) Thalassemia
the RBCs (A) Plantigrade (B) Night blindness
(B) Na + ions help to retain water (B) Omnivorous (C) Down’s syndrome
in body (C) Gregarious (D) Sickle-cell anaemia
–
(C) Cl ions help in formation of (D) All the above
HCl 42. African sleeping sickness is
– 33. Which of the following is regarded caused by—
(D) Cl ions are essential com-
ponent of blood plasma as an unit of nervous tissue ? (A) Entamoeba
(A) Axon (B) Dendrite (B) Trypanosoma
25. Epidermal layer consisting of
dividing cells, is— (C) Neuron (D) Myelin sheath (C) Trichomonas
(A) Stratum lucidum (D) Leishmania
34. The presence of gill slits in the
(B) Stratum Malpighii embryos of all vertebrates sup- 43. Pneumatic bones are found in—
(C) Stratum granulosum port the theory of— (A) Pigeon (B) Whale
(D) Stratum corneum (A) Origin of evolution (C) Shark (D) Rana
26. Which of the following controls (B) Recapitulation 44. SARS virus affects—
the peristaltic movements of the
(C) Metamorphosis (A) Heart (B) Brain
gut ?
(A) Brachial plexus (D) Biogenesis (C) Lungs (D) All of these
(B) Auerbach’s plexus 35. In the fertile human female, app- 45. The maximum formation of m -
(C) Saral plexus roximately on which day of the RNA occurs in—
(D) None of these ovulation takes place ? (A) Cytoplasm
27. Which of the following carries pro- (A) 1st day (B) 8th day (B) Nucleolus
tein and lipid to other parts of the (C) 14th day (D) 18th day (C) Ribosome
cell ? (D) Nucleoplasm
36. Earliest fossil form in phylogeny
(A) Rough endoplasmic reticu-
of horse was— 46. Atocia is—
lum
(A) Merychippus (A) Female sterlity
(B) Smooth endoplasmic reticu-
lum (B) Eohippus (B) Nulliparity
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Equus
(D) None of the above (D) None of these
(D) Mesohippus
28. A localised tumour covered by 47. In human beings, the eggs are—
37. Typhus disease in humans is (A) Microlecithal
connective tissue is called—
caused by—
(A) Metastasis (B) Macrolecithal
(B) Neoplasm (A) Virus
(C) Mesolecithal
(C) Benign tumour (B) Protozoans (D) Alecithal
(D) Malignant tumour (C) Rickettsiae
48. Auer’s bodies are found in the
29. Carbohydrate is a prosthetic (D) None of the above cytoplasm of—
group in— 38. Enzymes are polymers of— (A) Myeloblasts
(A) Glycoprotein (A) Fatty acids (B) Myelocytes
(B) Chromoprotein (B) Amino acids (C) Monoblasts
(C) Nucleoprotein (D) All the above
(C) Hexose sugar
(D) Lycoprotein
(D) Inorganic phosphate 49. Which cranial nerve has the hig-
30. Graft between isogenic indivi- hest number of branches ?
duals is known as— 39. At high altitude, the RBCs in the
human blood will— (A) Trigeminal
(A) Syngraft
(A) Increase in size (B) Facial nerve
(B) Allograft
(B) Decrease in size (C) Vagus nerve
(C) Xenograft
(D) None of these (C) Increase in number (D) All the above

31. Which of the following carries (D) Decrease in number 50. SARS virus is—
absorbed product from digestive 40. Silk contains a protein, known (A) Corona virus
tract ? as— (B) Picoma virus
(A) Hepatic artery (A) Fibrin (B) Fibroin (C) Retro virus
(B) Hepatic portal vein (C) Casein (D) None of these (D) None of these

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1008

 Habit and Habitat
Funaria is a terrestrial moss plant of class Bryopsida.
It chiefly grows in dense patches of bright, green colour;
usually in moist shady places (damp soil). It may also
found on the walls and trunks of trees.
Funaria comprises more than 117 species including
15 species reported from Indian soil. Of these, Funaria
hygrometrica is cosmopolitan in distribution. Southern
reported that F. hygometrica is the characteristic moss of
the initial phase recolonization of burnt areas. Steer
opined that there is an increase in the level of soil nutrients
due to burning. It results in high concentration of soluble
organic matter and inorganic nutrients. For rapid growth of
Funaria , according to Southern, the concentration of
calcium, nitrogen, potassium and phosphorus must all be
high in the soil.
Gametophyte Phase
Gametophyte phase of Funaria consists of two growth
stages—(i) juvenile stage represented by primary pro-
tonema and (ii) the leafy stage represented by leafy
gametophore.
Calyptra
Capsule
Seta
Leaf
Male
branch Female
Stem branch
Rhizoids
Fig. : Funaria hygrometrica : (A) A female branch of
leafy gametophore with sporophyte, (B) A leafy
gametophore with a male branch and a female
branch with young sporophyte.
Juvenile stage results from the germinating
meiospore. When fully grown it consists of a slender, but
green branching system of filaments called the proto-
nema. The protonema stage in Funaria is only vegetative
and transitory.
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1010
Leafy stage starts as a lateral bud on the protonema.
The buds may develop into an erect leafy stem. The latter
bears numerous rhizoids at its base which anchor it to the
substratum.
Gametophyte plant is erect and measures about an
inch in height with an erect radial stem and spirally
arranged simple leaves. The leaves are more crowded
near the apex where they appear like a rosette though
actually arranged in three rows corresponding to the three
cutting faces when young. This arrangement disap-
pears in the mature parts. Branches arise on the main
stem from extra-axillary parts. At its base, the gameto-
phytic plant bears a much strong and branched rhizoids
which become brown and cable like when mature. Because
of their apparent leaves, stem and rootlike rhizoids the
plant is likely to be mistaken for any small flowering plant
(phanerogams). These structures, however, are neither
homologous nor structurally similar to the leaves, stem and
roots of a phanerogams. But they perform the same func-
tion, and are said to be analogous. Koch called stem as
canloid and leaves phylloids.
Leaf Anatomy
In transverse section (T. S.) the leaf is seen as
several layered thick in the midrib but single-layered in
other regions (i.e., lamina is only one cell in thickness).
Mid rib bears a small central strand of narrow, thin-walled
cells surrounded by a sheath of narrower cells with thicker
walls. The leaf cells are rich in chloroplasts which are
comparatively larger and prominent. The marginal cells are
specialized. They are narrow and thick-walled in contrast
to the rest and afford to the frail moss leaves. The struc-
tures characteristics of the leaves of the vascular plants
are absent in Funaria.
Mid rib
A
Wing
Wing
B
Chloroplast
Mid rib
Fig. : Moss : (A) One ‘leaf’, (B) T. S. of ‘leaf’.
Stem Anatomy
T. S. of the stem of Funaria reveals a simple internal
structure. The cells are arranged in three distinct zones—
(i) the central cylinder (strand), (ii) the cortex and (iii) the
epidermis.
 The epidermis usually consists of a single surface
layer of cells. The cells are small and contain chloroplasts
in the younger portions of the stem. In the mature portions
of stem the epidermal cells become thick-walled and
without chloroplasts.
The cortex surrounds the central cylinder and is com-
posed of undifferentiated, large, thin-walled, parenchyma-
tous cells. Near the periphery of the cortex may be seen
small, isolated patches of thin-walled parenchyma cells
constituting the ‘false leaf traces’.
The central cylinder, which forms the core of the
stem, consists of vertically elongated thin-walled, com-
pactly arranged cells without protoplasm. These cells with
non-lignified walls are now commonly known as hydroids.
The water reaches the base of stem more rapidly by
external capillary channels.
Epidermis
Cortex
Thick
walled cortex
Thin
walled cortex
Conducting strand
A B
Fig. : Moss (A) T. S. of young ‘stem’, (B) T. S. of old ‘stem’.
Reproduction
The leafy gametophore of Funaria reproduces vege-
tatively as well as sexually.
Vegetative reproduction—Funaria reproduces vege-
tatively by means of multiplication of the protonemal stage,
secondary protonema, apospory, bulbils and by bud-like
structures, the gemmae.
The primary protonema breaks into short fragments
by the death of cells at intervals. Each detached fragment
grows into a new protonema which gives rise to new
individual moss plant.
When surrounded by moist air, filamentous proto-
nema may also be formed from any cell of a detached
injured portion of the leaf, stem and rhizoid. Now, it is
known as secondary protonema from which arises the
leafy gametophores as lateral buds.
Gametophore
Secondary protonema
Bud
Bulbil
Rhizoids
Fig. : Funaria hygrometrica : Lower part of the gameto-
phore with some of the rhizoids coming above the
surface of the substratum to form secondary proto-
nema which bears buds. Note also the formation of
a bulbil (tuber) on the rhizoid. (After Luerssen).
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1011
Green protonemal filaments may arise from the
unspecialized cells of the sporogonium. These protonemal
filaments bear lateral buds each of which develops into a
leafy gametophyte. The production of leafy gametophyte
directly from the vegetative cell of sporogonium without the
intervention of spore is known as apospory.
Bulbils are resting buds found on rhizoids. Under
suitable conditions they produce a protonema which bears
a crop of gametophores as lateral buds.
Gemmae, which are available in ‘gemma cup’,
commonly develop from the cells of protonemal branches.
The cells constituting the gemmae are thin walled and
contain chloroplasts. Gemmae, after detachment, under
suitable conditions directly develop into new gameto-
phores.
Sexual reproduction : Funaria reproduces sexually
by means of male and female reproductive structures
known as antheridia and archegonia respectively.
Male branch (Antheridiophore) expands to form a
slightly convex male receptacle with the antheridia closely
packed on it to form a cluster (red spot). The antheridial
cluster with the surrounding perigonial leaves is known as
perigonium. The perigonium surrounds a number of
stalked club-shaped antheridia. Associated with the
antheridia in the cluster are green, hairlike filaments called
paraphyses. Each antheridium emerges from a single
superficial embryonic cell called the antheridial initial.
Antheridia at various stages of development occur in a
single male receptacle which is thus capable of releasing
sperms in succession. The mature antheridium of F.
hygrometrica may be 0·25 mm in length.
Involucral leaves Paraphyses
Antheridium
Androgonial
mass
Capcells
Androcyte
BODY
Jacket
Stalk
Stem
A B
Fig. : Moss : (A) L. S. of antheridial head, (B) L. S. of
one antheridium (young stage).
The archegonia are borne in cluster on the archego-
nial shoot (female branch). Perigonium in this case is not
differentiated. The archegonia are typically flask-shaped,
each consisting of two usual parts—venter and neck. The
venter consists of a double layer of sterile cells enclosing
a cavity known as the venter cavity. In the venter cavity
lies the ventral canal cell (above) and the egg cell (below).
The long neck consists of six rows of neck cells. Each
archegonium develops from a single archegonial initial.
The cover cell in Funaria contributes to the formation of
the archegonial neck and axial row of neck canal cells.
The archegonial cluster with the perichaetial leaves consti-
tutes the perichaetium.
Paraphyses
Archegonia Cover cells
absorb water and nutrients for the better development of
sporophyte from the parent plant. The foot is thus similar
in function to the root of the fern plant.
Seta is a long, reddish brown, stalk-like structure. It is
differentiated into a central strand of small, thin-walled
cells surrounded by thick-walled cuticularized epidermis
and cortex. The cortex gives mechanical strength to bear
the weight of capsule. The central strand acts as conduct-
ing strand. Bopp suggested that seta in Funaria plays an
important role in the photosynthesis of sporophyte.
Epidermis Substomatal
Photosynthetic cavity
tissue

Neck

Neck
canal
cells Cortex Conducting
A strand Stoma
Ventral (medulla) B
canal Stomatal
cell aperture
Ring-shaped
guard cell
Stem Oosphere Stoma

D
Venter Sub-stomatal E
C cavity
A B Fig. : (A–E). Funaria hygrometrica : (A) Transverse sec-
Fig. : Moss : (A) L. S. of archegonial head, (B) One tion seta, (B) Transverse section through apophy-
archegonium. sis, (C) A portion of B magnified to show stoma,
substomatal cavity and photosynthetic tissue, (D)
Fertilization Young stoma in surface view, (E) Mature stoma in
surface view.
Fertilization in Funaria occurs when the plants are wet
Capsule is pear-shaped, variously coloured, highly
with rain or dew as in other bryophytes. In the mature
organized structure. Its upper portion is covered by a
archegonium ready for fertilization, the axial row of cells
conical cap, the calyptra. Externally, capsule shows three
(neck canal cells and the ventral canal cells) except the
distinct regions—apophysis, operculum and theca.
egg, degenerates to form a slimy fluid. The overlapping
perigonial bracts surrounding the terminal antheridial Operculum
Peristome
cluster form a shallow, cup-like structure known as splash
cup. The process of fertilization also stimulates cells of the Annulus
venter wall that divide to form a protective covering called
Rim
the calyptra which covers the capsule till maturity.
Calyptra also acts as transpiration shield around the Columella
immature capsule. Muggoch and Walton suggested that Outer wall
the spreading of sperm vesicle in a thin film of water of spore sac
surface in the cup presents an excellent opportunity for Spores
Trabeculae
antherozoid dispersal by rain drop splash which strikes the
Inner wall
archegonial cluster. Reaching the archegonial cluster the of spore sac
sperms swim to the archegonia. Only one sperm unites Hypodermal
layer
with the egg of archegonium to accomplish fertilization Spongy
after which a zygote develops in a sporophyte. layer

Air space
Sporophyte Phase
The diploid sporophyte is formed from the zygote and
is usually called sporogonium. Its sole function includes
the formation of meiospores and their dispersal. The Apophysis
sporogonium of Funaria is differentiated into foot, seta and
capsule.
Conducting
Foot forms the basal portion of the sporogonium. It is strand
embedded in the tissue of the tip of the leafy female Seta
branch. It functions both as anchorage and an absorbing
organ. The wall of foot consists of transfer cells which Fig. : Moss : L. S. of mature capsule.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1012

 Apophysis is the solid, somewhat swollen, basal
green photosynthetic part of the capsule. The lower part
the axis of the apophysis shows a central strand of thin-
walled elongated cells connected with the similar tissue of
the seta below. On the above side, the axial strand dis-
appears into columella. This axis develops from the
endothecium and it is surrounded by a green spongy
tissue formed from amphithecium. The green spongy
tissue is surrounded by a single compact layer of
epidermis provided with stomata which are connected
with air spaces. Thus, this green spongy tissue acts as
the site of photosynthesis.
The air space within the capsule wall is traversed by
strands of green, elongated cells which are known as
trabeculae. The trabeculae connect the innermost layer of
the capsule wall with the outer wall of the spore sac.
Between the inner and outer walls of spore sac is a cavity
which contains numerous spores. A solid cylinder of pith-
like columella is situated in the centre of theca region.
The terminal obliquely placed cap-like portion of the
capsule is the lid or operculum. The operculum at first is
continuous with the theca region, eventually it becomes
delimited by the appearance of a narrow, circular constric-
tion. Below the constriction radially elongated, thick-walled
cells form a circular rim or diaphragm. The latter consti-
tutes the upper end of the open theca. Above the rim of
the theca, forming the broadest lower part of the opercu-
lum is the annulus consisting of 4-5 layers of cells. The
upper 2 or 3 layers constitute a special ring of modified
cells forming the edge of the detached lid.
Peristome, which lies immediately underneath the
operculum, consists of two sets of long, conical teeth, one
within the other. There are 16 teeth in each set. The peris-
tome teeth close the opening of the spore sac. At maturity
the distended cell walls of annulus and the loosened oper-
culum are shed leaving the peristome teeth exposed. The
tips of the peristome teeth are attached to a small circle of
a few cells. This attachment soon disintegrates and the
outer peristome teeth (exostome), which are hygroscopic,
display jerky movements with changes in humidity. This
condition is favourable for spore dissemination. The
spores, when they are most likely to be carried by the air
currents, are thus liberated in dry weather.
Formation of New Gametophyte
The moss spores are haploid reproductive units with
genetic potential for the production of moss gametophyte.
The spores are formed from the Spore Mother Cells
(SMCs) in tetrad. The diploid nucleus of SMC undegoes
meiotic division to form haploid spores. They are the first
cells of the next (new) gametophyte generation. Under
favourable conditions of moisture, light and temperature,
the liberated spores germinate. The first step of germina-
tion of spores involves imbibition of water. The sequential
steps of spore germinations are : → swelling phase →
spore wall rupture phase → protrusion phase → spore
distension phase.
Each spore of Funaria consists of four layered walls,
the inner one is termed the intine. Following protrusion of
aperture region intine, the spore protoplast adjacent to it
follows suit. The protruding protoplast is covered and thus
protected by protruded intine of the aperture region. This
tubular outgrowth is known as green germ tube. This
outgrowth grows in length and undergoes septation to
form filaments of green cells which grow over the suitable
substratum (soil) and branch leafy. The branched, green-
algae like filament thus formed is the primary protonema.
They are positively phototrophic. Sironwal recognized two
distinct growth phases in the development of primary
protonema; these are chloronema and caulonema
stages. Buds develop on the caulonema give rise to leafy
gametophyte. The caulonema filaments are negatively
phototrophic.
A
Spore B C D
E Bud
Protonema
Rhizoids
F
Fig. : Moss : (A) Spore, (B-C) Germinating spore, (D-E)
Developing protonema, (F) Mature protonema with
gemma and bud.
Systematic Position
Division — Bryophyta
Class — Bryopsida
Subclass — Bryidae
Order — Funariales
Family — Funariaceae
Type — Funaria

1. In Funaria the spores on germi-
nation give rise to—
(A) Primary protonema
(B) Secondary protonema
(C) Sporophyte
(D) All of the above
2. In bryophytes the embryonic
development of zygote takes
place in—
(A) Protonema
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
(B) Columella 4. The leaves on the stem of
(C) Archesporium Funaria are arranged—
(A) Spirally (B) Alternately
(D) Antheridium
(C) Irregularly (D) Circinately
3. The sperms of Funaria move with 5. The leaf-like and root-like struc-
the help of— tures of a moss plant and leaves
(A) A single flagellum and roots of a vascular plant
are—
(B) Two flagella
(A) Analogous structures
(C) Cilia (B) Homologous structures
(D) Pseudopodia (Continued on Page 1023 )

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1013

 Reproduction
All organisms born on this earth show a characteristic
life cycle involving birth, growth maturation, reproduction
and death. Of the processes occurring during such a cycle
reproduction is necessary for continuation of species from
one generation to another. Reproduction is a unique pro-
perty of the living beings which can produce young ones
like themselves after having attained maturity, and can,
thus maintain continuity of life. Reproduction are of two
types— (1) Asexual and (2) Sexual.
1. Asexual Reproduction
Asexual reproduction is of following types—
(i) Agamospermy —In these methods the seed is
formed but without gametic union.
(ii) Vegetative reproduction—In such type of methods
only the vegetative parts of the body are involved for
multiplication.
Agamospermy—It is in the form of vegetative repro-
duction by plants in which seeds are formed without fusion
of gametes. It also includes processes like apogamy and
apospory.
In agamospermy, the seeds possess an embryo
developed not from a diploid zygote but an abnormally
formed diploid egg. In these cases not only the egg but
the entire embryo sac is diploid because it develops
without meiosis from—
(i) a megaspore mother cell (the phenomenon is
called diplospory)
(ii) any cell of the nucellus (this is called apospory)
Another type Parthenogenesis (Gr Parthenos = vir-
gin, genesis = origin) may be defined as the development
of female gamete into a new individual without fertilization.
It is a type of apomixis in which the megaspore mother
cell undergoes the usual meiotic division to form haploid
egg and the embryo develops from egg without fertiliza-
tion.
Beside this, embryos are also produced directly from
the cells of the nucellus. This is called Adventive poly
embryony. It results into the formation of many embryos
in each seed. The commonest example is citrus seed
which contains 2–40 embryos.
Vegetative reproduction—Vegetative propagation
includes reproduction by means of bulbs, bulbils, runners,
suckers and so on. There propagules are formed by the
sporophyte only. Gustafsson (1946) has distinguished
three types of vegetative reproduction in higher plants.
(i) The propagules are formed outside the floral
regions, and the plants are sexually sterile. Fritillaria
unperialis and lilium bulbiferum are typical representative
of this group. They propagate by means of bulbils and
bulblets.
(ii) The propagules are formed on the floral branches
either in addition to the flowers or in place of stem. The
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1014
phenomenon is commonly described as vivipary. Since
this term is also used to refer to situation where sexually
formed seeds germinate on the mother plant (as in Mang-
roves), in the present contest the vegetative vivipary may
be used.
Vegetative vivipary is quite common in grasses
(Deschampasia , Festuca, Poa) and Allium.
2. Sexual Reproduction
The fundamental steps involved in the sexual repro-
duction in all the plants are as follows—
(a) Formation of spores by meiosis in the sporo-
phyte
(b) Formation of gametophytes from spores
(c) Production of gametes in the gametophytes
(d) Fusion of gametes (fertilization) and the restora-
tion of diploid condition
(e) Formation of zygote which may produces embryo,
seed and the new plant.
Important events and structures involved in the
sexual reproduction in angiosperms—
(i) Flowers are the sex organs in angiosperms.
(ii) The androecium and gynoecium are the male
and female reproductive structures respectively.
(iii) As in the plants the sexual reproduction involves
the fusion of male and female gametes.
(iv) The male gametes are produced in pollen grain
and the female in the ovule.
(v) The fusion of male and female gemetes results
in the formation of zygote.
(vi) Zygote develops into embryo within the seed.
(vii) During germination of seed the embryo grows
into a new plant.
(viii) The Endosperm developing within the seed
serve as a food tissue for the developing em-
bryo.
Do You Know
● Rudolph Camerarius (1694) first to describe sexual
reproduction in plants.
● Flowers develop on the peduncle in the axil of bracts.
● The arrangement of flowers on the peduncle is called
anthotaxy.
● N. Grew (1682) was first to point out that flowers are
reproductive organs of plants.
● Stylopodium is the swollen base of style.
Parts of flower—A typical flower is made of calyx,
corolla, androecium and gynoecium. Out of these, calyx
and corolla only help the process of sexual reproduction
but do not directly take part in this process.
Androecium is the male reproductive whorl and it
consists of stamens. Each stamen is made of filament
and anther.
 Androecium developing microspores. Tapetum, therefore, secretes
collection of
stamens
both enzymes and hormones. Tapetum is of two types :
Filament Anther (i) Secretory or glandular—The cells of this type of
long stalk dithecous tapetum remain in contact with the anther wall throughout.
introrse
(ii) Amoeboid or plasmodial tapetum—The cells of this
Stigma type of tapetum separate from the wall and move freely in
bilobed the pollen chamber.
short
2. The pollen chamber—This forms the central cavity

Gynoecium
Corolla
collection of petals, of the anther lobe. The process of microsporogenesis
bright yellow, expanded Style takes place in this region.
above, free or
polypetalous
Ovary Development of Anther
Calyx Bicarpellary, syncarpous,
collection of sepals, bilocular, superior The development of an anther is eusporangiate
green, polysepalous axile placentation (develops from a group of cells). A young anther consists
Receptacle
Base of flower on which
of a homogenous mass of meristematic cells surrounded
Pedicel floral organs are arranged, by an epidermis. As an anther grows, it becomes slightly
stalk of flower also called thalamus four–lobed. In each lobe, commonly a row of hypoder-
Fig. : L. S. of a typical flower mal archesporial cells is differentiated which form the
archesporium of the anther.
Gynoecium is the female reproductive whorl and is Each archesporial initial divides into an outer primary
made of ovary, style and stigma. parietal cell and an inner primary sporogenous cell.
The primary parietal cell divides to form 3–5 wall
Anther, Microsporogenesis and the layers, i.e., endothecium, middle layers and tapetum.
Microspore The primary sporogenous cells divide to produce a mass
of sporogenous cells or microsporocytes. The sporoge-
Structure of anther—A mature anther is made of the
nous cells undergo a few mitotic divisions simultaneously
wall and the pollen chamber.
with the growth of anther. These derivatives function as
1. Wall of the anther—The anther wall consists of microspore mother cells.
four layers. These are epidermis, endothecium, middle
Epidermis Wall layers
layers and tapetum. Sporogenous cell
(a) Epidermis—This is the outermost layer. It is only Archesporial
initial
one cell in thickness.
A
(b) Endothecium—This layer is situated just below
the epidermis. It is a single layer of radially elongated
cells. These cells are characterised by fibrous thickenings
which help in the dehiscence of anther. In between these B
cells, a few cells without thickenings are also present.
Primary parietal cell
These thin walled cells collectively form the stomium. D
Primary sporogenous cell
(c) Middle layers—Three to four layers of thin walled C Microspore mother cell
cells situated just below the endothecium are known as
middle layers. In mature anther, these layers generally
disintegrate.
Epidermis
Connective Endothecium
Middle layers Epidermis
Tapetum Endothelium
Middle layers Tapetum
E
Fig. : (A-E) Different stages of development of anther
Microsporogenesis
Stomium The microspore mother cells (MMC) also called as
pollen mother cells (PMC) which undergoes meiosis to
Pollen grains give rise to tetrads of four haploid pollen grains. Wall
formation (Cytokinesis) during microsporogenesis is
successive or simultaneous.
(i) Successive type—Each nuclear division during
Fig. : T. S. of a mature dithecous anther
microsporogenesis is followed by wall formation resulting
(d) Tapetum—This is the innermost layer of the wall. in the formation of isobilateral tetrads as found in mono-
The cells are multinucleate. These provide nutrition to the cotyledons.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1015

 (ii) Simultaneous type—Walls are laid down simul- Pollen Kit
taneously after both the division of microspore mother cell It is found on the outer side of the mature pollen
nucleus are over. This results in the formation of tetrahed- grains of many insect pollinated flowers. It mainly consists
ral tetrads commonly found in dicots. In some cases the of lipids and carotinoids, the latter being responsible for
tetrads may be linear, T shaped or decussate type. yellow or orange colour of the pollen.
The pollen kit acts as insect attractant and adherent
s to the insect body. It helps in sporophytic incompatibility
ou
ane and protects the pollen against the damaging effects of
t
ul e
m typ UV-radiations.
Si

Microspore mother cell Microgametogenesis

The haploid pollen grain represents the first stage of
Su male gametophyte. A pollen grain may be referred to as
cc
e
typ ssiv male gametophyte or partially developed male gameto-
e e phyte or male gamete. Study of pollen grains is called a
Palynology.
Fig. : Microsporogenesis and two types of cytokinesis Exine has one or more weak spots known as germ
The microspores soon separate out but in some pores through which intine comes out in the form of wall
cases adhere in tetrads to form the compound pollen of pollen tube.
grains, e.g., in Drinys Drosera etc. The nucleus of the pollen grain divides mitotically to
form a vegetative nucleus (tube nucleus) and a generative
In Asclepiadaceae all microspores (pollen grain) of a nucleus. The latter gets surrounded by cytoplasm to
sporangium cohere in a single mass called pollinium. become generative cell. At this stage, pollen grain is 2-
celled-a large vegetative cell and a small lenticular
generative cell. The pollen grain may be discharged from
the anther at this 2-celled stage.
However, in some plants generative cell divides
further to give rise to two male gametes before the pollen
Tetrahedral Isobilateral Decussate T-Shaped Linear grains are shed. These pollen grains are, thus, 3-celled at
Fig. : Microscopic Tetrads the time of shedding.
Exine Intine Vegetative
cell
Window
● In Aristolochia elegans all the five types of tetrads are
present.
● In some plants e.g., Mimosa, 6–8 pollen grains stick A B
C
together to form compound pollen grains. Vacuole
Nucleus Generative
● In plants e.g., Malva and Althea , 10–14 pollen tubes Cytoplasm cell Male gametes
arise from the same pollen grain, but only one is functio-
nal. Pollen Male Vegetative
tube gametes nucleus
● The pollen grains of many plants including Parthenium
hysterophorus , Amaranthus spinosus, Sorghum vulgare,
Chenopodium and Prosopis juliflora etc. are allergic.
● Pollen of myosotis alpestris are smallest (2·5–3·5 μ) but
that of mirabilisjalapa are largest (250 μ). D
● About 80% pollen are yellow in colour due to the Fig. : Different stages of microgametogenesis
presence of flavonoids and carotenoids. In most of the plants, 3-celled condition is formed after
pollen grain is shed. The liberated pollen grain germinates
Structure of Microspore on the stigma and produces a pollen tube. The generative
The wall of microspore is comprised of outer exine cell divides inside the pollen tube to form two male game-
and inner intine. The exine is made of sporopollenin tes.
while intine is pectocellulosic.
Pollination
Sporopollenin is highly resistant to microbes and che-
mical decomposition. Therefore pollen grains are well Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from
preserved during fossilization. anthers to the stigma (within the same flower or from
one flower to another).
In the exine there are 1-3 germ pores in dicots and
germinal furrows in monocots. Types of Pollination
The wall of pollen grain surrounds an uninucleate (a) Self-Pollination (autogamy)—Transfer of pollen
mass of protoplasm. grains within the same flower.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1016

 (b) Cross-Pollination (allogamy)—Transfer of pollen
grains from one flower to another.
(i) Xenogamy—Transfer of pollen grains from one
plant to another of the same species.
(ii) Geitonogamy—Transfer of pollen grains from one
flower to another on the same plant. It is also called gene-
tically self pollination.
(iii) Hybridism—Transfer of pollen grains from one
plant to another related allied species.
Advantages of Cross Pollination
(a) Progeny of offsprings are healthier.
(b) Seeds are more in number and viable (living
embryo germinates quickly).
(c) Adaptability is better.
(d) New varieties may be produced.
Adaptations for Self Pollination
(a) Homogamy—Anthers and stigmas of a flower
mature at the same time.
(b) Cleistogamy—Flowers remain closed. They never
open throughout their life span e.g., groundnut.
Cross pollination is always brought about by external
agents like insects, wind, water and animals.
Entomophily is pollination by insects. The pollen
grains are rough and sticky. Insects are attracted by nec-
tar / scent / colour. Some common insects which help in
pollination are Bees (commonest), butterflies and moths.
Anemophily—Pollination by wind; Flowers are not
coloured; Pollen grains are produced in large amounts.
Style and stigma are hairy (feathery) e.g., Grasses,
wheat, maize, rice, barley and palms.
Hydrophily—Pollination by water currents e.g.,
Vallisneria, Hydrilla, Ceratophyllum. Pollen grains are
sticky.
Zoophily—Pollination by animals. e.g. in Bombax
(silk cotton) by birds (ornithophily); in Anthocephalous by
bats (Cheiropterophily); in Arisaema by Snakes—
(Ophiophily); in Colocasia by snails (Malacophily).
Adaptations for Cross Pollination
(a) Dicliny (unisexuality)—e.g. Palms, cucumber,
pumpkin.
(b) Self Sterility—e.g. Tea, Malva, Orchids.
(c) Dichogamy—Anthers and stigma of a flower
mature at different times.
(i) Protandry—Anthers mature earlier than the
stigmas of the same flower. e.g. Cotton.
(ii) Protogyny—Stigma matures earlier than the
anthers of the same flowers. e.g. Ficus.
(d) Heterostyly—Stamens, style and stigma are diffe-
rent heights.
Plants are dimorphic. e.g. Oxalis, Primula, Linum,
Oldenlandia.
(e) Herkogamy—A natural barrier develops between
anthers and stigma to check self-pollination. e.g. Calot-
ropis.
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1017
Pollination is essential for fertilization and for fruit and
seed formation.
Commonly, the pollen tube enters the ovule through
micropyle (Porogamy). Sometimes, it enters through cha-
laza (Chalazogamy). e.g. Causarina; or through base of
ovule or through funicle or integuments (mesogamy).
Irrespective of the place of entry of pollen tube into
the ovule, the tube invariably enters the embryo sac at
micropylar end in between the egg cell and the syner-
gids. Entry of pollen tube in the embryo sac is chemo-
tropic. Micropyle and synergids secrete some chemicals.
Ovule, Megasporogenesis and the
Megaspore
The Ovule— The process of megasporogenesis, i.e.,
the formation of megaspores from megaspore mother cell
takes place in ovule. Ovule is considered to be an integu-
mented megasporangium. The ovules are situated inside
the ovary, attached to a special tissue called placenta.
1. Structure of ovule—A fully mature ovule consists
of the stalk and the body. The stalk is called funicle. One
end of the funicle is attached to placenta and the other
end to the body of the ovule. The point of attachement of
funicle with the body is called hilum. Funicle sometimes
extends up to the base of ovule (i.e., chalaza). The ridge
thus formed is called raphe.
Chalaza
Raphe
Embryo sac
Hilum
Integuments
Micropyle
Funicle
Fig. : An Organised Ovule
The body of the ovule shows two ends—the basal
end, often called the chalaza and the upper end is called
the micropylar end. The main body of the ovule is cove-
red with one or two envelope called integuments. These
leave an opening at the top of the ovule called micropyle.
The integuments enclose a large parenchymatous tissue
known as nucellus. In the centre of the nucellus is
situated a female gametophyte known as embryo sac.
Following are some of the conditions seen in ovule in
relation to integuments—
(a) Unitegmic—Ovule with a single integument; e.g.,
sympetalous or gamopetalous dicotyledons.
(b) Bitegmic—Ovule with two integuments as in poly -
petalous (archichlamydeae) dicotyledons and monocoty-
ledons.
(c) Aril—This is a collar-like outgrowth from the base
of the ovule and forms third integument. Aril is found in
litchi, nutmeg, etc.
 In angiosperms ovules are of following types— 1. Tenuinucellate ovule—In this condition, the arc-
Orthrotropous—The micropyle, chalaza and funicle hesporial initial directly behaves as megaspore mother
are in straight line. This is most primitive type, e.g., Pipe- Nucellar epidermis Parietal
raceae. tissue
Megaspore
Anatropous—The ovule turns at 180° angle. It is mother cell
called resupination. Thus, in this type micropyle and
funicle are closer, e.g., 82% of angiospermic families.
Hemianatropous—The ovule turns at 90° angle upon
the funicle, e.g., Ranunculus .
Amphitropous—The body of ovule itself rotates so
that nucellus becomes horse shoe shaped, e.g., Lemna.
Campylotropous—Ovule is bend so micropyle and
chalaza do not lie in one line, e.g., some crucifers, gram, A B
etc.
Circinotropous—Ovule turns at more than 360° Fig. : (A-B) Nucellus and the ovule : (A) Tenuinucellate ovule,
(B) Crassinucellate ovule
angle, e.g., Opuntia .
cell. Hence, in this case primary parietal cell is not formed
and as such there is little or no nucellar tissue between
the megaspore mother cell and nucellar epidermis. These
ovules are called tenuinucellate and are found in gamope-
talous dicotyledons with unitegmic ovules.
2. Crassinucellate ovule—The division of the arche-
sporial initial into primary parietal cell and primary sporo-
genous cell results in the formation of crassinucellate
A ovule. The primary parietal cell, thus formed, divides to
B C
Orthotropous Anatropous
give rise to a large amount of nucellar tissue between
Campylotropous
primary sporogenous cell and nucellar epidermis. Such
ovules occur in polypetalous dicotyledons with bitegmic
ovules.
The megaspore mother cell (megasporocyte) divides
meiotically to form a linear tetrad of four haploid mega-
spores. Occasionally, T-shaped or inverted T-shaped (⊥)
tetrads are also formed. Megaspore is the first cell of
female gametophyte.
Of the linear tetrad, three megaspores towards the
micropyle degenerate. The lowermost, i.e., the chalazal
D E
F megaspore enlarges and remains functional. It later pro-
Hemiantropous Amphitropous
Circinotropous duces an embryo sac.
Fig. : Different types of Ovule Archesporial Primary parietal cell
initial
Primary
● In Asphodelus and Litchi the third integument is present sporogenous
in the form of aril. cell
● In castor ( Riccinus communis) the integument any out-
growth is present at micropylar end called caruncle. It
helps in seed germination and seed dispersal.
● Ategmic ovules are without any integument e.g., loran-
thaceae and santalaceae.
Nucellus
● Chloroplast are present in the cells of the outer integu- A B C
ment in several monocotyledons such as Gladiolus,
Lilium, Amaryllis Moringa. Degenerating
● In Nerine , Nelumbium , Aquilegia, Canna etc. stomata Parietal Megaspore megaspores
tissue mother Functional
have been reported in the outer integument, which megaspore
cell
perhaps helps in exchange of gases.

Megasporogenesis
The process begins with the differentiation of arches-
porial initial in the nucellar hypodermis. Archesporial
initial either acts directly as a megaspore mother cell or
divides periclinally into an outer primary parietal cell and D E
the inner primary sporogenous cell. Accordingly, follow- F
ing two conditions are found— Fig. : (A-F) Different stages of megasporogenesis

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1018


Worth to Remember
● Polygonum type of embryo sac is most simple, most
primitive and normal type of embryo sac.
● In an embryo sac, all the cells are haploid except the
secondary nucleus (2n).
● In majority of angiosperms, the chalazal megaspore is
functional. In casuarina, all the four megaspores are
functional.
● Synergids, are also known as helpers.
● In polygonum type of embryo sac three antipodals but in
Zea mays 20, Sasa paniculata 300 antipodals have re-
ported.
● Antipodals are altogether absent in Oenothera type of
embryo sac.
Megagametogenesis and Female
Gametophyte
The process of development of female gametophyte
or embryo sac from megaspore is called megagame-
togenesis.
Development of Female Gametophyte
Megaspore is the first cell of female gametophyte.
Female gametophyte may be monosporic, bisporic or
tetrasporic depending upon whether respectively one,
two or all the four megaspores formed during megaspo-
rogenesis take part in their development.
Out of the three, the monosporic type of female game-
tophytes (embryo sacs) are very common and are reported
in 70% of the angiosperms. It was studied for the first time
by Strassberger (1879) in a plant called polygonum dive-
ricatum hence it is also called as Polygonum type.
Development of Embryo Sac (Female Gameto-
phyte)
1. Monosporic type—Polygonum is the best example
of monosporic type embryo, which develops from the
lower most megaspores (chalazal megaspore) of the
megaspore tetrads formed during megasporogenesis.
The other three non-functional megaspores degene-
rate. The nucleus of functional megaspore divides by
three successive mitotic divisions to form eight nuclei of
which four are at the micropylar end and the other four at
the chalazal end.
Degenerating megaspores
Functional
megaspore
A Fig. : Detailed structure of egg apparatus
B C D lops from four megaspore nuclei.
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1019
Synergids
Egg Beak
Polar nuclei
Antipodals
E F
Fig. : Development of monosporic embryo sac (female
gametophyte) : (A-E) Successive stages of develop-
ment, (F) Organised embryo sac
Out of 4 nuclei at each pole one migrates to the
center and functions as polar nuclei which fuse together
just before fertilization to form a secondary nucleus.
Three nuclei towards the micropylar end form and egg
apparatus (central egg cell and two lateral synergids) and
the other three towards the chalazal end form three
antipodal cells which are vestigial.
Mature embryo sac—The embryo sac is 7 celled and
8 nucleated i.e.—
(a) 3 cells at micropylar end form egg apparatus.
One is egg cell and two are synergids or coope-
rative cells or potential egg.
(b) 3 cells at chalazal end form antipodals or vege-
tative cells of gametophyte.
(c) Two nuclei (one from each pole) in the centre
form central cell. These two nuclei are called
polar nuclei.
Vacuole Filiform apparatus
Beak
Nucleus
Nucleus
Vacuole
Synergid
Egg
As the embryo sac matures these polar nuclei get
fused to form a secondary nucleus.
Rarely embryo sac develops haustorium which ab-
sorbs food from nucellus, integument and placental tissue,
e.g., Loranthus. etc.
2. Bisporic embryo sac—In this type two mega-
spore nuclei take part in embryo sac formation.
3. Tetrasporic embryo sac—This embryo sac deve-
 Fertilization
Pollen tube Pollen grain
The union of male and female gametes during sexual
reproduction is called fertilization. In angiosperms male
gametes are formed in the pollen tube and female gamete Canal
Pollen
is formed in the embryosac. Fertilization is a very lengthy tube
Secretory
process involving many step-wise changes. zone
Papilla Stylar
The Growth of Pollen Tube Stylar
tissue
tissue

Pollen grains germinate to form pollen tubes when
they fall on compatible stigma. Pollen tubes emerge
through the apertures of the sporoderm.
Exine
Hollow style Solid style
Pollen tubes always grow in the direction of the ovary
and according to Strasburger (1887) the path of pollen
tubes is guided by a secretion of the ovule.

Intine Entry of Pollen Tube into the Ovule

The pollen tube carrying the two male gametes
Nucleus
reaches the ovule. It may enter the ovule in any one of the
following three ways—
Fig. : Germination of Pollen Grain (1) Porogamy—Pollen tube enters the ovule through
micropyle. It is the commonest type, e.g., Ottelia.
After germination of pollen grains pollen tubes grow
along the surface of the stigmatic papillae or through the
cellulose-peptic layer of their walls. After reaching the
base of the papillae pollen tubes grow through the inter-
cellular spaces of the stigmatic tissues. Pollen tubes then
pass to the style. Styles are of two main types, viz., hollow
and solid.

Pollen grain Micropyle

Stigma Pollen tube

Pollen tube
(2) Chalazogamy—Pollen tube enters the ovule
through chalaza, e.g., Casuarina.
Chalazal
end

Style

Ovary

Ovule (3) Mesogamy—Pollen tube enters the ovule laterally

through the integuments or through funicle, e.g., Cucurbita .

Fig. : Growth of Pollen Tube in Lantana camara

In case of hollow style the pollen tubes grow along
the surface of the stylar canal. In case of solid style pollen
Integuments
tubes grow through specialised conducting tissues. Cells
lining the stylar canal are secretory in nature.
These cells secrete proteins, carbohydrates and
lipids (Tilton and Horner, 1980).

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1020

 The entry of pollen tubes into the ovule is guided by a
chemotropic stimulus. The filiform apparatus (these are
finger-like projections of wall in the cytoplasm of syner-
gids; each projection is provided with packed microfibrils,
a non-fibrillar sheath and is rich in polysaccharides) is
considered as the source of the secretion. But recent
investigations have revealed the absence of chemotropic
stimulus. The following points have been raised against
the suggestion of filiform apparatus as the source of the
stimulus—
(i) Pollen tubes may even enter such ovules which
have aborted before the formation of embryosac,
(ii) Pollen tubes may enter such ovules in which
embryo sac has been fertilized,
(iii) Pollen tubes may also enter such ovules in which
embryo sac lacks a synergid.
Chao (1972) has carried out a detailed cytological
investigation of Paspalum orbiculare and demonstrated
that the distal part of the integuments, by dissolution of its
cells secretes a mucilagenous substance into the
micropyle which provides a way of least resistance for the
pollen tube and guides it towards its ultimate destination.
The mucilagenous secretion is largely a water soluble
carbohydrate and it aids the pollen tube growth both
mechanically as well as chemotropically.
Again a special structure which facilitates the entry of
pollen tube into the ovule is the obturator. Although some
workers are of the opinion that it may have associated
with the nutrition of pollen tubes. It forms a sort of bridge
for the pollen tube to reach the ovule. There are several
types of obturators. In Acanthaceae, Anacardiaceae and
Lamiaceae obturator is formed by the swelling of funicle.
Obturators
Fig. : Ovule of Tetragonia
In Tetragonia glandular epidermal hairs at the base of the
funicle represent obturator. After fertilization the obturator
shrinks and disappears.
In Loranthaceae the proper ovule-like structure is
absent. Here the embryosac undergoes remarkable
elongation and meets the pollen tube at some point in the
stylar canal.
Entry of Pollen Tube into Embryosac
Pollen tube finally enters the embryosac and it enters
only through the micropylar end. The following three
modes of pollen tube entry are known to occur—
(i) Entry of pollen tube between the egg and one of
the synergids,
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1021
(ii) Entry of pollen tube in between the walls of the
embryosac and one of the synergids,
(iii) Entry of pollen tube directly into one of the
synergids.
Electron microscopic studies have conclusively
proved that pollen tubes enter directly into one of the
synergids through the filiform apparatus. The penetrated
synergid starts disintegration and the other synergid
remains unaffected.
The Act of Fertilization
There are two fertilizations in the embryosac of
angiosperms. These are—
(a) Syngamy or zygotic fertilization—The contents
of the pollen tube are discharged into the penetrated
synergid. Usually pollen tubes do not grow beyond the
synergids but in some plants (e.g. , Plumbago) pollen
tube penetrates the egg wall. The pollen tube discharge
contains two sperms, single vegetative nucleus and a fair
amount of cytoplasm. Due to disorganisation of the
penetrated synergid, sperms are released from the
synergid. During this period two darkly stained bodies are
observed in the embryosac. These are called X-bodies
and are interpreted as the remains of the synergid
nucleus and the vegetative nucleus of the pollen tube
(Jensen, 1972; Russell, 1982).
The mode of sperm transfer is a matter of specula-
tion. According to Jensen (1972), one of the sperms
Fig. : (A–C) The Double Fertilization
comes in contact to the plasma membrane of the egg cell.
Due to disintegration of the plasma membrane, nucleus of
the sperm enters the egg. The next event is syngamy,
i.e. , the union of sperm and egg nuclei. The resulting
diploid nucleus produces the embryo.
Three different types of syngamy are reported in
angiosperms. These are as follows—
Type 1 : Premitotic—The sperm nucleus fuses
immediately on coming in contact with
the egg nucleus, and the zygote
nucleus divides subsequently, e.g.,
Poaceae, Asteraceae.
 Type 2 : Post mitotic—The sperm nucleus and
the egg nucleus remain in contact for a
while and fuse only after both the nuclei
have entered into divisions, e.g., Lilium.
Type 3 : Intermediate—The sperm nucleus fuses
with the egg nucleus after completing its
previous mitosis, e.g., Impatiens.
(b) Vegetative fertilization—The second male
gamete fuses with two haploid polar nuclei or diploid
secondary nucleus (if two polar nuclei fuse to form
Nawaschin (1898) for the first time reported this
phenomenon and it is a characteristic feature of angio-
sperms.
However, in angiosperms the double fertilization may
sometimes occur in a more specialised way. When an
embryosac receives two pollen tubes instead of one, the
single sperm nucleus from one tube may fuse with the
egg nucleus and the polar nucleus may receive sperm
nucleus from another pollen tube. This phenomenon is
termed as heterofertilization.

Schematic Representation of the Process of Fertilization

FIRST MALE GAMETE

(n)

× SYNGAMY ZYGOTE (2n)

Egg (n)

SECOND MALE GAMETE

(n)
PRIMARY ENDOSPERM
× TRIPLE FUSION NUCLEUS (3n)

POLAR NUCLEI (n, n)

secondary nucleus). As a result, a triploid primary endo-
sperm nucleus is produced from which the endosperm
is developed.
Since, there are two fertilizations in the same
embryosac, it is described as double fertilization. S. G.
The ultimate aim of fertilization in plants is to form
seeds which are essential for their survival on mother
earth. Although in some higher plants the traditional ferti-
lization processes are lacking. In these plants the procrea-
tion takes place through a process called apomixis.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. A plant species that has, on each 4. Anther is typically— (B) A cluster of pollen grains be-
individual plant, flowers with car- (A) Tetrasporangiate longing to a chamber of mi-
pel is— (B) Bisporangiate crosporangium
(A) Perfect (C) Trisporangiate (C) Group of four pollen grains
(B) Imperfect (D) Monosporangiate derived from a single mother
(C) Monoecious 5. Tapetal cells are— cell
(D) Dioecious (A) Uninucleate (D) Two pollen tetrads attached
(B) Binucleate by a small stalk
2. An anther produces—
(C) Multinucleate 8. Abundant occurrence of fossili-
(A) Haploid gametes
(D) Enucleate sed pollen grains is due to resis-
(B) Diploid gametes
6. Compound pollen grains occur tant—
(C) Haploid spores
in— (A) Ligno cellulose
(D) Diploid spores (A) Calotropis or Asclepias
(B) Sporopollenin
3. Author of an introduction to the (B) Orchids
embryology of angiosperm is— (C) Pectocellulose
(C) Juncus or Cryptostegia
(A) P. Maheshwari (D) Brassica (D) Pectolignin
(B) S. R. Kashyap 7. A pollinium consists of— 9. Polar nuclei are located in—
(C) T. S. Sadasivan (A) A bag of pollen grain formed (A) Pollen tube
(D) K. C. Mehta in a microsporangium (B) Embryo sac

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1022

 (C) Ovule (C) Stigma receptors 27. Which one of the following acts
(D) Thalamus (D) Meiotic division of the pri- as a passage for a pollen tube to
mary mother cell reach ovary to fertilize the egg ?
10. Ubisch bodies are connected with
19. The transfer of pollen grains from (A) Placenta (B) Ovule
the formation of—
anthers to the stigma is known (C) Style (D) Stigma
(A) Sporopollenin
as pollination; however, when a 28. The obturator is an outgrowth of
(B) Intine and pollen kit
male gamete fuses with a female placenta or funiculus. It helps
(C) Exine gamete the process is termed
(D) Pollen kit and Pollinia in—
as— (A) Formation of ovule
11. Process of fusion between male (A) Cross-pollination (B) Entry of water into seed
and egg nuclei is— (B) Autogamy (C) Pollination
(A) Syngamy (C) Dichogamy (D) Entry of pollen tube into
(B) Double fertilization (D) Fertilization ovule
(C) Conjugation 20. On fertilization secondary nucleus
(D) Triple fusion ANSWERS
forms—
12. Female gamete of angiosperms (A) Endosperm (B) Seed
is represented by— (C) Embryo (D) Cotyledons
(A) Oospore (B) Carpel 21. When the stigma matures before
(C) Egg (D) Pollen grain the anthers, it is known as—
13. A typical embryo sac possesses– (A) Protandry (B) Heterostyly
(A) Egg, synergids and secon- (C) Protogyny (D) Dicliny
●●●
dary cell 22. The sperm nucleus and the egg
(B) Egg, synergid, central cell nucleus remain in contact for a (Continued from Page 1013 )
and polar nuclei while and fuse only after both the (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Egg, synergids, polar nuclei nuclei have entered into divi- (D) Vestigial organs
and antipodals sions. This type of syngamy is
termed as— 6. The antheridia in Funaria formed
(D) Egg, synergids and secon-
(A) Premitotic at the apex of male shoot are in—
dary wall
(B) Postmitotic (A) Groups of many
14. Meiosis is best seen in— (B) Groups of two
(C) Intermediate
(A) Gamete (D) None of the above (C) Solitary form
(B) Microsporangium (D) Shaped like open book
23. Secondary nucleus formed by the
(C) Pollen grain 7. The middle sterile part of the
fusion of two polar nuclei is also
(D) Anther wall capsule of Funaria is—
called—
15. Fertilization involving carring of (A) Coenocyte (A) Protocorn
male gametes by pollen tube is— (B) Vegetative nucleus (B) Protonema
(A) Porogamy (C) Tube nucleus (C) Columella
(B) Siphonogamy (D) Definitive nucleus (D) All of the above
(C) Chalazogamy 24. The process of double fertiliza- 8. The antherozoids of Funaria are
(D) Syngonogamy tion was discovered by— usually—
(A) Nawaschin (A) Nonciliated (B) Biciliated
16. Pollen tube was discovered in
(B) Robert Hook (C) Multiciliated (D) Uniciliated
1824 by an Italian mathematician
named— (C) Robert Koch 9. Buds in Funaria give rise to—
(A) Robert Brown (D) Darlington (A) Sporophyte
(B) A. Takhtajan 25. The main embryo develops by the (B) Leafy gametophyte
(C) G. B. Amlci fusion of one of male gametes (C) Spore tetrad
with— (D) All of the above
(D) T. S. Eliot
(A) Egg 10. The first step in germination of
17. Parthenogenesis is defined in the (B) One of the synergids Funaria spore is—
development of— (C) Two polar nuclei of the (A) Protrusion phase
(A) Egg without fertilization embryo sac (B) Spore wall rupture phase
(B) Synergid without fertilization (D) One of the nuclei of the (C) Spore distension phase
(C) Fruit without fertilization secondary nuclei
(D) Swelling phase (Imbibition)
(D) Fruit without pollination
26. The point where the funicle is
18. Anthesis is— attached to the body of the ovule ANSWERS
(A) Development of anther is called—
(B) Period of opening of the flo- (A) Micropyle (B) Chalaza
wer buds (C) Hilum (D) Node ●●●

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1023


1. Chlorophyll-e is found in—
(A) All brown algae
(B) Diatoms
(C) Vaucheria
(D) None of the above
2. The stroma of chloroplasts con-
tains—
(A) DNA
(B) Ribosomes
(C) Enzymes
(D) All of the above
3. Natural selection is defined as
occurring when the environment
causes—
(A) Differential mortality
(B) Assortative mating
(C) The bottleneck effect
(D) Rapid gene flow
4. The embryo of Helianthus annuus
bears—
(A) Many cotyledons
(B) Three cotyledons
(C) Two cotyledons
(D) One cotyledon
5. The most complex cellular struc-
tures are found in—
(A) Protozoa (B) Bacteria
(C) Fungi (D) Algae
6. How many bases of nucleotide
triphosphate are joined to form
DNA polynucleotide chain ?
(A) Three (B) Two
(C) One (D) None of these
7. Which of these types of cells is
most likely to divide ?
(A) Epidermis
(B) Parenchyma
(C) Xylem
(D) Meristem
8. Which of the following enzymes
joins DNA fragments ?
(A) Topoisomerase
(B) DNA ligase
(C) DNA polymerase
(D) DNA gyrase
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1024
9. Cleavage polyembryony is found
in—
(A) Cycas
(B) Rhizophora
(C) Pinus
(D) All of the above
10. Viral genes are made up of—
(A) DNA only
(B) RNA only
(C) Either DNA or RNA
(D) Either proteins or nucleic
acids
11. The ‘genic balance’ theory was
proposed by—
(A) Sutton and Boveri
(B) Bateson and Punnett
(C) Watson and Crick
(D) Bridges
12. Genes not located within the
nucleus are almost always found
in the—
(A) Cell membrane
(B) Cytoskeleton
(C) Cytosol
(D) Organelles
13. The root of the plants—
(A) Goes down
(B) Forms intricate system in the
soil
(C) Extensive system in the soil
(D) Can perform all of the above
14. Sucrose, a common table sugar,
is composed of—
(A) Fructose + galactose
(B) Glucose + fructose
(C) Glucose + galactose
(D) Fructose + fructose
15. Role of mutation in evolution is—
(A) Genetic drift
(B) Reproductive isolation
(C) Genetic variation
(D) None of the above
16. In recombinant DNA (r DNA) tech-
nology, a plasmid vector must be
cleaved by—
(A) Modified DNA ligase
(B) The same enzyme that
cleaves the donor gene
(C) Four separate enzymes
(D) A heated alkaline solution
17. Bud scales are found in—
(A) Jack fruit
(B) Ficus
(C) Magnolia
(D) All of the above
18. The sporangia of a conifer are
located on the—
(A) Tips of the needle
(B) Axils of the branches
(C) Scales of the cones
(D) Bases of the needles
19. The phenomenon of male ( O→)
sterility in plants is found to be
controlled—
(A) By plasmagenes only
(B) By nuclear genes only
(C) Either by plasmagenes or by
nuclear genes
(D) None of the above
20. Chromosomes with median
centromere and equal arms are
called—
(A) Metacentric
(B) Telocentric
(C) Acrocentric
(D) Submetacentric
21. Pollination by bat is called—
(A) Ornithophily
(B) Malcophily
(C) Chiropteriphily
(D) Entomophily
22. In all microbial cells the end-
products of biosynthesis is—
(A) Proteins
(B) Nucleic acids
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
23. The pollinia are found in—
(A) Vallisneria, China-rose and
Guava
(B) Asclepias
(C) Calotropis procera
(D) Both (B) and (C)
24. The mean annual temperature for
tropical rain forest is—
(A) 23—27°C (B) 80—90°C
(C) 0—5°C (D) 5—15°C
25. The movement of substance
within a plant, i.e., from one part
to another, is mainly by—
(A) Turgidity
(B) Plasmolysis
 (C) Diffusion pressure deficit
(D) Diffusion
26. Heteropolysaccharide contains—
(A) Only two monosaccharide
units
(B) No any monosaccharide unit
(C) Only one monosaccharide
unit
(D) Two or more different mono-
saccharide units
27. NO2 is converted into NO 3 with
the help of bacteria—
(A) Nitrobacter
(B) Nitrosomonas
(C) Nitrosococcus
(D) All of the above
28. Artocarpus integrifolia belongs to
fruit—
(A) Berry (B) Pome
(C) Sorosis (D) Syconus
29. Dermatogen is a tissue formed by
the apical meristem which deve-
lops into—
(A) Endodermis (B) Pericycle
(C) Epidermis (D) Stele
30. The term ‘ATP’ was coined by—
(A) F. Lipmann
(B) F. A. Janssen
(C) H. J. Muller
(D) J. D. Watson
31. Scales leaves are also called—
(A) Sporophylls (B) Prophylls
(C) Cataphylls (D) Hypsophylls
32. If at the end of meiosis, the four
daughter cells have four chromo-
somes, how many chromosomes
were in the mother cell ?
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 2 (D) 32
33. Which of the following is correct
regarding photosynthesis ?
(A) It produces oxygen
(B) Provides food either directly
or indirectly for most living
things
(C) Provided energy to create
today’s fossil fuels
(D) All of the above
34. Which of the following genera
exhibits an alternation of genera-
tions with haploid and diploid
multicellular phases ?
(A) Volvox
(B) Ulva
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1025
(C) Ulothrix 43. The sporophyta of fern consists
(D) Chlamydomonas of—
(A) Leaf (B) Stem
35. The causal agent of ‘red rot of
sugarcane’ is— (C) Root (D) All of these
(A) Xanthomonas citri 44. If a new allele suddenly becomes
(B) Colletotrichum falcatum very abundant in a population,
(C) Ustilago maydis most likely it is—
(A) Flowing with emigrants
(D) All of the above
(B) A product of assortative
36. Water acts as excellent solvent mating
and helps in the uptake and dis- (C) Mutating rapidly
tribution of mineral requirements
(D) Strongly selected for
and other solutes for—
(A) Growth 45. Spoilage of oil can be detected by
(B) Development which fatty acid ?
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Oleic acid
(D) None of the above (B) Linoleic acid
37. In rainy season, the surface of the (C) Linolenic acid
earth becomes slipping due to (D) Erucic acid
growth of— 46. In ecosystem, energy enters
(A) Fungi (B) Algae through—
(C) Mosses (D) Bacteria (A) Herbivores
38. Most fossils are found in— (B) Carnivores
(A) Granite (C) Omnivores
(B) Sedimentary rocks (D) None of the above
(C) Lava flows
47. What is the another term for
(D) Black soil
adaptive evolution ?
39. The effect of interspecific com- (A) Biopoiesis
petition on niches is to make (B) Microevolution
them—
(C) Population
(A) Smaller
(D) Geographic barrier
(B) Change location
(C) Larger 48. Anemophily, wind-pollination, is
found in—
(D) More triangular
(A) Poplar (B) Willow
40. Each molecule of FADH pro-
(C) Oak (D) All of these
duces—
(A) Six molecules of ATP 49. Compound capitulum is found
(B) Four molecules of ATP in—
(A) Echinops echinata
(C) Three molecules of ATP
(B) Cassia
(D) Two molecules of ATP
(C) Pyrus torminalis
41. Plants are killed at low tempera-
(D) All of the above
ture because—
50. Apospory is found in—
(A) Of cell protein precipitation
(A) Taraxacum albidum
(B) Desiccation occurs due to
the withdrawal of water from (B) Eupatorium glandolusum
vacuolated protoplasm (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Cell bursts due to mechani- (D) None of the above
cal pressure of ice or cold
water
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
(D) Of all of the above reasons
42. Which of the following kinds of
plant fixes carbon dioxide by way
of crassulacean acid meta-
bolism ?
(A) Red alga (B) Cactus
(C) Oak tree (D) Grass (Continued on Page 1034 )

1. RNA processing is—
(A) The same as transcription
(B) The rejection of old, wornout
RNA
(C) An event that occurs after
RNA is transcribed
(D) Both (B) and (C) are correct
2. The energy storage at consumer
level is—
(A) Net productivity
(B) Net primary productivity
(C) Secondary productivity
(D) Gross primary productivity
3. Floral leaves are also called—
(A) Sporophylls (B) Prophylls
(C) Cataphylls (D) Hypsophylls 11. Reininke described the connec-
4. The rate of photosynthesis is
more in—
(A) Orange light
(B) Green light
(C) Red light
(D) Yellow light
5. In Pinus the resin secreting cells
form one or two peripheral layers
that surround a schizogenously
developed canal or duct in the—
(A) Leaves
(B) Stem
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Root
6. The proteins associated with
DNA in eukaryotic chromosomes
are synthesized during—
(A) S-stage (B) M-stage
(C) G2-stage (D) G1-stage
7. When the stigma matures before
the anthers, this condition is
known as—
(A) Heterostyly (B) Dicliny
(C) Protogyny (D) Protandry
8. Stem climber is found in—
(A) Piper betle
(B) Asparagus
(C) Vitis
(D) All of the above
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1026
(C) Taxonomists
(D) Embryologists
17. Which of the following disease is
caused in stem by the boron, a
trace element, deficiency ?
(A) Black necrosis of stem
9. Retting is a process by which
(B) Stem rot of Grapes
bacteria bring about the—
(C) Red rot of stem
(A) Nitrogen fixation
(D) All of the above
(B) Separation of fibres of flax
and coconut 18. Which of the following plants
does not belong to the family
(C) Vitamin B 6 synthesis
Papilionaceae ?
(D) None of the above
(A) Phaseolus mungo
10. The small size of cells is best
(B) Vigna sinensis
correlated with—
(C) Crotolaria juncea
(A) An adequate surface area for
exchange of materials (D) Bauhinia variegata
(B) The fact they are self-repro- 19. The interconnected food chains
ducing are called—
(C) Their prokaryotic versus (A) Food web
eukaryotic nature (B) Epigenesis
(C) Tropic level
(D) All of the above are correct
(D) Pyramid of energy
tion between fungus and alga 20. The middle sterile part of moss
as— capsule is called—
(A) Protonema (B) Elaters
(A) Consortium
(C) Columella (D) Foot
(B) Helotism
21. Adaxial outgrowth from the base
(C) Symbiosis of the leaf of Selaginella is—
(D) Heterothallism (A) Trabecula (B) Velum
12. The sporophytic phase of Riccia (C) Stipule (D) Ligule
comprises— 22. Each sorus has a protective
(A) Zygote covering called—
(B) Embryo (A) Scutellum
(B) Tonoplast
(C) Sporogonium
(C) Indusium
(D) All of the above (D) Glossopodium
13. The common name of Funaria, by 23. The transformation from a single
which it is generally known, is— cell into an adult individual with
(A) Bog moss (B) Green moss many different kinds of cells is
(C) Peat moss (D) Pond moss called—
14. Which of the following is the most (A) Development
common monomer of carbo- (B) Adaptation
hydrate molecules ? (C) Inheritance
(A) Maltose (B) Amino acid (D) Evolution
(C) Glucose (D) Phospholipid 24. The type of leaf of Mimosa
15. Biciliate antherozoids are found pudica is—
in— (A) Decompound
(A) Rhizopus (B) Selaginella (B) Simple pinnate
(C) Spirogyra (D) Dryopteris (C) Simple palmate
(D) Compound bipinnate
16. Biologists who study the
sequences of organisms in the 25. The first community to inhabit an
fossil record are— area is known as—
(A) Palaeobiologists (A) Pioneer community
(B) Systematists (B) Climax stage
 (C) Consumer level
(D) Trophic level
26. Allopatric but not sympatric
speciation requires—
(A) Spontaneous differences in
males and females
(B) Prior hybridization
(C) Reproductive isolation
(D) Geographic isolation
27. Calvin cycle includes—
(A) CO2 fixation
(B) CO2 reduction
(C) Regeneration of ribulose
biphosphate
(D) All of the above
28. The function of amyloplast is to—
(A) Store fat
(B) Absorb water
(C) Store starch
(D) Absorb light
29. Unconnected complex units of
Golgi apparatus occurring in
eukaryotic plant cells are termed
as—
(A) Dictyosome (B) Pyrenoid
(C) Microsome (D) Plastid
30. Continuity of cytoplasm from cell
to cell is maintained through—
(A) Middle lamella
(B) Plasmodesmata
(C) Nuclear pore
(D) Nucleolus
31. Wood fibres are sclerenchy-
matous fibres found in—
(A) Phloem
(B) Xylem
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Cortex
32. Substances obtained from micro-
organisms and used to inhibit the
growth of other microorganisms
are—
(A) Antibodies (B) Antigens
(C) Antiseptics (D) Antibiotics
33. A fruit has got a wall or pericarp
which was the wall of the—
(A) Ovary (B) Stigma
(C) Style (D) Stamen
34. Which of the following is/are
timber yielding plant(s) ?
(A) Dalbergia sissoo
(B) Desmodium gangetium
(C) Vigna sinensis
(D) Erythrina variegata
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1027
35. The activity of repressor depends
on whether—
(A) The repressor is positioned
next to the operon
(B) There is enough RNA poly-
merase present
(C) The repressor is positioned
next to the promoter
(D) A key substance in the meta-
bolic pathway is present
36. Conjoint, collateral, closed and
scattered vascular bundles with
sclerenchymatous sheath are
characteristic of—
(A) Monocot root
(B) Monocot stem
(C) Dicot root
(D) Dicot stem
37. Biologists who study the
sequence of organisms in the
fossil record are—
(A) Systematists
(B) Taxonomists
(C) Paleobiologists
(D) Radiologists
38. When two mutations are located
in the same functional unit or in
different functional units is con-
firmed by—
(A) Back cross
(B) Test cross
(C) Reciprocal cross
(D) Complementation test
39. Each chemical reaction in cellular
respiration requires—
(A) A molecule of NAD
(B) A molecule of FAD
(C) A molecule of ATP
(D) A specific enzyme
40. Retting is a process by which
bacteria bring about the—
(A) Nitrogen fixation
(B) Curdling of milk
(C) Synthesis of Vitamin B6
(D) Separation of fibres of
coconut, husk and flax
41. Monocot leaves grow by means
of—
(A) Intercalary meristem
(B) Apical meristem
(C) Lateral meristem
(D) All of the above
42. When a plant is not reproducing,
most of its cytokinins are repro-
duced in its—
(A) Lateral buds (B) Roots
(C) Shoot apex (D) Leaves
43. Which of the following is/are the
water pollutant ?
(A) Aeroplanes
(B) Smoke
(C) 2, 4-D and pesticides
(D) Automobile exhaust
44. Passage cells are found in—
(A) Pricycle
(B) Exodermis, pith and peri-
cycle
(C) Endodermis
(D) Both (B) and (C)
45. The botanical name of ‘coral
wood’ is—
(A) Adenanthera pavorina
(B) Aegle marmelos
(C) Amaranthus spinosus
(D) Amaranthus tricolor
46. A cell or an organism which
shows the effects of a mutation is
called a—
(A) Mutant
(B) Disinfectant
(C) Mutation
(D) Transformation
47. The antibiotic ‘Erythromycin’ is
obtained from—
(A) Penicillium notatum
(B) Penicillium chrysogenum
(C) Streptomyces griseus
(D) Streptomyces erytheraaeus
48. In older trees, the inner annual
rings are called—
(A) Phloem
(B) Heartwood
(C) Sapwood
(D) All of the above
49. Mendelian recombinations are
due to—
(A) Mitosis
(B) Amitosis
(C) Meiosis II
(D) Crossing-over
50. The point at which no more CO 2
can be taken up in C 4 plants is —
(A) 450–950 ppm CO2
(B) 40–60 ppm CO2
(C) 30–50 ppm CO2
(D) None of the above
(Continued on Page 1030 )
 15. The condition in which there is
one to many or one to few chro-
mosomes are less than diploid
set is called—
(A) Monoploidy
(B) Aneuploidy
1. Interphase— 8. The ventral canal cell is present (C) Polyploidy
(A) Includes stages G1, S and G2 in— (D) Polytene
(B) Rarely occurs (A) Ginkgo 16. Mutations can be induced by—
(C) Is the same as prophase, (B) Pinus (A) Temperature
metaphase, anaphase and (C) Cycas (B) Radiation
telophase (D) All of the above (C) Chemicals
(D) Requires the use of polar (D) All of the above
9. Which of the following is not an
fibres and kinetochore fibres
abiotic factor ? 17. The hypothesis that the early
2. Mitosis is the process by which (A) Water atmosphere, combined with an
eukaryotic cells— energy source, produced organic
(B) Blue-green alga
(A) Expose the genes for protein monomers was tested in 1953
(C) Soil
synthesis by—
(D) Air
(B) Grow (A) Fox and Pauling
(C) Become specialized in struc- 10. Which of the following tissues (B) Oparin and Haldane
ture and function conducts water and minerals up
(C) Curie and Pasteur
from the soil in vascular plants ?
(D) Multiply (D) Miller and Urey
(A) Phloem
3. What are the functions of micro- 18. A group of isodiametric cells with
(B) Xylem
tubules ? intercellular spaces must be—
(C) Both xylem and phloem
(A) Movement of cilia and (A) Collenchyma
flagella (D) None of the above
(B) Parenchyma
(B) Formation of spindle fibres 11. The offspring of better adapted (C) Sclerenchyma
(C) Both (A) and (B) individuals are expected to make (D) Prosenchyma
(D) None of the above a larger portion of the next gene-
19. ‘Emerson’s effect’ is associated
ration. Which of the following
with—
4. Which of the following are processes explains it well ?
archaebacteria ? (A) Green house effect
(A) Microevolution (B) Photosynthesis
(A) Pseudomonads (B) Genetic drift (C) Plant growth hormone
(B) Chlamydias (C) Gene population (D) Tropism
(C) Green sulphur (D) Natural selection 20. The clockwise shell coiling in
(D) Methanogens Limnaea is called—
12. The study of the distribution of
5. Hydrophytes generally lack— plants in the different parts of the (A) Sinistral
world and the factors responsible (B) Kappa
(A) Root caps
for it, is known as— (C) Dextral
(B) Leaves
(A) Climatology (D) Sinistral cleavage
(C) Stem
(B) Taxonomy 21. Phelloderm consists of—
(D) All of the above
(A) Collenchyma cells
6. Which of the following zones (C) Phytogeography
(B) Living parenchyma cells
is/are shown by a root tip ? (D) Morphology
(C) Dead parenchyma cells
(A) Cell division zone 13. Which of the following is not (D) Both (B) and (C)
(B) Maturation zone included in kingdom-protista ? 22. When the anthers mature before
(C) Elongation zone (A) Water molds (B) Slime molds the stigma, it is said to be—
(D) All of the above (A) Heterostyly (B) Protogyny
(C) Rhizopus (D) Algae
7. Blue-green algae which live in (C) Dicliny (D) Protandry
14. Which of the following groups of
protozoan association are 23. In terms of cells which of the
plants bear flowers ?
referred to as— following factors usually deter-
(A) Cyanellae (A) Thallophyta
mines water potential ?
(B) Phycobionts (B) Bryophyta
(A) Cell wall
(C) Mycobionts (C) Pteridophyta (B) Solute concentration across
(D) Linger groups (D) Spermatophyta a membrane

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1028

 (C) Water pressure across a
membrane
(D) Both (B) and (C)
24. Lateral meristems are present
along the lateral sides of—
(A) Stem
(B) Root
(C) Root cap
(D) Both (A) and (B)
25. The plants requiring longer expo-
sure to light than their critical
period, are called—
(A) Day-neutral plants
(B) Long day plants
(C) Short day plants
(D) Both (B) and (C)
26. Differentially permeable mem-
branes allow the diffusion of—
(A) Solvent particles
(B) Solute particles
(C) Both solvent and solute
particles
(D) None of the above
27. The trophic structure of an
ecosystem can be summarized in
the form of—
(A) Ecological pyramid
(B) Trophic level
(C) ATP formation
(D) Sub-trophic level
28. The conducting elements of the
phloem are collectively known
as—
(A) Sieve cells
(B) Phloem parenchyma
(C) Sclereids
(D) Sieve elements
29. The flower part that contains
ovule is the—
(A) Stamen (B) Sepal
(C) Carpel (D) Petal
30. Which of the following plants gives
blackwood ?
(A) Dalbergia
(B) Albizia
(C) Acacia
(D) None of the above
31. ‘Tricarboxylic acid cycle’ was dis-
covered by—
(A) Krebs (B) Bent
(C) Houseleit (D) Blackman
32. Phyllode is present in which of
the following plants ?
(A) Parkinsonia
(B) Citrus
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1029
(C) Asparagus
(D) All of the above
33. When the change from sol into
gel is reversible, the colloid is
called—
(A) Reversible colloid
(B) Gelation
(C) Solation
(D) Suspension
34. The transverse section (T.S.) of
Boerhaavia stem shows—
(A) More or less circular outline
(B) Uniseriate epidermis having
stomata
(C) The stele which includes vas-
cular bundles in three rings
(D) All of the above
35. Circular DNA is found in—
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Bacteria
(C) Chloroplasts
(D) All of the above
36. Offset is found in—
(A) Mint
(B) Potato
(C) Eichhornia
(D) All of the above
37. Which of the following do not
have double bonds between their
carbons ?
(A) Unsaturated fatty acids
(B) Saturated fatty acids
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
38. In DNA replication, the helix
is unwind by which type of
enzyme ?
(A) Helicase
(B) Topoisomerase
(C) Primase
(D) DNA polymerase
39. Transgenic bacteria perform ser-
vices in the field of—
(A) Mineral processing
(B) Chemical production
(C) Bioremediation
(D) All of the above
40. Division of centromere occurs in—
(A) Metaphase I
(B) Anaphase I
(C) Anaphase II
(D) Telophase I
41. Both the palisade and spongy
mesophylls of a leaf are made
of—
(A) Sclerenchyma cells
(B) Parenchyma cells
(C) Dermal cells
(D) Collenchyma cells
42. Myrmecophily is a beneficial
association between flowering
plants and—
(A) Ants
(B) Fungi
(C) Mycoplasma
(D) Bacteria and Viruses
43. Which of the following sources of
energy is virtually inexhaustible ?
(A) Coal
(B) Natural gas
(C) Nuclear fusion
(D) Oil
44. Which of the following plants is
commonly known as spike moss ?
(A) Equisetum (B) Dryopteris
(C) Funaria (D) Selaginella
45. Which of the following algae is/
are not flagellated ?
(A) Volvax and Spirogyra
(B) Dinoflagellates and Spirogyra
(C) Chlamydomonas and Volvox
(D) Spirogyra
46. A common phycobiont in lichen
is—
(A) Microcystis
(B) Trebouxia
(C) Cetraria
(D) All of the above
47. ‘Perforation theory’ for continuity
of life was proposed by—
(A) Swammerdan and Malpighi
(B) Callan and Tomlin
(C) Beadle and Tatum
(D) Zinder and Lederberg
48. In terms of cells which of the
following factors usually deter-
mine water potential ?
(A) Water pressure across a
membrane
(B) Solute concentration across
a membrane
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Cell wall
49. The taxonomy of lichens is based
mainly upon the character of
the—
(A) Fungal symbiont
(B) Algal symbiont
 (C) Cyanophycean symbiont
(D) None of the above
50. Environmental resistance—
(A) Helps determine the carrying
capacity
(B) Prevents exponential growth
from occurring
(C) Includes density in depen-
dent effects
(D) Both (A) and (B) are correct

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

●●●
(Continued from Page 1027 )

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

●●●

Useful for Various Competitive Exams.

By : Dr. Lal, Mishra & Kumar

Code No. 1624 Rs. 250/-
UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2
E-mail : publisher@upkar.in
Website : www.upkar.in

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1030


1. Centromere separate at which
stage of meiosis—
(A) Anaphase-I
(B) Anaphase-II
(C) Metaphase-I
(D) Prophase-I
2. Sandwich model of plasma
membrane was proposed by—
(A) Singer and Nicolson
(B) Robertson
(C) Gorter and Grendel
(D) None of the above
3. Which one of the following is con-
cerned with photo respiration ?
(A) Endoplasmic reticulum
(B) Dictysomes
(C) Peroxisomes
(D) Glyoxisomes
4. Which of these gives a possible
sequence of organic chemicals
prior to the protocell ?
(A) Inorganic gases, nucleo-
tides, nucleic acids, genes
(B) Inorganic gases, amino
acids, polypeptide, micro-
sphere
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Water, salts, protein, oxygen
5. Root hairs occur in the—
(A) Root cap
(B) Region of cell elongation
(C) Apical meristem
(D) Region of maturation
6. Which of these best shows that
plant cells are totipotent ?
(A) Protoplasmic culture for the
purpose of genetic enginee-
ring of plants
(B) Leaf, stem, and root culture
for the purpose of cell sus-
pension cultures
(C) A shoot culture for the pur-
pose of micropropagation
(D) Flower meristem culture for
the purpose of somatic em-
bryos
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1031
14. How many amino acids are
converted into α-ketoglutarate ?
(A) Three (B) Two
(C) Five (D) Six
15. Stilt roots are found in—
(A) Rice (B) Sugarcane
7. Leaf tip tendrils are present in—
(C) Groundnut (D) Gram
(A) Smilax (B) Lathyrus
(C) Pisum (D) Gloriosa 16. The term synteny refers to—
(A) Genes that are located on
8. Water is drawn into root cells
the same chromosome,
because—
whether or not they show
(A) They have the higher water recombination
potential
(B) Genes that are located on
(B) They have the lower water the different chromosome,
potential whether or not they show
(C) They have both essential recombination
and beneficial inorganic
(C) Genetic loci that have been
nutrients
shown by recombination
(D) All of the above studies to be in the same
9. Gyanobasic style is found in— chromosome
(A) Labiatae (B) Gramineae (D) All of the above
(C) Liliaceae (D) Compositae 17. Young sporophyte of fern draws
nourishment from prothallus
10. Plant growth toward or away through its—
from a directional stimulus is
(A) Foot (B) Haustorium
called—
(C) Root (D) Rhizoids
(A) Tropism
18. All demographic research begins
(B) Thigmotropism with a statistical treatment of
(C) Phototropism quantitative data on the popula-
tion, this is called—
(D) None of the above
(A) Mortality
11. In an embryo sac of a typical (B) Fertility
angiosperm there are— (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Egg, synergids and anti- (D) Demographic analysis
podals
19. DNA elements which can be
(B) Egg, synergids, polar nuclei switch their position are called—
and antipodals (A) Cistrons (B) Exons
(C) Egg, synergids, central cell (C) Transposons (D) Introns
and polar nuclei
20. Which one of the following plants
(D) Egg, synergids and secon-
is called Shepherd’s purse ?
dary wall
(A) Capsella bursa-pastoris
12. Which of the following is/are
(B) Selaginella krausiana
fossil fuel ?
(C) Hypericum uralum
(A) Oil
(D) Neottia
(B) Coal
(C) Natural gas 21. The chemical linking between
glycolysis and Kreb's cycle is—
(D) All of the above are fossil
fuels (A) Pyruvic acid
(B) Citric acid
13. The special tissue include—
(C) Acetyl coenzyme A
(A) Scleroids
(D) Succinic acid
(B) Sclerenchyma
22. Who among the following dis-
(C) Secretory tissues covered a simple procedure for
(D) Collenchyma placing bacteria into either a
 gram-negative class or a gram- 31. Sunken stomata are found in the 40. Between the bark and the wood
positive class ? leaves of— in a woody stem, there is a layer
(A) Carl Weigert (A) Nelumbium (B) Neem of meristem called—
(B) Joseph Lister (A) Apical meristem
(C) Maize (D) Nerium
(C) Spallanzani (B) The zone of cell division
32. Which of the following organs (C) Cork cambium
(D) None of the above
function as absorbing and (D) Vascular cambium
23. Which one of the following are attaching organs in bryophytes ?
initiator codons ? 41. The microbial conversion of
(A) Root hairs (B) Columella ammonia to nitrate is called as—
(A) UUU, UUC (B) UAA, UAG (C) Thallus (D) Rhizoids (A) Ammonification
(C) UGA, UAG (D) AUG, GUG (B) Nitrification
33. Which one of the following is
24. Opposite decussate phyllotaxy is (C) Denitrification
obtained from algae ?
found in— (D) Nitrogen fixation
(A) Chocolate (B) Wax
(A) Quisqualis 42. The outermost primary meristem
(C) Carragenin (D) Butter
(B) Calotropis gives rise to—
(C) Mangifera indica 34. Carrageenin is obtained from— (A) Epidermis
(D) Hibiscus rosa-sinensis (A) Red algae (B) Ground meristem
(B) Blue-green algae (C) Procambium
25. Richmond lang effect is shown (D) All of the above
by— (C) Green algae
43. Vascular strands in rhizome of
(A) Auxins (B) Gibberallins (D) Brown algae
Pteridium are—
(C) Kinetin (D) Sugars 35. A specialised multicellular struc- (A) Collateral open
26. In which of the following forms, ture in leaves which excretes (B) Bicollateral open
sugar is transported within the water droplets is— (C) Concentric amphivasal
body of a plant ? (A) Lenticel (D) Concentric amphicribral
(A) Sucrose (B) Lactose (B) Stomata 44. Available form of nitrogen to
(C) Glucose (D) Maltose (C) Hydathode plants is—
+
27. Which one of the following is a (D) Bordered pit (A) Ammonium (NH4 )
–
fungicide ? (B) Nitrate (NO3)
36. Caryophyllales include—
(A) 2, 4–D (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Wide variety of dicotyle-
(B) DDT (D) Atmospheric nitrogen
donous plants
(C) BHC (B) Wide variety of monocoty- 45. Petaloid staminode is seen in—
(D) Bordeaux mixture ledonous plants (A) Cassia (B) Solanum
(C) Caesalpinia (D) Canna
28. The element essential for IAA (C) Both (A) and (B)
synthesis is— (D) None of the above 46. Which one of the following is
usually absent in cortical cells ?
(A) Iron (B) Calcium 37. To initiate cell plasmolysis, the (A) Nucleolus
(C) Sodium (D) Zinc salt solution should be— (B) Nucleus
29. The correct definition of bio- (A) Isotonic (C) Nuclear membrane
sphere is— (B) Hypertonic (D) Chloroplast
(A) The earth and its atmos- (C) Hypotonic 47. Which one of the following pro-
phere which inhabit living (D) None of these vide food rich in carbohydrates ?
organism (A) Cruciferae
(B) All the living organism on the 38. Cell division requires that the (B) Leguminosae
earth genetic material be able to—
(C) Graminae
(C) All the plants on earth (A) Undergo rare mutations (D) Palmae
(D) All the animals on earth (B) Be replicated 48. Which one of the following is the
(C) Store information chief reason to consider that the
30. Any substance or mixture of
(D) All of the above protocell was probably a fermen-
substances which prevents,
ter ?
repels, destroys or mitigates any 39. In an ecosystem bacteria are
(A) Fermentation provides the
pest is known as— considered as—
most amount of energy
(A) Attenuation (A) Micro consumers
(B) It did not have any enzyme
(B) Epinasty (B) Macro consumers (C) The atmosphere did not
(C) Pesticide (C) Primary consumers have any oxygen
(D) Growth hormone (D) Secondary consumers (D) All of the above are correct

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1032

49. For each molecule of glucose -
respired, TCA cycle must rotate—
(A) Twice (B) Thrice
-
(C) Four times (D) Five times
50. Green algae occur in the form
of—
(A) Unicellular
(B) Multicellular
(C) Colonial
(D) All of the above
-
ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1033

 In each of the following ques-
tions, a statement of Assertion (A)
is given and a corresponding state-
ment of Reason (R) is given just
below it. Of the statements, mark
the correct answer as—
(A) If both A and R are true
and R is the correct expla-
nation of A
(B) If both A and R are true but
R is not the correct expla-
nation of A
(C) If A is true but R is false
(D) If both A and R are false
(E) If A is false but R is true
PHYSICS
1. Assertion (A) : [M1L – 1T – 1] is
the dimensional formula of coeffi-
cient of viscosity.
Reason (R) : Coefficient of
viscosity is force acting per unit
area per unit velocity gradient.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
2. Assertion (A) : Light can form
interference pattern.
Reason (R) : Light is a wave
motion.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
3. Assertion (A) : Graph between
potential energy of a spring ver-
sus the extension or compression
(x ) of the spring is a straight line.
Reason (R) : This is because
potential energy is directly pro-
portional to x .
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4. Assertion (A) : Red light pro-
duces fringes of greater separa-
tion in comparison to blue light in
Young’s double slit experiment .
Reason (R) : Smaller slit separa-
tion produces greater fringe
separation.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
5. Assertion (A) : The shape of a
liquid drop is spherical.
Reason (R) : The pressure inside
the drop is greater than that
outside.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1035
6. Assertion (A) : In a nuclear 12. Assertion (A) : Acetate ion is
reactor graphite is used to cap- more basic than formate ion.
ture neutrons. Reason (R) : The + I effect of
Reason (R) : Successive colli- methyl group in acetate ion inten-
sions of neutrons with the gra- sifies electron density on oxygen
phite nuclei result in loss of atom.
energy which slows the neutrons (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
down.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 13. Assertion (A) : All the four
quantum numbers viz. n, l, m l and
7. Assertion (A) : The energy ms are derived from the solution
stored in a coil of 50 mH on
of Schrodinger wave equation
passing 2A current is 0·2 J.
for hydrogen atom.
1
Reason (R) : E = LI2 Reason (R) : All the four quantum
2
numbers viz. n , l, m l and ms are
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
essential to designate each orbital
8. Assertion (A) : Energy levels of in an atom. These four quantum
an atom must have negative numbers also help to designate
values. the electron present in an orbital.
Reason (R) : When detached
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
from atom, an electron is at an
energy level of zero. When atta- 14. Assertion (A) : When CO2 gas is
ched, energy is given off and so passed through a solution of
the energy of electron is below Ca(OH)2 in water, the white pre-
zero and is, therefore, negative. cipitate, initially formed, dis-
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) solves.
9. Assertion (A) : Bulk modulus of Reason (R) : Calcium com-
elasticity (K) represents incom- pounds are always soluble in
pressibility of the material. basic solution.
ΔP ,
Reason (R) : K = where (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
ΔV/V
symbols have their usual mean- 15. Assertion (A) : The phenome-
ing. non of reverse osmosis is used
as a technique for desalination of
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
sea water.
10. Assertion (A) : Room heaters
Reason (R) : Cellulose acetate is
and refrigerators lose most of
permeable to water and imperme-
their heat by convection.
able to impurities and ions pre-
Reason (R) : A hot surface heats
sent in sea water.
the air next to it. The hot air
rises, to be replaced by cooler air (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(E)
which then heats, and so on. 16. Assertion (A) : Phenoxide ion is
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) greatly stabilised by resonance
as compared to ethoxide ion.
CHEMISTRY Reason (R) : Ethoxide is a stron-
ger base than the phenoxide ion.
11. Assertion (A) : Poly-hydroxy-
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
butyrate-co— β-Hydroxyvalerate
(PHBV) is generally used in con- 17. Assertion (A) : A catalyst speeds
trolled drug release in the stom- up the forward reaction and re-
ach of patient. tards the reverse reaction thereby
Reason (R) : When drug is put in increasing the value of K eq.
a capsule of PHBV, it is released Reason (R) : A catalyst functions
only after the polymer is de- by lowering the energy of activa-
graded because PHBV is a bio- tion which in turn makes the rate
degradable polymer. constant larger.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
18. Assertion (A) : All the C == C
bonds in organic molecules are
capable of showing geometrical
isomerism.
Reason (R) : The rotation
around C —— C bond is restricted.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
19. Assertion (A) : Magnesium hy-
droxide, magnesium carbonate,
magnesium trisilicate, aluminium
hydroxide gel, sodium bicarbo-
nate and aluminium phosphate
are commonly used as antacids.
Reason (R) : Acid Gastritis is one
of the commonest ailments asso-
ciated with digestion and it is
caused by excess of hydrochloric
acid in the gastric juice.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
20. Assertion (A) : The copper rod
turns the colourless solution of
zinc sulphate to light blue.
Reason (R) : Zinc reduces
copper(II) ions to metallic copper.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
ZOOLOGY
21. Assertion (A) : Coenzymes is a
non-protein group without which
certain enzymes are incomplete
or inactive.
Reason (R) : Coenzymes not
only provide a point attachment
for the chemical group being
transformed but also influences
properties of the group.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
22. Assertion (A) : Organic nutrients
increase plant growth and lead to
eutrophication, has tening con-
version of wetlands to dry land,
as part of primary succession.
Reason (R) : Inorganic nutrients
increase bacterial activity in
water, which reduces oxygen
concentration and thus the ability
of water to support other life.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
23. Assertion (A) : DNA code is
copied in the synthesis of transfer
RNA.
Reason (R) : Transfer RNA
moves out of the nucleus and
after attaching on the ribosomes,
forms the template.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1036
24. Assertion (A) : Restriction 30. Assertion (A) : During protein
enzymes are necessary for the catabolism, proteins are broken
preparation of recombinant DNA. down to amino acids which lose
Reason (R) : Because restriction their amino group.
enzymes are not used to cleave Reason (R) : Protein anabolism
plasmid DNA. consists of protein synthesis and
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) the synthesis of non-essential
amino acids.
25. Assertion (A) : Proteins and RNA
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
are synthesized in G2 phase.
Reason (R) : Z-DNA has right BOTANY
handed coiling.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 31. Assertion (A) : Green algae live
in the ocean but are more likely
26. Assertion (A) : Morphogenesis found in fresh water.
is the change in shape of the
Reason (R) : Green algae are
embryo.
believed to be closely related to
Reason (R) : Differentiation is the first plants because both of
the specialization of cell structure these groups have a cell wall that
and function as some genes are contains cellulose.
turned on and others off.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
32. Assertion (A) : A few molecules
27. Assertion (A) : The pitch of the
of enzyme may provide reacting
sound is perceived by the position
surface to a large number of subs-
of the phonoreceptors in the
trate molecules.
cochlear duct.
Reason (R) : The size of enzyme
Reason (R) : The loudness of the
molecules is far larger than the
sound is encoded in frequency of
substrate molecules.
action potential and the number
of phenoreceptors stimulated. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 33. Assertion (A) : The evolution of
molecular oxygen is associated
28. Assertion (A) : Temperatures in
with photosystem-II during photo-
the scrotum are about 2° to 3° C synthesis.
cooler than those in abdomen,
and this is important for the survi- Reason (R) : Photosystem-I is
val of the temperature-sensitive not involved in evolution of mole-
sperm. cular oxygen.
Reason (R) : In the wall of scro- (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
tum, there is a layer of smooth 34. Assertion (A) : Viruses that
muscle, the dartos muscle, which infect bacteria (bacteriophages)
responds to changing tempera- are another type of vector.
tures. In the cold, this muscle
Reason (R) : Scientists can
contracts and the testes are
manipulate them so that they
drawn closer to the abdomen for
transport genetic material but do
warmth, while heat causes the
not cause diseases.
muscle to relax and the testes
descend further for cooling. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 35. Assertion (A) : The venus’s fly-
trap leaves do not interlock.
29. Assertion (A) : Carotid body is
Reason (R) : Because sensitive
small neurovascular structure
hairs are not found in this plant.
near branch of internal and exter-
nal carotids and supplied by (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
vagus and glossopharyngeal 36. Assertion (A) : Plasmids are
nerves. extrachromosomal single-stran-
Reason (R) : They are sensitive ded DNA.
to oxygen content of blood and Reason (R) : Only eukaryotic
assisting in homeostatic reflex. cells possess plasmids.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
37. Assertion (A) : Fermentation Reason (R) : Each species has a 40. Assertion (A) : The two hydro-
differentiates green variety of tea characteristic chromosome num- gen atoms and one oxygen atom
from black variety of tea. bers. of water (H 2O) are held together
Reason (R) : In tea, the tannin is (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) by polar covalent bonds.
partly oxidised and the leaf
39. Assertion (A) : A non-over-
changes colour and turns bright Reason (R) : Because the
lapping code means that a base
coppery red. This happens during oxygen attracts the negatively
in an mRNA is not used for
fermentation.
different codons. charged hydrogen electrons
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
38. Assertion (A) : When the chro- Reason (R) : In translating m RNA more strongly than the hydrogen
mosomes are highly coiled and molecules the codons do not nuclei do.
condensed during cell division, it overlap but are read sequentially.
is impossible to count them. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

●●●

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1037

 14. No net force acts on a rectangular coil carrying a
Physics steady current when suspended freely in a uniform
magnetic field.
1. The ratio of maximum acceleration to the maximum —T/F
displacement of a particle performing S.H.M. is equal
15. A thick rope can not be stretched perfectly horizontal.
to angular velocity.
—T/F
—T/F
2. The earth moving around the sun in a circular orbit is
acted upon by a force and hence work must be done
Chemistry
to earth by this force.
16. When pressure (P) and temperature (T) of a gas are
—T/F 1
constant, its volume, V ∝ .
3. Mercury thermometers can be used to measure n
temperatures upto 500°C. (given B.P. of mercury —T/F
= 367°C) 17. In the van der Waals equation, constant ‘a ’ reflects
—T/F actual volume of one mole of gaseous molecules.
—T/F
4. Coefficient of frictional force is expressed in newton.
18. Density of methane gas (CH 4) at 20°C and 6 atm
—T/F
pressure will be equal to 3·99 g/L.
5. The average kinetic energy of 1 gm of all ideal gases
—T/F
at the same temperature is the same.
19. In a given electrical field beta particles (β) are
—T/F
deflected more than alpha (α) particles, though α
6. A man is sitting in a boat which is floating on a pond.
particles have larger charge.
If the man drinks some water from the pond, the level
of water in the pond decreases. —T/F
—T/F 20. The sum of the formal charges on all atoms of a mole-
cule or ion equals the charge on the species.
7. On a winter night we feel warmer when clouds cover
—T/F
the sky than when the sky is clear.
21. The dependence of electrode potential for an
—T/F
electrode Mn +/M with a concentration under STP is
8. In Young double slit experiment performed with a expressed as
source of white light, only black and white fringes are 0·0591
observed. E = E° + log [Mn+]
n
—T/F —T/F
9. A diver in a lake wants to signal to a person lying on 22. Sulphur dioxide (SO 2) is a polar molecule while car-
the edge of the pool. He should beam his water proof bondioxide (CO 2) is non-polar in nature.
flash light vertically upwards. —T/F
—T/F 23. The addition of water to acetylene is catalysed by
10. The root mean square speeds of the molecules of Ni/H2.
different ideal gases, maintained at the same tem- —T/F
perature, are same. 24. sp 2 hybridized orbitals form stronger bond than sp
—T/F hybridized orbitals.
11. Sun glasses which have a curved surfaces have no —T/F
power. 25. The heat content of reactants is less than the heat
—T/F contents of products in an endothermic reaction.
12. The γ-decay generally occurs after the α or the β —T/F
decay. 26. The pH of 10 ml 5 × 10– 4 M H2SO4 solution changes
—T/F from 3 to 5 when it is diluted to 1 litre.
13. It is possible to eliminate dispersion by combining two —T/F
prisms of same refracting angles and of different 27. The species CH3+ has isoelectronic structure with
materials. H3O+.
—T/F —T/F

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1038

28. Amino methane on treatment with sodium nitrile and 44. Nematodes are pseudocoelomates.
HCl produces a diazonium salt at 0°C. —T/F
—T/F 45. Cyclic AMP is a second messenger within cells.
29. The dipole moment corresponding to 100% ionic —T/F
character of KCl will have different value when
compared with value of actual dipole moment of KCl.
—T/F
Botany
30. The product obtained by heating phenol with zinc
dust, when treated with CH3Cl/anhydrous AlCl3, ortho 46. The central core of an axis is called a cambium.
and para hydroxy toluene are formed. —T/F
—T/F 47. Transpiration of a plant increases with its total leaf
surface area.
Zoology —T/F
48. Cynellae is the term used for algae present in proto-
31. Lactose is monosaccharide that contains galactose zoa.
and fructose.
—T/F
—T/F
49. Lesion most commonly induced by ultraviolet
32. Opsonin is a kind of antigen.
radiation is called a spot.
—T/F
—T/F
33. The first menstrual cycle is called menarche and the
end of menstrual cycle is called menopause. 50. Green pigment for capturing of sunlight is located on
the cell wall.
—T/F
—T/F
34. Spontaneous mutations in germ cells alter allele fre-
quencies and reintroduce harmful alleles into popula- 51. Lichens imperfecti is a class of the lichens containing
tion. species with no known method of sexual reproduction.
—T/F —T/F
35. A male human who suffers from sex-linked trait is 52. A plant cell has the potential to develop into entire
homozygous. plant body.
—T/F —T/F
36. The initiating hormones for the menstrual cycle arise 53. The two subunits of 80S ribosomes are 50S and 30S.
in the hypothalamus.
—T/F
—T/F
54. The common form of bacteria occurring in groups but
37. Plasmagene is a gene contained in a self-reflecting not more than two is called Streptobacillus.
cytoplasmic particle and inheritance of the characters
are controlled by such genes is Mendelian. —T/F

—T/F 55. Whittaker suggested a five-kingdom system that has

become widely accepted.
38. Peyer’s patches are aggregation of lymph nodes
found chiefly in the ileum near junction with the colon. —T/F

—T/F 56. Phospholipid is more abundant in cell membrane.

39. Intestinal microorganisms are capable of synthesizing —T/F

considerable amounts of phylloquinone and 57. Ribosomes are large particles composed of proteins
metaquinone vitamins. and carbohydrates but no r RNA.
—T/F —T/F
40. The coxal glands of scorpion are homologous with the 58. Evidence suggests that there is a ‘clock’ running
green glands of crustaceans. inside the cells or organs, determining how long they
—T/F live.
41. Planula is solid free-swimming ciliated larva of most —T/F
cnidaria and a few of the ctenophores. 59. Darwin’s geological observations were consistent with
—T/F those of Hutton and Lyell.
42. Enterogastrone in hibits the secretion of enterocrinin. —T/F
—T/F 60. Germplasm is the sum total of all the alleles of the
43. Planarians are free-living Turbellarians. genes.
—T/F —T/F

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1039

 Physics
Q. What are the rules for
counting the significant figures ?
☞ Rule I : All non zero digits are
significant.
Rule II : All zeros occurring bet-
ween the non zero digits are signifi-
cant. For example 230089 contains
six significant figures.
Rule III : All zeros to the left of
non zero digits are not significant. For
example, 0·0023 contains two signifi-
cant figures.
Rule IV : All zeros to the right of
non zero digits are significant. For
example, 23·000 as well as 23000
contain five significant figures.
Q. What is polygon law of
vector addition ?
☞ (i) If a number of vectors
acting at a point be represented both
in magnitude and direction by the
sides of a closed polygon taken in
order, then the resultant of these
vector is a null vector.
(ii) If n vectors are arranged such
that each one is making an angle
2π/n with the preceding vector, then
the resultant of these vectors is equal
to zero.
Q. What is unit force ?
☞ It is defined as the force which
changes the momentum of a body by
unity in unit time. According to this—
→ sisting of a large number of particles
→ dP d →
F = = (m v )
dt dt
→ average K.E. of translation of a mole-
d v → dm
= m.
dt
+ v.
dt
If the mass of the system is finite
and remains constant w.r.t. time, then
( )
dm
dt
= 0 and
→
→
dv →
F = m =ma
dt
→ →
(P2 – P1)
=
t Q. What is total internal reflec-
Q. What are inertial and gravi-
tational masses ?
☞ Inertial mass—It is defined
as the ratio of the magnitude of
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1041
external force applied on the body to refractive index to a medium of lower
the magnitude of acceleration pro- refractive index. At the critical angle
()
duced in it, i.e., a =
F
m
(θ c ), the refrected ray just grazes the
boundary between the two media.
Properties of inertial mass : Using Snell’s law we get
(i) It is proportional to the
quantity of matter present in the body.
(ii) It is independent of shape,
size and state of the body.
(iii) It increases as the speed of
body increases : If m 0 be the rest
mass of the body and c be the speed
of light then μ1 sin θc = μ2 sin 90°
m0 μ2
m = θ c = sin –1
( )
1–
v2
c2
μ1
For an angle of incidence greater
Gravitational mass—Mass of
than θc the light is totally reflected
the material of the body which is
back into the medium of higher
determined by gravitational pull acting
refractive index. This phenomenon is
on it, is called as gravitational mass,
called total internal reflection.
i.e.,
FR2 Q. In a transistor, the emitter is
m = always forward-biased but the
GM
collector is reverse biased. Why ?
Inertial and gravitational masses
are equivalent. However the defini- ☞ The forward bias of the emitter
of transistor forces the charge carriers
tions are independent of each other
to cross the junction. So the current
and two masses differ in the methods
flows in the transistor. If the emitter is
of their measurement.
reverse biased, there will be practi-
Q. What is law of equipartition
cally no current because the majority
of energy ?
charge carriers will be prevented from
☞ According to the law of Equi- crossing the emitter junction.
partition of energy, the total kinetic
energy of a dynamical system con- The reverse bias of the collector
helps in fast collection of the charge
is equally distributed among its carriers from the base region. Thus,
the reverse bias of the collector helps
degrees of freedom. We know that
to reduce the recombination rate in
the bias region.
cule of perfect gas is ( )3
2
. k T and the Q. Why a common emitter tran-
molecule has three degrees of free- sistor amplifier is preferred to a
dom. Hence, the average kinetic common base transistor amplifier ?
energy associated with each degree ☞ This is because the current
of freedom is ( ) 1
2
. kT . Here k is
gain of common emitter transistor
amplifier is much higher as compared
R to that of a common base transistor
Boltzmann constant, k = = 1·38 ×
N amplifier.
10–23 JK– 1 per molecule R = Gas Q. The magnetic field at the
constant and N = Avogadro’s number. centre of a current-carrying cube
made of twelve wires is zero. Do
tion ? you know why ?
☞ The phenomenon of total ☞ A current-carrying cube of 12
internal reflection occurs when light wires can be regarded as a set of six
travels from a medium of higher current-carrying pairs. The contribu-
tion of each pair is zero. So the net
magnetic field induction at the centre
of the cube is zero (see figure).
Q. Doppler effect in light is
symmetrical but the same effect in
sound is asymmetrical. Explain.
☞ Whether source of light is
receding from the observer or the
observer is receding from the source,
both situations are physically identical
and show exactly the same Doppler
frequency. So the Doppler effect in
light is symmetrical. On the other
hand, the source of sound receding
from the observer or the observer is
receding from the source of sound are
different physical situations. So they
would show different Doppler fre-
quency. Thus, Doppler effect in sound
is asymmetrical.
Q. What do you mean by
‘atomicity of electricity’ ?
☞ This is just another name for
quantisation of charge. The charge
carried by a body is always an integral
multiple of the fundamental charge of
1·6 × 10–19 C.
Q. Why is the value of specific
charge not constant for positive
rays ?
☞ The positive rays consist of
ions of different isotopes of the gas in
the discharge tube. The ions may
have the same electric charge. How-
ever, masses of different isotopes are
different. Consequently, the value of
e that one mole of electrons = 6·022045
charge to mass ratio, i.e., is not
m × 1023 electrons. Hence, the charge
constant.
Q. What is the basic principle
of electron microscope ?
☞ It is based on de-Broglie
hypothesis. A beam of accelerated
electrons behaves like a wave. This
wave can be handled by electric and
magnetic fields in exactly the same
way as electromagentic waves can be
handled by lenses.
Q. A hydrogen atom contains
only one electron, but the spectrum
of hydrogen atom has many lines.
Do you know why ?
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1042
☞ In the ground state of hydro-
gen atom, an electron occupies the
lowest energy level. When the atom is
excited, the electron jumps to some
higher energy level. But within 10– 8
second the electron jumps to the
lowest energy level. However, it may
so happen that the electron jumps
from higher energy level to some
lower energy level and then to the
lowest energy level. When an electron
jumps from higher energy level to
lower energy level, a spectral line is
emitted. Since a large number of
energy levels are available, therefore,
a large number of electron-transitions
are possible. This explains why the
spectrum of hydrogen atom contains a
large number of lines.
Chemistry
Q. What is doctor solution ?
☞ An alkaline solution of sodium
plumbite containing sulphur is known
as doctor solution. It is used in
preparation of disulphides from thiols.
2RSH + Na2PbO2 + S →
144243
R–S–S–R + PbS + 2NaOH
Diallyl disulphide (CH2––CH–CH2–)2S2,
occurs in garlic.
Q. What are important charac-
teristics of resonating structures of
a molecule ?
☞ Resonance structures of a
molecule must have an identical
arrangement of atoms, nearly same
energy content, same number of lone
pairs of electrons. However, they do
not have identical bonding in them.
Q. What is the charge on one
mole of electrons ?
☞ The charge on one electron is
1·6021892 × 10–19 coulomb. We know
on one mole of electrons is
1·6021892 × 10–19 × 6·022045 × 1023
= 96,484·56 coulomb.
The value 96,484·56 C/mol is known
as Faraday’s constant.
Q. Why the product of fre-
quency and wavelength of infrared
and ultraviolet radiations is always
same ?
☞ The electromagnetic spectrum
includes radio and TV waves. micro-
waves, infrared, visible light, ultra-
violet, X-rays, γ-rays and cosmic rays.
They travel at the speed of light ( c).
They differ however, in their frequen-
cies and wavelengths. The product of
frequency and wavelength of electro-
magnetic radiation is always equal to
the speed of light (c ).
νλ = c
As a result, electromagnetic
radiation that has long wavelength
has low frequency and a radiation
with high frequency has short wave-
length.
Q. Fahrenheit and Celsius
scales of temperature converge at
–40°° .
☞ The temperature at which two
scales reach zero is not the same;
zero on Celsius scale is equivalent to
32°F. To convert from Celsius to
Fahrenheit we, therefore, have to
multiply by 9/5 and then add 32°.
9
T°F = T + 32
5 °C
This equation can be rearrange
to convert from Fahrenheit to Celsius
5
T°C = [T – 32]
9 °F
It does not matter in which direc-
tion we try to do the conversion, from
°C to °F or vice-versa, – 40°F is equal
to – 40°C.
Q. What is the mass of a
single atom of 12C in grams and
the number of grams per amu ?
☞ We know the fact that a mole
of 12C has mass of exactly 12 gram.
We then construct a unit factor based
on the fact that a mole of any subs-
tance contains 6·022 × 1023 atom.
12·00 g 12C 1 mol C
×
1 mol C 6·022 × 1023 atom
= 1·993 × 10–23 g/atom
The number of grams per amu
1·993 × 10–23 g
= = 1·661 × 10 –24 g
12·00 amu
Q. What will be the value of
ideal gas constant, R, if exactly
1 mol of an ideal gas occupies a
volume of 22·414 litre at 0°° C and
1 atom pressure ?
☞ According to ideal gas law,
the product of pressure and volume
of an ideal gas divided by the product
of amount of gas (moles) and abso-
lute temperature is a constant
PV
= R
nTK
 We can calculate the value of R with its method of preparation. It is Zoology
for any set of units of P, V, n and T by soluble in water and is used as a
simply substituting the known values colouring material for foodstuffs and Q. What are good and bad
1·0 atom × 22·414 L drinks. cholesterol ?
Q. What is the difference bet- ☞ In human blood, cholesterol is
1·0 mol × 273·15 K
ween nucleophilicity and basicity ? carried by special proteins, the lipo-
= 0·082057 L-atm/mol-K ☞ The nucleophilicity is defined proteins, which are manufactured in
Q. Would H2O2 behave as the liver. Two classes of these chole-
as a reaction of a nucleophile (: Nu –)
oxidant or reductant with respect to sterol–containing lipoproteins are
with electrophilic carbon atom and it significant for the heart and blood
couple Fe3+/Fe2+ at standard con- influences the rate of reaction as vessels. Low density lipoproteins
centration ? reflected by rate constant kr. (LDL) contain triglyceride and chole-
☞ We know that H2O2 can act | | sterol. If cells are in need of chole-
kr
both as oxidant and reductant. Follow- : Nu – + C : X ⎯→ Nu— C + + X– sterol for plasma membranes or
ing reactions occur with respect to steroid hormone synthesis, they take
Fe 3+/Fe2+ couple. The basicity of a base (: B–) is
up LDL. If this process does not
Fe 3+ + e – → Fe 2+ ; occur, the LDL loaded with chole-
the ability to remove H+ from an acid sterol remain in the plasma and
E° = 0·771 V as is represented by equilibrium deposition of cholesterol as plaques
constant kb.
2Fe 3+ + H2O2 → 2Fe 2+ + O2 + 2H +; becomes possible. High density
k eq lipoproteins (HDL) are the second
E° = 0·02 V : B– + H : A B : H + : A– group of lipoproteins. HDL picks up
Fe 2+ → Fe 3+ + e –; The basicity of a nucleophile cholesterol from cells and transports
E° = – 0·771 V it to the liver for disposal. The liver
determines the equilibrium of a reac-
releases the excess cholesterol with
2Fe 2+ + H 2O2 + 2H + → 2Fe3+ + 2H2O; tion while nucleophilicity the kinetics. the bile into the small intestine. It has
E° = 1·00 V Remember that : been found that higher HDL levels
(a) Bases are better nucleophiles are associated with a fewer risk of
Since both potentials are positive,
H2O2 will act as an oxidant and reduc- than their conjugate acids : developing atherosclerosis, while
.. .. high LDL levels are associated with a
tant. HO –
. . : >> H2O : higher risk. That is why HDL has
In fact, iron(II) or iron(III) salts .. been called ‘good’ cholesterol and
catalyse self-oxidation-reduction of and H2 N: – >> : NH3 LDL ‘bad’ cholesterol. LDL levels
H2O2. (b) From left to right in a period below 130 milligrams per decilitre and
Q. Why do cyanic acid and iso- both basicity and nucleophilicity HDL levels above 40 mg/dl are consi-
cyanic acid have the same conju- decrease dered desirable.
gate base ? .. .. Q. How do the digestive tracts
..
H3C:– > H2 N: – > HO – – of carnivores differ from those of
☞ N ≡ C—OH is cyanic acid and . . : > : .F. :
hervivores ?
HN = C —
— O is isocyanic acid. (c) In going down the group ☞ Animal meat requires more
nucleophility increases and basicity
The conjugate bases of each acid storage and less processing than
decreases.
are contributing structures of same plant materials. The teeth of a carni-
.. .. .. ..
resonance hybrid, i.e., the resonance : .F. : – < : Cl – – – vore are pointed and sharp for killing
. . : < : Br
. . : < : .I . :
structures of both conjugate bases of its prey and tearing it into pieces
(Nucleophility)
both acids have same hybrid struc- small enough to swallow. Animal
.. .. .. ..
ture. : .F. : – > : Cl – – – meat does not require chewing. The
. . : > : Br
. . : > : .I . :
.. – H+
teeth of a herbivore, by contrast, are
(Basicity)
H:N — —C— — O ⎯→ flat for crushing and grinding plant
Q. Why is the following general
.–. .. .. materials. A mammal cannot digest
reaction,
:N— — O ←→ N ≡ C—O
—C— . .:
– cellulose and so derives no nutrients
R—Cl + R′′ –ONa → R—O—R′′ + NaCl from plant materials unless the cell
..
catalysed by a trace amount of walls are ruptured by chewing. A
. . —C ≡ N
H:O
NaI ? carnivore has a large stomach for
– H+ .–. ..
☞ In the presence of NaI, the
⎯→ : O . . —C ≡ N ←→ O —
— C = N: – food storage, since it eats large and
overall reaction occurs in two steps, infrequent meals. An herbivore has a
Both have hybrid structure each of which is faster than, uncata- smaller stomach because it eats
δ– δ–
—
: N ˙˙˙
— C˙˙˙
—.O. : lysed reaction. smaller amounts of food more fre-
Hence conjugate base is same in (I) R—Cl + I– → R—I + Cl– quently. Most digestion and all
This step is faster because I– is a absorption of food take place in small
both cases.
soft base and has more nucleo- intestine and a carnivore, whose food
Q. What is the caramel ? requires less processing has a
philicity than OR –, a hard base.
☞ A brown substance obtained shorter small intestine than an herbi-
by heating cane sugar or other carbo- (II) R—I + R′O– : → R–O–R′ + I– vore, whose food requires extensive
hydrate materials. Its chemical nature This step is faster because I – processing, has a longer small intes-
is not exactly known. Its reactions vary is a better leaving group than Cl –. tine.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1043

 Q. What is sodium pump ?
☞ Sodium pump is active trans-
port mechanism present in plasma
membranes of most animal cells, con-
suming an estimated third of a cell’s
ATP production in pumping sodium
ions (Na+) out of the cell and potas-
sium ions (K+) into it in the ratio 3 : 2.
As a result of its (electrogenic) role in
the establishment of a cell’s resting
potential this pump serves to regulate
cell volume by casting out Na+ which
would tend to enter along its electro-
chemical gradient, adding to the
negative osmotic potential of the cell
and drawing water in. The cell’s
internal electrical negativity prevents
ions (Cl–) from entering and having
the same effect. The pump is blocked
by external ouabain, and animal cell
may, therefore, swell or burst if this or
other inhibitors of ATP synthesis or
hydrolysis are added. It is indirectly
responsible for glucose and amino
acid uptake by cells since it creates a
sodium gradient necessary for Na+-
based symports.
Q. What is Transduction ?
☞ Transduction is process in
which usually a bacteriophage picks
up DNA from one bacterial cell and
carries it to another, when the DNA
fragment may become incorporated
into the bacterial host’s genome. Two
basic types : (a) generalized trans-
duction, where the phage DNA-
packaging mechanism picks up ‘by
mistake’ any phagesized fragment of
chromosomal DNA, which can be
integrated by homologous recombi-
nation into the recipient genome after
injection into the cell by the phage
apparatus, (b) specialized tranduction
in which on induction, integrated phage
DNA genome is imprecisely excised
from the chromosome, carrying adja-
cent chromosomal DNA with it; since
the phage is generally integrated at a
specific site in the chromosome, only
a few bacterial genes can be trans-
duced this way.
Q. What is Staph Food Poison-
ing ?
☞ Staph food poisoning, once
known as ptomaine poisoning, results
from toxins produced by staphylococ-
cus bacteria growing on food. These
bacteria can be part of the normal
flora of the nasal passage but can
also cause boils, pimples and other
skin infections. Therefore, sneezing
and coughing on food and preparing
food with unprotected hands can lead
to the deposition of millions of staph
bacteria. If such contaminated food
remains at room temperature for few
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1044
hours, the bacteria will have time to
grow, producing and releasing harmful
quantities of toxin. When ingested with
food, the toxin irritates the gastroin-
testinal tract, causing vomiting,
nausea and diarrhoea. This causes
staph food poisoning.
Botany
Q. How are monosaccharides
formed from polysaccharides ?
☞ Polysaccharides are broken
down into their monosaccharide com-
ponents by hydrolysis. This process
is essentially reverse of dehydration
synthesis : each bond between
monomers is broken and a molecule
of water is added to form the original
monosaccharides. This process is
essential for use of sugars by cells;
starch and glycogen must be broken
down into monomers (glucose) before
their energy is available for cellular
work.
Q. Why is CO2 commonly
known as green house gas ?
☞ Since CO2 is confined exclu-
sively to the troposphere, its higher
concentration may act as a serious
pollutant. Although CO2 is a minor
component (about 0·0314%) of the
atmosphere, it plays a significant role
by absorbing radiant heat, catching
much like the glass of a green house.
That’s why we often term CO2 and
other heat-trapping gases as green
house gases. And we call the warm-
ing caused by these gases the green
house effect.
Q. What do you mean by
Enterobacter ?
☞ Enterobacter is a genus of
bacteria, formerly called Aerobacter.
Its members are motile, ferment lac-
tose, form gas from glucose, decar-
boxylate ornithine and utilize citrate,
but do not produce indole or hydro-
gen sulphide. The two recognized
species, Enterobacter cloacae and E.
aerogenes , are widely distributed in
nature (sewage, soil and water
sources) and are also found in human
and animal feces. A few species
Enterobacter agglomerans has been
proposed for strains formerly assig-
ned to the genus Erwinia.
Q. What is parsnip ? What are
its importance ?
☞ Parsnip (Pastinaca sativa) is a
hardy biennial plant of mediterranean
origin. It belongs to plant order—
Umbellales. The parsnip is grown for
its thickened taproot and is used
primarily as a cooked vegetable.
Exposure of mature roots to low tem-
peratures, not necessarily freezing
improves the quantity of the root by
favouring the conversion of starch to
sugar.
Q. What do you mean by rhizo-
sphere ? What are its effects on
plants ?
☞ Rhizosphere is the soil region
subject to the influence of plant roots.
It is characterized by a zone of
increased microbiological activity and
is an example of the relationship of
soil microbes to higher plants.
At the roof surface the rhizo-
sphere effect is most intense, falling
off sharply with increasing distance.
In the rhizosphere there are more
microorganisms than in soil distant
from the plant. The rhizosphere effect
is seen in seedling plants; it increases
with the age of the plant and usually
reaches a maximum at the stage of
greatest vegetative growth.
Q. What do you mean by intra-
specific competition ?
☞ Intraspecific competition is the
competition occurring between mem-
bers of the same species. It is likely to
be intense because individuals will
tend to share requirements for the
same resources. Although there may
be age differences in resource require-
ments or sex differences. By depress-
ing the fitness of individuals in crowded
populations, it influences both pro-
cesses like mortality and fecundity,
and hence regulates population size,
leading to behavioural adaptations to
overcome the competition, such as
territoriality and dispersal.
Q. What is oregano or marjo-
ram ? What are its important chrac-
teristics ?
☞ Oregano (marjoram) is a herb.
The dried leaves of several aromatic
plants are known as oregano. Thus
oregano is a common name for a
general flavour and aroma rather than
the name of a specific plant.
An European oregano (origanum
vulgare) and Greek oregano (Origa-
num hervacleoticum) are both in the
mint family Laminaceae. Euporopean
oregano can be distinguished by its
strong piquant character and tall
growth with dark, broad leaves; it is a
perennial erect herb, 2-3 feet tall with
pubescent stem, ovate, dark green
leaves and white or purple flowers.
Mexican oregano is obtained from
plants of Lippia graveolens.
Dried oregano leaves are used as
a culinary herb in meat and sausage
products, soup and salads. The
essential oil of oregano is used in food
products, cosmetics and liqueurs.
●●●
 According to the rules of the CSV
Quiz, all entry forms were examined.
As a result, the following participants
have qualified for various prizes. CSV
sends them greetings and good
wishes for their bright future. It also
places on record its appreciation for
their inquisitive nature and expresses
obligation for their co-operation.

PRIZE WINNERS
First Prize
Vijay Kumar
New Medicare
L. B. Palace Kadamkuan, Patna
Bihar–800 003
Second Prize
Gagandeep Singh
C/o Dayaram Verma
L-971 Shastri Nagar, Meerut
U.P.–250 004
Third Prize
Ravi Jaiswal
C/o Gaurav Jaiswal
Room No. 88, A. N. Jha Hostel,
University of Allahabad, Allahabad
U.P.–211 002

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

●●●

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1045

 1. A block of mass m = 2 kg is kept
at the floor of an elevator. The
elevator is suddenly pulled down
with an acceleration of 14·7 m/s2.
The distance moved by the block
in 0·3 sec from start is—
(A) 0·6615 m downwards
(B) 0·4410 m downwards
(C) 0·2205 m downwards
(D) 0·6615 m upwards
2. Light is a transverse electro-
magnetic wave carrying energy
through any cross-section at the
rate of— (in terms of electric and
magnetic field vector)
ε0 | E |2
2
| B |2
(A) (B)
2 2 μ0
|E×B| E 9. The enzyme carbonic anhydrase
(C) (D)
μ0 cB
3. A lump of copper wire (mass m,
density d and resistivity ρ ) is
drawn in a fine wire of length l
and radius r. The wire is folded
into a circular loop of diameter D
and then placed in a time varying
magnetic field varying at a rate
dB
= 100 gauss/sec. The induced
dt
electric current in the circular loop
is—
(A) Proportional to the length of
the wire
(B) Proportional to the diameter
of the wire
(C) Proportional to the radius of
the loop
(D) Proportional to the rate d B/ dt
4. A steel rod [density ρ = 7·8 × 103
kg/m3 and Young’s modulus
(Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2)] of length 50
cm is clamped at its mid point.
The number of natural longitudi-
nal oscillations of the rod within
audible frequency range will be—
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) None of these
5. A charge Q is placed at each of
the opposite corners of a square.
A charge q is placed at each of
the other two corners. If the net
electrical force on Q is zero, then
Q/ q equals—
1 (C) Protonema
(A) – (B) – 2 2
2 (D) All of the above
(C) – 1 (D) 1
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1046
6. The reagent not used in the
chloromethylation of benzene is—
(A) Cl2 (B) HCHO
(C) ZnCl2 (D) HCl
7. The most acidic of the following
is—
(A) CH3CH2COOH
(B) C6H5COOH
(C) ClCH2COOH
(D) All have the same acidic
value
8. If one litre of a gas X at 600 mm
and half litre of gas Y at 800 mm
are taken in a 2 litre tube, the
resulting pressure is—
(A) 500 mm (B) 1000 mm
(C) 5 mm (D) 2000 mm
catalyses the change—
(A) Maltose to glucose
(B) Lactose to glucose and
galactose
(C) Carbonic acid to CO2 and
H2O
(D) All of the above
10. The stage in a titration when the
indicator, in its widest sense,
undergoes maximum change in
colour for a small amount of
added titrant, is called—
(A) End point
(B) Filter press
(C) Fischer-Hepp rearrange-
ment
(D) Feedback inhibition
11. A receptor—
(A) Initiates nerve impulses
(B) Responds to only one type
of stimulus
(C) Is the first part of a reflex arc
(D) Performs all of the above
12. In amphibians and most reptiles,
the heart bears—
(A) No any atrium
(B) Two atria
(C) One atrium
(D) Three atria and one ventricle
13. A cross section at the mid point
of the middle piece of a healthy
human sperm will show—
(A) 9 + 2 arrangement of micro-
tubules only
(B) Centriole, mitochondria and
9 + 2 arrangement of micro-
tubules
(C) Mitochondria and 9 + 2
arrangement of microtubules
(D) Centriole and mitochondria
with three flagella
14. Lakes that are deficient in
nutrients and consequently low in
productivity are called—
(A) Oligotrophic
(B) Metatrophic
(C) Mesotrophic
(D) Eutrophic
15. Which part of the adult human
colon joins the rectum ?
(A) Sigmoid colon
(B) Transverse colon
(C) Ascending colon
(D) Descending colon
16. The feature of flowers of Stapelia
gigantea includes—
(A) Flowers are star-shaped
(B) Flowers have an elaborate
circular fleshy disc in the
centre
(C) Flowers have fringes of soft
white hairs on the petals
(D) All of the above
17. Amino acids derived from the
breakdown of well-stored seed
proteins also yield precursors
for—
(A) Gluconeogenesis
(B) Diuresis
(C) Atherosclerosis
(D) Amoebiasis
18. Which of the following is/are
correct regarding Cyanophyta ?
(A) No plastids
(B) Pyrenoid absent
(C) Cyanophycean starch found
in the chromatoplasm
(D) All of the above
19. Theory of spontaneous genera-
tion was prevalent in—
(A) Chinese
(B) Egyptian
(C) Babylonian
(D) All of the above
20. The spores of Funaria after
germination give rise to—
(A) Archegonia
(B) Antheridia
●●●
 Rules for taking part in Quiz Contest
of Competition Science Vision

1. All students or those appearing in competitive

examinations can take part in this contest.
2. Candidates taking part in quiz contest will necessarily
have to send their entries by a fixed date. Entries are
to be sent by ordinary post. Please mark your
envelope 'Quiz–Competition Science Vision' on
the top left hand side.
3. Answers given only on the form of the magazine will Solution to Quiz No. 137
be admissible.
4. In the form there are four squares against each Competition Science Vision
question number. Contestants should put a cross (×)
in the square for the answer they think is correct.
Last date for sending 28th October, 2009
Giving more than one answer to a question will
disqualify it. Name Mr./Miss/Mrs. ...........................….........................
5. Contestants should essentially write the number of
questions they have solved.
Full Address ...................................…..........................
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Rs. 300 as second and third prize respectively. If
there are more than one candidate eligible for a
prize, the amount will be equally distributed among Age.................. Academic Qualification........................
them. Competition examination for which preparing
8. The decision of the editor will be final and binding in
....................................................................................
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 Directions—(Q. 1–3) These 6. In a certain code CONCISE is 12. In a row of children facing North,
questions are based on the following written as FTJBBNM. How is Bharat is eleventh from the right
information : FISHERY written in that code ? end and is third to the right of
‘A + B’ means ‘A is father of B’. (A) ZSFIGJT Samir who is fifteenth from the
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’. (B) ZSFGIHR left end. Total how many
children are there in the row ?
‘A – B’ means ‘A is sister of B’. (C) ZSFGEHR
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is brother of B’. (A) 29 (B) 28
(D) ZSFEHGR
1. Which of the following expres- (C) 30 (D) 27
(E) None of these
sions represents ‘J is daughter of (E) None of these
D’ ? 7. Four of the following five are
alike in a certain way and so 13. In a certain code READ is written
(A) D × K + J ÷ H as #5%6 and PAID is written as
form a group. Which is the one
(B) D × K + H – J that does not belong to the $%46. How is RIPE written in
(C) D × K + J – H group ? that code ?
(D) D + K ÷ J (A) Snake (B) Crocodile (A) #4$5 (B) #6$5
(E) None of these (C) Frog (D) Lizard (C) $4#5 (D) $4#6
(E) Fish (E) None of these
2. In M ÷ L + T × R, how is T related
to M ? 8. How many meaningful English 14. If it is possible to make only one
(A) Nephew words can be made from the meaningful word from the first,
(B) Niece letters ADER, using each letter the fourth, the fifth and the ninth
(C) Nephew or Niece only once in each word ? letters of the word VERSATILE
(D) Daughter (A) None (B) One using each letter only once
(E) Cannot be determined (C) Two (D) Three second letter of that word is your
(E) More than three answer. If more than one such
3. Which of the following expres-
word can be formed your answer
sions represents ‘V is mother of 9. How many such pairs of letters
is M and if no such word can be
L’ ? are there in the word PRELI-
formed your answer is N.
(A) V ÷ F + J – L MINARY each of which have as
(B) F × V + J – L many letters between them in the (A) A (B) S
(C) F ÷ V + J – L word, as they have in the English (C) E (D) N
(D) V × F + J – L alphabet ? (E) M
(E) None of these (A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three 15. What will come next in the series
Directions—(Q. 4 and 5) These given below ?
(E) More than three
questions are based on following set 11212312341234512
of numbers : 10. How many such digits are there
3456123456712345
349 483 766 598 674 in the number 57683421, each of
which is as far away from the (A) 1 (B) 5
4. If in each of the numbers the
beginning of the number, as they (C) 6 (D) 2
positions of the first two digits are
interchanged and then the will be when arranged in descen- (E) None of these
numbers are arranged in ascend- ding order within the number ?
Directions—(Q. 16–23) In these
ing order which number will be at (A) None (B) One questions the symbols @, #, ★, $ and
the second position ? (C) Two (D) Three © are used with different meanings as
(A) 349 (B) 483 (E) More than three follows :
(C) 766 (D) 598 11. If in the word CALIBRE, the ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is not greater
(E) 674 previous letter in the English than B’.
5. If in each of the numbers the alphabet replaces each conso-
‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither
positions of the first and the third nant and each vowel is replaced
greater than nor equal to B’.
digits are interchanged and then by the next letter and then the
order of letters is reversed, which ‘A ★ B’ means ‘A is not smaller
the numbers are arranged in
descending order which number letter will be third from the right than B’.
will be at the fourth position ? end ? ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither
(A) 349 (B) 483 (A) A (B) C smaller than nor equal to B’.
(C) 766 (D) 598 (C) B (D) K ‘A © B’ means ‘A is neither
(E) 674 (E) None of these greater than nor smaller than B’.

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1049

 Now in each of the following (C) Only III and either I or II are (ii) If the first as well as the last
questions assuming the given state- true letter is a vowel, both are to be coded
ments to be true, find out which of the (D) Only either I or II is true as £.
conclusions I, II, III given below them (E) None is true (iii) If the first letter is a vowel and
is/are definitely true and mark your the last letter is a consonant both are
answer accordingly. 21. Statements : to be coded by the code for con-
V # W, W ★ T, T © K, K @ F sonant.
16. Statements :
Conclusions : I. T @ V 24. PTLAFI—
H $ K, K © R, R @ J, J # F (A) 3219©4 (B) 4219©3
II. T $ V
Conclusions : I. R # H (C) 4219©4 (D) 3219©3
III. F ★ T
II. F $ R (E) None of these
(A) Only either I or II is true
III. H $ J 25. FQUEJL—
(B) Only III is true
(A) Only I and II are true (A) %#@7$% (B) 1#@7$©
(C) Only I and II are true
(B) Only I is true (D) Only III and either I or II are (C) 1#@7$1 (D) ©#@7$1
(C) Only II is true true (E) None of these
(D) Only II and III are true (E) None of these 26. AJQTHI—
(E) All are true 22. Statements : (A) 9$#259 (B) 9$#254
17. Statements : F ★ E, E © H, H @ I, I $ W (C) £$#25£ (D) 4$#259
L @ M, M ★ P, M # D, D $ F Conclusions : I. W # H (E) None of these
Conclusions : I. L @ P II. F $ H 27. EBGLRQ—
II. P @ D III. E # I (A) #%★16# (B) 7%★L6#
III. M © F (A) None is true (C) #%★167 (D) 7%★167
(A) Only I is true (B) Only I and II are true (E) None of these
(B) Only III is true (C) Only III is true 28. DUARFE—
(C) Only either I or III is true (D) Only either I or III is true (A) 8@96©7 (B) 8@96©8
(D) Only I and II are true (E) None of these (C) 7@96©7 (D) %@96©%
(E) None is true 23. Statements : (E) None of these
18. Statements : L @ R, R # M, N $ M, N # K Directions—(Q. 29–33) Study
T @ V, V # Q, Q © L, L ★ M Conclusions : I. L # N the following information carefully to
Conclusions : I. M @ Q II. K $ M answer these questions.
II. T @ L III. R # N J, K, H, R, F, L, N and Q are
III. T # L (A) None is true sitting around a circular table facing
the centre. H is third to the left of L
(A) Only I is true (B) Only I and II are true and is to the immediate right of K. R
(B) Only II is true (C) Only I and III are true is third to the left of N but is not a
(C) Only III is true (D) Only II and III are true neighbour of H or L. J is second to
(E) All are true the right of Q.
(D) Only I and III are true
29. Who is second to the left of N ?
(E) None of these Directions—(Q. 24–28) In each (A) Q (B) K
of these questions, a group of letters (C) J (D) F or J
19. Statements :
is given followed by four combinations (E) None of these
J ★ E, D @ E, E $ K, K © T of digits/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C)
Conclusions : I. J $ D and (D). The letters are to be coded 30. Which of the following groups of
persons has the first person
II. J ★ D as per the scheme and conditions
sitting between the next two ?
III. E $ T given below. You have to find out
(A) LKN (B) QFL
which of the four digit/symbol combi-
(A) None is true (C) JHR (D) JHF
nations correctly represents the group
(B) Only II and III are true (E) None of these
of letters. The serial letter of that
(C) Only I and III are true combination is your answer. If none 31. Who is to the immediate left of
of the combinations is correct, your R?
(D) All are true
answer is (E) i.e. ‘None of these’. (A) Q (B) K
(E) None of these (C) F (D) N
Letters :
20. Statements : (E) None of these
PEQARTJLFIHUBDG
H @ I, I # L, L ★ A, A $ Q 32. Which of the following is correct
Digit/Symbol : position of J with respect to K ?
Conclusions : I. H#L
37#962$1©45@%8★ (A) Third to the left
II. H★L
Conditions : (i) If the first letter (B) Third to the right
III. Q # H is a consonant and the last letter is a (C) Second to the left
(A) Only I is true vowel their codes are to be inter- (D) Second to the right
(B) Only I and II are true changed. (E) Fourth to the right

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1050

33. Four of the following five are alike
in a certain way on the basis of
their seating positions and so
form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to the
group ?
(A) RQ (B) LK
(C) HJ (D) JR
(E) FN

●●●

C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1052

 1. If a new State of the Indian Union
is to be created which one of the
following Schedules of the Cons-
titution must be amended ?
(A) First (B) Second
(C) Third (D) Fifth
2. When water is heated from 0°C
to 10°C its volume—
(A) Decreases
(B) Does not change
(C) Increase
(D) First decreases and then
increases
3. Which one of the following is not
radioactive ?
(A) Tritium (B) Astatine
(C) Francium (D) Zirconium
4. Centre for DNA finger printing
and diagnostics is situated at—
(A) Chandigarh (B) Hyderabad
(C) New Delhi (D) Lucknow
5. Which one of the following ani-
mals was not represented on the
seals and terracotta art of Harap-
pan culture ?
(A) Cow (B) Rhinoceros
(C) Tiger (D) Elephant
6. The range of Agni-II missile is
around—
(A) 5000 km (B) 2000 km
(C) 500 km (D) 3500 km
7. The approximate age of the
Aravalli range is—
(A) 370 million years
(B) 670 million years
(C) 470 million years
(D) 570 million years
8. In reference to the provisions as
enshrined in the Constitution of
India which of the following
statements is incorrect ?
(A) Article 56 provides for the
President of India
(B) In Article 75 is enshrined the
appointment of the Prime
Minister and Council of
Ministers
(C) Article 155 mentions the
appointment of the Governor
of a state
(D) Article 164 provides for the
appointment of Chief Minister
and Council of Ministers of a
State
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1053
9. World Ozone Day is observed
on—
(A) March 20
(B) June 5
(C) September 16
(D) October 3
10. Under the Permanent Settlement
of 1793, the Zamindars were
required to issue pattas to the
farmers which were not issued
by many of the Zamindars. The
reason was—
(A) It was the responsibility of
the British government
(B) There was no official check
upon the Zamindars
(C) The farmers were not inte-
rested in getting pattas
(D) The Zamindars were trusted
by the farmers
11. The Mongols under Chenghis
Khan invaded India during the
reign of—
(A) Feroz Tughlaq
(B) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(C) Iltutmish
(D) Balban
12. The most appropriate measure of
a country’s economic growth is
its—
(A) Net National Product
(B) Gross Domestic Product
(C) Net Domestic Product
(D) Per Capita Real Income
13. The Supreme Court of India
tenders advice to the President
on a matter of law or fact—
(A) Only if the issue poses a
threat to the unity and
integrity of the country
(B) Only if he seeks such advice
(C) On its own initiative
(D) Only if the matter relates to
the Fundamental Rights of
Citizens
14. Which of the following year was
observed as the International
year of Coral Reefs—
(A) 2007 (B) 2006
(C) 2008 (D) None of these
15. Mangroves in India account for
about—
(A) 9% of world’s mangrove
vegetation
(B) 5% of world’s mangrove
vegetation
(C) 8% of world’s mangrove
vegetation
(D) 3% of world’s mangrove
vegetation
16. Which of the following was not
the major achievement of Lord
Hastings ?
(A) Subsidiary Alliance
(B) Suppression of Pindaris
(C) Treaty of Sagauli (1816)
(D) End of the Maratha Con-
federacy
17. When Sindh was conquered in
1843 by the Britishers, the
Governor-General was—
(A) Lord Ellenborough
(B) Lord Auckland
(C) Lord Dalhousie
(D) Lord Hastings
18. Which of the following was not
the party to the Tripartite Treaty
signed in 1839 ?
(A) Maharaja Ranjit Singh
(B) Shah Shuja of Afghanistan
(C) Mughal Emperor Shah
Alam II
(D) The English
19. Ogaden region has been a
source of conflict between which
two countries ?
(A) Ethiopia and Somalia
(B) Morocco and Algeria
(C) Nigeria and Cameroon
(D) Angola and Zambia
20. During the time of which Mughal
Emperor did the English East
India Company establish its first
factory in India ?
(A) Akbar (B) Jahangir
(C) Shahjahan (D) Aurangzeb
21. Which one of the following Union
Ministries is implementing the
Biodiesel Mission (as Nodal
Ministry) ?
(A) Ministry of Agriculture
(B) Ministry of Science and
Technology
 (C) Ministry of New and Renew-
able Energy
(D) Ministry of Rural Develop-
ment
22. Who among the Gandhian fol-
lowers was a teacher by profes-
sion ?
(A) A. N. Sinha
(B) Braj Kishore Prasad
(C) J. B. Kriplani
(D) Rajendra Prasad
23. Which one of the following laser
types is used in a laser type
printer ?
(A) Dye laser
(B) Gas laser
(C) Semiconductor laser
(D) Excimer laser
24. Among the following which one
has the minimum population on
the basis of data of Census of
India, 2001 ?
(A) Chandigarh (B) Mizoram
(C) Puducherry (D) Sikkim
25. What is the name of the scheme
which provides training and
skills to women in traditional and
non-traditional trades ?
(A) Kishori Shakti Yojana
(B) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
(C) Swayamsiddha
(D) Swawlamban
26. Pedology is a science/study of—
(A) Vegetation (B) Mountains
(C) Soil (D) Continent
27. Which one of the following
figures represents the age of the
earth ?
(A) 4·6 million year
(B) 4·6 billion year
(C) 13·7 billion year
(D) 13·7 trillion year
28. Which one of the following has
the longest duration ?
(A) Eons (B) Era
(C) Period (D) Epoch
29. The prices at which the govern-
ment purchases foodgrains for
maintaining the public distribu-
tion system and for building up
bufferstocks is known as—
(A) Ceiling prices
(B) Procurement prices
(C) Minimum support prices
(D) Issue prices
C.S.V. / October / 2009 / 1054
30. The first biosphere reserve of
India is—
(A) Gulf of Mannar biosphere
reserve
(B) Nilgiri biosphere reserve
(C) Nanda Devi
(D) Sunderbans
31. The Cartagena Protocol on Bio-
safety came into force on—
(A) September 11, 2003
(B) June 5, 2002
(C) May 12, 2005
(D) February 5, 2005
32. Who among the following was the
President of the All India State’s
People Conference in 1939 ?
(A) Sardar Vallabbhai Patel
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Jaya Prakash Narayan
(D) Sheikh Abdullah
33. The Government of India has
notified as Minorities—
(A) Five Communities
(B) Six Communities
(C) Seven Communities
(D) Four Communities
34. The earlier name of WTO was—
(A) OECD (B) GATT
(C) UNCTAD (D) UNIDO
35. Volcanic eruptions do not occur
in the—
(A) Baltic Sea
(B) Caspian Sea
(C) Black Sea
(D) Caribbean Sea
36. Athletes Foot is a disease caused
by—
(A) Nematode (B) Fungus
(C) Bacteria (D) Protozoa
37. Who among the following was
the first Bhakti saint to use Hindi
for the propagation of his mes-
sage ?
(A) Dadu (B) Kabir
(C) Ramanand (D) Tulsidas
●●●