Ammar Entry Test

SubId ChaptId Question OPt1 OPt2 OPt3
1 1 The "first light" of big bang from the far side

of universe has recently been detected by
the radio-telescopes as
Sound waves Water waves light waves
1 1 the wold of complex matter falls in a
category of
world of
extremely
large bodies
world of
extremely
small bodies
world of
middle-sized
bodies
1 1 The branch of physics in which we study the
matter and energy and the relationship
between them is called
Biology Chemistry Physics
1 1 Many physicists started believing that every
thing about physics has been discovered by
the end of
17th century 18th century 19th century
1 1 the branch of physics which deals with the
atomic nuclei is called
nuclear physics atomic physics particule
physics
1 1 the branch of physics which is concerned
with the atomic nuclei is called
nuclear physics atomic physics modern
physics
1 1 the relativistic mechanics is the branch of
physics in which we deals with the velocities
of bodies
equal to
velocity of light
greater than
the velocity of
light
approaching to
velocity of light
1 1 the branch of physics in which we study the
structure and properties of solids is called
nuclear physics modern
physics
particle physics
1 1 the most fundamental of all sciences which
provides basic principles and fundamental
laws to other branches of science is
physics chemistry biology
1 1 we are living in the age of chaos technology peace
1 1 The computer chips are made of semi-
conductors
silicon sand
1 1 Silicon can be obtained from rocks mud sand
1 1 Which of the following are the
interdisciplinary areas of physics I)
astrophycs (ii) chemical physics (iii)
geophysics
One of them two of them three of them
1 1 the quantities like mass, length, time,
velocity, force, temperature and electric
current are the examples of
Scalar
quantities
vector
quantties
physical
quantities
1 1 physical quantities are divided into two categories three
categories
four categories
1 1 The quantitites whose definitions are based
on the other physical quantitites are called
Scalar
quantities
vactor
quantities
base quantities
1 1 Velocity, acceleration, force, area, volume
are all examples of
Scalar
quantities
Vector
Qquantities
base quantities
1 1 Length, mass, time, current and intensity of
light are all examples of
Scalar
quantities
vector
quantities
base quantities
1 1 Is charge a base SI quantity. yes no sometimes
1 1 the SI unit of amount of substance is ampere (A) Kelvin (K) candela (CD)
1 1 the units of plane angle and solid angles are
the examples of
Bbase units derived units supplementary
units
1 2 The direction of a vector in a plane is
denoted by the angle which the vector
makes with positive x-axis in the
anti-clock wise
direction
clock-wise
direction
upwards
1 2 The direction of a vector in space is
specified by the
one angle two angles three angles
1 2 In head to tail rule of vector addition, the
sum of two or more than two vector can be
found by
joining the tail
of the first with
the head of
second
joining the
head of the
first with the
tail of second
joining the
head of the
first with the
head of second
1 2 The vector addition process is a distributive
process
associative
process
commutative
1 2 A single vector which have the same effect
as all the original vectors taken together is
called the
unit vector resultant vector null vector
1 2 In order to subtract a vector B from from
vector A we
reverse the
dire
reverse the
direction of B
and add it to A
Keep the
same direction
of B and add it
to A
1 2 Subtraction of vector B from vector A we use
the following mathematicalrelation
A- B=A-B A-B=A+b A-B=A+(-B)
1 2 When a vector A is multiplied by a positive
number n then the new vector nA has the
same director
as A but a
magnitude n
times the
magnitude of A
opposite
direction on A
but a
magnitude n
times the
magnitude of A
same direction
as A and
same
magnitude as
of A
1 2 When a vector A is multiplied by a negative
number -n: then the new vector -nA has the
opposite
direction as A
but a
magnitude 'n'
times the
magnitude of A
same direction
as A but a
magnitude 'n'
times the
magnitude of A
same direction
and same
magnitude as
of A
1 2 When velocity is multiplied by scalar mass
'm: the product is a new vector quantity
called momentium having the
same
dimensions as
that of velocity
same
dimensions as
that of mass
same
dimensions of
mass and
velocity
1 2 A vector in a given direction with magnitude
one is called
null vector equal vector resultant vector
1 2 Null vector is a vector which has zero
magnitude but
has a certain
direction
zero
magnitude but
has an
arbitrary
direction
arbitrary
magnitude and
certain
direction
1 2 Mathematically a null vector can be
represented as
A + A =0 A + (-Ax)=0 A + (-A) =0
1 2 Rectangular components of a vector are
those components which have the following
angle between them
0 30 45
1 3 The magnitude of the displacement is a line
form initial position to final position which is
straight curved either straight
or curved
1 3 the displacement coincides with the path of
the motion when a body moves in a
curved line straight line may be curved
or straight
1 3 velocity is a Scalar
quantities
vector quantity constant
quantity
1 3 Dimensions of velocity are [L] [T] [LT-1]
1 3 when we consider the average velocity of a
body, then the body is moving in
straight line curved path may be in a
straight or
curved path
1 3 if a ball comes back to its starting point after
bouncing off the wall several times, then its
total
displacements
is zero
average
velocity is zero
none of them
1 3 The instantaneous velocity is define as the
limiting value of d/t on the time interval t
approaches to
zero maximum minimum
1 3 if the instantaneous velocity of a body does
not change, the body is said to be moving
with
average
velocity
uniform velocity instantaneous
velocity
1 3 The rate of change of velocity is known as displacement distance velocity
1 3 acceleration is a scalar quantity imaginary
quantity
vector
1 3 velocity of a body changes if direction of the
body changes
speed of the
body changes
neither speed
nor direction
changes,
1 3 the direction of the acceleration is the same
as that of
speed velocity both of them
1 3 acceleratio of a body at any particular instant
during its motion is known as
average
acceleration
uniform
acceleration
instantaneous
acceleration
1 3 If the velocity of a body changes by egqual
amount in equal intervals of tiem, the body is
said to have
acceleration uniform
acceleratin
instantaneous
acceleration
1 3 when a body is moving with uniform
acceleration, its average acceleration is
less than
instantaneous
acceleration
greater than
instantaneous
acceleration
equal to
instantaneous
acceleraiton
1 3 The distance travelled by a body in one
second is called
speed velocity acceleration
1 4 If the angle 0 between the force and
displacement is less than 90, then the work
done will be
positive negative zero
displacement is equal to 90, then the work
done will be
1 4 If the angle between the force and
displacement is grater then 90, then the
work done will be
1 4 If the displacement occurs in the direction of
force, then the work done will be
1 4 the SI Unit of work is N-s N-m2 N-m
1 4 in which of the following, force does not
remain constant during the process of doing
work (I) a rocket moves away form earth (ii)
work done against the force of gravity (iii)
force exerted on the spring
(I) only (I) and (ii) only (I),(ii) and (iii)
only
1 4 A force of 5N applied on a body and the
body moves 4.5 meters in the direction of
applied force, then the work done will be
20 N 22.5 N 20J
1 4 The space around the earth in which its
gravitational force acts on a body is called
Magnetic field electric field electromanetic
field
1 4 In the gravitational field, the work done will
be negative, if
the
displacement
is in the
directin of
gravitational
force
the
displacements
is against the
gravitational
force
the
displacemetn
is
perpendicular
to the
gravitational
force
be positive, if
the
displacement
is in the
direction of
gravitational
force
the
displacements
is against the
gravitaiotnal
force
the
displacement
is
perpendicular
to the
gravitational
force
1 4 The gravitational field is non-
conservatiove
filed
conservative
field
constant field
1 4 work done in Earth's gravitational field is independent of
the path
followed
dependent of
the path
followed
both of them
1 4 the field in which the work done is
independent of the path followed or work
done in a closed path is zero is called a
variable field constant field non
conservative
field
1 4 which of the following is example of non
conservative force
frictional force damping force viscous force
1 4 the rate of doing work is known as work power energy
1 4 power is a vector quantity scalar quantity imaginary
1 4 The Si unit is power is joule Kg-m/s newton
1 4 kilowatt hour is aunit of mechanical
energy
potential
energy
electrical
energy
1 5 Angle subtended at the centre of circular
path by a body is known as
linear
displacement
angular
displacement
linear velocity
1 5 when a body is moving in a clockwise
direction then the angular displacement is
zero
magnitude but
has a certain
direction
maximum negative
1 5 when a body is moving in anticlockwise
direction in a circle, then the angular
displacement is taken as
zero maximum negative
1 5 the direction associated with the angualr
displacement is
along the
radius
perpendicular
to radius
along the axis
of rotation
1 5 the direction of angular acceleration is given
by
left hand rule right hand rule fleemings left
hand rule
1 5 according to the right hand rule, the direction
of angular displacement is along the
thumb first fingers second finger
1 5 according to the right hand rule, the direction
of motion of a body is indicated by
the direction of
thumb
direction of
first finger
curl of the
fingers
1 5 the SI unit of angular displacement is degree revolution radian
1 5 One radian is equal to 60 180 360
1 5 when a body completes one revolution, then
the angular displacement in degrees is
180 270 360
1 5 the rate at which angular displacement is
changing with time is called
linear
displacement
velocity linear velocity
1 5 angular displacement is a scalar quantity vector quantity constant
quantity
1 5 angular velocity is a scalar quantity vector quantity fixed quantity
1 5 the SI unit of angular velocity is revolution per
second
revolution per
minute
radians per
second
1 5 rate of change of angular velocity is defined
as
acceleration linear
acceleration
instantaneous
acceleration
1 5 the direction of angular velocity is along the
radius
perpendicular
to radius
along the circle
1 5 which of the following quantity has direction
along the axis of rotation
angular
displacement
angular velocity angular
acceleration
1 5 the direction of angular acceleration is given
by
left hand rule fleemings left
hand rule
right hand rule
1 5 any point on a rigid body which is moving in
a circular path can be completely described
by
body moving
in a straight
line
body moving
in a circular
path
may be in
straight line or
circular path
1 5 the direction of linear velocity of a body
moving in a circle is
along the axis
of rotation
along the
radius
perpendicular
of radius
1 5 the linear velocity of a body moving in a
circular path is also known as
angular velocity radial velocity tangential
velocity
1 6 substances that do not flow easily have large
coefficient of
viscosity
small
coefficient of
viscosity
either of them
1 6 substances that flow easily have large
coefficient of
viscosity
small
coefficient of
viscosity
either of them
1 6 liquids and gases have zero viscosity non zero
viscosity
very large
viscosity
1 6 an object moving through a fluid experiences
a retarding force called a
frictional force terminal force opposing force
1 6 when the speed of a body in a fluid
increases then the drag force
decreases becomes zero increases
1 6 at low speeds, the drag force is proportional to
speed
inversely
proportional to
speed
not simply
proportional to
speed
1 6 at high speeds, the drag force is proportional to
speed
inversely
proportional to
speed
not simply
proportional to
speed
1 6 when a water droplet falling freely through
air, the drag force on water droplet increases
with the
decrease in
speed
increase in
speed
pressure
1 6 when a water droplet falls through air, the
net force on it is
net force =
drag force -
weight
net force =
weight - drag
force
net force =
drag force +
weight
1 6 when weight of an object falling freely
becomes equal to the drag force, then the
body will move with
increasing
speed
decreasing
speed
constant speed
1 6 during the free fall motion of an object, when
its weight becomes equal to the drag force,
then it will move with
maximum
speed
minimum
speed
zero speed
1 6 the body will move with terminal velocity
when it acquires
minimum
speed
zero speed maximum
speed
1 6 when the body reaches its terminal velocity,
the acceleration of the body becomes
maximum
speed
minimum
speed
zero
1 6 at the starting point of the free fall motion of
an object its speed will be
maximum
speed
minimum
speed
zero
1 6 a water hose with an internal diameter of 20
mm at the outlet discharges 30 kg of water
in 60 s. what is water speed at the outlet if
density of water is 1000 Kg/m3 during its
steady flow.
1.3 m/s 1.6m/s 1.9 m/s
1 6 the direction of the streamlines is the same
as the direction of the
force torque velocity
1 6 when the different streamlines cannot cross
each other, then this condition is known as
continuity
condition
turbulent flow
condition
steady flow
condition
1 6 when each particle of the fluid moves along
a smooth path, this path is known as
straight path smooth path haphazard path
1 6 during the steady flow, different streamlines cannot across
each other
can across
each other
either of them
1 6 if every particle of the flow that passes a
particular point, moves along the same path
as followed by particles which passed the
point earlier, then this flow is said to be
turbulent streamline abrupt
1 6 when a fluid is in motion, its flow can be
considered as
turbulent streamline either of them
1 6 according to the equation of continuity, when
water falls from the tap, it's speed increases
and its cross sectional area
decreases increases becomes zero
1 6 the product of cross sectional area of the
pipe and the fluid speed at any point along
the pipe is
very high very low constant
1 7 the force which opposes the applied force
producing the displacement in the spring is
called
restoring force periodic force centripetal
force
1 7 the vibratory or oscillatory motion of a body is translatory
motion
back and forth
motion about
its mean
position
free fall motion
1 7 the vibratory motion of a body whose
magnitude of acceleration is directly
proportional to the magnitude of its
displacement and is always directed towards
the equilibrium position is called.
rotatory motion motion under
gravity
angular motion
1 7 one complete to and fro trip of the body
about its mean position is called
displacement vibration a complete
motion
1 7 the time required to complete one vibration
is called
time period frequency time period
1 7 the number of vibrations completed by a
body in one second is called
time period frequency total vibrations
1 7 the distance of vibrating body at any instant
from its equilibrium position is called
displacement frequency amplitude
1 7 for a body executing S.H.M, its momentum
remains
constant
potential
energy
remains
constant
kinetic energy
remains
constant
1 7 when a body is performing S.H.M., its
acceleration is
inversely
proportional to
the
displacement
directly
proportional to
the applied
force
directly
proportional to
the amplitude
1 7 which of the following is an example of a
S.H.M?
motion of a
projectile
motion of a
train along a
circular path
motion of
swing
1 7 which of the following does not exhibit
S.H.M?
a plucked
violin string
a mass
attached to a
spring
a train
shunting
between two
terminals
1 7 if the displacement of a body executing
S.H.M is plotted against time, then the curve
is known as
frequency of
S.H.M
period of
S.H.M
wave form
1 7 the wave from of S.H.M will be square wave sine wave rectified wave
1 7 an object undergoes S.H.M has maximum
speed when its displacement from the mean
position is
maximum
speed
zero half of the
maximum
value
1 7 an object undergoes S.H.M has maximum
acceleration when its displacement form the
mean position is
maximum zero half of the
maximum
value
1 7 SI unit of time period is second hertz revolutio n
1 8 In case of mechanical waves, we study the
motion of
a singl eparticle collection of
particles
any one of
them
1 8 a wave, which transfers energy by moving
away from the source of disturbance is
called a
progressive
wave
travellign wave both of them
1 8 example of progressive wave is transverse
waves
longitudinal
waves
both of them
1 8 the waves in which the particles of the
medium are displaced in a direction
perpendicular to the direction of propagation
of waves are knowns as
longitudinal
waves
transverse
waves
non
mechanical
waves
1 8 the waves in which the particles of the
medium have displacement along the
direction of propagation of waves are called
longitudinal
waves
transverse
waves
non
mechanical
waves
1 8 which type of wave can be set up in solids longitudinal
waves
transverse
waves
both of them
1 8 which type of wave can be set up in fluids. longitudinal
waves
transverse
waves
both of them
1 8 sound is an example of longitudinal
waves
transverse
waves
both of them
1 8 waves on the water surface is an example of longitudinal
waves
transverse
waves
both of them
1 8 when we make a single disturbance in a
medium, then the wave produced in the form
of
a periodic wave a continuous
wave
a pulse
1 8 an oscillating mass spring system is an
example of
pulse discontinous
wave
periodic wave
1 8 a pattern in which the particles of the
medium are displaced above the equilibrium
position is called
trough crest amplitude
1 8 a pattern in which the particles of the
medium are displaced below the equilibrium
position is called
1 8 the maximum displacement of the particles
on either side of the equilibrium positio is
called
1 8 wavelength is the distance between any two crests any two
troughs
two
consecutive
crests or
troughs
1 8 the speed of a periodic wave can be found
indirectly from its
frequency of
S.H.M
wavelength frequency and
wavelength
1 8 as a wave progresses, each point in the
medium oscillates with the
smaller
frequency and
same period of
the source
same
frequency and
same period of
the source
same
frequency and
smaller period
of the source
1 8 the profile of periodic waves generated by a
source executing SHM is represented by a
tangent cuve sine curve cosine curve
1 8 the particles of the medium, as the wave
passes through it are in phase with each
other if
they are at the
same distance
from
equilibrium
position.
they are
moving in the
same direction
both of them
1 8 the longitudinal wave produced in a spring is
also called a
transverse
waves
e.m.wave ripple wave
1 8 the regions of the spring in which spring is
stretched more than its normal position are
called
compressions rarefactions troughs
1 8 The regions of the spring in which spring is
compressed more than its normal position is
called
compressions rarefactions troughs
1 8 In a compressional wave, the particles of the
medium in the path of the wave move.
perpendicular
to the directio
of propagation
of wave
opposite to the
direction of
propagatio nof
wave
along the
direction of
propagatio of
wave
1 9 In case of a point source, the shape of the
wavefront is
straight elliptical oval
1 9 a line normal to the wavefront including the
direction of motion is called
perpendicular
line
parallel line a ray of light
1 9 the waves propagate in space by the motion
of the
wavelengths frequencies wavefronts
1 9 a limited region taken on a wavefront which
is far away form the source as
plane
wavefront
circular
wavefront
spherical
wavefront
1 9 the light from Sun reached earth in the form
of
plane
wavefront
circular
wavefront
spherical
wavefront
1 9 In the study of interference and diffraction,
we consider
plane waves plane
wavefronts
both of them
1 9 Usual way to obtain a plane wave is to place
point source of light at the focus of a
concave lens convex lens both of them
1 9 By which principle we can locate the position
of new wavefront after a later time
principle of
irreversibility
principal of light archimedes
principle
1 9 According to huygen's, every point of a
wavefront may be considered as a source of
primary
wavelets
secondary
wavelets
either of them
1 9 According to huygen's principle, the new
position of the wavefront after a time can be
found by constructing a surface that touches
all the
primary
wavelets
secondary
wavelets
either of them
1 9 The wave nature of light was first proposed
by
Huygen thomas young newton
1 9 Huygen's principle is used to study the formation of
waverfronts
propagation of
wavefronts
nature of light
1 9 According to the huygen's principle, the
secondary wavelets propagate in the forward
direction with a speed equal to
speed of wave
motion
speed of
medium
speed of
electrons
1 9 The medium in which speed of light is the
same in all directions is called
non-
homogeneous
medium
homogeneous
medium
both of them
1 9 When two lights waves traveling the same
direction are in phase at any point, they
produce
constructive
interference
destructive
interference
despersion
1 9 When the light waves of the same frequency
and amp;itude travelling in the same
direction are superimposed each other, they
give rise to
interference diffraction dispersion
1 9 When two light waves travelling in the same
direction are out of phase at any point, their
resultant amplitude
increases decreases remains
unchanged
1 9 Light waves produce interference when sources are
monochromatic
sources are
phase
conherent
sources are
close together
1 9 A monochromatic source of light gives light of one colour two colours seven colours
1 10 As the object is brought from a far off point
to the focus, the magnification
goes on
decreasing
goes on
increasing
remains the
same
1 10 The closer the object to the eye, the greater is the
angle
subtended at
the eye
samaller is the
angle
subtended at
the eye
no effect on
the angle
1 10 When the object is placed at the near point,
the eye sees the size of the object
maximum minimum either of them
1 10 When the object is placed inside the near
point, the details of the object are
visible clearly visible not visible
1 10 The ratio of the angles subtended by the
image as seen through the optical device to
that subtended by the object at the unaided
eye is called
magnifying
power
angular
magnification
none of them
1 10 On a microscope or a telescope which thing
tells us that how close together the two point
sources of light can be, so that they are still
seen as two separate sources
magnification linear
magnification
optical
magnification
1 10 The ability of an instrument to reveal the
minor details of the object under
examination is called
magnification optical
magnification
resolving
power
1 10 The minimum angle which two point sources
subtends at the instrument so that their
images are seen as two distinct spots of light
rather than one is expressed
magnification optical
magnification
resolving
power
1 10 The lens which can be used to help the eye
to see small objects distinctly is
convex lens concave lens either of them
1 10 A watch maker uses which lens to mend the
watches
convex lens concave lens either of them
1 10 When the object is placed inside the focal
point of the convex lens, the image formed
will be
magnified and
real
magnified and
virtual
diminished
and real
1 10 For a lens of higher angular magnification
the focal length should be
small large very large
viscosity
1 10 for a simple microscope, the focal length is
5 cm and the distance of the object to the
eye is 25 cm, then the magnifications is
5 10 15
1 10 Whenever high magnification is desired, we
will use
simple
microscope
compound
microscope
any of them
1 10 The compound microscope consists of one convex
lens
two convex
lenses
one
concavelens
1 10 In a compound microscope, the focal
lehngth of object lens is
very large large short
1 10 The object of height 'h' is placed in a
compound microscope
at the principle
focus of
objective
at the principle
focus of eye-
piece
just beyond
the principle
focus of the
objective
1 10 The objective of the compound microscope
produces a
real and
magnified
image
real and
diminished
image
vitual and
magnified
image
1 10 The objective of the compound microscope
formed the image
at the focus of
the eye-piece
just beyond
the focus of
eye-piece
inside the
focus of the
eye-piece
1 10 In a compound microscope, the eye-piece is
positioned so that the final image is formed
at the
for point of eye objective focus of
objective
1 11 The pressure exerted by the gas is directly
proportional to
the P.E.
inversely
proportional to
the P.E.
inversely
proportional to
the K.E.
1 11 The ideal Gass law is P=nRT V=nRT PV=RT
1 11 The absolute temperature for an ideal gas is directly
proportional to
the rotational
K.E. olf gas
molecules.
directly
proportional to
the vibrational
K.E. of gas
molecules
directly
proportional to
the average
translational
K.E. of gas
molecules
1 11 Internal energy is the sum of all the forms of K.E. P.E. both of them
1 11 In the study of thermodynamics, which gas is
considered as the working substance
real gas ideal gas any gas may
be ideal or real
1 11 The internal energy of an ideal gas system is
generally the
translational
K.E. of
molecules
vibrational
K.E. of
molecules
rotional K.E. of
molecules
1 11 When two objects are rubbed toghther, their
internal energy
remains the
same
decreases remains the
same then
decreases
1 11 In thermodynamics, internal energy is the
function of
temperature pressure state
1 11 The internal energy of a system does not
depend upon the
initial state of
the system
final state of
the system
path
1 11 The work done by the system on its
environment is considered as
1 11 The work done on the system by the
1 11 If an amount of heat Q enters the system it
could
decrease the
internal energy
not change the
internalenergy
increase the
internal energy
1 11 We can express the work in terms of directly
measurable
variables
indirectly
measurable
variables
either of them
1 11 A diatomic gas molecule has translational
energy
rotational
energy
vibrational
energy
1 11 A bicycle pump provides a good example of first law of
thermodynamic
s
second law of
thermodynamic
s
third law of
thermodynamic
s
1 11 If 42 J heat is transferred to the system and
the work done by the systeme is32 J then
what will be the change in internal energy
0J 2J 5J
1 11 the process which is carried out at constant
temperature is known as
adiabatic
process
isothermal
process
isochoric
process
1 11 In which process the conditin for the
application of Boyle's law on the gas is
fulfilled
isochoric
process
adiabatic
process
isothermal
process
1 11 In case of an ideal gas, the P.E. associated
with its molecule is
maximum
speed
zero minimum
1 11 A process in which no heat enters or leaves
the system is called
isochoric
process
isothermal
process
adiabatic
process
1 12 SI unit of time period is ampere Seconds calorie
1 12 The value of coulomb's constant 'K' depend
upon
the system of
unit used
medium
between the
charges
quantity of
charges
1 12 the distance between the two charged
bodies is halved, the force between them
becomes
double half four times
1 12 If the distance between the two charged
bodies is doubled, the electric force between
them will become
four times twice half
1 12 Force is a scalarquantity vector quantity constant
1 12 The SI unit of force is joule pound watt
1 12 A metallic conductor conducts electricity
because it contains free
protons electrons ions
1 12 The value of relative permittivity ?r, in
vacuum is
1.6 2 1
1 12 A substance which does not contain free
electrons, is called
insulator conductor semiconductor
1 12 The value of relative permittivity r for
different insulator is always
greater than
unity
less than unity slightly less
than unity
1 12 the concept of electric field theory was
introduced by
Kepler Newton Dalton
1 12 The concept of electric field theory was
introduced in
1791-1867 1731-1809 1809-1857
1 12 The force per unit charge is known as electric flux electric volt electric
potential
1 12 The SI unit of electric field intensity is Coulomb Newton /
Coulomb
Ampere
1 12 An example of vector quantity is Work Eleectric field
intensity
speed of
electrons
1 12 Which is a vector quantity? Electric charge electric
potential
difference
Electric
engergy
1 12 the electric field at a point inspace is equal in
magnitude of
the potential
charge there
the electric
charge there
the force of an
electron would
experience
there
1 12 The unit N/C of electric field intensity is
equivalent to
Volt/m Weber/m Apere/m
1 12 One volt is 1N/C 1dyne/C 1 Watt/c
1 12 Electric field is a scalar vector constant
1 12 The test charge is always a unit positive charge negative
charges
nutral
1 12 Electric field lines originate from positive
charges to
positive
charges
negative
charges
test charges
1 13 The SI unit of current is watt coulomb volt
1 13 The charge carriers in electrolyte are
positive and negative
protons electrons to
molecules
ions
1 13 The charge carriers in gases are electrons ions protons
1 13 The conventional current in a circuit is
defined as "current which passes from a
point at higher potential to a point at a lower
potential as if it represents a movement of:
negative
charges
positive
charges
protons
1 13 The speed of randomly moving electrons
depends upon
pressure volume temperature
1 13 The potential difference across the
conductors should be mantained constant by
conectng the ends of wire to the terminals of
a device called a source of
power current resistance
1 13 Solar cell converts sunlight directly into potential
energy
thermal energy mechanical
energy
1 13 Eelctric generators which convert
mechanical energy into
solar energy thrmal eneregy kinetic eneregy
1 13 The liquid which conduct current is known as heating effect chemicial
energy
electroyte
1 13 the material in the form of wire or rod or
plate which leads the current into or out of
the electrolyte is known as
voltmeters resistance electrode
1 13 The electrode connected with the positive
terminal of the current soure is called
cathode anode electrolyte
1 13 The electrode connected with the negative
terminal of the current source is called
anode electroyte cathode
1 13 Ohm's law state that The current
throught a
resistor is
directly
proportional to
the applied
voltage
The voltage
across a
resistor is
directrly
proportional to
the current
passing
throught it
Resistance is
the constant of
proportionality
betweeen the
voltgage and
current
1 13 If one volt is needed to cause a current of
one ampere to flow in a conductorits
resistance is
one ohm one joule one volt
1 13 The graphical representation of ohm's law is hyperbola straight line ellipse
1 13 Ohm is the unit of current capacitance energy
1 13 The relation V=IR represents Ampere law Faraday's law Ohm's law
1 13 The ohm's is defined as 1 ampere/ 1
volts
1 coulomb / 1
volt
1 volt/ 1
ampere
1 13 Ohm established a relation between voltage and
resistance
voltage and
charge
voltage and
current
1 13 If we plot a graph between potential
difference (V) and current (I) obeying ohm's
law, it will give us
parabola straight line hyperbola
1 14 A current carrying conductor is placed at
right angle to the magnetic field. The
magnetic force experienced by the
conductor is
minimum
speed
maximum zero
1 14 a current carrying straight conductor is
placed in a magnetic field perpendicular to it.
The force experienced by the conductor
F=0 F=BIL cos F=BIL
1 14 K' is the proportionality constant of force
experienced by conductor. What is the value
of 'K' in SI units?
O 1 0.5
1 14 a current carrying straight conductor is
placed in a magnetic field parallel to it. The
force experienced by the conductor is
F=0 F=BIL sin F=BIL
1 14 the force acting on a charge moving in a
magnetic field
is
perpendicular
to the both
magnetic field
and direction
of motion
is proportional
to the
magnetic of
charges
vanishes when
the motion is
directly
opposite to the
direction of
field
1 14 Gauss (G) is smaller unit of magnetic
induction which is related to tesla (T) as
IT=10-4 G IT=106G IT=103G
1 14 the force acting as one meter length of the
conductor placed at right angle to the
magnetic field, when one a current is
passing through it, defines the
magnetic flux magnetic
induction
magnetic field
1 14 A 5 meter wire carrying a current of 2A is at
right angles to the uniform magnetic field of
0.5 Weber/m2. The force on the wire
5N 4N 1.5N
1 14 a relationship between gauss of magnetic
induction and Tesla (T) is given by
G10-3T G=10-2T G=10-4T
1 14 the SI unit of magnetic induction is gauss tesla weber
1 14 the force exerted on a conductor of length L,
carrying current I when placed in a magnetic
field B is given by
F=IB/L F=LxB/I F=ILxB
1 14 if current through conductor is 1 A and
length of conductor is 1m placed at right
angle to the magnetic field, then the strength
of magnetic field is
F=B2 F=0 F=B
1 14 weber is a unit of magnetic flux magnetic filed
intensity
magnetic
induction
1 14 the unit of magnetic flux is weber -m3 weber-m3 Henry
1 14 the total number of lines of magnetic
induction pasing through a surface
perpendicular to the magnetic field is called
magnetic flux magnetic flux
density
magnetic
induction
1 14 the SI unit of flux density is newton/amp-
meter
Newton-
m/Ampere
Newton-
m/Amp2
1 14 the SI unit of flux density is tesla weber Gaun
1 15 magnetic field do not interact with stationary
electric
charges
moving
electric
charges
stationary
permanent
magnet
1 15 Electromotive force is most closely related to magnetic flux
density
electric field
intensity
inductance
1 15 an induced emf is produced in a circuit when no magnetic
flux produced
magnetic flux
remain
constant
magnetic flux
change
1 15 when a magnet moves away from the coil, a
current is again induced in the
same direction both the
directions
same direction
but of high
magnitude
1 15 current can be induced in a coil by changing
the area of the coil, magnetic field is
non uniform constant field zero
1 15 the emf induced by the motion of a coductor
across a magnetic field is called
induced emf magnetic emf induced current
1 15 the emf of a moving conductor behave as a resistance insulator battery
1 15 the motional emf generated in a conductor is
directly proportional to the
velocity of
conductor
strength of
magnetic field
length of
conductor
1 15 the experiments show that whenever there is
a change in the magnetic flux linked with a
loop or closed circuit there is always
a charge
induced
an emf induced inductance
induced
1 15 inductance is measured in henry voltage and
charge
Ohm's law
1 15 the motional emf 'vBi Sin developed in a
conductor depends upon
orientation of
the conductor
magnetic field
and velocity of
conductor
length of the
conductor
1 15 in the equation if motional emf, if the
conductor is at rest, then motional emf is
strongly
eeveloped
not strongly
eeveloped
zero
1 15 the average emf induced in a conducting coil
of N loop is equal to negative of the rate at
which the magnetic flux through the coil is
changing with time is known as
Ohm law Faraday's law Coulomb's Law
1 15 according to Faraday's law the total charge
induced in a conductor that is moved in
magnetic field depend upon
change in
magnetic flux
final magnetic
flux
initial magnetic
flux
1 15 Lenz's law predicts the direction of
induced emf
the magnitude
of induced
current
the directio of
induced current
1 15 a metallic ring is placed on a table, and north
pole of a magnet is brought near it. The
directio of emf induced in the ring will
depend upon
length of
magnetic
direction of
motion of
magnet
speed of
magnet
1 15 lenz's law introdued by Russia
physicist
chines
mathematician
french chemist
1 15 russian physicist heinrich Lenz gave lenz's
law
1900 1834 1824
1 16 the main reason for the word wide use of
A.C. is that it can be transmitted to long
distance
easily and at a
high cost
easily and at a
very low cost
at a very high
cost
1 16 alternating current is that which is produced
by a voltage source whose polarity
remains the
same
keeps on
reversing
does not
change
1 16 the time interval T during which the voltage
source changes its polarity once is known as
frequency of
S.H.M
total time time period
1 16 the wave form of alternating voltage is a cosine curve tangent curve sine curve
1 16 the wave form of alternating voltage is curve
or graph between
voltage and
current
voltage and
time
current and
time
1 17 there is a regular arrangement of molecules
in a
amorphous
solids
polymeric
solids
crystalline
solids
1 17 there is no regular arrangement of
molecules in a
amorphous
solids
polymeric
solids
crystalline
solids
1 17 the solids which has structure in between
order and disorder are called
amorphous
solids
polymeric
solids
crystalline
solids
1 17 the neighbours of every molecule in
cyrstalline solids are arranged in
an irregular
manner
a regular
manner
any manner
1 17 the vast majority of solids are in the form of amorphous
structure
polymeric
structure
crystalline
structure
1 17 the molecules or ions in a crystalline solids
are
static not static randomly
moving
1 17 the amplitude of oscillation of each atom in a
metallic crystal rises with the
rise in
temperature
decrease in
temperature
even
temperature
remains
constant
1 17 in metallic crystals which of the following
thing remains constant
amplitude of
oscillations
temperature of
solid
average
atomic
positions
1 17 the cohesive forces between atoms,
molecules or ions in cyrstalline solids
maintain the strict
short range
order
long range
order
both of them
1 17 every crystalline solis has definite
melting point
different
melting points
may or may
not be definite
1 17 amorphous solids are more like crystalline
solids
gases liquids
1 17 amorphous solids are also called as crystalline
solids
polymeric
solids
glassy solids
1 17 glass is an example of crystalline
solids
amorphous
solid
polymeric solid
1 17 synthetic materials fall into the category of crystalline
solids
amorphous
solid
polymeric
solids
1 17 polymeric solids have low specific
gravity
high specific
gravity
either of them
1 17 the smallest three dimesnional basic
structure in a crystalline solid is called
lattice point crystal lattice cubic crystal
1 17 the crystalline structure of NaCI is rectangular hexagonal tetrahedral
1 17 the ability of the body to return to tis original
shape is called
deformation stretching compressing
1 17 the results of mechanical tests are usually
expressed in terms of
stress strain stress and
strain
1 17 the force applied on unit area to produce any
change in the shape, volume or length of a
body is known as
strain elasticity stretching
1 17 when a stress changes length, it is called the compressional
stress
tensile stress share stress
1 17 when a stress changes the volume, it is
called the
compressional
stress
tensile stress shear stress
1 18 a p-n junction is formed when a crystal of
silicon is grown in such a way that its one
half is doped with trivalent impurity and the
other hand with a impurity from
2nd group fourth group fifth group
1 18 in n-region of pn-junction, the majority
charge carriers are
holes electrons to
molecules
both of them
1 18 in p-region of pn-junction, the majority
charge carriers are
holes electrons to
molecules
either of them
1 18 whenever a pn-junction is formed, a
chargeless regionis formed around the
junction, which is called as
p-region n-region free region
1 18 the value of the potential difference across
the depletion region for the case of silicon is
0.3 v 0.5 v 0.7 v
1 18 when the +ve terminal of the battery is
connected with p-type and -ve terminal with
the n-type regio of pn-junction, then the pn-
junction is
reversed
biased
forward biased either of them
1 18 when the +ve terminal of the battery is
connected the n-type and -ve terminal with
the p-type region of pn-junction, then the pn-
junction is
reversed
biased
forward biased either of them
1 18 when the pn-junction is forward biased its
resistance is of the order of
few mega
ohms
few killo ohms few ohms
1 18 when the pn-junction is reversed biased, the
current flows through it is of the order of
mili amperes amperes nano amperes
1 18 when the pn-junction is forward biased, the
current flows through it is of the order of
mili amperes amperes nano amperes
1 18 when the pn-junction is in forward biased,
current flows through the junction due to the
majority
carriers
minority
carriers
either of them
1 18 when the pn-junction is in reversed biased,
current flows through the junction due to the
majority
carriers
minority
carriers
either of them
1 18 when the pn-junction is connected reversed
biased, its resistance is of the order of
few ohms few kilo ohms few mega
ohms
1 18 a diode characteristic curve is a plot between current and
time
voltage and
time
voltage and
current
1 18 conversion of alternating current into direct
current is called
amplification rectification conductino
1 18 in half wave rectification, the number of
diode used is / are
one two three
1 18 the output voltage of half wave rectificatio is
in the form of
a motth curve a smooth wave pulses
1 18 during the positive half cycle in the half wave
rectification, the diode
does not
conduct
conducts either of these
1 18 during the negative half cycle of the half
wave rectification, the diode
does not
conduct
conducts either of these
1 18 in half wave rectification, both halves of
the input
voltage is used
only one half
of the input
voltage is used
either of these
1 19 the concept of direction and position are
purely
absolute relative absolute or
relative
1 19 absolute motion cannot be detected in its own
frame of
references
in a different
frame of
references
both in its
frame and
different frame
of references
1 19 an inertial frame of reference is a frame of
reference which is
at rest moving with
uniform velocity
either at rest
or moving with
uniform velocity
1 19 which of the followign is not an example of
inertial frame
a body placed
on the surface
of earth
a body placed
in a car
moving with
uniform velocity
a body placed
in a car
moving with
some
acceleration
1 19 the special theory of relativity treats
problems involving
inertial frame
of references
accelerating
frame of
references
both of these
1 19 the general theory of relativity treats
problems involving
inertial frame
of references
accelerating
frame of
references
both of these
1 19 the special theory of relativity is based on the one postulate two postulates three
postulates
1 19 which of the followig is not a postulate of
special theory of relativity
laws of
physics are
the same in all
inertial frames
speed of light
in free space
has the
different value
for all
observers
speed of light
in free space
has the same
value for all
observers
1 19 according to the special theory of relaivity,
time is
absolute
quantity
not absolute
quantity
constant
quantity
1 19 the speed of a pendulum is measured to be
3.0 s in the inertial reference frame of the
pendulum. What is its period measured by
an observer moving at a speed of 0.95 c
with respect to the pendulum
2.9 s 3.0 s 6.6 s
1 19 the length contraction happens only opposite to the
direction of
motion
along the
direction of
motion
perpendicular
to the direction
of motion
1 19 if you are moving at relativistic speed
between two points that are a fixed distance
apart, then the distance between the two
points appears
larger shorter equal
1 19 a bar 1.0 m in length and located along x-
axis moves with a speed of 0.75 c with
respect to a stationary observer. The length
of the bar as measured by the stationary
observer is
1.66 m 1.0 m 0.66 m
1 19 if a body reaches a speed equal to the
speed of light, then tis mass will became
zero very small infinity
1 19 according to the special theory of relaivity, mass and
energy are
same entities
mass and
energy are
same entities
but
interconverible
mass and
energy are
different
entities but
interconvertible
1 19 the location and speed anywhere on earth
can now be determined using relativists
effects by NAVISTAR to an accuracy of
2 cm/s 20 cm/s 200 cm/s
1 19 Newton's laws of motion do not hold in an accelerated
frame of
reference
an
unaccelerated
frame of
refeence
both of these
1 19 accordign to the special theory of relativity, a
moving clock
runs faster runs slower neither runs
faster nor
slower
1 19 at the temperature, a body emits radiation
which is principally
of long
wavelengths
and in the
visible region
of long
wavelengths in
the invisible
infrared region
of short
wavelengths in
invisible
ultraviolet
region
1 19 at high temperature, the proportion of
shorter wavelength radiation, emitted by the
body
decreases first increases
then decreases
increases
wavelength and intensities of
electromagnetic radiation emitted or
absorbed by atoms is called
nuclear physics solid state
physics
spectroscopy
1 20 how many types of spectra present two three one
1 20 black body radiation spectrum is an example
of
band spectra continuous
spectra
line spectra
1 20 molecular spectra are the example of band spectra continuous
spectra
line spectra
1 20 atomic spectra are the example of band spectra continuous
spectra
line or discrete
spectra
1 20 the spectral series was identified by compton einstein rutherfard
1 20 the "spectral series" was identified in 1885 1890 1985
1 20 balmer series has the historical importance
because it
Lies in the far-
ultraviolet
region
lies in the infra-
red region
lies in the
visible region
1 20 Which one of the followng various series of
hydrogen spectrum lies in the ultra-violet
region
Balmer series Bracket Series Paschen series
1 20 Which of the following is one of the spectral
series of atomic hydrogen?
Balmer series Bracket series Pfund series
1 20 Which of the following series of hydrogen
spectrun lies in the infrared region?
Paschen
series, Bracket
series, Lyman
series
Paschen
series, Bracket
series Pfund
series
Paschen
series Pfund
series,
Lymann series
1 20 When electron inhydrogen atom jumps from
higher orbit to first orbit, the set of lines
emitted is called
Bracket series Pfund series Paschen series
1 20 When electron in hydrogen atom jumps from
higher orbit to third orbit, the set of lines
emitted is called
Balmer series Bracket series Lyman series
1 20 When electron in hydrogen atom jumps torm
higher orbit to fifth orbit, the set of lines
emitted is called.
Pfund series Paschen
series, Bracket
series Pfund
series
Lyman series
1 20 Lyman series is obtained when electron in
hydrogen atom jumps from higher to lower
orbit, where 'n' is equel to
1 2 3
1 20 The Balmer series lies in ultraviolet
region
infrared region far infrared
region
1 20 According to Bohr's atomic model, the
energy is radiated in the form of a photon by
an atom, whenever
one of its
electron speed
up in its orbit
one one of its
electron speed
down in into
orbit
one of its
electron jumps
from a higher
energy orbit to
lower energy
orbit
1 20 According to the Bohr's theory the orbits are
amost alleptical
the angular
momentum of
electron is an
integral
multiple of h/2n
the energy of
the electron
remain
constant in all
the orbits
1 20 According to the Bohr's atomic model, the
electron does not fall into the nucleus
because
the
electrostate
attraction is
balanced by
mechanical
force
the electron is
not a particle
the quantum
rules do no
allow it
1 20 If an electron jumps form lower to higher
orbit, it will
absorb energy emit energy absorb as well
as emit
eneregy
1 21 Proton was discovered by Rutherford in 1915 1906 1910
1 21 Neutron was discovered in 1915 1920 1925
1 21 Neutron was discovered by Curie Roentgen Chadwick
1 21 Proton was discovered by Rutherford in Rutherfod Curie Roentgen
1 21 In 1932 chadwick discovered protons neutron photon
1 21 A particle having the mass of electron and
charge of a proton is called a
photon positron antiproton
1 21 The chemical behaviour of an atom is
determined by
binding energy atomic number mass number
1 21 According to Rutherford atomic model, the
positive charge in an atom
is
concentrated
at its centre
is in the form
of psotive
electron at
same distance
from its centre
is spread
uniformly
through its
volume
1 21 For an atom having atomic number 'Z' and
atomic weight 'A' the number of neutrons in
the nucleus is
A-Z A Z
1 21 The number of protons inside a nucleus is
called
mass number atomic weight atomic number
1 21 For an atom having atomic number Z and
atomic weight A, the charge on the nucleus is
A-Z A+Z Z
1 21 For an atom having atomic number Z and
atomic weight A, the number of electron in
an atoms
A-Z A+Z Z
1 21 Structure of the nucleus was explained by J.J. Thomson Bohr Millikan
1 21 Neutrons are positive charge negatively
charged
massless
1 21 Electrons are positive
charged
negatively
charged
massless
1 21 Nuclei that have the same chrge number but
different mass number are called
isotones isomers isotopes
1 21 How many isotopes of helium are present? 1 2 3
1 21 Hydrogen atom with only one proton is its
nucleus, and one electron in its orbit is called
deuteron deuterium protium
1 21 Hydrogen atom with only one proton and two
neutrons is its nucleus and one electron is
called
protium deuterium deuteron
1 21 The chemical properties of all the isotopes of
an elements are
same direction different
melting points
slightly different
1 2 Scalar is a physical quantity which is
completely described by a
Number only Direction only Number with
proper units
1 2 Which one of the following is a scalar Velocity Acceleration Force
1 2 A vector is a physical quantity which is
completely described by
Magnitude and
direction
Magnitude only Direction only
1 2 All the following ar vectors EXCEPT Impulse Momentum Torque
1 2 A vector whose magnitude is one is called Null vector Unit vector Position vector
1 2 Unit vector is used to specify Magnitude of a
vector
Dimension of
a vector
Direction of a
vector
1 2 A vector having magnitude equal to given
vector but in opposite derection is called
Unit vector Positive vector Negative vector
1 2 Null vector is a vector having zero
magnitude and
No direction Specific
direction
Arbitrary
direction
1 2 When two equal and opposite vectors are
added then their resultant will have
Same
magnitude
Double
magnitude
Zero
magnitude
1 2 The product ixi is equal to 2 1 -1
1 2 The product ixj is equal to Zero 1 k
1 2 If A = 3i + 4j, then IAI will be 7 5 25
1 2 A vector product is Commutative Associative Additive
1 3 The magnitude of the displacement is a line
form initial position to final position which is
straight curved either straight
or curved
1 3 the displacement coincides with the path of
the motion when a body moves in a
curved line straight line may be curved
or straight
1 3 velocity is a Scalar
quantities
vector quantity constant
quantity
1 3 Dimensions of velocity are [L] [T] [LT-1]
1 3 when we consider the average velocity of a
body, then the body is moving in
straight line curved path may be in a
straight or
curved path
1 3 if a ball comes back to its starting point after
bouncing off the wall several times, then its
total
displacements
is zero
average
velocity is zero
none of them
1 3 The instantaneous velocity is define as the
limiting value of d/t on the time interval t
approaches to
zero maximum minimum
1 3 if the instantaneous velocity of a body does
not change, the body is said to be moving
with
average
velocity
uniform velocity instantaneous
velocity
1 3 The time rate of change of velocity is known
as
displacement distance velocity
1 3 acceleration is a scalar quantity imaginary
quantity
vector
1 3 velocity of a body changes if direction of the
body changes
speed of the
body changes
neither speed
nor direction
changes,
1 3 the direction of the acceleration is the same
as that of
speed velocity both of them
1 3 acceleratio of a body at any particular instant
during its motion is known as
average
acceleration
uniform
acceleration
instantaneous
acceleration
1 3 If the velocity of a body changes by equal
amount in equal intervals of time, the body is
said to have
acceleration uniform
acceleratin
instantaneous
acceleration
1 3 when a body is moving with uniform
acceleration, its average acceleration is
less than
instantaneous
acceleration
greater than
instantaneous
acceleration
equal to
instantaneous
acceleraiton
1 3 The distance travelled by a body in one
second is called
speed velocity acceleration
displacement is less than 90, then the work
done will be
displacement is equal to 90, then the work
done will be
displacement is grater then 90, then the
work done will be
1 4 If the displacement occurs in the direction of
force, then the work done will be
1 4 the SI Unit of work is N-s N-m2 N-m
1 4 in which of the following, force does not
remain constant during the process of doing
work (I) a rocket moves away form earth (ii)
work done against the force of gravity (iii)
force exerted on the spring
(I) only (I) and (ii) only (I),(ii) and (iii)
only
1 4 A force of 5N applied on a body and the
body moves 4.5 meters in the direction of
applied force, then the work donw will be
20 N 22.5 N 20J
1 4 The space around the earth in which its
gravitational force acts on a body is called
Magnetic field electric field electromanetic
field
be negative, if
the
displacement
is in the
directin of
gravitational
force
the
displacements
is against the
gravitational
force
the
displacemetn
is
perpendicular
to the
gravitational
force
be positive, if
the
displacement
is in the
direction of
gravitational
fonrce
the
displacements
is against the
gravitaiotnal
force
the
displacement
is
perpendicular
to the
gravitational
force
1 4 The gravitational field is non-
conservatiove
filed
conservative
field
constant field
1 4 work done in Earth's gravitational field is independent of
the path
followed
dependent of
the path
followed
both of them
1 4 the field in which the work done is
independent of the path followed or work
done in a closed path is zero is called a
variable field constant field non
conservative
field
1 4 What is the correct definition of power ? Doing work the rate of
doing work
Amount of
work
1 4 The unit of power is MKS system of units is Watt Joule Erg
1 4 In British Engineering system of units, one
horse power is equal to
742 watts 746 watts 750 watts
1 4 Work energy principle implies that the work
done by the applied force is
Equal to
change in K.E
Greater than
the change in
K.E
Less than the
change in K.E
1 4 The minimum initial velocity required to take
a body out of earth gravitational field is
known as
Variable
velocity
Instantaneous
velocity
Escape velocity
1 4 The Energy released in fission reaction is Tidal energy Solar energy Wind energy
1 5 Motion of a body is called two dimensional if
it has
Only x-
componenet
x and y
component
No Component
1 5 The path of a projectile is determened by Gravitational
force
Magnetic Force Electric force
1 5 In projecile motion, the horizontal
component of velocity
Remains
constant
Changes Increases
1 5 When a projectile moves upwards, its
vertical component of velocity
Remains
constant
Decreases Increases
1 5 In a projectile motion, the body has One
component of
velocity
Two
components of
velocity
Three
components fo
velocity
1 5 The path of a projectile is determened by Parabolic Elliptiacal Circular
1 5 At the highest point, a projectile has its
vertical component of velocity equal to
Maximum Minimum Horizontal
component of
velocity
1 5 In a projectile motion, the total time of flight is Twice the time
to reach the
highest point
The time to
reach the
highest point
Half the time
to reach the
heghest point
1 5 If we want to kill a monkey sitting on the tree
we should aim
A little above
the monkey
Straight at the
monkey
A little below
the monkey
1 5 The motion of a body in a circle is called Rectilinear
motion
Vibratory
motion
Angular motion
1 2 The physical quantity which produces
angular acceleration in a body is called
force Centripetal
force
Gravitational
force
1 2 The turning effect of a force about a certain
point is called
Momentum Angular
momentum
Torque
1 2 Torque is the resultant of Dot product of
force and
moment arm
Simple
product of
force and
moment arm
Cross product
of force and
moment arm
1 2 When direction of both r and F are reversed
then
Torque does
not change
Torque change Magnitude of
torque changes
1 2 Torque is a Scalar quantity Vector quantity Quantity which
produces
linear
acceleration
1 2 Clock-wise torque is taken as Positive Negative Nither +ve nor -
ve
1 2 The torque is also called as Moments of
inertia
Moment of
momentum
Moment of
force
1 2 In a couple, the resultant of two forces is 2 F F 2 / F
1 2 A couple acting on a body will only Accelerate the
body
Vibrate the
body about
certain axis
Rotate the
body about
certain axis
1 2 Torque is the product between force and Distance Velocity Moment arm
1 2 The centre of gravity of an irregular shaped
body lies at
The centre of
the body
The axis of
rotation of the
body
The point of
intersection of
lines drawn
vertically from
various
position of the
body
1 2 The centre of gravity of a cylinder is at The centre of
the top of the
cylinder
The centre of
the bottom of
the cylinder
A point on
curved side of
the cylinder
1 2 The centre of gravity of a triangular plate is at One end of the
plate
The
interectionof
the medians
The mid point
of any side of
the plate
1 2 Angular momentum is defined as The quantity of
matter in a
body
The quantity of
motion in a
body
The moment
of force in a
body
1 2 The Rate of change of angular momentum
of a body is equal to
Impulsive force Applied force Moment of
inertia
1 9 The wave nature of light was verified by Thomas young Huygen Newton
1 9 Which one of the following properties of
light does not depend upon the nature of the
medium
Velocity Wavelength Amplitude
1 9 Which one of the following properties prove
the transverse nature of light
Interference Diffraction Polarization
1 9 Which one of the following is nearly
monochromatic
Light from
candle
Light from
simple lamp
Light from
sodium lamp
1 9 Young's Double slit experiment can be used
to determine
Wave length
of
monochromatic
light
Distance
between the
slits
Fringe spacing
1 9 A thin layer of oil on the surface of water
appears colored becouse of
Interference of
waves
Polarization Reflection
1 9 Michelson's Interferometer is usually used to
determine
Wavelength of
light
Velocity of light Frequency of
light
1 9 A monochromatic light of wavelenght 500
nm is incident normally on a diffraction
grating having 200 lines per millimeter, the
maximum number of order visible on one
side will be
20 15 10
1 9 Which one of the following is used to
measure the wave length of X-rays
Young's
Double slit
experiment
Diffraction
grating
Bragg's Law
1 9 which one of the following properties is not
found in both sound and light
Interference of
waves
Diffraction Polarization
1 9 In monochromatic red light a blue book will
appear
Blue Red Black
1 9 Polaroids can be used To control
head light
glare in night
driving
To determine
the
concentration
of optically
active
substance
In curtain less
window to
adjust the
amount of light
1 10 A refracting substance boinded by one or
two spherical surfaces is called
Mirrow Prism Lens
1 10 A lens which is thicker in the middle and
thinner at the edges is called
Concave lens Convex lens Convex-
Concave lens
1 10 A lens which diverges a beam of parallel
rays of light is called
Convex lens Concave lens Convex-
Concave lens
1 10 A straight line passing through centers of
curvature of the two spherical surfaces of a
lens is called
Diameter of
the lens
Radius of the
lens
Principal axis
1 10 A point on the surface of the mirror where
principal axis meets is called
Focus Centre of
curvature
Pole
1 10 The centre of the lens through which a ray of
light does not change its direction is knowns
as
Optical centre Focus Centre of
curvature
1 10 The diameter of a lens is called Principal axis Principal focus Aperture
1 10 The unit of power of lens is Meter Watt Horsepower
1 10 Power of a lens is one dioptre if its focal
length is
1 meter 2 meter 1/2 meter
1 10 when the object is placed at 2f of convex
lens then the image formed behind the lens
will be
At the focus At 2f Beyond 2f
1 10 when the object is placed at principal focus
of a convex lens then the image is formed at
Same distance Infinity Same side of
lens
1 10 A double convex lens acts as a diverging
lens when the object is placed
At the focus At 2f Between f and
2f
1 10 If the focal length of an objective and eye-
piece of a telescope are 5cm and 1cm
respectively then its length will be
8 cm 4 cm 6 cm
1 10 If the size of the image is twice that of object
then
q = 2p q = p q = p / 2
1 10
1 10
1 10
1 1 Which one is not a branch of physical
sciences?
Chemistry Astronomy Geology
1 1 Which branch of science plays an important
role in the development of technology and
engineering?
Chemistry Physics Geology
1 1 The number of categories in which physical
quantities are divided are -----------
One Two Three
1 1 How many types of units are in SI? One Two Three
1 1 In scientific notation numbers are expressed
in-----------
Power of ten Powers of two Reciprocal
1 1 The error in measurement may occur due to-
--------------
Inexperience
of a person
The faulty
apparatus
Inappropriate
method
1 1 The uncertainty in a measurement may
occur due to-------------
Limitation of
an instrument
Natural
variation of the
object to be
measured
Inadequate
of technique
1 1 Random error can be reduced by
________________
taking zero
correction
comparing the
instrument
with another
more accurate
one
taking mean
of several
measurement
1 1 In any measurement the significant figures
are_______________
all accurately
known and all
doubtful digit
only
accurately
known digits
only doubtful
digits
1 1 A digit zero in a measurement
_______________
may be
significant may
not significant
always
significant
always
insignificant
1 1 Number of significant figures in 0.017 are
______________
three four five
1 1 Smaller the least count of the instrument
more is the Measurement__________
accurate precise accurate and
precise
1 1 Dimensional analysis is helpful for
________________
deriving a
possible
formula
checking the
homogeneity
of a physical
equation
verification
of laws
1 1 Three students measured length of a needle
with meter rod and recorded as (i)0.2145m
(ii) 0.21m (iii) 0.214 m Which one is
correct record?
only (i) only (ii) only (iii)
1 1 Absolute uncertainty in a measurement
depends upon_______________
magnitude of
the
measurement
least count of
the instrument
percentage
error in the
measurement
1 1 steradian is the SI unit of
________________
Plane angle Solid angle Both plane
angle and
solid angle
1 1 An ideal standard of measurement of a base
quantity has characteristics____________
accessible invariable transportable
1 1 Total uncertainty, in result obtained from the
subtraction of two measurements, is equal
to--------------
Sum of their
absolute
uncertainties
Difference of
their absolute
uncertainties
Product of
their absolute
uncertainties
1 1 Which one is the highest power multiple? Giga Beta Mega
1 1 The unit of force is------------ and its symbol
is---------. Which is the correct pain?
Newton,n Newton,N newton,n
1 1 How many main frontiers of fundamental
science?
1 2 3
1 1 Which one is the derived quantity in SI units? Electric current Electric
charge
Plane angle
1 1 Zero error of the instrument is a type of -------
------
Random error Personal error Systematic
error
1 1 In multiplication and division of
measurement------------
Percentage
uncertainties
are added
Absolute
uncertainties
are added
Percentage
uncertainties
are divided
1 1 The Number of significant figures in 5.400
are
Three Five Two
1 1 To reduce the uncertainty in the timing
experiment
Use highly
precise
instrument
Conduct at
room
temperature
Count more
number of
vibration
1 1 The number of significant figures in the
length of a bar 6200mm measured by meter
rod are
Four Three Two
1 17 A ferromagnetic will become fully
magnetized at
High voltage
A.C
Low voltage
A.C
Alternating
current at its
peak value
1 17 Coercive force is the force which opposes
____________
Demagnetizatio
n
Breakage Extension
1 17 Materials in which valence electrons are
tightly bound to their atoms at low
temperature are called ____ _____
Semi
conductor
Super
conductors
insulators
1 17 The bulk properties of materials such as
their mode of fracture, can be related to their
____________
Polymerization Cleavage Microstructure
1 17 The angular position of cells remains the
same for a sample of a crystal. This property
is called _ _________
Isotropy Cleavage Homogeneity
1 17 The breaking of crystals along definite
direction is called __________
Cleavage Symmetry Isotropy
1 17 If the density of atoms remain same along
any direction in a crystal is called
___________
Symmetry Homogeneity Isotropy
1 17 In simple cube, one atom or molecule lies at
its _______
Force corners Nine corners Eight corners
1 17 The band theory of solids explains
satisfactorily the nature of _________
Electrical
insulators
alone
Electrical
conductors
alone
Electrical semi
conductors
alone
1 17 A vacant or partially filled band is called
__________
Conduction
band
Valence band Forbidden
band
1 17 A completely filled band is called
_________
Conduction
band
Valence band Forbidden
band
1 17 The electrons in conduction band are free to
___________
Transport
vibrations
Transport
signals
Transport
charge
1 17 Which one has the greatest energy gap? Semi
conductor
Conductor Metals
1 17 Many of the semi conductors are crystals of
the type ___________
Face centred
cubic
Body centred
cubic
Simple cubic
1 17 With increase in temperature the electrical
conductivity of intrinsic semi conductor
Decreases Increases Remains same
1 17 Holes can exist in______________ Conductors Insulators Semi
conductors
1 17 On the basis of band theory of solids, the
semiconductors have___________
A partly filled
valence band
and totally
empty
conduction
band
A completely
filled valence
band a totally
empty
conduction
band and a
very wide
forbidden band
A completely
filled valence
band, a
partially filled
conduction
band and a
narrow
forbidden band
1 17 In a semiconductors, the charge carriers
are____________
Holes only Electrons only Electron and
holes both
1 17 The net charge on n-type material is
______________
Positive Negative Both positive
and negative
1 17 Very weak magnetic fields are detected
by___________
Squids Magnetic
resonance
imaging (MRI)
Magnetometer
1 10
1 10
1 10
1 10
1 11 The pressure exerted by the geas is directly
proportional to
the P.E.
inversely
proportional to
the P.E.
inversely
proportional to
the K.E.
1 11 The ideal gass law is P=nRT V=nRT PV=RT
1 11 The absolute temperature for an ideal gas is directly
proportional to
the rotational
K.E. olf gas
molecules.
directly
proportional to
the vibrational
K.E. of gas
molecules
directly
proportional to
the average
translational
K.E. of gas
molecules
1 11 Internal energy is the sum of all the forms of K.E. P.E. both of them
1 11 In the study of thermodynamics, which gas is
considered as the working substance
real gas ideal gas any gas may
be ideal or real
1 11 The internal energy of an ideal gas system is
generally the
translational
K.E. of
molecules
vibrational
K.E. of
molecules
rotional K.E. of
molecules
1 11 When two objects are rubbed toghther, their
internal energy
remains the
same
decreases remains the
same then
decreases
1 11 In thermodynamics, internal energy is the
function of
temperature pressure state
1 11 The internal energy of a system does not
depend upon the
initial state of
the system
final state of
the system
path
1 11 The work done by the system on its
1 11 The work done on the system by the
1 11 If an amount of heat Q enters the system it
could
decrease the
internal energy
not change the
internalenergy
increase the
internal energy
1 11 We can express the work in trms of directly
measurable
variables
idirectly
measurablevari
ables
either of them
1 11 A diatomic gas molecule has translational
energy
rotational
energy
vibrational
energy
1 11 A bicycle pump provides a good example of first law of
thermodynamic
s
second law of
thermodynamic
s
third law of
thermodynamic
s
1 11 If 42 J heat is transferred to the system and
the work done by the systeme is32 J then
what will be the change in internal energy
0J 2J 5J
1 11 the process which is carried out at constant
temperature is known as
adiabatic
process
isothermal
process
isochoric
process
1 11 In which process the conditin for the
application of Boyle's law on the gas is
fulfilled
isochoric
process
adiabatic
process
isothermal
process
1 11 In case of an ideal gas, the P.E. associated
with its molecule is
maximum
speed
zero minimum
1 11 A process in which no heat enters or leaves
the system is called
isochoric
process
isothermal
process
adiabatic
process
1 19 the concept of direction and position are
purely
absolute relative absolute or
relative
1 19 absolute motion cannot be detected in its own
frame of
references
in a different
frame of
references
both in its
frame and
different frame
of references
1 19 an inertial frame of reference is a frame of
reference which is
at rest moving with
uniform velocity
either at rest
or moving with
uniform velocity
1 19 which of the followign is not an example of
inertial frame
a body placed
on the surface
of earth
a body placed
in a car
moving with
uniform velocity
a body placed
in a car
moving with
same
acceleration
1 19 the special theory of relativity treats
problems involving
inertial frame
of references
accelerating
frame of
references
both of these
1 19 the general theory of relativity treats
problems involving
inertial frame
of references
accelerating
frame of
references
both of these
1 19 the special theory of relativity is based on the one postulate two postulates three
postulates
1 19 which of the followig is not a postulate of
special theory of relativity
laws of
physics are
the same inall
inertial frames
speed of light
in free space
has the
different value
for al
lobservers
speed of light
in free space
has the same
value for all
observers
time is
absolute
quantity
not absolute
quantity
constant
quantity
1 19 the speed of a pendulum is measured to be
3.0 s in the inertial reference frame of the
pendulum. What is its period measured by
an observer moving at a speed of 0.95 c
with respect to the pendulum
2.9 s 3.0 s 6.6 s
1 19 the length contraction happens only opposite to the
direction of
motion
along the
direction of
motion
perpendicular
to the direction
of motion
1 19 if you are moving at relativistic speed
between two points that are a fixed distance
apart, then the distance between the two
points appears
larger shorter equal
1 19 a bar 1.0 m in length and located along x-
axis moves with a speed of 0.75 c with
respect to a stationary observer. The length
of the bar as measured by the stationary
observer is
1.66 m 1.0 m 0.66 m
1 19 if a body reaches a speed equal to the
speed of light, then tis mass will became
zero very small infinity
time is
mass and
energy are
same entities
mass and
energy are
same entities
but
interconverible
mass and
energy are
different
entities but
interconvertible
1 19 the location and speed anywhere on earth
can now be determined using relativists
effects by NAVISTAR to an accuracy of
2 cm/s 20 cm/s 200 cm/s
1 19 Newton's laws of motion do not hold in an accelerated
frame of
reference
an
unaccelerated
frame of
refeence
both of these
1 19 accordign to the special theory of relativity, a
moving clock
runs faster runs slower neither runs
faster nor
slower
1 19 at the temerature, a body emits radiation
which is principally
of long
wavelengths
and in the
visible region
of long
wavelengths in
the invisible
infrared region
of short
wavelengths in
invisible
ultraviolet
region
1 19 at high temperature, the proportion of
shorter wavelength radiation, emitted by the
body
decreases first increases
then decreases
increases
wavelength and intensities of
electromagnetic radiation emitted or
absorbed by atoms is called
nuclear physics solid state
physics
spectroscopy
1 20 how many types of spectra present two three one
1 20 black body radiatio spectrum is an example
of
band spectra continuous
spectra
line spectra
1 20 molecular spectra are the example of band spectra continuous
spectra
line spectra
1 20 atomic spectra are the example of band spectra continuous
spectra
line or discrete
spectra
1 20 the spectral series was identified by compton einstein rutherfard
1 20 the "spectral series" was identified in 1885 1890 1985
1 20 balmer series has the historical importance
because it
lies in the far-
ultraviolet
region
lies in the infra-
red region
lies in the
visible region
1 20 Which one of the followng various series of
hydrogen spectrum lies in the ultra-violet
region
Balmer series Bracket Series Paschen series
1 20 Which of the following is one of the spectral
series of atomic hydrogen?
Balmer series Bracket series Pfund series
1 20 Which of the following series of hydrogen
spectrun lies in the infrared region?
Paschen
series, Bracket
series, Lyman
series
Paschen
series, Bracket
series Pfund
series
Paschen
series Pfund
series,
Lymann series
1 20 When electron inhydrogen atom jumps from
higher orbit to first orbit, the set of lines
emitted is called
Bracket series Pfund series Paschen series
1 20 When electron in hydrogen atom jumps from
higher orbit to third orbit, the set of lines
emitted is called
Balmer series Bracket series Lyman series
1 20 When electron in hydrogen atom jumps torm
higher orbit to fifth orbit, the set of lines
emitted is called.
Pfund series Paschen
series, Bracket
series Pfund
series
Lyman series
1 20 Lyman series is obtained when electron in
hydrogen atom jumps from higher to lower
orbit, where 'n' is equel to
1 2 3
1 20 The Balmer series lies in ultraviolet
region
infrared region far infrared
region
1 20 According to Bohr's atomic model, the
energy is radiated in the form of a photon by
an atom, whenever
one of its
electron speed
up in its orbit
one one of its
electron speed
down in into
orbit
one of its
electron jumps
from a higher
energy orbit to
lower energy
orbit
1 20 According to the Bohr's theory the orbits are
amost alleptical
the angular
momentum of
electron is an
integral
multiple of h/2n
the energy of
the electron
remain
constant in all
the orbits
1 20 According to the Bohr's atomic model, the
electron does not fall into the nucleus
because
the
electrostate
attraction is
balanced by
mechanical
force
the electron is
not a particle
the quantum
rules do no
allow it
1 20 I f an electron jumps form lower to higher
orbit, it will
absorb energy emit energy absorb as well
as emit
eneregy
1 21 Radiations emitted by unstable nuclei are Heat X-rays Light
1 21 Charge on alpha particle is equal to the
charge on the nucleus of
Hydrogen Helium Lithium
1 21 Alpha particles are highly ionizing because of Two protons Low speed Low energy
1 21 Which one of the following are highly
penetrating
Gamma rays Beta particles Alpha Particles
1 21 Solid state detector basically is A pnp
transistor
A npn
transistor
PN-junction
diode
1 21 Cancerous tissues in a thyroid gland can be
detected by the intake of
Radio iodine Radio sodium Radio carbon
1 21 The tumors are irradiated by Protons Gamma rays Beta particles
1 21 Range of alpha particle in air is about 50 cm 40 cm 7 cm
1 21 Neutron penetrate matter readily and chiefly
because they are
Neutral Equal mass to
proton
Slow moving
1 21 which one of the following is the most useful
tracer
Strontium - 90 Carbon - 14 Lodine - 131
1 1 The number 76.8 is rounded off up to two
significant figures as
76.8 77 76.9
1 2 Rectangular coordinate system is also called-
----------------
Polar
coordinate
system
Cartesian
coordinate
system
Cylindrical
coordinate
system
1 2 The direction of a vector in space is
specified by------------
One angle Two angle Three angle
1 2 Addition of vector obey--------------------
Commutative
law
Distributive
law

Associative law
1 2 A vector can be multiplied by a number. The
number may be---------
dimensionless dimensional
scalar
negative
1 2 Maximum number of rectangular
components is-------------
One Two Three
1 2 Maximum number of components of a
vector may be----------
One Two Three
1 2 Which one is not correct for a vector A= 2
i + 2 j?
Has direction
=45o with x-
axis
Has
magnitude 2
Has
magnitude 2
and direction
=45o with y-
axis
1 2 Two vectors A and B are making angle
with each other. The scalar projection of
vector B on vector A is written
as___________________
A.B /A A.B/ B A. cos
1 2 The direction of vector product is given
by_______________
Head to tail
rule
Right hand
rule
Left hand rule
1 2 If east, west, north, south, up and down are
representing the direction of unit vector, then
east x south has direction
along______________
West North Down
1 2 Null vector is vector which
has____________
Zero
magnitude
No specified
direction
Both a and
b are correct
1 2 Zero magnitude Their dot
product
Their cross
product
Head to tail
rule
1 2 Torque is defined as---_______________ Turning effect
of force
Cross
product of
position vector
and force
Product of
force and
moment arm
1 2 SI unit of torque is_______________ N.m Joule Both a and b
are correct
1 2 Torque acting on a body
determines___________
Acceleration Linear
acceleration
Angular
acceleration
1 2 A body in equilibrium_________ Always at rest Always in
uniform motion
May be at rest
or in uniform
motion
1 2 Which one is not a type of dynamic
equilibrium?
Rotational
equilibrium
Translational
equilibrium
Static
equilibrium
1 2 Three coplanar forces acting on a body keep
it in equilibrium. They should therefore be
___________________
Concurrent Non concurrent Parallel
1 2 Which of the following pairs does not have
identical dimensions
Torque and
energy
Momentum
and impulse
Energy and
work
1 2 A central force is that
which_______________
Can produce
torque
Cant produce
torque
Some time
can produce
torque some
time cant
1 2 It is easier to turn a steering wheel with both
hands than with a single hand
because_______________
Accelerating
force
increases on
the wheel
Two forces act
on the wheel
Two hands
provide firm
grip
1 3 When body is in motion, ____________
always changes.
its velocity its acceleration its position
vector
1 3 a body is moving in uniform velocity, its
_________
its speed
changes
acceleration
changes
direction of
motion
changes
1 3 a man is in a car moving with the velocity of
36Km/hr. his speed with respect to the car is
10m/s 36m/s Zero
1 3 when velocity time graph is straight line
parallel to time axis then___________
acceleration is
constant
acceleration is
variable
acceleration is
zero
1 3 Area under velocity time graph
represent____________
force displacement distance
1 3 Slope of velocity time graph is __________ acceleration distance force
1 3 Instantaneous and average velocities
become equal when body__________
has zero
acceleration
has uniform
acceleration
has variable
acceleration
1 3 Inertia of an object is quantitative measure
of its___________
volume density mass
1 3 Newton,s law do not hold good for
particles----------_____________
at rest moving slowly moving with
high velocity
1 3 Momentum depends upon ____________ force acts on
a body
mass of a
body
velocity of a
body
1 3 When a body moves in a straight line then
its displacement coincides with
distance force acceleration
1 3 Which of the following pair has same
direction always?
force,
displacement
force , velocity force,
acceleration
1 3 Motorcycle safety helmet extends the time of
collision hence decreasing the _________
chance of
collision
force acting velocity
1 3 the collision between two bodies of elastic if
bodies are ______________
solid and soft solid and
elastic
solid and hard
1 3 During long jump, athlete runs before taking
the jump. By doing so he __________
provide him a
larger inertia
decresing his
inertia
decreses his
momentum
1 3 When car takes turn around a curve road,
the passengers feel a force acting on them
in a direction away from the center of the
curve. It is due to_____________
centripetal
force
gravitational
force
their inertia
1 3 a body is falling freely under gravity. How
much distance it falls during an interval of
time between 1st and 2nd seconds of its
motion, taking g=10?
14 m 20 m 5 m
1 3 What is the shape of velocity time graph of
constant acceleration?
straight
inclined line
parabola inclined curve
1 3 When collision between the bodies in a
system is inelastic in nature then for
system_______________
momentum
changes but
K.E remain
conserve
K.E changes
but
momentum
remains
conserve
both
momentum
and K.E
changes
1 3 the acceleration in the rocket at any instant
is proportional to the nth power of velocity of
the expelled gases. Where the value of n
must be ?
-1 1 2
1 3 Which of the following is not an example of
projectile motion.
a gas filled
balloon
bullet fired
from gun
a football
kicked
1 3 What is the angle of projection for which the
range and maximum height become equal?
1 3 the trust on the rocket in the absence of
gravitational force of attraction is
___________
constant not constant constant if the
rate of ejected
gases is
constant
1 3 Flight of rocket in the space is an example
of_____________
Second law of
motion
Third law of
motion
First law of
motion
1 3 The trajectory or path of projectile is
_________________
straight line parabola hyperbola
1 3 Time rate of change of momentum is equal
to
force impulse velocity
1 3 Why ballistic missile fails in some
circumstances of precision.
due to their
shape
due to air
resistance
due to angle
of projection
1 4 . A field in which the work done is moving a
body along closed path is zer is called
_______________
electric field conservative
field
electromagneti
c field
1 4 . when a force is parallel to the direction of
motion of the body , then work done on the
body is _____________
zero minimum infinity
1 4 . which of the following type of force can do
not work on the practical on which it acts?
frictional force gravitational
force
elastic force
1 4 the average power and instantaneous power
become equal if work is done at
___________
any rate at variable rate at uniform rate
1 4 Slope of work time graph is equal to
___________
displacement acceleration power
1 4 work done by variable force is determine by
dividing ____________
force into
small interval
displacement
into small
interval
both force and
displacement
into small
interval
1 4 work done on the body equal to the
______________
change is its
K.E energy
always
change in its
P.E Always
change in its
K.E and
change in its
P.E
1 4 The escape velocity of a body in gravitational
field of earth is Of_________________
a)its mass the angle at
which its is
thrown
Both its mass
and the angle
at which it is
thrown
1 5 The rotational K.E of hoop is equal to the -----
-------------
Its
translational
K.E
Half than its
translational
K.E
Double than its
translational
K.E
1 5 Geo-stationary satellite completes one
rotation around earth in-------------
3 hour 6 hours 12 hours
1 5 Radius of geo-stationary orbit from center of
earth is nearly--------------
42000km 36000km 24000km
1 5 According to Einstein, the gravity interaction
is possible between------------
Material
objects only
Material
objects only
Material
objects and
electromagneti
c radiation only
1 5 The direction of linear velocity of body
moving in a circle is----------------
Along the axis
of rotation
Along the
tangent
Directed
towards the
center
1 5 When a body is whirled in a horizontal circle
by means of string the centripetal force is
supplied by----------
Mass of a body Velocity of
body
Tension in the
string
1 5 Centripetal force performs----------- Maximum work Minimum work Negative work
1 5 A stone is whirled in a vertical circle at the
end of a string. When the stone is at the
highest position the tension in the string is----
-----------
Maximum Zero Equal to the
weight of the
stone
1 5 The span of broad jumps depends upon-------
-----
Mass of the
jumper
Height of
jumps
Angle of
projection
1 5 In case of planets the necessary
acceleration is provided by -------------
Gravitation
force
Frictional force Coulomb force
1 5 A body can have constant velocity when it
follows a ----------------
Elliptical path Circular path Parabolic path
1 5 A cyclist cycling around a circular racing
track, skids because-----------
The centripetal
force upon him
is less than
limiting friction
The centripetal
force upon him
is greater then
limiting friction
The centripetal
force upon him
is equal to the
limiting friction
1 5 What is outward force acting on a mass of
10kg when rotating at one end of an inelastic
string 10m long at speed of 1m/s?
1N 10N 2N
1 5 If we whirl a stone at the end of a string in
the vertical circle, it is likely to break when
the stone is---------
At the highest
point
At lowest point At any point
during motion
1 5 Who discovered the inverse square law for
gravity?
Einstein Galileo Newtons
1 5 The planet nearest to the earth is----------------
--
Venus Mercury Uranus
1 5 A satellite moving round the earth
constitutes---------------------
An inertial
frame of
reference
Non intertial
frame
Neither
incertial nor
non inertial
1 5 minimum number of communication
satellites required to cover the whole earth is-
----------------------
4 3 2
1 5 A body of 2kg is suspended form the ceiling
of an elevator moving up with an
acceleration g. its apparent weight in the
elevator will be----------
9.8N 19.6N 129.4N
1 5 If a body of mass 10kg is allowed to fall
freely, its weight becomes-----------------
zero 89N 9.8N
1 5 How many days would be in a year if the
distance between the earth and the sun
were reduced to half of its present value
(assuming circular orbit)?
365 days 730days 329 days
1 5 When a body is moving along a circular,
path, it covers a certain angle in a given
internal of time. Such type of motion is---------
----
Vibratory
motion
Linear motion Rotatory
motion
1 6 Coefficient of viscosity of honey is greater
than------------------
Milk Water Tar coal
1 6 Terminal velocity is-------------------- Uniform Maximum Uniform and
maximum
1 6 When body moves with terminal velocity the
acceleration in the body become-----------------
-----------
Zero Maximum Variable
1 6 Terminal velocity of the body is directly
proportional to the -------------------
Radius of the
body
Diameter of
the body
Size of the
body
1 6 The flow of ideal fluid is always-------------------
---
Turbulent Streamline Irregular
1 6 Drag force is given by------------------------- Newtons law Pascals law Gausss law
1 6 When fluid is incompressible then---------------
-
Velocity of the
fluid is constant
Flow of the
fluid is straight
line
Density of the
fluid is constant
1 6 Irregular flow of fluid is called------------------- Streamline Turbulent Uniform
1 6 Equation of continuity is obtained by apply in
law of conservation of--------------
Mass Energy Momentum
1 6 Velocity of fluid increases where the
pressure is-------------------
Low High Constant
1 6 Speed of efflux can be determined by
applying----------------
Bernoullis
theorem
Torricellis
theorem
Venture
relation
1 6 Blood vessels are--------------------- Rigid Not rigid Of glass
1 6 Concentration of red cells in blood is about---
----------
25% 40% 50%
1 6 A man standing near a fast moving train may
fall------------------
On the train Away from the
train
Towards the
train
1 6 For which position, maximum blood
pressure in the body have the smallest
value?
Standing
straight
Sitting on chair Sitting on
ground
1 6 Two fog droplets have radius 2:3 their
terminal velocities are----------------
04:06 04:09 02:09
1 6 Bernoullis equation is obtained by applying
law of conservation of -----------------
Mass Energy momentum
1 6 Venturi meter is used to
measure_____________________
Fluid pressure Fluid density Fluid speed
1 6 In Cricket when a bowler produce reverse
swing, the ball will move
towards______________
Shinning side
of the ball
Rough side Seam of the
ball
1 6 Stokes law is applicable if body
has_______________ shape
Rough Square Circular
1 6 Systolic pressure is
called_________________
Low blood
pressure
High blood
pressure
Normal blood
pressure
1 6 Instrument used to measure blood pressure
is called______________
Venturimeter Blood pressure Sphygmomano
rmeter
1 6 A chimney works best if air exposed to the
chimney is _______________
Stationary Moving Moving slowly
1 6 The effect of the decrease in pressure with
the increase of the speed of fluid in a
horizontal pipe is known
as_____________________
Bernoullis
effect
Torricellis
effect
Venture
1 6 Ideal fluid is _________________ Non-viscous Incompressible Steady flow
1 6 Laminar flow usually occurs at speeds. Low High Very high
1 6 For __________ flow the path of the fluid
particles cannot be tracked
Laminar Streamline Turbulent
1 6 Sphygmomanometers measures blood
pressure.
Statically Dynamically Some time
static and
some time
dynamic
1 6 Carburetor of a car is a application of Venturi meter Bernoulls
equation
Both (a) and
(b)
1 6 The blood flow is __________________ flow
at disystolic pressure
Laminar Turbulent Mixed
1 6 The profile of aero plane wing which lifts it
up is called as
Wing shape Aerofoil profile Curved profile
1 6 Bernoullis equation is applicable for Laminar flow Turbulent flow Both laminar
and turbulent
flow
1 6 The density of human blood is nearly equal to Water Honey Mercury
1 6 The speed of the fluid is maximum in the
venturimeter at
Convergent
duct
Divergent duct Throat
1 6 The normal blood pressure range for an
human body is
120 to 80 torr 100 to 80 torr 120 to 60 torr
1 7 In vibratory remains motion------------ P.E remains
constant
K.E remain
constant
Total energy
remain
constant
1 7 The waveform of S.H.M. is-------------- Standing wave Sine wave Square wave
1 7 In S.H.M. the velocity of particle is maximum
at------------------
Mean position Extreme
position
Middle
between mean
and extreme
position on the
right side
1 7 Total energy of a body executing S.H.M is
directly proportional to -------------
Square root of
amplitude
The amplitude Reciprocal of
amplitude
1 7 the time period of a seconds pendulum is ----
-------------
4 seconds 3 seconds 2 seconds
1 7 The length of second pendulum is---------------
----
100cm 99cm 99.2cm
1 7 If length of second pendulum becomes four
times, then its time period will
become__________________
Four times Six times Eight
1 7 The force responsible for the vibratory
motion of the somple pendulum is
_____________
Mg cos Mg sin Mg tan
1 7 The frequency of the second pendulum is
___________________
1 hertz 0.5 hertz 1.5 hertz
1 7 Simple harmonic motion is a type of
___________________
Rotational
motion
Circular motion Musical
arrangement
1 7 The SI unit of force constant is identical with
that of ______________
Force Pressure Surface
tension
1 7 When the amplitude of a wave become
double, its energy become_________
Double Four times One half
1 7 A simple pendulum suspended form the
ceiling of a lift has time period T when the lift
is at rest. When the lift falls freely, the time
period is _____________
Infinite T/g Zero
1 7 The energy of SHM is Maximum
at_______________
position
In between
mean and
extreme
1 7 The prduct of requency and time period is
equal to _____________
1 2 3
1 7 Sharpness of resonance is _____________ Derectly
proportional to
damping force
Inversely
proportional ro
damping force
Equal to
square of
damping force
1 7 Which one does not work according to
resonance?
T.V Radio Microwave
oven
1 7 The restoring force acting on simple
pendulum is given by ______________
Mg sing mg sing Mg cos
1 7 Phase of SHM
describes_________________
Displacement
only
Direction
motion only
Both
displacement
and direction
of motion
1 7 Natural frequency of simple pendulum
depends upon____________
Its mass Its length Square of its
length
1 7 Electrical resonance is observed in
________________
Radio Microwave
oven
Both in radio
and
microwave
oven
1 7 Total distance traveled by bob of simple
pendulum in one vibration is equal to
_____________
Amplitude Square of
amplitude
2 x amplitude
1 7 When K.E energy of SHM is maximum, is
_________________
P.E is zero Acceleration is
zero
Restoring
force is zero
1 7 In damped harmonic oscillation, which one
decreases?
Amplitude of
vibration
Energy of
vibration
Both
amplitude and
energy
1 7 Forced vibration are known
as_________________
Simple
harmonic
vibration
Natural
vibration
Driven
harmonic
vibration
1 7 Mass attached to a spring executes. Vibratory
motion
Rotatory
motion
S.H.M
1 7 At Murree Hills (Assume value of g
changes). If we use a simple pendulum as
time standard then one second duration will.
Increase Decrease Remains same
1 7 The velocity of the mass attached to a spring
is maximum at
position
Both (a) and
(b)
1 7 The projection of the particle moving in a
circle with non-uniform speed executes.
S.H.M Vibratory Both (b) and
(d)
1 7 Displacement of the body in S.H.M is equal
to amplitude when body is at
Mean position Else where Extreme
position
1 7 For a simple pendulum the restoring force is
caused by
Gravity Spring Hand
1 7 The distance covered by a body in one
complete vibration is 20cm. what is the
amplitude of body
10cm 5cm 15cm
1 7 In case of a simple pendulum, the cause of
damping is
Drag force of
air
Gravity Tension in
string
1 8 Waves transmit ______________from one
place to another.
Energy Mass Both
1 8 The waves that require a material medium
for their propagation are called
_____________
Matter waves Electromagneti
c waves
Carrier
1 8 The distance between any two consecutive
crests or troughs is called _________
Frequency Period Wave length
1 8 When two identical traveling waves are
superimposed, the velocity of the resultant
wave__________________
Decreases Increased Remains
unchanged
1 8 In vibrating cord the points where the
amplitude is maximum, are called______
Antinodes Nodes Troughs
1 8 If stretching force T of wire increases, then
its frequency ___________
Decreases Increases Remains the
same
1 8 A stationary wave is set up in the air column
of a closed pipe. At the closes end of the
pipe__________________
Always an
node is formed
Always an
antinode is
formed
Neither node
nor antinode is
formed
1 8 It is possible to distinguish between
transverse and longitudinal waves form the
property of _____________________
Refraction Polarization Interference
1 8 According to Newton sound travel in air
under the conditions of ___________
Adiabatic Isothermal Isobaric
1 8 Sound waves do not travel in vacuum
because _________________
They are
transverse
waves
They are
stationary
waves
They require
material
medium for
propagation
1 8 The velocity of sound is greatest in
__________________
Water Air Copper
1 8 On loading the prong of a tuning from with
wax, its frequency _________
Increases Decreases Remains
unchanged
1 8 The normal ear is the most sensitive in the
frequency range____________
20,000 to
30,000 hertz
10 to 20 hertz 2000 to 4000
hertz
1 8 Ultrasonic have________________ Frequency in
the audible
range
Frequency in
grater than 20
KHz
Frequency
lower than 20
Hz
1 8 The periodic alternation of sound between
maximum and minimum loudness are
called_________________
Silence zone Interference Beats
1 8 The number of beats produced per second
is equal to _____________
The sum of
the
frequencies of
two tuning
forks
The difference
of the
frequencies of
two tuning
forks
The ratio of
the
frequencies of
two tuning
forks
1 8 Beats are the results of
__________________
Diffraction of
sound waves
Constructive
and
destructive
interference
Polarization
1 8 Silence zone takes place due
to________________
Constructive
interference
Destructive
interference
Beats
1 8 Doppler effect applies to
__________________
Sound wave
only
Light wave only Both sound
and light waves
1 8 When the source of sound moves away form
a stationary listener, then ____________
occurs.
An apparent
increase in
frequency
An apparent
decrease in
frequency
An apparent
decrease in
wavelength
1 8 A simple pendulum has a bob of mass m
and its frequency is f. if we replaced the
bob with heavier one, say of 2m, then what
will be its new frequency?
1 /4f 1 /2f F
1 8 in open organ pipe___________ only even
harmonics are
present
only odd
harmonics are
present
both even and
odd harmonics
are present
1 9 Optical active crystals rotates the
__________
Vibrating plane Polarization
plane
Diffraction
plane
1 9 Which is not optically active? Sugar Tartaric acid Water
1 9 In double slit experiment, we
observe___________
Interference
fringes only
Diffraction
fringes only
Both
interference
and diffraction
fringes
1 9 When light incident normally on thin film, the
path difference depends upon____________
Thickness of
the film only
Nature of the
film only
Angle of
incidence of
only
1 9 Which one of the following properties of light
does not change with the nature of the
medium?
Velocity Wavelength Amplitude
1 9 Light reaches the earth form sun in nearly-----
---------------
15 minutes 10minutes 8 minutes
1 9 Photoelectric effect was given by----------------
--
Hertz Fresnel Einstein
1 9 According to Einstein, light travels form one
place to another in the form of -----------
Waves Particles Photons
1 9 Longitudinal waves do not exhibit----------------
----------
Reflection Refraction Diffraction
1 9 Central spot of Newtons rings--------------------
-
Bright Dark for large
wavelength
Dark
1 9 A point source of light placed in a
homogeneous medium gives rise to------------
--
A cylindrical
wave front
An elliptical
wave front
A spherical
wave front
1 9 The locus of all points in a medium having
the same phase of vibration is called-----------
-
Crest Trough Wavelength
1 9 Which one of the following is nearly
monochromatic light?
Light form
fluorescent
tube
Light form
neon lamp
Light
1 9 Two sources of light are coherent if they
emit rays of-----------------
Same
wavelength
constructive
interference
Destructive
interference
1 9 When crest of one wave falls over the trough
of the other wave, this phenomenon is
known as----------------
Polarization Constructive
interference
Destructive
interference
1 9 In young double slit experiment, if white light
is used, ---------------
Alternate dark
and bright
fringes will be
seen
Colored
fringes will be
seen
No
interference
fringes will be
seen
1 9 The velocity of light was determined
accurately by ------------------
Newton Michelson Huygen
1 9 In an interfrnce
pattern___________________
bright fringes
are wider than
dark fringes
dark friges are
wider than
bright fringe
both dark and
bright friges
are of equal
width
1 9 The appearance of colour in thin films is due
to__________
diffraction dispersion interference
1 9 The blue colour of the sky is due
to________________
diffraction rflection scattering
1 9 Diffraction affect is______________ more for a
round edge
less for a
round edge
1 9 In a plane polarized light,
___________________
Vibration in all
direction
Vibration in
two mutually
perpendicular
directions
Vibration take
place in a
direction
perpendicular
to the direction
of propagation
of light
1 9 light on passing through a Polaroid is
________________
plane polarized un-polarized circularly
polarized
1 9 Which one of the following cannot be
polarized?
Radio waves Ultraviolet rays X-ray
1 9 Diffraction fringes
are____________________
Equally spaced Distance
between them
increases
Distance
between then
decreases
1 9 In monochromatic red light, a blue book will
probably appear to be_______________
Black Purple Green
1 9 A thing that emits its own light
is___________________
Luminous Non-luminous Incandescent
1 9 In double slit experiment, if one of the two
slit is covered then_______________
No
interference
fringes are
observed
No diffraction
fringes are
observed
No fringes
observed
1 10 A lens which converges a beam of parallel
rays to a point is called ___________
diverging (or
concave ) lens
converging (or
convex ) lens
plano concave
lens
1 10 A point where the incident parallel rays of
leight converge or appear to diverge after
passing through a lens is called _________
center of
curvature
focus optical center
1 10 the diameter of a lens is called __________ focal length principle axis aperture
1 10 in going form a denser to rarer medium a
ray of light is _________
undeviated bent away
from normal
bent towards
the normal
1 10 unit of power of a lens is _____________ meter watt dioptre
1 10 the power of concave lens is ____________ real virtual positive
1 10 the minimum distance between an object
and its real image in a convex lens is
2 f 2.5 f 3 f
1 10 if an object is placed away from 2f of a
converging lens, then the image will be
real and erect virtual and
erect
real and
inverted
1 10 a convex lens give a virtual image only
when the objects lies
between
principle focus
and center of
curvature
beyond 2 f at the
principle focus
1 10 magnifying power of simple microscope
___________
increase with
increase in
focal length
increase with
decrease in
focal length
no effect with
decrease or
increase wit
focal length
1 10 image of an object 5 mm heigh is only 1cm
high. Magnification produced by lens is
0.5 0.2 1
1 10 the least distance of distinct vision for a
normal eye is _________
15cm 25cm 30cm
1 10 least distance of distinct vision
_____________
increase with
increase in age
decrease with
increase in age
neither
increases nor
decreases
1 10 if a convex lens of large aperture fails to
converge the leight rays incident on it to a
simple point , it is said to suffer from
chromatic
aberration
spherical
aberration
both
chromatic and
spherical
1 10 two convex lenses of equal focal f are
placed in a contact , the resultant focal
length of the combination is
________________
zero f 2 f
1 10 A convex length of equal focal length f 1
and concave lence of focal length f 2 are
placed in contact. The focal length of
combination is _____________
f2+f1 f2-f1 f1f2/f2+f1
1 10 final image produced by a compound
microscope is ________________
real and
inverted
real and erect virtual and
erect
1 10 In multimode step index fiber the refractive
index of core and cladding is __________
same different zero
1 10 Dispersional effect may produce error in
light signals. This type of error is minimum in
___________
signal mode
step index fiber
multimode
step index fiber
multimode
graded index
fiber
1 10 Light signal passes through multimode
graded index fiber due to ____________
continuous
refraction
total internal
reflection
both
continuous
refraction and
total internal
reflection
1 10 there is no noticeable boundry core and
cladding ________
multimode
step index fiber
multimode
graded index
fiber
single mode
step index fiber
1 10 the electrical signals changes into light
signals for transmission through optical fiber.
A light pulse represent ____________
zero one both zero and
one
1 10 A lens , which is thicker at the center and
thinner at the edges , is called ___________
concave lens convex lens plano convex
lens
1 10 A spectrometer is used to find _________ wave length
of light
refractive
index of the
prim
wave length
of different
colors
1 10 if a convex lens of focal length f is cut into
two identical halves along the lens diameter ,
the focal length of each half is
_____________
f f/2 2f
1 10 30 A convex and concave lens of focal
length f are in contact, the focal length of
combination will be _____________
zero f/2 2f
1 11 Temperature is property, which
determines_________________
How much
heat a body
contains
Whether a
body will feel
hot or cold to
touch
In which
direction heat
will flow
between two
systems
1 11 We prefer mercury as a thermometric
substance because _________
Over a side
range of
temperature
its expansion
is uniform
It does not
stick to
thermometer
glass
It is opaque
to light
1 11 The scales of temperature are based on two
fixed points, which are__________
The
temperatures
of water at
0oC and
100oC
The
temperature of
melting ice
and boiling
water at
atmospheric
pressure
The
temperatures
of ice cold and
boiling water
1 11 The Fahrenheit and centigrade scales agree
to ______________
-40 15.5 542
1 11 The size of one degree of Celsius is equal to
_______________
One degree of
Fahrenheit
scale
1.8 degree of
Fahrenheit
scale
3.2 degrees of
Fahrenheit
scale
1 11 At constant temperature, the graph
between V and I/P is______________
Hyperbola Parabola A curve of any
shape
1 11 According to Pascals law the pressure of
gas in a vessel is _____________
Different in
different
direction
Same in all
direction
Same only
along opposite
directions
1 11 We can produce heat by
_________________
Frictional
process
Chemical
processes
Electrical
processes
1 11 Which one is true for internal energy? It is sum of
all forms of
energies
associated
with molecules
of a system
It is a state
function of
system
It is
proportional to
transnational
K.E of the
molecules
1 11 Metabolism is the name of a process in
which energy transformationtakes place
within__________________
Heat engine Human body Atmosphere
1 11 Which one is not an example of adiabatic
process?
Rapid
escape of air
from a burst
tyre
Rapid
expansion of
air
Conversion
of water into
ice in
refrigerator
1 11 The pressure exerted by a column of
mercury 76cm high and at 0oC is
called__________
1 atmosphere 1 Newton per
square meter
1 Pascal
1 11 If the volume of a gas is hel constant and
we increase its temperature then _________
Its pressure is
constant
Its pressure
rises
Its pressure
falls
1 11 If the pressure of a given gas is held
cosnstant its density is inversely proportional
to its absolute temperature. We can refer it
as another statement of ________________
Boyles law Charles law Ideal gas law
1 11 Gas molecules of different masses in the
same container have the same average
transnational kinetic energy, which is directly
proportional to their____________
Volume Pressure Absolute
temperature
1 11 Boyles law holds for ideal gases in
_____________
Isochoric
processes
Isobaric
processes
Isothermal
processes
1 11 For a gas obeying Boyles law, if the
pressure is doubled, the volume
becomes________
Double One half Four times
1 11 Which of the following properties of
molecules of a gas is same for all gases at
particular temperature?
Momentum Mass Velocity
1 11 In which process entropy remains
constant_________
Isobaric Isochoric Adiabatic
1 12 When we rub a glass rod with a silk cloth,
then______________
Glass rod
acquires
negative
charge while
silk acquires
positive charge
Glass rod
acquires
positive
charge while
silk acquires
negative
charge
Both glass rod
and silk
acquire
negative
charge
1 12 If the distance between the two point
charges become half, then force between
them becomes_____________
Double Half Four times
1 12 The force per unit charge is known
as____________
Electric flux Electric
intensity
Electric
potential
1 12 An electric charge at rest
produces_________________
Only an
magnetic field
Only an
electric field
Neither
electric field
nor magnetic
field
1 12 Tick the only wrong statement. Similar
charges repel
each other
Dissimilar
charges attract
each other
Repulsion is
the sure test of
electrification
1 12 Electric intensity being a vector quantity
always points______________
Along the
direction of
force
experienced
by a unit
positive charge
Opposite to
the direction of
force
experienced
by a unit
positive charge
Perpendicular
to the direction
of force
experienced
by a unit
positive charge
1 12 Electric flux linked with a surface will be
maximum when____________
The surface is
held parallel to
the electric
field
The surface is
held
perpendicular
to the electric
field
The surface
males an
angle of 45o
with the field
1 12 A closed surface contains two equal and
opposite charges. The net electric flux from
the surface will be_______________
Negative Positive Zero
1 12 The electric lines of force are____________ Imaginary Physically
existing every
where
Physically
existing near
the charges
1 12 Tick the correct statement The electric
lines of force
have no
physical
existence
They expand
laterally and
contract
longitudinally
They do not
cross each
other and
group together
in dielectric
1 12 If free space between the plates of a
capacitor is replaced by a dielectric
The potential
difference
remains
constant,
capacitance
and energy
stored
increases
The potential
difference
remains
constant,
capacitance
decreases and
energy
increases
The potential
difference
decreases but
both
capacitance
and energy
increase
1 12 A hollow metallic sphere of 8cmdiameteris
charged with 4x10 8C. the potential on its
surface will be ________________
900 volts 9000 volts 90 volts
1 12 The metallic spheres A and B of radii 2m
and 4m respectively carry the same charge
4x10 8C. If the spheres are connected by a
copper wire.
Charge will
flow from A to
B
Charge will
flow from B to
A
No flow of
charge will
occur
1 12 Potential difference is the work done in
moving unit positive charge form one point
to another-----------------
In the direction
of electric
intensity
Against
electric
intensity
In any direction
1 12 Equipotent planes are----------------- Parallel to one
another
Non-parallel to
one another
Intersecting
1 12 The value of the capacitance depends upon
the -----------------
Voltage applied Thickness of
the capacitor
plates
Geometry of
the capacitor
1 12 If a 10F capacitor is to have an energy
content of 20J, it must be placed across a
potential difference of -----------
4 volts 9 volts 2 volts
1 12 Equivalent capacitance is greater than
individual capacitances in---------
Series
combination
Parallel
combination
Both series
and parallel
combination
1 12 Two appositely charged balls A and B attract
third conducting ball C when placed near
them turn by turn. The ball C must be
Positively
charged
Electrically
neutral
Negatively
charge
1 12 In a non-uniform electric field, a polar
molecule will experience
Net torque Net force Both
1 12 Electric intensity at infinite distance from the
point charge is ____________
Zero Infinite Positive
1 12 N/C= _______________ V / A J / V V / m
1 12 A charge of 0.10C accelerated through a
potential difference of 1000V acquires
kinetic energy ________________
200J 100J 1000J
1 12 A capacitor is a perfect insulator for
_______________
Direct current Alternating
current
Both for the
direct and
alternating
current
1 12 In a charged capacitor the energy resides in
_________
Magnetic field electric field nuclear field
1 13 The current through a metallic
conductor is due to the motion
of____________________
Free electrons Protons Neutrons
1 13 Resistance of a conductor depends
upon___________
Nature of
conductor
Dimension of
conductor
Physical state
of the
conductor
1 13 A wire having very high value of
conductance is said to be___________
Very good
conductor
Moderately
good conductor
An insulator
1 13 A wire of uniform area of cross-section 'A'
length 'L' and resistance R is cut into two
parts. Resistivity of each
part__________________
Remains the
same
Is doubled Is halved
1 13 Production of heat due to an electric current
flowing through a conductor is given
by___________________
Joule effect Joule
Thomson's
effect
Compton's
effect
1 13 When same current passes for same time
through a thick and thin wire
_________________
More heat is
produced in
thick wire
More heat is
produced in
thin wire
No heat is
produced in
wire
1 13 Three equal resistors connected in series
with a source of e.m.f together dissipate 10
W of power each. What will be the power
dissipated if the same resistors are
connected in parallel across the same
source of e.m.f?
40W 90 W 100W
1 13 One kilowatt hour is the amount of energy
delivered during______
one second one day one minute
1 13 Thermocouples
convert________________________.
heat energy
into electrical
energy
heat energy
into light
energy
heat energy
into
mechanical
energy
1 13 How much heat does a 40 W bulb generates
in one hour?
144000J 144 J 1.44J
1 13 An immersion heater of 400 watts kept on
for 5 hours will consume electrical power of
__________________
2KWh 20KWh 6KWh
1 13 Resistance of a super conductor is _______ finite infinite zero
1 13 Resistance of an ideal insulator is_________ infinite zero finite
1 13 Which one is the best material for making
connecting wires?
iron tungsten silver
1 13 Reciprocal of resistivity is
called_______________
resistance inductance conductivity
1 13 Circuit which gives continuously varying
potential is called
complex
network
wheat stone
bridge
potential
divider
1 13 Internal resistance is the resistance offered
by
source of e.m.f conductor resistor
1 13 There are three bulbs of 60W, 100W and
200W which bulb has thickest filament.
100W 200W 60W
1 13 Three bulbs are rating 40 W, 60W and
100W designed to work on 220V mains.
Which bulb will burn most brightly if they are
connected in series across 220 V mains?
40 W bulb 60 W bulb lOOW bulb
1 13 Resistance of a wire on increasing its
temperature will________
increase with
rise in
temperature
deerease with
rise in
temperature
will remain
same
1 13 Specific resistance of a wire
______________
will depend on
its length
will depend on
its radius
will depend on
the type of
material of the
wire
1 13 An electric iron is marked 20 volts 500W.
The units consumed by it in using if for 24
hours will be
12 24 5
1 13 In liquids and gases, the current is due to the
motion
negative
charges
positive
charges
both negative
and positive
charges
1 13 If 1 ampere current flows through 2m long
conductor, the charge flow through it in 1
hour will be
3600C 7200C 1C
1 13 The graphical representation of Ohm's law is hyperbola ellipse parabola
1 13 Which one of the following materials is
useful for making bulb filaments?
constantan nichrome copper
1 13 The resistance of a conductor at absolute
zero (OK) is________
zero almost infinite almost no prediction
at all
1 13 Why should a resistance be introduced in a
circuit in series deliberately?
to increase
current
to decrease
current
to control
current
1 13 Electrical energy is measured
in_____________
watt horse power kilo watt
1 13 All electrical appliances are connected in
parallel to each other between the main line
and neutral wire, to get____________
same current same current
and potential
difference
different
current but
same potential
difference
1 13 Which one of the following bulbs has the
least resistance?
100 watt 200 watt 300 watt
1 13 A fuse is placed in series with the circuit to
protect against_______
high power high voltage high current
1 13 Terminal potential difference of a battery is
greater than its emf when___________
the internal
resistance of
battery is
infinite
the internal
resistance of
battery is zero
the battery is
charged
1 14 Magnetic force acting on a unit positive
charge moving perpendicular to the
magnetic field with a unit velocity is called
______________.
magnetic flux magnetic flux magnetic
induction
1 14 What is the value of the current in a wire of
10cm long at the right angle to a uniform
magnetic field of 0.5 Wcber/m2, when the
force acting on the wire is 5N?
lA 10A 1OOA
1 14 When a particle of charge q and mass m
enters into a uniform magnetic field B
moving with a velocity v perpendicular to the
direction for the field, it describes a circular
path of radius
R=qB/mV R=mV/qB R=qmV/B
1 14 Two parallel wires carrying currents in the
opposite directions ___ __.
repel each
other
attract each
other
have no effect
upon each
other
1 14 A magnetic compass will be deflected if it is
kept near a
charge in
motion
charge at rest both
1 14 A magnetic field always exerts
a force on a
charged
particle
never exerts a
force on a
charged
particle
exerts a force
if the charged
particle is
moving in the
direction of the
magnetic field
lines
1 14 A moving coil galvanometer of resistance
100Q gives half scale deflection for a current
of 20mA. What will be the potential
difference across it?
4 volt 5 volt 2 volt
1 14 Which one of the following material is most
suitable for making core of an
electromagnet?
air steel Cu-Ni alloy
1 14 Magnetic flux and flux density are related by magnetic flux
= flux density /
area
magnetic flux
= flux density x
area
flux density =
magnetic flux
area
1 14 The standard vector symbol for flux density is M L H
1 14 The charged particle enters the uniform
magnetic field in such a way that its initial
velocity is not perpendicular to the field, the
orbit will be
a circle a spiral an ellipse
1 14 An electron enters a region where the
electric field E is perpendicular to the
magnetic field B. It will suffer no deflection
if________________-
E = BeV B = eE/V E= BV
1 14 An instrument, which can measure potential
without drawing any current, is____________
voltmeter galvanometer cathode ray
oscilloscope
(CRO)
1 14 When the coil of the galvanometer is in
equilibrium, then the deflecting couple
is________________
zero equal to the
restoring
couple
greater than
the restoring
couple
1 14 The sensitivity of a galvanometer is given
by________________
C/BAN CAN/B ABC/N BAN/C
1 14 Which one of the following is not an
electromechanical instrument?
galvanometer voltmeter ammeter
1 14 In a multi range ammeter, as the range
increases,
shunt value
decreases
shunl value
increases
shunt value
remains the
same
1 14 While measuring the unknown resistance,
with the help of a slide wire bridge, a
greatest accuracy can be achieved when
a most
sensitive
galvanometer
is used
a steady
voltage cell is
used
the balance
point is close
to the middle
of the wire
1 14 A sensitive galvanometer gives full-scale
deflection with 100 mV. If the resistance of
the galvanometer is 50Q, the maximum
current that can flow through safely is
_____________
2.0 mA 20 mA 200 mA
1 14 An ammeter measures the total current
flowing through a circuit, when it is
connected_______________
in series with
the circuit
in parallel with
the circuit
in series with
any of the
parallel
resistances in
the circuit
1 14 A galvanometer basically is an instrument
used to_____________
detect current
in a circuit
measure
current flowing
through a
circuit
measure
voltage across
a circuit
1 14 The effective way to increase the sensitivity
of a moving coil galvanometer is
to_________________
use a very
long and fine
suspension
use a coil of
very large area
use a coil with
very large
number of
turns
1 14 A wheat stone bridge is said to be balanced
when_____________
maximum
current flows
through the
galvanometer
branch
minimum
current flows
through the
galvanometer
branch
potential
difference
across
galvanometer
branch is
maximum
1 14 When an electron moving with a uniform
speed in a vacuum enters a magnetic field in
a direction perpendicular to the field, the
subsequent path of the electron is
______________
a straight line
parallel to the
field
a parabola in a
plane
perpendicular
to the field
a circle in a
plane
perpendicular
to the field
1 14 A particle of mass m charge q and speed V,
enters a uniform magnetic field of flux
density B. The path of the particle in the field
is a circle of radius r. The radius r of the
circle is
independent
mass m
directly
proportional to
m
directly
proportional to
q
1 14 Galvanometer is a very sensitive device with very low
damping
very high
damping
no damping at
all
1 14 Which one of the following methods
would be able to increase the sensitivity
of a moving coil galvanometer?
connect a
shunt across
the coil
use a coil of
smaller cross
sectional area
use a coil
having less
number of
turns
1 14 Heating a magnet will weaken it strengthen it reverse its
polarity
1 14 If a current carrying solenoid is suspended
freely, it will
be rotating came to rest in
N-S direction
vibrating like
galvanometer
needle
1 15 The practical illustration of the
phenomenon of mutual induction
is____________
A.C generator D.C dynamo induction coil
1 15 Weber is the unit of_____________ magnetic field
intensity
magnetic
induction
magnetic flux
1 15 Current produced by moving the loop of wire
across a magnetic field is called
A.C current D.C current induced current
1 15 emf induced in a circuit according to
Faraday's law depends on the__________
maximum
magnetic flux
rate of change
of magnetic
flux
change in
magnetic flux
1 15 emf generated by A.C dynamo depends
upon_______________
number of
turns in the coil
magnetic field
strength
frequency of
rotation
1 15 An alternating current or voltage
__________________
fluctuates off
and on
varies in
magnitude
alone
changes its
direction again
and again
1 15 A dynamo converts___________________ mechanical
energy into
electrical
energy
electrical
energy into
mechanical
energy
magnetic
energy into
mechanical
energy
1 15 Which one of the following functions, like a
motor?
galvanometer ammeter voltmeter
1 15 A.C cannot be used
for___________________
producing heat producing light magnetizing
and
electroplating
1 15 Which of the following works on
torque on the current carrying
conductor placed in magnetic field.
galvanometer ammeter voltmeter
1 15 Self inductance of a coil depends
upon_____________
current flowing number of
turns per unit
length
voltage
produce
1 15 If the coil is wound on an iron core, the flux
through it will
decrease become zero remain the
same
1 15 Inductors acts as a short circuit
for___________
AC DC Both (a) and
(b)
1 15 For electroplating we use_______________ A D.C source an A.C source any source
1 15 Which of the following uses electric energy
and does not convert it into any other form?
transformer motor D.C generator
1 15 The only difference between construction
of D.C generator and A.C generator is
that of
carbon brushes coil commutator
1 15 A.C and D.C have the
same________________
effect in
charging a
capacitor
effect in
charging a
battery
effect while
passing
through an
inductance
1 15 Power loss in actual transformer is due
to___________
Small output Eddy currents
and magnetic
hysterias
Soft iron core
1 15 A metal rod of 25cm length is moving at a
speed of 0.5m/sec in direction perpendicular
to 0.25T magnetic field, emf produced in the
rod is_____________
0 volt 3.125 volt 31.25 volt
1 15 The emf induced in a conductor of unit
length moving with unit velocity at right
angles to a magnetic field is equal to_______
Magnetic flux
density
Torque Mutual
induction
1 15 The self-inductance of a solenoid is
increased when a soft iron core is inserted
into it. This is because the soft iron
core___________
Decreases the
resistance of
the solenoid
Reduces the
effect of eddy
current
Improves the
flux linkage
between the
turns of the coil
1 15 A small coil lies inside a large coil. The two
coils are horizontal, concentric and carry
currents in opposite directions. The large coil
will experience__________________
A torque about
horizontal axis
A torque about
vertical axis
An upward
force along the
axis
1 15 A.C can not be used for__________ Producing heat Producing light Magnetizing
iron
1 15 Non inductive resistances are used in
decreasing_________
Mutual
inductance
Self inductance Magnetic fields
1 15 Magnetic compass needle will be deflecting,
if it is kept near_______
Static charge Soft iron Semi-
conductor
1 15 Long distance transmission is easy for _____ D.C voltage A.C voltage Half A.C
voltage
1 15 Which one of the following devices docs not
function like an electric motor?
Galvanometer Ammeter Voltmeter
1 15 The out put voltage of a transformer is 3
times the input voltage then turns ratio will
be ___________
.1/3 3 1
1 15 For long distance transmission, the
transformer used is_________
Step down Input voltage
and output
voltage remain
same
Step up
1 15 An electric current induced within the body of
a conductor when that conductor cither
moves through a non uniform magnetic field
or in a region where there is a change in
magnetic flux is called ____________
Induced
current
Eddy current Back emf
1 15 Lagging of changes in the magnetization of a
substance behind changes in the magnetic
field as the magnetic field is varied is known
as magnetic
Retaintivity Permeability Flux
1 15 Transformer works on the principle of
________________
Lenz's law Faraday's law Mutual
induction
1 15 When the motor is at its maximum speed,
then back emf will be ____
Maximum Zero Intermediate
values
1 16 An alternating current or
voltage___________
fluctuates off
and on
varies in
magnitude
alone
changes its
direction again
and again
1 16 A changing magnetic flux produces around
itself an induced
Magnetic field Electric field Electromagneti
c force
1 16 Electromagnetic waves travel in free space
with the speed of_______
-rays Positive rays Cathode rays
1 16 The direction of propagation of an
electromagnetic waves is
Perpendicular
to electric field
Perpendicular
to both electric
and magnetic
field
Perpendicular
to magnetic
field
1 16 An electromagnetic wave consists
of________________
Electric and
magnetic
fields moving
parallel to
each other
Magnetic field
moving with
velocity of light
in space
Electric field
moving with
velocity of light
1 16 Electromagnetic waves transport Energy Momentum Mass
1 16 Waves emitted from the antenna
are___________
Sound waves Electromagneti
c waves
Radio waves
1 16 Electromagnetic waves emitted from
antenna arc
Stationary Longitudinal Transverse
1 16 11 capacitance of L-C circuit is made four
times then frequency of the circuit
becomes__________________
Twice One half Four times
1 16 The value of the steady current, which when
flowing through the same resistor produces
heat at the same rate as the mean rate of
heat produced by the alternating current, is
____________
Average
current
Sinusoidal
current
r.m.s current
1 16 To find the r.m.s value of an alternating
current mathematically, we need to
have______________
Mean value of
P-
Square root of
mean value of
I2
Square root of
F
1 16 An alternating current of r.m.s value of 4.0 A
and frequency 50Hz flows in a circuit
containing 10 resistor. The peak current is
then
20A 20.66A 6.66A
1 16 In pure resistor circuit, the voltage and
current are_____________
Lagging each
other
They are at
90 phase
difference
They have
zero phase
difference
1 16 If a glass plate is inserted in between the
plate of a capacitor in series with a lighted
bulb, the brightness of the bulb
Remains same Brightness
increases
Brightness
decreases
1 16 A pure variable resistor is connected in
series with a pure capacitor of fixed
capacitance. The impedance of the
circuit__________________
Remains Becomes
infinite
Becomes zero
1 16 Ammeter connected in an AC circuit
measures____________
Exact value of
current
rms value of
current
Net value of
current
1 16 When a pure inductor of inductance L, and a
pure capacitor of capacitance C are
connected in parallel to a sinusoidal potential
difference V, the potential difference across
both L&C will be_______________
Same Different At L will be
more than at C
1 16 What is the self inductance of a coil in which
an induced emf of 2V is set up when the
current changes at the rate of 4 As -1?
0.5mH 0.5H 2.OH
1 16 A choke is used as a resistance in DC circuit AC circuits Both AC and
DC circuit
1 16 At resonance the value of the power factor in
an L-C-R series circuit is
Zero 1\2 1
1 16 An inductive coil has a resistance of 100.
When an AC signal of frequency l000Hz is
fed to the coil, the applied voltage leads the
current by 45. What is the inductance of the
coil?
l0mH 12mH 16ml!
1 16 Choose the correct statement. In the case of
AC circuit, ohm's law holds
for______________
Peak values of
voltage and
current
Effective
values of
voltage and
current
Instantaneous
values of
voltage and
current
1 16 Two identical coaxial circular loops carry
equal currents in the same direction. If the
loops approach each other, the current in
Each increases Each
decreases
Each remains
the same
1 16 An inductor may store energy in -----------------
---
its electric field its coils its magnetic
field
1 17 Which of the following substances
possesses the highest elasticity?
Rubber Steel Glass
1 17 Which one of the following physical
quantities does not have the dimensions of
force per unit area?
Stress Strain Young's
modulus
1 17 A wire, suspended vertically from one end, is
stretched by attaching a weight of 20 N to
the lower end. The weight stretches the wire
by 1mm. How much energy is gained by the
wire?
0.01J 0.02J 0.04J
1 17 A uniform steel wire of length 4m and area
of cross-section 3x10 -6m2 is extended by
1mm by the application of a force. If the
young's modulus of steel is 2xl011Nm-2 the
energy stored in the wire is_______
0.025J 0.050J 0.075J
1 17 The ratio stress to strain in young's modulus
of the material, then tension is
______________
Directly
proportional to
extension.
Directly
proportional to
strain.
Directly
proportional to
square of
amplitude.
1 17 Materials that undergo plastic deformation
before breaking are called _____
Brittle Ductile Amorphous
1 17 A wire is stretched by a force F which
causes an extension 1. The energy stored in
the wire is 1A Fl only if_____ _____
The extension
of the wire is
proportional to
the force
applied
The weight of
the wire is
negligible
The wire is not
stretched
beyond its
elastic limit
1 17 Formation of large molecule by joining small
molecules is _____________
Fusion Polymerization Crystallization
1 17 Any alteration produced in shapes, length or
volume when a body is subjected to some
external force is called ______________
Stiffness Toughness Extension
1 17 The energy band occupied by the valence
electrons is called
Energy state Valence band -ve energy
state
1 17 The curie temperature is that at
which________
Semi-
conductor
becomes
conductors
Ferromagnetic
become
paramagnetic
Paramagnetic
becomes
diamagnetic
1 17 Energy needed to magnetize and
demagnetize is represented by
Hysteresis
curve
Hysteresis
loop area
Hysteresis loop
1 18 Electrons present in p-type material due to
thermal pair generation are
majority
carriers
minority
carriers
dual carriers
1 18 Semi-conductors with donor atoms and free
electrons belong to the type
n p mix
1 18 Semi-conductor germanium and silicon are pentavalent trivalent divalent
1 18 Acceptor and donor impurities donate n-carriers only p-carriers only p-carriers and
n- carriers
respectively
1 18 p-n junction when reversed biased acts as a capacitor inductor on switch
1 18 In p-n-p transistor, the collector current is equal to
emitter current
slightly less
than emitter
current
greater than
emitter current
1 18 In n-p-n transistor, p works as collector emitter base
1 18 The simplest type of rectification known as
half wave rectification is obtained by
using a
transistor
suppressing
the harmonics
in A.C voltage
suppressing
half wave of
A.C supply by
using diode
1 18 Identify the correct statement about minority
carriers_________
holes in n-type
and free
electrons in p-
type
holes in n-type
and p-type
free electrons
in n-type-and
holes in p-type
1 18 Depletion region of a junction is formed during the
manufacturing
process
under forward
bias
under reverse
bias
1 18 The velocity of an oscillating charge as it
moves to and fro along a wire is
always______________
constant zero changing
1 18 Which one of following band is completely
filled in case of conductors?
Conduction
band
Ferrni band Valence band
1 18 Which one of the following has the greatest
energy gap?
insulator conductor semi conductor
1 18 Thermions are------------- protons positrons electrons
1 18 Hole is equivalent to a negative
charge
a positive
charge
a neutral
particle
1 18 Which one of the following is not a donor
impurity?
antimony phosphorus aluminium
1 18 Forward current through a semi conductor
diode circuit is due to_______________
minority
carriers
majority
carriers
holes
1 18 In the transistor schematic symbol, the
arrow____________
is located on
the emitter
is located on
the base
is locate on
the collector
1 18 In full wave rectification, the output D.C.
Voltage across the load is obtained
for_________________
The positive
half cycle of
input A.C.
The negative
half cycle of
input A.C.
The complete
cycle of input
A.C.
1 18 The semiconductor diode can be used as a
rectifier because___________
It has low
resistance to
the current
flow when
forward biased
& high
resistance
when reverse
biased.
It has low
resistance to
the current
flow when
forward biased.
It has high
resistance to
the current
flow when
reverse biased.
1 18 In half-wave rectification, the output D.C.
voltages is obtained across the load
for______________
The negative
half cycle of
A.C.
The positive
half cycle of
A.C.
The positive
and negative
half cycles
1 18 The device or circuit used for conversion of
A.C. into D.C. is called______
An amplifier. A rectifier Filtering circuit
1 18 The device used for conversion of D.C. to
A.C. is called____________
Converter Amplifier Inverter
1 18 The specially designed semiconductor
diodes used as indicator lamps in electronic
circuits are______________
The switch The light
emitting diode
The photo
diodes
1 18 The specially designed semi-conductor
diodes used as fast counters in electronic
circuits are_________________
The light
emitting diodes
Photo diodes Photo voltaic
cell
1 18 The alternating voltage is an example
of_______________
A digital
waveform
An analogue
waveform
Discrete
waveform
1 18 The rectangular voltage is an example
of_____________
An analogue
waveform
Continuous
wave form
Electronic
waveform
1 18 The operational amplifier is______________ A high gain
amplifier
A high-power
amplifier
A high
resistance
amplifier
1 18 In a half-wave rectifier, the r.m.s. value of
the A.C. Component of the wave
is______________
Equal to D.C.
value
More than
D.C. value
Less than D.C.
value
1 18 To obtain an n-type semiconductor
germanium crystal, it must be doped with
foreign atoms whose valency
is______________
2 3 4
1 18 To obtain a p-type semi-conductor Si Crystal
must be doped with foreign atoms whose
valency is_________________
2 3 4
1 18 The operation of a transistor
requires_________________
That the
emitter be
heated
That the base
be heated
That the
collector be
heated
1 18 In forward bias the width of potential
barrier_____________
Increases Decreases Remains same
1 18 The working of transistor as amplifier is
similar to____________
Step up
transformer
Step down
transformer
Three diodes
in common
1 18 The electronic circuits which implement the
various logic operations are
called________________
Logic gates Boolean
algebra
Amplifier gain
1 18 An OP-AMP comparator is a circuit that
compares the signal voltage on one of its
inputs with a________________
Non-inverting
voltage at
output
Reference
voltage on the
other
Virtual input
1 18 An OP-AMPs can amplify_____________ D.C. A.C. Both A.C. &
D.C.
1 18 Non-inverting amplifier circuits
have______________
A very high
input
impedance
A very low
input
impedance
A low output
impedance
1 19 Tick the correct statement. the flight path
of a vertically
falling body
appears
straight to the
stationary
observer
the flight
path of
vertically
falling body
appears
parabolic to
an observer in
uniform
relative motion
all states of
rest and
motion are
relative and
there is no
such thing as
absolute rest
and absolute
motion
1 19 Mark the wrong statement. a frame of
reference
which is either
at rest or
moves with a
constant
velocity is
called an
inertial frame
of reference
an un-
accelerated
frame of
reference is
called an
inertial frame
of reference
all the frames
of reference in
uniform
rectilinear
motion are
equivalent
1 19 An observer shoots parallel to a meter stick
at very high (relativistic) speed and finds
that the length of meter stick is______
greater than
one meter
less than one
meter
one meter
1 19 kg mass will be equivalent to _..______ 2.50 GWh 25.00 GWh 0.26 GWh
1 19 Which one of the following radiations has the
strongest photon?
T.V waves micro waves X-rays
1 19 Tick the right statement. no photo
electronic
emission takes
place if the
frequency of
radiation,
however
intense it may
be, is less
than a certain
critical value
called
threshold
frequency
threshold
frequency
depends upon
the nature of
the metal
surface
maximum
energy of a
photoelectron
is a function of
frequency
rather than
intensity of
radiation
1 19 A device based on photoelectric effect is
called
photo sensitive
detection
photo diode photosynthesis
1 19 Stopping potential for a metal surface in
case of photoelectric emission depends on
_____________________
the threshold
frequency for
the metal
surface
the intensity of
incident light
the frequency
of incident light
and work
function of the
metal surface
1 19 The existence of 'Ether wind' was
experimentally rejected by____
Heisenberg Einstein Michelson and
Morley
1 19 If a material object moves with speed of
light, its mass becomes____
equal to its
rest mass
double of its
rest mass
infinite
1 19 As the temperature of black body is raised,
the wavelength corresponding to maximum
intensity______________
shifts towards
longer
wavelength
shifts towards
shorter
wavelength
remain the
same
1 19 The name of the photon for quantum of light
was proposed by
Ampere plank Thomson
1 19 In Compton scattering, the change in wave
length is max. if
angle of
scattering is
90o
angle of
scattering is
600
angle of
scattering is
1800
1 19 Davison Germer experiment indicates interference polarization election
diffraction
1 19 A photon is__________ a unit of energy a positively
charged
particle
a quantum of
electromagneti
c radiation
1 19 After traveling through a vacuum, a photon
of light entering into some transparent
denser medium. Thus the energy of light
_________
Increases
because
wavelength
decreases
Decreases
because
speed
decreases
Remains same
1 19 In a photoelectric effect, monochromatic
light is incident on a metal surface. If the
incident light of twice the intensity but of
same wavelength, the kinetic energy of the
emitted electron ________
Becomes
double.
Remains
same.
Becomes half.
1 19 If the wavelength of incident radiation is
increased in photoemission, then
_______________
The maximum
kinetic energy
of the
photoelectrons
increases.
The minimum
kinetic energy
of the
photoelectrons
decreases.
The minimum
kinetic energy
of the
photoelectrons
increases.
1 19 In Davisson-Germer experiment, the
diffracted proton from crystal shows
______
Particle
property.
Wave property. Light property.
1 19 If a diffraction grating is placed in the path of
a light beam, it reveals______
Wave property. Particle
property.
Energy particle
1 19 In electron microscope, we use energetic
particles because of
Penetrating
power is high.
Kinetic energy
is large.
Wavelength is
very short.
1 19 In electron microscope, electric & magnetic
fields are used as__________
Electromagneti
c gun.
Source of
electromagneti
c waves.
Deflecting
charged
particle.
1 19 A three dimensional image is obtained by
___________________
Electron
microscope.
Scanning
electron
microscope.
Magnetic
imaging.
1 19 The uncertainty in momentum & position is
due to its
Property of
matter and
radiation.
Two
dimensional
motion
Emission of
certain
wavelength
1 19 The energy radiated is directly proportional
to fourth power of Kelvin's temperature
is_________________
Karl-wein's law. Reyleigh
Jeans law.
Stephens law.
1 19 Compton effect proves
the________________
Photon theory
of light.
Dual nature of
light.
Wave nature
of light.
1 19 Electron moves in the orbit
as________________
Simple
vibratory
motion.
Standing wave
motion.
Vibratory
motion like up
and down.
1 20 Ratio of the weight of H-atom to that of an
electron is approximately._____
18.336 1836 18360
1 20 In hydrogen spectrum, which one of the
following series lies in the ultraviolet region?
Balmer series Pfund series Bracket series
1 20 In obtaining an X-ray photograph of our
hand, we use the principle of_________
photo electric
effect
ionization shadow
photograph
1 20 When we excite some atoms by heat
collision or electrical discharge, they
will_______________
radiate
electromagneti
c energy
with a
continuous
distribution of
wavelength
absorb
particular
wavelengths
when white
light is incident
on them
radiate
electromagneti
c energy of
discrete
characteristic
wavelength
1 20 Hydrogen atom does not emit X-rays
because
its energy
levels are too
close to each
other
its energy
levels are too
far apart
it is too small
in size
1 20 Which one of following postulate is in
accordance with the Rutherford's model?
continuous
spectra for
atoms
discrete
spectra for
atoms
either
continuous nor
discrete
1 20 X-rays are_____________ of unknown
nature
high energy
electrons
high energy
photons
1 20 Tick the correct statement an atom has
limited
number of
ionization
potentials but
a number of
excitation
potentials
there are as
many
excitation
potentials as
there are
excited states
the difference
between the
energy of the
ground sate
and any one of
the excited
states is the
measure of
excitation
energy
1 20 Ground state energy of the 4th orbit in a H-
atom is_________
-13.60 eV -3.40eV -0.85eV
1 20 Total number of series in hydrogen spectrum
is____________
three four five
1 20 The radiations emitted form hydrogen filled
discharge tube show
band spectrum line spectrum continuous
spectrum
1 20 Radiation with wavelength longer than red
lights
ultraviolet rays X-rays infrared
radiation
1 20 In an electronic transition, atom cannot
emit_______________
y-rays infra red
radiation
visible light
1 20 Reverse process of photoelectric effect is
________________
pair production Compton effect annihilation of
matter
1 20 The penetrating power of X- rays depends
on their_______________
applied voltage frequency source
1 20 When X- rays are passed through
successive aluminium sheets, what happens
to their thickness?
it increases it decreases it remains
same
1 20 Quality of X- rays depends upon filament current accelerating
voltage
material of the
target
1 20 Radiation produced from TV picture tube
is________________
-rays. X-rays. Far infrared.
1 20 In an X-ray tube, electrons each of charge e
are accelerated through V potential
difference allowed to hit a metal target. The
wavelength of the X-rays emitted
is_____________
hc / eV he/Vc eV/h
1 20 The minimum wavelength of X-rays can
further be reduced by__________
Reducing the
pressure or
cooling the
target.
Increasing the
temperature of
the filament.
Using a target
clement of
higher atomic
number.
1 20 The characteristic X-rays spectrum is due to The
illumination of
the target
metal by ultra-
violet radiation.
The
bombardment
of the target by
protons.
The
bombardment
of target by
electrons.
1 20 Maximum frequency in the spectrum from X-
ray tube is directly proportional to
the________________
Number of
incident
electron i.e.
filament
current.
The kinetic
energy of the
incident
electron i.e.
the potential
difference
through which
they are
accelerated.
The soft target
which can
easily emit
electrons.
1 20 X-rays are diffracted by a crystal but not by a
diffraction grating because_______________
The ions in a
crystal arc well
arranged.
The lines in a
diffraction
grating cannot
reflect X-rays.
The
penetration
power of X-
rays is high in
a diffraction
grating.
1 20 UV radiation can be produced
by_______________
Heating the
filament.
Electron
excitation in
the gas.
Ionization of
atoms.
1 20 Wave like characteristic of electron is
demonstrated by
Line spectrum
of atoms.
Production of
x-rays.
Diffraction by
crystalline
solids.
1 20 Electron cannot exist in the nucleus; it is
confirmed by observing
that_______________
It does emit -
radiation.
Its size as
compare to
proton and
neutron is very
small.
No antiparticle
of electron is
present.
1 20 In normal state of energy, the incident high
energy photons will be_____
Stimulated. Absorbed. Cause X-ray
emission.
1 20 In laser production, the state in which more
atoms are in the upper state than in the
lower one is called_____________
Metal stable
state.
Normal state. Inverted
population.
1 20 In He-Nc laser, the lasing action is produced
by____________
Ne only. He-Ne both. Electrons of
He.
1 20 Reflecting mirrors in laser is used
to____________
Further
stimulation.
Lasing more. For producing
more
energetic
lasers.
1 20 The velocity of laser light is Less than
ordinary light.
More than
ordinary light.
Equal to
ordinary light.
1 21 In nucleus of uranium the number of
neutrons will be________________
92 235 143
1 21 During fusion of hydrogen into
helium,____________
energy is
absorbed
energy is
released
mass is
increased due
to energy
absorption
1 21 According to which one of following law, the
density of atom is uniform?
J.J.Thomson
model
Rutherford's
model
Bohr's model
1 21 For chain reaction to build up, the size of the
radioactive target should
be________________
greater than
the critical size
less than the
critical size
equal to the
critical size
1 21 Antimatter consists of ____________ antiproton antineutron positron
1 21 Neutron and proton are commonly known as nucleon meson boson
1 21 Electrons_______________ can exist
inside the
nucleus
cannot exist
inside the
nucleus
can exist both
inside and
outside the
nucleus
1 21 Radioactivity is a ________________ Spontaneous
activity
Chemical
property
Self
disintegration
property
1 21 Energy liberated when one atom of U-235
undergoes fission reaction
is_________________
200MeV 40MeV 30MeV
1 21 Transuranic elements have atomic number greater than 72 greater than 82 greater than 92
1 21 Nuclear forces exist between proton-proton proton-neutron neutron-
neutron
1 21 Mass defect per nucleon is
_______________
binding energy
of nucleus
packing
fraction
average
energy of
nucleus
1 21 Tick the correct
statement________________
moderators
slow down the
neutrons
moderators
bring the
neutrons to
rest
moderators
absorb the
neutrons
1 21 The bombardment of nitrogen with a-
particles will produce______
neutron proton electron
1 21 Average energy required to remove one
nucleon from the nucleus is
called_______________
binding energy
per nucleon
energy of
decay
destruction
energy
1 21 Fission chain reaction in a nuclear
reactor can be controlled by introducing
________________
iron rods graphite rods cadmium rods
1 21 Charge on an electron was determine
by__________
Ampere Maxwell Millikan
1 21 Charge on neutron is________________ +1.67 x 10-19
Kg
zero -1.6 x 10 -19 C
1 21 A particle having the mass of an electron
and the charge of a proton is called a
antiproton positron gamma rays
1 21 Nuclei having the same mass number but
different atomic number are
Isotopes Isobars lsotones
1 21 A mass spectrograph (spectrometer) sorts
out_____________
molecules ions elements
1 21 Sum of the masses of constituent nucleons
as compared to the mass of the resultant
nucleus is
smaller greater same
1 21 During fission process, a large amount of
_________
heat energy is
released
nuclear energy
is released
chemical
energy is
released
1 21 Radioactive materials can be identified by
measuring their
hardness density mass
1 21 If one or more of the neutrons emitted during
fission can be used to build up further fission
then the reaction is self sustained and is
known as
fission reaction fusion reaction chain reaction
1 21 Pair production takes place in the vicinity of
a heavy nucleus so that
net energy is
conserved
net. charge is
conserved
net
momentum is
conserved
1 21 During an encounter with an atom, u-particle
knocks out
protons electrons neutrons
1 21 The path of p-particle is__________ rectilinear curved zig-xag or
erratic
1 21 Various types of cancer are treated
by___________
cobalt-60 strontium-90 carbon- 14
1 21 The penetration power of -particle as
compared to -particle is____
10 times more 100 times more 100 times less
1 21 Geiger counter is suitable for____________ fast counting extremely fast
counting
slow counting
1 21 Pair production cannot take place in vacuum
as_____
energy charge mass
1 21 CFC is used in_________________ refrigeration aerosol spray plastic foam
industry
1 21 Average distance covered by a-particle in air
before its ionizing power ceases, is called its
___________
trajectory range firing level
1 21 The most useful tracer is __ __________ Sr-90 I-131 Ca-41
1 21 Why y-rays are used to kill bacteria, to
sterilize surgical equipments etc?
chargeless massless highly
penetrating
1 21 Pair production cannot take place in vacuum
as________________
mass is not
conserved
energy is not
conserved
momentum is
not conserved
1 21 Pair production can take place only
with__________________
X- rays -rays UV-rays
1 21 A device for producing high velocity nuclei
is________________
cloud chamber linear
accelerator
a mass
spectrograph
1 21 Which of the following will be a better shield
against -rays?
ordinary water heavy water lead
1 21 The maximum safe limit dose for persons
working in nuclear power station
are_________________
1 rem per week 5 rern per
week
4 rem per week
2 1 The atom of an element is The smalest
particle
the
fundamental
pariticle
the
independent
particle
2 1 which of the sub-atomic particles is not
charged
electron proton neutron
2 1 Object of the size of an atom can be
ovserved in
an electron
microscope
an x-ray
spectrum
atomic
absorptionspec
trum
2 1 When energy is released during a reaction it
is
Exothermic
reaction
Endothermic
reaction
A free radical
reaction
2 1 A molecular ion is formed by passing a high
energy
electron beam
through
gaseous
molecule
dissolving a
salt in dilute
acid
passing
electric current
through
molten salt
2 1 The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5.
What is the mass of 2 mol of chlorine gas?
142 g 71 g 35.5 g
2 1 Mass spectrometer measures the exact mass of
an element
average mass
of an element
the number of
elements
present in a
molecule
2 1 The relative abundance of the ion with a
definite m/e value is measured by
high pressure
of vapours
strength of
electric current
measured
quantity of fast
moving
electrons
2 1 Isotopes differ in the number of
neutrons
number of
protons
number of
electrons
2 1 With of the following is not true? Isotopes with
even atomic
masses are
comparatively
abundant
Isotopes with
odd atomic
masses are
comparative
abundant
Isotopes with
even atomic
masses and
even atomic
numbers are
comparatively
abundant
2 2 Wich of the folloving is not a separation
technique
filtration sublimation solvent
extraction
2 2 An insoluble solid can be separated from a
liquid by
crystallization sublimation chromatograph
y
2 2 Sublimation is a separation technique used
to remove a
non volatile
component
from a volatile
component
low boiling
component
from a high
boiling
component
fast moving
component
from a slow
moving
component
2 2 A filtration process could be very time
consuming if it were not aided by a gentle
suction wich is developed
If the paper
covers the
funnel upto its
circumference
If the paper
has got small
sized pores in it
if the stem of
the funnel is
large so that it
dips into the
filtrate
2 2 From which mixture can the fast substance
be obtained by adding water,stirring and
filtering?
calcium
carbonate and
sodium cloride
magnesium
and iron
oxygen and
nitrogen
2 2 Which of the following methods is most
suitable for obtaining a pure,dry sample of
sodium chloride from a mixture of solid
sodium chloride and sand?
shake the
mixture with
water, filter
and dry the
substance on
the filter paper
shake the
mixture with
water, filter
and evaporate
the filtrate
shake the
mixture with
water, and
distil off the
liquid
2 2 A bottle of copper(II) oxide has been
contaminated with some solid,Sodium
chloride. How can the sodium chloride be
removed from the copper (II) oxide?
place the
mixture in a
separating
funnel
heat the
mixture and
allow it to cool
add dilute
acide to the
mixture and
filter
2 2 What mathod is used to remove insoluble
solids from muddy water?
chlorination distillation evaporation
filtration
2 2 The process of filtration is used to separate the
two miscible
liquids
Seprate
insoluble
particles from
liquids
separate the
two immisible
liquids
2 2 For smoot filtration one of the following
precautions should be observed
stem of the
funnel should
remain
continuously
full of liquids
the filter paper
should be
small
the stem of
funnel should
be small
2 2 Fluted filter paper is used for filtering the hot
saturated
solution
increasing the
rate of filteraion
to avoid
premature
crystallization
of the solute
2 2 Gooch crucible is used in a suction filtering
apparatus, because
It is used for
filteration of
precipitates
which need to
be ignited
It keeps the
stem of funnel
full of liquid
a solid
compound is
purified
2 2 Sintered glass crucible is used to separate two
liquids
purify a solid convenient
filteration than
that by Gooch
crucible
2 2 Filtration through Gooch and sintered glass
crucibles is aided by a gentle suction
for preparation
of a chemical
compound
quick filtration
can be done
it should
deposit well
formed
crystals of the
pure
compound
2 2 There are as many as 7 steps used in crystallization
technique
chromatograph
ic technique
filtration
technique
2 2 During the process of crystallization, the hot
saturated solution
is cooled very
slowly to get
large sized
crystals
is cooled at a
moderate rate
to get medium
sized crystals
is evaporated
to get the
crystals of the
products
2 2 Slow cooling of the hot saturated solution
yields
large sized
crystals
medium sized
crystals
premature
crystallization
of the solute
2 2 The top of funnel stem should touch the side
of the beaker because
the filtration is
quick
filtrate runs
down without
splashing
this gives the
medium sized
crystals
2 2 The solvent is selected for crystallization of a
substance on the basis of
its polar nature its non polar
nature
it should react
chemically
2 2 Sublimation is a process for the separation of solute and
solvent from a
solution
solution of
volatile and
non volatile
liquids
volatile and
non volatile
solids
2 2 Solvent extraction method is a particularly
useful technique for separation when the
product to be separated is
non volatile or
thermally
unstable
volatile or
thermally
stable
non volatile or
thermally
stable
2 2 A flask contains the liquids trichloromethane
(chloroform) and water. They are separated
using a separating funnel. Which conclusion
can be made form this observation alone?
Trichlormethan
e and water
have different
relative
messes.
Trichlormethan
e and water
have different
boiling points
Trichloomethan
e has a higher
density than
water
2 3 Considering the physical properties of the
gases, which of the following statements
about particles of gas is not true. The
particles are
orderly
arranged
randomly
moving
having wide
spaces
2 3 As gases can adopt the shape of the
container so they have
no fixed
shapes
fixed shapes different
shapes
2 3 If allowed to expand, the gases suddenly heat up move randomly react
2 3 Which one of the following is not postulated
in the kinetic molecular theory
molecules of
all the gases
have same
size and same
mass
molecules are
in chaotic
motion
all molecular
collisions are
elastic
2 3 According to Boyles law at constant
temperture the product of pressure and
volume of a givne mass of gas is
whole number a constant fraction
2 3 which of the following laws study the
pressure -volume relationship of a gas at
constatn temperature
Charles law Graham's law Dalton's law
2 3 A graph is plotted, P on x-axis and volume
on y-axis for a given mass of a gas at
constant temperature, we get
a straight line a curve with
different peaks
straight line
parallel to x-
axis
2 3 if absolute temperature of a gas is doubled
and the pressure is reduced to one half, the
volume of the gas will
remain
unchanged
increase four
times
reduce to 1/4
2 3 How should the conditions be changed to
prevent the volume of a given gas from
expanding when its mass is increased
temperature is
lowered and
pressure is
increased
temperature is
increased and
pressure is
increased
temperature
and pressure
both are
lowered
2 3 Matter having no definite shape and volume
is called
linquid plasma solid
2 3 At constant temperature, volume of given
mass of a gas is inversely proportional to
pressure on it. This is
Charles law Boyle's law Hook law
2 3 A pressrue one Newton per meter square (1
Nm-2) is equal to
one pascal one bar one
atmosphere
2 3 The instrument that is used to meanure the
pressure of a gas is called
Viscometer Photometer barometer
2 3 Equal volume of all gases at same
temperature and pressure contain number of
molecules
different multiples equal
2 3 The volume of a gas that is occupied by its
one mole at STP is called
total volume normal volume molar volume
2 3 which is the best example of diffusion of
gases
bubbling in
soda bottle
vapour
condensing on
moist surface
hot air rising
above a candle
2 4 which of the following may be called London
dispersion forces
dipole-dipole
forces
ion-dipole
forces
dipole-induced
dipole forces
2 4 An example of ion-dipole force is solution of NaCl is water Glucose in
water
Bromine in
bezene
2 4 The boiling point of radon ( 211 K) is higher
than boiling point of helium (4.4 k) because
the atomic
number of Rn
is larger than
of the He
the atomic
mass of Rn is
larger than of
He
the dispersion
forces
between Rn
atoms are
more
prominent
than between
He atoms
2 4 which is the correct order of boiling points solution of
ethanol in
water
linking of helix
protein
molecule
structure of ice
2 4 Acetone and chloroform are soluble in each
other due to
intermolecular
hydrogen
bonding
ion-depole
interaction
instantaneous
dipoles
2 4 NH3 shows a maximum boiling point among
the hydrides of Vth group elements due to
very small size
of nitrogen
hydrogen
bonding
between its
molecules
enhanced
electronegative
character of
nitrogen
2 4 Dipole-dipole forces are present between polar
molecules
non-polar
molecules
(a) and (b) both
2 4 The bonding which occurs among polar
convalent molecules containing H and one
of the small electronegative element such as
O, F or N is called
bridge bonding metallic
bonding
hydrogen
bonding
2 4 London forces are more affective at low
temperature
high
temperature
high pressure
2 4 When two ice cubes are pressed together
they unite to form one cube. Which of the
following forces is responsible for holiding
them together
Van der Waal's Covalent
bonding
hydrogen
bonding
2 4 water has high boiling point which is due to weak
dissociation
hydrogen
bonding
between its
molecules
high specific
heat
2 4 In which of the following componds
hydrogen bonding is not present
water ethanol ether
2 4 The maximum possible number of hydrogen
bonds in which an H20 molecule can
participate is
1 2 3
2 4 In which of the following moleculse strongest
hydrogen bond is shown
water ammonia hydrogen
fluoride
2 4 The attractive forces which are created due
to repulsion of electronic cloud of the
molecules are
dipole-dipole
forces
ion diopole
forces
instantaneous
dipole-induced
dipole forces
2 4 NaCl is completely ionized in water due to
presence of
hydrogen
bonding
dipole dipole
force
ion- dipole
forces
2 5 which of the following is not a property of
cathode rays
they can
produce x-rays
when they
strike a heavy
metal anode
they can
cause
reduction
reaction
they produce
fluorescence
in rare earth
metals and
minerals
2 5 which of the following is not sub-atomic
particle
2 5 which of the following is not charged particle proton electron neutron
2 5 Spilitting of spectral lines when atoms are
subjected to strong electric field is called
zeeman effect stark effect photoelectric
effect
2 5 The velocity of photon is independent of
its wavelength
depends on its
wavelength
equal to
square of its
amplitude
2 5 The nature of the positive rays depend on the nature of
the electrode
the nature of
the discharge
tube
the nature of
the residual
gas
2 5 Rutherford's model of atom failed because the atom did
not have
nucleus and
electrons
it did not
account for the
attraction
between
protons and
neutrons
it did not
account for the
stability of the
atom
2 5 Bohr model of atom does not explain zeeman effect stark effect orgin of lines
in H2 spectrum
2 5 Quantum number values for 2p orbitals are n=2,1=1 n=1,1=2 n=1,1=0
2 5 In the ground state of an atom, the electron
is present
in the nucleus in the second
shell
nearest to the
nucleus
2 5 When 3p orbital is complete, the entering
electron goes into
4s 3d 4p
2 5 Orbitals having same energy are called hybrid orbitals valence orbitals degenerate
orbitals
2 5 The principle quantum number describes the distance
from the
nucleus
the shape of
the orbital
the orientation
of the orbital
2 5 The rules which describe the distributin of
electron in atomic energy level are Auf-bau
principle, Pauli's exculsion principle & Hunds
rule. The Pauli exculsion principle refers to
the
orientation of
obital in space
fact that two
electrons in
the same
orbital should
have opposite
spins
energy of the
obital
2 5 Cathode rays drive a small paddle wheel
placed in their path. This observation shows
that
cathode rays
travel in
straight lines
cathode rays
are negatively
charged
cathode rays
produce x-rays
2 5 No cathode rays are produced in the
discharge tube when gas is under ordinary
pressure even if voltage of 500 to 10000 is
applied.
Voltage is low discharge tube
is not coloured
gas does not
conduct
current at
ordinary
pressure
2 5 e/m of cathode rays is same but for positive
rays e/m changes by changing gas in the
discharge tube because
cathode rays
are small
sized particles
cathode rays
have same
charge
nature of
cathode rays
is same for all
gasses, but
masses of
nuclei are
different for
different gases
2 5 When cathode rays strike the anode metal,
X-rays are emitted and not the positive rays
because
cathode rays
are material
particles
cathod rays
knock out
electrons from
anode, which
emit X-rays
when outer
electronens
take their place
cathode rays
are obsorbed
by the nucleus
2 5 Positive particle in discharge tube is
produced by ionization of gas molecules,
which is caused by
gas molecules
collide with
anode
gas molecules
are at high
temperature
gas molecules
produce x-rays
2 6 The force which holds the atoms together to
form a compound is called
a chemical
bond
Van der wall;s
force
dispersion
force
2 6 The chemical reactivity of an element
depends upon
the umber of
valence shell
electrons only
total of
electrons in all
shells
number of
neutrons in an
atom of the
element
2 6 Noble gases are stable
substances
reactive
substances
light
substances
2 6 The driving force for making a bond is to attain noble
gas electronic
configuration
to make solid
compounds
to make
different
compounds
2 6 Elements have the tendency to attain 8
electrons in their valence shell. This is
known as
Octet rule Hunds rule Pauli exclusion
Principle
2 6 When two hydrogen atoms approach to from
a chemical bond
the repulsive
forces
dominate the
attractive
forces
the attractive
forces,
dominate the
repulsive
forces
the energy of
atoms
increases
2 6 The atomic radius of hydrogen is 37 pecometer manometer angstrom
2 6 Ionic radius, In a period from left to rigth increase decreases decreases
then increases
2 6 The electronegativity of elements in a period
from left to right
decreases increases first decreases
then increase
2 6 A bond between two atoms may be obtained
by sharing of electrons such a bond is called
an ionic bond a coordinate
bond
a dative bond
2 6 Which of the following is a polar molecules carbon dioxide carbon
tetrachloride
methanol
2 6 Molecular orbital picture of N2 indicates one unpaired
electron
two unpaired
electrons
no unpaired
electron
2 6 Molecular orbital picture of O2 indicates one unpaired
electron
two unpaired
electrons
no unpaired
electron
2 6 Which of the following is not correct
regarding bonding molecular orbitals?
bonding
molecular
orbitals
possess less
energy than
atomic orbitals
from which
they are
formed
bonding
molecular
orbitals have
low electron
density
between the
two unclei
every electron
in the bonding
molecular
orbitals
contributes to
the attraction
between atoms
2 6 Which of the hydrogen halides has the
highest percentage of ionic character?
HCI HBr HF
2 6 Formation of a chemical bond between
atoms of elements is based on
Pauli exclusin
principle
octer rule electropositive
character of
elements
2 6 Noble gases are most stable of all other
elemetns because
these do not
react with one
another
these are
mono atomic
gases
their ionization
energies are
high
2 7 Thermochemistry is the study of chemical
reaction accompanying
heat change rate change mass change
2 7 When a bond breaks heat is evolved heat is
absorbed
no change in
heat contents
takes palce
2 7 A reaction in which heat is given out is an
endothermic
reaction
an exothermic
reaction
a
thermochemica
l reaction
2 7 According to SI-system heat contents are
measured in units of
calorie joules ergs
2 7 which one of the following is not a
spontaneous process
flow of water
from higher to
lower level
neutralization
of strong acid
with strong
base
when a piece
of Zn is added
to the the blue
copper
sulphate
solution the
colour
disappears
2 7 chemical reactions involve energy changes.
The study of the heat changes during
chemical changes is called
thermochemist
ry
Chemical
kinetics
Chemical
equilibrium
2 7 Kinetic energy of the molecules is due to Transnational
motion
rotational
motion
vibrational
motion
2 7 Neutralization of a strong acid with a strong
base is
non-
spontaneous
reaction
spontaneous
reaction
chemical
equilibrium
2 7 Buring of coal in air is initiated by a spark
and it is an example of spontaneous reaction
because
buring of coal
in air releases
large amount
of energy
buring of coal
is an
endothermic
process
coal and air
react giving
reversible
reaction
2 7 A macroscopic property of a system which
describes the initial and final state of the
system is called
physical
property
chemical
property
energy of
system
2 7 The SI unit of heat and energy is calorie joules watt
2 7 One calorie is equal to 5.184j 3.184j 4.1184j
2 7 The branch of chemistry which deals with
thermal energy changes in chemical
reactions is called
chemical
kinetic
thermodynamic
s
thermochemist
ry
2 7 The amount of heat evolved or absorbed in
a chemical reaction, when represented in
chemical equation is called
heat of reaction free energy of
reaction
entropy of
reaction
2 7 The branch of science which deals with
energy transformations is know as
thermochemist
ry
kinetics photochemistry
2 7 The total energy depends on the state of
system
enthaply free energy of
reaction
entropy of
reaction
2 7 The energy required to break one mole of
bonds to form neutral atoms
bond length bond strength bond energy
2 8 When rate of forward reaction is equal to
rate of backward reaction, then the
equilibrium established is called
chemical
equilibrium
static
equilbrium
dynamic
equilibrium
2 8 The rate at which a substance reacts, is
directly proportional to its active mass and
the rate of reaction is directly proportional to
the proudct of the active masses of reacting
substances, is called
law of
conservation
of energy
Le-Chateliers
principle
law of mass
action
2 8 Chemical equlibrium involving reactants and
products in more than one phase is called
static dynamic homegeneous
2 8 Hydrogen gas and iodine vapours combine
to form HI at 425 C the same composition of
mixture is present if we start with
decomposition of HI. It suggests
a static
equilibrium
law of mass
action
a dynamic
equilibrium
2 8 Law of mass action states that rate of
chemical reaction is directly proportional to
the product of active masses of the
reactants. The term active mass means
mass in grams
converted to
products
number of
moles
number of
moles per dm3
of reactants
2 8 The value of Kp is greater than Kc for a
gaseous reaction when
number of
molecules of
products is
greater than
the reactants
number of
molecules of
reactants is
great than
those of
products
number of
molecules of
reactants and
products equal
2 8 Le-chatiler's principle is applied on the
reversible reactions in order to
determine the
rate of reaction
predict the
direction of
reaction
determine the
extent of
reaction
2 8 0.1M HCI has PH =1.0, it is about 100 times
stonger than acetic acid. Then pH of acetic
acid will be
0.1 2 1.3
2 8 If the difference of pKa values of the two
acids is 2, then
acid with
smaller pKa is
10 times
stronger acid
acid with
greater pKa is
10 times
stronger acid
acid with
smaller pKa is
100 times
stronger acid
2 8 Whenever a weak base is dissolved in
water, it give its conjugate acid. Similarly a
weak acid in water produces its conjugate
base. This conjugate acid-base pair concept
is stated by
law of mass
action
Le-chatiler's
principle
common ion
effect
2 8 Which statement is incorrect for a Buffer
solution
solution which
resists the
change in its
pH value by
adding small
quantity of
acid or base
a solution of
mixture of
weak acid and
its salt with
strong base
a solutoin of
strong
acid+salt of
this acid with
strong base
2 9 A homogeneous mixture of two or more than
two chemical substances is called
solute solution solvent
2 9 A solution which contains a relatively small
amount of solute dissolved in the solvetn is
called
diluted solution concentrated
solution
saturated
solution
2 9 Number of moles of solute dissolved in 1 kg
of solvent is know as
molarity formality molality
2 9 The ratio of the number of moles of a
particular component of the solution to the
total number of moles of all the componetns
of the solution is called
% age mole fraction fomality
2 9 The process in which solvent molecules
surround and interact with solute ions or
molecules is called
hydration solvation hydrolysis
2 9 The process in which water moleucules
surround solute particles is called
hydration salvation hydrolysis
2 9 If the ionic proudct of a solution is less than
the solubility product, the solution is
supersaturated unsaturated ideal
2 9 If ionic product of solution is greater than
solubility products, the solution is
supersaturated saturated unsaturated
2 9 what is the molarity of a solution containing
15.0g urea in 500 cm3 of solution
0.5 M 1 m 1.5 M
2 9 The molarity of the solution containing x
grames (NH4)2SO4 in 500 cm3 of the
solution is 0.6.what is x?
39.6 45.1 40.5
2 9 The molarity of toluene solution in bezene is
0.22 if 5 grams of toluene is dissolved, then
mass of benzene in grams is
267 260 240
2 9 The number of moles of NH4Cl dissolved in
500 cm3 of its 15% W/N sollution is
1 mole 1.4 moles 2.0 moles
2 9 Silver amalgam is a solution consisting of
the type
liquied is
solute and
solvent is solid
liquied is
solute, liquied
is solvent
solid is solute
and solid is the
solvent
2 9 Dust particles in smoke is a solutin of the
type
linquid is
solute and
solid is solvent
solid is solute
and liquid is
solvent
solid is solute
and gas is
solvent
2 9 A solution of two components is called binary solution dilute solution orginal solution
2 9 The percentage by weight of NaCl, if 6.0 g of
NaCl is dissolved in 120 g of water is
10.50% 5% 8.02%
2 9 10 mL of 1.5 M NaOH solution is neutralized
by 20 ml of a -M HCI solution. The value of a
will be
1 0.75 0.5
2 10 A device which converts electrical energy
into chemical energy is called
a galvanic cell a voltaic cell a electrollytic
cell
2 10 Metals usually conduct electricity because there are
mobile
electrons is
the metallic
structure
metals are
decomposed
by current
metals have
high resistance
2 10 Which of the following is ture about
Galvanic cell
anode is
negatively
charged
reduction
occurs at
anode
cathode is
positively
charge
2 10 The electrode through which the electrons
enter the electrolytic solution in electroyltic
cell is
anode cathode may be anode
or cathode
2 10 A cell in which chemcial energy is converted
into electrical energy is called
electrolytic cell galvanic cell fuel cell
2 10 when electric current is used to carry out
non-spontaneous redox reaction,the process
is called
hydrolysis electrolysis decomposition
2 10 An electrochemical cell in which a
spontaneous oxidation reduction reaction
generates electric current is called
electrolytic cell galvanic or
voltaic cell
dry cell
2 10 The process of electrical coating of one
metal on another to protect, decorate or to
have a greater resistance to corrosoin is
called
electroplating electrolysis conduction
2 10 The two half cells of a galvanic cell are
connected by
ammeter salt bridge hydrogen
electrode
2 10 When a metal is dipped in 1 molar of its
solution at 298 K, then potential set up is
called
standard
electrode
potential
electric charge ionization
potential
2 10 Electrochemical series is a list of elements
arranged into the increasing order of their
standard
oxidation
potential
standard
reduction
potential
cell voltage
2 10 The galvanic or voltaic cells which cannot be
recharged is called
primary cell secondary cell infinite cells
2 10 The galvanic or voltaic cells which are
rechargeable called as
primary cells secondary cells dry cell
2 11 With the progression of the reaction the
slope of the curve between concentration of
products and time
gradually
becomes
more steep
gradually
becomes less
steep
no change
occurs in slope
2 11 The rate of reaction determined at a given
time is called
average rate instantaneous
rate
specific rate
2 11 The chemical method used for determination
of rate of reaction is
spectroscopic conductometric refractometric
2 11 Factor which slows down the rate of
reactions is
small size of
the particles of
the reactant
high
temperature of
reaction
more
concentration
of reactant
2 11 A substance which increases the rate of a
reaction without being consumed during the
reaction is called
an autocatalyst a catalyst a negative
catalyst
2 11 Which statement is not correct enzymes
catalyse a
specfic
reaction
enzymes show
catalytic
activity at a
specific
temperature
the catalytic
activity of
enzymes is
stopped if
optimum pH is
changed
2 11 In the rate equation when the concentration
of reactants are unity then rate is equal to
instantaneous
rate
average rate active mass of
products
2 11 Initially the rate of increase in the
concentration of products in a reaction is
slowest moderate rapid
2 11 Instantaneous rate of chemical reaction is rate of
reaction
between
specific time
intervals
rate of
reaction in the
beginning
rate of
reaction in the
end
2 11 The rate of reaction between two specific
time intervals is called
average rate instantaneous
rate
initial rate
2 11 Sum of exponetns of the concentration
terms in the rate equation is called
rate of
reaction
between
specific time
intervals
order of
reaction
specific rate
constant
2 11 The average rate and instantaneous rate of
a reaction are equal
in the
beginning
at the end when the time
interval of two
rates is zero
2 11 The experimental relationship between a
reaction rate and the concentration of
reactants is called
order of
reaction
rate law law of mass
action
2 11 when the rate of reaction is entirely
indpendent of the concentration of reactant
molecules then order of reaction is
zero negative in fractions
2 11 If initial concentration of the reactants and
half life period of the reaction is known, then
we can determine
average rate
of reaction
order of
reaction
rate constant k
2 12 Al-Razi, Dobereiner, Newland and
Mendeleef contributed in the development of
the concept of
periodicity of
the properties
of the elements
law of triads law of octaves
2 12 In the modren periodic Table, the elements
are placed in the ascending order of their
atomic masses melting points boiling points
2 12 The period table contains elements in
vertical column. These vertical columns are
called
groups periods blocks
2 12 The horizontal rows in the Periodic Table are
called period. The number of periods in the
periodic table are
5 6 7
2 12 The number of elements in the first, second
and third period are
2,8,18 8,2,18 2,18,8
2 12 The IA elemetns are called alkaline earth
metals
alkali metals the halogens
2 12 Rare earth elements are s-block
elements
p-block
elements
d-block
elements
2 12 Transition elements have valence electrons
in
s-orbital p-orbital d- orbital
2 12 The following elements are arranged as
metal non-metal and metalliod
Na, Si, S Si, Na,S Na,S,Si
2 12 The atomic radius varies as shown increase in a
period from
left to right and
decreases
down a group
increases in a
period from
left to right and
down a group
decreases in a
period from
left to right and
increase down
a group
2 12 The first ionization energy of elements varies increases in
period and
group
increase in a
period and
decrease
down the group
decrease in
period and
group
2 12 Number of elements in the first period of the
periodic table are
two four one
2 12 which orbital is in a process of completion in
case of transition elements?
p-orbital f-orbital d-orbital-
2 12 Which is the longest period of the periodic
Table?
5th 7th 6th
2 12 The second and third period contain
elements
six five eight
2 12 The fourteen elements following lanthanum
are called
actinides lanthanides trans-uranic
elements
2 12 The amount of energy required to remove an
electron from an atom of an element in the
gaseous state is called
electron affinity electronegativit
y
ionization
energy
2 12 In a group, the ionization energy increases decreases remains
constant
2 12 In a period,melting points of elements increases in
period and
group
decreases remain
constant
2 12 The oxides of electronegative elements are basic neutralization
of strong acid
with strong
base
acidic
2 12 The elements of group IIA are called halogens noble gases alkali metals
2 12 What is the nature of Na2O? basic weakly basic strongly basic
2 12 What is the nature of SO2? basic strongly acidic weakly acidic
2 12 What is the nature of Al2O3? acidic basic amphoteric
2 12 The fourth period contains elements 8 16 18
2 13 The maximum number of electrons in the
outermost shell of s-block elements is
one two three
2 13 S-block elements consist of alkali metals alkaline earth
metals
alkali and
alkaline earth
metals
2 13 Alkaline earth metals possess two electrons
in their outermost
f-orbital d-orbital p-orbital
2 13 which colour is imparted by sodium Yellow violet red
2 13 In a group IA from top to bottom, as the
atomic number increases, there is a steady
increase in
atomic size ionic size both atomic
and ionic sizes
2 13 In a group IIA from top to bottom as the
atomic number increases there is regular
decrease in
ionic size atomic size ionization
potential
2 13 Densities, m.p and b.p of alkaline earth
metals are high than alkali metals due to
high ionization
potential
high nuclear
charge
high ionzation
potential and
nuclear charge
2 13 in alkali and alkaline earht metals down the
group, there is decreasing trend in
m.p b.p ionization
potential
2 13 in alkali and alkaline earth metals down the
group, there is increasing trend in
electropositivity atomic radii atomic volume
2 13 Alkali metals react violently with halogens to
form
hydrides halides anhydrides
2 13 What property is associated with sodium? soft nature good conductor yellow flame
2 13 Carbonates of alkali metals dissovle freely in
water to form
acidic solutions neutral
solutions
alkaline
solutions
2 13 The commonly used name for sodium
hydroxide is
soda ash baking soda caustic soda
2 13 Sodium carbonate is generally called washing soda
or soda ash
baking soda caustic soda
2 13 Sodium forms largely normal oxides per-oxides super-oxide
2 13 which of the following are electropositive in
nature ?
alkali metals alkaline earth
metals
halogens
2 14 Sodium sillicate is a useful compound of
sllicon. Which statement is false
it is used as a
filler for soap
used in textile
as fire proof
it used for
making white
cement
2 14 Semi conductors have been used in
photoelectric cells and in solar batteries.
Which statement about their conductance is
not true.
their
resistance
increases with
increasing
temperature
their
resistance
decreases
with intensity
of light
their
resistance
decreases
with increasing
temperature
2 14 which metal is used in the thermit process
because of its activity
iron copper aluminum
2 14 Aluminum oxide is basic oxide acidic oxide amphoteric
oxide
2 14 which element among the following
_____________ belongs to group IVA of the
Periodic Table
barium iodine lead
2 14 Boric acid cannot be used as an
antiseptic
for washing
eyes
in soda bottles
2 14 which of the following elements is not
present abundantly in earth's crust?
sillicon aluminum sodium
2 14 Tincal is a mineral of AI B Si
2 14 The elements which belong to group IIIA
and IVA group are called
s-block
elements
p-block
elements
d-block
elements
2 14 bauxite is ore of Al B si
2 14 bauxite, crystoblite and mica are ores of barium calcium zinc
2 14 the oxides of B and Si are acidic basic neutral
2 14 C and Si form divalent
compounds
trivalent
compounds
tetravalent
compounds
2 14 boron, aluminum, galium, indium and
thallium belong to group IV-A of the periodic
Table, show a decrease with increasing
relative atomic mass
the first
ionization
energy
the basic
character of
the oxides
ionici
character of
the compounds
2 14 Name non-metallic element present in III-A B AI Ga
2 14 Colemanite is the ore of beryllium boron barium
2 15 Phosporous uses the following orbitals for
bonding
3s 3p 3d
2 15 The excited state electronic configuration of
phosphorous has unpaired electrons
3 4 5
2 15 Dinitrogen pentoxide has oxidation number
of nitrogen
2 3 4
2 15 Phosphorus pentoxide is a powerful oxidising agent reducing agent dehydrating
agent
2 15 Elements of group VIA show a covalency of
+2, +4 and +l except
S secondary cells Po
2 15 Which statement about oxygen and sulphur
is not ture
both exhibit
allotropic forms
both are
usually divalent
both combine
with metals to
from O2- and
S2-
2 15 Out of all element of group VA, the highest
ionization energy is possessed by
N P Sb
2 15 Out of all element of group VA, the highest
melting and boiling points is shown by the
element
Te N S
2 15 Electropositive character increases down the
group due to
decrease in
ionization
potenital
increase in
atomic size of
the elements
decrease in
electronetativity
of the
elements
2 15 Ozone is an allotropic from of sulphur phosphorous oxygen
2 15 One sulphur molecule contains 2 atom of
sulphur
4 atom of
sulphur
8 atoms of
sulphur
2 15 Oxygen molecule has two unpaired
electrons. It is therefore
ferromagnetic paramagnetic diamagnetic
2 15 Sulphur trioxide is an anhydride of sulphurous
acid
sulphuric acid hyposulphuric
acid
2 15 Relatively pure sulphuric acid is
manufactured by
lead chamber
process
Haber's
process
contact
process
2 16 The halogens exist as halides. Which is not
the common place where they are found
in sea in lakes in the
atmosphere as
HX
2 16 Because of its small size and due to
restriction of its valence shell to an octet
fluorine differs from other halogens. Which
behavious of fluorine is incorrct
it has highest
first ionization
energy
it has highest
electronegativit
y
it is more
reactive than
other halogens
2 16 The oxidising power of halognes depends on
various factors. Which is not the correct
reason
energy
dissociation
electron affinity hydration
energy of ion
2 16 There is definite graduation of the physical
property of hydrogen halides in one of these
which one
m.p b.p heat of fusion
2 16 The reaction of chlorine with cold and hot
NaOH to give NaCl and NaCIO is an
example of
neutralization
reaction
oxidation
reaction
reduction
reaction
2 16 what is not use of bleaching powder for the
preparation of
chlorine and
oxygen
as disinfectant
in the
sterlization of
water
for bleaching
cotton
2 16 Which of the following hydrogen halide is the
weakest acid in solution
HF HBr HI
2 16 which halogen will react spontaneously with
Au(s) to produce Au3+?
Br2 F2 I2
2 16 Bleaching powder may be produced by
passing chlorine over
calcium
carbonate
hydrated
calcium
sulphate
anhydrous
calcium
sulphate
2 16 An element that has a high ionization energy
and tends to be chemically inactive would
most likely to be
an alkali metal a
transitionsleme
nt
a noble gas
2 16 Which of the following is not gas Xe Rn Kr
2 16 The heat of vaporization of noble gases increases
gradually
down the group
decrease
gradually
down the group
none of these
2 16 Which of the halogens is radioactive F CI I
2 16 Chlorine is used for purification of
water
as a bleaching
agent
extraction of
gold from its
ores
2 16 Which one of the following is found in solid
state?
bromine iodine fluorine
2 16 At room temperature fluorine is pale Yellow
gas
greenish
yellow gas
red-brown
liquid
2 17 Which element does not belong to 4d series Ti violet Mn
2 17 which element belongs to 5d series v Nb Pd
2 17 s-block elements closely resemble in their
physical and chemical properties. Which
statement is incorrect
they show
variable
valency
their ions and
compounds
are coloured
they are good
conductors of
heat and
electricty
2 17 All 3d series elements show variable
oxidation states. The one shown by all 3d
element is
2 3 4
2 17 A transition metal complex can be
recognized by various terms, which is not
the proper term
central metal
ion
coordination
number
ligand
2 17 f-Block elements are also called non typical
trnsition
elements
outer transition
elements
number of
element
2 17 the strength of binding energy of transition
elements depends upon
number of
neutrons
number of
unpaired
electrons
number of
electrons
2 17 The percentage of carbon in different types
of iron products is in the order of
Cast
iron>wrought
iron> steel
wrought iron >
steel > cast
iron
cast iron
>steel>wrought
iron
2 17 The colour of transition metal complexes is
due to
d-d transitions
of electrons
para magnetic
nature of
transition
elements
ionization
2 17 The total number of d-bock transition
element is
110 14 40
2 17 Trasnition metals form complexes due to the
participation of partially filled
f-orbitals d-orbital s-probitals
2 17 Transition elements are insulators good
conductors
bad conductors
2 17 Out of 110 known elements, transition
elements are
40 60 50
2 17 Most transition elements show diamgentic
behaviour
ferromagnetic
behaviour
paramagnetic
behaviour
2 17 Bell metal is an alloy of Sn and copper iron zinc
2 18 which of the following is not an organic
compound
ammonium
cyanate
glucose urea
2 18 who rejected the vital force theory wholer fisher newton
2 18 which is not the characteristic property of
organic compounds
they form long
chain
compounds
organic
cmpounds are
generally
covalent
compounds
they exist in
homologous
series
2 18 fossil fuels are sources of organic
comounds. Which one is not fossil fuel
petroleum coal naturalgas
2 18 the destructive distillation of coal gives three
products.what is not the product of
destructive distillation of coal
coal gas carbon dioxide coal tar
2 18 the total coal resources of pakistan are
estimated to be
184 billion
tonnes
184 million
tonnes
1.84 billion
tounes
2 18 the major portion of natural gas is ethane propane butane
2 18 the fractions obtained from fractional
distillation of petroleum are placed in
increasing order of their boiling points.
Which order is corect
natural gas,
petroleum
ether,
gasoline,
kerosene
petroleum
ether,
kerosene,
gasoline,
natural gas
gasoline,
kerosene,
natural gas,
petroleum
ether
2 18 cracking is a process by which higher
hydrocabon are broken down into low boiling
hydrocabon. Which one is not generally a
procedure for cracking
thermal
cracking
catalytic
cracking
steam cracking
2 18 the use of tetra ethyl lead in petrol as an
efficient antiknock agent is being
discouraged.which reason is correct
it is costly it damages the
engine
Pb is difficult
to obtain in
bulk quantities
2 18 which one of the followings is a heterocyclic
compound
cyclohexanol phenol pyridine
2 18 as the number of carbon atoms increases
the number of isomers also incresase.the
6C compound hexane has as many as
3 isomers 5 isomers 6 isomers
2 18 The functional group isomer of
dimethylether is
ethyI alcohol propyl alcohol diethyl ether
2 18 Which is the chain isomer of n-pentane iso pentane neopentene n-pentene
2 18 The geometric isomerism is caused by the restricted
rotation of pi
bond
free rotation of
a pi bond
the presence
of similar
groups on a
carbon atom
2 18 In ter-butly alcohol, the tertiary carbon is
bonded to
two hydrogen
atoms
three
hydrogen
atoms
one hydrogen
atom
2 18 The chemist who synthesized urea from
ammonium cyanate was
Bezelius Koibe Wholer
2 18 A double bond consists of two sigma
bonds
one sigma and
one pi bond
one sigma and
two pi bonds
2 18 Ether shows the phenomenon of position
isomerism
chain
isomerism
metamerism
the study of compounds containing carbon
as an essential element is called
physical inorganic nuclear
2 19 Which method is not used for the
preparation of alkenes
dehydrohaloge
nation of alkyl
halides
dehydration of
alcohols
dehalogenation
of vic-dihalides
2 19 Which reaction is used as test for the
presence of alkenes
reation of cold
dilute alkaline
KMn04
combustion polymerization
2 19 Paraffins are also called alkanes alkynes alkenes
2 19 The process in which orbitals of different
energies and shapes mix with each other to
give equivalent hybrid oritals is called
isomerization polymerization hybridization
2 19 When acetylene is passed through a copper
tube at 300C, it polymerizes to
polyacetylene polyethylene benzene
2 19 Hydrogenation of alkenes/alkynes in the
presence of Ni as catalyst at 300c results in
the formation of corresponding alkanes. This
reaction is known as
sabatier-
sendererns
reaction
kolbes reation Cannizaro's
reaction
2 19 Methane is used in the
preparation of
urea
in the
preparation of
hydrogen
in the
preparation of
chloroform
2 19 Alkyl halides when reduced with nascent
hydrogen in the presence of zn +HCI, are
converted to
alkynes alkenes alkanes
2 19 the elimination of HX from adjacent carbon
atoms is called
halogenation hydrohalogenat
ion
dehydrohaloge
nation
2 19 Alkenes combine readily with electrophilic
reagents such as halogens giving.
haloalkanes gem dihalides vicinal
dihalides
2 19 Ethyl hydrogen sulphate on hydrolysis with
boiling water is converted to
methyl alcohol propyl alcohol ethyl alcohol
2 19 Ethylene combines with water in the
presence of H2SO4 + HgSo4 and forms
ethyl chloride ethyl alcohol carboxylic acid
2 19 When ethene is passed through a dilute
solution of KMn04 the pink colour changes to
red blue green
2 19 Ethylene polymerizes at 100 atm pressure
and 400 C give
polybenzene polyalcohol polypropyele
2 19 which is used for welding purposes? ethane nitrogen methane
2 19 Acetylene is used in the manufacture of rubber plastic ethyl alcohol
2 20 Which of the followings is not an electrophilic
substitution reaction of benzene
nitration sulphonation Fridel-craft
alkylation
2 20 The benzene molecule contains three double
bonds
two double
bonds
one double
bond
2 20 Aromatic hydrocarbons are the derivatives of normal series
of paraffins
alkenes benzene
2 20 Benzene does not undergo subsittution
reactions
addition
reactions
oxidation
reactions
2 20 Amongst the following, the compound that
can be most readily sulphonated is
toluene benzene nitrobenzene
2 20 which compound is the most reative one benzene ethene ethane
2 20 Aromatic compounds burn with sooty flame
because
they have high
percentage of
hydrogen
they have a
ring structure
they have high
percentage of
carbon
2 20 The conversion of n-hexane into benzene by
heating in the presence of Pt is called
iosmerization aromatization dealkylation
2 20 The nature of ---CI group is orho directing meta directing para directing
2 20 the nature of ---COOH group is meta directing ortho directing para directing
2 20 which property of benzene may be directly
attributed to the stability associated with its
delocalised structure?
it has a low
boiling point
it does not
conduct
electricity
it tends to
undergo
substitution
rather than
additionreactio
n
2 20 Benzeme is insoluble in Water alcohol petrol
2 20 Identify the compound formed, when ethene
combines with water in the presence of 10%
sulphuric acid and HgSO4 as catalyst
carbinol methanol athanol
2 20 With ALCL3 as catalyse, benzene reacts
with Alkyl and Acyl chlorides giving alkylated
and acylated benzene respectively. This
reaction is known as
Friedel and
Crafts reaction
Nitration
reaction
Halogenation
reaction
2 20 The benzene molecule contains three double
bonds
two double
bonds
one double
bonds
2 20 Amongst the following, the compound that
can be most readily sulphonated is
toluene benzene nitrobenzene
2 20 Which one of the following belongs to meta
directing group?
halogens alkyl group phenyl group
2 20 The formula C6H5 represents benzyl group vinyl group phenyl group
2 21 In a primary alkyl halide, the halogen atom is
attached to a carbon which is further
attached to
only one
carbon atom
two catbon
atoms
three carbon
atoms
2 21 The order of the reactivety of an alkyl halide
(R - X ) for a particular alkyl group is
iodide>
bromide>
chloride
choride >
bromide >
iodide
bromide >
chloride >
iodide
2 21 SN2 reaction can be best carried out with primary alkyl
halides
secondary
alkyl halides
teritary alkyl
halides
2 21 Elimination bimolecular reactions usually
obey
first order
kinetics
second order
kinetics
third order
kinetics
2 21 For which mechanism, the first step involved
is the same
E and E2 E2 and SN2 W1 and E2
2 21 Alkyl halides are considered to be very
reactive compounds towards nucleophiles
because
they have an
electrophilic
carbon
they have an
electrophilic
carbon and
good leaving
group
they have an
electrophilic
carbon and
bad leaving
group
2 21 The rate of E1 reaction depends upon the
concentration
of substrate
the
concentration
of nucleophile
the
concentration
of substrate as
well as
nucleophile
2 21 Monohalo derivativies of alkanes are called amides alkenes alkI halides
2 21 Alkyl halides can be prepared by treating
halogen acids with
ethane ethane ethanol
2 21 Alkanes may be prepared by the reaction of
alkyl halides with
alcohol alkenes ketones
2 21 When alkyl halides are heated with aqueous
solution of ammonia at about 100 c ,amines
are formed. This reaction is known as
williamsons
synthesis
Hoffmans
reaction
Wurtz reaction
2 21 Halogens on treating with silver salts of
acids give
alcohol esteres phenol
2 21 The reaction of alcohol with SOCl2 in the
presence of pyridine as catalyst gives
acids acid chloride alkl halide
2 21 Alkyl halides on treatment with metallic Na
give
alkyness alkenes alkanes
2 21 Dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halides give alkaness alkenes alkynes
2 22 which compound contains-OH in their
molecule
alcohol phenol alcohol and
phenol
2 22 Alochols, phenosl and ethers may be
considered as derivative of
hydrocarbons benzene carboxylic
acids
2 22 Methanol and ethanol can be distingusished
by
iodoform test lucas test dichromate/H2
SO4 oxidation
test
2 22 Phenol is a weak acid. The correct order of
acid strength of carboxylic acid,phenol and
alcohol is
carboxylic
acid>
phenol>alcohol
carboxylic
acid>
alcoho>phenol
pheno>carboxy
lic acid> alcoho
2 22 Bakelite is a polymer obtaiend from two
monomers
phenol and
ethanol
pehnol and
methanol
phenol and
methanal
2 22 The IUPAC name of diethly ether is methoxy methyoxy
ethyane
ethyoxy ethane
2 22 Diethyl ether is obtained by Williamsons
synthesis using
ethanol+Na+C
2H5 Br
ethanol+Mg+C
2H5 Br
methanol+Na+
CH3 Br
2 22 Ethanol can be converted into ethanoic acid
by
hydrogenation hydration oxidation
reactions
2 22 Which enzyme is not involved in
fermentation of starch?
distase zymase urease
2 22 Methyl alcohol is not used as a sovlent as an anti-
freezing agent
as a substitute
for petrol
2 22 When phenol is reduced in the presence of
Zn dust, we get
cyclohexene cyclohexane benzene
2 22 Alcohol reacts with halogen acid to produce alkyl halides aldelydes ketones
2 22 Nirtration of phenol gives o-nitrophenol p-nitrophenol c-nitrophenol
2 22 which of the following is used as anesthetics? alcohol diethylether phenol
2 22 Treatment of a secondary alcohol with a
suitable oxidizing agent (K2Cr2 O7) results
in the formation of
ketone aldehyde ether
2 22 Which of the following is known as wood
spirit?
ethyl alcohol propyl alcohol methly alcohol
2 22 Methly alcohol possesses burning taste poisonous causing
blindness
2 22 Oxidation of methly alcohol gives formaldehyde acetone ester
2 23 Distillation of calcium salts of acetic acid and
formic acids gives acetaldehyde. What
compound vould be obtained if ony calcium
salt of acetic acid is distilled
formaldehyde butyraldehyde propionaldehyd
e
2 23 Aldol condensation is a reaction of cold
dilute solution of alkali with
all aldehydes all ketones aldehydes with
x-hydrogen
2 23 Acetone reacts with HCN to form a
cyanohydrin. It is an example of
electrophilic
addition
electrophillic
substitution
nucleophilic
addition
2 23 Which of the following compounds will not
give iodoform test on treatment with 1/2
NaOH
acetaldehyde acetone butanone
2 23 Cannizaro's reaction is given by formaldehyde acetaldehyde benzaldehyde
2 23 Which of the following reagents will react
with the aldehydes and ketones?
Grignard
reagent
Tollen's regent Fehiling's
reagent
2 23 Aldelydes are the oxidation product of p-alcohols s-alcohols ter-alcohols
2 23 Almond essence is used to flavour food. A
student tested a sample of almond essence
using 2, 4-DNP reagent and obtained
decoloured crystals which had sharp
melting point. Which class of compounds
gives the test?
alcohols carboxylic
acids
aldehydes with
-hydrogen
2 23 The carbon atom of a carbonyl group is sp hybridized sp2 hybridized sp3 hybridized
2 23 Formalin is 10% solution
of
formaldehyde
in water
20% solution
of
formaldehyde
in water
40% solution
of
formaldehyde
in water
2 23 Ketones are prepared by the oxidation of primary alcohol secondary
alcohol
tertiary alcohol
2 23 Silver mirror test is applied for aldehydes alcohols acids
2 23 Aldehydes is distinguished from ketones by
using
Tollen's
reagent
Benedict
regent
Fehling
solution
2 24 Carboxylicacids can generally be prepared
by various methods. Which of the following
methods is not suitable for making
carboxylic acids.
by the
oxidation of
primary
alcohols
by the
hydrolysis of
nitriles
by the
carbonation of
Grignard,
reagent
2 24 Monocarboxylic acids exist as dimer
because of
dipole-diple
attraction
hydrogen
bonding
Van der Waals
forces
2 24 Ester are pleasant smelling compounds.
Which ester possesses odour like pineapple
anmlacetate amylbutyrate ethylbutyrate
2 24 Essential amino acids are those amiono
acids which
body can not
systhesize
body can
synthesize
x-amino acids
2 24 Acetic acid is manufactured by distillation fermentation ozonolysis
2 24 A carboxylic acid contains a hydroxyl
group
a carbonyl
group
a hydroxyl and
carbonyl group
2 24 Which of the folloiwng is not fatty acid propanoic acid acetic acid phthalls acid
2 24 Acetamide is prepared by heating
ammonium
acetate
heating methl
cyanide
heating ethyl
acetate
2 24 The reaction of alcohol with acetic acid is
known as
saponification estriification ammonolysis
2 24 Acetic acid is categorized as a weak acid
because it
is less volatie has less
density
has less
dissociation
2 24 When carboxylic acid is reacted with soda
lime and alkali, it produces carbon dioxide
and simple hydrocarbon, which of the
following is that
alkanes alkenes alkynes
2 24 Ethyl acetate, an ester when allowed to react
with water in acidic media, it produces acetic
acid and ethl alcohol. This process is also
know as
hydration salvation hydrolysis
2 24 Ester have peculiar smell, which of the
following is used as an essence of orange
isoaml acetate iosaml valerate octyl acetate
2 24 An artifical smell of banana is produced in
many aritcles by using esters which of the
following is that
amyl acetate isoaml valerate octly acetate
2 24 The aicd present in the stings of bees and
wasps is
acetic acid formic acid formalin
2 25 Macromolecules or polymers are large
molecules built up form small moecules
called moneomers. This hypothesis put
forward by
schrodixger standinger Lewis
2 25 Which of the following is not an inorganic
macromelecule
diamond graphite sand
2 25 One of the following is not a natural polymer
which one
cellulose protein nylon
2 25 The structure of a polymer depends upon
how the monomer repeating unit joins to
make a polymer. What is not the type of
structure of a polymer
linear polymer branched
polymer
cross-linked or
inter
connected
polymer
2 25 The molecular mass of a polymer is
obtained by multiplying mass of the
monomer unit with the degree of
polymerization. The degree of polymerization
of PVC is 1000. What is the molecular mass
60000 62000 63000
2 25 One of the following is not type of polymer homopolymer copolymer heteroplymer
2 25 Thermoplastic polymer can be softened and
hardned when cooled repeatedly. Which one
is not a thermoplastic polymer
PVC (poly
vinyl chloride)
plastic toys exposy resin
2 25 The mechanisim of polymerisation involves
free redical addition polymerisation or
condensation polymerisation. Which
statemetn is correct
polythene is
addition
polymer
polstryrene Poly
vingylchloride
(PVC) is a
condensation
polymer
2 25 Nylon, 6,6 is a condensation polymer of adipic acid and
glycol
phthalic acid
and glycol
adipic acid and
hexaethylene
diamine
2 25 Which of the following is not a biopolymer,
that is resistant to paints
acrylic resins polyvinyl
acetate
polystyrene
2 25 One of the following is not a biopolymer,
which one
starch lipid protein
2 25 Which of the following is not a carbohydrate glycogen cellulose starch
2 25 Denaturation of protein means the structure
of protein is disrupted indicate which factor
does not denature protein
heating prorein pH changes oxidising agent
2 25 Lipids are naturally occurring compounds
produced in cell and are water insoluble but
soluble in organic solvetns. One of the
followings is not a lipid. Which one
a triglyceride sterol vitamin D
2 25 A fat or oil is charcterised for extent of
unsaturation by one of the following number,
which one
rancidity
number
acid number iodino number
2 25 Cholesterol is a precursor of steriod
hormones. What is the class of a steroid
a natural lipid a carbohydrae a protein a
hydrocarbon
2 25 In which of these processes are small
organic molecules made into
macromolecules
the crecking of
petroleum
fractions
the fractional
distillation of
crude oil
the
polymerization
2 25 Which of these polymers is an addition
polymer
nylon 6 , polystyrene terylene
2 25 which of these polymers is a synthetic
polymer?
animal fat starch cellulose
2 25 Plastics are a pollution problem because
many plastics
are made from
petroleum
are very
inflammable
burn to
produce toxic
fumes
2 26 What element is not essential in the growth
of plants and is not required in the fertilizers
nitrogen potassium phosphorus
2 26 Which no of nitrogen fertilizers plants in
Pakistan are
10 12 14
2 26 At present the number of cement factories in
Pakistan are
20 22 25
2 26 The number of paper industires in Pakistan
are
30 25 35
2 26 Which three elemetns are needed for the
healthy growth of plants
S,S,P N,Ca,P N,P,K
2 26 Which woody raw material is used for the
manufacture of paper pulp?
cotton bagasse poplar
2 26 Phosphorus helps in the growth of root leave stem
2 26 Micro-nutrients are required in quantity
ranging from
4g-40g 6g-200g 6kg-200kg
2 26 During the manufacturing process of cement
the temperature of the decomposition zone
goes up to
600 C 800 C 1000 C
2 26 The word paper is derived from the name of
which reedy plant
rose sun flower papyrus
2 26 Which is not a calcareous material? lime clay marble
2 26 How many zones through which the charge
passes in a rotary klin?
4 3 2
2 26 Ammonium nitrate fertillzer is not used for
which crop
cotton wheat sugar cane
2 26 The substances which are added to the soil
to provide one or more nutrient elemetns
essential for plant growth are called
minerals hormones fertiliazers
2 26 The percentage of nitrogen in ammonia is 80% 82% 90%
2 26 Natural fertilizers are materials derived from plants only animals only both plants
and amimals
2 26 substances that tend to decrease the activity
of enzymes are called
coenzyme activators inhibitors
2 26 The substances added in the paints for
improving the mechanical properties is called
pigmetn filter stabilizer
2 26 Which of the following are thermoplastic
materials?
PVC (poly
vinyl chloride)
polystryences polyethlene
2 26 Silk is an example of animal fiber vegtable fibre mineral fibere
2 27 Which one of the followiong is not a
component of environment
hydrosphere lithosphere biosphere
2 27 The gases in the atmosphere are essential
for sustaining life on earth thus oxygen is
required for breathing . What for Is carbon
dioxide required
to help clean
the
atmosphere
to help in fixing
of baqcteria
to help plant to
underg
photosynthesis
2 27 Oceans, rivers streams, lakes, polar ice
caps, glaciers and goup water reserviors are
included in
hydrosphere litosphere biosphere
2 27 Which factor is helping to reduce the
environmental pollution
rapid growth of
population
urbanization industrizalizatio
n
2 27 Which is not the affect of polluted air on
environment
acid rain smog ozone
2 27 CFCs destroy ozone laryer. How many
ozone molecule a chlorine free redical can
destroy
10,000 20,.000 100,000
2 27 Surface and ground water sources are
contaminated by various human activties.
Which of the followings is not a human
activity that causes contamination in fresh
water
live stock
waste
oil leaks and
spills
disposal of
industtrial
effluetns
2 27 Biochemical oxygen demadn (BOD) is the
capacity of organic matter in natural wter to
consume oxygen within a period a
2 days 5 days 6 days
2 27 Potable water is considered to be safe for
human
consumption
not safe for
human
consumption
the surface
water
2 27 Which step is unecessary for purification of
water for drinking puposes
aeration coagulaton treatmetn with
chlorine
2 27 Which of the following waste material is not
recycled for use again
paper plastic toys hides of
animals
2 27 The PH range of the acid rain is 07-Aug 7-6.5 6.5-6
2 27 Peroxyacetylnitrate (PAN) is an irritant to
human beings and it affects
eyes ears stomach
2 27 Fungicides are the pesticides which control the
growth of
fungus
kill insects kill plants
2 27 Ecosystem is a smaller unity of lithosphere nydosphers atmosphere
2 27 The main pollutant of leather tanneries in the
waste water is due the salt of
lead chromium (vi) copper
2 27 The temperature in the incineration of
industrial and hazardous waste process had
a range
900 to 1000 C 250 to 500 C 950 to 1300 C
2 27 Newspaper can be recycled again and again
by howmany times ?
2 3 4
2 18 Reaction of 2-butene with HBr gives only
one product because
the molecular
is symmetrical
around C = C
bond
the molecule
is
asymmetrical
around C = C
bond
It is more
stable
2 18 Bromoethane can be converted to ethene by Reaction with
aq. KOH
Reaction with
alcoholic KOH
Oxidation
2 18 During Pyrolysis which bond bill break
rapidly?
C C C H C = C
2 18 Which one of the following compounds has
longest C-H bond?
Ethane Ethene Ethyne
2 18 Ozonolysis of Ethene produces Aldehyde Ketone Mixture of a
and b
2 18 Which one of the following will not react with
tollens reagent?
Ethyne 1-butyne 3-Methyl-1-
butyne
2 18 Which one of the following is the least stable
hydrocarbon?
Cycloprane Propane Cyclobutane
2 18 Replacement of hydrogen atom by -SO3H
group in benzene is called
Nitration Alkylation Sulphonation
2 18 Which of the following possess linear
geometry
Alkane Alkane Alkyne
2 18 Identify the hydrocarbon formed, when ethyl
bromide reacts with, alcoholic KOH at1000
Methane Ethane Ethene
2 18 On passing ethene in to concentrated
suphric acid the intermediate compound
formed on hydrolysis with boiling water gives,
Methyl alcohal Ethyl alcohal Ethyl hydrogen
sulphate
2 18 Identify the compound formed when
ethylene combins with water in the presence
of 10% sulphuric acid and HgSO4 as catalyst
Carbinol Methanol Ethanol
2 18 Acetylene has a characteristic ethereal smell
resembling that of
Ginger Vinegar Garlic
2 18 Polythene is a polymer of Ethane Ethene Acetone
2 18 The structure of benzene is Hexagonal Pyamidal Square planer
2 21 A molecule of oligosaccharide on hydrolysis
produces ______ molecules of
monosaccharide
1 2 4
2 21 A molecule of polysaccharide on hydrolysis
monosaccharides
2 3 2 10
2 21 A molecule of polysaccharide on hydrolysis
monosaccharides
Many Few 2 10
2 21 Water soluble and crystalline carbohydrates
are
monosaccharid
es
oligosaccharid
es
polysaccharide
s
2 21 Which one is non-reducing sugar Sucrose Glucose Fructose
2 21 Most animals cannot digest Starch Cellulose Proteins
2 1 The soul of chemistry is its dealing with Internal
structural
changes in
matter
Composition
of matter
Properties of
matter
2 1 All of the following statements are incorrect
for 20 mol of hydrogen peroxide except
it has 20 mol
of hydrogen
atoms
it has 30 mol
of oxygen
atoms
it has 80 mol
of atoms
2 1 A chemist poured lemon juice on soil, the
idea that he may have in his mind is that
there may be a
possibility of a
chemical
reaction
there may be a
possibility of a
chemical
reaction
lemon juice is
dangerous to
health
2 1 Which of the following is not related to a.m.u gram kilogram microgram
2 1 The number of significant figures in 0.00200
is
two three five
2 1 All of the following statements are incorrect
except
precision and
accuracy
should go side
by side in a
scientific work
scientific work
must be
precise,
accuracy is not
essential
scientific work
must be
accurate,
precision is
not essential
2 1 Empirical formula and formula unit of an
ionic compound
are always
similar
are always
different
may be similar
or different
2 1 Copper (II) oxide is mixed with organic
compound during combustion analysis. The
purpose is
to carry out
complete
combustion
to reduce the
economy of
the process
to reduce the
time for
completion of
the reaction
2 1 Bismark brown is a dye. Its molar mass is
228.3 g/mol. When the dye was analyzed by
a scientist, it was found that it contains
30.68% nitrogen. How many nitrogen atoms
are there in each Bismark brown molecule
6 5 4
2 1 The mass of 2 mole of sodium hydroxide will
be
2 g 20 g 40 g
2 1 A compound is always consists of the
same elements combined in the same fixed
ratio. The statement is
a hypothesis a fact a law
2 1 An atom is smallest
indivisible
particle in an
element
smallest
particle of an
element which
can undergo a
chemical
reaction
building block
of an element
2 1 A piece of paper is burnt in air, the gas
produced is passed through distilled water.
The PH of water solution will be
1 7 2.1
2 1 Which of the following is a substance ? sea water brass tape water
2 1 Freezing point of a substance is a
temperature at which a liquid substance is
converted to solid, it is
always lower
than its
melting point
usually a little
lower than its
melting point
always higher
than its
melting point
2 1 A student subtracted 0.00055 from
10.2345678 and reported the result as
10.23401. But his friend told him that the
result was wrong. What is the correct result
10.234017 10.2340178 10.234
2 1 The following statement contained in a
students laboratory report is a conclusion
a gas is
liberated
colour of the
gas is
greenish yellow
oxide of the
gas is strongly
acidic
2 1 A 50.00 mL sample of a cough mixture
prepared by a pharmacist was found to have
a mass of 46.0g. what is the density (in
g/mL) of this mixture. Stated to the correct
number of significant figures ?
0.92 0.92 0.92
2 1 Which of the sub-atomic particles not
charged
2 1 Object of the size of an atom can be
observed in
in electron
microscope
an x-ray
spectrum
atomic
absorption
spectrum
2 1 The item of an element is the smallest
particle
the
fundamental
particle
the
independent
particle
2 1 wich of the following statement is correct.For
a chamical?
collid with
each other
collied with
energy more
than activation
energy
collied with
energy less
than activation
energy
2 1 when energy is released during a reaction it
is
exothermic
reaction
endothermic
reaction
a free rradical
reaction
2 1 A molecular ion is formedby passing a high
energy
electron beam
through
gaseous
molecule
dissolving a
salt in dilute
acid
passing
electric current
through
moltem salt
2 1 The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5.
What is the mass of 2 mol of chlorine gas?
142 g 71 g 35.5 g
2 1 Mass spectrometer measures the exact mass of
an element
average mass
of an element
the number of
elements
present in a
molecule
2 1 Isotopes differ in the numberof
neutrons
number of
protons
number of
electrons
2 1 Which of the following statements is not
true?
Isotopes with
even atomic
masses are
comparatively
abundant
Isotopes with
odd atomic
masses are
comparative
abundant
Isotpes with
even atomic
masses and
even atomic
numbers are
comparatively
abundant
2 3 Professor Qawwi told his students that air is
a mixture because: suddenly a student
raised his hand and said
it is colourless oxygen can be
removed from
it
its composition
is different at
different
altitudes
2 3 Imagine Dr. Khan is sitting in a room. The
room is closed from all sides, no entry, no
exit of any gas. If the room expands
suddenly then
he will be
frightened
his blood
pressure will
decrease
he will feel cool
2 3 which of the following elements will have
strongest Van Der Waal force of attraction
between its molecules
hydrogen oxygen chlorine
2 3 The beaker shown in the figure contains
slurry of ice and water, the three
thermometers Fahrenheit, Kelvin and
Centigrade placed in it. The thermometers
are represented by A, B and C respectively.
The lowest reading will be on thermometer
a b c
2 3 Which thermometer will have its reading 273
degrees greater than that of thermometer C
?
A B C has greater
reading than
all other
thermometer
2 3 The temperature recorded by Kelvin scale is 0K 273K 373K
2 3 If pressure on a gas is increased from 2 atm
to 4 atm than its volume will decrease from
6L to 4L 8L to 2L 3L to 1L
2 3 This is a known fact that the molar volumes
of different gases at S.T.P are
little bit greater
than the molar
volumes of
liquids
little bit less
than the molar
volumes of
solids
about the
same as the
molar volumes
of liquids
2 3 the behavior of a gas is non-ideal at lo2w
temperature
and low
pressure
high
temperature
and high
pressure
high
temperature
and low
pressure
2 3 All of the following statements are false
except
gas molecules
do not attract
each other at
very low
temperature
all of the
gases cannot
be liquefied
increase in
pressure will
not decrease
the
intermolecular
distance in a
gas
2 3 At the same temperature and pressure
helium is more ideal than hydrogen due to
greater molar
mass
less molar
mass
greater
molecular size
2 3 As gases can adopt the shape of the
container so they have
no fixed
shapes
fixed shapes different
shapes
2 3 If allowed to expand, the gases suddenly heat up move randomly react
2 3 Which one of the folloiwng is not postulated
in the kinetic molecular theory
molecule of all
the gases
have same
size and same
mass
molecules are
in chaotic
motion
all molecular
collisions are
elastic
2 3 According to Boyles law at contant
temperture ,the product of pressure and
volume of a given mass of gas is
whole number a constant fraction
2 3 which of the following laws study the
pressure -volume relationship of a gas at
constatn temperature
Charies law Graham's law Dalton's law
2 3 A graph is plotted ,P on x-axis and volume
on y-axis for a given mass at constant
temperature, we get
a straight line a curve with
different peaks
straigh line
parallel to x-
axis
2 3 Elastic collision involves Loss of energy Gain of Energy No gain no
loss of energy
2 3 if absolute temperature of a gas is doubled
and the pressure is reduced to one half, the
volume of the gas will
remain
unchanged
increase four
times
reduce to 1/4
2 3 How should the conditions be changed to
prevent the volume of a given gas from
expanding when its mass is increased
temperature is
lowered and
pressure is
increased
temperature is
increased and
pressure is
increased
temperature
and pressure
both are
lowered
2 3 According to Kinetic Molecular Theory,
Kinetic energy of molecules increases when
they are
Mixed with
other
moleculers at
low
temperature
Frozen in to a
solid
Condensed in
to liquid
2 3 To measure the true pressure of a gas
collected over water, the pressure due to
water vapours is
Added to the
total pressure
Subtracted
from the total
pressure
Multiplied to
the total
pressure
2 3 Matter having no definite shape and volume
is called
linquid plasma solid
2 3 The respiration process taking place in
animals depends on a difference in
Osmotic
pressure
Vapour
pressure
Partial
pressure
2 3 At constant temperature, volume of given
mass of gas is inversely proportional to
pressure on it. This is a statement of
Charles law Boyle's law Hook law
2 3 A pressrue of one Newton per meter square
(1 Nm-2) is equal to
one pascal one bar one
atmosphere
2 3 Supose that all the air of the earth were
replaced by an ocean of mercury. How deep
would this ocean have to be to exert the
same pressure as the air
76 cm 77 cm 78 cm
2 3 The instrument that is used to meanure the
pressure of a gas is called
Viscometer Photometer barometer
2 3 Considering the physical properties of the
gases, which of the following statemetns
about particles of gas is not true. The
particles
ordely
arranged
randomly
moving
having wide
spaces
2 3 Equal volume of all gases at same
temperature and pressure contain number of
molecules
different multiples equal
2 3 The volume of a gass that is occupied by its
one mole at STP is called
total volume normal volume molar volume
2 3 which is the best example of diffusion of
gases
bubbling in
soda bottle
vapour
condensing on
moist surface
hot air rising
above a candle
2 4 Air can be distilled fractionally because the
constituents of the air
can be
liquefied
have different
boiling points
are gases at
room
temperature
2 4 There are three different substances, Argon,
Hydrochloric acid and Hydroiodic acid. The
correct sequence in which the boiling point
increases is
Ar < HCI < HI HI > HCI > Ar HCI < HI < Ar
2 4 A student put two eggs A and B in HCI
solution. After 5 minutes he took them out
for weighing but egg dropped in water
accidentally. The student was able to take it
out after 30 minutes. He weighed it. Its
weight was 40.33 grams. Weight of egg B
was als
greater than
that of egg A
less than that
of egg A
equal to that of
egg A
2 4 Keeping in mind different factors which
affect the melting point of a substance, the
compound having highest melting point
among the following is
NaCI RbCI LiCI
2 4 Islamian genius told his follows that in a
crystal the atoms are located at the position
of
zero potential
energy
infinite
potential
energy
maximum
potential
energy
2 4 Keeping in mind the concept of charge
density, compound having highest lattice
energy is
KCI MgO LiBr
2 4 Meniscus is the shape of the surface of a
liquid in a cylindrical container. It may be
concave, convex or plane. For molten metals
meniscus is
concave
meniscus is
convex
meniscus is
plane
2 4 All of the following substances are crystalline
except
Ice Carbon
(diamond)
Sucrose
2 4 All of the following have cleavage planes
except
ionic crystals covalent
crystals
molecular
crystals
2 4 Coordination number of Na+ in NaCI is 1 4 2
2 4 All of the following have crystals except diamond NaCI KBr
2 4 Kerosene is liquid at room temperature due
to
hydrogen
bonding
organic nature dipole-dipole
forces
2 4 Honey contain glucose and fructose along
with some other ingredients, it has greater
viscosity due to
hydrogen
bonding
irregular
shape of the
molecules
irregular
shape of the
molecules and
strong
intermolecular
forces
2 4 Rate of evaporation of petrol is greater that
that of water at room temperature because
petrol
molecules do
not have any
hydrogen bond
petrol is an
organic
compound
water
molecules
have small size
2 4 What is the typical range of the hydrogen
bond
5 25 kJ per
mole of bonds
5 25 kJ per
molecule
500 kJ per
mole of bonds
2 4 All of the following acids have hydrogen
bond in liquid state except
sulfuric acid nitric acid hydrofluoric
acid
2 4 The increasing vapor pressure caused by
heating a liquid is due to
increase
intermolecular
interactions
increasing
potential
energy of
molecules
increasing
kinetic energy
of molecules
2 4 Covalent network crystals have higher melting
point then
molecular
crystals
lower melting
point then
molecular
crystals
discrete
molecules
linked by Van
der waals
forces
2 4 A chemist was able to measure the value of
lattice energy of KCI to be 690 kJ/mol. From
this experiment he concluded that
lattice energy
of KBr is 630
kJ/mol and
that of KI is
665 kJ/mol
lattice energy
of KBr is 665
kJ/mol and
that of KI is
630 kJ/mol
lattice energy
of KBr is 765
kJ/mol and
that of KI is
730 kJ/mol
2 4 which of the following may be called London
dispersion forces
dipole-dipole
forces
ion-dipole
forces
dipole-induced
dipole forces
2 4 I heard Islamian genius saying that glass
must be a super cooled liquid. The reason
that he might have in his mind is that glass
has
definite volume definite shape crystalline
structure
2 4 Some substances are good conductor of
electricity in both the solid and liquid states.
These substances are generally
ionic
substances
metallic
substances
molecular
solids
2 4 An example of ion-dipole force is solution of NaCl is water Glucose in
water
Bromine in
bezene
2 4 The boiling point of radon ( 211 K) is higher
than boiling point of helium (4.4 k) because
the atomic
number of Rn
is larger than
of the He
the atomic
mass of Rn is
larger than of
He
the dispersion
forces
between Rn
atoms are
more
prominent
than between
He atoms
2 4 which is the correct order of boiling points solution of
ethanol in
water
linking of helix
protein
molecule
structure of ice
2 4 Acetone and chloroform are soluble in each
other due to
intermolecular
hydrogen
bonding
ion-depole
interaction
instantaneous
dipoles
2 4 NH3 shows a maximum boiling point among
the hydrides of Vth group elements due to
very small size
of nitrogen
hydrogen
bonding
between its
molecules
enhanced
electronegative
character of
nitrogen
2 4 Dipole-dipole forces are present between polar
molecules
non-polar
molecules
(a) and (b) both
2 4 The bonding which occurs among polar
covalent molecules containing H and one of
the small electronegative element such as
O, F or N is called
bridge bonding metallic
bonding
hydrogen
bonding
2 4 London forces are more affective at low
temperature
high
temperature
high pressure
2 4 When two ice cubes are pressed together
they unite to form one cube. Which of the
following forces, is responsible for holding
them together
Van der Waal's Covalent
bonding
hydrogen
bonding
2 4 water has high boiling point which is due to weak
dissociation
hydrogen
bonding
between its
molecules
high specific
heat
2 4 In which of the following componds
hydrogen bonding is not present
water ethanol ether
2 4 The maximum possible number of hydrogen
bonds in which a H20 molecule can
participate is
1 2 3
2 4 In which of the following molecules,
strongest hydrogen bonding is shown
water ammonia hydrogen
fluoride
2 4 The attractive forces which are created due
to repulsion of electronic cloud of the
molecules are
dipole-dipole
forces
ion dipole
forces
instantaneous
dipole-induced
dipole forces
2 4 NaCl is completely ionized in water due to
presence of
hydrogen
bonding
dipole dipole
force
ion dipole
forces
2 5 Color of the glow produced in the discharge
tube
depends on
the pressure in
the discharge
tube
depends on
the metal used
as cathode
depends on
the gas used
in the
discharge tube
2 5 e/m ratio of the canal rays is less than that of
cathode rays. The reason is
greater mass
of canal ray
particles
greater charge
of the canal
ray particles
greater mass
and charge of
the canal ray
particles
2 5 Nuclear radiation is emitted by those
elements whose
molecules are
stable
molecules are
unstable
nuclei are
stable
2 5 Roentgen discovered X-rays and Mosley
found that the frequency of the X-rays
emitted from anode increases with the
increase in the
mass number
of the metal
used as anode
decrease in
the mass
number of the
metal used as
anode
decrease in
the proton
number of the
metal used as
anode
2 5 Radiation emitted by exited atoms is in the form of
continuous
waves
in the form of
quanta
nuclear
radiations
2 5 Second ionization energy is always less
than first
ionization
energy
is always
greater than
first ionization
energy
is equal to the
first ionization
energy
2 5 Ionization energies of the elements of the
5th group are greater than those of 6th
group. It is because
5th group
elements have
less
electronegativit
y
6th group of
elements have
greater
shielding effect
5th group
element have
greater
shielding effect
2 5 All of the following are electromagnetic
radiations except
red light sound waves x-rays
2 5 This shape of a 2s orbital resembles a hockey puck an (American)
football
an ellipse
2 5 Which orbital of the following has a principal
quantum number of 3 and an angular
momentum quantum number of 27
3s 3d 4f
2 5 Which of the following has the highest
energy ?
gamma rays X-rays Ultra-violet
radiation
2 5 All of the following elements are correct for
atomic orbitals except
p-sub energy
level has 3
orbitals
s-orbital has
spherical
shape
energy of 4s is
less than that
of 4d
2 5 How many orbitals are allowed for principal
quantum number (n) of 3 ?
9 8 6
2 5 Which of the following orbitals are
degenerate in a multielectron atom ?
3d orbitals 3s, 3p, 3d
orbitals
1s, 2s orbitals
2 5 The quantum number that specifies the way
the orbital is oriented in space is
the electron
spin quantum
number
the magnetic
quantum
number
the angular
momentum
quantum
number
2 5 Which of the following has the largest
wavelength
visible light x-rays infrared light
2 5 Select the arrangement of electromagnetic
radiation which starts with the lowest energy
and increases to greatest energy
radio, visible,
infrared,
visible,
ultraviolet
microwave,
infrared,
visible,
ultraviolet
visible,
ultraviolet,
infrared,
gamma rays
2 5 In the quantum mechanical treatment of the
hydrogen atom, which one of the following
combinations of quantum numbers is not
allowd ?
3, 1, -1 3, 2, 2 3, 2, -1
2 5 Each electron in an atom must have its
own unique set of quantum numbers is a
statement of
Aufbau
principle
Pauli exclusion
principle
Hunds rule
2 5 The effective nuclear charge for an atom is
less than the actual nuclear charge due to
Shielding Penetration Paramagnetis
m
2 5 Electrons added to atomic orbitals of the
same energy will remain unpaired with
parallel spins until the subshell is more than
half-filled is a statement of
Aufbau
principle
Pauli exclusion
principle
Hunds rule
2 5 Arrange potassium, rubidium, calcium and
barium in order of increasing atomic size
K < Ca < Rb <
Ba
Ca < K < Rb <
Ba
Ca < K < Ba <
Rb
2 5 Element having smallest atomic radius
among the following is
Li Ne Rb
2 5 The arrangement of sodium, oxygen,
fluorine and strontium on the basis of
increasing first ionization energy is
Na < Sr < O <
F
Sr < Na < O <
F
Sr < Na < F <
O
2 5 Elements with ___ first ionization energies
and ___ electron affinities generally form
cations
low, very
negative
high, positive
or slightly
negative
low, positive or
slightly
negative
2 5 In a Millikan oil-drop experiment, the
charges on several different oil drops were
as follows: -5.92; -4.44; -2.96; -8.88. The
units are arbitrary. What is the likely value of
the electronic charge in these arbitrary units
-1.11 -1.48 -2.22
2 5 which of the following is not charged particle proton electron neutron
2 5 which of the following is not a property of
cathode rays
they can
produce x-rays
when they
strike a heavy
metal anode
they can
cause
reduction
reaction
they produce
fluorescence
in rare earth
and mineral
2 5 which of the following is not sub-atomic
particle
2 5 Spilitting of spectral lines when atoms are
subjected to srong electric field is called
zeeman effect stark effect photoelectric
effect
2 5 The velocity of photon is independent of
its wavelength
depends on its
wavelength
equal to
square of its
amplitude
2 5 The natur of the positive rays depend on the nature of
the electrode
the nature of
the discharge
tube
the nature of
the residual
gas
2 5 Rutherford's model of atom failed because the atom did
not have
nucleus and
electrons
it did not
account for the
attraction
between
protons and
neutrons
it did not
account for the
stability of the
atom
2 5 Bohr model of atom does not explain zeeman effect stark effect orgin of lines
in H2 spectrum
2 5 Quantum number values for 2p orbitals are n=2,l=1 n=1,l=2 n=1,l=0
2 5 In the ground state of an atom, the electron
is present
in the nucleus in the second
shell
nearest to the
nucleus
2 5 When 3p orbital is complete, the entering
electron goes into
4s 3d 4p
2 5 Orbitals having same energy are called hybrid orbitals valence orbitals degenerate
orbitals
2 5 The principle quantum number describes the distance
from the
nucleus
the shape of
the orbital
the orientation
of the orbital
2 5 The rules which describe the distributin of
electron in atomic energy level are Auf-bau
priniple, Pauli's exculsion principle, Hunds
rule. The Pauli exculsion principle refers to
the
orientation of
obital in space
fact that two
electrons in
the same
orbital should
have opposite
spins
energy of the
orbital
2 5 Cathode rays drive a small paddle wheel
placed in their path. This observation shows
that
cathode rays
travel in
straight lines
cathode rays
are negatively
charged
cathode rays
produce x-rays
2 5 No cathode rays are produced in the
discharge tube when gas is under ordinary
pressure even if voltage of 500 to 10000 is
applied.
Voltage is low discharge tube
is not coloured
gas does not
conduct
current under
ordinary
pressure
2 5 e/m of cathode rays is same but for positive
rays e/m changes by changing gas in the
discharge tube because
cathode rays
are small size
particles
cathode rays
have same
charge
nature of
cathode rays
same fos all
gasses, but
masses of
nuclei are
different for
different gases
2 5 When cathode rays strike the anode metal,
X-rays are emitted and not the positive rays
because
cathode rays
are material
particles
cathod rays
knock out
electrons from
anode, which
emit X-rays
when outer
electronens
take their place
cathode rays
are obsorbed
by the nucleus
2 5 Positive particle in discharge tube is
produced by ionization of gas molecules,
which is caused by
gas molecules
collide with
anode
gas molecules
are at high
temperature
gas molecules
produce x-rays
2 6 All of the following statements are false
except
The MOs in a
molecule
equals twice
the number of
constituent
atomic orbitals
As bonding
MOs become
more stable,
antibonding
MOs become
equally less
stable
In MOs, the
number of
bonding
electrons
equals the
number of
antibonding
electrons
2 6 Arrange the following bonds in order of
increasing bond strength.
C-F < C-CI <
C-Br < C-I
C-I < C-Br < C-
CI < C-F
C-Br < C-I < C-
CI < C-F
2 6 According to molecular orbital (MO) theory,
the twelve outermost electrons in the O2
molecule are distributed as follows
12 in bonding
MOS, O in
antibonding
MOs
10 in bonding
MOs, 2 in
antibonding
Mos
9 in bonding
MOs, 3 in
antibonding
Mos
2 6 The force which holds the atoms together to
form a compound is called
a chemical
bond
Van der wall's
force
dispersion
force
2 6 The chemical reactivity of an element
depends upon
the umber of
valence shell
electrons only
total of
electrons in all
shells
number of
neutrons is an
atom of the
element
2 6 Noble gases are stable
substances
reactive
substances
light
substances
2 6 The driving force for making a bond is to attain noble
gas electronic
configuration
to make solid
compounds
to make
different
compounds
2 6 Elements have the tendency to attain 8
electrons in their valence shell. This is
known as
Octet rule Hunds rule Pauli exclusion
Principle
2 6 When two hydrogen atoms approach to from
a chemical bond
the repulsive
forces
dominate the
attractive
forces
the attractive
forces,
dominate the
repulsive
forces
the energy of
atoms
increases
2 6 The atomic radius of hydrogen is 37 picometer manometer angstrom
2 6 The electronegativity of elements in a period
from left to right
decreases increases first decreases
then increases
2 6 A bond between two atoms may be obtained
by sharing of electrons such a bond is called
an ionic bond a coordinate
bond
a dative bond
2 6 Which of the following is a polar molecule carbon dioxide carbon
tetrachloride
methanol
2 6 Molecular orbital picture of N2 indicates one unpaired
electron
two unpaired
electrons
no unpaired
electron
2 6 Molecular orbital picture of O2 indicates one unpaired
electron
two unpaired
electrons
no unpaired
electron
2 6 Which of the following statements is not
correct regarding bonding molecular orbitals?
bonding
molecular
orbitals
possess less
energy than
atomic orbitals
from which
they are
formed
bonding
molecular
orbitals have
low electron
density
between the
two nuclei
every electron
in the bonding
molecular
orbitals
contributes to
the attraction
between atoms
2 6 Which of the hydrogen halides has the
highest percentage of ionic character?
HCI HBr HF
2 6 Formation of a chemical bond between
atoms of elements is based on
Pauli exclusion
principle
octer rule electropositive
character of
elements
2 6 Noble gases are most stable of all other
elemetns because
these do not
react with one
another
these are
mono atomic
gases
their ionization
energies are
high
2 7 All of the following are state functions except P V q
2 7 All of the followings are incorrect except Hvaprizaiton <
Hsublimation <
Hfusion <
Hcondensation
Hfusion <
Hcondensation
< sublimation
< Hvaporization
Hcondensation
< Hfusion <
Hvaporization
< Hsublimation
2 7 A chemist heated a balloon by supplying
600 J of heat. The balloon expands doing
200 J of work against the atmospheric
pressure. The change in internal energy of
=-K719 -400 J O J
2 7 Spontaneous reactions are those which continue to
occur once
started
require
activation
energy
are
endothermic
2 7 sublimation, vaporization, melting and
photosynthesis all are examples of
chemical
processes
physical
processes
biochemical
processes
2 7 A mixture of ice and water contains 60g of
ice and 60g of water. If 60J of heat energy is
removed from this mixture then some of the
water will
vaporize
ice will sublime ice will melt
2 7 If volume of a system is kept constant and
heat is supplied to the system then
internal energy
of the system
increases and
no work is
done on the
surrounding
internal energy
of the system
increases and
work is done
on the
surrounding
no change in
internal energy
occurs
2 7 Melting of ice at room temperature is spontaneous
exothermic
process
spontaneous
endothermic
process
non-
spontaneous
exothermic
process
2 7 Four containers hold the following quantities
at the same temperature, which one has
highest heat capacity?
1 kg H2O 2kg H2O 3kg H2O
2 7 A calorimeter is an instrument used for the
measurement of
heat of reaction heat of
combustion
heat of
formation
2 7 Enthalpy represents heat content energy state reaction rate
2 7 For an exothermic reaction the sign of
enthalpy will be,
Positive Negative Zero
2 7 When rate of forward reaction is equal to
rate of backward reaction, then the
equilibrium established is called
chemical
equilibrium
static
equilbrium
dynamic
equilibrium
2 7 Ther rate at which a substance reacts, is
directly proportional to its active mass and
the rate of reaction is directly proportional to
the proudct of the active masses of reacting
substances, is called
law of
conservation
of energy
Le-Chateliers
principle
law of mass
action
2 7 Chemical equilibrium involving reactants and
products is more than one phase is called
static dynamic homogeneous
2 7 Hydrogen gas and iodine vapours combine
to form HI at 425 C, the same composition
of mixture is present if we start with
decomposition of HI. It suggests
a static
equilibrium
law of mass
action
a dynamic
equilibrium
2 7 Law of mass action states that rate of
chemical reaction is directly proportional to
the product of active masses of the
reactants. The term active mass means
mass in grams
converted to
products
number of
moles
number of
moles per
dm3 of
reactants
2 7 The value of Kp is greater than Kc for a
gaseous reaction when
number of
molecules of
products is
greater than
the reactants
number of
molecules of
reactants is
greater than
those of
products
number of
molecules of
reactants and
products equal
2 7 Le-chatiler's principle is applied on the
reversible reactions in order to
determine the
rate of reaction
predict the
direction of
reaction
determine the
extent of
reaction
2 7 If the difference of pKa values of the two
acids is 2, then
acid with
smaller pKa is
10 times
stronger acid
acid with
greater pKa is
10 times
stronger acid
acid with
smaller pKa is
100 times
stronger acid
2 7 Whenever a weak base is dissolved in
water, it gives its conjugate acid. Similarly a
weak acid in water produces its conjugate
base. This conjugate acid-base pair concept
is stated by
law of mass
action
Le-chatiler's
principle
common ion
effect
2 7 Which statement is incorrect for a Buffer
solution
solution which
resists the
change in its
pH value by
adding small
quantity of
acid or base
a solution of
mixture of
weak acid and
its salt with
strong base
a solutoin of
strong
acid+salt of
this acid with
strong base
2 11 The number of atoms or molecules whose
concentration determines the rate of a
chemical reaction is called the
molecularity of
the reaction
order of the
reaction
specific activity
of the reaction
2 11 A scientist prepared a compound in
laboratory. He found that it has two forms,
one amorphous form and another crystalline
form C. Both A and C reacts with sulfuric
acid. One possible predication is that
increases with
increase in
concentration
of the reactants
decreases
with increase
in
concentration
of the reactants
increases with
increase in
concentration
of the products
2 11 The rate of an irreversible reaction increase with
increase in
concentration
of the reactants
decreases
with increase
in
concentration
of the reactants
increases with
increase in
concentration
of the products
2 11 A substance which increases the efficiency
of a catalyst is termed as
Promoter Activator Retarder
2 11 Rancidity produced in butter can be
decreased by adding quinoline to the butter.
This statements shows that
nothing is
impossible
quinoline is an
inhibitor
quinoline is a
catalyst
2 11 An increase in the concentration of reactants Increases the
number of
collisions
directly
has no effect
on number of
collisions
has inverse
effect on
number of
collisions
2 11 Use of catalyst in a reaction changes Enthalpy Entropy Internal energy
2 11 with an increase in temperature during a
chemical reaction, the molecules becomes
Activated per
unit time
Deactivated
per unit time
No change in
activation per
unit time
2 11 For the reaction XYZ the diagram indicates
that H for the reaction is
Positive Negative Zero
2 11 Reactions with high activation energy are Slow Fast Moderate
2 11 A chemical reaction is characterized by Concentration Temperature Catalyst
2 12 Which of the following elements is a
representative element?
Ag Cr I
2 12 He belongs to __ block of the periodic table s p d
2 12 Which one is a non-metal? Fr AI B
2 12 Which family of elements has the ns2 np2
electronic configuration?
2A 3A 4A
2 12 The correct electronic configuration of Ag+1 d10 4S1 4d10 5So 3d9 4S1
2 12 which one has highest ionization potential
value?
Mg AI O-2
2 12 The electron affinity order among the
halogens is
F>CI>Br>I CI>F>Br>I I>CI>Br>F
2 12 Which one is having higher electron affinity? O S Li
2 12 In third period there are ____ transition
metals
10 9 8
2 12 The number of periods in the long form of
the periodic table is
Seven Nine Eighteen
2 12 Which of the following has the highest
melting point?
NaCI NaBr NaI
2 12 Which of the following species has highest
ionization potential?
Mg+ Na Mg+2
2 12 In periodic table the highest ionization
potentials are for
Halogens Noble gases Chalcogens
2 12 Which one of the following is more
electropositive?
I Cs K
2 12 Magnesium is diagonally related to Li Cs K
2 12 The correct order of first ionization potential
of C, N O and F is
C>N>O>F O>F>N>C F>N>O>C
2 12 Which group consists entirely of metals? IIA IVA VIA
2 12 Which of the following properties
progressively increases down the group in
the periodic table?
electron affinity Electro
negativity
Ionization
potential
2 12 23- The atomic number of an element is 53.
The number of valence electrons in this
element is
5 7 18
2 12 In each period there is decrease in size from
left to right, the decrease is comparatively
large in case of
3d series 4d series 5d series
2 12 The size of CI is largest in case of CIO2 CIO4-1 CIO3-1
2 12 Properties of elements depend upon mass number atomic weight number of
protons
2 12 Electronic configuration of an elements is
ns2 (n-1) d10 this element belongs to group
IA IIB IIIB
2 12 Lanthanides and actinides belong to ___
group
IB IIB IIB
2 12 29- The electronic configuration of an
element ends as 7S2 to which period and
group this element belongs?
VI period IA
group
VII period and
IIA group
VII period and
IIB group
2 12 Nitrogen can from only three covalent bonds
but phosphorus can from 5 covalent bonds.
The reason is
there are three
valence
electrons in
nitrogen but
five valence
electrons in
phosphorus
Phosphorus
has an
additional lone
pair of
electrons
Little energy is
required to
unpair the
electrons of s-
orbital in
phosphorus
than in
Nitrogen
2 12 Which of the following elements produce the
strongest acidic oxide?
Mg AI O
2 12 The strongest bond among the following is C-H N-H O-H
2 12 Astatine is a halogen. Which one of the
following statements about Astatine is
incorrect?
It has colored
vapors
It forms a
molecule At2
It forms a
soluble silver
salt
2 12 An element X reacts with water producing
acidic solution this solution gives a white PPt
with aqueous silver nitrate. In which group of
the periodic table is X?
I II V
2 12 Which one of the following elements burns
in air to form an oxide which when shaken
with water gives a solution with pH greater
than 7?
C Mg S
2 12 Why are sodium and chlorine placed in the
same period?
sodium and
chlorine are
non metals
sodium and
chlorine
combine to
from sodium
chloride
the atoms of
both elements
have only
three electron
shells
containing
electrons
2 12 Which statement is correct about Rubidium? it reacts slowly
with air
it slowly reacts
with cold water
it is produced
during the
electrolysis of
RbCI (Liq)
2 12 An element Y on reaction with chlorine
produces a white solid YCI3 which element
could be Y?
Aluminum Nitrogen Carbon
2 12 Which of the statements regarding Astatine
is correct?
It burns readily
in air
It forms a
basic oxide
It displaces
iodine from its
salt
2 12 A compound with the formula XY is likely to
be formed if the elements X and Y are in
groups
II and VI V and VII II and VII
2 12 The elements of group IA are called halogens alkaline earth
metals
alkali metals
2 12 In the modren periodic Table the elements
are placed in the ascending order of their
atimuc masses melting points boiling points
2 12 The elements of group IIA are called halogens noble gases alkali metals
2 12 Number of elements in the first period of the
periodic table are
two four one
2 12 What is the nature of Na2O? basic weakly basic strongly basic
2 12 What is the nature of Al2O3? acidic basic amphoteric
2 12 What is the nature of SO2? basic strongly acidic weakly acidic
2 12 The fourth period contains elements 8 16 18
2 12 Al-Razi, Dobereiner, Newland and
Mendeleef contributed in the development of
the concept of
periodicity of
the properties
of the elements
law of triads law of octaves
2 12 The period table contains elements in
vertical column. These vertical column are
called
groups periods blocks
2 12 The horizontal rows in the Periodic Table are
called period. The number of periods
5 6 7
2 12 The number of elements in the first, second
and third period are
2,8,18 8,2,18 2,18,8
2 12 The IA elemetns are called alkaline earth
metal
alkali metals the halogens
2 12 Rare earth elements are s-block
elements
p-block
elements
d-block
elements
2 12 Transition elements have valence electrons
in
s-orbital p-orbital d-block
elements
2 12 The following elements are arranged as
metal, non-metal and metalliod
Na, Si, S Si, Na,S Na,S,Si
2 12 The atomic radius varies as shown increases in a
period from
left to right and
decreases
down a group
increases in a
period from
left to right and
down a group
decreases in a
period from
left to right and
increase down
a group
2 12 The first ionization energy of elemetns varies increases in
period and
group
increase in a
period and
decrease
down the group
decrease in
period and
group
2 12 which orbital is in a process of completion in
case of transition elements?
p-orbital f-orbital d-orbital-
2 12 Which is the longest period of the periodic
Table?
5th 7th 6th
2 12 The second and third period contain
elements
six five eight
2 12 The fourteen elements following lanthanum
are called
actinides lanthanides trans-uranic
elements
2 12 The amount of energy required to remove an
electron from an atom of an element in the
gaseous state is called
electron affinity electronegativit
y
ionization
energy
2 12 In a group, the ionization energy increases in
period and
group
decreases remains
constatn
2 12 In a period,melting points of elements increases in
period and
group
decreases remain
constant
2 12 The oxides of electronegative elements are basic neutralization
of strong acid
with strong
base
acidic
2 13 Which of the following statements is true
regarding boron?
Boron forms +
3 ion
Boron is
monovalent
Boron
compounds
are mostly ionic
2 13 Borax bead test is used to identify colored
basic radicals. Cobalt gives a colored bead
Blue Red Violet
2 13 In extraction of aluminum, Cryolite is used to Dissolve
bauxite
To help
reduction
To remove
impurities
2 13 Graphite is used in nuclear reactors as Lubricant Fuel Shield against
radiation
2 13 Aqua regia dissolves gold due to the
formation of
Nascent
oxygen
Nascent
chlorine
Nascent
hydrogen
2 13 White phosphorus on reaction with caustic
soda produces
Phosphorus
acid
Phosphine Phosphoric
acid
2 13 The most abundant element on earth is Oxygen Sulpur Silicon
2 13 Which one is not true regarding bleaching
powder?
it is a double
salt
it is oxidizing
agent
highly soluble
in water
2 13 A salt, which on reaction with conc. H2SO4,
gives colorless gas is
Iodide chloride Nitrite
2 13 Aluminum chloride fumes in moist air. This is
due to
oxidation hydrolysis dehydration
2 13 Which of the following metals is not
commercially produced by reducing the
metal oxide with coke?
Aluminum Iron Zinc
2 13 Which of the following elements of III group
has the highest first ionization potential
Boron Aluminum Gallium
2 13 Which of the following elements becomes
passive in fuming Nitric acid?
Ca B AI
2 13 Potash alum dissolves in water to give a/an Acidic solution Basic solution Neutral solution
2 13 Alumina is a/an Acidic oxide Basic oxide Neutral oxide
2 13 An aqueous solution of aluminum chloride is Acidic Basic Neutral
2 13 The alums contain any two metals one
monovalent
and one
trivalent metal
one bivalent
and one
trivalent metal
2 13 In graphite the adjacent layers of carbon
atoms are held together by
Covalent bonds Hydrogen
bonds
Vander waals
forces
2 13 Lead pencil contains Lead Lead sulphide Graphite
2 13 The stable form of phosphorus is White Red Yellow
2 13 Which one is more stable
thermodynamically?
diamond graphite both have
equal stability
2 13 Lead usually forms compounds in which its
ox. No is +2 rather than +4. it is because of
inert electron
pair effect
inert electron
pair of the P-
sub-shell
it has two
valence
electrons
2 13 Point out the metal used in Photo flash bulbs Zinc Tungsten Aluminium
2 13 Duralumin an alloy used for making
aeroplane frame is a mixture of aluminium
and
Nickel, Iran &
cobalt
Magnesium Manganese,
copper and
magnesium
2 13 Aluminium metal mixed with iron oxide is
used in
Electric welding Thermite
welding
Gas welding
2 13 In the production of Alminium Metal by the
Hall,s process which one of the following is
not used
Bauxite Electricity Cryolite
2 13 Alums are used in dye industry for
permanent dyeing. The process of
permanent dying is termed as:
Tarnishing Mordanting moderating
2 13 A sulphur molecule contains 2 atoms of
sulphur
4 atoms of
sulphur
8 atoms of
sulphur
2 13 The element carbon exists in its two
allotropic forms Diamond & Graphite.
Diamond has a refractive index of
1.4 4.2 2.4
2 13 The chemical name of Phosgene gas is Phosphonyl
Chloride
Carbonyl
Chloride
Carbon tetra-
chloride
2 13 The catalyst used in the contact tower for the
manufacture of sulphuric acid is easily
poisoned by
Nitrous oxide Carbon dioxide Arsenic oxide
2 13 Concentrated Sulphuric acid can act as a Reducing
agent
Dehydrating
agent
Hydrating
agent
2 13 Nitric acid is a very strong acid .The
statement means that
It is non-
electrolyte
It is weak
electrolyte
it is strong
electrolyte
2 13 Nitric acid can be obtained on an industrial
scale by the
Contact
process
Haber's
process
Ostwald's
process
2 13 The molecule of Oxygen has two unpaired
electrons. It is therefore.
Diamagnetic Paramagnetic Ferro magnetic
2 17 Which one of the following is organic
compound?
Calcium
cyanamide
Carbon
disulphide
Calcium
carbide
2 17 Which coal is having higher percentage of
Carbon, higher calorific value of lower
moisture contents among the following
Anthracite Bitumenous Lignite
2 17 There is no direct test for the detection of
one of the following in an organic compound
which is it?
C S N
2 17 Compounds having same empirical formula
but different molecular formula must have
the same
viscosity
the same
vapour density
different
molecular
weights
2 17 An Alkane forms isomers if the number of
carbon atoms is at least
4 3 2
2 17 The method of converting high boiling
hydrocarbons into low boiling hydrocarbons
is called
Polymerization Cracking Condensation
2 17 No lead gasoline with higher octane number
can be obtained by
Reforming
process
Cracking Hydrogenation
2 17 Which one has zero octane number? isooctane N-hexane N-heptane
2 17 TEL is used in petrol to increase octane
number. 1mL TEL per liter of petrol is
sufficient the scavenger used in this case is
TML Ethane Ethlenedibromi
de
2 17 Which one is condensation polymer? Polyethene Bakelite Both a and b
2 17 Alkenes are also called paraffins olefins napthenes
2 17 Kerosene oil is also called jet oil paraffin oil both a and b
2 17 If TEL is added to isooctane, octane number
will be
100 <100 >100
2 17 A molecular orbital is formed by the linear
combination of two atomic orbitals. A
molecular orbital must accommodate _
electrons
2 >2 <2
2 17 Which one of the following is alicylic
hydrocarbon?
Cyclohexane Benzene Isobutylene
2 17 Isomerism which is only found in alkenes? Metamerism Functional
group
isomerism
Position
isomerism
2 17 Who rejected the Vital Force Theory wholer fisher newton
2 17 Which of the following is not an organic
compound
ammonium
cyanate
glucose urea
2 17 The major portion of natural gas is ethane propane butane
2 17 Which is not the characteristic property of
organic compounds
they form long
chain
compounds
organic
cmpounds are
generally
covalent
compounds
they exist in
homologous
series
2 17 Fossil fuels are sources of organic
compounds. Which one is not fossil fuel
petroleum coal natural gas
2 17 The functional group isomer of dimethylether
is
ethyI alcohol propyI alcohol diethyl ether
2 17 Which is the chain isomer of n-pentane isopentana neopentene n-pentene
2 17 In ter-butly alcohol, the tertiary carbon is
bonded to
two hydrogen
atoms
three
hydrogen
atoms
one hydrogen
atom
2 17 The destructive distillation of coal gives three
products.what is not the product of
destructive distillation of coal
coal gas carbon dioxide coal tar
2 17 A double bond consists of two sigma
bonds
one sigma and
one pi bond
one sigma and
two pi bonds
2 17 The total coal resources of pakistan are
estimated to be
184 billion
tonnes
184 million
tonnes
1.84 billion
tounes
2 17 Ether shows the phenomenon of position
isomerism
chain
isomerism
metamerism
2 17 The fractions obtained from fractional
distillation of petroleum are placed in
increasing order of their boiling points.
Which order is corect
natural gas,
petroleum
ether,
gasoline,
kerosene
petroleum,
ether,
kerosene,
gasoline,
natural gas
gasoline,
kerosene,
natural gas,
petroleum
ether
2 17 Cracking is a process by which higher
hydrocabon are broken down into low boiling
hydrocabon. Which one is not generally a
procedure for cracking
thermal
cracking
cataiytic
cracking
stemcracking
2 17 The use of tetra ethyl lead in petrol as an
efficient antiknock agent is being
discouraged.which reason is correct
it is costly it damages the
engine
Pb is difficult
to obtain in
bulk quantities
2 17 Which one of the followings is a heterocyclic
compound
cyclohexanol phenol pyridine
2 17 As the number of carbon atoms increases
the number of isomers also incresase.the
6C compound hexane has as many as
3 isomers 5 isomers 6 isomers
2 17 The geometric isomerism is caused by the restricted
rotation of pi
bond
free rotation of
a pi bond
the presence
of similar
groups on a
carbon atom
2 17 The chemist who synthesized urea from
ammonium cyanate was
Bezelius Koibe Wholer
the study of compounds containing carbon
as an essential element is caleed
physical inorganic nuclear
2 18 Which one is not a hydrocarbon? Naphthalene Antheracene Chloroform
2 18 In methane all the bonds are Sigma Pi Single covalent
2 18 Alkenes usually undergo _____ reactions addition substitution elimination
2 18 Actually benzene has _____ double bonds 3 2 4
2 18 In benzene carbon-carbon bonds are Single covalent Double
covalent
Of the order
1.5
2 18 Double bond is ethane makes it Electrophilic Nucleophilic Acidic
2 18 Ethyl alcohol on ______ gives ethane Dehydrogenati
on
Hydration Dehydration
2 18 When H2SO4 is heated with excess of
ethanol at 140oC. The major product is
Alcohol Ether Ketone
2 18 Which one decolorizes Baeyers reagent and
bromine water?
Ethene Ethyne Both a and b
2 18 Metallic ethynides are formed by the reaction
of ______ with ammonial silver nitrate or
ammonial cuprous chloride
Ethene Acetylene Benzene
2 18 Pi electrons of benzene make it Electrophilic Nucleophilic Heterocyclic
2 18 The unexpected lower heat of hydrogenation
of benzene is due to
Delocalization
of electrons
Lower stability A and B
2 18 The <HCH angle in Ethene is 120 125 117
2 18 Which statement is true regarding reactivity? double bond is
stronger then
single bond
hence alkenes
are less
reactive then
alkanes
Alkenes do not
under go
addition
reactions
Alkenes
decolorize
bromine
solution and
Baeyers
reagents but
alkynes do not
2 21 Glucose forms a polymer, which is stored in
liver. The name of this polymer is
Glycogen Starch Cellulose
2 21 Starch gives _____ color with iodine blue red yellow
2 21 One gram of carbohydrate yields energy 4 kcal 9 kcal 10 kcal
2 21 An amino acid exists in the form of Zwitter-
ion which has
One +ve
charge
One ve
charge
One +ve and
one v charge
2 21 Keratomalacia is caused due to the
deficiency of vitamin
A B D
2 21 The fat soluble vitamins are A and B B and C C and D
2 21 Per hydro cyclopentano phenanthrene is the
basic structural of all the
proteins Vitamins Waxes
2 21 Iodine number of an oil indicates its Molecular
weight
Purity Degree of
unsaturation
2 21 Potency and turn over are terms related to Enzymes Proteins Fats
2 21 The optimum pH value for the enzyme
pepsin is
2 8 10
2 21 In the cyclic structure of glucose when the
position of atoms on carbon 1 is altered one
isomer changes to other. These isomers of
glucose are called
Matamars Position
isomers
Cis-trans
isomers
2 21 A maltose molecule is formed by the
combination of
Two glucose
molecules
One glucose
and one
fructose
molecule
Two fructose
molecules
2 21 Which one of the following reactions is NOT
given by formaldehyde
Reduction of
Fehling's
solution
Iodoform
reaction
Reduction of
Tollen's
Solution
2 21 isozymes are the enzymes which ______ have similar
chemical
properties
have similar
physical
properties
have different
physical and
chemical
properties
2 21 Deposition of cholesterol in arteries is
responsible for
heart attack diabetes hepatitis
2 21 Rancidification of fats and oils is due to Hydrolysis
reaction
Oxidation
reaction
A and b both
2 21 Which substances Do NOT react
immediately with bromine water ?
Phenol Benzene Ethane
2 21 Coenzymes are the species which increase
the activity of enzymes. They are chemically
Organic bases Organic acids Metal ions
2 21 Benedict solution gives a positive test with Fructose Glucose Starch
2 21 Enzymes that catalyse the transfer of groups
within the molecules are called
transferases isomerases ligases
2 21 Saponification is the hydrolysis of fats or oils
with an ____
acid alkali enzyme
2 21 Which one of the following organic acids is
made from methanol
Acetic acid Bothanic acid formic acid
2 21 Glucose is a _____ Ketohexose Aldohexose Monosaccharid
e
2 21 Oxidation of a secondary alcohol give Organic acid Ether Aldehyde
2 21 Sex harmones belong to a group of organic
compounds called
Heterocyclics Steroids Amino acids
2 21 Aniline is a derivative of Alkane Alkene Aromatic
hydrocarbon
2 21 An ester is prepared by a reaction of Two alcohols Carboxylic
acid and
alcohol
Ketone and
alcohol
2 21 Methyl butyrate has a smell of Apple Pineapple Banana
2 21 Malt sugar is converted into glucose by an
enzyme invertase present in yeast. The
process is known as
Dehydration Condensation Fermentation
2 21 which pair of substances is NOT suitable for
the direct preparation
Ethanol and
Acetic acid
Ethanol and
Acetyl Chloride
Ethanol and
Benzoic acid
2 1 Diameter of an atom is in the range of 0.2m 0.2mm 0.2nm
2 1 Mass spectrometer separates the isotopes
of an element in analyzer according to their
Charge Mass e/m
2 1 Formation of molecular ion is Homolysis Redox Heterolysis
2 1 The number of peaks obtained in mass
spectrometry shows
Charge of
isotope
Mass of
isotopes
Number of
isotopes
2 1 Which one is true about isotopes Same number
of neutrons
Same mass
number
Same physical
properties
2 1 Molecular mass of water (18g) means Mole Gram Mole Gram molecule
2 1 Which of the following ion formation is
always exothermic?
Uninegative Unipositive Dinegative
2 1 Which of the following statement is about
isotopes is correct?
Isotopes with
odd atomic
number are
abundant
Isotopes with
odd atomic
number and
even mass no
abundant
Isotopes with
even atomic
number and
even mass
number are
abundant.
2 1 The sample which is taken in vaporization
chamber is generally
Gas Liquid Volatile solid
2 1 Avogadros number may represent. Volume of
particles
number of
particles
Mass of
particles
2 1 The number of isotopes of elements with
even mass number and even atomic number
are.
280 300 154
2 1 . In the mass spectrometry, icons are
separated on the basis of
Charges only charges only mass to
charge ratio
2 1 Which of the following terms is not used for
ionic compound?
formula unit empirical
formula
molecular
formula
2 1 Which of the following terms is used for the
mass of chlorine 35.5?
relative atomic
mass
mass number atomic weight
2 1 Which one of the following has the minimum
number of isotopes?
oxygen carbon tin
2 1 Which one of the following is not the mono
isotopic element?
arsenic uranium iodine
2 1 The number of moles of CO2 which contains
16g of oxygen is
0.25 0.50 0.75
2 1 Which of the following statement is wrong
about isotopes?
they posses
different mass
number
they posses
same physical
properties
they posses
different
chemical
properties
2 1 . How many isotopes have even mass
numbers and even atomic number?
154 280 40
2 1 Qualitative analysis is carried out for identification
of elements
estimation of
elements
molar ratio of
elements
2 1 Percentage of calcium in calcium carbonate
is
80% 30% 40%
2 1 Combustion analysis is performed to
determine
empirical
formula
molecular
mass
molecular
formula
2 1 Mostly elements have fractional atomic
masses because of
mass of an
atom itself is in
fraction
atomic
masses are
average
masses of
isobars
atomic
masses are
average
masses of
isotopes
proportional to
their relative
abundant
2 1 Isotopes differ in properties
which depends
upon masses
arrangement
of electrons in
orbitals
chemical
properties
2 1 Which of the following is not a
macromolecular?
sand hemoglobin diamond
2 1 Which of the following methods is used to
estimate oxygen in an organic compound?
combustion
method
Dumas
method
Kheldahls
method
2 1 Isotopes of the same elements have different
numbers of
protons
same number
of neutrons
different
numbers of
neutrons
2 1 The nucleus of an atom always contains
neutrons
Contains
protons and
electrons
protons only
2 1 When cationic molecular ions are allowed to
pass through strong magnetic fields in mass
spectrometer, which of the following ions is
fallen first?
lighter intermediate heavier
2 1 When 0.5 mole of phosphoric acid is
dissolved in aqueous solution how many
moles of ve and +ve ions are collected
altogether?
0.50 1.00 1.50
2 1 Which statement is correct for the relative
atomic masses of elements?
many
elements have
atomic
masses in
whole numbers
many
elements have
fractional
atomic masses
many
elements have
same number
of isotopes
2 2 Which of the following techniques is used for
the separation of insoluble particles from
liquids?
Filtration crystallization solvent
extraction
2 2 of the following way in used for classification
of chromatography?
shape phase mechanism
2 2 Fluted filter paper is used to filter hot
solution
avoid
premature
crystallization
increase the
rate of filtration
2 2 Safe and the most reliable method of drying
crystals is through
filter paper desicator oven
2 2 A substance having high vapour pressure at
a temperature below their boiling point when
heated start
melting sublimation decomposition
2 2 A process controlled by distributive law crystallization sublimation solvent
extraction
2 2 A technique of partition chromatography in
which the solvent is in a pool at the bottom
of vessel
adsorption
chromatograph
y
ascending
chromatograph
y
radial
chromatograph
y
2 2 Different components of a mixture have
different Rf values due to
polar solvent is
used
combination of
solvent is used
their different
distribution
coefficient in
the solvent
2 2 Branch of chemistry that deals with the
complete qualitative and quantitative
analysis of a substance is
stoichio
chemistry
physical
chemistry
analytical
chemistry
2 2 Identification of the components of a sample
is
quantitative
analysis
qualitative
analysis
stoichiometery
2 2 estimation of amounts of different
components in a sample is
quantitative
analysis
qualitative
analysis
stoichiometery
2 2 the techniques used to separate insoluble
particles from liquid is
crystallization sublimation filtration
2 2 the solid which is left over the filter paper is
called
steel residue crystals
2 2 size of filter paper is selected according to
the amount of
solution precipitates water
2 2 crucible are made up of plastic fibre porcelain
2 2 rate of filtration can be increased by placing gooch crucible sintered
crucible
steel
2 2 sintered crucible is made up of plastic glass porcetain
2 2 the tip of tunnel should be along the breaker
to avoind
leakage splashing sampling
2 2 separation of a solid from it hot saturated
solution by cooling is called
vapourization solvent
extraction
filtration
2 2 in crystallization, if the solvent is inflammable
then direct healing is
needed avoided depends on
temperature
2 2 separation of a substance by dissolving it in
a solvent is called
filtration crystallization solvent
extraction
2 2 in solvent extraction ether is used to
separate products of organic
iodine water HCL
2 2 95% ethanol is called crystal diesel rectified spirit
2 2 Ration of the amount of solute in organic
and aqueous solvent is
distribution
non- efficient
distributive co-
efficient
distributive of
aqueous
2 2 Without suction pump, filtration is fast process slow process rapid process
2 2 Animal charcoal absorbs the colored impurities agents crystals
2 2 Direct conversion of solids into vapors is
called
solvents
extraction
sublimation crystallization
2 2 Crystallization does not involve heating sublimation cooling
2 2 Repeated extraction using small portions of
solvents is more
affective efficient rapid
2 2 Silica gel and alumina are used as mobile phase stationary
phase
mixed phase
2 2 shaking two immiscible liquids increases length of
contact
volume area of concept
2 2 the solvent or mixture of solvents used for
separation of compounds is
stationary
phase
mobile phase dynamic phase
2 2 to achieve a good separation, the liquids are
gently shaken to measure their area of
solubility contact miscibility
2 2 sintered glass is pores material used for absorption nutrition filtration
2 2 selection of filter paper depends on size of
particles to be
filtered rejected discolored
2 2 the solution remaining after the formation of
crystals is called
mother liquor crystal residue
2 3 Which of the following is not considered as
an intermolecular force between molecules?
covalent bonds hydrogen
bonds
hydrophobic
bonds
2 3 The weakest (in strength) of the following
intermolecular forces is
hydrogen
bonding
the typical
Vander walls
forces
between polar
molecules
2 3 Ideal gases have all the following
characteristics except
absence of
intermolecular
forces
non ideal
gasses may
exhibit ideal
behavior at
high pressure
and low
temperature
the molecules
occupy no
space
2 3 Which of the following statement is true
about plasma?
it may be the
first state of
matter
it is not a
phase
transition
it is a
conductor of
electricity
2 3 Under what conditions real gases deviate
from ideal behavior
high
temperature
low
temperature
high pressure
2 3 The introduction of Kelvin scale in
thermometry is according to
Boyles law Charles law Daltons law
2 3 0.5 mole of methane and 0.5 mole of
ammonia gas have equal
volume molecules mass
2 3 At constant temperature the pressure of an
ideal gas is doubled its density becomes
half double same
2 3 The diffusion of gases at absolute zero will
be
unchanged slightly
decreased
slightly
increased
2 3 Which is incorrect in case of ideal gases? all molecules
move with
same speed
behave
independently
PV/RT = n
2 3 Critical temperature for different gases is
different and depends upon
size of
molecule
shape of
molecule
intermolecular
attraction
2 3 In how many forms do matter exists? Three four five
2 3 What is the simplest form of matter? gas liquid solid
2 3 What is the abundant form of matter around
us?
gas liquid solid
2 3 Which state of matter has the lowest density? gas liquid solid
2 3 What do we call to sudden expansion of
plasma?
Avogadros law Grahams law
of diffusion
Joule
Thomson
effect
2 3 The solid particles only posses translational vibration rotational
2 3 If I/V is plotted on X- axis and pressure on Y-
axis at constant temperature what should
appear
hyperbola parabola straight line
2 3 The partial pressure exerted by the water
vapors is called
surface tension aqueous
tension
vapor pressure
2 3 The spreading of fragrance or scent in air is
due to
diffusion effusion attraction with
air
2 3 Thomas Graham was a French chemist English
chemist
Russian
chemist
2 3 The kinetic molecular theory of gases was
put forward in 1738 by
Boltzman Maxell Clausius
2 3 The highest temperature at which a
substance can exit as a liquid is called its
critical
temperature
standard
temperature
absoluter
temperature
2 3 The process of effusion and diffusion are
best understand by
Daltons law Avogadros law Grahams law
2 3 Who made volume and pressure correction
to explain deviation of gasses from ideal
behavior?
Clausius Boltzman Charles law
2 3 The non ideal behavior results chiefly from inter molecular
attraction and
infinite volume
elastic collision
and finite
volume
inter molecular
attractions and
finite volume
2 3 The real gases become non-ideal high
temperature
and high
pressure
low
temperature
and low
pressure
high
temperature
and low
pressure
2 3 Linds method is employed to separation of
gases
expansion of
gases
compression
of gases
2 4 As a substance moves from a solid to a
liquid, all of the following changes are occur
except
molecules
becomes
more
disordered
K.E of the
molecules
decreases
intermolecular
forces become
weaker
2 4 When the atoms of third layer are arranged
in such a way that they directly lie above the
atom of the first layer then this arrangement
is called
ABAB
(hexagonal)
ABCABC
(cubic)
Orthor Hombic
2 4 in order to mention the boiling point of water
at 110c0 the external pressure should be
between 760
torr and 1200
torr
between 200
torr and 760
torr
765 torr
2 4 Which one is false for evaporation? surface
phenomenon
continuous exothermic
2 4 Which one of the following does not show
hydrogen bonding?
water ethyl alcohol phenol
2 4 Liquid crystal is discovered by William crooks Fredrick
reinitzer
J.J Thomson
2 4 Which one is a conductor but non malleable? iron graphics silver
2 4 Hydrogen bonding involves in solubility detergent biological
molecules
2 4 Forces of attraction which may be present
between all kinds of atoms and molecules
are
intermolecular intermolecular Vander wall
2 4 The density of water may be equal to that of
ice
greater to that
of ice
less than that
of ice
2 4 The quantity of heat required to convert one
mole of liquid into its vapors at its boiling
point is called heat of
vaporization evaporation crystallization
2 4 Steam causes more severe burn than the
boiling water because it possesses
latent heat of
fusion
latent heat of
vaporization
latent heat of
sublimation
2 4 The conversation of vapors back into their
liquid state is called
crystallization evaporation vaporization
2 4 Formation of vapors from the surface of a
liquid is called
vaporization evaporation condensation
2 4 When water freezes at 00C its density
decreases due to
change of
bond angles
cubic structure
of ice
empty space
present in the
structure of ice
2 4 The attractive forces between the partial
positive end of one molecule and partial
negative end of other molecule are called
dipole-dipole
forces
ion dipole-
dipole forces
London
dispersion
forces
2 4 The boiling point increases down the zero
group elements due to
ion dipole
forces
London forces hydrogen
bonding
2 4 Vapor pressure is not affected by surface area temperature intermolecular
force
2 4 Rising of a wetting liquid in a capillary tube is
due to
surface tension cohesive
forces
adhesive
forces
2 4 a substance having strong cohesive forces
forms meniscus
concave convex first concave
then convex
2 4 Kerosene oil is used to kill mosquitoes
because it has surface tension
very strong very weak zero
2 4 During which process empty spaces
between particles become minimum?
ionization condensation sublimation
2 4 Liquid gets the shape of the container when
it is poured into it. Which one of the following
reason justifies it?
liquid has not
definite shape
Liquid has not
definite volume
liquid is highly
compressible
2 4 If we provide very high amount of heat to a
liquid its boiling point will
increase remains
constant
decrease
2 4 a solid may be made up of atoms ions molecules
2 4 A malleable solid is one which can be converted into
wires
converted into
thin sheets
melted easily
2 4 Amorphous substances possess definite heat of
fusion
no definite
heat of fusion
sharp melting
point
2 4 Crystalline solids can be identified easily
from their
sharp melting
point
definite
geometry
transition
temperature
2 4 Boiling points of hydrocarbons increase with
the increase in number of carbon atoms. It is
mainly due to
more strength
of H-bonding
More strength
of London
force
less
polarization
2 4 Viscosity of solids is infinite negligible medium
2 4 The phenomenon in which a single
substance exists in two or more crystalline
forms is called
isomorphism polymorphism anisotropy
2 4 Which solids are called true solids? metallic amorphous crystalline
2 4 bucky balls is an allotropic form of sulphur carbon silica
2 4 Which one of the following is isotropic? graphite mercury borax
2 4 Isomorphs substance has same physical
and chemical
properties
same physical
and different
chemical
properties
different
physical and
same
chemical
properties
2 4 if a physical and chemical change take place
at a constant pressure, then the heat change
during the process is called
heat of
transition
heat of fusion enthalpy
change
2 4 The pressure during the molar heat of fusion
is kept
0 atmosphere 1 atmosphere 2atmosphere
2 4 _________ is the amount of heat absorbed
when one mole of a liquid is changed into
vapors at its boiling point.
molar heat of
sublimation
molar heat of
fusion
molar heat of
vaporization
2 4 All the enthalpy changes are negative positive may or may not
2 5 All of the following were theorized by Bohr n
his description of the atom except
Angular
momentum of
electrons in
multiples of
h/2
Electrons
circulate in
discrete
circular orbits
Energy of
each electron
is inversely
proportional to
n2
2 5 The letters s,p,d and f are used to represent
which quantum numbers
angular
momentum (l)
principal (n) Magnetic (ml)
2 5 The magnetic quantum number (QN) has its
values limited directly by the value of
principal (QN) angular (QN) spin (QN)
2 5 When an atom emits energy of light bonds in
the spectrum will appear which are
brighter darker colorless
2 5 the maximum number of electron in a sub
shell with l=3 is
6 10 14
2 5 When an atom absorb energy the bands in
the spectrum will appear which are
brighter darker colorless
2 5 Color of fluorescence produced by cathode
rays depends upon
temperature pressure volume
2 5 Positive rays are produced by burning of
gas
by cooling of
gas
by ionization of
the gas
2 5 Ruther fords planet like structure was
defective and unsatisfactory because
Moving
accelerate
toward the
nucleus
continuous
spectrum
remain
unexplained
2 5 The relationship between energy of a photon
of light and its frequency is given by
de-Broglie
dual nature of
matter
Bohrs model Planks
quantum theory
2 5 Splitting of spectral lines when atom is
subjected to magnetic field is called
Zeemans
effect
Starks effect Photo electric
effect
2 5 the velocity of the photon is independent
of wavelength
depends upon
source
depends upon
its frequency
2 5 Which one of the following explain the shape
of orbitals?
principals of
quantum
number
azimuthal
quantum
number
magnetic
quantum
number
2 5 Atom can not be divided into simple units
called by
Ruther ford Dalton Bohar
2 5 Pressure in gas discharge tube was kept 10 torr 1 torr 0.1 torr
2 5 Florescence is product due to electric current gas molecules anode
2 5 Angle of deflection was studied by Hitorff Stony Thomson
2 5 Positive rays produced in discharge tube
due to
electricity gas molecules anode
2 5 Free neutrons changes into proton with the
emission of
energy positron electron
2 5 Charge of electron was measured by J.J Thomson Millikan Rutherford
2 5 Rutherford bombarded______ particles in
discovery of nucleus
Gamma rays alpha rays beta rays
2 5 Planks theory says energy is emitted in continuous
manner
Discontinuous
manner
simultaneously
2 5 Deflection of blue light is lesser than violet
because
blue has more
energy
blue has
higher
wavelength
blue is
absorbed
more easily
2 5 Spectrum containing large dark space than
color is called
continuous
spectrum
line spectrum emission
spectrum
2 5 Pfund series are produced in the spectrum
of hydrogen atom
when
electrons jump
to 2-orbits
when
electrons jump
to 3-orbits
when
electrons jump
to 5-orbits
2 5 Atomic orbitls having same energy are called degenerate
orbitals
generate
orbitals
an effect zeem
2 5 Summerfleds modification in Bohrs model is orbit is
cylindrical
orbit is elliptical an effect zeem
2 5 When electrons collide with heavy metals,
then ______ are produced
beta rays alpha rays X- rays
2 5 Atom with higher atomic number produces X-
rays of
shorter
wavelength
larger
wavelength
X-ray not
produced
2 5 Wavelength of electron was verified by Moseley Davison and
Germer
Einstein
2 5 Space around nucleus where finding of
electrons is maximum is
orbital orbit subshell
2 5 Quantum no. tell the energy of electron n l m
2 5 ____________ can expel protons from
paraffins
electron positron neutron
2 5 Millikan used _________ in his atomizer milk honey oil
2 5 Centrifugal forces are balanced in atom by attractive
forces
repulsive
forces
electrons
2 5 Spectrum is produced due to different
wavelength
different color different
intensities
2 5 Light can produce absorption spectrum
when it is pass through
chloroform chlorophyll chromoplast
2 5 When electron jump into orbit, then series
obtained is
lyman paschen pfund
2 5 When neutrons move with an energy 1.2
MeV, called
fast slow moderate
2 5 Zee man effect is produced when degeneracy
breakdown
degeneracy
upgraded
no effect of
degeneracy
2 5 Three quantum no. have been derived from
equation of
de- Broglie planks Schrodinger
2 6 The relative attraction of the nucleus for the
electrons in a chemical bond is called
ionization
energy
electron affinity electron
negativity
2 6 The ionization energy generally
increases from
left to right in a
period
does not
change in a
period
increase from
top to bottom
in a group
2 6 Fluorine (F) has an atomic number (AN) -9
and Chlorine (Cl) has an atomic number-17.
which one ha the higher electron affinity?
both are equal Cl F
2 6 octet rule does not always hold for which of
the following elements?
C O F
2 6 Which of the solids does not contain
Covalent bond
Copper Ice Diamond
2 6 Shielding effect across the period increases decreases constant
2 6 Which one is not the absolute term of the
element?
ionization
energy
electron affinity electron
negativity
2 6 Molecular orbitals are filled according to Auf bau
principle
Hunds rule paulis
exclusion
principle
2 6 Measurement of the degree of polarity is electron affinity ionic character ionization
energy
2 6 Bond is formed because and atom tries to loose
its electrons
tries to gain
electrons
tries to
complete its
outer most
shell
2 6 _______________ have their outer most
shell complete in atomic form.
noble gas alkali metals coinage metals
2 6 Force responsible to hold atoms together in
a compound is called
bond attractive force interaction
2 6 Energy of atom in compound is higher than
individual
lesser than
individual
no change
2 6 in a period, the atomic radii increases decreases remain same
2 6 An atom loses or gain electrons because of stability to form bond to complete its
shell
2 6 In a group ionic radii increases decreases no change
2 6 Energy required removing electron from an
atom
I.P E.N E.A
2 6 I.P energy in period generally increases decreases no change
2 6 Greater shielding effect corresponding to I.P
value
greater lesser remain same
2 6 Elements having high I.P values are metals non metals liquids
2 6 Energy release or absorbed when electrons
are added in atom is
I.P E.N E.A
2 6 In a period, E.N from LR increases decreases remain
constant
2 6 Ionic bond is produced after complete
transfer of
nucleus neutrons electrons
2 6 Elements of group IA, IIA are electro
negativity
electro
positivity
neutral
2 6 Bond will be ionic when E.N difference of
bonded atom is
Equal to 1.7 Greater to 1.7 lesser to 1.7
2 6 Mostly ionic compounds are produced in
between elements of
IA and VIA IA, IIA and VIIA IB and VIIB
2 6 The lewis acids are electron
deficient
electron rich octet is
complete
2 6 Sharing of electron pair by one specie is
called
single covalent
bond
hydrogen bond double
covalent bond
2 6 The geometry of ammonia is 104.9` 104.9 109.5
2 6 The geometry of ammonia is tetrahedral square planner T-shaped
2 6 Orbital of same energy produced after
mixing of orbitals of different energy called
degenerate
orbital
generate orbital hybrid orbital
2 6 By combining n atomic orbitals, no. of
hybrid orbitals will be
2n n 3n
2 6 Geometry of simple molecule having sp3
hybrid orbital is
triangular tetrahedra square planner
2 6 Geometry of molecule will be pyramidal,
when no. of electrons in outer most shell of
central atom is
3 bond pair,
one lone pair
2 bond pair, 2
lone pair
1 bond pair, 3
lone pair
2 6 Pi bonds are produced by overlapping of unhybridized
orbital
hybrid orbital hybrid and un
hybrid orbital
2 6 According to VESPR model, the geometry
of molecule having 5 bond pair in outer most
shell will be
triangular square planner trigonal bi
pyramidal
2 6 Molecular orbital, which have higher energy
than atomic orbitals is called
bonding
molecular
orbitals
anti bonding
molecular
orbital
hybrid orbital
2 6 Unpair electrons in a molecular give
_________ character
ferromagnetis
m
paramegnetism diamagnetism
2 6 Product of charge and distance is called pressure bond length work
2 6 Unit of dipole moment is debye poise pascal
2 7 Which one is not a state function? internal energy enthalpy gibbs free
energy
2 7 If internal energy of the system is increased. change in
state of the
system is
increased
temperature of
the system
may rise
chemical
reaction can
take place
2 7 ___________ is study about energy of a
chemical system
thermochemist
ry
thermo
dynamics
kinetics
2 7 The environment in which a system is
studied is
state function phase surrounding
2 7 Unit of heat in SI system is KJ Kcal Cal
2 7 Any thing which depends upon initial and
final state of a system is
environment surrounding state function
2 7 Total energy of a system is P.E + K.E P.E + heat
energy
K.E + heat
energy
2 7 Reaction in which heat evolves is called endothermic spontaneous non-
spontaneous
2 7 Pumping of water uphill is spontaneous
process
non-
spontaneous
process
irreversible
process
2 7 State function the microscopic property of
system depends upon
path of reaction initial state final state
2 7 Which one of the following in not a state
function
pressure temperature heat
2 7 When enthalpy of reactants is higher than
products, then reaction will be
endothermic spontaneous non-
spontaneous
2 7 Enthalpy of a reaction can be measured by glass
calorimeter
bomb
calorimeter
thermometer
2 7 Enthalpy of combustion for food, fuel and
other compounds can be measured by
glass
calorimeter
bomb
calorimeter
thermometer
2 7 The lattice energy of NaCl is -787Kj/mole 787Kj/mole 780Kj/mole
2 7 Most of thermodynamics parameters are system surrounding phase
2 7 Two fundamental ways to transfer energy are pressure and
temperature
pressure and
volume
heat and
volume
2 7 The initial condition of a system is called initial state final state surrounding
2 7 In measurement of melting point of a liquid,
the beaker used will be
surrounding state phase
2 8 Kc value has no units has units both a & b
2 8 If a buffer solution of higher pH than seven is
to be made we use
strong acid
and strong
base
weak acid and
strong base
weak acid and
its salt with
strong base
2 8 Sodium benzoate and benzoic acid of
equimolar mixed to form buffer if pKa is 2
what will be the pH?
0 1 2
2 8 Which of the following will not change the
concentration of ammonia at the equilibrium
increase of
pressure
increase of
volume
addition of
catalyst
2 8 Why is hydroxide ion a strong base in water
solution?
OH- is the only
base
. OH- is the
conjugate
base of water
all bases react
with water to
produce OH-
ions
2 8 Reaction which proceeds in both directions
is called
reversible irreversible spontaneous
2 8 Chemical equilibrium state is dynamic state static state free state
2 8 Conversion of reactant into product in unit
time is called
rate of forward
reaction
rate of
backward
reaction
rate of constant
2 8 At start of reaction the concentration of
reactants is
on higher side on lower side on optimum
side
2 8 By the addition of base in water, pH will be more than 7 less than equal to 7
2 8 Idea of pH and pOH was put forward by Gibbs Einstein Sorenson
2 8 Negative log of molar concentration of H+
ions is called
pH pOH acidity of
compound
2 8 Any substance which accepts H+ is base
favor the concept
Lowrys Lewis Arhenius
2 8 Conjugate base of a weak acid is weak base strong base do not ionize
2 8 The solubility constant when sparingly
soluble salt is in equilibrium with molar
concentration of its oppositely charged ion is
called
common ion
effect
solubility ion
effect
dissociation
constant
2 8 Solution whose pH con not change called buffer solution normal solution standard
solution
2 8 The pH of human blood is 7.00 7.35 7.50
2 8 By decreasing the pressure, the reaction will
go to that direction where
volume
decrease
volume
increases
heat absorbed
2 8 By addition of ______, equilibrium state is
achieved quickly.
reactants acid base
2 8 The pH of milk is 6.50 6.00 6.20
2 9 Which of the following unit of concentration
is independent of temperature?
molarity molality normality
2 9 Which of the following is an example of
liquid solute gas solvent?
opals dust particles
in smoke
paints
2 9 The molal boiling point constant is the ration
of the elevation in boiling point to
molarity molality mole fraction
of solvent
2 9 Which of the following are the conditions of
colligative properties?
solute non
electrolyte
volatile solute dilute solution
2 9 Which has minimum freezing point? One molal
NaCl
one molal Kcl
solution
One molal
Cacl2
2 9 Which of the following is not a collgative
property?
lowering of
vapor pressure
freezing point osmotic
pressure
2 9 When common salt is dissolved in water? B.P of water
decrease
B.P of water
increase
B.P of water
remains same
2 9 Every sample of matter with uniform
properties and fixed composition is called
solute solvent solution
2 9 Homogenous mixture of two or more than
two compounds is called
solution compound radical
2 9 Smaller components in a solution is called solvent solute phase
2 9 Solution with maximum concentration of
solute at given temperature is called
good solution unsaturated
solution
saturated
solution
2 9 Number of moles in 1Kg of solvent is called normality molality molarity
2 9 In partially miscible liquid the two layers are saturated
solutions of
each liquid
unsaturated
solutions of
each liquid
normal
solution of
each liquid
2 9 The volume of solution equal to sum of
volumes of all components
ideal solution non ideal
solution
saturated
solution
2 9 The relative lowering of vapor pressure is
equal to the
volume of
solvent
volume of
solute
mole fraction
of solute
2 9 The solution which does not boil on a
particular temperature
ideal solution zeotropic
solution
azeotropic
solution
2 9 Mixtures which boil at constant temperature
and distill over without change in
composition called
zeotropic
mixture
azeotropic
mixture
ampheoteric
solution
2 9 Concentration of solute molecule when they
are in equilibrium with sold substances at
particular temperature is called
saturated
solution
solubility Unsaturated
solution
2 9 Presence of Nacl in ice lowers the
melting point
of ice
increase the
melting point
of ice
no charge
2 9 Boiling point elevations can be measured by calorimeter Landsbergers
method
saccharimeter
2 9 Bechmans apparatus is used to measure B.P of
elevation
depression of
F.P
temperature
2 9 Water molecules surrounds more around +ve ion complex ion -ve ion
2 9 The compound in which water molecules are
added are called
complex double salt hydrates
2 9 Hydration is a process in which water
molecules is
added
water
molecule is
added by H-O
bond
breakage of O-
H bond
2 9 PPm means parts of solute
in 1000 parts
of solvent
parts of
solvent in
1000 parts of
solute
parts of solute
in one million
parts of solvent
2 9 Water of crystallization can be removed by drying heating crystallization
2 9 Solution containing relative smaller amount
of solute molecules called
concentrated
solution
dilute solution saturated
solution
2 10 Which of the following element act as inert
electrode?
Cu Ag Pt
2 10 Stronger the oxidizing agent, greater is the oxidation
potential
reduction
potential
Redox potential
2 10 Which has max oxidation number? N Cr S
2 10 Which of the following cell is not
rechargeable?
lead storage
battery
silver oxide cell fuel cell
2 10 In an electrolytic cell current flows? from cathode
to anode in
outer circuit
from anode to
cathode
outside the cell
from cathode
to anode
inside the cell
2 10 A galvanic cell chemical
energy is
converted into
electricity
chemical
energy is
converted into
heat
electrical
energy is
converted into
chemical
energy
2 10 The degree of dissociation of week
electrolyte increases as
pressure
increases
dilution
decreases
dilution
increases
2 10 Molten Nacl conducts electricity due to the
presence of
free electrons free molecules free ions
2 10 Electricity in voltaic cell is produced due to neutralization oxidation reduction
2 10 In electrolytic solution conductance of
electricity is due to
free electrons ions metals
2 10 In electrolytic cell, electricity is carried out by spontaneous
reaction
non
spontaneous
reaction
neutralization
2 10 Reaction at anode is called oxidation reduction redox
2 10 cathode provides electrons to +ve ion -ve ions neutral atom
2 10 In electrolytic cell electrons flow from anode
to cathode through
electric circuit salt bridge movement of
ions
2 10 Decrease in oxidation no. is called oxidation reduction oxidation-
reduction
2 10 Right half cell contains
____________________ electrode
Al Zn Cu
2 10 Salt bridge transfer electrons anion current
2 10 Voltaic cell can be recharged by by addition of
fresh solution
by replacing
external circuit
with external
source of
electricity
by removal of
solution
2 10 E of an element can be calculated by
comparing it with
new electrode
of same
element
SHE 1 M solution of
element
2 10 Potential of SHE is considered as Zero unity constant
2 10 Potential of Zn is called Oxidation reduction oxidation-
reduction
2 10 List of elements based on hydrogen scale is
called
periodic table groups periods
2 10 Anode electrode based on hydrogen scale is
called
higher lower in middles
2 10 Li, Na acts as anode as their position is in
electrochemical series is
higher lower in middle
2 10 Greater value of standard electrode potential
greater will be tendency
oxidation reduction to accept
electrons
2 10 Greater value of standard reduction potential
smaller will tendency
to form
positive ions
to form
negative ions
to remain
unchanged
2 10 Secondary battery is rechargeable unchangeable electrolytic cell
2 10 lead accumulators are secondary
battery
primary battery Daniel battery
2 10 Capacity of one lead accumulator cell is 1.5 volts 2 volts 3 volts
2 10 the strength of solution of an element whose
electrode potential is to be measured is
2M 1N 1m
2 10 Apparent charge on atom in molecule is valency coordination no oxidation no.
2 10 Voltaic cell is a irreversible cell reversible cell alkaline cell
2 10 % of sulphuric acid in leas accumulator is 40% 25% 30%
2 10 The reduction potential of Zn is 0.76 -0.76 -0.55
2 10 The half cell are intermolecular through wire salt bridge electric circuit
2 12 Elements in the same vertical group of the
periodic table have same
number of
electrons
atomic number atomic volume
2 12 An element having I.E and low E.A is likely
to belong to
group IA group IB group VIIA
2 12 Which of the following always increase on
going from top to bottom in a group?
Metallic
character
electro
negativity
oxidizing
behavior
2 12 Which of the p-block elements are not
representative elements?
alkali metals group 14
elements
group 18
elements
2 12 Among halogens the highest boiling point is
of
fluorine chlorine bromine
2 12 Which of the following elements has the
highest boiling point?
He Ne Ar
2 12 Which statement is incorrect? all the metals
are good
conductor of
electricity
all the metals
are good
conductor of
heat
all the metals
form positive
ions
2 12 Periodic table provides a basic framework to
study elements with respect to their
physical
properties
chemical
properties
properties of
their
compounds
2 12 The scientist who did not contribute in the
construction of periodic table?
Al-Razi Mosley Dobereiner
2 12 Concept of triads was introduced by Dobereiner New land Mendeleev
2 12 Which element was not known when
Mendeleev proposed his classification?
hydrogen sodium copper
2 12 Elements with similar chemical properties
appear in the
same family same period both a and b
2 12 Noble gases are named so because they are inert zero group
elements
having
completely
filled valence
shell
2 12 In modern periodic table all the elements are
arranged in ascending order of
valency atomic mass atomic number
2 12 Inner transition elements are called lanthanides actinides rare earth
metals
2 12 Seventh period contains
-------------_____________ normal elements
2 4 6
2 12 Modern periodic table has been divided in
--------------______________ blocks
2 4 8
2 12 Metals form ____________ oxides usually acidic basic both a & b
2 12 Amphoteric oxides are those which possess
______________ properties
acidic basic both a & b
2 12 Best position of hydrogen in the periodic
table is above I.A group which is mainly due
to
both are
electro positive
similar
electronic
configuration
both are not
found in free
state
2 12 Hydrogen resembles with Carbon because
of having
same number
of electrons in
the valence
shell
similar
physical state
remarkable
reducing
properties
2 12 Which one of the following sets consists of
all coinage metals?
Cu, Hg, Au Cu, Ag, Au Ag, Au, Hg
2 12 In which of the following pair are elements
belonging to the same group?
boron and
beryllium
nitrogen and
phosphorous
magnesium
and aluminum
2 12 Many properties of an element and its
compounds can be predicted from the
position of an element in the periodic table.
when property could not be predicted in this
way?
the acidic or
basic and
nature of its
oxides
the charge on
its ions
the formula of
its oxides
2 12 Which one of the following is not a periodic
property?
melting point
of elements
boiling point of
elements
ionization
energy of
elements
2 12 The atomic radii decrease by increasing
atomic number in
alkali metal alkaline earth
meta
elements from
Li to Ne
2 12 Which discovery caused a revision in the
periodic law as stated by Mendeleev's
location of
nucleus by
Ruther ford
atomic number
by Mosley
X-rays by
Roentgen
2 12 The property which increases up to the
middle of the period and then decreases is
ionization
energy
atomic radii melting and
boiling points
2 12 The atoms of same elements having same
atomic number but different mass number
are called
isobars isomers isotopes
2 12 Deuterium reacts with oxygen to form hard water heavy water soft water
2 12 Elements with greater number of electrons
have __________ values of ionization energy
only one more than one equal to
atomic no.
2 12 Ionization energy depends upon nuclear charge atomic size shielding effect
2 12 Shielding effect across the period increases decreases can not be
predicted
2 12 Addition of 2nd electron to a uni negative ion
is always
exothermic endothermic a or b
2 12 Higher value of electron affinity means atom will lose
electron easily
atom will gain
electron easily
atom may
form di-
positive ion
2 12 Metallic characters of alkali metals increases
down the group
decrease
down the group
no regular
trend
2 12 Melting points of VII-A group ___________
down the group
increase decrease remains
constant
2 12 Oxidation state of an atom represents no. of
electrons
gained
no. of
electrons lost
no. of
electrons
gained or lost
2 12 Halides in which halogen atoms act as a
bridge between two atoms of the other
elements are called
covalent
halides
electronegative
halides
polymeric
halides
2 12 Less electronegative elements such as Be,
Ga, Al etc form
polymeric
halides
covalent
halides
ionic halides
2 12 Ionic is solid due to strong
covalent
character
strong dipole
moment
high
polarization
2 13 Alkali metals are named so because their oxides
are basic
their oxides
and
hydroxides are
water soluble
both a & b
2 13 The word alkali means base basic salt ashes
2 13 The oxides of Be are acidic basic amphoteric
2 13 Which element is present in excess in
skeletal material?
Si Ba Mg
2 13 Li is different from its family members due to small size high charge
density
less electro
positivity
2 13 Carbonates of lithium are not stable like that
of sodium due to
low electro
negativity
low
electropositivity
low charge
density
2 13 Nitrates of which element give same
products?
Li, Na, K Li, Mg, Ca Li, Na, Be
2 13 Which one of the following is not an alkali
metal?
francium caesium rubidium
2 13 Which of the following sulphate is not
soluble in water?
sodium
sulphate
potassium
sulphate
zinc sulphate
2 13 The element cesium bears resemblance with Ca Cr both of the
above
2 13 Downs cell is used to prepare sodium
carbonate
sodium
bicarbonate
sodium metal
2 13 Which one of the following substances
conducts electricity by the movement of ions?
graphite copper molten sodium
chloride
2 13 The deliquescence is a process in which a
solid
absorbs
moisture and
remains solid
absorbs
moisture and
turns to liquid
form
loses water of
crystallization
2 13 In diaphragm cell, level of brine in anode
compartment is kept slightly higher which
prevents
hydroxide ions
to reach anode
chlorine gas to
mix
anode to decay
2 13 Gypsum si applied to the soil as a source of Ca S Ca & S
2 13 Alkali and alkaline earth metals impart colors
when heated over burner. It is due to
smaller electro
negativity of
alkali metals
smaller ionic
radius of these
metals
De- excitation
of electrons
from higher
energy levels
to low energy
levels
2 13 First ionization potential of alkaline earth
metal is greater than alkali metal because
they are more
reactive
they have
greater atomic
radii
they have
smaller atomic
sizes
2 13 Which one of the following pairs shows
diagonal relationship in the periodic table?
sodium and
lithium
lithium and
magnesium
lithium and
beryllium
2 13 NaOH is named as caustic soda because it corrodes the
organic tissues
it is used in
soda water
it reacts with
chlorine gas
2 13 Sodium is not observed in +2 oxidation state
because of its
high first
ionization
potential
high second
ionization
potential
high ionic
radius
2 13 The oxides of beryllium are acidic basic amphoteric
2 13 Electrolysis of dilute solution of NaCl results
at the cathode
sodium hydrogen chlorine
2 13 Second ionization potential of alkali metal
are very high due to
these are s-
block elements
inert gas
configurations
ns electronic
configurations
2 14 Boron is no metal whereas Al is metal, it is
due to
small size high nuclear
charge
both a and b
2 14 Boron in soil has been considered essential
specially for
soil porosity proper growth
of plants
alkalinity of soil
2 14 One of the outstanding features of boron is
its ability to form
molecular
addition
compounds
molecular
crystals
semiconductor
s
2 14 Substances which is found in dried up lakes
of Tibet and California is
Tincal Boric Acid Calcium
carbonate
2 14 Borax is a white crystalline solid and it is more soluble
in cold water
more soluble
in hot water
not soluble in
water
2 14 Which of the following does not gives Borax
bead test?
Cu Cr Ni
2 14 Special features of borate glass is that it is heat resistant low melting used to
prepare
chemical
garden
2 14 The metal which is used in thermite process
because of its activity, is
iron copper aluminum
2 14 Aluminum oxide is acidic oxide basic oxide amphoteric
oxide
2 14 Which of the following shows inert pair
effect?
boron carbon silicon
2 14 Tincal is a mineral of Al Si B
2 14 Which one of the following is not a
semiconductor?
Si Ge Se
2 14 The process of aluminum extraction is called Hall process thermite
process
Haber process
2 14 Because of its ability to combine with both
oxygen and nitrogen, aluminum metal is used
as nitrometer to remove air
bubbles from
molten metal
to produce
alloy
2 14 Which of the following is not a use of silicon? Lubricants hydraulic
brakes
antifreeze
2 14 Boron is no metal while other elements of
IIIA group are metals. This is because
it has small
size
it has high
nuclear charge
it forms
molecular
addition
compounds
2 14 The colored glassy mass in borax bead test
is due to the formation of
metal borate metal meta
borate
metal boride
2 15 Which of the following is different with
respect to physical appearance?
arsenic phosphorous antimony
2 15 Which of the following possesses melting
point below 0c0
nitrogen phosphorous carbon
2 15 Compounds of nitrogen and phosphorus are
mostly
ionic Covalent Polar
2 15 The most electro negative element among
the following is
Sb N As
2 15 Which one of the following is not a property
of quartz?
colored solid brittle hard
2 15 Phosphorous is a Greek word and it means light bearing fire impure
2 15 Which of the following does not contain
phosphorous?
yolk of egg bone nerves
2 15 Allotropic form of phosphorous that is
poisonous is
white red balck
2 15 Which one of the following in not the use of
Graphite?
lead pencil abrasive lubricants
2 15 Which of the following element can follow
extended octet rule?
P C B
2 15 Phosphorous acid upon thermal
decomposition yields phosphoric acid and
phosphine phosphorous water
2 15 The element of group VIA which is non
metal is
S Se Te
2 15 Phosphorous acid is a weak acid and its
basicity is
1 3 zero
2 15 All the elements in group VIA are hygroscopic metals polymeric
2 15 Which of the elements show passivity when
treated with con. HNO3
Fe Al Cr
2 15 Which allotropic form of phosphorous is the
most stable?
white black red
2 15 The chemical composition of cinnabar is Zn S Pb S Hg S
2 16 In the halogens the element which is found
rarely is
fluorine chlorine astatine
2 16 The progressive deepening of color from F2
to I2 is due to
valence
electron
atomic number molecular
mass
2 16 Which of the following statement is incorrect
about fluorine?
restriction of
fluorine is to
follow octetrule
high first
ionization
energy and
electro
negativity
low
dissociation
energy of
fluorine
2 16 Which one of the following is the weaker
acid in water?
HF Hcl HBR
2 16 The halogens, which reacts very slowly with
halogens is
2 16 The halogen which occurs naturally in
positive oxidation state is
2 16 Bromine can be liberated from KBr solution
by the action of
iodion solution chlorine NaCl
2 16 Bleaching powder is an example of normal salt double salt mixed salt
2 16 Which of the halogen has highest bond
energy?
2 16 Which of the halogen can displace other
three elements?
fluorine chlorine iodine
2 16 Which of the following statement is incorrect
about halogens?
all are non
metals
all the
halogens have
electronic
configuration
ns2p5
they have high
electron
affinity and
ionization
energy
2 16 The halogen which reacts with Kr, Xe, or Rn
is
iodine bromine chlorine
2 16 Bleaching powder is not used for bleaching cotton costly fabrics lines
2 17 Co- ordination number of (Pt Cl No2
(NH3)4)2-
2 6 4
2 17 The co ordination number in tetra ammine
chloro nitro platinum IV sulphate is
2 4 6
2 17 Group VIB of transition elements contains Zn, Cd, Hg Fe, Ru, Os Cr, Mo, W
2 17 The elements in which d and f orbitals are in
the process of completion are
alkali metal alkaline metals halogens
2 17 The location of transition elements is in
between
lanthanides
and actinides
s and p block
elements
chalocogens
and halogens
2 17 The behavior of melting point and boiling
point upto middle of series
increase decrease remains same
2 17 Radii of transition elements decreases rapidly at end at middle at start
2 17 Compounds attracted by applied magnetic
fields are called
diamagnetic paramagnetic good conductor
2 17 Transition elements usually shows paramagnetism diamagnetism ferromagnetis
m
2 17 Transition elements shows ___________
oxidation state
variable constant single
2 17 When light is exposed to transition element,
when electrons jumps from lower orbitals to
higher orbitals in
f- orbitals s- orbitals p- orbitals
2 17 Non- stoichiometric compounds are called hydrates hydrides binary
compounds
2 17 When a compound of transition elements is
dissolved in a solution then it produces
simple ions complex ions double salts
2 17 The specie which donates electrons to
central metal atom in co ordination sphere is
called
anion cation ligand
2 17 The compounds which donate two electrons
pairs in a compounds is called
lignad monodentate
lignad
polydentate
lignad
2 17 Following ion is a bidentate ligand? ammonia oxalatae carbonyl
2 17 The central atom along with ligands is called complex ion coordinate
sphere
ligand
2 17 The ligand which has a ring in its structure
when it combines with central metal is called
polydentate
ligand
chelate monodentate
ligand
2 17 In complex compounds the oxidation
number is written in
English Greek roman numeral
2 17 Geometry of complex compounds depends
upon
no. of ligands no. of chelates hybridization
of central metal
2 17 In production of wrought iron, Mg, Si and P
are removed in the form of
oxides silicates slag
2 17 Bessemers converter furnace is used in open hearth
furnace
Downs method Bessemers
process
2 17 Any process of chemical decay of metals
due to action of surrounding medium is called
surrounding enamel corrosion
2 17 When an active metal like Al come in
contact with less active element like Cu,
then it produces
voltaic cell galvanic cell electrolytic cell
2 17 Which of the following is a typical transition
metal?
Sc Y Ra
2 18 Main source of organic compounds is animal fossil coal
2 18 Reforming can be carried out by isomerism cracking addition of
aromatic
compounds
2 18 Hydro carbons which burn with smoky flame
are called
aliphatic alicyclic aromatic
2 18 Octane number can be improved by pyrolysis polymerization reforming
2 18 Geometric isomerism is usually found in alkanes alkenes alkynes
2 18 Organic compounds that are essentially
nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular
forces have
low melting
point
low vapor
pressure
high boiling
point
2 18 Pentane and 2-methyle butane have the
same
boiling point melting point percentage
composition
2 18 The first organic compound was synthesized
in laboratory by
Wohler Kolbe Berzillius
2 18 According to vital force theory organic
compounds
can be
synthesized
from inorganic
compounds
organic
compounds
cannot be
synthesized
from inorganic
compounds
organic
compounds
can be
synthesized by
animals
2 18 First organic compound synthesized in
laboratory was
tartaric acid ethyl alcohol methanol
2 18 Carbon in neither electro positive nor electro
negative as it belongs to group
III-A IV-A V-A
2 18 The property of carbon chain formation is
called
catenation hybridization c. chain
structure
2 18 Chemical properties of first member of
homologous series with respect to other
members are
same different depend upon
number of C
atoms
2 18 The organic compounds having very high
molecular weight are called
carboxylic acid ketones aldeydes
2 18 Compounds having same molecular formula
but differ in structural formula is called
polymer monomer isomer
2 18 Rate of reaction of most organic compounds
are
very slow very fast medium
2 18 Organic compounds are soluble in polar solvent non polar
solvent
benzene
2 18 Coal is produced after a long time decay of animals fossils wood
2 18 Methane is used in power generation in
chemical industries being a
natural gas good caloric
value
cheaper
2 18 Crude oil is blackish colored liquid produced
after the decay of organic matter present
between
earth layer mountains sedimentary
rocks
2 18 The process in which larger molecule with
higher molecular weight breaks down into
smaller molecules with lower molecular
weight
polymerization pyrolysis isomerism
2 18 Metallic sound of engine is knocking reforming cracking
2 18 Which one of the following compounds
shows high knocking?
n-pentane iso-heptane iso-octane
2 18 Ether functional group can be represent as -OH R-CO-R R-O-R
2 18 Isomerism which is present only in alkene is structural
isomerism
metamerism cis-trans
isomerism
2 18 A single atom or group of atoms give
characteristics properties to a compound is
called
radical hydrocarbon functional
group
2 18 Compound containing benzene ring in their
structure are
aliphatic aromatic carboxylic acid
2 18 2-propanol can show isomerism as metamerism functional
group
isomerism
geometric
isomerism
2 18 The hydrocarbons which give smoke on
burning is called
aliphatic aromatic carboxylic acid
2 18 Only sigma bonds are present in propene butanoic acid butanal
2 18 The structure of ethyne is angular trigonal linear
2 19 Valecies in paraffins alkanes are completely
satisfied
partially
satisfied
no satisfied
2 19 Alkanes containing one branch on main
chain are called
iso normal neo
2 19 When one hydrogen atom of alkane is
removed then it is called
alkene alkyl aldehyde
2 19 Alkanes are also known as saturated
hydrocarbons
unsaturated
hydrocarbons
paraffins
2 19 Hydrogenolysis results in alkane alkene alkyne
2 19 Zn is a good metal oxidizing agent non metal
2 19 Removal of Co2 is called carboxylation decarboxylatio
n
esterification
2 19 Sod lime is a mixture of Cao and KOH Cao and NaoH NaoH and Nao
2 19 R-Mg-Br is called Grignard
reagent
Wurtz reaction Tollens
reagent
2 19 Up to ______________ C atoms, alkanes
are gases
2 3 4
2 19 Alkanes are less reactive than alkanes due to presence of
sigma bond
absence of pi
bond
presence of
sigma and pi
bond
2 19 Introduction of nitrogen group is called nitration halogenation sulphation
2 19 Removal of halogen and hydrogen atom is halogenation dehalogenation dehydrohaloge
nation
2 19 Reacticity due to pi- electrons is present in alkane alkene alkyne
2 19 Raney nickel is an alloy of Ni-Cu Ni-Fe Ni-Al
2 20 In benzene sulphonic acid the sulphonic
group is attached with benzene ring though
hydrogen oxygen sulphur
2 20 Phenanthrene is a fused polycyclic
compound contains___________ Benzene
rings
two three four
2 20 Aniline is a derivative of benzene which
contains
hydroxyl group amino group amide group
2 20 How many electrons are there in benzene? 3 4 6
2 20 When benzene is substituted by halogens
only, which one of the following halogens is
given the number one position in the ring
while writing the name of compounds?
Bromine Chlorine Fluorine
2 20 Michael Faraday discovered benzene in the
gas which was produced by destructive
distillation of vegetable oil done in
the presence
of oxygen
the presence
of hydrogen
the absence of
oxygen
2 20 By which method, the molecular mass of
benzene was determined as 78.108?
specific gravity
method
vapor density
method
X-ray
diffraction
method
2 20 How many moles of H2 are added up when
benzene is heated with hydrogen in the
presence of platinum?
two three four
2 20 The heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexane is -219.5 KJ/mole 219.5K
Calories/mole
-119.5 KJ/mole
2 20 The resonance energy of benzene is 150.5KJ/mole 250.5 KJ/mole 150.5Cal/mole
2 20 Which one of the following methods will not
give benzene?
heating sod.
Salt of benzoic
acid with soda
lime
distilling
phenol with Zn
dust
Chlorobenzene
with NaoH at
3600C and
300 atm
2 20 In Friedel Craft Alkylation, AlCl3 is used to
generate
strong
nucleophile
weak
nuclephile
strong
electrophile
2 20 Acetophenone is a Quinone Ketone aldehyde
2 20 Reaction bromine with benzene in the
presence of sunlight will result in
the rupturing
of benzene ring
substitution
rection
addition
reaction
2 20 Benzene does not undergo substitution
reaction
addition
reaction
polymerization
reaction
2 20 Which compound will rapidly undergo
sulphonation?
Benzene Nitro benzene toluene
2 20 The preparation of benzene from acetylene
can also be said as
oxidation polymerization dehydration
2 20 Replacement of hydrogen of benzene by
alkyl group in pressure of alkyl halide and
ferric chloride is known as
Dows process Friedel and
Craft acylation
Friedel and
Craft alkylation
2 20 Which compound form benzoinc acid on
oxidation with strong oxidizing agent?
toluene ethyl benzene n-propyle
benzene
2 20 The hydrolysis of benzenetrizonide will yield
three moles of
glyoxime benzaldehyde glycol
2 21 Which C-X bond has the highest bond
energy per mole?
C-F C-Cl C-Br
2 21 Which alkyl halide has the highest reactivity
for a particular alkyle group?
R-F R-Cl R-Br
2 21 2.8 is the electro negativity of F Cl Br
2 21 The number of molecules taking part in the
rate determining step is called
order of
reaction
rate of reaction molecularity of
a reaction
2 21 What is the order of kinetics in the SN 1
mechanism?
zero first second
2 21 When two moles of ethyl chloride reacts with
two moles of sodium in the presence of
ether, what will be formed?
2 moles of
ethane
1 mole of
ethane
2 moles of
butane
2 21 When Co2 is made to react with ethyl
magnesium iodide, followed by acid
hydrolysis, the product formed is
propane propanic acid propanol
2 21 Grignard reagent is reactive due to the presence
of halogen
atom
the presence
of magnesium
atom
the polarity of
C-Mg bond
2 21 Elimination bimolecular reaction involve First order
kinetics
second order
kinetics
Third order
kinetics
2 21 The rate of E1 reaction depends upon the
concentration
of substrate
the
concentration
of nucleophile
the
concentration
of substrate as
well as
nucleophile
2 21 Alkyl halides are considered to be very
reactive compounds towards nucleophile
because
they have an
electrophilic
carbo
they have an
electrophilic
carbon and a
good leaving
group
they have an
electrophilic
carbon and a
bad leaving
group
2 21 Which one of the following alcohols will be
formed when ethyl magnesium bromide
reacts with acetone?
primary alcohol secondary
alcohol
tertiary alcohol
2 22 Which one of the following is also known as
lactic acid?
3-hydroxy
propanoic acid
2-hydroxy
propanoic acid
2-hydroxy
butanic acid
2 22 Which one of the following is also known as
tartaric acid?
2, 3- dihydroxy
butanedioic
acid
2, 2- dihydroxy
butanedioic
acid
2, 3- dihydroxy
butanoic acid
2 22 The residue obtained after the crystallization
of sugar from concentrated sugar cane juice
is called
mother liquor filterate extract
2 22 The process of fermentation of starch
involve many enzymes the sequence of
enzymes used are
diastase-
maltase-
zymase
zymase-
maltase-
diastase
maltase-
diastase-
zymase
2 22 The rectified spirit contain 12% alcohol 90% alcohol 91% alcohol
2 22 The oxidation of isopropyl alcohol will yield propane popanol propnone
2 22 Which alchol will undergo elimination
reaction to give alkene in the presence of
acidic dichromate?
primary alcohol secondary
alcohol
tertial alcohol
2 22 Heating phenol with Zn will yield Benzene benzoic acid phenoxide acid
2 22 Which phenol is heated with nitric acid the
product is
picric acid nitrobenzene 2,4,6- trinitro
benzene
2 22 Treating phenol with formaldehyde in the
presence of dilute base forms bakelite, the
process involved is
oxidation elimination condensation
2 22 Ethanol can be converted into ethanoic acid
by
hydrogenation hydration oxidation
2 22 Methyl alcohol is not used as a solvent as an
antifreezing
agent
as a substitute
for petrol
2 23 Which of the following will have the highest
boiling point?
methanal ethanal propananl
2 23 Which of the following substance do not give
iodoform test?
acetaldehyde ethyl alcohol methyl alcohol
2 23 Formation is ___________ % solution of
formaldehyde in water
10% 20% 40%
2 23 Which of the following aldehydes shows
rapid reaction with sodium nitroprussside?
formaldehyde acetaldehyde benaldehyde
2 23 Acetone reacts with HCN to form a
cyanohydrin. It is an example of
electrophilic
addition
electrophilic
substitution
nucleophilic
addition
2 23 Which of the following reactions are
associated with aldehyde and ketone?
nucleophile
addition
polymerization oxidation
2 23 Cannizzaros reaction is not given by formaldehyde acetaldehyde benzaldehyde
2 23 Which of the following reagents will react
with both aldehydes and ketones?
Grignard
reagents
tollens reagent Fehlings
reagent
2 23 Ketones are comparatively less reactive than
aldehyde. It is due to
alkyl group are
electron
donating
steric
hindrance
both
2 23 Which of the following do not give aldol
condensation reactions?
formaldehyde adetaldehyde diemethyle
ketone
2 23 Which of the following is not a use of
formaldehyde?
in silvery mirror in making
medicine
urotropine
in making
throat logenzes
2 23 Formaldehyde and lactose are combined to
produce throat lezengs named as
formamint lactomint aldomint
2 23 Which of the following is not a use of
acetaldehyde?
formation of
phenolic resins
formation of
looking glass
antiseptic
inhalant
2 23 Formalin consists of mixture of
formaldehyde, methyl alcohol and water
percentage of water in it is
60% 50% 52%
2 23 On heating aldehydes with Fehlings
solution, we get a precipitate whose color is
pink black yellow
2 23 Which of the following compounds has the
empirical formula CH2O and reacts with
sodium hydroxide?
carbonic acid phenol acetic acid
2 23 Oxidation of P0 alcohol gives? ketone aldehyde alkene then
COOH
2 23 Nucleophilic addition reactions are catalysed acid base both a and b
2 23 Acetaldehyele cyano hydrin on acid
hydrolysis yields
tartaric acid propionic acid lactic acid
2 23 Crotonaldehyde is obtained on the rax of
____________ in B. medium
formaldehyde acetone +
acetone
acetone +
acetaldehyde
2 24 When carboxylic group is attached directly to
benzene ring, the acid is calld
aliphatic alicyclic carbonyl
2 24 The common name of propane 1,3- dioic
acid is
oxalic acid aromatic acid malonic acid
2 24 The common thing in phthalic acid and
oxalic acid is that both are
aromatic dicarboxylic hydrocarbons
2 24 The irritation caused by an ants bite is due to lactic acid formic acid uric acid
2 24 The acid which is used as ink remover is oxalic acid succinic acid adipic acid
2 24 Which of the following is the strongest acid? water formic acid acetic acid
2 24 Which acid is used in the manufacture of
synthetic rubber?
acetic acid formic acid carbonic acid
2 24 Acidic amino acids have 2 amino groups 1 amino and 1
carboxylic
groups
2 carboxylic
groups
2 24 In the formation of Zwitter ions, proton goes
from
Carboxylic to
amino group
amino to
carboxylic
group
amino group
only
2 24 The term internal salt refers to acidic
character of
amino acids
basic
character of
amino acids
dipolar
character of
amino acids
2 24 The organic acid that does not has COOH
group is
hydrazine carbolic acid maleic acid
2 24 Which one of the following acids is present
in lemon juice?
citric acid benzoic acid tartaric acid
2 24 The test which is used for the identification
of amino acids is
ninhydrin test molisch test biuretic test
2 24 Which one of the following is not a basic
amino acid?
lysine histidine praline
2 24 Lysine is named so because it has sweet taste bitter taste shining
appearance
2 24 The organic acid that can be made from
ethanol is
acetic acid formic acid butanoic acid
2 24 Melting points of carboxylic acids containing
even no. of carbon atoms are _____ that
the acids with odd no. of carbon atoms.
lower higher same
2 24 Which acid is used in the manufacture of
synthetic rubber?
formic acid acetic acid carbonic acid
2 24 Which compound is the reference for the
relative configuration of sugar and amino
acids?
D- glucose D-
glyceraldehyde
s
D- glycine
2 24 Which of the following is not a fatty acid? propanoic acid acetic acid phthalic acid
2 25 Polymers described as large molecules built
up from small repeating units called
Biopolymers dimmers monomers
2 25 Three different monomers are polymerized in copolymer terpolymer Homopolymer
2 25 The important monomers of acyclic resins is vinyl chloride styrene methylmethacr
ylate
2 25 Polyester resins are the product of the
reaction of
alcohol and
aromatic acids
polyamines
with aliphatic
dicarboxylic
acids
styrene in the
presence of
catalyst
2 25 Industrial materials, thermal power stations
are coated with
polyester
resins
epoxy paints polyaride
resins
2 25 Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy compound of glucose glyceraldehyde
s
c.oligosacchari
des
2 25 Common examples of carbohydrates are? cellulose,
glycogen,
galactose
glyceraldehyde
s, glucose,
peptone
glycerol,
phosphor-
lipids, collagen
2 25 Nylon is obtained by heating acrylic acid epichlorohydrin vinyl chloride
2 25 Hydrolysis of an oligosaccharide in the
presence of acid yields
one
monosaccaride
unit
no
monosaccharid
e unit
2- 10
monosaccharid
e unit
2 25 Amylase is soluble in water insoluble in
water
soluble in
alcohol
2 25 The carbohydrate that serves to satisfy the
appetite and stimulates peristalsis is
cellulose glycogen starch
2 25 Protein attached to some non protein group
is called
derived protein sample protein proteoses
2 25 Regular coiling or zigzag of polypeptide is its quantum
structure
secondary
structure
tertiary
structure
2 25 Tanning of hides is carried out by heating bones
in water
heating bones
in alkali
precipitation of
proteins with
tannic acid
2 25 Lipids are soluble in organic
solvents
organic and
inorganic
solvents
inorganic
solvents
2 25 Animal fats are located particularly in skeleton
tissues
cardiac tissues connectivity
tissues
2 25 Animal and vegetable fats are glycerols fatty acids trimesters
formed from
glycerol and
fatty acids
2 25 Lipopolysaccharides are examples of derived lipids sample lipids composed
lipids
2 25 Triglycerides are easily hydrolyzed by
enzymes called
lyases ligases lipases
2 25 Saponification is the hydrolysis of fat or oil
with an
acid alkali enzyme and
alkali
2 25 Enzymes that catalyze the transfer of groups
with in molecules to yields isomeric forms
are called
isomerases lyases transferases
2 25 Enzymes from the same organism which
catalyze same reaction but are chemically
and physically distinct from eah other are
called
oxidoreductase
s
hydrolases isoenzymes
2 25 Rate of enzymatic reaction is directly
proportional to the concentration of
enzyme substrate enzyme and
substrate
2 25 Enzyme proved useful in cancer treatment is lactic
dehydrogenase
alkaline
phosphates
L-
asparaginase
2 25 Purines and pyrimidines are enzymes nitrogenous
bases
carbohydrates
2 25 Combination of nitrogenous base with sugar
is called
nucleotide nitrogenous
bases
poly nucleotide
2 25 Nucleic acids direct the synthesis of glucose triglycerides proteins
2 25 The mechanism by which the genetic
information can be duplicated is called
duplication transcription replication
2 25 The nitrogenous base different is RNA as
compared to DNA is
cytosine thymine adenine
2 26 The fertility of the soil is improved by rotation of the
corps
adding lime to
the acid salts
adding
manure and
growing
legumes
2 26 Which of the following is incorrect statement
about nitrogen importance?
it enhances
plant growth
it is involved in
the synthesis
of protein and
nucleic acids
it accelerates
fruits and
flower growth
2 26 The fertilizers which provide single nutrients
from NPK, are called_________Fertilizers
straight compound both a and b
2 26 Addition of urea to the soil is
_______________ reaction.
endothermic exothermic both a and b
2 26 The cooling of molten urea by air in the
tower is called
prilling evaporation condensation
2 26 Which of the following fertilizers is more
useful for paddy rice?
urea DAP ammonium
sulphat
2 26 DAP (diammonium hydrogen phosphate)
contains __________ plant nutrients.
60% 65% 70%
2 26 Calcarious materials includes lime stone marble slated
2 26 Argillaceous material does not include clay marine shells slated
2 26 Which of the following processes is used for
the synthesis of cement?
dry process wet process both
2 26 Phosphorous helps in the growth of root leave stem
2 26 How many zones through which the charge
passes in a rotary kiln?
4 3 2
2 26 The nutrients which are required in very
small amount for the growth of plants are
called
nitrogenous
fertilizers
micronutrients phosphorus
fertilizers
2 26 Which of the following statement is correct
for urea?
it is a synthetic
fertilizer
it is a natural
fertilizer
it provides
micronutrients
to the plants
2 26 The percentage of nitrogen in urea is 36% 46% 56%
2 26 Which one of the following is an inorganic
fertilizer?
manure urea ammonium
nitrate
2 26 Which one of the following fertilizers
provides the nitrogen and phosphorous to
the plant?
urea calcium super
phosphorous
Di ammonium
phosphate
2 26 The potassium present in plant, help the
plant to
form starch
sugar and
fibrous
materials
ripen the
seeds and
fruits
increase the
resistant
against
disease
2 26 Cement is a mixture of clay and clinker clay lime stone
and gypsum
lime stone and
gypsum
2 26 What is clinker? roasted
calcareous
material
roasted
argillaceous
material
roasted
calcareous
and
argillaceous
material
2 26 Which one of the following raw material is
not present in the cement?
lime stone gypsum blast furnace
2 26 Which sequence of steps is correct for the
manufacture of cement?
crushing,
heating,
mixing,
grinding
crushing,
mixing,
heating,
grinding
crushing,
grinding,
mixing, heating
2 26 The sequences of zones in the rotary kiln
are as?
dry zone,
burning zone,
decomposition
zone, cooling
zone
cooling zone,
burning zone,
decomposition
zone, dry zone
burning zone,
cooling zone,
decomposition
zone,
2 26 The composition of mixture of clay and lime
stone in the raw material is
75% lime
stone and
25% clay
25% lime
stone and
75% clay
15% lime
stone and
55% clay
2 26 The important unction of burning zone in the
rotary kiln is
to dry the
moisture of
slurry
to decompose
lime stone to
unslaked lime
combination of
different
oxides like
CaO2, SiO2,
Fe2O3 and
Al2O3
2 27 Which of the following is not a heavy
industry?
iron fertilizer paper
2 27 Which of the following is not a
macronutrients?
boron iron copper
2 27 Requirements of macronutrients per acre of
the land are
5 to 200 Kg 20 to 200 kg 200 to 400 kg
2 27 Three elements needed for the healthy
growth of plants are
N, P, K N, K, C N, S, P
2 27 Which of the following is not a secondary
pollutant?
ozone carbonic acid sulphuric acid
2 27 Residence time of NO in the atmosphere is 2 days 4 days 3 days
2 27 Major cause of SO2 on glolsal scale is volcanoes electric sparks combustion
2 27 The yellow color in photochemical smog is
due to presence of
carbon dioxide nitrogen
dioxide
chlorine gas
2 27 Which of the following is not a condition for
the formation of smog?
sufficient no sunlight less
movement of
air
2 27 Incineration of industrial and hazardous
waste is carried out in the temperature range
of
250 to 500oC 500 to 900oC 950 to 1300OC
2 27 In which of the following layer of atmosphere
there is more thickness of ozone layer?
stratosphere troposphere mesosphere
2 27 Which statement is wrong? the amount of
ozone layer is
greater in the
region close to
the equator
ozone acts as
filter for UV
radiations
in the polar
region it acts
as pollutant
2 27 Which of the following factors help to
measure quality o water?
DO BOD COD
2 27 In the purification of portable water, the
coagulant used is
alum nickel sulphate copper
sulphate
2 27 Newspaper can be recycled again and again
how many times?
2 3 4
2 27 The main pollutant leather tanneries in the
waste water is
chromium III chromium II sodium
2 27 A single chloride free radical can destroy
how many ozone molecules?
10 100 10000
2 27 Chlorination of water may be harmful if the
water contains?
ammonia dissolved
oxygen
carbon dioxide
2 27 Which one of the following makes the bulk of
hydrospheres content?
oceans glaciers and
ice
fresh water
lakes and
ponds
4 1 The study of life in oceans and seas is Freshwater
biology
marine biology environmental
biology
4 1 The branch of biology in which structure,
mode of transmission, life histories and host-
parasite relationships are studied is termed
microbiology parasitology biotechnology
4 1 The branch of biology that deals with study
of social behaviour and communal life of
human beings is
human
morphology
social biology environmental
biology
4 1 The molecules of low molecular weight such
as water and carbon dioxide are termed
organic
molecules
micromolecule
s
macromolecule
s
4 1 Groups of similar cells organized into loose
sheets or bundles that perform similar
functions are called
tissues organs organelles
4 1 The formation of organs is far more complex
and defined in
plants animals protozoans
4 1 In Flowering plants, the reproductive
structures involved in producuing the next
generation are
cones spores conidia
4 1 Members of one species inhabiting the same
area make a
population ecosystem community
4 1 The community together wih its non-living
surroundings is an
population ecosystem community
4 1 The unit of life is sub-atomic
particles
atom cell
4 1 Protons, electrons and neutrons are atoms subatomic
particles
micromolecule
s
4 1 Most common atoms found in biological
molecules is (are)
hydrogen carbon oxygen
4 1 A combination of atoms such as water,
glucose and DNA are
atoms micromolecule
s
macromolecule
s
4 1 The branch of Science dealing with life Ecology Cytology Biology
4 1 Man has been able to produce food in
greater quantities due to advancement in:
Mathematics Space science Physics
4 1 the word malaria has been derived from the
combination of two words which are
Latin Italian Greek
4 1 Man can now be saved from fatal diseases
by using
Vaccine Bacteria hydroponics
4 1 When sporozoites of Plasmodium pass from
the blood to liver cells, they multiply for
4 1 The study of living thing human biology biology microbiology
4 1 In the life cycle of Plasmodium fusion of
gametes and formation of gametes and
formation of zygote take place in
Body of Man Body of
Mosquito
Air
4 1 Inside human body Plasmodium attacks Nerve cells Red blood cells White blood
cells
4 1 The study of parasites is parasitology Microbiology Biotechnology
4 1 The study of different aspects of life in
human beings is
Molecular
Biology
Human biology cell biology
4 1 Sexual reproduction of the malaria parasite
occurs in
Man Mosquito Red blood cells
4 1 Which of the following stages of
Plasmodium is diploid
Merozoite Sporozoite Zygote
(ookinete)
4 1 A branch of science that is a way of
understanding the nature is
biochemistry organic
chemistry
biology
4 1 The entry of Plasmodium into the blood of
Man was discovered by:
A. F. A. King Laveran Ronald Ross
4 1 One who deals with living part of the world
and non-living things which affect the living
things is a
Ethologist Embryologists Biologist
4 1 Which of the following stages of
Plasmodium is spindle shaped
Sporozoite Merozoite Gametocyte
4 1 They are highly organized complex entities
composed of one or more cells and contain
genetic programme of their characteristics
the statement refers to
Biologists living
organisms
Human
biologists
4 1 People who slept outside in open spaces
suffered from malaria more frequently than
those who slept indoors, indicates that:
Bad air is
involved in the
spread of
Malaria
Bacteria are
involved in the
spread of
Malaria
Mosquitoes
are involved in
the spread of
Malaria
4 1 The branch of biology that deals with the
structure of oganisms,the cells and their
organelles at molecular level is
cell biology Molecular
Biology
Microbiology
4 1 The study of organisms that includes
interaction between the organisms and their
inorganic and organic environment
especially as it relates to human activities is
freshwater
biology
Marine biology Environmental
biology
4 1 Which of the following is involved in the
spread of malaria ?
Bacterium Bad Air Virus
4 1 The branch of biology that deals with life in
rivers, lakes and physical and chemical
parameters of these water bodies is called
freshwater
biology
marine biology environmental
biology
4 1 The statement made by a scientist, which
may be the possible answer to the problem.
Deduction Theory Hypothesis
4 1 Pollution of our surroundings in the recent
past has resulted because of:
Biological
Research
Rapid
industrialization
Information
4 1 Anatomy deals with the study of: Relationship
between
organisms and
their
environment
a.
Development
of an organism
from a
fertilized egg
or zygote
Structure and
function of
molecular
components of
the cell
4 1 Taxonomy is the study of Functions of
different parts
of organisms
Naming and
classification
of organisms
Hereditary
characters
4 1 They are the remains or impressions of
living organisms preserved in rocks
Tissues Fossils Calcium
4 1 They are the remains or impressions of
living organisms preserved in rocks
Embryology Taxonomy . Physiology
4 1 In case of typical attack, malarial patient
feels:
Very cold and
chilly
Very Warm Sleepy
4 1 The study of hereditary characters
transmitted from parents to offspring is called
genetics cytology Ecology
4 1 Which of the following forms of Plasmodium
is present in the saliva of mosquito?
Merozoites Sporozoites Gametocytes
4 1 Which of these attack red blood cells Ookinetes Gametocytes Sporozoites
4 1 Which of the following is not true of malaria
patient
Feels cold and
chilly
Feels
headache
Feels appetite
4 1 The study of microorganisms is known as Paleontology Molecular
biology
Ecology
4 1 Which of the following is not an anti-malarial
drug
Pouldrine Quinine Penicillin
4 1 Main symptom of malaria is Shiver and chill Diarrhoea Constipation
4 1 Quinine is the chemical substance present in
the bark of
Oak Cinchona Dalbergia
4 1 The life cycle of malarial parasite in
Anopheles mosquito was discovered
Laveran King Grassi
4 1 the sporozoites of plasmodium enter the
liver of man through
skin food blood
4 1 The effective drug present in the bark of
cinchona is
penicillin erythrocine neurobion
4 1 Which one of the following best describes
the scientific method
Doing
experiments in
laboratories
Collecting all
known facts
on a subject
Developing
and testing
hypothesis
4 2 The aldehyde form of glyceraldehydes is dihydroxyaceto
ne
polysaccharide amylose
4 2 The branch of biology that deals with the
study of chemical components and the
chemical processes in living organisms is
physiology
Taxonomy
taxonomy biochemistry
4 2 Glucose and fructose are which of the
followings of sugars
reducing non-reducing oligossachacid
e
4 2 Those reactions in which simpler substances
are combined to form complex stbstances
are
anabolic
reaction
catabolic
reacion
Oxidation
reaction
4 2 The basic element of organic compounds is Hydrogen Oxygen Sulphur
4 2 When an electron pair is shared between
two atom, the resultant bond is
covalent bond lonic bond hydrogen bond
4 2 Water is an excellent solvent for polar
substances due to its
Polarity Specific heat
capacity
Water potential
4 2 which bond is potential source of energy? C-C C-H C-N
4 2 Water is a power protection against damage
from friction because it is an effective
Lubricant Solvent solute
4 2 Carbon combines with nitrogen in amino
acid linkages to form which of the following
bond.
Glycosidic
linkage
peptide bond C-H bond
4 2 The carbohydrates are primary products of photosynthesis respiration transpiration
4 2 All the chemical reactions taking place in a
cell are collectively called
Metabolism Catabolism Anabolism
4 2 Aldo-sugars are carbohydrates with an ketose group aldose group OH ions
4 2 Which reaction needs energy Catabolic Anabolic Metabolic
4 2 Carbon is Monovalent Bivalent Trivalent
4 2 The covalent bond between two
monosaccharides is __________bond
Peptide Glycosidic hydrogen bond
4 2 One of the followings is also called animal
starch
Matltose Glucose Lactose
4 2 Chitin is a example of Polysaccharide Oligosaccharid
e
Monosaccharid
e
4 2 Saccharide is another word for Carbohydrates Lipids Proteins
4 2 The source of carbohydrates is Green plants Bacteria Animals
4 2 The breakdown of larger molecules into
smaller ones utilizing water molecules is
Hydration Hydrolysis Condensation
4 2 A six- cornered ring structure formed by a
monosaccharide when in solution is
Furanos pyranose Amylopectin
4 2 An example of reducing sugar is Fructose Starch Chitin
4 2 The sugar comparatively less in taste and
less soluble in water is
Monosaccharid
es
Oligosaccharid
es
Polysaccharide
s
4 3 An enzyme is a three dimensional ______
protien
Globular Fibrous Beta Pleated
Sheets
4 3 A biochemical reaction would proceed at a
very slow speed making life impossible in
the absence of
Enzyme Cofactor Coenzyme
4 3 One of the followings acts as a bridge
between the enzyme and its substributes
directly to the chemical reaction which brings
about catalysis
Enzyme Substrate Co- factor
4 3 Generally a single enzyme catalyzes only a
single substrate or a group of related
substrates, there fore the enzyme is
Specific Reactive Activator
4 3 The enzymes involved in cellular respiration
are found in
Cell
membranes
Mitchondria Chloroplast
4 3 Every enzyme by virtue of its specificity
recognizes and reacts with a special
chemical substance called
Substrate Apoenzyme Holoenzyme
4 3 Pepsin is a powerful protein digesting
enzyme that is produced in an inactive form,
the
Malonic Acid Trypsinogen Pepsinogen
4 3 At low concentration of substrate the
enzyme catalyzed reaction rate is directly
proportional to the availability of
Substrate Enzyme Coenzyme
4 3 Every enzyme function most effectively over
a narrow range of pH known as
Maximum Minimum Optimum
4 3 The substance that sometime acts as a
source of chemical energy helping to drive
reaction that would otherwise be difficult or
impossible is
Substrate Coenzyme Cofactor
4 3 If non-protein part of the enzyme is loosely
attached to the protein part it is known as
Cofactor Prosthetic
group
Metal activator
4 3 The essential raw material from which the
coenzyme is made
Metal ions Vitamins Proteins
4 3 The enzyme involved in the synthesis of
protein is integral part of
Chloroplasts Mitochondria Golgi complex
4 3 The active site of enzyme is made up of how
many regions
Two Three Four
4 3 Pepsinogen, the inactive from of pepsin, is
produced enclosed in membrane bound
body, the
Ribosome Lysosome Glyoxisome
4 3 Enzymes are sensitive to minor changes in pH substrate
concentration
temperature
4 3 Most enzymes lie freely in
cytoplasm
are bound to
certain
organelles
are present in
the nucleus
4 3 The chemical substance with which an
enzyme reacts is called its
substrate active site inhibitor
4 3 The "Induce Fit Model" for enzyme action
was put forward by
Emil Fisher F. Sanger Koshland
4 3 Enzymes require which medium for its
activity
Solid semi solid aqueous
4 4 The smallest unit that can carry out activities
of life is
an organelle a bacterium a cell
4 4 According to Robert Hooke, the empty
space bounded by a thick wall is called
cytosol cell cytoplasm
4 4 All living beings originate from vesicles or
cells was belief put forward by
Robert Hooke lorenz Oken robert brown
4 4 The idea that living things arise
spontaneously fron non living things is
known as
Germ Theory Cell Theory Abiogenesis
4 4 One of the followings reported the presence
of nucleus in the cell
Robert Hooke robert brown theodor
schwan
4 4 A cell consists of nucleus cytoplasm plasma
membrance
4 4 Cell theory came out as a result of
independent working of
robert brown
and robert
hooke
theodor
schwann and
schleiden
lorenz oken
and de lamarck
4 4 All living organisms are composed of cells
and cell products refers to
cell theory germ theory of
disease
koch's
postulate
4 4 One of the most fundamental
generalizations in biology is
cell theory germ theory of
disease
koch's
postulate
4 4 New cells arise only by the division of
pevious existing living cells was proposed by
De lamarck Roudolph
virchow
louis pasteur
4 4 One of the followings provided experimental
proof for virchow's hypothesis by
demonstrating that bacteria could be formed
only from existing bacteria.
de lamarck rudolph
virchow
louis pasteur
4 4 The magnification power of microscope with
10x ocular lens and 40x objective lens would
be
400 x 4000 x 40,000 x
4 4 The source of illumination in a typical
laboratory microscope is
visible light beam of
electrons
beam of
photons
4 4 In electron microscope the source of
illumination is
a beam of
electrons
visible light a beam of
green and red
light
4 4 The resolution of electron microscope
ranges from
2-4 angstron 3-5 angstron 2-3 angstron
4 4 The process by which various components
of cells including its organelle can be
isolated is called
cell fractioning ultra
centrifugation
homogenizatio
n
4 4 Various parts of the cells are separated by
spinning the disrupted cells in a special
medium in a
centrifuge ultracentrifuge pestle and
morter
4 4 The membrane that allows only selective
substances to pass through it is called
permeable
membrane
selectively
permeable
membrane
impermeable
membrane
4 4 Taking in of liquid material into the cells is
known as
phagocytosis pinocytosis exocytosis
4 4 the cell membrane is composed of a lipid
bilayer sandwiched between inner and outer
layers of proteins. This basic structure is
called
unit
membrane
model
fluid mosaic
model
leaflet model
4 4 One of the characteristics of the living things
is that they
require oxygen
for respiration
originate from
pre existing life
carry on
autotrophic
nutrition
4 4 plants and animals cells are alike in
possessing
chiorophyll cell wall cell membrane
4 4 which of the following cell components are
shared by both plants and animal cells
plastids cell wall cell membrane
4 4 The layer of cell wall next to cell membrane
is the
primary wall secondary wall tertiary wall
4 4 Most cells lacking a cell wall also lack mitochondria vacuole chloroplasts
4 4 The entire cell wall of a prokaryotic cell is
often regarded as a single huge molecule
known as:
cellulose murein lipoprotein
4 4 The space of cell between the nucleus and
the cell wall is occupied by
protoplasm nucleoplasm cytoplasm
4 4 The most abundant substance in the
protoplasm is
protein fats carbohydrates
4 4 All the following are cell organelles except
the
endoplasmic
reticulum
mitochondria ribosome's
4 4 Different responses of the cell to various
stimuli are the functions of the
protoplasm cytoplasm nucleoplasm
4 4 Centrioles are present in the cells of: Algae and fungi fungi and
bryophytes
bryophytes
and algae
4 4 Which statement concerning ribosomes is
true
they are
involved in the
release of
energy
they contain
DNA
they are the
sites of
carbohydrate
synthesis
4 4 Protein synthesis involves which of the
following cell organelles
lysosomes golgi complex ribosomes
4 4 An organelle that is visible only with the aid
of an electron microscope is the
ribosome nucleus chloroplast
4 4 80S ribosomes are composed of two
subunits of:
40S and 40S 60S and 40S 70S and 10S
4 4 New ribosomes are synthesized by the mitochondria nucleolus Glogi
apparatus
4 4 The smaller subunit of a ribosome is
measured as:
20S 30S 40S
4 4 Mitochondria are self replicating units
because it has
mRNA IRNA proteins
4 4 Which of the physiological processes take
place in mitochondria
respiration photosynthesis transpiration
4 4 The cell organelle which make plants
autotrophic is:
ribosomes chloroplast Golgi bodies.
4 4 The cell organelle which performs the
function of starch storage centre is the
endoplasmic
reticulum
chloroplasts chromoplasts
4 4 Cell organelle bounded by a single
membrane is the
mitochondrion lysosome nucleus
4 4 Autophagy is linked with which of the
following cell organelle.
lysosomes endoplasmic
reticulum
ribosomes
4 4 The cell organelle concerned with cell
secretions and disposal is the
lysosomes endoplasmic
reticulum
golgi complex
4 4 The nucleus contain all the following
components except
mitochondria genes nucleuolus
4 4 Chromosomes are made up of DNA and
proteins
RNA and
proteins
DNA and RNA
4 4 Nucleus in plant cells was discovered by Dutrochet Robert Brown Robert Hooke
4 4 The pushing out of materials by the cell
against the concentration gradient is
Low transport Passive
transport
Active
transport
4 4 Robert Hooke examined thin slices of cork
made up of the bark of
Pine Sheesham Oak
4 4 In thin slices of cork Robert Hooke noticed Tiny creatures Small holes Small
chambers
4 4 Henri Dutrochet confirmed Robert Brown
observations
on Nucleus
Robert
Hookes
observations
on Cells
Schwann
observations
of cells
4 4 They provide support to the plant body Phloem cells Parenchyma
cells
a.
Sclerenchyma
cells
4 4 Parenchyma cells are concerned with Secretion Support Carry Oxygen
4 4 Substances cross the cell membrane more
easily when they are
Water soluble Protein soluble Alcohol soluble
4 4 Many substances that are not needed
constantly enter the cell by
Passive
transport
Active
transport
Negative
transport
4 4 It is a true cell wall in a newly growing cell Middle lamella Secondary wall Primary wall
4 4 It is the first to be formed Primary wall Secondary wall Tertiary wall
4 4 It is a site of certain metabolic pathways Cell wall Plasma
membrane
Cytoplasm
4 4 The water percentage of cytosol in the
cytoplasm is
50 60 70
4 4 New Ribosomes are assembled in the Nucleolus Mitochondria Endoplasmic
Reticulum
4 4 Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum helps to Synthesize
proteins
Detoxify the
harmful drugs
Prepare food
4 4 Morphologically Endoplasmic Reticulum
exists in
Four forms Three forms Two forms
4 4 The 60S and 40S subunits on attachment
with each other form
100S particle 90S particle 80S particle
4 4 Proteins are synthesized in the Ribosome Mitochondria Nucleus
4 4 They are absent in higher plants Plastids Golgi
Apparatus
Cell
Membranes
4 4 Amino acids (proteins) are present in the cell
walls of
Gymnosperms Bacteria Mosses
4 4 Which of the following organelles is present
in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
Chloroplast Ribosomes Mitochondria
4 4 Which of the following features is not shared
by prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
Ribosome Cytoplasm Cell membrane
4 4 Which of the following cell organelles is
present in both plant and animal cells
Chlorophyll Plasma
membrane
Plastids
4 4 Which of the following pair is incorrect Ribosome
_____Protein
synthesis
Chloroplast
____Photosynt
hesis
Mitochondria
___Fermentati
on
4 4 Which of the structures is not found in a
prokaryotic cell ?
Plasma
membrane
Nuclear
envelope
Ribosome
4 4 How many membranes comprise the
nuclear envelope ?
None One Two
4 4 Which of the following molecules move
regularly from the nucleus to the cytoplasm ?
Glycogen DNA RNA
4 4 Which of the following cellular organelles
extracts energy from glucose and forms ATP
molecules
Lysosome Chloroplast Mitochondrion
4 4 Lysosomes contain enzymes capable of Aerobic
cellular
respiration
Digesting part
of the cell
Synthesizing
protein
4 4 Mitochondria are found in all cells only in plant
cells
only in animal
cells
4 4 pigments capable of capturing the energy of
sunlight are located within the
Golgi complex Endoplasmic
complex
Chloroplast
4 4 The two types of cellular organelles that
transform energy are
Chromoplasts
and leucoplast
Mitochondria
and chloroplast
Mitochondria
and
Chromoplasts
4 4 The plastids that give fruits and flowers their
orange and yellow colours are the
leucoplasts chloroplasts Chromoplasts
4 4 The main function of the plasma membrane
is to
synthesize
ribosomes
Control what
goes into and
out of the cell
Allow all kinds
of substances
to enter the cell
4 4 Plant cells are connected by channels
through their walls called
Plasmodesmat
a
desmosomes middle lamella
4 4 In the fluid mosaic membrane model the
lipid bilayer
is sandwiched
between two
protein layers
has protein
embedded in it
lies on top of a
single protein
layer
4 4 An input of energy is required for which one
of the following ?
diffusion osmosis passive
transport
4 4 Which of the following cytoplamic organelles
is not bounded by membrane
Mitochodrion Lysosome Ribosome
4 4 Which of the following bodies is not bounded
by a double membrane structure ?
mitochondrion chloroplast Lysosome
4 4 Which of the following cell organelles cause
a decrease in the concentration of organic
material in the cell ?
Golgi bodies Chloroplast Ribosome
4 4 Which of the following cell organelles is not
involved in the sequence of events from
synthesis of an enzyme to its excretion ?
Ribosome Lysosome Golgi
apparatus
4 4 A lipid molecule in the plasma membrane
has a head and two tails. The tails are found
At the
surfaces of the
membrane
In the interior
of the
membrane
Both at the
surfaces and
interior of the
membrane
4 4 Which of the following organelles and their
contents are incorrectly paired
Ribosome
RNA
Mitochondrion
Chlorophyll
Lysosome
digestive
enzymes
4 4 Which of the following properties is incorrect
for both mitochondria and chloroplast
Both have an
electron
transport
system
ATP synthesis Both are
present in all
cells
4 4 Which of the following cell organelles
release oxygen
ribosome Golgi complex Mitochondria
4 4 Active transport requires a
protein carrier
moves a
molecule
against its
concentration
gradient
requires a
supply of
energy
4 5 Carolous Linneaus divided all known forms
of life into two kingdoms, the plants and
animals prokaryotes monera
4 5 Carolous linneaus placed bacteria in the
kingdom
monera plantae protista
4 5 Biologists have classified all the living things
into groups showing similarities based upon
which of the followings
homologies comparative
biochemistry
genetics
4 5 The term "eucaritique" was first used to
describe animal and plant
organs tissues cells
4 5 According to whittakar's five kingdom
system of classification the bacteria and
cyanobacteria are placed in
monera protista plantae
4 5 Whittaker placed eukaryotes that did not fit
the definition of plants, fungi or animals in
4 5 A special form of heterotrophs that obtains
energy and structural material by
decomposing and absorbing food
substances from the surroundings, and
possesses chitin as a major structural
component in its cell wall is a
virus bacterium alga
4 5 Whittakar placed the organisms that live
mostly by ingesting food and digesting it
within in special cavities in
4 5 Margulis and schwartz renamed whittekar's
kingdom protista as
prokaryotae protoctista plantae
4 5 A group of natural population that can
intrbreed freely among themselves and
produces fertile offspring is
family species class
4 5 The basic unit of cassification is species genus phylum
4 5 In linneaus binomial nomenclature system
the first name refers to the genus and is
called
generic name species name common name
4 5 The common name of Allium cepa is piyaz bathu amaltas
4 5 The word 'black bird' refers to which of the
following
crow raven maina
4 5 In the binomial system of taxonomy,
developed during the 18th century by
Carlous Linnaeus, the First word of an
organism's name (e.g., Homeo sapiens) is its
species genus race
4 5 the word virus is derived from which of the
followigns latin words meaning poisnous fluid
venom viron phage
4 5 the branch of biology that deals with the
study of virus is known as
microbiology algalogy virology
4 5 the first infectious disease against which
effective method of prevention was
developed was a
bacterial
disease
fungal disease viral disease
4 5 the filterable agent that caused tobacco
mosaic disease was discovered by
Louis pasteur twort W.m stanley
4 5 one of the followings found that agent
responsible for rabies can pass through
porcelain filters through which bacteria
cannot pass
louis pasteur charles
chamberland
twort
4 6 leeuwenhoek assigned the term
'animalcules' to
viruses bacteria protozoans
4 6 Louis pasteur made significant contribution
in development of the process of
fermentation pasteurization vaccination
4 6 robert koch discovered the bacteria that
caused cholera and
tuberculosis AIDS typhoid
4 6 one of these postulated germ theory of
disease
louis pasteur robert koch leeuwenhoek
4 6 one of the followings proved that
microorganisms could cause disease and
also made significant contribution in the
development of fermentation industry
Robert Hooke leeuwenhoek louis pasteur
4 6 the ancient bacteria are placed in a small
division
eubacteria archaeobacteri
a
mycoplasma
4 6 the smallest bacteria belongs to genus mycoplasma esherichia coli streptococcus
4 6 the bacterial cells that are spherical or oval
are called
bacilli spirilla streptococci
4 6 when the division of a coccus bacterium is in
two planes, it will produce an arrangement
called
tetrad sarcina staphyllococcu
s
4 6 if the cocci bacteria are arranged in irregular
manner like clusters of grapes. They are
called
diplococci sarcina staphylococci
4 6 diplococcus pneumoniae is an example of
which of the following type of arrangement in
bacteria
diplococcus staphylococcus streptococcus
4 6 when cocci form a long chain of cells, the
arrangement is said to
diplococcus streptococci sarcina
4 6 the rod shaped bacteria are called cocci bacilli vibrios
4 6 when rod shaped bacteria occur in pairs, the
arrangement of the cells is called
diplobacilli streptobacilli staphylobacilli
4 6 a thin, flexible spiral shaped bacterium is
called
spirillum vibrio spirochete
4 6 a thick, rigid spiral shaped bacterium is called vibrio spirochete spirillum
4 6 a flagellum is composed of a protein called pillin tubulin flagellin
4 6 a structure beneath the cell membrane in the
cytoplasm from which a flagellum originates
is
basal body pilli plasmid
4 6 the bacteria without flagella are called atrichous lopotrichous peritrichous
4 6 if a tuft of flagella is present only at one pole
of bacteria they are called
monotrichous lopotrichous amphitrichous
4 6 a condition in which a tuft of flagella is
present at each of two poles is known as
amphitrichous lopotrichous atrichous
4 6 one of the followings very rarely has flagella bacilli cocci spirilla
4 6 which of the following bacteria can detect
and move in response to chemical signals
atrichous flagellate aerobic
4 6 hollow, non-helical, filamentous appendages
that are smaller than flagella and primarily
involved in conjugation are
pillin plasmids flagella
4 6 pilli are made up of a special protein called pillin tubulin flagellin
4 6 the structures involved in mating process
between bacterial cells (conjugation) are
palsmids pilli mesosomes
4 6 in bacteria the complexes of layers external
to the cell protoplasm are called
cell envelope cell wall slime
4 6 some bacteria are covered within loose,
soluble shiled of macromoleucles called
capsule slime cell wall
4 7 Unicellular, colonial or simple mutticellular
organisms that possess eukaryotic cell
organization are called
eukaryotes protists protozoans
4 7 Protists have evolved from eukaryotes algae fungi
4 7 Eukaryotic kingdoms, the Fungi, Plantae and
Animalia, arose in various ways from
prokaryotes protists protozoans
4 7 Unlike plants and animals, the protists do
not develop from a blastula or an
egg embryo zygote
4 7 The organisms having characteristics that
exclude them from the other four kingdoms
are included in the kingdom
protista plantae animalia
4 7 Protists are difficult to characterise because
of their
diverse body
form
tpes of
reproduction
modes of
nutrition
4 7 Most protozoans ingest their food by the
process of
exocytosis phagocytosis pinoantosis
4 7 Trypanosoma and euglena are commonly
called
zooflagellates actinopods ciliates
4 7 the african sleeping sickness disease is
caused by
euglena amoeba trypanosoma
4 7 Choanoflagellates are named so because of
presence of
collared cells flagellated cells ciliated cells
4 7 The water regulation in fresh water ciliates is
controlled by special organelle called
central vacuole contractile
vacuole
Egestion
vacuole
4 7 Macronucleus in ciliates is haploid diploid ployploid
4 7 An example of sessile ciliate is paramecium stentor vorticella
4 7 paramecium, Vorticella and Stentor belong
to which of the following group of Protozoa.
Zooflagellates Apicomplexans Actinopods
4 7 The members of one of the folloing
protozoan groups lack specific structure for
locomotion, but move by flexing.
Ciliates zooflagellates amoebae
4 7 One of the following is called giant amoeba Amoeba
proteus
Entamoeba
hitolytica
Pelomyxa
palustris
4 7 One of the following zooflagellates is a free
living symbiont that lives in guts of termites
and help in digestion of dry wood.
trypanosoma trichonymph Euglena
4 7 The vast limestone deposits is believed to
be created by
zooflagellates foraminiferans apicomplexans
4 7 A body that is not differentiated into true root
stem and leaves and lacks vascular tissue is
called a
sporophyte gametophyte thallus
4 7 Photosynthetic pigments in algae include chlorophylls carotenes phycoerythrin
4 7 One of the following algae is used as
experimental tool as well
chlamydomona
s
chlorella volvox
4 7 A green alga having sheet like body is chlamybomona
s
desmids spirogyra
4 8 How many species of fungi are known
approximately
50,000 70,000 80,000
4 8 Mycology is the study of algae bryophytes pteridophytes
4 8 Scientists who study fungi are known as physiologists mycologists monerologist
4 8 the cell wall fo fungi contains cellulose murein lignin
4 8 fungi store surplus food usually as oil
droplets or
sugar Starch glycogen
4 8 all of the following fungi are pathogens
except
rusts smuts molds
4 8 the fungi used in bakeries and breweries is mushrooms yeasts neurospora
4 8 the fungus that is source of antibiotic
penicillin is
streptomyces pencillium aspergillus
4 8 the most common rust fungi are puccinia ustilago morchella
4 8 fungi play important ecological role as decomposers bioindicators nitrogen fixers
4 8 fungi resemble plants in that it possesses
cell wall
lacks
locomotion
the centrioles
are absent
4 8 fungi resemble animals in that it is lacks cellulose
in cell wall
heterotrophic contain chitin
in the cell wall
4 8 fungi are now a days placed in kingdom protista protoctista fungi
4 9 the eukaryotic, autotrophic, multicellular, non
motile organism which develop from
embryos are placed in kingdom
monera protista animalia
4 9 the whisk ferns belong to which of the
followign sub divisions of kingdom plantae
psilopsida lycopsida sphenopsida
4 9 which of the following classes of kingdom
plantae includes naked seeded plants
filicinae gymnospermae angiospermae
4 9 the first plants to colonize land were the fungi pteridophytes bryophytes
4 9 bryophytes are generally thought to have
evolved from
red algae green algae brown algae
4 9 the male sex organs in bryophytes are called antheridia antheridiophore archegonia
4 9 male sex organs in marchantia develop at
the tip of special branches named
sporangiophor
e
conidiophore archegoniopho
re
4 9 each moss plant is a gametophyte sporophyte thallus
4 9 one of the followings is commonly called a
hornwort because of its horn shaped
sporophyte
marchantia riccia anthoceros
4 9 bryophytes need water for producing
gametes
reproduction development
of embryo
4 9 in bryophytes the alternation of generation is isomorphic heteromorphic semimorphic
4 9 in moss plant the gametophyte consists of rhizoids stem leaves
4 9 in bryophytes the sporophytes generation
consists of
foot seta capsule
4 9 bryophytes are generally thought to have
evolved from
homosporous heterosporous asporous
4 9 in bryophytes the male and female sex
organs are
unicellular multicellular acellular
4 10 virtually all biologists agree that animals
evolved from
monera protoctists algae
4 10 the simplest of the animals belong to parazoa eumetazoa protozoans
4 10 which of the following phyla is included in
parazoa?
porifera Cnidaria platyhelminthes
4 10 the sub kingdom that includes animals of all
the phyla except simplest animals is
parazoa protozoa eumetazoa
4 10 the animals with bilateral symmetry have
been included in group
Radiata bilateria determinate
4 10 the members of phylum echinodermata
exhibit bilateral symmetry during their
embryonic
stage
larval stage adult stage
4 10 in triploblastic animals muscular, skeletal
and reproductive systems develop from
which of the followings during embryonic
development
ectoderm endoderm mesogloea
4 10 which of the following phyla belongs to
proterostomia
aschelminthes annelida mollusca
4 10 which of the followign phyla belong to
duterstomia
echinodermata hemichordata chordata
4 10 only excretory system is developed for the
transport of excretory products in
coelomates acoelomates pseudocoelom
ata
4 10 the animals that have a false coelom have
been grouped under
coelomata acoelomata pseudocoelom
ata
4 10 the members of which of the following phyla
is coelomates
cnidaria platyhelminthes aschelminthes
4 11 energy transformation in living systems is
known as
biosynthesis photosynthesis bioenergetics
4 11 one of the following kind of energy in food is
used by all organisms
light chemical kinetic
4 11 which of the following plant organelles
catches the sunlight energy and transofrm it
into chemical energy?
mitochondria golgi complex chloroplasts
4 11 the products of respiration are used by one
of the following processes
photosynthesis electron
transport chain
krebs cycle
4 11 which of the followings is a reactant in
photosynthesis?
carbon dioxide water light
4 11 The compensation point reaches during day night dawn and dusk
4 11 The fact that oxygen released during
photosynthesis comes form water was
hypothesized by
Van Neil Melvin Calvin Has Krebs
4 11 The fluid filled region present in the
chloroplast is known as
thylakoid grana stroma
4 11 A system of membrane forming an
interconnected set of flat disc like structure
sin stroma is known as
thylakoid stroma grana
4 11 Thylakoid sacs stacked in columns are stroma grana cisternae
4 11 Light can work in chloroplasts only if it is reflectd refracted absorbed
4 12 The term used for the food of any substance
that supplies the body with elements
necessary for metabolism
nutrition nutrient food
4 12 Organisms that can exist in exclusively
inorganic environment are
autotrophic heterotrophic symbiotic
4 12 The predominant elements that the plants
need for synthesis of organic molecules is
carbon oxygen hydrogen bond
4 12 An element present in proteins is nitrogen phosphorus magnesium
4 12 Chlorophyll contains which of the following proteins chlorophyll cytochromes
4 12 Chlorophyll contains which element in the
centre of its head structure
phosphorus nitrogen iron
4 12 The crops if grown repeatedly in the same
field
fail to grow fail to florish flourish
4 12 The chemical fertilizers commonly used in
Pakistan is
Urea Super
phosphate
Ammonium
nitrate
4 12 Chlorosis refers to stunted growth lack of
chlorophyll
deficiency of
nitrogen
4 12 Deficiency of magnesium results in chlorosis premature
death of plant
yellowing of
leaf margins
4 12 The deficiency of which of the followign
results in premature death of plant
nitrogen potassium magnesium
4 13 The transport of gasses in plants is by intercellular
spaces
stomata lenticels
4 13 In older stems the cork tissue has special
pores for exchange of gases called
hydathodes lenticels stomata
4 13 Air spaces between mesophyll cells
comprises how much of the total volume of
the leaf
10% 25% 40%
4 13 A process in green plants that occurs during
daytime and is characterized by absorption
of oxygen aand release of carbon dioxide is
respiration photosynthesis photorespiratio
n
4 13 Photorespiration starts when the quantity of
oxygen
becomes more
quantity of
oxygen
becomes less
amount of
carbon dioxide
increases
4 13 The process of photorespiration uses oxygen light energy ATP and
NADPH2
4 13 which gas is released during photorespiration Oxygen carbon dioxide hydrogen bond
4 13 In the first step during photoresiration
ribulose disphosphate reacts with oxygen.
The reaction is carried by
ribulose ribose deoxyribose
4 13 The pathway in which ribulose bisphosphate
(RuBP) is converted into serine is called
calvin bensin
cycle
Krebs cycle photorespiratio
n
4 13 Rubisco is carboxylase oxygenase reductase
4 13 the active site of rubisco is evolved to bind oxygen carbon dioxide both and b
4 13 when ribulose disphosphate reacts with
oxygen, a 2-c compound glycolate is formed
that diffuses into
mitochondria chloroplasts peroxisomes
4 13 in peroxisomes the glycolate is converted into glycine serine glucose
4 13 Two molecules of glycine produced in
glycolate cycle combine to form serine. The
reaction occurs in
mitochondria chloroplasts peroxisomes
4 13 In most plants photorespiration reduces the
amount of carbon fixed by
10% 15% 20%
4 14 The processes involved for getting the
materials into and out of the cells are
Diffusion Osmosis Active
4 14 In plants which of the following processes is
involved in movement of materials into,
within and out of the body.
Absorption by
roots
Conduction of
water
Transportation
4 14 The nutrients needed by plants is Carbon dioxide Water Minerals
4 14 The site where most of the uptake of water
and minerals takes place is
Entire root
surface
Apical region
of root
Root hairs
4 14 Minerals are absorbed primarily as Inorganic ions Organic ions macromolecule
s
4 14 The uptake of minerals by root cells is by Active uptake passive uptake Facilitated
diffusion
4 14 the diffusion of ions along with water also
takes place by
Facilitated
diffusion
Osmosis Mass flow
4 14 Most of ions are taken up by the roots by the
process of
Mass flow Active uptake Osmosis
4 14 At incipient plasmolysis the cell is Turgid Flaccid Partially turgid
4 14 Pressure exerted by the protoplast against
the cell wall is called
Osmotic
potential
Pressure
potential
Water potential
4 14 Maximum pressure potential is achieved
when a cell is placed in
Hypotonic
solution
Isolonic
solution
Hypertonic
solution
4 14 Which of the following is most plausible
theory for ascent of sap ?
Cohesion-
Tension theory
Root pressure
theory
Imbibition
theory
4 14 The attraction among water molecules that
holds water together forming a solid chain-
like column within the xylem tubes is
Cohesion-
Tension theory
Tension Adhesion
4 14 How may different types of transpiration
exist in nature
One Two Three
4 14 In biennials, e.g , root of beet, acts as Sink in first
growing
season
Source in the
next growing
season
Both a and b
4 14 In Earthworn, respiratory pigment
haemoglobin is present
In RBCs In nucleated
WBCs
In platelets
4 14 One cubic millimeter of blood contains how
many white blood cells
7000 8000 7000 to 8000
4 14 T-cells recognize antigen then combat
microorganisms and /or effect the rejection
of foreign tissues in case of tissue
transplant. This is called
Active
immunity
Passive
immunity
Autoimmune
response
4 15 The mechanism of regulation, generally
between organism and its environment, of
solute and gain and loss of water is
Coordination Homeostasis Osmoregulatio
n
4 15 Detection of change and signaling for
effector's response to control system is a
Feebback
mechanism
Negative
feedback
Coordination
4 15 The aninmals that do not require to adjust
their internal osmotic state are termed
Osmoconforme
rs
Osmoregulator
s
Thermoregulat
ors
4 15 The plant organs that help in getting rid of
accumlated wastes during autumn are
Osmoconforme
rs
Execretophore Ureotelic
4 15 One of the following is named body's "
central metabolic clearing house "
Liver Kidney Sweat glands
4 15 Plants respond to cold stress by Synthesizing
cold-shock
proteins
Increasing
proportion of
unsaturated
fatty acids
Bringing
changes in
solute
composition
4 15 the animals that generate their own body
heat through heat production as by-product
during metabolism are called
Endotherms Ectotherms both a and b
4 15 Bats and humming birds are Endotherms Ecotherms Heterotherms
4 15 In humans the insulating material against
heat loss is
Blubber Hair on the
body
A layer of fat
beneath the
skin
4 15 The evaporating cooling in the respiratory
tracts of dogs is called
Vasodilation Vasoconstrictio
n
Panting
4 15 body temperature regulation in humans is
based on coples homeostatic mechanisms
facilitated by
Feedback
mechanism
Homeothermy Heterothermy
4 15 In humans beings the temperature receptors
are present in
Brain Skin Blood vessels
4 16 In most terrestrial plants the major
mechanical stress is imposed by
Gravity Ascending
water
Wind
4 16 The actively conduction portion of the
secondary xylem is termed
Sapwood Heartwood Primary wood
4 16 The plant movements because of external
causes are
Paratonic
movements
Autonomic
movements
Growth
movements
4 16 The movement during which growth in the
lower surface of leaf in bud condition is more
than that of the upper surface and the bud
remains close is called
Epinasty Hyponasty Nyctinasty
4 16 The movement in response to stimulus of
touch, for example climbing vines is
Thigmotropic
movement
Haptonastic
movement
Nutation
4 16 Which of the following hormones plays
major role in phototropism ?
Auxin Gibberellin Abcissic acid
4 16 A tough and rigid framework of the body of
animals that provides protection , shape and
support to body organs is
Skeleton Muscles Tendons
4 16 All of the following are adaptations that
helped an arthropod to live and grow within
an exoskeleton EXCEPT
Invaginations
in the form of
redges and
bars for
muscle
attachment
Presence of
soft and
flexible joints
for free
movements
Presence of
sensory
receptors
4 16 The collagen fibres of bone are hardened by
deposition of
Calcium
phosphate
Lipoprotein Calcium
carbonate
4 16 How many bones make skull ? Eight - All
single and
unpaired
Eight - 2
paired, 4
unpaired
Twenty two - 8
paired, 6
unpaired
4 16 The seven vertebrae that lie in the neck
region are
Cervical Thoracic Lumbar
4 16 The muscles that show alternate light and
dark bands are
Voluntary
muscles
Involuntary
muscles
Striated
muscles
4 16 The isotropic or non-polarizing bands
present along the length of each myofibril are
A bands I bands H - Zone
4 16 Euglena moves with the help of Pseudopodium Flagellum Cilium
4 16 The paramecium moves by Flagella Cilia Pseudopodia
4 16 The wings act as aerofoils when birds Glide Fly Walk
4 17 The growth in a plants that is induced by
parasites , for example bacteria is
Tumors Galls Calluses
4 17 The biological rhythm is in one's Nervous
coordination
Chemical
coordination
Behaviour
4 17 it is responsible for promotion of fruit
ripening
Auxins Abscisic acid Ethene
4 17 A receptor may be a Cell Neuron ending Receptor organ
4 17 One of the following are known as
electromagnetic receptors
Photoreceptors Noice
receptors
Chemoreceptor
s
4 17 A measure of capacity to do electrical work is Membrane
potential
Electrical
potential
Resting
potential
4 17 There is a beginning of centralized nervous
system in one of the followings
Hydra Jelly fish Planaria
4 17 Limbic system in forebrain consists of Hypothalamus Amygdala Hippocampus
4 17 L-dopa is an effective drug to control which
of the following disease
Alzheimer's
disease
Drug abuse Parkinson's
disease
4 17 The most important test in the study of
epilepsy is
Electrocardiogr
am
Electroenceph
alography
Alcohol
tolerance test
4 17 Chemically hormones may be Proteins Polypeptides Steroids
4 17 All plant behaviour is Learned Innate Imprinting
4 18 The reproduction that requires a single
parental organism which give rise to
offspring by mitosis
Asexual Sexual Amitotic
4 18 Meiosis is also called Equational
division
Reductin
division
Crossing over
4 18 Double fertilization is a characteristic of Bryophytes Pteriodphytes gymnosperms
4 18 In seed plants megasporangium is
represented by
Stanmen Carpel Ovary
4 18 Auxins, Gibberellizns and Cytokinins are
associated with
Development
of embryo
Accumulation
of food
reserves in
seed
Accumulation
of food
reserves in
fruit wall
4 18 Effect of photoperiodism was first studied by Garner and
Allard
Watson and
Crick
Schleiden and
Schwann
4 18 All the following are short day plants
EXCEPT
Xanthium Hayoscyamus Strawberry
4 18 In animals the advance mode of sexual
reproduction is
Unisexuality Bisexuality Hermaphroditis
m
4 18 Fertilization in frog and fish is Internal External Both a and b
4 18 Seminiferous tubules consist of Germinal
epithelium
Spermatogonia Spermatocytes
4 18 The primary oocyte divides meiotically into Primary oocyte Secondary
oocyte
Oogonia
4 18 How many follicles continue to grow with
their primary oocytes in a human female ?
One Three Few
4 18 A sexually transmitted disease in humans
that produces genital soreness and ulcers in
the infected areas is
Gonorhea Syphilis Genital Herpes
4 19 The growth in plants may be Primary Secondary Tertiary
4 19 Vascular cambium gives rise to Lateral shoots Lateral roots Xylem and
phloem
4 19 Increase in intensity of light Increases
number of cell
divisions
Increases Cell
elongation
Brings cell
maturation
4 19 The red light favours Cell division Elongation of
cells
Cell maturation
4 19 At optimum temperature the chick completes
it development and is hatched on the
21st day 40th day 230th day
4 19 The stage during the development of chick
in which the movement and rearrangement
of cells in the embryo takes place is
Morula Blastula Gastrulation
4 19 In developing chick embryo the cavity
between the yolk and endoderm is
Blastocoel Gastrocoel Coelom
4 19 The study of aging is called Ethology Etiology Gerontology
4 19 Degeneration of cartilage leads to Arithritis Arteriosclerosis Blood clothing
in coronary
arteries
4 19 Limbs are regenerated throughout life in Lizards Salamander Planaria
4 19 In plants regeneration is Not common Absent Basis of
propagation
4 19 Cell elongation in plants is caused by florigen gibberellins auxins
4 19 opening and closing of flowers represents a
kind of
nastic
movement
topic
movement
nutation
4 19 which one of the following is energy
releasing process?
photosynthesis respiration osmosis
4 19 sunflower plant is a short day plant long day plant day neutral
plant
4 19 in aerobic respiration the oxygen taken is
reduced to
CO2 H2O C6H12O6
4 19 lactic acid is the end product of aerobic
respiration
anaerobic
respiration in
plants
anaerobic
respiration in
animals
4 19 one glucose molecule during glycolysis yields two molecules
of pyruvic acid
one molecule
of pyruvic acid
three
molecules of
pyruvic acid
4 19 the total number of ATP produced during
anaerobic break down of one Glucose
molecule
2 4 8
4 19 apical dominance in plants is caused by vernalin auxins gibberellins
4 19 gibberellins were first obtained from rice fungus bacteria flowering plants
4 19 the weed killer 2,4-d is a synthetic gibberellins auxins cytokinins
4 19 the gibberellins were first discovered by kurosawa overbeek F.W went
4 19 an example of short day plant is chrysanthemu
m
larkspur sugar beet
4 19 the growth movement of plants induced by
the external stimuli are called
autonomic turgor photoastic
4 19 during glycolysis, at first glucose under goes decarboxylatio
n
hydrogenation Substrate level
phosphorylatio
n
4 19 in krebs cycle succinic acid is converted to fumaric acid malic acid oxaloacetic
acid
4 19 what is the number of carbon atoms in
oxaloacetic acid
2 3 4
4 19 number of ATP formed during ETC of one
molecule of NADPH2.
2 3 4
4 19 Respiration occurs during growth of plant
only
night daytime
4 19 some of the first experiments on plant
homones were conducted by
F.W. went over beek kurosawa
4 19 cocount milk contains hormones called auxin cytokinins gibberellin
4 19 growth movement in response to gravity is
called
geotropism thigmotropism chemotropism
4 19 a short day plant has a photoperiod of 9 light
/ 15 dark hours. Which one of the following
will initiate flowering in it.
12L/12D 10L/14D 8L/16D
4 19 in yeasts the respiratory products are CO2
and
citric acid ethyl alcohol methanol
4 19 In animals the product of anaerobic
respiration is
Butyric acid Alcohol Glucose
4 19 The process of Glycolysis takes place in Mitochondria Cytoplasm Stroma
4 19 In electron transport chain, one pair of
electrons passing from NADreduced to
oxygen produces
4 ATP 3 ATP 2 ATP
4 19 From which of the following plants gain
weight
Respiration Transpiration Photosynthesis
4 19 Cambium is responsible for increase in Length Photosynthesis Diameter
4 19 In which of the following cells elongate
parallel to the long axis of the stem or root
Pith Trachieds Cortex
4 19 Spiral thickenings of the walls of cells occur
in
Parenchyma Chlorenchyma Xylem vessels
4 19 The molecule which actually enters the
Krebs cycle is
Pyruvic acid Acetyl-CoA Oxao acetic
acid
4 19 In the Krebs cycle oxaloacetic acid reacts
with
Pyruvic acid Citric acid Acetyl-CoA
4 19 One ATP molecule is generated during the
Krebs cycle in the step
citric acid -------
---- lpha
Ketoglutatic
acid
Alpha
Ketoglutatic
acid -------
Succinic acid
Succinic acid --
--------------
Fumaric acid
4 19 At the end of the electron transport chain
during respiration, electrons are accepted by
NAD FAD Oxygen
4 19 During growth fibers elongate greatly At right angle
to the long axis
Parallel to the
long axis
Obliquely to
the long axis
4 19 Which of these is the naturally occurring
auxins
Indole acetic
acid
2, 4-D Abscisic acid
4 19 The application of Auxin in small amount Stimulate the
growth of
leaves
Retard the
growth of
leaves
Suppress the
growth of
leaves
4 19 Which of these increases the growth rate of
isolated cells in a test tube
Auxins Cytokinins Gibberellins
4 19 Chrysanthemum indicum is a Short day plant Long day plant Day neutral
plant
4 19 Thigmotropism is a growth movement in
response to
sunlight gravity water
4 19 The function of cellular respiration is to make ATP make NADPH get rid of
glucose
4 19 Each chemical reaction in cellular respiration
requires
a molecule of
ATP
a molecule of
FAD
a molecule of
NAD
4 19 The term anaerobic means with glucose with oxygen without glucose
4 19 Which of the following processes makes
direct use of oxygen
Glycolysis Fermentation Electron
transport chain
4 19 How many ATP molecules are formed
during one turn of Krebs cycle
zero 1 2
4 19 Glycolysis is a process found in only eukaryotic
cells
only
prokaryotic
cells
only most
muscle cells
4 19 How many molecules of oxygen gas are
used during the Glycolysis of one glucose
molecule
none 1 6
4 19 Phosphoglyceraldehyde is oxidized during
Glycolysis. What happens to the hydrogen
atoms that are removed during this oxidation
They oxidize
NAD
They reduce
NAD
They are
transferred to
Pyruvic acid
4 19 During the first step of Glycolysis, glucose is
converted to glucose phosphate. The
phosphate group comes from
inorganic
phosphate
phospholipids
of the
membrane
ADP
4 19 Which of the following is not true of
Glycolysis
substrate level
phosphorylatio
n takes place
the end
products are
carbon dioxide
and water
ATP is formed
4 19 Which of the following is not formed during
alcohol fermentation
acetyl
coenzyme A
Pyruvic acid Ethanol
4 19 Which of the following is the end product of
anaerobic respiration in animals
ethyl alcohol lactic acid carbon dioxide
4 19 In the conversion of Pyruvic acid to acetyl
coenzyme A, Pyruvic acid is
oxidized reduced broken into
one carbon
fragment
4 19 In the electron transport system, the final
acceptor electrons is
cytochrome c cytochrome a oxygen
4 19 In aerobic respiration, most of the ATP is
synthesized during
Glycolysis Oxidation of
Pyruvic acid
The Krebs
cycle
4 19 How may ATP molecules are formed inside
mitochondria from the breakdown of one
glucose molecule
32 ATP 36 ATP 38 ATP
4 19 During electron transport, each molecule of
FADH2 produces a maximum of
2 ATP 3 ATP 6 ATP
4 19 Fatty acids enter cellular respiration as one carbon
fragment
two carbon
fragments
three carbon
fragments
4 19 In a eukaryotic cell, the Krebs cycle and
electron transport chain take place
on the rough
endoplasmic
reticulum
in the
cytoplasm
with in the
nucleus
4 19 The main advantage of aerobic respiration
over anaerobic respiration is that
less carbon
dioxide is
released
more energy is
released from
each glucose
molecule
fats and
proteins are
not used
4 19 A molecule of ADP differs from a molecule
of ATP in that it has
diamine
instead of
thymine
fever
phosphate
groups
more
phosphate
groups
4 19 Shoot apical meristem cells are distinct from
other stem cells because of their
small size enlarged water
vacuole
thick cell wall
4 19 New leaves are formed from the shoot apical
meristem
vascular
cambium
lateral buds
4 19 Most of a plants auxin is produced in its leaves lateral buds shoot apex
4 19 The main effect of auxin is to stimulate division enlargement differentiation
4 19 Cytokinins stimulate cell division enlargemen wall thickening
4 19 When its terminal bud is removed, plant
grows more
tall bushy slowly
4 19 Which of the following delays the normal
process of aging in leaves
auxins gibberellins insulin
4 19 Ethylene is an unusual hormone in that it is a gas solid transported by
the xylem
4 19 An important effect of ethylene is to cause
maturation of
leaf primordial flower fruit
4 19 If a short day plant is grown under conditions
of long nights and short days and the dark
period is interrupted in the middle by a brief
exposure to red light, the plant will
wilt flower fail to flower
4 19 If a long day plant is grown under conditions
of long nights and short days and the dark
period is interrupted in the middle by a brief
exposure to red light, the plant will
die flower fail to flower
4 19 Which of these is not true of fermentation
(anaerobic respiration)
net gain of
only 2 ATP
occurs in the
cytoplasm
NADH
donates
electrons to
the electron
transport
system
4 19 The transfer of high energy phosphate
bonds to ADP by the substrate is called
oxidative
phosphorylatio
n
substrate level
phosphorylatio
n
photophosphor
ylation
4 19 Which of the following property are shared
by fermentation, aerobic respiration and
photosynthesis
all need
Oxygen
all require CO2 all need 37 C
Temp
4 19 The asexual production of seeds is called fragmentation fertilization parthenocarpy
4 19 A hormone that controls closure of stomata
in response to water stress is
gibberellins Abscisic acid Auxins
4 19 Which of the following cellular organelles
extracts energy from carbohydrates and
forms ATP molecules
Lysosome Chloroplast Mitochondrion
4 19 The value of respiratory quotient of amino
acids is
0 1 more than 1
4 19 The primary plant body is covered with a
layer of cells called
cuticle epidermis periderm
4 19 Root hairs are formed from extension of the ground tissue periderm epidermis
4 19 Secondary growth involves activity of the root tips shoot tip apical
meristem
4 19 The function of root cap is to produce
embryonic cells
protect the
root apical
meristem from
damage
absorb water
4 20 Chromosomes are composed of DNA Histone
proteins
RNA
4 20 How many pairs of chromosomes are
present in surgarcane ?
13 20 23
4 20 The string of nucleosomes wraps into
highter order
Euchromatin Heterchromatio
n
Solenoid
4 20 Oswald Avery along with Coli Macleod and
Maclyn McCarty found " transforing principle
" to be
Protein DNA Chromosomes
4 20 DNAse is A protein-
digesting
enzyme
A DNA
digesting
emzyme
Both protein
and DNA
digesting
enzyme
4 20 Watson and Crick model for DNA suggested
that basis of copying the genetic information
is
Base pairing Complementari
ty
Semi-
conservation
4 20 The DNA replication begins at One specific
site on DNA
More than one
site on DNA
More than one
site on DNA
where there is
a specific
sequence of
nucleotides
4 20 A disease in which patients produce urine
that contains homogentisic acid is
Alkaptonuria Diabetes
insipidus
Phenylketonuri
a
4 20 Beadle and Tatum worked with Saccha
romycis
Streptococcus
penumoniae
Neurospora
4 20 One of the following discovered the
molecular basis of sickle cell anemia in 1956
Frederick
Sanger
Vernon Ingram T.H Morgan
4 20 The process of production of an mRNA copy
of the gene is called
Translation Trascription Central dogma
4 20 The initiation codon for every gene is UUU AUG GCT
4 20 One of the following disorder is because of
point mutation
Phenylketonuri
a
Alkaptonuria Down's
syndrome
4 21 A Period of non-apparent division during cell
cycle is termed
Interphase Growth phase No growth
phase
4 21 In a human cell average cell cycle is about 35 minutes 4.5 hours 10 hours
4 21 The phase of mitosis that involves division of
nucleus is
Cyto kinesis Karyokinesis Mitotic phase
4 21 The mitotic apparatus is organized at the
end of
Prophase Metaphase Anaphase
4 21 Cancer is because of Mutations in
somatic cells
Mutations in
genes that
regulate cell
division
Exposure to
radiations
4 21 A special type of cell division that occurs at
the time of gamete formation in animals and
spore formation in plants is
Mitosis Meiosis Gametogenesi
s
4 21 During meiosis each paired structure
consisting of two homologous chromosomes
is called
Chiasmata Brivalent Tetrad
4 21 In human beings one of the followings
results because the 21st Chromosome fails
to segregate resulting in abnormal gamete
with 24 chromosomes.
Down's
syndrome
Klinefelter's
syndrome
Turner's
syndrome
4 21 Males with 48 chromosomes (44 auto some
+ XXXY), with 49 chromosomes ( 44 auto
some = XXXX) are also observed in case of
Down's
syndrome
Klinefelter's
syndrome
Patau
syndrome
4 21 Cell death due to tissue damage is termed Necrosis Apoptosis Cancer
4 22 Partners of a gene pair are called Loci Alleles Genotypes
4 22 All the genes or alleles found in a breeeding
population at a given time are collective
called
Genome Genotype Gene pool
4 22 Mendel, a priest, performed series of
breeding experiments on
Edible pea Garden pea Drosophila
4 22 When both the alleles of a gene pair in an
organism are same, the organism is
__________ for that gene pair.
Recessive Dominant Homozygous
4 22 Test cross is used to find out Homozygous
nature of the
genotype
Heterozygous
nature of the
genotype
Segregatio of
gametes
4 22 Incomplete dominance was first studied by
Carl Correns while working on a flowering
plant named
Rosa indica 4 O'clock Jasmine
4 22 A man of B phenotype marries a woman of
phenotype O, their children cannot be of
Blood type A Blood type B Blood type O
4 22 Rh blood group system is named after The discoverer
of its antigen
Rhesus
monkey
Both a and b
4 22 When a single gene affecs two or more
traits, the phenomenon is called
Epistasis Apoptosis Pleiotropy
4 22 Human skin colour is a quantitative trait that
is controlled by
Three genes Six genes Three to six
genes
4 22 Frequency histograms illustrate Polyenic traits Polygenic
inheritance
Variations
4 22 In one of the following Y chromosome
appear to have very little influence on sex.
Grasshopper Drosophila Human beings
4 22 Diabetes mellitus is a X-linked trait Y-linked trait Multifactorial
trait
4 23 Genetically engineered bacteria have been
used to
Clean up
environmental
pollutants
Increase the
fertility of the
soil
Kill insect pests
4 23 Genes can be isolated from the
chromosomes by cutting the chromosomes
on the flanking sites of the gene using
Polymerase
chain reaction
Restriction
endonuyclease
s
Recombinant
DNA
technology
4 23 The nature enzymes of bacteria that they
use for their own protection against viruses
are
Restriction
endonucleases
Reverse
transciptases
RNA
polymerases
4 23 one of the following is used as evidence for
paternity
DNA Test DNA
fingerprints
Gene
sequencing
4 23 The biotechnology products by bacteria
include
Tissue
plasminogen
activator
Haemphillia
factor VIII
Insulin
4 23 Which of the following means can be used
to insert genes into eggs of animals
By hand By vortex
mixing
By plasmids
4 23 The insertion of genetic material into human
cells for the treatment of a disorder is
Gene cloning Gene pharming Gene therapy
4 23 Plantation of herbicide resistant plants
helped in which of the following
Controlling
weeds
Minimizing soil
erosion
Both a ad b
4 23 An antibody produced by one of the following
plant can deliver radioisotopes to tumor cells
Corn Soybeans Sugar-beets
4 23 One of the following plants produces an
antigen to treat non-Hodgkin's lymphona
Tobacco Sugarcane Potatoes
4 24 Natural selection refers to Mechanism of
evolution
Survival of the
fittest
Origin of new
species
4 24 Eukaryotes are thought to have first
appeared about
1.5 billion
years ago
3.5 billion
years ago
420 million
years ago
4 24 Endosymbiont hypothesis was first proposed
by
Carlous
linneaus
Whittakar Lynn Margulis
4 24 The major features of theory of natural
selection is
Adaptation to
the
environment
Overproduction Survival in the
struggle for
existence
4 24 In terrestrial animal s the gill pouches
develop into
Eustachian
tubes
Ears Nose
4 24 The total aggregate of genes in a population
at any one time is called the population's
Gene pool Genome Genetic
makeup
4 24 Which of the following factors can affect the
gene frequency ?
Mutation Migration Genetic drift
4 24 In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium, 16% of the individuals show the
recessive trait. What is the frequency of the
dominant allele in the population?
0.84 0.48 0.36
4 24 A species that is in imminent danger of
extinction throughout its range is
Threatened
Endangered
Endangered Extinct
4 25 The major unit of ecology is Community Biome Ecosystem
4 25 All populations within an ecosystem are
known as a
System Population Community
4 25 If we study a single population's relationship
to its environments it is
Ecology Autecology Synecology
4 25 The succession ends with a diverse and
relatively stable
Community Climax
community
Ecosystem
4 25 The primary succession that starts on a dry
soil or rock is termed
Hydrosere Psammosere Derosere
4 25 A predator is a Producer Consumer Decomposer
4 25 The mode of feeding in which the animals
feed on grass is termed
Commensalis
m
Parasitism Symbiosis
4 25 The reduction of nitrate in a plant cell into
ammonium is called
Ammonification Nitrification Denitrification
4 25 The total amount of energy fixed by plants is Gross primary
productivity
Net primary
productivity
Secondary
primary
productivity
4 26 The most common features exhibited by
aquatic ecosystems is because of
Slower
changes in its
temperature
Capacity of
water to
absorb radiant
enerygy
Concentration
of nutrients
near the
bottom
sediments
4 26 Aquatic ecosystems exhibit which of the
following features
Absorption of
considerable
amount of light
energy
Concentration
of nutrients
near the
bottom
sediments
Abundant
water supply
4 26 The distribution of light in lakes depends on Access to light Access to
nutrients
Place for
attachment
4 26 The producers in limnetic zone are Photosynthetic
protista
Cyanobacteria Water lilies
4 26 The ecosystem present on land is called Lithospheric Atmospheric Biome
4 26 Which of the following ecosystems is NOT
found in pakistan ?
Grasslands Tundra Desert
4 26 Coniferous forests located at high altitude
are called
Deciduous
forests
Temperate
forests
Boreal
4 26 Herbivores are dominant animal species in Temperate
deciduous
forests
Coniferous
forests
Deserts
4 26 There is virtually no rain and no vegetation
at all The statement is true for
Taiga Thal Thar
4 26 The ground is carpeted with small perennial
flowers and dwarf willows no more than a
few centimeters fall in
Alpine forests Boreal forests Grasslands
4 27 Environment is direct or indirect source for Food Shelter Fuel
4 27 One of the following is non-renewable
resource
Air Land Metals
4 27 The driving force behind all the natural
cycles is
Lands Plants Sun
4 27 The inactive gases in the air are termed Fossil fuels Inert Trace gases
4 27 Which of the following are termed basic
constituents of the soil ?
Soil particles Soil water Soil organisms
4 27 Nuclear energy is source of Air pollution Radiation
pollution
Domestic
pollution
4 27 The earth's natural resources include Water and soil Chemical
elements
Living
organisms
4 27 Early man had a niche in the ecosystem as Primary
consumer
Secondary
consumer
Tertiary
consumer
4 27 the study of human population is called Dendrochronol
ogy
Demography Dendrography
4 27 Population increase leads to Social
diseases
Starvation destruction of
natural habitats
4 21 chromosomes were discovered by bradford huxley W.S. Sutton
4 21 which of these chromosomes have
centromere located at one end
metacentric submetacentric telocentric
4 21 in animals, meiosis occurs during the
formation of
spores zygote gametes
4 21 crossing over occurs during diplotene pachytene diakinesis
4 21 if there were 8 chromosomes in the parent
cell, how many chromosomes, would there
be during prophase II in each cell?
2 4 8
4 21 during which phase of meiosis do tetrads
form?
Prophae I metaphase I prophase ii
4 21 the phenomenon permitting exchange of
chromosome segments is called?
crossing over segregation linkage
4 21 which protein complexes are associated with
DNA in chromosome composition?
tubulin histones non histones
4 21 in pea, pollen grain has 7 chromosomes.
What will be the number of chromosomes in
the zygote?\
7 14 28
4 21 who ws the first person to study the cell
divisoin in plant
walter morgan stressburger
4 21 Which of these established that the units of
inheritance are located on the chromosome
Sutton Waldeyer Watson and
Crick
4 21 Which of the following determines the shape
of the chromosomes
chromatids chromatin
material
shape of the
centromeres
4 21 The morphology of the chromosome is best
studied during
interphase prophase telophase
4 21 Telocentric chromosomes have centromere
located at
one end both ends center
4 21 Which of these chromosomes have
centromere located at one end
acrocentric Telocentric Metacentric
4 21 Which of these chromosomes have a very
short arm
Telocentric Metacentric Acrocentric
4 21 Which of the following chromosomes have
arms of unequal length
Telocentric Metacentric Acrocentric
4 21 Which of the following types of
chromosomes have arms of equal length
Metacentric Submetacentri
c
Acrocentric
4 21 The total chromosome complement of a cell
is called
Karyosome Karyokinesis Karyogamy
4 21 DNA and histones together form a structure
called
Centromeres Nucleosome Nucleoplasm
4 21 Which of the following number of molecules
of various types of histones form
Nucleosome
8 10 16
4 21 Which of these studied mitosis in plant cells Strassburger Flemming Sutton
4 21 Which of these studied mitosis in animal cells Strassburger Flemming Sutton
4 21 During mitosis the process of cytoplasmic
division is called
Cytomeiosis Cytoplasmosis Cytokinesis
4 21 DNA replication occurs in which phase of the
cell cycle
prophase interphase metaphase
4 21 Which of the following is part of mitosis in
cells of seed plants
Centrioles Asters Spindles
4 21 In plants, meiosis occurs during the
formation of
gametes seeds spores
4 21 The prophase I of Meiosis completes in Two stages Three stages Four stages
4 21 The number of chromosomes in a fertilized
egg is
half as many
as in
unfertilized egg
the same as in
sperm
twice the
number as in a
sperm
4 21 All the somatic cells of a diploid organism
originate from a single cell called
gamete autosome spore
4 21 If at the end of meiosis, each of the four
daughter cells has four chromosomes, how
many chromosomes were in the mother cell
2 4 8
4 21 At what phase of meiosis are homologous
chromosomes separated
Prophase I Anaphase I Prophase II
4 21 The process by which homologous
chromosomes being to pair with each other
is called
chiasma interkinesis crossing over
4 21 The points at which crossing over has taken
place between homologous chromosomes
are called
Chiasmata Centromeres Synapsis
4 21 Crossing over occurs during leptotene zygotene pachytene
4 21 During what phase of meiosis tetrads are
form
prophase I prophase II metaphase I
4 21 During what phase of meiosis the nuclear
envelop breaks down
prophase I metaphase anaphase I
4 10 a common cloacal chamber instead of
separate anus and urinogenital operture is
found in
prototheria metatheria eutheria
4 10 Salamander is an example of bony fishes jawless fishes amphibians
4 10 Which of these is not true of amphibians breathing by
gills in the
larval stage
breathing by
lunge in the
adult stage
mostly internal
fertilization
4 10 Which of the following is the character of
amphibians
living both in
water and on
land
cold blooded least
numerous of
the terrestrial
vertebrates
4 10 Which of these has cartilaginous skeleton sharks eel pike
4 10 Which of the following are without jaws dogfish trout pike
4 10 Jellyfish fish belongs to bony fishes cartilaginous
fishes
jawless fishes
4 10 Sharks belong to cartilaginous
fishes
bony fishes jawless fishes
4 10 Which of these are regarded as the first of
the vertebrates
bony fishes jawless fishes cartilaginous
fishes
4 10 Which of these is not true of Pisces presence of
gills for
breathing
tail as organ of
locomotion
undeveloped
skull
4 10 Which of the following is not the character of
amphibians
cold blooded do not depend
on water for
reproduction
hibernate in
winter
4 10 The characters of vertebrates are presence of
vertebral
column
internal living
skiliton
three main
body parts
4 10 true placenta is found in prototheria metatheria eutheria
4 10 the muscular partition between thorax and
abdomen of a man is called
pleura mesentry Pericardium
4 10 how many occipital condyles are present in
birds
1 2 3
4 10 the heart of a reptile is three
chambered
four
chambered
imperfectly
four
chambered
4 10 all of the following are cold blooded except frog whale lizard
4 10 in which of the following, the tail persists
through out life
frog tree frog salamander
4 10 which of the following is not present in the
fish
middle ear internal ear Gills
4 10 generally hibernation is an inactive phase of
life during
spring summer autumn
4 10 the lid like operculum is not present around
the gills of
sea horse bony fish cartilaginous
fish
4 10 the amphioxus belongs to protochordata vertebrata pisces
4 10 The vertebrates are all unisexual all
hermaphrodite
some
unisexual and
some
hermaphrodite
4 10 Vertebrates are bilaterally
symmetrical
radially
symmetrical
vertically
symmetrical
4 10 Which of these is not the mammalian
character
presence of
hairs
right aortic arch diaphragm
4 10 which one of the followign is without teeth frog snake crow
4 10 Reptiles are warm blooded cold blooded with internal
fertilization
4 10 Artiodactyla include moles cattle horses
4 10 Elephants are included in carnivore perissodactyla artiodactyla
4 10 Flying mammals are included Rodentia Chiroptera Primates
4 10 Metatherians lay eggs have to teeth
in the adult
do not have
true placenta
4 10 Which of these is not true of the egg laying
mammals
feeding young
with milk
presence of
hairs
diaphragm
4 10 In Which of the following young are born in
rudimentary conditions
kangaroos zebras elephants
4 10 The skin of mammals is provided with sweat
glands for
respiration temperature
regulation
oily secretion
4 10 The ear of mammals is divided into three parts four parts five parts
4 10 In mammals fertilization is absent internal external
reptiles
dipods tetrapods pentapods
4 10 Which of these is not true of reptiles internal
fertilization
predominantly
terrestrial
tetrapods
4 10 Which of these are the placental mammals prototherians metatherians eutherians
4 10 Which of these is not the character of reptiles fertilization is
internal
eggs are large
shelled
lay eggs in
water
4 10 Which of the following birds cannot fly Rhea Cassowary Penguin
4 10 The heart of reptiles is imperfectly two
chambered
imperfectly
three
chambered
imperfectly
four
chambered
4 10 Which of the following is true of reptiles do not lay eggs lay eggs in
water
lay eggs on
land
4 10 In reptiles amnion and allantois are extra
membranes of
egg sperm zygote
4 10 Which of these is an example of amphibian sea horse rohu newt
4 10 Which of these is extinct reptile Turtles Brontosaurus Snake
4 27 which one of the following is a non
renewable resource
forest land Water
Pollinated
4 27 acid rains are caused by excessive
atmospheric pollution due to
NH3 CO2 SO2
4 27 the deficiency of calcium in the diet causes rickets pneumania goiter
4 27 the conditions under which an organism lives
is known as
environment atmosphee space
4 27 all non cultivated plants and non
domesticated animals are called
urban life wild life global life
4 27 iodine deficiency in human causes rickets anemia goiter
4 27 the removal of top soil by the action of water
or wind is called
soil depletion soil erosion sod bound
4 27 stress and anxiety of fast life may result in
the development of
T.B small pox Cancer
4 27 which of the following is not a long term
consequence of exposure to radiations
skin cancer leukemia bone cancer
4 27 the amount of fresh water on our planet is 1% 2% 5%
4 27 in which one of the followign countries are
windmills still used as energy resource
america pakistan australia
4 27 Green house effect is the result of Air pollution Forestation Ultra violet
radiations
4 27 Acid rains in the result of Clear air Burning of
fossil fuels
Forestation
4 27 Stone cancer is caused by Bacteria Virus Acid Rain
4 27 Repeated crop production result in Increase in
soil fertility
Decrease in
soil fertility
Accumulation
of more
organic matter
4 27 Which of the following groups of crops
grown continuously is not suitable
Wheat, Pea
and Corn
Corn, Pea and
Rice
Wheat, Rice
and Corn
4 27 The removal of surface soil by the action of
water or wind is called
Soil depletion Sod Bound Pollution
4 27 Man cut down forests and has Disturbed
native plants
and native
animals
Contributed to
the cleanliness
of air
Produced
good effects
on natural
environment
4 27 Fossil fuels are Geothermal,
Biomass and
natural gas
Ocean-thermal
gradient,
waves, oil and
tides
Coal, oil and
natural gas
4 27 Splitting of the nucleus of radioactive atom
releases
Energy Electricity Water
4 27 The real problem and difficulties of
depending upon nuclear energy is that
it is extremely
expensive
it is exhaustible it has
environmental
hazards
4 27 An accident in a nuclear reactor at
Chernoble Nuclear Power Plant occurred
during 1986 in
USA USSR China
4 27 the average flow of solar energy per square
kilometer on earths surface is
80,000
Kilowatts
180,000
kilowatts
200,000
kilowatts
4 27 The digestion of organic wastes by bacteria
for the generation of energy is termed
Hydrogenation Pyrolysis Biodegradation
4 27 The recommended diet per day for an
average young man should contain
2400 calories 1400 calories 24000 calories
4 27 Minimum protein requirement for an average
adult is between
75 100
grams
50 75 grams 37 62 grams
4 27 Protein deficiency in early childhood mainly
affects
Bone formation Learning
capacity
Digestive
system
4 27 Calcium deficient diet in early childhood
causes bones deformation which may lead
to disease called
Leprosy Tuberculosis Rickets
4 27 Which of the following groups is infectious
diseases
Goiter, Small
Pox and
Tetanus
Tetanus,
Measles and
Diphtheria
Anemia, Small
Pox and
Pneumonia
4 27 Stresses and anxiety of fast life may
contribute to the development of
Tuberculosis Small pox Pneumonia
4 27 The first insecticide used on a large scale
was
2, 4-D DDT Methane
4 27 The accumulation of carbon dioxide on
global scale tends to warm the air in the
lower level of the atmosphere. Which of the
following factor does not contribute to this
phenomenon
heavy
industrialization
urbanization burning of
fossil fuel
4 27 Due to the repeated crop production in the
same soil, some nutrients are not returned to
the soil and as a result soil fertility is
reduced. This is called
soil erosion soil depletion sod bound
4 27 As a result of destruction of natural habitat of
the living organisms by the activity of man,
these organisms, either die out or on the
verge of extinction. Therefore these
organisms are known to be the
endangered
species
cultivated
species
hybrid species
4 27 Which of the following is advantage of the
hydro electric power as compared to other
sources of energy
more
expensive
hazardous clean and
pollution free
4 27 The energy produced due to natural
radioactive decay in the earths core is called
Ocean thermal
gradient
Geothermal Tidal power
4 27 Which of the following is the option
(possibility) before the biologists to be used
as human food in future
farm industry seaweeds
(kelps)
cigarettes
industries
4 27 Which of the following is approximate rate of
child mortality in Pakistan due to malnutrition
10% 20% 30%
4 27 The deficiency of which of these causes
anemia in man
Ca Iron Na
4 27 The deficiency of iodine in the diet causes
malfunctioning of
salivary glands liver thyroid gland
4 27 Which of the following was totally eradicated
from the world by the year 1980
tuberculosis small pox pneumonia
4 27 which of the following is an infectious disease tuberculosis blood pressure goiter
4 27 According to health reports, a smoker runs a
risk of reducing his/her life expectancy for
every cigarette he/she smokes by about
zero minutes one minute five minutes
4 12 Fine vesicles in Amoeba, which Secrete
digestive enzymes are
Lysosomes Centrosomes Contractile
vacuoles
4 12 The digestion in Hydra and Planaria is Intercellular Extracellular Both
intracellular
and
extracellular
4 12 In earthworm typhlosole is a part of Reproductive
system
Circulatory
system
Excretory
system
4 12 In Earthworm the part of esophagus behind
the gizzard is sometimes called
Pharynx Stomach Colon
4 12 How many pairs of salivary glands are
present in the buccal cavity of man
1 2 3
4 12 Ptyalin of salivary juice hydrolyses starch
and glycogen into
Amino acids Maltose Peptides
4 12 the cardiac sphincter is present in heart lungs urinary bladder
4 12 Pepsin of gastric juice is responsible for the
digestion of
Carbohydrates Fats Proteins
4 12 A Kind of hormone secreted by the stomach
is
Enterokinase Gastrin Renin
4 12 The bile of the liver contains 1 enzyme 2 enzymes No enzyme
4 12 Appendix is a small blind finger like
projection of the
Caecum illeum Rectum
4 12 Which one of the following has no anus but
mouth present
Hydra Jelly Fish Planaria
4 12 The largest gland in the human body is Thyroid Pancreas Kidney
4 12 In Hydra the internal environment of
digestive cavity is kept in motion by the beat
of
Tube feet Flagella Tentacles
4 12 The medium of the food vacuole in the
unicellular animals is first:
Basic Neutral Acidic
4 12 Which of the following has no digestive
cavity?
Hydra Planaria Earth worm
4 12 Which of the following has one way passage
of the food material in the digestive tract?
Amoeba Hydra Planaria
4 12 The oesophagus has internal glands which
secrete:
Protolytic
secrete:
Hydrolytic
enzyme
Bile
4 12 The living cells of earth worm intestine
secrete:
Water Base Acids
4 12 The enzyme secreted by saliving glands is Sucrase Cellulase Pepsin
4 12 Which of the following does not take part in
the pushing of food from the buccal cavity
into the pharynx?
Cheek muscles Floor of buccal
cavity
Nose muscles
4 12 Norma direction of the waves of contraction
of the muscle (Paristalisis) is from:
Stomach to
oesophagus
Intestine to
stomach
Oesophagus
to pharynx
4 12 The inner lining of the stomach consists of Salivary glands Pituitary glands Gastric glands
4 12 Which of the following is present in the
gastric juice:
Lipase Amylase HCI
4 12 Which of the following is not present in the
pancreatic juice?
Amylase Cellulase Lipase
4 12 Which of the following acts upon cellulose? Lipase Trypsin Pepsin
4 12 Which of the following is absorbed by the
lacteals?
Fats Glucose Amino acids
4 12 Which of the following releases Trypsin? Gastric glands Adrenal glands Enterokinase
4 12 Dipeptiase acts on Disaccharide ADP Diglyceride
4 12 Which of the following is not part of a villus? Red blood cells Blood
capillaries
Lacteals
4 12 Villi are found on the inner surface of: Pharynx Stomach Oesophagus
4 12 The lack of absorption of water & salt by the
large intestine result in:
Constipation Diarrhea Vomiting
4 14 The blood is red but there are no red blood
cells in
Frog Grasshoper Earthworm
4 14 In Earthworm the hearts pump the blood
from the dorsal blood vessel in to the
Pulmonary
Artery
Ventral blood
vessel
Lateral blood
vessel
4 14 the body cavity in which the blood flows,
freely is called
Coelom Entron Coelenteron
4 14 Each chamber of the heart in Grosshopper
contains a pair of lateral openings called
Atria Spiracles Ostia
4 14 the opening of the left atrium into the left
ventricle is guarded by a valve called
Tricuspid valve Aortic valve pulmonary
valve
4 14 the special muscles of the heart of
vertebrates are called
Cardiac muscle Smooth
muscles
Voluntary
muscle
4 14 When the right ventricle of human heart
contracts, the blood is sent into the
Aorta Pulmonary
arteries
Pulmonary
veins
4 14 Major part of the plasma consist of Protein Water Red Blood Cell
4 14 the blood from the digestive system is
carried by
Hepatic veins Hepatic portal
vein
Subclavian
vein
4 14 the contraction of heart ventricles in man
produces highest arterial pressure called
Diastole Systole Peristaltic
pressure
4 14 The protein which helps in the blood clotting
is
Fibrinogen Albumin Haemoglobin
4 14 The human blood plasma constitute about
how much percent by volume of blood
45% 60% 55%
4 14 In the 1st 13 segments of earthworm, the
dorsal vessel acts the function of
Collection Distribution Both a & b
4 14 From the 14th segment backward, the
dorsal vessel acts as
Collecting
blood
Distributing
blood
Both a & b
4 14 The dorsal vessel in earthworm sends the
collected blood to
Ventral vessel Sub-neural
vessel
Hearts
4 14 Which of the following vessel runs below the
intestine in earthworm ?
Dorsal vessel Ventral vessel Sub-neutral
vessel
4 14 The direction of flow of blood in the sub-
neutral vessel is
Lateral Vertical Forward
4 14 The colour of blood plasma is black green red
4 14 Which of the following is absent in
grasshopper
Heart Blood Capillaries
4 14 The blood enters the heart through the Aorta Ventral vain Ostia
4 14 Which of the following is true of man ? Open
circulatory
system
One
circulatory
fluids
Two
circulatory
fluids
4 14 Heart is enclosed by a tough membrane
called
Diaphragm Pericardium Pericardium
4 14 Which of the following number of chambers
compose heart of man ?
Two Four Seven
4 14 Atria are located Above the
ventricle
Blow the
ventricle
One left of the
ventricle
4 14 The right side of the heart contains Oxygenated
blood
Deoxygenated Mixed blood
4 14 Which of the following received blood from
the body ?
Ventricle Atria Both Ventricle
and atria
4 14 From the right ventricle blood is pushed
towards the
Aorta Left atrium Lungs
4 14 By the contraction of the left ventricle the
blood is pumped into the
Right atrium Left atrium Lungs
4 14 The tricuspid valve guarding the opening
between the right atrium and right ventricle is
made up of
Three flaps Two flaps Four flaps
4 14 The aerated blood returns from the lungs by
means pulmonary veins into the
Right atrium Right ventricle Left atrium
4 14 The whole heart cycle takes about 0.2 seconds 0.4 seconds 0.6 seconds
4 14 The heart muscles take rest for about 0.1 -0.3
seconds
0.4 -0.5
seconds
0.6 -0.8
seconds
4 14 Arteries are formed of tissues arranged in Single layer Two layers Three layers
4 14 The thickness of blood capillaries is One cell Two cells Three cells
4 14 The average diameter of a blood capillary is
about
1um 3um 5um
4 14 Aorta arises from left atrium left ventricle right atrium
4 14 Which of the following supply blood to the
heart itself ?
Pulmonary Lliac Cutaneus
4 14 Superior vena cave carries blood to the Left atrium Right ventricle Right atrium
4 14 Which of the following carry blood from the
kidneys ?
Hepatic vein Hepatic portal
vein
Renal vein
4 14 Which of the following has the lowest blood
pressure ?
Arteries Arterioles Capillaries
4 14 Blood pressure from arteries towards veins increase Decrease Remains
unchanged
4 14 Normal range of diastolic blood pressure is 70-85 85-95 90-100
4 14 Which of the following has the high rate of
blood flow ?
Veins Capillaries Aorta
4 14 Which of the following has the reduced rate
of blood flow ?
Aorta Arteries Capillaries
4 14 Which of the following brings about the
transits of nutrients hormones etc between
the blood and tissues
Aorta Capillaries Veins
4 14 Which of the following has greater cross
sectional area ?
Aorta Capillaries Veins
4 14 Which of the following is not the
characteristics of the blood ?
Circulates in
the vessels
Complex
substance
Composed of
plasma and
blood cells
4 14 The percent by volume formed by the
plasma of the blood about
45 55 65
4 14 The water percentage (by wt) of the plasma
is almost
50 60 80
4 14 How many nucleoli are present in the red
blood cells
One Two Three
4 14 Which of the following is the shape of
human RBC
Biconcave Biconvex Spherical
4 14 In embryonic stages RBC are formed in heart liver and
spleen
head
4 14 RBC present in one cubic millimeter of blood
are almost
Two million Four million Five million
4 14 WBC present in a cubic millimeter of blood
are almost
20,000 30,000 3,000
4 14 Which of the following is the main function of
the WBC ?
helps in blood
clotting
carry oxygen protection
against
microorganims
4 14 Which of the following are the smallest in
size ?
Erythrocytes Lymphocytes Neutrophills
4 14 Which of the following is absent in the lymph
?
RBC WBC Protein
4 14 Which of the following is the function of
lymph node ?
Carrying of 02 Producing RBC Producing
lymphocytes
antibodies
4 13 In Hydra, planaria and Earthworm, the
exchange of gasses occurs through the
Lungs General body
surface
Gills
4 13 In insects the oxygen and carbondiioxide are
carried to and from the cells by means of
Trachea
system
Alveoli Bronchioles
4 13 In Earthworm the blood is red due to
heomoglobin dissolved in
Red Blood
Cells
White bllod
cells
Plasma
4 13 The C-shaped rings of the cartilage in
human trachea are incomplete
Ventrally Laterally Dorsally
4 13 In human the trachea is present on which
side of the oesophagus
Lateral Posterior Dorsal
4 13 The thin covering of the human lung is called Terga Pleura Pericardium
4 13 Breathing or pumping the air in and out of
the lungs is a
Mechanical
process
Chemical
process
Cardiac
Process
4 13 Which of the following in mostly carried in
blood as bicarbonate inons
Nitrogen Oxygen Carbondioxide
4 13 Which of the following is not present in Hydra Gaseous
exchange
takes place
through the
whole surface
Specialized
organs for
respiration
present
Oxygen
diffuses from
the water in
the digestive
cavity
4 13 Which of the following has respiratory
surface of large area
Hydra Planaria Grasshopper
4 13 Which of the following has a respiratory
pigment
Earthworm Amoeba Planaria
4 13 Each nasal cavity is subdivided into air
passage ways the number of which is
3 4 5
4 13 The cavity of larynx is called Pharynx Trachea Glottis
4 13 Vocal cords are located in the Pharynx Glottis Trachea
4 13 Which of the following has no c-shaped
cartilage ring
Bronchioles Trachea Bronchi
4 13 Which of the following acts as functional
units of lungs
Bronchioles Air sac Bronchus
4 13 The membrane covering the lungs is called Diaphragm Pericardium Epicardium
4 13 Which of the following acts as pumps for
moving air in and out of lungs
Lungs Heart Kidneys
4 13 With the increase in volume of the chest
cavity its internal pressure
Decrease Increase Remain
unchanged
4 13 Which of the following is not correct for
inspiration
Elevation of
chest wall
Lowering of
diaphragm
Lowering of
chest wall
4 13 Which of the following is the maximum
amount of oxygen absorbed by 100 ml of
human blood
10 ml 15 ml 20 ml
4 13 The amount of Carbon dioxide given off by
100 ml of blood when it passes through the
lungs is
1 ml 2 ml 3 ml
4 15 In Grasshopper the Malpighian tubules arise
form the beginning of
Proctodaeum Stomodaeum Mesenteron
4 15 The flame cells are the excretory argans of Hydra Planaria Earthworm
4 15 The excretion in Earthworm occurs through
the
Malphigean
tubules
Flame cell kindneys
4 15 In human the position of the right kidney as
compared to left kidney is a little
Upper dorsal ventral
4 15 The numebr of nephrons in a human kidney
is about
1 million 3 million 1/2 million
4 15 The thick cluster of capillaries within the
Bowman's capsule of human kideny is called
Henle's loop Cortex Medulla
4 15 Henle's loop is a part of a Nephron Neuron Oviduct
4 15 the percentage of urea in human urine is
about
1% 2% 50%
4 15 The lowest concentration of the nitrogenous
wastes may be found in blood passing
through
Pulmonary
artery
Hepatic vein Renal artery
4 15 The maintenance of the constant internal
environment despite changes in the external
environment is termed as
Homeostasis Homology Anastasis
4 15 The nitrogenous waste product of
metabolism in mammalian kidney is chielfly
Ammonia Amino acid Urea
4 15 Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous waste
matter formed by the
Planaria Earthworm Grasshopper
4 15 The chief nitrogenous waste products in
grasshopper is
Ammonia Nitric acid Uric acid
4 15 Which of the following emerges from the
hilus in human kidney
Urinary bladder Ureter Urethra
4 15 Each nephron is Blind at one
end
Blind at both
ends
Open at both
ends
4 15 A cluster of capillaries present in the
Bowman, capsule is called
Cortex Medulla Glomerulus
4 15 How many processes are involved in the
functioning of kidney to form urine
None One Two
4 15 The percentage of dissolves solids in urine
is almost
20 10 5
4 15 Which of the following controls the
reabsorption of glucose in the urinary tubule
Testeoron Thyroxin Insulin
4 15 The insufficiency of insulin results in
incomplete metabolism of
Carbohydrate Fats Protein
4 15 Which of the following Disease results when
carbohydrates metabolism is incomplete in
the body
Goiter Colour
blindness
Diabetes
mellitus
4 15 Which of the following is the waste product
formed during metabolic process
Sucrose Heat Glucose
4 15 Which of the following plays a part in
temperature regulation
Skin Kidney Lungs
4 15 Which of the following phenomenon occurs
if the body begins to lose more heat than it is
generating
More blood
supply to skin
More sweating Reduction in
metabolic
activity
4 17 The coordination in animals is brought about
by the nervous system and
Endocrine
System
Exocrine
Systme
Reproductive
system
4 17 The structures that are specialized for
detecting the stimuli are called
Effectors Muscles Receptors
4 17 The fundamental unit of structure and
function in the nervous system is
Nephron Ganglia Schwann cell
4 17 The beginning of the centralized nervous
system is found in
Hydra Planaria Amoeba
4 17 The neurons that conduct the impulses form
the central nervous systme to the effectors
are called
Sensory
neurons
Motor neurons Associative
Neurons
4 17 The cells which lack the ability to divide to
form new cells are
Blood cells Epidermal cells Epithelial cells
4 17 The neurotransmitter is released by Axon terminals Dendrites
terminals
Schwann cells
4 17 The largest part of human brain is Medulla
oblongata
Cerebellum Cerebrum
4 17 The cerebellum consists of two lateral lobes
and a central narrow lobe called
Pineal gland Vermis Epiphysis
4 17 action potential in the nerve fibre results
from the increased permeability of the
membrane to
potassium ions sodium ions hydrogen ions
4 17 vital centre for the control of heart beat,
breathing, constriction and dilation of blood
vessels are located in the
pons medulla
oblongata
cerebellum
4 17 how many pairs of spinal nerve arise from
the spinal cord
11 21 31
4 17 how many pairs of cerebrol nerves arise
from the brain
12 10 8
4 17 at least how many endocrine glands are
present in man
6 10 16
4 17 the glands that directly pour their secretion
into the blood are called
Endocrine exocrine epicrine
4 17 the thyroid gland has the remarkable ability
to store
calcium sodium chlorine
4 17 insufficient scretion of thyroid in infants
causes dwarfed condition known as
gigantism goiter myxedema
4 17 which one of the following is exocrine as well
as endocrine in function
thyroid gland parathyroid
gland
pancreas
4 17 an endocrine tissue, islets of langerhans are
present within the
thyroid gland parathyroid
gland
liver
4 17 cortisone is an important hormone of adrenal cortex adrenal
medulla
cerebral cortex
4 17 which of the following hormones prepare the
body for situation of stress and emergency
thyroid and
parathyroid
insulin and
glucagon
oestrogen and
androgen
4 17 the production of milk for nursing the baby is
stimulated by
LTH STH FSH
4 17 The hormone which causes the powerful
contractions of the uterus during and after
the birth is called
Vasopressin SH cortisone
4 17 the 'feed back' of TSH and FSH reaches to
the
pancreas liver pituitary gland
4 17 Which of the following is not the character of
multicellular animals
Tendency
towards
division of
labour
Better
organization
Less inter
dependency of
organs
4 17 Which of the following does not come under
the coordination in multicellular animals
Deregulation Organization Integration
4 17 Which of the following consists of secretary
tissues
Nervous
system
Endocrine
system
Circulatory
system
4 17 How many steps are involved in a response None One Two
4 17 Which of the following are structures that
respond when they are stimulated by nerve
impulses
Neurons Receptors Effectors
4 17 Which of the following lacks central nervous
system
Planaria Hydra Man
4 17 Each sense organ is specialized to receive Specific type
of stimulus
Different types
of stimuli
All types of
stimuli
4 17 Which of the following light does not
stimulate our eyes
Green Blue Violet
4 17 Which of the following carry impulses from
the central nervous system
Sensory
neurons
Effectors Association
neurons
4 17 Which of the following lie exclusively in the
spiral cord and brain
Sensory
neurons
Motor neurons Association
neurons
4 17 The contact point between the axon endings
of one neuron and the dendrites of another
neuron is called
transmitter Acceptors Synapse
4 17 The chemical liberated by the axon ending
due to the arrival of an impulse are called
acceptors transmitters absorpters
4 17 Which of the following is incorrect Now neurons
are formed by
the division of
old ones
Neurons lack
the ability of
division
Neuron can
regenerate
axons if cell
body is not
damaged
4 17 Which of the following is the normal rate in
meter per second of an impulse
10 50 100
4 17 How many types of actions are usually
performed by human body
Two Three Four
4 17 Which of the following conditioned reflexes Inborn Inherited Unlearnt
4 17 Which of the following is not the part of brain Lateral brain Fore brain Midbrain
4 17 Which of the following is not part of the
forebrain
Cerebrum Thalamus Epithalamus
4 17 Which of the following is the largest part of
human brain
Midbrain Hindbrain Thalamus
4 17 Which of the following is the control centre
of sight and hearing
Cerebrum Thalamus Hypothalamus
4 17 Which of the following is not controlled by
cerebrum
Smell Hearing Water balance
the hypothalamus
Appetite Sleep Body
temperature
4 17 Which of the following receives most of the
impulses arriving from different sensory
areas of the body
Midbrain Hindbrain Thalamus
4 17 Which of the following forms the second
largest part of the brain
Cerebellum Cerebrum Pone
4 17 Which of the following controls and
coordinates the balance among organs and
the muscles
Thalamus Hypothalamus Cerebellum
4 17 Which of the following is controlled by
medulla oblongata
Muscular
activities
Heart beat Judgment
4 17 How many pairs of cerebral nerves arise
from the brain
12 15 20
4 17 How many spiral nerves come out of the
spiral cord
25 31 35
4 17 Which of the following types of nerves
cerebral arise from the brain
Sensory Motor Mixed
4 17 Which of the following types of spiral nerves
arise from the spiral cord
Sensory Mixed Motor
the nervous system
Body
equilibrium
Rate of heart
beat
Rate of growth
4 17 Which of the following controlled by
hormones
Rate of growth Rate of activity Sexual maturity
4 17 Which of the following generally not the
function hormone
Initiate a
process
Simulate Inhibit
4 17 Which of the following is true of hormones All are proteins All are
inorganic
compounds
All are
Organics
substances
4 17 Thyroid gland lies Near liver In the middle
portion of neck
Top of kidney
4 17 What would happen to the sugar metabolism
in the absence of insulin in the body
Stops Not affected Rate increases
4 17 Which of the following is not regulated by
iodothyroxines
balance of
salts
Maturation Sexual
development
4 17 Which of the following will occur as a result
of insufficient secretion of the thyroid gland
at infancy
Dwarf growth Incomplete
mental
development
Retarded
sexual
development
4 17 Which of the following occurs as a result of
myxedema in adults
Incomplete
carbohydrate
metabolism
Dwarf growth Disturbance in
salt
metabolism
4 17 Which of the following results due to the
deficiency of iodine
Exophthalmic
goiter
Goiter Mental lethargy
4 17 What happens to the blood glucose level as
a result of insufficient insulin production
Increase Decrease Remains
normal
4 17 Which of the following is secreted by adrenal
glands
Cortisone Adrenaline Cortisone
4 17 Which of the following secreted by adrenal
glands
Cortisone Adrenaline Cortisone
4 17 Which of the following functions effectively
during emotions and emergencies
Adrenaline Noradrenalin Cortisone
4 17 Which of the following is male sex hormones Testosterone Estrogen Cortisone
4 17 Which of the following is produced by the
ovaries
Iodothyorine Testosterone Estrogen
4 17 Which of the following is located at the base
of the brain
Ovaries Liver Adrenal glands
4 17 Which of the following is secreted by the
posterior pituitary lobe of pituitary gland
oxytocin lactogenic
hormone
thyroid
stimulating
hormone
4 17 Which of the following is not regulated by the
anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
Growth
hormone
Lactogenic
hormone
Antidiuretic
hormone
4 17 Which of the following results due to under
secretion of antiduiretic hormone
Diabetes
mellitus
Diabetes
insipidus
Goiter
4 17 Which of the following stimulates the
development of egg
Luteinizing
hormone
Testosterone Oxytocin
4 17 Which of the following will fail to appear as
result of castration
Development
of egg
Mammary
gland
Moustache
4 17 By the action of glucogon, the blood glucose
level
decreases increase remains the
same
4 16 The symmetry in which the body can be
divided into two similar halves in more than
one plan is called
dorsal
symmetry
ventral
symmetry
bilateral
symmetry
4 16 the euglena moves by the whipping action of tail pseudopodia flagella
4 16 the tube feet are the locomotary organs of jelly fish cuttle fish star fish
4 16 in which of the following the foot is modified
into funnel or siphon
earthworm grasshopper Amoeba
4 16 muscles are attached to the bones by tendon ligament sphincter
4 16 the only muscle that causes extension at
elbow joint is
biceps brachii triceps brachii brachialis
4 16 the thick myofilaments of striated muscles
are made of a protein called
actin myosin albumin
4 16 the hypothesis of 'sliding filament model of
muscle contraction' was suggested by
hershey beadle huxley
4 16 the bone of the lower jaw of man is called maxilla pre maxilla palate
4 16 the cervical region of human vertebral
column contains
seven
vertebrae
ten vertebrae twelve
vertebrae
4 16 the ilium, ischium and pubis constitute the pectoral girdle pelvic girdle fore gut
4 16 carpals are the bones of hand wrist foot
4 16 the mammals that walk on the tips of their
hoofed toes are known as
plantigrade digitigrade unguligrade
4 16 Which of the following is an advanced
character
Asymmetrical
body
Bilateral
symmetry
Radial
symmetry
4 16 Which of the following animals inhibit land
environment
Asymmetrical Bilateral
symmetry
Radial
symmetry
4 16 How many central smaller fibrils are present
in a cilium
None 2 5
4 16 Which of the following moves by means of
tube feet
Planaria Starfish Hydra
4 16 Which of the following moves by means of
foot
Earthworm Amoeba Snails
4 16 Which of the following is correct for
arthropods
Skeleton
internal to the
muscle
Skeleton
absent
Skeleton
external to the
muscle
4 16 The bones are held together by a tissue
called:
Tendons Ligament Joints
4 16 Which of the following are voluntary muscles Skeletal Cardiac Smooth
4 16 Which of the following are involuntary
muscles
Cardiac Smooth Skeletal
4 16 Which of the following muscles contract
relatively quickly
Cardiac Smooth Skeletal
4 16 Which of the following is the range of
diameter of a skeletal muscle fibre
10-100 um 100-200 um 300-400 um
4 16 Which of the following are contractile
subunits present in each muscle fibre
Myofilaments Myofibrils Myosin
4 16 The cell membrane enclosing the fibre is
called:
Plasmolema Endolema Sarcolemma
4 16 Myofilaments within the sarcoplasmic
envelope run:
Transversally Longitudinally Obliquely
4 16 The Myofilaments are made up of: Glycogen Steroids Cellulose
4 16 Which of the following make up thick
filament of the myofibril
actin Pectin Myosin
4 16 The impulse received from the supply to the
muscle release:
K++ Na+ Mg+
4 16 When a muscle fibre receives an impulse
from the nerve it
Contracts Expands Remains
unaffected
4 16 The tricep brachii muscle possesses: One head Two heads Three heads
4 16 How many bones take part in the formation
of cranium in man
8 10 15
4 16 How many bones support the fact in man 5 7 9
4 16 Which of the following bone is not the part of
cranium in man
occipital temporal ethmoid
4 16 Which of the following takes part in the
formation of cranium
Frontal bone Occipital bone Sphenoid
4 16 The atlas vertebrae lie in the Back Thoracic region Neck
4 16 Which of the following number of vertebrae
are present in the thoracic region
12 14 16
are lying in the lower back region
3 5 7
4 16 Which of the following vertebrae are present
in the lower back
Atlas Cervical Lumber
4 16 Which of the following vertebrae are lying in
the neck region
lumber cervical thoracic
are present in the pelvic region
3 5 7
4 16 Which of the following number of rib pairs
compose the chest cage
12 15 18
4 16 Which of the following attaches the arms to
the trunk
Pelvic girdle Pectoral girdle Hip girdle
4 16 Which of the following connects the scapula
to the sternum
Axis Atlas Coccyx
4 16 The joint formed by the humerus with the
scapula is:
Hinge joint Ball and ocket
joint
Multistage joint
4 16 Which of the following joint is formed by the
radius and ulna at their distal end with the
wrist bones
Hinbge Ball and socket Multistage
4 16 With how many wrist bones ulina and radius
form a joint
4 8 10
4 16 Which of the following from knee joint with
the femur
Illium radius and ulna Tibia and
Fibula
4 16 The ankle bones are called: Tarsal Carpels Metacarpels
4 16 The number of ankle bone is: 2 8 16
4 16 Which of the following is the characteristic of
endoskeleton
Primitive Inert Non-living
exoskeletion
Rigid Heavy Non-living
4 16 Which of the following is not the
characteristics of endoskeleton
Secreted by
endodermal
cells
Poses no
hindrance to
the growth
Present in
advanced
animals
4 16 The bones forming endoskeleton in
vertebrates are:
living non-living secreted by
endodermal
cells
4 16 Which of the following have plantigrade
locomotion
Bears Fishes Goat
4 16 Which of the following have unguligrade type
of locomotion
Goat Man Rabbits
4 16 Which of the following locomotion is present
in horse
Plantigrade Digitigrades Unguligrade
4 16 Which of the following have bipedal
locomotion
Horse Bear Rodents
4 18 under unfavourable condition the amoeba
reproduces by
conjugation budding binary fission
4 18 which one of the following animals is
hermaphrodite
amoeba earthworm round worm
4 18 the external fertilization is more prevalent in land animals aerial animals aquatic
animals
4 18 the protective coats of the embryo, amnion
and chorion appeared for the first time in
amphibia reptiles birds
4 18 the developing embryo of reptiles, birds and
mammals is provided with the watry medium
and physical support by
amniotic fluid chorionic fluid allantoic fluid
4 18 numerous convoluted tubles within the
testes are called
nephrons uriniferous
tubules
epididymis
4 18 after ovulation the ruptured follicle does not
degenerate at once but tranforms into a
glandular structure called
corpus
callosum
corpus luteum placenta
4 18 in human female the total gestation period is
usally about
6 months 7 months 9 months
4 18 at birth the baby is still attached to maternal
uterus through the
umbilicus umbilical cord Oviduct
4 18 the milk produced initially by the mammary
glands contains a special lymph like fluid
called
amniotic fluid pleural fluid serum
4 18 the matured follicle of human ovary is
commonly called
corups luteum graafian follicle gonadotrophin
4 18 in human female ovulation ordinarily occurs
near which day after the start of menstruation
7th 10th 14th
4 18 Which of the following is not involved in
asexual reproduction
Binary fission Multiple
fissions
Budding
4 18 The gametes produced by female are called: Ova Sperms Spores
4 18 Sperms are produced in male inside: Ovaries Kidney Embryo
4 18 An individual possessing both male and
female reproductive organs is called:
imperfect hermaphrodite Unisexual
4 18 Which of the following conditions need huge
supply of yolk to the egg
viviparity Oviparity Both A & B
4 18 Which of the following animals are viviparous Birds Deer Frog
4 18 Which of the following lies to the extreme
outside completely covering the embryo
Amnion Allantois Chorion
4 18 Which of the following acts as a reservoir for
undigested food and nitrogenous waste
products
Allantoic cavity Amnoitic cavity Chorion cavity
4 18 Which of the following have no elaborate
contact between the maternal and the foetal
tissues
sharks cats dogs
4 18 Which of the following mammals lay eggs Eutherians Prototherians Metatherians
4 18 Which of the following expel imperfectly
develop embryo out of the body
Prototherians Eutherians Metatherians
4 18 Which of the following have developed
placentas for the nourishment of embryos
eutherians Prototherians Metatherians
4 18 Which of the following are metatherians birds fishes kangaroos
4 18 Which of the following is eutharian Man, shark, cat Cat, monkey,
man
Cat, monkey,
birds
4 18 The maturation of spermatozoa in man
takes place in:
Duct system Seminiferous
tubules
Vas deferens
4 18 The number of ova discouraged at one time
from the ovary in human is:
none one two
4 18 The fertilized ovum or zygote enters into: Ovary Kidney Uterus
4 18 Which of the following is the approximate
gestation period in humans
seven months nine months ten months
4 18 Which of the following is involved in the
control of menstrual cycle
Pituitary gland Pancrease Thyroid gland
4 18 How many types of cells composed a human
ovary
10 7 4
4 18 Which of the following is the function of
follicle cells
reproduction growth support and
nutrition
4 18 Which of the following occurs if fertilization
fails to takes place in human female
Corpus luteum starts
regenerating
Progesterone
secretion
increases
4 18 Which of the following stimulates the
development and secretion of family in the
mammary glands
Progesterone Luteotropic
hormone
Estrogen
4 18 Which of the following stimulates the release
of the egg
Luteinizing
hormone
Follicle
stimulating
hormone
Luteotropic
hormone
4 18 In which of the following abortion of embryo
occurs if ovary is removed at any stage to
pregnancy
Rabbits Horses Monkeys
4 22 Which of the following is a condition known
for small skull
cleft plate colour
blindness
microcephaly
4 22 branch of biology which deals with the study
of the development of the zygote upto
hatching or birth is called
cytology entomology embryology
4 22 Which of the following happens when the
two blastomeres of a sea urchin are
separated
Not develops
into larva
Each one
develops into
a larva
Only one
develops into
a larva
4 22 The nucleus of Acetabularia lies: at the tip in the stalk in the cap
4 22 Muscle cells acquire special kinds of
proteins called:
Actin Insulin Pectin
4 22 Which of the following has a complete
genetic information in its nucleus for
formation of a complete individual
egg sperm zygote
4 22 Which of the following is a condition known
for hare-lip
Microcephaly Cleft palate Microspory
4 22 Which of the following tissues are regarded
as organizers
notochordal somatic reproductive
4 22 Which of the following is organizational
change in frogs development
disappearance
of gills
development
of limbs
shortening of
intestine
4 22 The process by which the tail of tadepole is
lost is called:
Progressive Retrogressive Organizational
4 22 Which of the following is formed by the
ectoderm
urinary system respiratory
system
nervous
system
4 22 Which of the following is formed from the
somatic mesoderm lying on the two lateral
sides of the notochord
vertebral
column
muscles of the
back
dermis of the
skin
4 22 Which of the following region of ectoderm
gives rise to the neural plate
mid dorsal mid ventral anterior ventral
4 22 The initiation of Gastrulation is the
appearance at one side of a:
bud cleft outgrowth
4 22 The embryo at the transitory period between
cleavage and Gastrulation is called:
blastocoele blastuala blastomere
4 22 the changes in which the existing structures
are lost during metamorphosis are called
retrogressive progressive organizational
4 22 Which of the following has a complete
genetic information in its nucleus for
formation of a complete individual
Thyroid gland Pituitary gland Liver
4 22 The two cells formed after first cleavage of
the zygote of frog are called:
micromeres macromeres centromeres
4 22 the segmentation cavity which appears in
the dividing blastomeres during development
is called
Coelom haemocoel blastocoel
4 22 the space between the parietal and visceral
layers of mesoderm is known as
Coelom haemocoel blastocoel
4 22 the whole process by which the tadpole of
frog changes into an adult frog is called
parthenogenesi
s
metamorphosis endomorphosis
4 22 the ability to reform a part of the body which
had been removed is called
parthenogenesi
s
fission conduction
4 22 during development of frog three germinal
layers are clearly evident in the
zygote morula blastula
4 22 some individuals have small skull and this
condition is called
cleft palate megacephaly microcephaly
4 22 the concept of differentation and organizer
was put forth by
spemann beadle tatum
4 22 the hollow ball stage during the development
of frog is called
morula neurula blastula
4 22 In which of the following the zygote divides
very rapidly to become Multicellular
Gastrulation Cleavage Organogenesis
4 22 In which of the following the newly formed
cells move from one place to other
Cleavage Organogenesis Gastrulation
4 22 Which of the following is not true of frog Lays eggs Embryo is
formed outside
the body
Eggs are laid
on land
4 22 Four micromeres and four macromeres are
formed in the developing zygote of frog after
First cleavage Second
cleavage
Third cleavage
4 22 in a cross BB x bb what percent of offsprings
will have the same genotype as their parents
in the F1 generation.
0% 25% 50%
4 22 which one of the followign blood groups is
called universal donor
O AB B
4 22 Which of the following trait is obtained in F1
generation when true breeding plants
producing purple flowers is crossed with true
breeding plants producing white flowers
All purple
flowers
All white
flowers
Half purple
and half white
4 22 Which of the following trait appears in the F1
generation when true breeding plants
producing round seeds are crossed with true
breeding wrinkled seeds
All wrinkled Half round and
half wrinkled
All round
4 22 In nature garden pea plant is Self fertilized Cross fertilized Both self and
cross
4 22 if a normal Rh-negative person is mistakenly
given Rh-positive blood, this will stimulate
the formation of
Rh-antigens Rh-antibodies blood clots
4 22 the inheritance of trait which is controlled by
two or more separate pairs of genes in
additive fashion is called
monogenic
inheritance
dominant
inheritance
polygenic
inheritance
4 22 Which of the following F2 talls will behave
like F1 hybrid talls
all 01-Mar 02-Mar
4 22 parents with which two genotypes could
most accurately predict the blood type of
their first child
O,O A,A AB,O
4 22 how many antigens are responsible for the
human ABO-blood groups
2 3 4
4 22 the alleles that exist in more than two
different forms are called
polygenic
alleles
multigenic
alleles
multiple alleles
4 22 the allele that makes its appearance only in
homozygous combination is called
recessive dominant complete
4 22 the alternative forms of a given gene are
called
dominant recessive phenotype
4 22 one of the followign ratios represents a test
cross
3:1 9:7 1:1
4 22 in a monohybrid cross the genotypic ratio of
the off springs in F2 generation is
9:3:3:1 1:2:1 1:1
4 22 The alternative form of a given gene is
called:
trait phenotype allele
4 22 During gamete formation the two different
alleles of a trait
separate stay together disappear
4 22 which of the followign is heterozygous for
two pairs of alleles
TTRR TtRR Ttrr
4 22 How many possible phenotypes are there for
the ABO blood group
4 6 8
4 22 Which of the following F2 talls will behave
like F1 hybrid talls
none all 02-Mar
4 22 The genotypic expression seen in a person
of blood group AB is called:
dominant-
recessive
codominance incomplete
dominance
4 22 In the above question, if the couple has
normal child, without phenylketonuria, what
is the probability this child is carrier of the
disease
0.33 0.5 67
4 22 The offspring of mating between two pure
stains are called:
hybrid mutants the P
generation
4 22 The inability of the body to utilize the sugars
properly is due to:
a dominant
gene
a recessive
gene
two dominant
genes
4 22 Baldness in human beings is hereditary
which is:
Recessive in
males
Recessive in
females
dominant in
males
4 22 Which of the following controls the colour of
eyes in human beings
brown pigment Red pigment Blue-pigment
4 22 Which of the following possible number of
gene pairs control the skin colour in man
2 4 6
4 22 How many types of gametes are possible to
be produced by a hybrid (heterozygous) pea
plant producing yellow round seeds
1 2 3
4 22 In the cross of question No. 45, what will be
the percentage of plants in F2 generation
producing yellow wrinkled seeds
18.75% 30.75% 40%
4 22 In the above cross what will be the
percentage of plants in F2 generation
producing yellow round seeds
20% 36% 46%
4 22 The gametes produced by a homozygous
dwarf plant would of
one type two type three type
4 22 When red-flowered snapdragons were
crossed with white-flowered plants, their
offspring have pink flowers. This type of
genotypic expression is called:
dominant-
recessive
co-dominance incomplete
dominance
4 22 Which of the following is the symptom of
Downs syndrome
physical and
mental
bnormality
sexual
immaturity
criminal
tnndency
4 22 A man receives his x chromosome from his mother only his father only part from his
father and part
from his
mother
4 22 In which of the following, egg determines
sex of the offspring
Drosophila Man Grass hopper
4 22 In the cross of male and female of F1
generation in Drosophila, what will be the
ratio of red eyed males among all the
offspring of F2 generation
25% 33% 50%
4 22 Which of the following is sex-linked trait in
man
Eye colour Skin colour Colour
blindness
4 22 Colour blindness is a condition in which the
individuals have difficulty in distinguishing:
Black from
white
White from
green
Yellow from
red
4 22 Gene for the trait of colour blandness in man
is located on
autosomes x chromosome y chromosome
4 22 A woman receives her x chromosome from her mother only her father only both her
mother and
her father
4 22 Genes located on the same chromosome are assorted
independently
obey Mendels
law of
independent
assessment
are not lined
4 22 Crossing over occurs when genetic
information is exchange between tow
chromatids of
a chromosome
long arms of a
chromosome
chromatids of
two
homologous
4 22 The failure of homologous chromosomes to
detach and segregate during meiosis is
called:
crossing over no disjunction sysnapsis
4 22 Which of the following defects is not caused
by non disjunction
Down
syndrome
Turner
syndrome
Klinefelters
syndrome
4 22 Individual having Downs syndrome,
contains chromo-some number
47 45 46
4 22 Which of the following determines sex of the
following in butterflies
sperm egg somatic cell
4 22 In Klinefelters syndrome females posses xx xy xxy
4 22 in klinefelter's syndrome the male receives
an extra
x-chromosome y-chromosome autosome
4 22 Females with Turners syndrome have
chromosomes
xx x xxx
4 22 down's syndrome is the result of an extra
chromosomes on autosome pair number
9 11 21
4 22 In drosophila the giant chromosoms are
found in the cells of
gastric glands salivary glands hepatic caeca
4 22 how many pairs of autosomes are present in
drospophila
2 3 4
4 22 in which one of the following animals the
female contains Xy-chromosomes
man drosophila butter fly
4 22 a trait that is controlled by a gene found on
x_chromosome is called
sex linked multiple autosomal
4 22 a colour blind person cannot distinguish red
from
blue green yellow
4 22 a colour blind father will most probably
transmit the gene for colour blindness to
50% of his
sons
100% of his
sons
50% of his
daughters
4 22 in turner's syndrome which one of the
following is missing
one x-
chromosome
autosome nucleosome
4 22 the linked genes do not obey law of
segregation
law of
independent
assortment
law of
dominance
4 22 Which of the following determines sex of the
offspring in human beings
Sperm Egg Somatic cell
4 22 In which of the following females have 45
chromosome number
Downs
syndrome
Turners
syndrome
Klinefelters
Syndrome
4 22 in the formation of gametes each gene pair
contributes
2 members dominant
members
receissive
members
4 22 bacteriophage is a virus bacteria protozoan
4 22 The Mendel factors which control the
inheritance of characters are called:
Chromosomes RNA Genes
4 22 Gametes have: the same
number of
chromosomes
as the body
cells
twice the
number of
chromosomes
as the body
cells
half the
number of
chromosome,
as the body
cells
4 22 Which of the following number of
chromosomes are present in the somatic
cells of Drosophila
4 8 16
4 22 the genes located on the same chromosome
are called
alleles homozygous linked genes
4 21 Chromosome is composed of DNA and
basic proteins called
actin myosin histones
4 21 units of chromosomes formed by DNA and
histones are called
nucleosomes nucleotides centrosomes
4 21 mitotic spindle mainly contains a protein
called
tubulin albumin fibrin
4 21 during which phase of mitosis, the
chromatids separate and begin to move
towards their respective poles
prophase metaphase anaphase
4 21 telephase is the reverse of interphase prophase metaphase
4 21 at which of the following stages the process
of synapsis will occur
zygotene leptotene pachytene
4 21 a chromosome at anaphase of mitosis
contains how many chromoatids
2 3 4
4 21 one of the following chromosomes has only
one arm
acrocentric metacentric telocentric
4 21 in which of the following stages of mitosis,
the DNA content is doubled
prophase metaphase anaphase
4 21 the homologous chromosomes get
separated towards the poles during
metaphase I anaphase I metaphase II
4 21 during which phase of mitosis an equatorial
plate is formed
prophase anaphase I metaphase
4 21 the division of cytoplasm is known as meiosis karyokinesis nucleokinesis
4 10 Which of these do the Reptiles and Aves not
share
Similar
embryonic
development
Presence of
forelimbs
Shelled eggs
4 10 Which of these is not true of birds cold blooded heavy bones weak pectoral
muscles
4 10 Which of the following is polymorphism in
coelenterates
production of
one type of
zooids
production of
two types of
zooids
production of
may types of
zooids
4 10 Which of the following is the asexual method
of reproduction in Protozoa
Isogamy An-isogamy Oogamy
4 10 Which of the following sexual method of
reproduction is absent in Protozoa
Oogamy Isogamy Anisogamy
4 10 Which of these is shelled protozoan Plasmodium Paramecium difflugia
4 10 Which of these is not the characteristic of
Proifera
aquatic habitat pores Multicellular
4 10 Members of the porifera reproduce sexually
by
Oogamy Isogamy As-isogamy
4 10 Which of these is a fresh water sponge Sycon Leucosolenia Spongilla
4 10 Which of these is the characteristic of
coelenterates
digestive
cavity with a
single aperture
presence of
nematocytes
presence of
tentacles
4 10 Which of these is not the character of
Coelenterates
primitive plan
of organization
no left and
right sides of
the body
radical
symmetry
4 10 which one of the following phyla is
exclusively marine
porifera coelenterata molusca
4 10 The sac-like internal digestive cavity of
coelenterates is called
enteron nematocytes exeron
4 10 The units of the colonies of coelenterates is
called
zoospores zooids cysts
4 10 Coelenterates are predominantly
freshwater
predominantly
marine
predominantly
terrestrial
4 10 the percentage of arthrpods in animal
kingdom is
45% 60% 75%
4 10 mantle is an envelope of glandular
epithelium covering entire body of the animal
belonging to the phylum
annelida mollusca arthropoda
4 10 which one of the following in an ectoparasite tape worm leech ascaris
4 10 the first group with definite blood vascular
system is
platyhelminthes annelida nematoda
4 10 which one of the followign contains a definite
alimentary canal, with mouth and anus
round worm tape worm liver fluke
4 10 which one of the following has no digestive
tube
liver fluke Planaria tape worm
4 10 the platyhelminthes are blastocoelomat
es
pseudocoelom
ates
acoelomates
4 10 most coelenterates are joined together to
form colonies, the units of which are called
rhizome gametocytes zooids
4 10 in Coelenterates a non cellular layer
between the ectoderm and endoderm is
called
mesoderm mesenchyma parenchyma
4 10 pinnacocytes and choanocytes are the cells
found in
coelenterates sponges echinoderms
4 10 it is generally believed that multicellular
animals evolved from unicellular
sporozoans flagellates ciliates
4 10 the protozoans comprise about 45000 species 30000 species 50000
4 10 which of these are sexually reproductive
zooids
medusae hydroids nematocytes
4 10 Most sponges are bilaterally
symmetrical
radially
symmetrical
vertically
symmetrical
4 10 a large opening of the sponges through
which water leaves is called
Osculum Atrium Ostium
4 10 Which of these is not true of Annelida Presence of
cuticle around
the body
Segmented
body
Lack of blood
vascular
system
4 10 The body cavity of roundworms is called acoelom pseudo-
acoelom
pseudo coelom
4 10 Which of the following is a radially
symmetrical animal
Planaria Rotifer Fluke
4 10 Water exits from a sponge through the spicule osculum choanocyte
4 10 Which of the following protozoans lives in
the gust termites and helps them digest
cellulose
Plasmodium Amoeba Trichonympha
4 10 the arrangement of animals into groups and
subgroups due to the similarities in their
structure and physiology is called
cytology ecology taxonomy
4 10 Which of the following are exclusively marine Mollusca Annelida Nematoda
4 10 Coiled shell is present in bivalves gastropods cephalopods
4 10 Which of these is the habitat of mollusca freshwater marine mountains
4 10 Mollusks are presence of
envelop
around the
body
highly
organized
body with
complex
systems
segmented
body
4 10 The number of pairs of legs in insects are one two three
4 10 Of all the animal species in the animal
kingdom the number of arthropod species
constitutes almost
75% 50% 25%
4 10 Which of these is not true of Echinodermata coelomata bilaterally
symmetrical
absence of
brain
4 10 Which of these possesses true body cavity
(coelom)
Annelia Nematoda Platyhelminthe
s
4 10 which of the following produce hard
exoskeletion
jelly fish Hydra Obelia
4 10 Which of the following has segmented body coelenterate protozoa platyhelminthes
4 10 Which of the following causes sleeping
sickness
vorticella Ascaris Trypanosome
4 10 Which of these belong to the phylum
nematode
planaria dracunculus corals
4 10 Which of the following is parasite in the
intestine man
Fasciola Plasmodium Taenia
4 10 Which of the following has a body cavity
called pseudocoelom
platyhelminthes coelenterate protozoa
4 10 Trichinella belongs to protozoa platyhelminthes nematode
4 10 Which of these belong to platyhelminthes Ascaris Fasciola Trichinella
4 10 Which of the following character is exhibited
by platyhelminthes
eggs without
yolk
simple
reproductive
system
all are
parasites
4 10 Which of these are acoelomatic triploblastic
animals
corals porifera platyhelminthes
4 10 Organisms possessing true body cavity are
called
acoelomata coelomata monoblastic
4 10 Which of these develops from the mesoderm circulatory
system
integumentary
system
nervous
system
4 10 Which of these develops from the endoderm nervous
system
lining of the gut reproductive
system
4 10 Which of these is an example of Annelida Ascaris Chaetopteris Trichinella
4 24 the 'descent with modification through times'
is called
special
creation
organic
evaolution
heredity
4 24 the theory of evolution which states that
acquired characters present during the life
time could pass on to the offspings is called
lamarckism darwinism mutation theory
4 24 the heart core of darwin wallace theory is variations over production struggle for
existence
4 24 all of the following are vestigial organs except wing of Kiwi nicititating
membrance in
humans
appendix in
human
4 24 the structures that show superficial
differences but are basically similar are
called
homologous analogues vestigial
4 24 who proposed that 'under cetain condition of
stability both allelic frequencies and
genotypic ratios remain constant from
generation in a sexually reproducing
population.
darwin and
wallace
beadle and
tatum
hutton and lyell
4 24 the idea embryological development repeats
the developmental history of the species is
known as
mutation theory lamarckian
theory
weinberg
theory
4 24 change in allelic frequency of a small
population purely by chance is called
genetic
equilibrium
genetic drift gene pool
4 24 the dramatic darkening in colour of original
light colored moths in the industrial areas of
England is the example of
protective
resemblance
vestigial organs homology
4 24 Which of the following is the age of the earth
according to the scientific belief
one million
years
5 million years 6 billion years
4 24 Variations in the living organisms are absent of two kinds of three kinds
4 24 Which of the following is true of a population all individuals
are exactly
alike
50%
individuals are
exactly alike
10% of
individuals are
exactly alike
4 24 Paramecium divides three times a
day
ten times a day after three days
4 24 During one breeding season a code fish lays one egg hundred eggs thousand eggs
4 24 Elephants begin to breed at age of six months six years thirty years
4 24 Elephants are considered to one of the slowest
breeders
among
vertebrates
fastest
breeders
among
vertebrates
slowest
breeders
among
invertebrate
4 24 Organisms fully adapted to their environment will gradually
perish
can not survive have low
survival
chances
4 24 Organs that serve no apparent purpose are
called
abortive vestigial reproductive
4 24 Which of the following is the vestigial organ
in human body
nose radius ear muscle
4 24 Different sorts of remains of organisms that
live in the past era are called
microorganism
s
fossils birds
4 24 Which of the following has greatest diversity
of living things
palearctic nearctic Australian
4 24 Which of these show an unusual fauna and
flora
Ethiopian Palearctic Neotropical
4 24 In which of the following the spread of fauna
and flora has often been greatly limited by
the harshness of the climate
Oriental Nearctic Ethiopian
4 24 It was observed in England that before
industrial expansion the colour of the wings
and bodies of the prevalent variety of moth
was
light red green
4 24 In heavy industrial areas the colours of moth
was changed to
yellow green brown
4 24 The absence of lichens from tree trunks in
an area is an indication of
absence of
pollution
presence of
pollution
absence of
industries
4 24 The gradual process of change that occurs
in populations of organisms over along
period of time, leading to the formation of
new species is called
organic
evolution
inorganic
evolution
genetic drift
5 1 Yen is the currency of _____. China Japan Taiwan
5 1 The biggest desert of the world is _____. Gobi Sahara Thar
5 1 The official reports of the British govt are
called _____.
White Book Red Book Blue Book
5 1 _____ gave the theory of population. Thomas
Malthus
Karl Marx Fredich Angels
5 1 China is state based on _____. Siongle Party
system
Bi Party
System
Multy Party
system
5 1 The Pearl 0f East is called to _____. Tokyo Beijing Bombay
5 1 King Abdul Aziz is the father of the nation of
_____.
Iraq Turkey Saudi Arabia
5 1 The world scout day is celebrated on
February_____.
19th 20th 21st
5 1 The largest ocean of the world is _____. Indian Ocean Pacific Ocean Atlantic Ocean
5 1 _____ is the largest ocean Islamic country in
area wise.
Indonesia Pakistan Kazakhstan
5 1 _____ is the smallest of the all ocean . Indian Ocean Pacific Ocean Atlantic Ocean
5 1 _____ is the most populous country of the
world
India China Russia
5 1 _____ was the first elected Prime Minister of
Pakistan
Liakat Ali Khan Ch
Muhammad Ali
Muhammad
Ali Bogra
5 1 The b Ex - Soviets states in central Asia
are also know as _____ .
CARs ECO USSR
5 1 Sigmund Freud was one the great _____ . Politician Painter Physicist
5 1 Hypocratic Oath is Used in _____ . Medical
Science
Literature Law
5 1 S . A . S . Is the name of _____ . Intelligence
Agency
Political Party A Medical
Company
5 1 The leading world banking Centre is _____ . Tokyo Zurich New York
5 1 A white flage represents _____ Surrender War Pact
5 1 The highest wicket -- taker the in one day
international cricket is _____ .
Kepil Dev Wasim Akram Ambrose
5 1 The biggest bird in the world is _____ . Ostrich Sky Lork Albatross
5 1 Olympic games are held every . Two Years Four Years Three Years
5 1 A black flag represents _____ . War Protest mourning
5 1 The world 's most populous continent is
_____ .
Asia Africa North America
5 1 The currency of Bangladesh is _____ . Frank Rupee Takka
5 1 The official languages of the UNO is _____ French /
English
German /
English
Arabic / English
5 1 After the World War II, the city of Berlin was
divided into _____ military zones
One Two Three
5 1 After the fall of Taliban_____ become
chairman of Afghanistan
Hamid Karzai Burhan u din
Rabbani
Rasheed
Dostum
5 1 Post Taliban interim -- setup was decided in
_____ conference
Peshawar Islamabad Bonn
5 1 Agra Summit between Pakistan and India
was held on _____
1 st July 2001 14 July 2001 13 July 2001
5 1 _____ is the only secretary General UN ,
Who visited , Pakistan
Butrus Gali Vijay Lakshmi Shamshad
Ahmad
5 1 China become member of world trade
Organization in _____ .
1945 1960 1990
5 1 Lira is the currency of .. Iran Italy Australia
5 1 France is the currency of . Mexico Belgium Australia
5 1 Pound is not the currency of .. U . K . U . A . R . Israel
5 1 Rupee is the currency of Singapore Saudi Arabia Nepal
5 1 Dinar is not the currency of . Yugoslavia Kuwait Iraq
5 1 Peso is the currency of .. Mexico Kenya Sweden
5 1 Manila is the Capital of . Malaysia Philippines Singapore
5 1 The Capital of Bhutan is Jakarta Riyadh Honoi
5 1 Bangkok is the Capital of Sri Lanka Malaysia Thailand
5 1 ______ was the only civilian Martial Law
administrator of Pakistan.
Zulfiqar Ali
Bhutto
Ayub Khan Yahya Khan
5 1 Henry Kissinger was the former US ______. PM President Secretary of
State
5 1 The largest River of the world is ______. Indus Amazon Nile
5 1 In 2000, East Timor became. Part of
Indonesia
Member of
European
Union
Part of Russia
5 1 The first World war started in ______. 1920 1914 1916
5 1 ______ was the first recipient of Nishen-e-
Haider.
Major Aziz
Bhatti
Mohammad
Sarwar
Sarwar
Hussain
5 1 Ramzan is the ______ month of Islamic
Calendar
8th 9th 10th
5 1 ______ is called as Pandatji Gandhi Nehru Avani
5 1 Taj Mahal is Located in ______. Ajmeer Agra Aligarh
5 1 ______ is not member of ECO Pakistan Kirgistan Iraq
5 1 The largest USA aid receiver country in the
world is ______.
Israel India Pakistan
5 1 The head office of SAARC is in ______. Islamabad Delhi Katmandu
5 1 Second World war stated in ______. 1914 1939 1941
5 1 Pakistan had ______ vice president (S). 1 2 3
5 1 ECO came into force in January ______. 1985 1986 1970
5 1 The Headquarters of UNO is in ______. Hague Washington London
5 1 RCD (Regional Cooperation for
Development: 1964) is an old name of
______.
OIC NAM ECO
5 1 The Headquarters of Islamic Conference, is
located in ______.
Cairo Baghdad Jakarta
5 1 ______ is the secretary General of UN
General Assembly.
Donal Johnson Kofi Anan Butrus Gali
5 1 GATT is an old name of ______. IMF WTO IFC
5 1 The headquarters of International Court of
Justice are in ______.
Washington New York Paris
5 1 UNESCO was established in 4 November
1946. Its headquarters are in ______.
Paris Berne Geneva
5 1 The headquarters of world Health
Organization are in ______.
Hague Geneva Washington
5 1 The headquarters of UNICEF are in ______. Hague Geneva New York
5 1 International Monetary Fund (IMF) was
established in 27 December 1945. Its head
office is located in ______.
New York Washington Geneva
5 1 The head office of WTO is in ______. Geneva Paris Washington
5 1 European Union (EU) was established in
______.
1945 1960 1990
5 1 North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
was established in 24 August 1949. It has 19
members and its headquarters is in ______.
Brussels London Moscow
5 1 The Headquarter of Organization of
Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is in
______.
Washington Baghdad Vienna
5 1 Which of the following is not a Baltic state? Lithuania Latvia Netherlands
5 1 ______ is not scandal Navian Country. Norway Sweden Denmark
5 1 ______ is not a Nordic Country. Finland Norway and
Sweden
Finland and
Iceland
5 1 Which of the following Country is the
equatorial Country.
Indonesia India Iran
5 1 Suez Canal was made by ______. UK France US
5 1 Which of the following Country has the
largest regular armed forces in the world?
USA UK China
5 1 Which of the following country is called play
ground of Europe?
Spain UK Switzerland
5 1 The first nuclear disaster of the world took
place in
Pentagon Hiroshima Nagasaki
5 1 The Smallest Country in the world is ______. Kuwait Maldives Vatican City
5 1 Which of country is not in the Balkan states. Greece Bulgaria Romania
5 1 The largest producer of electricity in the
World is ______.
Tajikistan Uzbekistan Kazakhstan
5 1 The largest producer of Wheat in the World
is _______.
China India US
5 1 The largest producer of Oil in the world is
______.
Iran Saudi Arabia Iraq
5 1 The largest producer of Rubber in the world
is _______.
Indonesia China Malaysia
5 1 The largest producer of Tea in the world is
______.
China Sri Lanka Bangladesh
5 1 The largest producer of Uranium in the world
is _______.
USA Austria Australia
5 1 The largest producer of Tobacco in the world
is ______.
China Bangladesh Pakistan
5 1 The largest producer of sugar in world is
______.
Pakistan India Bangladesh
5 1 The largest producer of gold in the world is
_______.
South Africa Russia Japan
5 1 The largest producer of diamond in the world
is _______.
Austria Japan Australia
5 1 The largest producer of Natural Gas in the
World is ______.
Iran Tanzania Norway
5 1 The largest producer of Nuclear energy in
the world is ______.
USA UK Russia
5 1 The largest producer of Cars in the world is
_____.
Germany Japan France
5 1 The largest producer of Dry Milk in the world
is ______.
Netherlands Norway Switzerland
5 1 The gulf of Myanmar is in Bhutan and
Maldives
Indian and Sri
Lanka
Pakistan and
India
5 1 Cyprus lies south of _____. France UK Greece
5 1 Nizam-e-Mustafa Movement in Pakistan was
launched in
1971 1975 1977
5 1 European Community has _____ members. 12 1 10
5 1 Women's Liberation Movement was started
in _____.
China Afghanistan USA
5 1 The Silk Rout border is between in which of
the two countries?
India / Pakistan China /
Pakistan
Iran / Pakistan
5 1 The Country Called as Boot of Europe is
_____.
Italy UK France
5 1 The country known as "Land of Midnight
Sun" is _____.
Switzerland Italy France
5 1 Cyprus is disputed island between Turkey
and_____.
UK Greece USA
5 1 Which among the following is the largest
lake in the world?
Victoria Manchar Caspian
5 1 Which of the following country is a Key
Military Ally of Israel?
Indonesia Azerbaijan Armenia
5 1 _____is called father of Modern Turkey. Kamal Ataturk Sultan Ayubi Abdul Salam
5 1 _____ was the famous Mangol Conquered
who invaded across the world
Kabul Khan Halakoo Khan Gengis Khan
5 1 _____ is called the land of the Rising Sun Japan Russia India
5 1 Hong Kong was formerly Colony of _____. U SA UK Russia
5 1 The Noble Prize is awarded in _____ country. Switzerland France Sweden
5 1 Myanmar is an old name of _____. Burma SriLanka Bangladesh
5 1 _____ was known as Persia until 1935. Iraq Iran India
5 1 The Kabul River enters Pakistan and joins
Indus at _____.
Jehlum Sukkur Peshawar
5 1 Vatican City is an independent state in
Rome (Italy) ruled by _____.
Pope King Chancellor
5 1 _____ is the largest peninsula of the world
,located almost in the centre of the world .
Iran Saudi Arabia Iraq
5 1 _____ is the largest continent among the
total seven continents of the world.
Asia Africa Europe
5 1 _____ is the highest peak of the world,
which is part of Himalayan range.
K2 Nanga Parbat Kohe -
Sulaiman
5 1 The Great Wall of China is the greatest wall
of the world. It was built in _____.
711AD 7AD 214BC
5 1 _____ is the largest country of the world. Russia Canada India
5 1 Which religion ranks first, population wise in
the world?
Islam Hinduism Buddhism
5 1 Modern Olympic Games were first started in
1896 in _____.
Australia Austria Greece
5 1 Knesset is the name of the parliament of
_____ ?
Israel Philippine Peru
5 1 Magna Carta, which granted rights and
liberties to people of England was signed in
_____.
1215 AD 1700 AD 1425 AD
5 1 Renaissance was movement of _____ in
Europe in the 16th century.
Culture Art and
Literature
Science
5 1 Balkan war was against _____ dynasty by
the Bulgarian and Serbian in 1912.
Dependant Usmanian Mughal
5 1 Phobia means _____. Love for every
one
Strong hatred A strong fear
of a particular
thing
5 1 Vasco De Gama was a _____. Scientist Sailor Poet
5 1 Calligraphy is an art of _____. Hand writing Drawing Machines
5 1 White House is an official residence of
_____.
UK Prime
Minister
Australian
Prime Minister
Russian
President
5 1 Diet is the name _____ Parliament Chinese Japanese Korean
5 1 The Statue of Liberty in _____ is the highest
statue of the world with the height of 152 feet.
New York Washington London
5 1 Baleve Line Connects Israel with _____. Jordon Egypt Philistine
5 1 49th Parallel is a boundary between _____. America and
Canada
China and
India
India and
Bangladesh
5 1 Curzen Line is the border between _____. America and
Canada
Poland and
Lithuania
India and
China
5 1 Macmohan Line is the border between
_____.
India and
Pakistan
India and
Bangladesh
India and
China
5 1 _____ is the oldest written language of the
world.
Chinese Sindhi Sanskrit
5 1 Berlin Wall (47 km long), kept East and
West Germany divided 28 years. It was
dismounted on Nov. 18 _____.
1987 1988 1989
5 1 There are _____ players in a hockey game 9 10 11
5 1 Hockey is played with two balves of _____
minutes and break 5 to 10 minutes.
30 35 25
5 1 The sixth Cricket World Cup (1996) was
played in _____.
Pakistan India Sri Lanka
5 1 Jan Sher Khan is a Pakistan _____ player. Squash Cricket Hockey
5 1 Lenin and Stalin were the revolutionaries of
_____.
France China Russia
5 1 Karl Marx was born in _____. UK Germany Italy
5 1 Dalai Lama is a spiritual leader of Buddhism
in ____.
India Korea Japan
5 1 Dove is the symbol of _____. Peace Love Liberty
5 1 The USSR officially broke up in December
24, _____.
1991 1990 1989
5 1 The First war between Arabs and Israel was
fought in _____.
1991 1990 1948
5 1 Green revolution means _____. Revolution for
New State
Agricultural
revolution
Big Green
buildings
5 1 Mr. Kofi Anan the secretary General of UNO
belongs to _____.
Ghana Somalia US
5 1 Mr. Nelson Mandela is former president of
_____.
Cuba Vatican City South Africa
5 1 Holland is the old name of _____. New Zealand Netherlands England
5 1 _____ was the called dark continent Asia Europe Antarctica
5 1 _____ is called Queen of south. London Rome Paris
5 1 The old name of Libya was _____. Ethiopia Tripoli Siam
5 1 Mesopotamia is an old name of _____. Iraq Iran Afghanistan
5 1 Canberra is the Capital of _____. Armenia Austria Australia
5 1 Ottawa is the Capital of _____. Cambodia Cameroon Chad
5 1 Dinar is the Currency of _____. Algeria Iraq Jordan
5 1 Sofia is the Capital of _____. Brazil Bulgaria Bolivia
5 1 Santiago is the Capital of _____. Chile China Chad
5 1 The Capital of Greece is _____. Budapest Berlin Athens
5 1 Peso is the Currency of _____. Argentina Chile Colombia
5 1 The Capital of Japan is _____. Tokyo Seoul Berlin
5 1 Hanoi is the Capital of _____. Zambia Uganda Vietnam
5 1 Congress is name of the parliament of
_____.
USA India Australia
5 1 Majlis is name of the Parliament of _____. Iraq Iran Pakistan
5 1 Jatiyo Sangsad is name of the parliament of
_____.
India Nepal Bhutan
5 1 Yuan is name of the parliament of _____. Taiwan China Hong Kong
5 1 Mao Zedong was revolutionary leader of
_____.
Taiwan North Korea China
5 1 Vienna is the name of the Capital of _____. Austria Angola Albania
5 1 The People's Republic of China was
established in Beijing on 1st October _____.
1947 1948 1949
5 1 The land of thousand Island is called to
_____.
Thailand Finland Cuba
5 1 Ruble is the name of the Currency of _____. Russia Brazil Fiji
5 1 Oscar wild was famous English Scientist Autho Politician
5 1 Leo Tolestoy was _____ Novelist and
Philosopher.
Russian English German
5 1 _____ started Romantic Movement in
English Literature.
William
Shakespeare
John Milton William Blake
5 1 Chancellor is the head of the state in. Germany Austria Both of these
5 1 The capital of Uzbekistan is _____. Tashkent Ashkabad Almaty
5 1 _____ is the king of Saudi Arabia King Abdullah King Fahad Sultan Qaboos
5 1 _____ is the president of the USA George Bush George W.B.
Bush
George W.
Bush
5 1 _____ is Russian president. MiKhail
Kasyanor
Boris Yeltsin Segei
Kiruyenko
5 1 Islam ranks _____ in the world religions. first second third
5 1 HAMAS is the name of an Islamic resistance
movement in _____,
Palestine Kashmir Dagestan
5 1 The light of Islam dawned in the _____
century.
6th 5th 7th
5 1 The legendary Abbasidis Caliph Haroon-al-
Rashid ruled _____ from 768 to 809.
Persia Baghdad Spain
5 1 The world Health day is observed on _____. 07-Mar 07-Apr 07-May
5 1 The International labour day is observed on
_____.
07-Apr 08-Mar 20-Nov
5 1 Angora is the old name of _____. Ankara Albania Angola
5 1 Uncle Sam is an old name of _____. UK Australia Portugal
5 1 Bange-Dara, Bale-Jibril, Zarbe-Kalim,
Zabure-Ajam and Ramoze-Bekhudi are the
books of _____.
Abdul Kalam
Azad
Allama Iqbal Hasrat Mohani
5 1 The legislative Assembly of Kashmir
consists of _____ seats.
50 55 48
5 1 Australia won the 1999 Cricket world cup
from _____.
Pakistan Sri Lanka England
5 1 The govt. of people, by people, fro people is
called ______
Kingdom Democracy Dictatorship
5 1 X mass is a world for _____. Christmas Computer Math
5 1 Tony Blair, Britain Prime Minister belongs to
_____ party.
Conservative Democratic Labour
5 1 Australians have organized Olympic games
twice. First in 1956, second in _____.
1996 1997 1999
5 1 Fiddle Castro is president of ______ for
more than thirty five years.
Poland Cuba Spain
5 1 Lady Diana was the princes of _____. Wales Lancaster Belize
5 1 Brittan's are dynasty of the _____. Anglo Normans Anglo Saxons Plantagenet's
5 1 Battle of water Loo was fought in _____. 1914 1930 1845
5 1 Mr. Yasir Arfat is the chairman of _____. WHO UNESCO ECO
5 1 Total number of SAARC countries is ____. five six seven
5 1 Jahangir Khan of Pakistan won British Open
Squash _____ times.
five ten six
5 1 Mujeeb-ur-Rehman was killed on 15 August
1975. He was leader _____.
BNP AL BJP
5 1 _____ dynasty of the sub-continent can be
treated as first Muslim dynasty.
slave khilgi tughlaq
5 1 _____ is consider to be oldest city and
capital of the world.
Rome of Italy Yaunda of
Cameroon
Baghdad of
Iraq
5 1 Eiffel Tower is great tourist attraction in
_____.
Paris London Rome
5 1 Pentagon is the military head quarter of
_____.
UK USA Russia
5 1 _____ is consider to the biggest democracy
of the world.
UK USA India
5 1 Famous drama Hamlet was written by _____. Marlowe Goethe Bernard Shaw
5 1 Famous books Das Kapital and Communist
Manifesto were written by ____.
Karl Marx Darwin Oscar Willd
5 1 Socrates, Plato and Aristotle were ____. English authors Greek
Philosopher
French
Scientist
5 1 Gen Ayub Khan visited USSR on 3rd April
_____.
1962 1963 1964
5 1 There are only _____ countries which have
nuclear power.
five six seven
5 1 Robert Walpole was the first prime minister
of ____.
USA England France
5 1 Pigeon is the symbol of ____. Peace revolution revolt
5 1 In _____ the Russian revolution was
established when the Czar was overthrown.
1921 1917 1919
5 1 East and west Germany re-united on
October 3, ______.
1987 1988 1989
5 1 _____ discovered America in 1499. Columbus Vasco da
Gama
Marko polo
5 1 _____ came into power in French revolution. Winston
Churchill
Nepoleon George
Washington
5 1 There are _____ railway stations in Pakistan. 900 850 965
5 1 Lok Sabha is the name of the lower house of
_____ parliament.
Nepal India Bangladesh
5 1 A poem expresses emotions is called _____. Elegy Ballad Lyric
5 1 Omar Khayyam was a Persian _____. Novelist Poet Actor
5 1 John Keats and Shelley were English _____. Scientists Statesmen Poets
5 1 Famous poet hafiz Shirazi belonged to
_____.
India Pakistan Syria
5 1 _____ is the poet of paradise lost and
paradise regained.
Milton Pope Words worth
5 1 The first meeting of NAM was held at ____. Islamabad New Delhi Jakarta
5 1 Jiang Zemin is the president of _____. Cuba China Morocco
5 1 The longest day of each year is ______. 13-Mar 21-May 21-Jun
5 1 The shortest day of each year is ____. 22 December 5 January 21 November
5 1 Thousand died as plans crashed into WTC,
Pentagon in New York and Washington on
_____.
9 September
2001
10 September
2001
11 September
2001
5 1 The famous book "Jinnah of Pakistan" is
written by ____.
Hector Bolitho K.K Aziz Stanly Wolpert
5 1 The famous book "The origin of species is
written by ____.
Tennyson Charles Darwin Karl Marx
5 1 The USA consists of ____ states. 42 52 32
5 1 The largest stock market of Asia is _____. Nikkei Heng Seng Strait Times
5 1 Sugar Bowl of the world is called _____. India China USA
5 1 Pride and Prejudice is written by _____. George Eliot Jane Austen T.S. Eliot
5 1 Col: Moammar Al-Qazafi is the president of
_____.
Fiji Vietnam Libya
5 1 Prague is the Capital of .. Belgium Czech
Republic
Denmark
5 1 Brussels is the Capital of .. Austria Belgium Brazil
5 1 Warsaw is the Capital of .. Poland Norway Sweden
5 1 Berne is the Capital of -- Turkey Spain Switzerland
5 1 The Capital of , Yugoslavia was Ankara Belgrade Berne
5 1 The National Emblem of Spain is . Eagle Wyilelily Cornflower
5 1 Cresent moon with a star is the National
Emblem of
Iran Turkey Afghanistan
5 1 National Emblem of India is constituted by Lion Capital Dharam
Chakra
a horse at the
base plate
5 1 The National Emblem of Germany is Golden rod Cornflower Beach
5 1 National Emblem of Denmark is Rose Eagle Beach
5 1 National Emblem of Australia is Eagle Corneflower lily
5 1 Panchsheel Agreement was signed between China and
Russia
India and
Pakistan
India and
China
5 1 Panchsheel Agreement was signed In 1951 1950 1954
5 1 The headquarters of U . N Universal Postal
Union is in _________ ?
Hague New York Berne
5 1 Renaissance was atready revival of
learning
a book
5 1 The Glorious Revolution started in . 1688 1749 1660
5 1 In which century Jesus Christ was crucified ? 3rd (BC) 1st (AD) 1st (BC)
5 1 Mr. Jawaharlal Nehru , the first Prime
Minister of India died on
11th Jan . ,
1966
3rd Feb . ,
1966
15th July ,
1963
5 1 Sorrow of China is name given to a city a river a lake
5 1 Island of Pearls is England Cuba Thailand
5 1 Turkey is called The holy Land The Quaker
City
The Sickman
of Europe
5 1 The land of Midnight Sun is -- Norway Turkey Japan
5 1 The city of Skyscrapers is -- Washington New York Warsaw
5 1 The smallest state : in the world is .. Bhutan and
Maldive
Mayanmar Vatican City
5 1 On what day did the U . N . Came into being 21st Sep . ,
1944
7th Oct . 1944 26th June ,
1944
5 1 Which of these is not among the purpose of
the U . N . ?
Tomaintian
internatioanal
peace and
security
To promote
and
encourage
respect for
human rights
To resolve all
inter - state
disputes by
application of
international
law
5 1 What is the number of non -- permanent
members of the Security Council ?
6 10 28
5 1 Which of these is not a necessary for the
states to become members of U . N . ?
Must be a
sovereign state
Must be peace
-- loving
Must be willing
to discharge
its
responsibilities
under the
Charter and
international
law
5 1 Who appoints the non -- permanent
members of security council ?
General
Assembly
secretary --
general
International
Court of
Justice
5 1 of non -- permanent of the Security Council ? One year Two years Three years
5 1 Who appoints the judges of the international
Court of Justice
General
Assembly
Security
Council
General
Assembly and
the Security
5 1 How many members are there in the
Economic and Social council ?
27 54 21
5 1 Which of these is not a one of the main
organs of the U . N ?
General
Assembly
Security
Council
Internal Labor
Organization
5 1 The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
was adopted by the U . N . General
Assembly in ..
1946 1950 1948
5 1 Gulliver's Travels was written by .. Jonathan Swift Shakespeare Oliver
Goldsmith
5 1 SAPTA is a trade agreement by _____ . Asean Nations APEC Nations SAARC
Nations
5 1 The Hippocratic Oath is an _____ Ethical Ancient Greek
Law
Oath of
allegiance
5 1 Homer was author of _____ ILLIAD Odesy Both of these
5 1 The author of "War and Peace was _____ . Leo Tolstoy AlferedTennys
on
Charles
Dickens
5 1 U . N . Environmental control headquarters
are located in _____ .
Jamaica New York Nairobi
5 1 THE UN Convention on Law of seas was
signed in _____ .
1982 1987 1945
5 1 Cathay is an old name of _____ . China and
Russia
Japan Hong Kong
5 1 Who was the first to state geometrical
principles formally ?
Nicholas
Copernicus
Galileo Euclid
5 1 Who was first to perform human heart
transplant surgery ?
Dr : David
Baltimore
Dr Christian
Bernard
Dr James D .
Watson
5 1 Psoriasis is a _____ . Learning
disability
Skin disease Ear Infection
5 1 Who was father of boy -- scout Movement ? Florence
Nightingale
Lord Byron Lord Baden
Powell
5 1 What is Yeti ? An Animal A bat A moumain
man
5 1 Who was sun yat sen ? First President
of Chinese
Republic
The President
of Cuba
The president
of Vietnam
5 1 Who was Begum Akhtar _____ ? Classical
Singer
A dancer An Artist
5 1 Group of 77 was previously called : APEC OPEC NAM
5 1 Who was Dr Abdul Salam A Poet An Artist A Physician
5 1 Shakespeare belonged to the period of
_____ in English literature.
Renaissance reformation restoration
5 1 Who was Abu Fazal _____? an adviser of
Akbar
a great muslim
reformer
a leader of
congress
5 1 Who was the first Indian to become the
Governor of an Indian State?
C.
Rajagopalacha
ri
Lord Sinha Dr. Rajendera
Prasad
5 1 Why are the mountains cooler than Plains? Air on the
mountains is
less dense, so
it absorbs less
heat
there are thick
forests on the
mountains and
these cool the
atmosphere
there is snow
on the
mountains
which keeps
the air cool.
5 1 Why does a lift pump fail beyond a particular
height?
since the
water in a lift
pump is raised
by the
atmospheric
pressure, so
height of the
lift pump will
be lower than
the height of
the water
barometer.
beyond a
particular
height upward
thrust of air
becomes less.
the rarefied air
of the higher
heights cannot
keep it aloft.
5 1 Why should a parachute have a hole in it? if there is no
hole the
parachute will
be torn out
while
descending,
the changing
currents may
cause
oscillation of
the parachute,
the hole allows
the air to run
out.
if there is no
hole,
descending is
not possible
because
upward ward
thrust of the
air will be
balanced with
the downward
thrust pull of
the earth.
5 1 Why do people prefer to wear white clothes
during summer?
white clothes
reflect and do
not observe,
heat
these clothes
shine in
sunlight.
one am detect
the spots of
sweat on them
5 1 Why do the electricians wear rubber gloves
while touching wires?
with rubber
gloves he can
hold wires
properly
rubber is a
bad conductor
of electricity
and electrician
does not get
shocks.
It helps in the
smooth flow of
the current
5 1 Why does water sing when it is heated in a
kettle?
on heating, the
molecules of
water strike
against one
another and
produce a
sound.
on heating
certain
currents are
produced in
water which
cause sound.
bubbles which
rise to the
surface
collapse with a
sound
5 1 How does a lightening conductor protect the
buildings?
It absorbs the
charge
released by
lightening
it helps the
charge to pass
into the earth
without
damaging the
building
it scatters the
charge from
lightening
5 1 How does a man die by touching alive wire? the current
passes into
the earth
through the
man's body.
As the circuit
is complete it
burns the body
the current
stops the flow
of blood
through the
heart
it affects the
nervous
system and so
kills brain cells
5 1 Why are two blankets warmer than one? two blankets
have more
wool and so
warmer
two blankets
enclose air
which does not
allow the cold
to penetrate
two blankets
compress the
air in between
the body and
the blankets
and this
compression
produces heat.
5 1 Why does white light passing through a
coloured prism give rise to coloured pattern
on a screen?
white light
breaks up into
its parent
seven colored
rays refracted
along different
paths
prism glass
has fibers of
different
colours, so the
light that
passes
through it
breaks into
different
colours
light passing
through a
prism is
broken up into
colors
because glass
cannot absorb
any colour
5 1 How does a bulb emit light? as the
electricity
passes into
the bulb its
glass begins
to shine
as electricity
passes in the
vacuum of the
bulb it
changes into
heat, so glows
the current
passes
through a
tungsten wire
of high
resistance
which
becomes so
hot as to glow
5 1 Why does boatman push the bank with pole
to make the boat move?
when he
pushes the
bank, the bank
pushes him,
action and
reaction are
equal and
opposite
the bank
cannot move
but the boot
moves
by pushing the
bank he tries
to overcome
the attraction
of the bank for
the boat
5 1 When a piece of stone gets hot in fire, its
has tendency to fly from it. Why?
heated stone
gets the
energy which
makes it to fly.
the outer layer
expands
before the
inner part, so
they break due
to the unequal
expansion
heated stone
breaks
because the
binding of the
elements melt
5 1 Why has a metal teapot an ebony handle? it being black
in colour, does
not allow heat
to escape
ebony is a bad
conductor of
heat, so the
handle does
not become hot
it looks
beautiful
5 1 Why does a cyclist bend while taking a
curved turn?
movement to
the cycle and
the man must
be same
otherwise the
cycle will slip
off.
he bends in
order to make
the centre of
gravity remain
within the
base. This will
save him from
falling
he bends in
order to put
pressure on
the wheels to
take the
curved course
5 1 Why does a coin lying at eh bottom of tall
cylinder full of water seem to be raised?
rays coming
out from the
coin bend
outward due to
refraction, so
they seem to
come from a
higher place
than actually it
is
our eyes
cannot see
this coin
clearly due to
movement of
water
molecules
the coin is
actually lifted
up by the
upward thrust
of water
5 1 Why do diamonds shine at night? diamonds are
radioactive so
there are
radiations
on account of
high refractive
index the rays
of light get
internally
reflected
diamonds
shine because
they have
some amount
of radium in
them
5 1 Why do the front wheels of motor cars lean
outward slightly?
it is done to
allow for
difference in
angles, this
gives stability
to the car
while taking a
turn
it gives a
broader base
to the car
it helps to
avoid bumping
on uneven
roads
5 1 Why is one's breath visible in cold but not is
hot weather?
water vapours
in the exhaled
breath
condense into
small droplets
which become
visible
during winter
visibility is
clearer and
water vapour
in breath can
be seen
during hot
weather water
drops in
breath
evaporate
5 1 Why is it easier to swim in sea water than in
river
density of sea
water is higher
currents in sea
water keeps
the person
afloat
sea water is
selfish and so
has an upward
thrust
5 1 The bird _____ has feathers but no wings. Kiwi Ostrich Penguin
5 1 Pshymometer is used to measure : Weight Length Blood Pressure
5 1 The constitution 1973 of Pakistan has _____
articles
300 290 250
5 1 _____ has headquarters of the UN 's
specialized agencies more than any other
country in the world .
America France England
5 1 Anti Ballistic Missiles Treaty (ABMT) was
signed in _____ .
1971 1972 1973
5 1 NMD Stand for National Missiles Defense of
_____ .
India US Israel
5 1 Kashmir issue was taken to the UNO by
India on _____ .
1st January
1948
1st February
1948
1st March 1948
5 1 One horse - power is equal to 745 . 7 _____
. Volts
kilo Amperes Watts
5 1 Pakistan is located in _____ of India North South East
5 1 Malamjuba is skiing resort in _____ . India Japan Korea
5 1 Metrology is the scientific study of _____ . Atmosphere Universe Earthquake
5 1 Aligarh Muslim University produced eminent
Muslims like _____ .
Ch . Rehmat
Ali
Liaquat Ali
Khan
Sir Agha Khan
5 1 Independence day f the USA is _____ . 6th June 15thAugust 4th July
5 1 WTO Stands for : Water Treaty
Organization
World Trade
Organization
Western
Trade
organization
5 1 NPT (Non Proliferation Treaty ) was signed
in 1st July _____ by 62 Nation .
1960 1965 1968
5 1 The first man to set foot on the moon was : Niel Armstrong Luis Armstrong Edwin
Armstrong
5 1 Chechnya lies in East Asia Middle East South Asia
5 1 Cleopatra ' and ceaser were conceived by : Tolstoy Shakespeare Ben Johnson
5 1 Judo is the Nation game of : Japan South Korea China
5 1 " Acoustic " is the science of : Light Maps Water
5 1 ECG stands for : Electro -
Cardiograph
Electronic
Cosmography
Elementary
Cellular Growth
5 1 IMF stands for International
Manufacturing
and Finance
International
Money and
Fund
International
Mutual Fund
5 1 Quark is _____. An Animal a fruit an atomic
particle
5 1 Hippopotamus is name of a city al flower an animal
5 1 The founder of Sikh Religion was Ranjit Singh Buddha Kabir
5 1 Wimbledon is an annual tournament played
for the game of
Tennis Hockey Squash
5 1 Seismograph is the instrument used to
measure
strength of
wind
earthquakes specific gravity
5 1 Which treaty was signed after 1965 Indo-
Pak war
simla pact lucknow pact Tashkent
declaration
5 1 The year 1997 is important for Hong Kong
because
it becomes
independent
state
it becomes
part of China
it becomes
member of
UNO
5 1 The world largest computer manufacturing
company is
Java Pentium IBM
5 1 Name the Ocean which is situated between
Europe and Asia
black sea Mediterranean
sea
Arabian sea
5 1 Babur founded Mughal dynasty in India
defeating Ibraheem Lodhi at _____.
plassey paniput buxar
5 1 Name the ruler who introduced Din-e-Ilahi in
India
Jehangir Humayun Akbar
5 1 The Economies of the developing nations
are monitored by _____.
ILO WTO IMF
5 1 Khewra is famous for coal mines oil and gas
services
iron ore
deposits
5 1 Name the rays which are considered death
rays:
X-rays laser rays gama rays
5 1 Name the Mughal ruler who is considered
the architect king.
Akbar Humayun Jehangir
5 1 Who made the first test century from
Pakistan in 1954 in Lucknow (India) test:
Hanif
Mohammad
Nazar
Mohammad
Fazal
Mehmood
5 1 Name the country whose citizens call
themselves the children of sund god:
Japan Kenya Sri Lanka
5 1 Which of the following country is not in Asia: China Germany Japan
5 1 The currency of European Union is ______. Pound Dollar Euro
5 1 Gaza strip lies in _____. Libya Jordan Egypt
5 1 The architect of Taj Mahal was: Akbar Humayun Dara
5 1 The largest quantity of fish in the world is
produced by _____.
Brazil and USA Japan and
Russia
Pakistan and
India
5 1 The oldest era is _____. Hijri era English era Saka era
5 1 Good Friday celebration signifies: birthday of
prophet Christ
the day of
Christ's
crucifixion
Immortality of
Christ
5 1 The first head person of the Chinese
Republic was _____.
Chou En Lai Mao Tse Tung Sun Yat Sen
5 1 First European to visit China was _____. Marco Polo Vasoda Gama Columbus
5 1 The first woman Prime Minister was _____. Mrs. Thatcher Mrs. S.
Bhandarnaike
Mrs. Ghandhi
5 1 The study of symbolic representation is
called _____.
Ethology Geology Etymology
5 1 White Oil pipeline project (WOPP) is being
built by _____.
Shell PSO Caltex
5 1 Where are the headquarters of Interpol are
located _____.
Brussels Geneva New York
6 2 Fickle diseased fast constant
6 2 Filthy stainless shining sterilized
6 2 Flaccid upright taut uneven
6 2 Flagitious frivolous ignorant vapid
6 2 Flexible brittle rigid hard
6 2 Flurry disclose soothe pelt
6 2 Forbid provoke appreciate celebrate
6 2 Forbidden allowed prohibited agreed
6 2 Foreigner national stranger native
6 2 Former subsequent later resultant
6 2 Foster repress curb check
6 2 Frail vigorous sturdy hardy
6 2 Frailty emaciation strengthen health
6 2 Frantic calm hopeful active
6 2 Haughty pitiable scared humble
6 2 Hawk conciliation dove pacifist
6 2 Hesitate proud confident certain
6 2 Hindrance agreement cooperation persuasion
6 2 Hoard deposit supply satisfy
6 2 Holy offensive orthodox profane
6 2 Host accomplice enlarged spread
6 2 Humble dominant proud despotic
6 2 Ignore supporters favor redress
6 2 Illegible clear imitable clean
6 2 Illusory deceptive real imaginary
6 2 Illustrious uneducated uncivilized unintelligent
6 2 Immediate delayed gradual leisurely
6 2 Immerse disinter douse engross
6 2 Impervious penetrable hidden tolerable
6 2 Impound generate strengthen stimulate
6 2 Impound release strength generate
6 2 impropriety decorum purity ideal
6 2 Impulsive cautious considerate clever
6 2 Indigenous native cheap foreing
6 2 Indolent desirable adequate energetic
6 2 Indulge avoid abstain forego
6 2 Infallible erring untrustworthy dubiousness
6 2 Inimical friendly cheerful neutral
6 2 Innocence crime mischief fault
6 2 Innocent sinful guilty deadly
6 2 insanity sanity normality lucidity
6 2 Insipid nervous pungent saucy
6 2 Insolent agreeable cowardice polite
6 2 Intransigent ever-ready faithful flexible
6 2 Intricate foolish simple straightforward
6 2 Intrude withhold withdraw accept
6 2 Inveterate stupid uneducated ignorant
6 2 Jeer mourn praise mock
6 2 Jettison rejoice surrender accept
6 2 Jittery profuse tense bold
6 2 Jocose dull humorous playful
6 2 Jubilant scared disturbed gloomy
6 2 Judicious unequal unlawful impure
6 2 Justify accuse infuriate absolve
6 2 Juxtaposition difference opposition separation
6 2 Keen dull rogue ardent
6 2 Kill azure relief execute
6 2 Kindle ignite encourage ignore
6 2 Knack dullness balance talent
6 2 Knowledge ignorance illiteracy foolishness
6 2 Kook illiterate sane peculiar
6 2 Laconic prolix profligate prolific
6 2 Languid smart energetic fast
6 2 Leap plunge sink immerse
6 2 Legato uneven brief silent
6 2 Lend hire pawn cheat
6 2 Lenient obstinate annoyed rude
6 2 Lethal safe playful virulent
6 2 Levity stupidity gravity lofty
6 2 Liability assumption exemption consumption
6 2 Liability treasure debt assets
6 2 Liberalism humanism dynamism sectarianism
6 2 Lissome ungainly huge pungent
6 2 Loyal rebellious courageous faithful
6 2 Luscious dry sour ugly
6 2 Luxuriant barren small ghastly
6 2 Luxury sadness treachery duplicity
6 2 Magnanimous selfish nave generous
6 2 Magnify induce diminish destroy
6 2 Malformed fetid sketchy curvaceous
6 2 Malice honor ecstasy goodwill
6 2 Malicious boastful indifferent kind
6 2 Mammoth dull weak tiny
6 2 Manage direct avail bungle
6 3 Anger : Insult :: business :
judgment
admiration :
happiness
conduct :
behavior
6 3 Hospital : Nurse :: college :
professor
theater :
dramatist
artist : studio
6 1 A Bolt from the blue bad luck God sent gift a feared event
6 1 A French leave a leave with
permission
a leave without
permission
privileged leave
6 1 Abandon give up pursue collect
6 1 Abasement incurrence taxation humility
6 1 Abate rebate lessen essence
6 1 Abbreviation short form long form medium form
6 1 Abdicate to resign refuse disperse
6 1 Abduct kidnap deliver collect
6 1 Abeyance obedience discussion excitement
6 1 Abhor adorn difference hate
6 1 Abjure discuss renounce run off secretly
6 1 Ablution censure mutiny survival
6 1 Abolish nullify build erase
6 1 Abortive unsuccessful consuming financing
6 1 Abrogate cancel established decorate
6 1 Abscond conceal one
self
remain abstract
6 1 Absolve discharge penalize digest
6 1 Abstemious moderate diligent indulgent
6 1 Abstinence restrained
eating or
drinking
vulgar display department
6 1 Abstruse complex disgusting stubborn
6 1 Abundance scarcity plenty excess
6 1 Accentuate to speed up emphasize agree
6 1 Access an elongated
addition
means of
entering
large surplus
6 1 Acclamation harmony of
feeling
possession of
something new
appointment
6 1 Acclimation storm's end keenness decline
6 1 Accolade balcony outer garment drink
6 1 Accomplice friend fatalist companion in
crime
6 1 Accrue come about by
addition
reach summit create a crisis
6 1 Accumulate to select to collect to pile
6 1 Acerbic boorish bitter inane
6 1 Acidulous witty realistic slightly sour
6 1 Acquaintance familiarity ignorance connection
6 1 Acquittal clearance conviction execution
6 1 Acrimonious bitter agitate expansive
6 1 Acumen cleverness obtuseness adamant
6 1 Adamant good natured lovely stubborn
6 1 Addicted habitually
dependent
furiously
concentrating
upset or
disturbed
6 1 Addle to confuse shake up increase
6 1 Attrition addition regret attitude
6 1 Attune to stretch bring into
harmony
humility
6 1 auditory checking of hearing regulated
6 1 Aural ear throat sky
6 1 Auspicious fortunate despairing impressive
6 1 Auxiliary accessory chasteness authentic
6 1 Averse anxious unwilling unhappy
6 1 Aversion revert subvert diversion
6 1 Avert hartred avoid degenerate
6 1 Baffle to joke knock about confuse
6 1 Baleful arrogant sarcastic ominous
6 1 Balm soothes covers irritates
6 1 Banish recall black list disgust
6 1 Baroque polished constant transformed
6 1 Barrister specialist teacher attorney
6 1 Bearing background weight difficulty
6 1 Befit to equip place beside be suitable for
6 1 Beguile to amuse charm paralyze
6 1 Belittled illuminated disparaged declared
6 1 Bemuse to tease entertain deceive
6 1 Benediction denunciation marriage original
6 1 Benevolence kindness inhumanity marline
6 1 Beneficiary successor devoted subordinate
6 1 Benign tenfold peaceful blessed
6 1 Berate to
underestimate
classify scold
6 1 Beveled smooth sloping enjoyable
6 1 Bewilder mystery enlighten frightened
6 1 Bias implied prejudice deputy
6 1 Bicker to bargain offend frightened
6 1 Biennial yearly every two years favorable
6 1 Bigot racist individual strong
6 1 Bigotry arrogance approval mourning
6 1 Belligerent aggressive friendly dishearted
6 1 Binary complicated
elements
two things binding force
6 1 Biofeedback structural
analysis
control of brain
waves
nutrition
6 1 Bland mild meager soft
6 1 Blatant conspicuous hidden ruthless
6 1 Bleary blurred bloated boorish
6 1 Blemish defect visible gloat
6 1 Bliss pleasure pain slow
6 1 Blithe spiritual profuse gay
6 1 Bluff rocky island cliff deceive
6 1 Blustering speaking loudly lying or
misleading
noisily
aggressive
6 1 Boisterous conflicting noisy testimonial
6 1 Cadge to enclose track trick
6 1 Caesarean craftiness short tempered surgical
operation
6 1 Cajole coax capacity slander
6 1 Calamity disaster cold weather scourge
6 1 Callous liberal ignorant responsible
6 1 Callow rough inexperienced superficial
6 1 Cameo Comedy role witty saying minor role
6 1 Candid straight
forward and
simple
candidature frank and
honest
6 1 Capacious cramped extensive enchanting
6 1 Comparison to adorn jump in contrast
6 1 Captivate enchant disgusting enslave
6 1 Carapace soft covering thin layer bony covering
6 1 Cardinal principal antique obvious
6 1 Caress erase scratch love
6 1 Castellated like a castle imprisoned disgraced
6 1 Casuistry offhand
manner
dishonest
reasoning
emergency
6 1 Catastrophe expedition courtly calamity
6 1 Catatonic stupor teasing violent
6 1 Cater to control degrade
oneself
try to satisfy
6 1 Catharsis emotional
release
extreme
exhaustion
personality
analyses
6 1 Celebrated function cleared famous
6 1 Celerity quickness resourcefulnes
s
pragmatism
6 1 Celibacy bachelorhood important married state
6 1 Censor type of vase official who
examines
information
consultant
6 1 Centenary central necessary hundred years
6 1 Centrifugal inward
movement
rapid moving away
from a centre
6 1 Cessation strictness annexation stoppage
6 1 Chafe to become
irritated
tease outer covering
of grain
6 1 Chaos avoid abyss complete
disorder
6 1 Chaotic disordered fervent unclear
6 1 Chasten disciplined pursue sanctify
6 1 Chip image satellite silicon wafer
6 1 Choke strangle tighten throttle
6 1 Chronic short lived temporary up-tight
6 1 Circumlocution grammatical
error
caution diversity
6 1 Cite area analyze quote
6 1 Clumsy heavy slow awkward
6 1 Co-incidence deliberate chance adversity
6 1 Coagulate collect solidify melt
6 1 Coalition intimidation affiliation composition
6 1 Coarse unrefined elegant passage
6 1 Coax indulge beguile force
6 1 Dedicate love transfer devoted
6 1 Defamation derogation accusation laziness
6 1 Deference obedience indifference inference
6 1 Deficient deface lacking discover
6 1 Defraud to undress to undermine cheat
6 1 Delectable dainty elaborate healthful
6 1 Delete to register to include to remove
6 1 Delicacy refinement inelegance joy
6 1 Delinquent criminal delicate intelligent
6 1 Delirious frantic brave coherent
6 1 Deliverance sincere freedom transfer
6 1 Demise residence dismissal accident
6 1 Democracy republic monocracy autocracy
6 1 Denunciation accusation elaboration announcement
6 1 Deprivation disspcoatopm displeasure departure
6 1 Derogatory insulting attractive flattering
6 1 Despair dejection ride optimism
6 1 Despondent dejected gay hopeful
6 1 Despotic inflexible destructive tyrannical
6 1 Desultory disconnected decisive slanderous
6 1 Detention lessening of
concentration
easing of
tension
safe keeping
6 1 Deteriorate to expose to
danger
scold become worse
6 1 Detestable abhorrent variable adorable
6 1 Detrimental harmful ingenious outrageous
6 1 Deterrent checking injurious fiendish
6 1 Deviate move away devise divide
6 1 Devise to amend move plan
6 1 Devoid deficient inept endowed
6 1 Dexterous dangerous skilful just
6 1 Diagnosis identification
of an illness
prophecy plan
6 1 Dicker to complain waver instigate
6 1 Dictate delusion learned treatise guiding
principle
6 1 Dictatorial offensive wordy cranky
6 1 Diction pronounce
words
edition command
6 1 Dictum command expression grasp
6 1 Diffidence ignorance timidity indifference
6 1 Digit gadget murmur two-sided
object
6 1 Dispense with relinquish accept consume
6 1 Dire extreme straight humiliating
6 1 Discard reject renounce accept
6 1 Discern discard arrange determine
6 1 Disconcert sing in
harmony
pretend cancel
programme
6 1 Discord cordless insult disagreement
6 1 Discreet separate cautious mixed
6 1 Discrete charming tactful different
6 1 Discretionary forget to do pay for meet
unexpectedly
6 1 Elaborate detailed simple complicate
6 1 Elated debased respectful drooping
6 1 Electrode polling booth electric
conductor
electrical
terminal
6 1 Elevated excited attenuated dejected
6 1 Elicit to evoke explain break the law
6 1 Elucidate clarify obscure remind
6 1 Elusive deadly eloping evasive
6 1 Emaciated garrulous primeval vigorous
6 1 Emanates fluctuates merges mitigates
6 1 Emancipate deliver enslave debilitate
6 1 Embark to enforce to board a ship to develop
6 1 Embellish to flourish insult enfold
6 1 Emend cherish repose correct
6 1 Eminent purposeful famous delectable
6 1 Emission warning discharge allow
6 1 Emolument allowance indulgence allegation
6 1 Emphasis importance activity bother
6 1 Enchanted fascinated fatigue repulsed
6 1 Encroach to infest soared out weaken
6 1 Encumber to take control resist unload
6 1 Endeavor effort captivate intrude
6 1 Endorse ratify support criticize
6 1 Endowed wedded blessed enquiry
6 1 Endure ensure tolerate attach
6 1 Evolution gradual
development
investigation revelation
6 1 Exacerbate to grind
thoroughly
make wares demand
6 1 Exaggerate to make great overemphasize to play
6 1 Exalt to oppose specialize praise highly
6 1 Exasperation disgust calmness embellish
6 1 Execrable dispensable detestable painful
6 1 Exhilarate energies discourage inflame
6 1 Exonerate absolve incriminate instigate
6 1 Expedient precise expert expendable
6 1 Expedite do to complete run
6 1 Expend to spend discredit overload
6 1 Expletive self
explanatory
swear word detailed
description
6 1 Expose repose depose disclose
6 1 Expound to be angry release explain
6 1 Expunge rationalize purge exhale
6 1 Exquisite admirable poor adaptable
6 1 Extravagant spendthrift miser mean
6 1 Extrinsic external extraordinary inborn
6 1 Extrude to leak force out untangle
6 1 Exult to love or
admire
rejoice greatly mourning
6 1 Facetious take poison ness grimacing
6 1 Facsimile duplicate similar refractory
6 1 Factitious fabricated genuine dissident
6 1 Faculty ability department disguise
6 1 Falderal folk dance mere nonsense an unfolding
6 1 Fallacious illogical FALSE unassuming
6 1 Falsification adulteration purifying accusation
6 1 Fanatical obsessive moderate eager
6 1 Fanfare mobile markets exaggeration ostentatious
display
6 1 Farce unattainable unsuitability absurd sham
6 1 fastidious critical undemanding deceptive
6 1 Fatuous silly avarice nefarious
6 1 Faze to upset period harm
6 1 Feasible theoretical impatient practical
6 1 Fecund fruitful moveable decayed
6 1 Feeble frail robust meek
6 1 Feign deserve condemn pretend
6 1 Felicity happiness importance witty
6 1 Ferment to separate press down form alcohol
6 1 Fervour eagerness apathy merciless
6 1 Fiasco festival lucky stroke failure
6 1 Fickle dishonest steadfast magnificent
6 1 Fiction fabrication reality foul
6 1 Fidelity dedication conviction treachery
6 1 Finicky choosy easy-going foolish
6 1 Flabbergasted astonished adamant animated
6 1 Flimsy inadequate sturdy flabby
6 1 Flounder to struggle
awkwardly
come apart to mismanage
6 1 Flurry diffusion foggy commotion
6 1 Folklore folk songs rumours whimsical
notion
6 1 Foolhardy strong unwise brave
6 1 Foretaste bitterness anticipation strength
6 1 Forfeit to destroy waste lose
6 1 Formidable dangerous outlandish grandiloquent
6 1 Fortitude braveness cowardice obliged
6 1 Fortuitous lucky accidental rich
6 1 Fossil bit of pottery prehistoric
ruins of
buildings
cave painting
6 1 Foster speed fondle become
infected
6 1 Founder to sink waver search out
6 1 Franchise subway kiosk license
6 1 Frivolous foolish serious miser
6 1 Frugality extravagance ripening thrift
6 1 Frustration satiety facility thwarting
6 1 Functionary an official an architect an
administrator
6 2 Abdicate claim snatch plunder
6 2 Abhorrence aversion liking appreciation
6 2 Aboriginal modern popular current
6 2 Absolute scarce limited faulty
6 2 Accelerate creep drag lag
6 2 Acclamation denunciation suppression termination
6 2 Accomplice friend accessory escort
6 2 Accord solution activity dissent
6 2 Acquisitive miserly frugal simple
6 2 Acquittal confirm blame punish
6 2 Acquitted entrusted convicted burdened
6 2 Acumen intelligence imbecility potentiality
6 2 Acute sharp critical dull
6 2 Addition multiplication subtraction enumeration
6 2 Adequate profuse abounding scanty
6 2 Adherent rival alien detractor
6 2 Admonish commend tolerate flattering
6 2 Advance retreat restrain withhold
6 2 Adversity diversity affliction prosperity
6 2 Adversity enmity severity prosperity
6 2 Affectation love good likable
6 2 Agony pleasure bliss ecstasy
6 2 Alien resident natural domiciled
6 2 Alienate gather identify assemble
6 2 Alive passive dead asleep
6 2 Alleviation exaggeration exasperation magnification
6 2 Allure repulse develop entice
6 2 Amalgamate generate repair materialize
6 2 Ambiguous obscure secular explicit
6 2 Ameliorate lessen hasten expedite
6 2 Amenable stubborn docile obedient
6 2 Amicable cunning shy hostile
6 2 Amnesty hostility punishment immunity
6 2 Amplify mummify shock curtail
6 2 Anathematize radiate regulate deceive
6 2 Ancestors supporters disciples followers
6 2 Anfractuous devious straight remote
6 2 Base roof height tip
6 2 Bashful daring boastful upright
6 2 Batty prudent same cunning
6 2 Baulk admire strengthen clamour
6 2 Beautiful ugly dark rough
6 2 Beguile persuade cheat flattering
6 2 Belie argue justify admire
6 2 Benevolence contempt malevolence hatred
6 2 Benign gracious sinister novel
6 2 Beseech bully solicit demand
6 2 Badge divide bind release
6 2 Bizarre soft usual gentle
6 2 Blatant noisy quiet barren
6 2 Blemish preserve purify defect
6 2 Bliss anguish sorrow agony
6 2 Bliss paradise heaven misery
6 2 Boisterous calm comfortable good
6 2 Boorish handsome happy quite
6 2 Boost hinder obstruct discourage
6 2 Brazen respectful innocent delicious
6 2 Brilliant dusty dull dumb
6 2 Bury examine open disinter
6 2 Cajole dissuade detract disclose
6 2 Callous confident sentimental sensitive
6 2 Capacious changeable foolish caring
6 2 Capitulate conquer venerate destroy
6 2 Capricious fixed solidify firm
6 2 Capricious satisfied scattered steadfast
6 2 Carnal sensuous spiritual visionary
6 2 Catholic rigid orthodox strict
6 2 Celibacy chastity misogyny matrimony
6 2 Celibate profligate reprobate extravagant
6 2 Chaffing expensive achieving capitalistic
6 2 Challenge admire accept favorable
6 2 Chide praise fear criticize
6 2 Choice refusal dilemma harm
6 2 Churlish accommodatin
g
polite helpful
6 2 Clarity exaggeration candor confusion
6 2 Coarse beautiful soft fine
6 2 Comic painful fearful tragic
6 2 Commend suspend admonish hate
6 2 Commend censure condemn defy
6 2 Commodious limited expensive numerous
6 2 Communicative primitive passive dumb
6 2 Compact shattered enlarged spread
6 2 Comply refuse agree disagreement
6 2 Conceal unfold reveal open
6 2 Concealment identification broadness evidence
6 2 Condense lengthen expand distribute
6 2 Confess deny refuse contest
6 2 Confident diffident timidity reserved
6 2 Conform disappoint reform deform
6 2 Considerate harsh infuriated opposed
6 2 Consolidate isolate weaken divide
6 2 Conspicuous indifferent harmless insignificant
6 2 Contented rash narrow-minded gloomy
6 2 Convene cancel adjourn dissolve
6 2 Convex flat protuberant full
6 2 Co-Operation rebellion resistance hindrance
6 2 Co petition rivalry compromise monopoly
6 2 Cosset neglect divert pamper
6 2 Covert clandestine open virtuous
6 2 Crass gross refined coarse
6 2 Criticize judge appreciate flattering
6 2 Crowded deserted lonely empty
6 2 Cryptic superficial secret artificial
6 2 Culminate frustrate fail abort
6 2 Culpable irresponsible careless blameless
6 2 Culprit jury witness accused
6 2 Dainty splendid aggressive vigorous
6 2 Dauntless Cautious thoughtful weak
6 2 Dear cheap worthless free
6 2 Dearth extravagance scarcity abundance
6 2 Debacle regain progress rise
6 2 Debauchee moralist thinker schemer
6 2 Debilitating strengthening enfeebling occupying
6 2 Debonair worried pensive grimacing
6 2 Deceit reality trust truthfulness
6 2 Deep elementary superficial shallow
6 2 Defection resignation invitation joining
6 2 Defiance dismay suspicion obedience
6 2 Deficit superfluous surplus explicit
6 2 Degenerate create progress restore
6 2 Delete impound insert inspire
6 2 Deliberate premeditated sparking methodical
6 2 Demon charitable kind-hearted angel
6 2 Denounce defend gather fight
6 2 Density brightness clarity intelligence
6 2 Deplete refund replenish fulfill
6 2 Deprived great enhanced moral
6 2 Derogatory immediate praising opinionated
6 2 Despondency humility pleasure cheerfulness
6 2 Destiny vulnerability chance self-
dependence
6 2 Destroy invent make produce
6 2 Deviate follow locate break the law
6 2 Devout irreverent sincere homely
6 2 Diabolic patient generous kind
6 2 Dim bright understandable loud
6 2 Discount interest premium profitability
6 2 Discrepancy variance inappropriate consistency
6 2 Disdain depreciate admiration penitence
6 2 Disingenuous industrious cumbersome slothful
6 2 Disperse collect assemble hoard
6 2 Dissent agreement dispute disunity
6 2 Dissipate sustain conserve preserve
6 2 Dissuade incite persuade advice
6 2 Dither cry refer decide
6 2 Diverge repulse converge resurge
6 2 Doleful poor happy rich
6 2 Dormant active modern permanent
6 2 Dorsal inactive venereal peripheral
6 2 Dour radical active young
6 2 Dreary plenty monotonous unhappy
6 2 Dusky visible fair obscure
6 2 Eclipse shine enlarge goggle
6 2 Edacious smart gluttonous fasting
6 2 Edification lamentation annotation corruption
6 2 Effete adamant strong courageous
6 2 Effete strong adamant bold
6 2 Embrace suspect harmless reject
6 2 Encourage warn discourage dampen
6 2 Endow borrow steal snatch
6 2 Engulfed encircled groped disfigured
6 2 Engulfed detached dislocated devastated
6 2 Enough inadequate scarce deficit
6 2 Epilogue conversation dialogue dramatic
6 2 Equanimity excitement duplicity dubiousness
6 2 Erratic reliable right punctual
6 2 Erudite professional immature unimaginative
6 2 Escalate lessen subside reduce
6 2 Establish disrupt uproot corrode
6 2 Euphonious strident lethargic literary
6 2 Evacuate admit emerge abandon
6 2 Evanescent blooming growing twinkling
6 2 Evident suspected disagreed doubtful
6 2 Evolving retreating stifling stagnating
6 2 Exalt depreciate ennoble glorify
6 2 Exasperate belittle annoy please
6 2 Execrable importable acceptable desirable
6 2 Execrate care praise love
6 2 Exhibit conceal prevent withdraw
6 2 Exodus restoration return home-coming
6 2 Exonerate compel accuse imprison
6 2 Exotic poor inexpensive ugly
6 2 Explicit inspiring plain invigoration
6 2 Extension condensation subtraction diminution
6 2 Exterior internal inner interior
6 2 Facsimile reproduction sincere original
6 2 Fact fable story illusion
6 2 Factitious ridiculous genuine engineered
6 2 Fecund barren solid unplugged
6 3 Tepid : Hot :: cool : frigid spotless : clean warm :
comfortable
6 3 Surface : Submerge :: sail : navigate conceal :
reveal
mount : ascend
6 3 Juror : Judge :: criminal :
sentence
doctor : care umpire :
strikeout
6 3 Strike : Production :: manufacture :
merchandise
injure : repair employ :
inflation
6 3 Preserve : animal :: lighthouse :
signal
reservation :
wigwams
orphanage :
institution
6 3 Agenda : Conference :: teacher : class agency :
assignment
map : trip
6 3 Turtle : reptile :: oak : tree leaf : branch trout : fish
6 3 Disinterested : Biased :: pious : gullible affluent :
impecunious
ruthless :
vicious
6 3 Authenticity : counterfeit :: argument :
contradictory
reliability :
erratic
anticipation :
solemn
6 3 Guile : Ingenuous :: appetite :
voracious
chivalry:
natural
prudence :
demanding
6 3 Walk : Stumble :: trot : race look : ogle hear : ignore
6 3 Backlog : Merchandise :: jam : traffic intermission :
play
deficit : money
6 3 Imitation : Individuality :: veneration :
defense
determination :
success
recklessness :
courage
6 3 Emancipate : Slavery :: erase :
document
inveigle :
agreement
exonerate :
blame
6 3 Eternal : Duration :: temporary :
time
weak : control harmonious :
music
6 3 Submissive : Defiance :: agile :
alertness
courageous :
fear
doubtful :
indecision
6 3 Profligate : Moral :: crook : fearful carpenter :
patient
lawyer : placid
6 3 Infinite : End :: spontaneous :
occur
isolated :
envision
buoyant : sink
6 3 Coerce : Coax :: avenge :
reform
suggest :
demand
declaim : argue
6 3 Rejuvenate : Youth :: recuperate :
disease
reelect :
provident
reiterate : item
6 3 Sneer : Contempt :: stalk : prey applaud :
approval
cringe : fear
6 3 Enigmatic : Clear :: copious :
scarce
academic :
masterful
lucrative :
monetary
6 3 Drizzle : Cloudburst :: grass : dew wind : air shore : waves
6 3 Enervate : Strength :: encourage :
motivation
conserve :
excitement
persecute :
indulgence
6 3 Fish : Bird :: rifle : tank master : eagle submarine :
airplane
6 3 Lion : Carnivorous :: jackal :
herbivorous
invalid :
omnipotent
human : mortal
6 3 Teacher : Ignorance :: light : darkness wattage : bulb lightening :
electricity
6 3 Scissors : Sever :: scales :
average
barrel : rolls stapler : cu
6 3 Dusk : Dawn :: senility :
childhood
adolescence :
infancy
loquaciousness
: garrulity
6 3 Plagiarism : Embezzlement :: writing :
banking
brushes :
painting
blue print :
etching
6 3 Ocean : Bay :: archipelago :
atoll
island :
peninsula
headland :
promontory
6 3 Vaccine : Antidote :: preventive :
cure
smallpox :
poison
horse : cow
6 3 Anarchy : Government :: penury : wealth chaos :
disorder
monarch :
president
6 3 Tirade : Abusive :: diatribe :
laudatory
satire : pungent panegyric :
laudatory
6 3 Charity : Virtue :: greed : evil avaricious :
vicious
penury : crime
6 3 Vindicate : Condemn :: charge :
accuse
indict : convict judge : jury
6 3 Industrious : Assiduous :: affluent :
impoverished
mendacious :
beggarly
fortuitous :
fortunate
6 3 Silk : Nylon :: Japan :
America
natural :
synthetic
synthetic :
natural
6 3 Sophisticated : Urbane :: suave : nave ingenuous :
clever
callow : rustic
6 3 Porter : Terminal :: clerk : store cashier :
restaurant
lawyer : court
6 3 Decibel : Light Year :: distance : time sound : time sound :
distance
6 3 Cylinder : Circle :: cone : triangle prism :
spectrum
cone : circle
6 3 Team : Athletes :: game : series alliance :
nations
delegated :
convention
6 3 Entrepreneur : Laborer :: profits : wages arbitrator :
capitalist
mediator :
conflict
6 3 Seldom : Frequently :: always : never occasionally :
constantly
occasionally :
intermittently
6 3 Dense : Sparse :: Punjab :
balochistan
balochistan :
N.W.F.P
stupid : clever
6 3 Gold : ORE :: dear : cheap iron : steel pears : oysters
6 3 Intrinsic : extrinsic :: intentional :
unintentional
vivid : dull real : simulated
6 3 Callow : Maturity :: incipient :
fruition
spoiled : purity young : old
6 3 Carelessness : Accident :: assiduity :
success
indifference :
fruition
care :
avoidance
6 3 Hypochondriac : Health :: addict : drugs miser : money glutton : food
6 3 Brake : Automobile :: choke :
carburetor
conscience :
man
detergent :
society
6 3 Mason : Wall :: doctor : cure magician :
magic
stranger :
friendship
6 3 Enigma : Riddle :: labyrinth :
maze
dilemma :
alternatives
sphinx :
Egyptian
6 3 Constellation : Stars :: earth : moon center : circle archipelago :
islands
6 3 Immortal : Death :: anonymous :
fame
hopeless :
situation
vital : life
6 3 Tapestry : Thread :: pizza : pie mosaic :
situation
ruler : divisions
6 3 Lubricant : Friction :: motor :
electricity
speed : drag insulation :
heat
6 3 Comet : Tail :: traffic : lane missile :
trajectory
vessel : wake
6 3 Addendum : Book :: signature :
letter
vote :
constitution
codicil : will
6 3 Meritorious : Praise :: captious :
criticism
kind :
admiration
questionable :
response
6 3 Snare : Animal :: nest : bird pouch :
kangaroo
net : fish
6 3 Cacophonous : Ear :: outrageous :
order
objectionable :
commotion
erroneous :
mind
6 3 Belligerence : Aggressor :: insensitivity :
boor
confidence :
prelate
irascibility :
pacifist
6 3 Incorrigible : Reform :: immutable :
speak
intractable :
manage
impartial :
decide
6 3 Stocking : Leg :: waistband :
skirt
ankle : foot button : lapel
6 3 Park : Recreation :: kitchen :
cooking
fence : sitting tree : climbing
6 3 Crest : Wave :: climax : action elegy : memory example :
paradigm
6 3 Malleable : Shaped :: flexible : bullied amenable :
persuaded
tolerable :
handled
6 3 Novice : Experience :: questioner :
knowledge
invader :
bravery
narrator :
objectivity
6 3 Secrete : Find :: muffle : hear cover : open exude : ignore
6 3 Indelible : Permanence :: united :
individuality
qualified :
employment
unavoidable :
toleration
6 3 Doctor : Disease :: motion :
imbecility
pediatrician :
senility
psychiatrist :
maladjustment
6 3 Clock : Second :: calendar : year calendar :
month
calendar : day
6 3 Stethoscope : Physician :: canvas :
sculptor
pestle :
pharmacist
scalpel :
teacher
6 3 Author : Inventor :: copyright :
patent
plot : machine book : factory
6 3 Team : Coach :: corporal :
squad
army : general team : member
6 3 Carelessness: Accident :: assiduity :
success
indifference :
fruition
care :
avoidance
6 3 Area : Volume :: plane : circle circle : triangle sphere : box
6 3 Analgesic : Pain :: anesthetic :
surgery
palliative :
violence
operation :
health
6 3 Poison : Death :: purgative :
disease
experience :
knowledge
growth :
maturation
6 3 Mice : Rice :: doe : rye mice : berries fauna : flora
6 3 Journalist : Typewriter :: surgeon :
bones
carpenter :
lumber
poet : beauty
6 3 Passed : Elation :: failed :
dejected
Failed :
dejection
rejected : angry
6 3 Soldier : Carbine author : book chemist : test
tube
sailor : pirate
6 3 Exuberant : Downcast :: exultant : lavish parsimonious :
abundant
congregation :
dispersal
6 3 Tolerance : Bigotry :: prodigality :
ribaldry
avocation :
profession
magnanimity :
parsimony
6 3 Abhor : Dislike :: rebuke :
ridicule
torture :
distress
calcify : petrify
6 3 Conviction : Persuasion :: thought :
emotion
arrest : jail arrest : fine
6 3 Simile : Metaphor :: prose : poetry poetry : prose real :
suggested
6 3 Literal : Figurative :: connotative :
denotative
allegory : fable photograph :
painting
6 3 Amulet : Evil :: fort : attack fire : hose eggs : rotten
6 3 Assurance : Fear :: opiate : pain opiate : dreams cigarette :
nerves
6 3 Felicity : Sorrow :: agility : skill agility :
clumsiness
concept :
scheme
6 3 Policeman : Criminal :: patient : doctor officer : private educator :
ignorance
6 3 Large : Immense :: zero : infinity mauled :
battered
dislike : hatred
6 3 Chauvinism : Country :: frugality :
money
patriotism :
country
gluttony : food
6 3 Automobile : Gasoline :: fire : fuel man : angry airplane :
propeller
6 3 Allay : Pain :: mollify : fright cancel : order arbitrate :
dispute
6 3 Wearisome : Refreshing :: choleric :
apoplectic
tedious : dull original :
scintillating
6 3 Exertion : Fatigue :: school :
graduation
exercise :
muscles
carelessness :
accident
6 3 Prism : Triangle :: cylinder : circle cylinder :
sphere
pyramid : cone
6 3 Enmity : Hate :: emulation :
jealousy
glory : envy intimidation :
fear
6 3 Confidence : Deception :: hostility :
kindliness
walking :
running
dissent :
commotion
6 3 Lend : Borrow :: abridge :
lengthen
award :
deserve
begin : start
6 3 Glove : Hand :: teeth : chewing neck : collar coat : pocket
6 3 Chapter : Novel :: piano :
orchestra
diamond : gem scene: drama
6 3 Strike : Production :: manufacture :
merchandise
injure : repair employ :
inflation
6 3 Wealth : luxuries :: enemies :
friend
sandwich :
bread
ticket :
admission
6 3 Impregnable : Penetration :: munificent :
extravagance
inscrutable :
understanding
incoherent :
confusion
6 3 Inflate : Magnitude :: measure :
weight
extend :
duration
magnify : coin
6 3 Web : Entangle :: spider : spain trap : ensnare treason : betray
6 3 Lethargy : Energy :: appetite :
hunger
sorrow : pity merit :
remuneration
6 3 Baleful : Evil :: fulsome :
refinement
disjointed :
compatibility
mandatory :
requirement
6 3 Incision : Scalpel :: hospital :
patient
playground :
swing
kitchen : knife
6 3 Altimeter : Height :: speedometer :
velocity
observatory :
constellation
racetrack :
furlong
6 3 Caravan : Procession :: merchant :
commerce
wedding :
ceremony
menagerie :
animal
6 3 Ungainly : Elegance :: stately :
majesty
suitable :
propriety
vacuous :
temerity
6 3 Conservator : Waste :: sentinel :
vigilance
monarch :
subject
chaperon :
transgression
6 3 Dislike : Abhorrent :: trustworthy :
helpful
difficult :
arduous
silly : young
6 3 Uniform : Soldier :: silks : jockey leash : dog pasture : cow
6 3 Regrettable : Lament :: praiseworthy :
applaud
verbose :
rejoice
incongruous :
detect
6 3 Trap : Game :: novel : author net : fish leash : dog
6 3 Mansard : Roof :: ice : igloo spine : book closet : hallway
6 3 Prohibited : Refrain :: innocuous :
forbid
deleterious :
embark
required :
decide
6 3 Resolved : Doubt :: confirmed :
suspicion
announced :
candidacy
included :
guest
6 3 Exemplary : Reproach :: erroneous :
correction
accomplished
: praise
unimpeachable
: criticism
6 3 Mendicant : Begging :: competitor :
joining
legislator :
funding
miser :
donating
6 3 Rain : Deluge :: pond : ocean desert : camel ore : iron
6 3 Lubricant : Friction :: balm : pain eraser :
correction
solvent : paint
6 3 Pomposity : Boastful :: courage :
cowardly
silence :
mature
forgetfulness :
youthful
6 3 Theology : Religion :: astronomy :
stars
politics : ethics sociology :
individuals
6 3 Chalk : Blackboard :: handle : door pen : paper note : music
6 3 Funeral : Somber :: celebration :
joyful
graduation :
mature
wedding :
impressive
6 3 Explosion : Debris :: flood : water famine : food fire : ashes
6 3 Funds : Embezzlement :: cashier :
accounting
land : deed education :
teacher
6 3 Documents : Archive :: artifacts :
museum
actors : stage tools : worker
6 3 Miscalculate : Assess :: mislead :
reaffirm
misinform :
correct
misappropriate
: punish
6 3 Auger : Bore :: oven : bake knife : sharpen engine : power
6 3 Stutter : Speak :: stumble : run amble : walk chew : gag
6 3 Counterfeiter : Money :: forger :
document
arsonist :
building
deceiver : fraud
6 3 Heat : Calorimeter :: speed :
altimeter
distance :
odometer
fuel :
tachometer
6 3 Emollient : Irritation :: analgesic : pain anesthesia :
sleep
balm : euphoria
6 3 Auger : Carpenter :: cement :
mason
apron : chef awl : cobbler
6 3 Elm : Tree :: whale :
mammal
cart : horse cloud : rain
6 3 Mendacity : Honesty :: turpitude :
depravity
courage :
fortitude
truth : beauty
6 3 Judge : Courthouse :: lawyer : brief carpenter :
bench
landlord :
studio
6 3 Goose : Gander :: hen : chicken duck : drake sheep : flock
6 3 Fire : Ashes :: event :
memories
accident : delay wood : splinters
6 3 Loyalty : Traitor :: truthfulness :
liar
longevity :
crone
hope : optimist
6 3 Marathon : stamina :: hurdle :
perseverance
relay :
independence
sprint : celerity
6 3 Mumble : Speak :: adorn : denude convert :
preach
plagiarize :
write
6 3 Horns : Bull :: hoofs : horse wing : eagle mane : lion
6 3 Toss : Hurl :: speak : shout sense : flourish prepare : emit
6 3 Helmet : Head :: pedant : neck breastplate :
chest
pedal : foot
6 3 Indigent : Wealth :: emaciated :
nourishment
aristocratic :
stature
variegated :
variety
6 3 Hobble : Walk :: gallop : run stumble : fall sniff : smell
6 3 Infraction : Law :: renovation :
structure
punishment :
crime
enactment :
amendment
6 3 Rehearsal : Performance :: applause :
audience
engagement :
marriage
entrapment :
game
6 3 Signature : Illustration :: reference :
recommendatio
n
note : scale credit :
purchase
6 3 Retirement : Service :: exchange :
communication
arrangement :
flowers
graduation :
studies
6 3 Umpire : Playing Field :: farmer : city plumber :
wrench
carpenter :
cabinet
6 3 Scales : Justice :: balance :
equity
weights :
measures
torch : liberty
6 3 Pride : Lions :: snarl : wolves gaggle : geese honor : thieves
6 3 Alarm : Trigger :: tunnel : dig criminal :
corner
prison :
escaper
6 3 Yawn : Boredom :: sigh : hope wince : pain smile : hatred
6 3 Surprise : Exclamation :: happiness :
grimace
dismay : groan insolence : bow
6 3 Fox : Cunning :: vixen : cute colt : sturdy beaver :
industrious
6 3 Excessive : Moderation :: expensive :
cost
extensive :
duration
impulsive :
reflection
6 3 Range : Mountains :: novel : short
stories
atlas : map sea : rivers
6 3 Rubber : Elastic :: dust : allergic diamond : hard paper : brittle
6 3 Continent : Island :: river : canal ocean : lake plateau : plain
6 3 Perforate : Holes :: speckle : spots decorate :
rooms
filters : water
6 3 Moisten : Drench :: scrub : polish head : chill disregard :
ignore
6 3 Stare : Glance :: confide : tell participate :
observe
scorn : admire
6 3 Ponderous : Weight :: eternal :
temporarily
convincing :
decision
gargantuan :
size
6 3 Blueprint : Construction :: itinerary : trip signal : light tenant :
premises
6 3 Graceful : Movement :: articulate :
speech
fastidious :
grime
humorous :
laughter
6 3 Cone : Pine :: fruit : berry bulb : flower acorn : oak
6 3 Trickle : Spew :: breathe : inhale saunter : run sing :
harmonize
6 3 Capricious : Predictability :: barbaric :
warfare
solvent :
finance
subsisting :
viability
6 3 Calories : Reducing :: paint : brushing edible : eating stone : sculptor
6 4 The players agreed to abide _____ the
redress's decision
with by in
6 4 Modern industry abounds _____
opportunities for young people with good
scientific qualifications.
in for into
6 4 A junior cashier has absconded _____ ten
thousand rupees.
in for to
6 4 The children were so absorbed _____ their
game that they did not notice the passage of
time.
into for in
6 4 He was abstained _____ salted food by the
doctor.
from for in
6 4 The committee regrets that it cannot accede
_____ your request for a month's unpaid
leave.
for to in
6 4 My information does not accord _____ the
report which has just been presented.
to in with
6 4 I have been accused _____ many things in
my life, but never of cowardice.
for of with
6 4 You will soon get accustomed _____ the
change of climate.
to for in
6 4 The new teacher was very slow to adapt
_____ the unusual rules of the school.
in for into
6 4 He became addicted _____ drugs at quite
an early age.
for into to
6 4 This paint will adhere _____ any surface,
whether rough or smooth.
to in with
6 4 It is awful to be afflicted _____ a sense of
inferiority.
for with into
6 4 The debate adjourned _____ the following
week.
with for into
6 4 This college is affiliated _____ the Punjab
University.
to in for
6 4 Whether I pay or my wife pays amounts
_____ the same thing.
to in into
6 4 The condemned man appealed _____ the
court for mercy.
in into with
6 4 Several committee members had not been
apprised _____ the contents of the
document.
with of into
6 4 I certainly do not approved _____ your riding
your motorbike over the speed limit.
in with of
6 4 The success of the project can be ascribed
_____ to the dogged efforts of ordinary
members of the team.
to in for
6 4 My father will never assent _____ my
spending a holiday abroad before I am 16.
for to with
6 4 The defense of the oil installation had been
assigned _____ my regiment.
to with into
6 4 In less than sixty years the refugees from
India had become fully assimilated _____
the local community.
with into in
6 4 His mind is well attuned _____ to mine. to for into
6 4 This record enables me to balance _____
the facts of my life and decide what to do
with it.
up in with
6 4 Realizing he could do nothing to save his
aircraft, the pilot bailed _____.
out in for
6 4 We did not exactly bargain _____ him
turning up like that, out of the blue.
with for in
6 4 They had few essential supplies to begin
_____, so they had to improvise.
with to in
6 4 We are trying to make sure that children who
can best benefit _____ foster care, do get.
with from by
6 4 In their anxiety, prisoners would often blurt
_____ pieces of vital information.
out in with
6 4 She shows the stain of bottled _____
emotion.
up in from
6 4 He decided to break _____ from the party
and seek re-election as an independent.
with away up
6 4 There has been a complete break _____ of
law and order.
up off down
6 4 The plague broke _____ in London that
summer and hundreds died.
out down up
6 4 There has been an exciting new techno-
logical break _____.
through down in
6 4 Three minutes could bring _____ this
transformation.
forth about into
6 4 I think we are agreed on the main points.
Does anyone want to bring _____ anything
further.
up around down
6 4 South Africa brushed _____ the threat of
tougher economic sanctions.
off of down
6 4 Jamil, who has been nervous and jumpy
lately, suddenly burst _____ tears.
in into on
6 4 The eagle swooped and carried _____ a
sleeping lizard.
up down off
6 4 When one is adolescent one often gets
caught up _____ one's thoughts and dreams.
into on in
6 4 When Britain adopted the decimal system
for its money, it changed _____ relatively
smoothly.
over for to
6 4 A young officer \was charged _____ the task
of taking 200 prisoners to the rear.
for by in
6 4 When the man saw the police car, he
cleared _____ as fast as his legs could carry
him.
away of off
6 4 I am not saying I am useless, but machinery
and modern techniques have come _____ to
make me the odd man out.
about around in
6 4 I came ____ an old friend in liberty market
this morning.
around round across
6 4 When he finally came round _____ writing
the letter, he found his feelings were easier
to express than he had expected.
to in against
6 4 The modern child finds it difficult to conceive
_____ a time when there was no radio or TV.
for of in
6 4 The two were found guilty of robbery, and
condemned _____ four years imprisonment.
with for to
6 4 When everyone has been conferred _____
perhaps I can give you an answer.
with to for
6 4 The policemen's story conflicts _____ that of
the accused.
from to with
6 4 Confronted _____ the evidence of half a
dozen witnesses, the accused broke down
and confessed.
to with in
6 4 If you want to converse _____ Japanese
people, why don't you start learning
Japanese?
in to with
6 4 In this engine the rotary section corresponds
_____ the cylinders of conventional model.
to with in
6 4 You can always count _____ Zaheer for help
when you are in difficulties.
in into to
6 4 Why are so many of us credited _____ so
little intelligence and self-determination?
with upon for
6 4 The truth about the human condition dawns
_____ those who have the humility to
recognize their unimportance.
upon in with
6 4 They are bad people to deal _____ always
late in delivery date.
in with into
6 4 You will notice water sizing in the tube, now
what do you deduce _____ that?
from in with
6 4 I felt I must defer _____ my host's judgment. in for to
6 4 He was momentarily deflected _____ this
train of thought by a knock on the door.
with in into
6 4 The rules were rigid in principle, sometimes
departed ______ in practice.
upon on from
6 4 But the splendid occasion reminded him
bitterly of the opportunities he had himself
been deprived _____.
of from with
6 4 After being cut off from the main party for
two weeks they began to despair _____
rejoining their companions.
from in of
6 4 They could not be deviated _____ what they
believed to be their duty.
for with from
6 4 As boys, we had various ways of making the
history professor distress _____ the subject
of the lesson.
in on with
6 4 You may dislike having to depend upon him,
but it will be sometime before you can
dispense _____ his help altogether.
with in to
6 4 The upper classes may be dispossessed
_____ their special powers and privileges by
a slow 75 process of evolution.
from of with
6 4 The main cylinder will have to be drained
_____ before I can change the fittings.
from with off
6 4 He looked causally to left and right and when
the flow of traffic had eased _____, crossed
the road.
off from of
6 4 The strength of the European community
emanates _____ the prosperous economies
of relatively few member states.
with from around
6 4 I apologize for encroaching _____ your
valuable time, but I should appreciate your
advice in an important matter.
upon in from
6 4 The estate was so encumbered ____ debts
that it was not worth buying.
with in from
6 4 That a man should become so engrossed
_____ a pursuit that he risks his life on a
mountains needs explanation.
with for into
6 4 He had become a sort of sub-editor,
entrusted _____ hiring other members of
staff.
in for with
6 4 The young women was escorted _____ the
court by her solicitor.
from with up
6 4 After a lengthy inquiry, the management was
exonerated _____ any responsibility for the
fire that destroyed the factory.
in from for
6 4 Time has expunged _____ his memory all
recollections of these terrible events.
from with in
6 4 Naeem neatly fended _____ a thrust at his
chest.
in off of
6 4 No, he cannot go, I have not finished _____
him yet!
with in from
6 4 Do not flinch _____ the facts! with in from
6 4 Do not rest on your success follow _____
your success and start looking for new
markets.
up in to
6 4 Bandits raided the Habib Bank in Lahore this
morning and got away _____ over 10 million
rupees.
from with to
6 4 If it is very urgent, I may be able to got hold
_____ the doctor for you during the lunch
hour.
of in off
6 4 It was amazing that preparations for the
landing were not got wind _____ by the
enemy.
in from of
6 4 Raza has to get off _____ people because
he cannot get on with them.
from among to
6 4 If the fire-station had been got on _____ at
once, the hotel might have been saved.
to into with
6 4 He insisted that she remained in house, and
got on _____ her book.
to with from
6 4 I wish I could get out _____ going to the
party this evening, I don't feel like standing
around making polite conversation for three
hours.
of from with
6 4 There were a number linguistic problems to
be got _____ in preparing the text of the
treaty.
with off from
6 4 Ammunition could not be got through _____
the garrison, and they were forced to
surrender.
in to over
6 4 General Zia was a much more able
president then he is given credit _____.
in for to
6 4 All papers must be given _____ before
12:30 p.m. Candidates failing to observe this
rule may be disqualified.
in on to
6 4 Give _____ shoving! You will have me off
this chair in a minute.
to upon in
6 4 The general was content to give ______ a
few miles of desert and retreat to a stronger,
fortified line.
up in on
6 4 The public were warned not to grappled
______ the fugitive, as he was armed and
dangerous.
with in on
6 4 When Farooq was offered a trip to Hong
Kong by his employers he grasped ______ it
with both hands.
over on at
6 4 Don't let go, hang _____ tight. on in over
6 4 His temperament does not harmonize _____
a slow, even pace of life.
with in to
6 4 Starting a new business is hedged _____
with financial and staffing problems.
in about out
6 4 Their life was hedged ______ with petty
restrictions.
around about round
6 4 The best one could hope _____ was to
attract no attention either way.
for with in
6 4 The streets were littered with stones and
bottles hurled _____ the policemen.
on at upon
6 4 When a body is immersed _____ a fluid it
apparently loses weight.
with to on
6 4 The cabinet was impelled _____ extreme
measures.
to on with
6 4 The revolutionary leaders implanted _____
the peasants the determination to take and
own the land on which they worked.
on down in
6 4 As there was no train until the late evening
he had to imposed himself ______ his hosts
for longer than he had intended.
on in with
6 4 All the swimmers have improved _____ their
previous best performance.
from on in
6 4 The Government has incorporated _____
the bill many suggestions put forward by the
opposition.
into in from
6 4 Raza would indulge _____ a short sleep in
his arm chair.
in on upon
6 4 He was profoundly and physically infatuated
_____ her.
to with from
6 4 The whole class was infected _____ the
teacher's enthusiasm for the subject.
with to from
6 4 It is reassuring to have friends enquire
_____ you when you are ill.
from in for
6 4 An attractive feature of the course was the
way the practical work had been integrated
_____ the theoretical aspects.
with in into
6 4 Nothing must be allowed to interfere _____
our search for the truth.
with into from
6 4 My lord, it is obvious that the witness is
being intimidated _____ remaining silent.
upon into for
6 4 The director was aware that he was being
intrigued _____, but he had no means of
finding out how and by whom.
against upon with
6 4 Recent events were jumbled _____ in her
mind with scenes recalled from early
childhood.
with upon over
6 4 Is this the way to Lahore? Yes just keep
_____ till you reach Ravi Bridge, then you
will see the signs of Lahore.
on upon onto
6 4 The woman threw her coat on a chair kicked
_____ her shoes.
on of off
6 4 Our elder son has been knocking _____ the
Europe for several months. We don't know
exactly where he is or what he is doing.
about round into
6 4 The driver was knocked _____ at the
moment of impact and could remember
nothing of how the accident happened.
out in about
6 4 The editor laboured _____ the manuscript till
early morning.
in over into
6 4 It seemed that he was going to lash out
_____ her but he controlled himself.
at in on
6 4 If he offered me a small part in his
production, I'd leap _____ the chance.
at on onto
6 4 The decorations can be left _____ for
another day.
up over on
6 4 I'll be lenient this time, but you won't be left
_____ again.
off in from
6 4 Who let _____ the details of the reshuffle in
the department?
to out over
6 4 If you won't level _____ me we are not going
to get anywhere.
with in from
6 4 He always limbered _____ before his
afternoon match.
on up into
6 4 Today these practices are no more, but their
memories longer _____.
off in on
6 4 I wish you'd stop listening _____ to my
private conversations.
in on upon
6 4 You have lost all your money, now you must
learn to live _____ the situation.
into in for
6 4 We can not live _____ our moral pretension. upto into upon
6 4 A formal complaint is being lodged _____
the police inspector.
to with on
6 4 It is a bleak look _____ for anyone hoping
for quick profit.
on in out
6 4 Her letters betray a desperate desire not to
lose touch _____ her beloved.
in from to
6 4 I have heard many stories of bright young
research workers being lured _____ only to
find their position change for the work.
out from away
6 4 She was marked _____ by a fiery temper
and a strain of intolerance.
of off in
6 4 He was keen enough, but he simply did not
match _____ the demands of the job.
into up to from
6 4 Some body has been meddling _____ the
photographs I laid down so carefully.
from up to
6 4 It would take someone with the wisdom of
Solomon to mediate _____ these two: both
are so uttering convinced they are in the
right.
between in among
6 4 As a bright young recruit, he was moved
_____ from out department to author to gain
experience.
round around away
6 4 We are moving _____ to new examination
system.
in with over
6 4 The region is noted _____ its cattle. for in with
6 4 He is totally opposed _____ any change in
the existing law.
in from to
6 4 Javed was ousted _____ his post as a result
of maneuverings by departmental rivals.
upon off into
6 4 He is not easily parted _____ his money. from with to
6 4 There high standards of craftsmanship have
been passed _____ ever four generations.
on down in
6 4 All this anger that's pent _____ inside him
has to break out from time to time.
in on with
6 4 He was very worried, so I suggested he
could use some of the money, she perked
_____ at that.
up on upon
6 4 The line of action, if persisted _____ could
lead to disaster.
into from in
6 4 She is not very quick at picking _____ the
language.
with on up
6 4 After a day out in the field, they pitched
_____ the food with a rare appetite.
onto into upon
6 4 Local businessmen pitched _____ an offer
of Rs. 1,00,000 to cover advertising cost.
in on into in with
6 4 They are planning _____ a three-fold
increase in student number.
for into to
6 4 Do you plan _____ staying with us for ever? with in into
6 4 At this age, children enjoy playing _____
pirates or kings.
at on into
6 4 The ravi broke through the bridge railing and
plunged _____ twenty feet of water.
in over into
6 4 He plunged _____ every debate organized
by the society.
to in upon
6 4 What are you doing poking _____ among
my private papers.
about around in
6 4 The rest of the pudding was polished _____
by the children.
away in off
6 4 The class teacher would pounce _____
every slip the child made, however, slight.
with on in
6 4 Retiring members of the Board were
precluded _____ seeking re-election for
three years.
for with from
6 4 He was presented _____ the keys of the city. with in for
6 4 They appear deter-mined to press ahead
_____ plans to increase the rate of Income
Tax.
in with to
6 4 It is helpful in probing _____ the problem to
make a statement about (the patient's)
mental health and ill health.
into in on
6 4 May we proceed _____ the election of the
committee.
in from for
6 4 A clause in the agreement provides _____
the arbitration of all disputes by an
independent body.
for with in
6 4 She felt purged _____ all feelings of guilt. of with from
6 4 His arrival put heart _____ his subordinates. to with into
6 4 They did not put their trust _____ the
information they received from the well tried
and veteran staff of eighth army.
in on with
6 4 Your proposal looks good on the paper, but I
am not yet convinced it can be put _____
effect.
in into to
6 4 There is not much optimism in the air, but at
least both sides are putting a brave face
_____ proceedings.
to in upon
6 4 Then what is the trouble? Nothing explicit
that I can put my finger _____.
on in into
6 4 A description of the wanted man has been
put _____ to all mobile police petrol.
on about around
6 4 The committers pro-posals were put _____
us briefly and force-fully.
with to on
6 4 I am sure we can solve this problem if we
can put our mind _____ it.
to in on
6 4 He has puzzled _____ the figures for hours
without being able to make head or tail of
them.
on over with
6 4 You qualify _____ the vote, but Humza won't
qualify till he is eighteen.
for to with
6 4 Dangerous missions radiate _____
plutonium.
in from to
6 4 I tried to raise objection _____ the situation,
but it was no good.
to in for
6 4 He rank _____ one of the most remarkable
president of our time.
with as on
6 4 Mr. Latif rattled _____ a list that seemed to
contain everyone of any celebrity.
in on off
6 4 I found his company unbearable. He could
rattle _____ for hours about absolutely
nothing at all.
on off in
6 4 I am afraid he can not be reasoned _____
making a public protest.
to into for
6 4 Investment in this area is reckoned _____
money poured down the drain.
as for with
6 4 When you submit your claim, don't forget to
reckon ______ the money spent on petrol.
on in over
6 5 You must apply _____ the judge for pardon. to with upon
6 5 I insisted _____ my fee paid. to have on having to having
6 5 I am intent _____. to win of winning on winning
6 5 Death is preferable _____ dishonor. than to from
6 5 The officer waited until the clerks _____
busily.
worked were working had worked
6 5 If I _____ worked hard, I would have passed. would have had should have
6 5 You _____ respect your parents and teacher. should would should have
6 5 the child _____ crying for three hours. is has has been
6 5 If I _____ more time, I would have checked
my paper again.
had have had had
6 5 We _____ friends since we were children. had been have been are
6 5 If one know the facts one _____ not be so
quiet to criticize.
could can would
6 5 Whatever he does is always contrary _____
my wishes.
with from to
6 5 I am astonished _____ his behavior. to from with
6 5 He told me that he was not familiar _____
that subject.
to on with
6 5 She _____ for Karachi three days ago left is leaving had left
6 5 In one fierce battle the enemy were
completely wiped _____.
out off away
6 5 All communication with outside world has
been cut _____.
out away down
6 5 You will feel better when you _____ that
tooth out.
had have have had
6 5 When he _____ his hair cut, he went to the
cinema.
has had have had will have had
6 5 If you wait here, I _____ if the Manager is in. would see will have seen would have
seen
6 5 I would like to have the newspaper as soon
as you ____ it.
finished are finish will finish
6 5 He was quite able _____ after himself. to looking for looking to look
6 5 Her fears were first _____ when her son did
not come here.
arise arisen arouse
6 5 I _____ him for a long time. am not met did not meet do not meet
6 5 He _____ satisfactory progress in the school. makes has made had made
6 5 He was _____ a member of Assembly. formerly formally lastly
6 5 That new law went into _____ last month. affect effect action
6 5 The _____ from the mountain is dangerous. decent descent ascent
6 5 The ____ of the rocket was so swift that it
was out of sight in a few seconds.
assent ascent descent
6 5 Thermometer is a _____ to measure one's
temperature.
philosophy conviction device
6 5 What a _____ you were not hurt in the
accident.
prayers praise blessing
6 5 His argument is quite _____. sickly unconvincing fragile
6 5 So long you are not well avoid _____
exercise.
strong lusty vigorous
6 5 We were caught in the storm and got _____. soaked drenched damped
6 5 Govt must hold a _____ inquiry. intelligent judicial sensible
6 5 The ____ of the headlights of the car almost
blinded me.
shine glare dazzle
6 5 The chair is in the garden, please _____ it. bring fetch carry
6 5 Urge people who smoke to _____ the habit. surrender abandon discontinue
6 5 Napoleon's army was completely _____ in
the battle of Waterloo.
annihilated destroyed repeated
6 5 We have _____ trust in you. perfect entire imperative
6 5 You must _____ enough evidence to ensure
his conviction.
hoard store rallied
6 5 The government was _____ of
incompetence.
charged accused impeached
6 5 The jury _____ him of murder. discharged acquitted absolved
6 5 You must _____ yourself to the new
conditions.
adopt adept adapt
6 5 Face _____ with courage. misery poverty adversity
6 5 The Govt must _____ the suffering of the
people.
ally allay rid
6 5 The police arrested him and his one _____. friend colleague accomplice
6 5 He _____ our help. resents recants remove
6 5 We will do out work _____. latter later long
6 5 Here is a _____ for chocolate cake. receipt recipe formula
6 5 Get a _____ for the merchandise. recipe receipt slip
6 5 I have no _____ motive in offering this
advice, I seek no personal advantage.
ulterior nominal disinterested
6 5 It is _____ that students do not repay their
loans.
laudable unfortunate unforgivable
6 5 It became _____ that he was going to die. visible distinct apparent
6 5 Those cottages _____ perfectly with the
landscape.
mix blend unite
6 5 Failing the exam was a _____
disappointment to him.
sour tart bitter
6 5 You must _____ after hard work. relax repose compose
6 5 After his operation he was _____ to bed for
a week.
circumscribed cramped confined
6 5 He was fined Rs. 100 for _____ driving. lavish prodigal reckless
6 5 The sea at that time was perfectly _____. harmonious concordant calm
6 5 He felt great _____ for his daughter. affection affectation love
6 5 Nadim met a _____ accident and died at the
spot.
fatal fateful crucial
6 5 Although buses are _____ to depart at a
certain hour, they are often late.
scheduled requested obligated
6 5 Because light travels faster then sound
lightning appears to _____ thunder.
prolong traverse go before
6 5 If one helps a criminal, he is also considered
_____ of the crime.
suspicious daring guilty
6 5 The Supreme Court has a reputation for
being _____.
stubborn capricious just
6 5 The _____ motion of the earth as it turns on
its axis creators the changes of seasons.
accident rhythmic leisurely
6 5 If the teams were not so evenly matched, it
would be easier to _____ the outcome of the
match.
argue predict discuss
6 5 They refuse to _____ defeat. grant yield own
6 5 All the family members will get together on
the _____ day of Eid.
suspicious obvious auspicious
6 5 Advertisement will _____ your sale. boost hoist lift
6 5 We _____ ourselves for difficult times. prop support brace
6 5 I can not _____ that he would wish to harm
us.
hatch produce breed
6 5 Getting this contract is _____ to the future of
our company.
humane crucial reciprocal
6 5 There was a lot of hustle and _____ in the
market.
bustle stir flutter
6 5 Rashid walked boldly upto the platform
without _____.
faltering flexible unsteady
6 5 It is _____ to steal. sinful corrupt immoral
6 5 We must _____ this accord. greet hail salute
6 5 You must show _____ for out teachers. reverence adoration homage
6 5 The book is out of print and difficult to _____. achieve procure acquire
6 5 His knowledge of the subject is _____. expensive extensive spacious
6 5 The war has seriously _____ attempts to
achieve peace.
impaired attenuated enfeebled
6 5 Vitamin _____ can lead to illness. shortage deficiency poverty
6 5 He often _____ from the subject while
lecturing.
rambles roams digresses
6 5 There is _____ among the members of the
party.
contention discord battle
6 5 Do not keep asking me what to do, use your
own _____.
unconstrained voluntary discretion
6 5 The description of the accident given by him
was quite _____.
bright vivid glaring
6 5 We can not _____ any of out territory. exceed accede concede
6 5 In the hot sun the surface of the road seems
wet, but that is only an _____.
illusion allusion delusion
6 5 An _____ agreement was reached between
both the parties.
amiable amicable likeable
6 5 This disease is _____ do not sit near him. contagious contiguous infectious
6 5 He has _____ all the miseries heroically. born borne bane
6 5 His _____ simplicity is one of his qualities. childish childlike infantile
6 5 I do not have any _____. confident confidant confidential
6 5 My land is _____ to your Land. contagious contiguous infectious
6 5 I _____ have to remind him of his
responsibilities.
continually continuously continually
6 5 Time alone will ____ those unpleasant
memories.
efface deface erase
6 5 He is _____ for promotion. illegible legible eligible
6 5 An announcement of further increase in
taxes is _____.
imminent eminent immanent
6 5 He has _____ knowledge of the subject. exceptional exceptionable exhaustible
6 5 God is kind and _____ to all sinners who
repent.
graceful gracious gaseous
6 5 He flew into a _____ when I would not lend
him any money.
overt sporadic furtive
6 5 _____ is a person who produces works of
art, especially painting.
beautician writer artistic
6 5 About fifty workers were declared _____ by
the factory management.
adulatory avid rhetorical
6 5 He is such an _____ that he's sure he will
soon find a job.
pessimist optimist philanthropist
6 5 Government did not realize the _____ of
people's feeling on this issue.
fragments attrition intensity
6 5 Your remarks are not _____ to the matter
we are discussing.
pertinent prolix prolonged
6 5 His ______ capacity for food was abnormal. venal venial voracious
6 5 The price of food here is _____. askance exorbitant outlandish
6 5 The reduction of unemployment should be
______ in government's economic policy.
paragon paramount paradox
6 5 Enemy movement on the border look a bit
_____.
acute ominous unusual
6 5 There seems to be a _____ of good young
players at the moment.
plague series plethora
6 5 When the hotel burned down, fifty people
died in the _____.
sirocco typhoon maelstrom
6 5 He could not _____ the incident from his
memory.
emboss paramount exculpate
6 5 Union leader tried to calm down _____
workers.
turbid turgid torpid
6 5 Because of his _____ personality he is
always very difficult to handle.
voluble volatile voluptuous
6 5 A _____ of the medal was put on show at
the museum.
fable facsimile allegory
6 5 Heavy _____ were reported in the battle depreciation despoliation obsolescence
6 5 Slavery is the ____ of freedom. oxymoron paradox metaphor
6 5 He keeps forgetting things: I think he is
getting _____.
feeble an
octogenarian
forgetful
6 5 At its _____ the Roman empire covered
almost the whole of Europe.
equinox nadir zenith
6 5 He worked _____ for ten year to make the
project successful.
deliberately assiduously ingenuously
6 5 Honest poverty is better than dishonest
_____.
riches wealth person wealth
6 5 We should try to avoid one who is brave in
words but not in _____.
actions reaction job
6 5 Meekness is more attractive than _____. sickness naughtiness laziness
6 5 Some flowers bloomed, while others _____. withered delivered gathered
6 5 A legislation was passed to punish brokers
who _____ their clients funds.
defalcate devastate devour
6 5 Non-violence is the law of saints as violence
is the law of the _____.
coward foolish brute
6 5 Beauty is to ugliness and adversity is to
_____.
prosperity cowardice miser
6 5 He said that there was no going back
because his decision was _____.
palatable peremptory premeditated
6 5 The average height of Himalayas is twenty
thousand feet, and Mount Everest _____ to
more than twenty-nine thousand feet at its
apex.
raise rises roses
6 5 Political dissidents complained of being
_____ by the police.
capitulated desecrated minimized
6 5 He became very _____ and started arguing
with me angrily.
subservient truculent pellucid
6 5 Praise always _____ him to make greater
efforts.
bores stimulates entices
6 5 The results of this policy will remain _____
for some times.
outstanding dubious impressive
6 5 Your conduct is most _____. reprobate recidivist reprehensible
6 5 Knowledge is like a deep well fed by _____
springs and your mind in the little bucket that
you drop in it.
external perennial immortal
6 5 The _____ arguments put forth for not
disclosing the facts did not impress anybody.
specious intemperate spurious
6 5 Wasim was so good at Mathematics that his
friends considered him to be a _____.
prodigy prodigal primeval
6 5 The controversy is likely to create _____
between the two rival.
doubt amity bitterness
6 5 He suggest that the meeting _____
postponed.
be is leaving must
6 5 Everyone in this universe is accountable to
God _____ his actions.
of against for
6 5 I don't know _____ to value your qualities. only how how so how
6 5 So many servants attended _____ him
during his illness.
only how with at
6 5 ____ the events of Aslam's resigning his job,
his family would starve.
intelligent on at
6 5 The principal along with the students _____
gone on the picnic.
has have were
6 5 Neither the officer nor the clerks _____
absent.
was were have been
6 5 He never _____ and never will do such a
work.
has has done had done
6 5 If a ruby is heated it _____ lose its colour. would will does
6 5 Lahore is a city of gardens _____? doesn't it isn't it hasn't it
6 5 He's been elected _____? hasn't he didn't he isn't he
6 5 Though Aslam is poor, _____ he is honest. but nevertheless yet
6 5 Penguins an aquatic bird, may live _____
twenty years.
since before for
6 5 The jaw structure of a snake permits it to eat
much larger than.
it itself its
6 5 The task seemed impossible but some-how
Rashid _____ very skillfully in the end.
pulled it up pulled it off pulled it away
6 5 It is important that the office _____ your
registration.
will confirm confirm confirms
6 5 We _____ go to movies quite frequently. used to was used to used
6 5 He _____ get up early. used used to is used to
6 5 We congratulate him _____. on his success for his success at his success
6 5 Like human, animals must have a dentist
_____ their teeth.
fill filled filling
6 5 _____ owe much of their success as a group
to their unusual powers of migration.
that birds a bird the bird
6 5 If teaching _____ more, fewer teachers
would leave profession.
pays is paying paid
6 5 The belief in life after death is prevalent in
both primitive societies _____ advanced
culture.
and and in and also
6 5 It is usually _____ lava but gas that kills
people during volcanic eruptions.
not only not neither
6 5 _____ the gulf stream is warmer than the
ocean water surrounding it.
wholly whole as whole
6 5 He worked ____, because he aspired to
stand first in the examination.
very hard harder much hard
6 5 Although we often use "speed" and "velocity"
interchangeably, in a technical sense
"speed" is not always _____ "velocity".
alike the same as similar
6 5 Prices for bikes can run _____ Rs. 30000/-. as high as as high to so high to
6 5 The greater the demand, _____ the price. higher high the higher
6 5 A seventeen-year-old is not _____ to vote in
an election.
old enough as old enough enough old
6 5 _____ is necessary for the development of
strong bones and teeth.
it is calcium that calcium calcium
6 5 The examiner made us _____ our
identification in order to be admitted to the
test center.
showing show showed
6 5 This legend has been _____ from father to
son.
handed down handed for handed in
6 5 By the twenty-first century, the computer
_____a necessity in every home.
became becoming has become
6 5 _____ at 212 degrees F and freezes at 32
degrees F.
waters boils the water boils water bills
6 5 The bacteria in milk is destroyed when
_____ to at least 62 C.
it be heated it heated it is heated
6 5 We were _____ by the result. surprise surprised surprising
6 5 The laboratory has a _____ of equipment. large amount large number little amount
6 5 The general public _____ a large number of
computers now, because prices are
beginning to decrease.
must buy must have
bought
must be buying
6 5 He _____ a few steps when it started raining. had hardly
taken
hardly took hardly taken
6 5 You _____ care of your health. had better to
take
had better take had better
taken
6 5 Unless protected areas are established, the
Bengal tiger, the blue whale, face _____ of
extinction.
possible the possibility to be possible
6 5 I will meet him when he _____ . will come had come would have
come
6 5 When your body does not get _____ it can
not make the glucose it needs.
enough food food as enough food enough
6 5 Many chemicals react _____ in acid
solutions.
more quickly more quick quickly
6 5 It is now believed that some damage to
tissues may result _____ them to frequent X-
rays.
the exposing from exposing from exposure
6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four
sentences given below
Tomorrow be
Sunday and it
will be a
holiday.
Tomorrow will
Sunday and it
will be a
holiday.
Tomorrow
shall Sunday
and it will be a
holiday.
You do not
understand
this point.
You does not
understand
this point.
You do not
understands
this point.
She does not
come here
every week.
She do not
come here
every week.
She does not
comes here
every week.
Do children
like riding on
top of the bus.
Does children
like riding on
top of the bus.
Do children
liked riding on
top of the bus.
Does he likes
traveling by
train.
Do he likes
traveling by
train.
Does he like
traveling by
train.
Does you
know the
place with
colored light.
Do you know
the place with
colored light.
Do you knows
the place with
colored light.
Will we got off
the bus here.
Will we get off
the bus here.
Shall we get
off the bus
here.
The policeman
holds up his
hand and
stops the
stream of
traffic.
The policeman
holds up his
hand and
stopped the
stream of
traffic.
The policeman
held up his
hand and
stops the
stream of
traffic.
They had
arrived at the
station before
we reached.
They has
arrived at the
station before
we reached.
They had
arrived at the
station before
we reaches.
The teacher
had entered
the room when
the bell rang.
The teacher
has entered
the room when
the bell rang.
The teacher
had entered
the room when
the bell rings.
You will have
recover by the
time I come
back.
You will have
recovered by
the time I
come back.
You will have
recovered by
the time I
came back.
The train had
not left when
we reaches.
The train has
not left when
we reached.
The train had
not left when
we reached.
The train had
not reached
the station
before it grew
dark.
The train has
not reached
the station
before it grew
dark.
The train had
not reaches
the station
before it grew
dark.
He would not
have spent all
the money by
the time his
father comes.
He will not
have spent all
the money by
the time his
father comes.
He will not
have spend all
the money by
the time his
father comes.
Had he
packed up
before he
received the
orders?
Has he
packed up
before he
received the
orders?
Had he pack
up before he
received the
orders?
Has the boys
entered the
room when the
bell rang?
Had the boys
entered the
room when the
bell rang?
Had the boys
enter the room
when the bell
rang?
Shall I had
recovered by
the time the
month ends.
Shall I have
recovered by
the time the
month ends.
Shall I has
recovered by
the time the
month ends.
Will Anees has
spent all the
money before
his father finds
it out.
Will Anees
have spend all
the money
before his
father finds it
out.
Will Anees
had spent all
the money
before his
father finds it
out.
Ahmad had
been waiting
for the bus
since full
twenty minutes.
Ahmad had
been waiting
for the bus for
full twenty
minutes.
Ahmad have
been waiting
for the bus for
full twenty
minutes.
They have
been living in
this tent for
many months.
They have
been living in
this tent since
many months.
They has been
living in this
tent for many
months.
I have not
been feeling
well for many
days.
I have not
feeling well for
many days.
I has not been
feel well for
many days.
Boys had not
doing anything
since
December.
Boys have not
been doing
anything since
December.
Boys has not
been doing
anything since
December.
Has you not
keeping good
health for a
long time.
Has you not
been keeping
good health
for a long time.
Had you not
been keeping
good health
for a long time.
He had not
opening his
shop for many
days?
He has not
opening his
shop for many
days?
He had not
been opening
his shop for
many days?
Hamid did not
go to bed till
eleven.
Hamid do not
go to bed till
eleven.
Hamid did not
went to bed till
eleven.
We did not like
his manners.
We did not
liked his
manners.
We did not
likes his
manners.
He have saved
their lives
before the
scouts
reached.
He had saved
their lives
before the
scouts
reached.
He has saved
their lives
before the
scouts
reached.
Babar had
won the battle
before rain
came.
Babar had
won the battle
before rain
come.
Babar has won
the battle
before rain
came.
He has been
living in this
house for six
years.
He has been
living in this
house since
six years.
He has living
in this house
for six years.
If you listen to
the question
carefully, you
will answer
them easily.
If you listen to
the question
carefully, you
would answer
them easily.
If you listened
to the question
carefully, you
will answer
them easily.
He live in this
house for six
years.
He has been
living in this
house since
six years.
He is living in
this house
since six years.
The child is
crying for three
hours.
The child is
been crying for
three hours.
The child has
been crying
since three
hours.
You should
help a poor.
You should
help the poor.
You should
help an poor.
His glorious
success is the
honour to
Pakistan.
His glorious
success is
honour to
Pakistan.
His glorious
success is an
honour to
Pakistan.
How beautiful
moon is!
How beautiful
the moon is!
How beautiful
that moon is!
India attacked
on Pakistan in
1965.
India attacked
Pakistan in
1965.
India attacks
Pakistan in
1965.
When you
came from
college.
When were
you come from
college.
When did you
come from
college.
We use to go
to the movies
quite
frequently.
We used to go
to the movies
quite
frequently.
We used to
went to the
movies quite
frequently.
He was used
to drink too
much.
He use to
drink too much.
He used to
drink too much.
She was used
to get up early.
She use to get
up early.
She used to
got up early.
If you put too
much water in
rice when you
cook it, it got
sticky.
If you put too
much water in
rice when you
cook it, it gets
sticky.
If you put too
much water in
rice when you
cook it, it will
get sticky.
If you listen to
the question
carefully, you
will answer
them easily.
If you listened
to the question
carefully, you
will answer
them easily.
If you listen to
the question
carefully, you
answer them
easily.
If I had more
time, I would
have checked
my paper
again.
If I had had
more time, I
would have
checked my
paper again.
If I have more
time, I would
have checked
my paper
again.
Her watch
needed
repaired.
Her watch
needed
repairing
Her watch is
needing
repairing.
Have you
wrote your
mother a
letter?
Have you write
your mother a
letter?
Have you
written your
mother a
letter?
I have been
taking this
medicine for
last six year.
I has been
taking this
medicine for
last six year.
I have been
taking this
medicine since
last six year.
We been
friends since
we were
children.
We were
friends since
we were
children.
We have been
friends since
we were
children.
He play very
well, didn't he?
He played very
well, doesn't
he?
He played very
well, will not
he?
It isn't far from
the university,
isn't it?
It isn't far from
the university,
is it?
It isn't far from
the university,
doesn't it?
She
understood
the question,
doesn't she?
She
understand
the question,
hadn't she?
She
understood
the question,
didn't she?
He should be
as strong
enough to get
out of bed in a
few days.
He should be
strong enough
so that to get
out of bed in a
few days.
He should be
strong enough
to get out of
bed in a few
days.
He drives so
fast as no one
likes to ride
with him.
He drives so
fast that no
one likes to
ride with him.
He drives as
fast as no one
likes to ride
with him.
This
composition is
more good
than your last
one.
This
composition is
best good than
your last one.
This
composition is
good than your
last one.
The fast we
finish, the
sooner we can
leave.
The faster we
finish, the
soon we can
leave.
The faster we
finish, the
sooner we can
leave.
The rainy
season begins
on July.
The rainy
season begins
at July.
The raining
season begins
in July.
Raza have a
part-time job in
the night.
Raza has a
part-time job
at night.
Raza have a
part-time job
at night.
Haris has lots
of friends
beside his
roommate.
Haris have lots
of friends
besides his
roommate.
Haris have lot
of friends
beside his
roommate.
He borrowed
the pen so that
he finish his
essay.
He borrowed
the pen so that
he can finish
his essay.
He borrowed
the pen so that
he could finish
his essay.
I thought that
he is coming
today.
I thought that
he will come
today.
I thought that
he was
coming today.
We shall not
receive mail
yesterday
because it was
holiday.
We do not
receive mail
yesterday
because it was
a holiday.
We did not
receive mail
yesterday
because it was
a holiday.
There have
been very little
rain this
summer.
There has
been very little
rain this
summer.
There been
very little rain
this summer.
Four miles are
the distance to
the office.
Four miles is
distance to the
office.
Four miles is
the distance to
the office.
The staff are
meeting in the
conference
room.
The staff is
meeting on the
conference
room.
The staff is
meeting at the
conference
room.
Whoever
called did not
leave his
name and
number.
Whoever
called he did
not leave his
name and
number.
Whoever
called did not
leave their
name and
number.
If one does not
work hard, one
cannot expect
to succeed.
If one does not
work hard, you
cannot expect
to succeed.
If one does not
work hard, he
cannot expect
to succeed.
If one knew
the fact he
would not be
so quick to
criticize.
If one knew
the facts, one
would not be
so quick to
criticize.
If one have
knew the facts
one would not
be so quick to
criticize.
The money
that I have is
sufficient for
my needs.
The money
that I have is
sufficient
enough for my
needs.
The money
that I have is
enough
sufficient for
my needs.
The class
advance
rapidly.
The class
advanced
forward rapidly.
The class
advanced
ahead rapidly.
The smoke
that is raising
from that oil
refinery is
black.
The smoke
that rising from
that oil refinery
is black.
The smoke
that is rising
from oil
refinery is
black.
He said that
he will get up
early in the
morning.
He said that
he would get
up early in the
morning.
He asked that
he would get
up early in the
morning.
Tariq
exclaimed with
joy that he has
won the match.
Tariq told with
joy that he had
won the match.
Tariq
exclaimed with
joy that he had
won the match.
Either of the
boys has done
this.
Either of the
boys have
done this.
Either of the
boy has done
this.
I, you and he
should do it.
You, he and I
should do it.
He, you and I
should do it.
I have bought
ten dozens
eggs for two
hundred
rupees.
I have bought
ten dozen egg
for two
hundreds
rupees.
I have bought
ten dozen
eggs for two
hundred
rupees.
I have been
confined in
bed for a
month.
I have been
confined to
bed for a
month.
I has been
confined to
bed for a
month.
In my opinion,
too soon to
make a
decision.
In my opinion,
this is too
soon to make
a decision.
In my opinion,
it is too soon
to make a
decision.
I have been
looking
forward to
meet you.
I has been
looking
forward to
meeting you.
I have been
looked forward
to meeting you.
You had better
to hurry if you
don't want to
miss the bus.
You had better
hurry if you
don't want to
miss the bus.
You have
better hurry if
you don't want
to miss the
bus.
I shall buy a
pen and pencil.
I shall buy pen
and pencil.
I shall buy a
pen and a
pencil.
Higher you go,
cooler it is.
Higher you go,
the cooler it is.
The higher you
go, the cooler
it is.
We met
neither of
these eight
persons.
We met none
of these eight
persons.
We have meet
none of these
eight persons.
Which is
nearest post
office from
here?
Which is a
nearest post
office from
here?
Which is the
nearest post
office from
here?
Harder you
work, better
will be your
result.
The harder
you work,
better will be
you result.
The harder
you work, the
better will be
your result.
He makes her
to obey his
orders.
He makes her
obey his
orders.
He make her
obey his
orders.
You should
regard him as
your friend.
You should
regard him
your friend.
You should
regard him to
your friend.
He speaks
always the
truth.
He speaks the
truth always.
He always
speaks the
truth.
I often meet
him at the
corner of the
street.
I meet him at
the corner of
the street
often.
Often I meets
him at the
corner of the
street.
I does not
remember not
having done it.
I never
remember
having never
done it.
I do not
remember
never having
done it.
6 7 An office or post with no work but high pay honorary sinecure gratis
6 7 One who is ell-versed in any subject, a
critical judge of any art, particularly fine arts
veteran philistine dilettante
6 7 Person who is indifferent to both pleasure
and pain
saint ascetic stoic
6 7 A person who is against the standards of
ordinary society especially in dressing
joker hippy scapegoat
6 7 Murder of a brother patricide regicide homicide
6 7 Mania for stealing articles logomania nymphomania kleptomania
6 7 Mental weariness for want of occupation fatigue ennui languor
6 7 One who loves all and sundry optimist humanist altruist
6 7 Mania for travel dromomania pyromania bibliomania
6 7 A person living permanently in a certain place native resident domicile
6 7 Paying back injury with injury vendetta repression subjugation
6 7 Acutely affected by external impressions ingenious impressionable credulous
6 7 To slap with a flat object hew swat chop
6 7 An assembly of hearers audience crowd congregation
6 7 An associate in an office or institution companion ally colleague
6 7 One who is unrelenting and cannot be
moved by entreaties
inexorable infallible impregnable
6 7 Regard for others as a principle of action cynicism nepotism philanthropy
6 7 Person who claims to have great love and
understanding of what is beautiful in nature,
art etc.
critic aesthete connoisseur
6 7 A disease which spreads by contact infectious contagious contiguous
6 7 An animal story with a moral fable tale anecdote
6 7 To change shape, nature or substance of modulate substitute remodel
6 7 Person who believes that God is everything
and everything is God
agnostic theist pantheist
6 7 Person who pilots or travels in a balloon,
airship or other aircraft
aeronaut astronaut aerobat
6 7 Witty, clever retort sarcasm repartee platitude
6 7 Words different in meaning but similar in
sound
homonym synonym acronym
6 7 Simplest and smallest form of plant life,
present in air, water and soil, essential to life
but may cause disease
virus amoeba bacteria
6 7 A girl or woman who flirts, that is, tries to
attract people and make advances in love
simply to satisfy her vanity
prostitute coquette spinster
6 7 A person who regards the whole world as his
country
patriot nationalist cosmopolitan
6 7 Relationship by blood or birth parentage affiliation consanguinity
6 7 A story in which ideas are symbolized as
people
allegory fable legend
6 7 The cessation of warfare before a treaty is
signed
affidavit agreement armistice
6 7 A person who makes love without serious
intentions
consort philanderer rodeo
6 7 Opposed to great or sudden change static revolutionary conservative
6 7 Having no beginning or end to its existence eternal obscure universal
6 7 The art of cutting trees and bushes into
ornamental shapes
horticulture bonsai pruning
6 7 Walking in sleep somniloquism somnambulism obsession
6 7 One who cannot die stable immortal perpetual
6 7 A formal written change against a person for
some crime or offence
accusation indictment allegation
6 7 Language difficult to understand because of
bad form
rhetoric jargon pedantic
6 7 Belief or opinion contrary to what is generally
accepted
unbelief superstition non-conformity
6 7 A person obsessed with exclusively one idea
or subject
crazy kleptomaniac monomaniac
6 7 A child of unusual or remarkable talent scholar diligent freak
6 7 A disease which ends in death contagious lethal fatal
6 7 A person who kills somebody especially for
political reasons
criminal murderer assassin
6 7 One who loves making anthropologist philanthropist seismologist
6 7 A small piece of potato chunk chip scrap
6 7 A child who stays away from school without
any good reason
vagabond delinquent schizophrenic
6 7 A common place remark dialogue platitude epigram
6 7 Line at which the earth or sea and sky seem
to meet
horizon zenith fringe
6 7 A person who rules without consulting the
opinion of others
democrat bureaucrat autocrat
6 7 A person who speaks for or supports an idea pioneer adviser advocate
6 7 A man of odd habits eccentric cynical introvert
6 7 A thing or person behind time lazy sluggish indolent
6 7 One whose attitude is : eat, drink and be
merry
Epicurean cynic materialistic
6 7 Science of printing calligraphy typography topography
6 7 Man whose wife has been unfaithful dandy bastard concubine
6 7 Deriving pleasure from inflicting pain on
others
sadism malevolence bigotry
6 7 One who robs smuggler of his smuggled
goods after the border has been crossed
pirate malefactor hijacker
6 7 Course for chariot races sanatorium hangar hippodrome
6 7 One who pretends illness to escape duty truant malingerer hypocrite
6 7 The power of reading the thoughts of others psychopath telecommunica
tion
psychology
6 7 use of more words than are needed to
express the meaning
circumlocution verbatim ventriloquism
6 7 The science of judging a person's character,
capabilities, etc. from an examination of the
shape of his skull
physiology anthropology phrenology
6 7 One filled with excessive and mistaken
enthusiasm in cause
martyr pedant fanatic
6 7 A person who rarely speaks the truth scoundrel liar crook
6 7 Time after twilight and before night evening dawn dusk
6 7 Custom of having many wives polyandry polygon matrimony
6 7 To bring peace, and end violence soothe harmonies pacify
6 7 Animals living on land and in water ambiguous amphibian amorphous
6 7 One who plays a game for pleasure and not
professionally
veteran player connoisseur
6 7 That which can be interpreted in any way ambient ambivalent amphibious
6 7 A political leader who tries to stir up people demagogue dictator statesman
6 7 A light sailing boat built especially for racing dinghy canoe yacht
6 7 Person who has long experience stalwart pedantic itinerant
6 7 Atonement for one's sins redemption repentance salvation
6 7 An instrument for viewing objects at a
distance
microscope telescope periscope
6 7 Be the embodiment or perfect example of signify characterize personify
6 7 A general pardon of political offenders parole forgiveness clemency
6 7 A man who operates on sick people physician operator surgeon
6 7 A person who maliciously destroys by fire antagonist activist terrorist
6 7 A house for strong grains cellar store go down
6 7 A person very hard to please obstinate unconquerable fastidious
6 7 A person claiming to be superior in culture
and intellect to others
intellectual aristocrat elite
6 7 One who totally abstains from alcoholic
drinks
puritan Samaritan pedantic
6 7 A name adopted by an author in his writings title nomenclature nickname
6 7 The line which a plough cuts in the ground vale trench furrow
6 7 A man who pays too much attention to his
clothes and personal appearance
snob duffer dandy
6 7 A person who forsakes religion charlatan apostle renegade
6 7 Of unknown and unedited authorship gullible anonymous unanimous
6 7 Contempt of God Atheism nihilism blasphemy
6 7 Person holding a scholarship at a university intellectual pedant scholar
6 7 A person concerned with practical results
and values
plagiarist realist pragmatist
6 7 Member of a band of robbers dacoit brigand thief
6 7 A person without manners or polish rustic nave boorish
6 7 A speech by an actor at the end of a play epilogue monologue duologue
6 7 Responsible according to law liable eligible legalized
6 7 A funny imitation of a poem counterfeit sonnet caricature
6 7 Decision made upon a political question by
the votes of all qualified persons
veto suffrage plebiscite
6 7 Wistful longing for something one has
known in the past
hysteria megalomania nostalgia
6 7 A person who is made to bear the blame
due to others
innocent scapegoat ignoramus
6 7 Act of taking one's life suicide slaughter homicide
6 7 A person who brings goods illegally into the
country (Asst. Grade 1994)
exporters importers smuggler
6 7 A man who dances to the tunes of his wife effeminate slave henpecked
6 7 A place of ideal peace and happiness asylum utopia el dorado
6 7 One who stirs people for personal politics or
profit
pedagogue demagogue dictator
6 7 One who is honorably discharged from
service
emeritus honorary sinecure
6 7 Shining, brilliant and magnificent luminous gleaming resplendent
6 7 Cutting for stone in the bladder dichotomy tubectomy vasectomy
6 7 A heavy unnatural slumber nap insomnia coma
6 7 Changing one's mind too quickly adaptability instability versatility
6 7 A person who travels to a sacred place as
an act of religious devotion
hermit pilgrim saint
6 7 To do away with a rule cancel repeal obliterate
6 7 One who talks very little reserved mute phlegmatic
6 7 A person sharing responsibility for a political
party's discipline and tactics
statesman diplomat whip
6 7 Food which agrees with one's taste pungent palatable sensuous
6 7 Government by the representatives of the
people
diplomacy democracy socialism
6 7 Informal business communication with a
personal signature
agendum corrigendum plagiarism
6 7 One who loves books bibliophile bibliographer bibliophile
6 7 One knowing everything learned omnipresent omnipotent
6 7 A story in verse elegy hymn sonnet
6 7 Plain or self-evident truth proverb precept truism
6 7 The list of courses at a meal or of dishes
that can be served in a restaurant
agenda menu biodata
6 7 Parts of a country behind the coast or a
river's banks
swamps archipelago hinterland
6 7 Printed notice of somebody's death condolence calumny obituary
6 7 A room leading into a large room or hall anteroom lounge lobby
6 7 Just punishment for wrong doing nemesis purgation wrath
6 7 A person who has just started learning foreman accomplice novice
6 7 A low-area storm with high winds rotating
about a centre of low atmospheric pressure
cyclone tornado typhoon
6 7 To break off proceedings of a meeting for a
time
convene terminate adjourn
6 7 A fault that may be forgiven mercenary venial pardonable
6 7 One who promotes the idea of absence of
government of any kind, when every man
should be a law unto himself
anarchist belligerent iconoclast
6 7 One who is likeable amicable amiable effusive
6 7 Person who gives himself upto luxury and
sexual pleasures
masochist voluptuary debauch
6 7 A field or a part of a garden where fruit trees
grow
park nursery yard
6 7 Something which is not thorough or profound superficial superstitious superfluous
6 7 A woman of lax moral prostitute harlot concubine
6 7 A slow-witted and incompetent person nigger dud snotty
6 7 using of new words coinage vocabulary neologism
6 7 Indifference to pleasure or pain docility stoicism patience
6 7 One who is neither intelligent nor dull tolerable commoner mediocre
6 7 Equal in rank, merit or quality chum contemporary peer
6 7 Person who gives written testimony for use
in a law court
deponent appellant witness
6 7 Present opposing arguments of evidence rebut criticize rebuff
6 7 Books, pictures etc. intended to arouse
sexual desire
lewd licentious pornography
6 7 A person who makes and sells ladies hats,
etc.
draper tinker milliner
6 7 Careful in performing duties punctual punctilious sincere
6 7 To mediate between two parties in depute interfere interact interrupt
6 7 A thing liable to be easily broken breakable ductile brittle
6 7 The place where bricks are baked foundry mint cemetery
6 7 The branch of problems of the old oncology geriatrics obstetrics
6 7 One who specializes in the study of birds biologist naturalist zoologist
6 7 Property inherited from one's father or
ancestors
alimony patrimony legacy
6 7 Connoisseur of choice food greedy glutton gourmet
6 7 Person who makes love for amusement
without serious intentions
concubine philanderer dandy
6 7 A person pretending to be somebody he is
not
imposter mar rogue
6 7 One who eats human flesh beast savage cannibal
6 7 Allowance due to a wife from her husband
on separation
bail alimony dole
6 7 Fear of going to bed clinophobia ballistophobia xenophobia
6 7 Official incharge of a museum dean warden curator
6 7 The doctrine that human souls pass from
one body to another at the time of death
metamorphosis transition transmigration
6 7 People at a lecture or concert congregation audience mob
6 7 A person's first speech preface maiden opener
6 7 To come as a settler into another country alienate emigrate migrate
6 7 A drawing on transparent paper red print blue print negative
6 7 Giving undue favours to one's own kith and
kin
favoritism nepotism corruption
6 7 A person who is very fond of sensuous
enjoyments
epicure stoic lusty
6 7 A person who pretends to have more
knowledge or skill than he really has
renegade apostle charlatan
6 7 The act of violating the sanctity of church heresy desecration sacrilege
6 7 One who sacrifices his life for a cause soldier revolutionary martyr
6 7 Bring to an end hurl hustle final
6 7 An old unmarried woman virgin bachelor spinster
6 7 A style in which a writer makes a display of
this knowledge
pedantic ornate verbose
6 7 A person guilty of malicious setting on fire of
property etc.
plagiarist anarchist arsonist
6 7 One who thinks that human nature is
essentially evil
agnostic cynic septic
6 7 Science of bodily structure anthropology neurology hygiene
6 7 That which makes it difficult to recognize the
presence of real nature of somebody or
something
cover mask pretence
6 7 A person who lives by himself venerable sage quietus
6 7 A written declaration made on oath in the
presence of a magistrate
voucher dossier affidavit
6 7 A physician who delivers babies pediatrician obstetrician gynecologist
6 7 The loop of rope with a running knot used to
hand a person
noose cable cord
6 7 Yearly celebration of a date or an event centenary jubilee anniversary
6 7 Public building where weapons and
ammunition are made or stored
godown cellar armory
6 7 The caretaker of a public building dean caller custodian
6 7 Interested mainly in a small group, country
etc.
fanatic patriotic insular
6 7 One who cannot be corrected invulnerable hardened incurable
6 7 A person who enters without any invitation burglar intruder thief
6 7 The period between two reigns lapse intermission anachronism
6 7 Poem in short stanzas narrating a popular
story
ballet epic ballad
6 7 Lack of enough blood amnesia insomnia anemia
6 7 A man who is having the qualities of woman loquacious celibate effeminate
6 7 A word no longer in use exotic primitive obsolete
6 7 One who does not know how to save money reckless lavish careless
6 7 A person 70 to 79 years old nonagenarian centenarian octogenarian
6 7 A person who sneaks into a country infiltrator sniper invader
6 7 A short journey made by a group of persons
together
hike excursion picnic
6 7 People in a rowdy scene mob crowd rabble
6 7 Creature having both male and female
organs
sodomite homosexual masochist
6 7 One who has suddenly gained new wealth,
power or prestige
aristocrat affluent maverick
6 7 A person working in the same place with
another
comrade colleague assistant
6 7 Interval between two events or two periods
of time of different character
intermission interlude interpolation
6 7 One who comes from a country area and is
often considered to be stupid
villager rustic bumpkin
6 7 murder of a new-born child homicide regicide fratricide
6 7 Walk in a vain, self-important way jog trek trudge
6 7 Place which provides both board and lodging caf inn restaurant
6 7 Clumsy or ill-bred fellow boor oaf lout
6 7 A small shop that sells fashionable clothes,
cosmetics etc.
booth stall boutique
6 7 Thing that can be felt or touched pandemic palpable paltry
6 7 A person who readily believes others credible credulous sensible
6 7 A book containing summarized information
on all braches of knowledge
dictionary anthology encyclopedia
6 7 The normal abode of any animal or plant environment habitat settlement
6 7 Extreme old age when a man behaves like a
fool
dotage imbecility virago
6 7 A violent and bad-tempered woman prostitute concubine voracious
6 7 One who talks continuously impecunious loquacious voracious
6 7 A person who is skilled in horsemanship cavalier equestrian jockey
6 7 To atone for one's sins apologies ingratiate expiate
6 7 The rule of a person who is tyrant despotism anarchy tyranny
6 7 A paper written in one's own handwriting manuscript scroll parchment
6 7 To congratulates someone in a formal
manner
wish solemnize celebrate
6 7 Interested in and clever at many things manicure manifest intelligent
6 7 Code of diplomatic etiquette and precedence formalism statesmanship protocol
6 7 People in a riot crowd rabble mob
6 7 That which can be carried handy portable potable
6 7 Of outstanding significance meaningful ominous evident
6 7 A small, named group of fixed stars galaxy cluster constellation
6 7 Run away from home with lover ostracize vanquish abscond
6 7 A place of good climate for invalids asylum hospital cemetery
6 7 A tumor which is not likely to spread benign localized dead
6 7 Place where bankers exchange cheques
and adjust balance
exchequer clearing house bank
6 7 One who promotes the idea of absence of
government of any kind, when every man
should be a law unto himself
anarchist belligerent iconoclast
6 7 To remove the skin of a potato or an orange rinse peel scrub
6 7 Irrational fear of crowds ochlophobia claustrophobia sitophbia
7 1 1250 / 25 X 0.5 = ? 250 50 2.5
7 1 ? X 12 = 75% of 336 48 252 28
7 1 12% of ..= 48 250 100 400
7 1 2244 / 0.88 = ? X 1122 20.02 20.2 19.3
7 1 0.027 / 90 = ? 0.0003 0.03 3
7 1 25% of 4/4% of 25 = ? 1 3 0
7 1 if x % of 60 = 48 then x = ? 80 60 90
7 1 72 + 679 + 1439 + 537+ ? = 4036 1309 1208 2308
7 1 1.02 - 0.20 + ? = 0.842 0.222 232 2
7 1 ? % of 60 = 24 40 48 45
7 1 if a > b and b > c then: a = c a > c c > a
7 1 5.41 - 3.29 X 1.6 = ? 14.6 0.3392 0.146
7 1 5.76/1.6 - 2.4 = ? 1.2 2.4 7.2
7 1 350 x ? = 4200 12 24 15
7 1 60% of 37 = ? 20 21 22
7 1 8 : ? :: 1 : 4 24 16 0
7 1 396/11 + 19 = ? 19.8 36 55
7 1 63.84 / ? = 21 3.04 3.4 30.4
7 1 42.98 + ? = 107.87 64.89 65.89 64.98
7 1 1015 / 0.05 / 40 = ? 50.75 507.5 506
7 1 5873 + 12034 + 1106 = ? 19016 20001 19013
7 1 5789 - 2936 + 1089 = ? 3942 4041 2626
7 2 A retailer bought a compact disc. From a
manufacturer for Rs. 200. In addition to that,
he paid a 15% sales tax. If he sold the disc
to a customer for Rs. 260, calculate the cash
profit he made.
Rs. 30.00 Rs. 35.00 Rs. 32.50
7 2 A shopkeeper bought a radio from a
wholesaler for Rs. 250.00. In addition, he
paid a sales tax of 15% on the cost price. He
then sold the radio for Rs. 315.00. Calculate
the cash profit made by the shopkeeper.
Rs. 20.00 Rs. 22.50 Rs. 25.00
7 2 A shopkeeper buys 300 identical articles at a
total cost of Rs. 1500. He fixes the selling
price of each article at 20% above the cost
price and sells remaining articles, he sells
them at 50% of the selling price. Calculate
the shopkeeper's total profit.
180 185 200
7 2 10 men can complete a job in 14 days. How
long will it take 4 men to finish the same job
if they work at the same rate?
7 2 15 men can complete a job in 10 days. How
long will it take 8 men to finish the same job
if they work at the same rate?
14 3/4 days 16 3/4 days 18 3/4 days
7 2 40 men can build a wall 4 metres high in 15
days. The number of men required to build a
similar wall 5 metres high in 6 days is
115 125 105
7 2 A and B can reap a field in 30 days, working
together. After 20 days, however, B is called
away and a takes 20 days more to complete
the work. B alone could do the whole work in
7 2 A and B enter into a partnership contributing
Rs. 800 and Rs. 1000 respectively. At the
end of 6 months they admit C, who
contributes rs. 600. After 3 years they get a
profit of Rs. 966. Find the share of each
partner in the profit.
336,420,210 360,400,206 380,390,196
7 2 A man takes 50 minutes to cover a certain
distance at a speed of 6 km/hr. If he walds
with a speed of 10 km/hr, he covers the
same distance in
1 hour 30 minutes 20 minutes
7 2 A train takes 50 minutes for a journey if it
runs at 48 km/hr. The rate at which the train
must run to reduce the time to 40 minutes
will be
50 km/hr 55 km/hr 60 km/hr
7 2 Rashid buys three books for Rs. 16.00 each
and four books for Rs. 23.00 each, what will
be the average price of books
18 20 22
7 2 A boy of height 165 cm is replaced by
another, which decreases the average
height of the group of 34 students, by 1 cm.
The height of the new student is
129 cm 130 cm 131 cm
7 2 A car traveled 100 km with half the distance
at 40 km/h and the other half at 80 km/h.
Find the average speed of the car for the
whole journey.
53 km/hr 53.33 km/hr 54 1/4 km/hr
7 2 A rectangular room is 6 m long, 5 m wide
and 4 m high. The total volume of the room
in cubic meters is
24 30 120
7 2 A single discount equivalent to a discount
series of 20%, 10% and 25% is
55% 54% 46%
7 2 40 arithmetic questions, each carrying equal
marks, were given in a class test. A boy
answered 25 questions correctly. What
percentage was this? To pass a test a
student must answer at least 45% of the
questions correctly. Find the least number of
correct
62.5% 18 63.5% 16 64.5% 20
7 2 A boy scored 90 marks for his mathematics
test. This was 20% more than what he had
scored for the geography test. How much
did he score in geography?
71 marks 73 marks 75 marks
7 2 A fruit-seller has 120 oranges. Given that he
has 20% more apples than oranges and 40
% less oranges than pears, find the number
of apples and the number of pears the fruit
seller has.
144, 200 148, 380 149, 220
7 2 A man earned an annual income of Rs.
245000 in 1990. He was allowed a deduction
of Rs.15000 relief for each of his three
children and a personal relief of Rs. 30000.
If he was charged a tax rate of 4% on first
Rs. 50000 and 6% on his remaining income,
cal
Rs. 9200 Rs . 8700 Rs. 9500
7 2 A man pays 10% of his income for his
income tax. If his income tax amounts to Rs.
1500, what is his income?
Rs. 13000 Rs. 15000 Rs. 17000
7 2 A certain number was doubled and the result
then multiplied by 3. If the product was 138,
find the number.
21 23 25
7 2 A man is 5 times as old as his son. 2 years
ago the sum of the squares of their ages
was 11 , 14. Find the present age of son.
7 years 9 years 8 years
7 2 Rashid's salary was reduced by 20%. In
order to restore his salary at the original
amount, it must be raised by
20% 22.50% 25%
7 2 A bank exchanges British currency for
Singapore currency at the rate of S$ 3.20 to
pond 1. Calculate, in Pond, the amount
exchanged for S$ 1,600 by a customer who
also had to pay an extra 3% commission for
this transaction.
Pond 475 485 495
7 2 A can do a piece of work in 10 days and B
can do it in 15 days. The number of days
required by them to finish it, working
together is
8 7 6
7 2 A certain solution is to be prepared by
combining chemicals X, Y and Z in the ration
18:3:2. How many liters of the solution can
be prepared by using 36 liters of X?
46 liters 47 liters 45 liters
7 2 A group of boys were to choose between
playing hockey and badminton. The number
of boys choosing hockey ws three times that
of those choosing badminton, asking 12
boys who chose hockey to play badminton
would make the number of players for each
game equal
12 14 11
7 2 A man bought a flat for Rs. 820000. He
borrowed 55% of this money from a bank.
How much money did he borrow from the
bank?
Rs. 451000 Rs. 452000 Rs. 453000
7 2 A man saves Rs. 500, which is 15% of his
annual income. How much does he earn in
one year?
3542.5 3333.33 3132.3
7 2 A primary school had an enrollment of 850
pupils in January 1970. In January 1980 the
enrollment was 1,120. What was the
percentage increase for the enrollment?
31.76% 33.50% 30.65%
7 2 A bank increased the rate of interest which it
paid to depositors from 3.5% to 4% per
annum. Find how much more interest a man
would receive if he deposited Rs. 64000 in
the bank for 6 months at the new interest rate
Rs. 160 Rs. 180 Rs. 200
7 2 The difference between simple and
compound interest on Rs. 1625 for 3 years
at 4 % per annum in rupees is
7.95 7.9 7.7
7 2 The difference in simple and compound
interest on a certain sum of money in two
years at 15% per annum is Rs. 144. The
sum in rupees is
6000 6200 6400
7 2 A tour guide earns commission by bringing
tourists to patronize a certain handicraft
shop. Given that the commission he
receives is 3% of the total sales, calculate
his commission on a particular day when the
12 tourists he brought to the shop spent an
av
Rs. 500 Rs. 700 Rs. 900
7 2 Mr. Rehman ordered a car worth Rs. 600000
and was given a discount. Given that he paid
Rs. 570000 for his new car, calculate the
percentage discount her receive (d).
5% 7% 9%
7 2 A person's net income is Rs. 1373.70 and he
pays an income tax of 5%. His gross income
in rupees must be
1446 1118.96 1308.29
7 2 A girl is 18 years younger than her mother.
In 6 years time, the sum of their ages will be
54.How old is the girl now?
7 2 A group of laborers accepted to do a piece
of work in 20 days. 8 of them did not turn up
for the work and the remaining did the work
in 24 days. The original number of laborers
was
47 48 49
7 2 A sum of money is divided among three
persons. X, Y and Z, in the ration Z, how
much will X get?
Rs. 700 Rs. 750 Rs. 735
7 2 A, B and C can do a work in 20, 25 and 30
days respectively. The undertook to finish
the work together for Rs. 1110. The share of
A exceeds that of B by
Rs. 60 Rs. 90 Rs. 75
7 2 An oil tanker contained 5500 liters of oil.
Three-fifth of the oil was deliver to a
customer and two-fifth of the remaining was
delivered to another customer. The number
of liters of oil that remains in the tanker is
0 440 880
7 2 A man's new income is Rs. 8400 per month.
Given that his original income was Rs. 7500
per month, find the percentage increase in
his monthly income.
11% 12% 13%
7 2 A student has to secure 40 % marks to
pass. He gets 40 marks and fails by 40
marks. The maximum number of marks is
300 250 200
7 2 After spending 88% of his income, a man
had Rs. 2160 left. Find his income.
Rs. 18000 Rs. 19000 Rs. 20000
7 2 At a clearance sale, an article was reduced
in price from Rs. 180 to Rs. 171. If the article
sold at eh original price yielded the dealer
25% profit, what was the percentage of profit
if the article was sold at the reduced price?
17.75% 18.75% 19.75%
7 2 By selling a fan for Rs. 475, a person loses
5%. To get a gain of 5%, he should sell the
fan for:
Rs. 500 Rs. 525 Rs. 535
7 2 During a month in 1970, a family spent Rs.
2500 on food. In 1980 in the same month
the same family spent Rs. 3750 on food.
What was the percentage increase in the
money spent on food?
25% 50% 75%
7 2 In an examination, 900 candidates were
boys and 1100 were girls. If 32% of the boys
and 38% of the girls passed the
examination, the total percentage (of boys
and girls together) of candidates that failed
will be
35.30% 62.00% 64.70%
7 2 Javed read 60 pages of a book on the first
day. This was 20% more than the number of
pages he read on the second day. Given
that he read 1/6 of the book on the second
day, find the number of pages in the book he
had read.
300 290 325
7 2 Price of sugar is increased by 25%. The
percentage of consumption to be decreased
so that there would be no increase in the
expenditure is
18% 20% 22%
7 2 The enrollment in a certain secondary
school was 450 in 1979. By 1980 the
enrollment had increased by 16%. What was
the enrollment in 1980?
Rs. 512 Rs. 518 Rs. 522
7 2 A group of students volunteered to finish a
construction work in 25 days. 10 of the
students did not come and the work could be
finished in 35 days. The original number of
students in the group were.
25 32 35
7 2 A man borrowed Rs. 3000 at 8% per annum
compound interest compounded annually.
How much must her repay in all at the end of
3 years? Answer to nearest rupee.
3699 3779 3889
7 2 A man has a number of ducks costing Rs.
100 each and three times as many chickens
costing Rs. 60 each. If the total cost of
ducks and chickens is Rs. 4200, find the
number of chickens the man has.
43 45 47
7 2 A man is rowing a boat at a uniform speed.
The speed with the current is 2 km/h greater
than against it. He takes a total of 4 hours to
row with the current from A to B and then
against it from B to A. If the distance
between A and B is 15 km, find the sp
7.85 km 8.65 km 9.65 km
7 2 A man normally takes 5 hours to travel at a
certain speed from city A to city B. One day,
he increases his speed by 4 km/h and finds
that the journey from A to B takes half and
hour less than the normal time. Find his
normal speed.
36 km/h 37 km/h 38 km/h
7 2 A man travelled 120 km to a town. He could
have reached the town 4 1/2 hours earlier
had he increased his speed by 3 km/h. Find
the speed at which he travelle(d).
6.56 km 7.57 km 8.58 km
7 2 A reduction of 25% in the price of rice will
enable a trader to buy 50 kg more for Rs.
450. What was the price per kg before
reduction?
Rs. 3.00 Rs. 3.50 Rs. 2.90
7 2 If 10% is deducted from a bill, Rs. 585.00
remains to be paid. How much is the bill?
Rs. 650 Rs. 675 Rs. 700
7 2 A man buys 5 kg of tea at Rs. 125.00 per kg.
In addition, for every kilogram of tea
purchased, he has to pay a sales tax of 6%
on the selling price. Calculate the total
amount of money that he had to pay.
Rs. 332.50 Rs. 552.50 Rs. 662.50
7 2 A bookseller sold a book for Rs. 40.00 to
make a profit of 15% percent. In order to
earn a profit of 20%, he should have sold it
for
41.74 43.75 42.25
7 2 A man bought 400 dozen pencils at Rs. 8.00
a dozen. He sold half of them at Rs. 10.50 a
dozen and the rest at Rs. 7.50 a dozen. Find
his profit.
Rs. 375 Rs. 400 Rs. 450
7 2 A man sells two houses for Rs. 2 lakh each.
On one he gained 20% and on the other he
lost 20%. His total profit or loss % in the
transaction will be
4% profit 5% loss 6 2/3% profit
7 2 A shopkeeper sold two articles for Rs. Each.
He made a 25% profit on one article and a
loss of 20% profit on one article and a loss
of 20% on the other. What was his net gain
or loss on the sale of the two articles?
loss of Rs. 1.40 profit of Rs.
2.40
loss of Rs. 2.40
7 2 At a book fair, a book was reduced in price
from Rs. 75.00 to Rs. 60.00. If the first price
gives a 50% profit, find the percentage profit
of the book sold at the reduced price.
20% 30% 40%
7 2 By selling 60 chairs, a man gains an amount
equal to selling price of 10 chairs. The profit
percentage in the transaction is
10% 15% 16.67%
7 2 How much would I have to pay for a book
which cost Rs. 72 to product, if the printing
company sold it to a bookseller at 20% profit
and in return the bookseller sold it to me at a
profit the bookseller sold it to me at a profit
of 25%?
Rs. 104.00 Rs. 106.00 Rs. 108.00
7 2 A man walked for 3 hours at 4.5 km/h and
cycled for some time at 15 km/h. Altogether,
he traveled 21 km. Find the time taken for
cycling.
1/2 hour 1 hour 1 1/2 hours
7 2 A man was 32 years old when his daughter
was born. He is now five times as old as him
daughter. How old is his daughter now?
7 2 A shop owner blends three types of coffees,
A, B and C, in the ratio 3:5:7. Given that type
A coffee costs Rs. 70 per kg, type B coffee
costs Rs. 100 pr kg and type C coffee costs
Rs. 120 per kg, calculate the cost per kg of
the blended mixture.
Rs. 106 Rs. 108 Rs. 109
8 1 5 9 17 33 65 71 74
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8 1 10 50 250 1250 6250 2500 5112
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8 1 7 9 13 21 37 53 35
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8 1 3 6 9 12 15 21 42 18
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8 1 50 51 49 43 47 56 44 60 40 35 60 60 35 60 40
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8 1 20 21 23 26 30 35 41 48 55 54 56
8 1 3 8 15 24 28 58 33
8 1 16 15 17 14 19 16 18
8 1 32 23 31 34 30 36 32
8 1 8 10 14 18 24 32 34 36
8 1 1 13 25 37 49 62 51 60
8 1 7 9 12 14 17 19 22 24 27 23 26 25 27
8 1 2 7 24 77 144 236 238
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8 2 S W T X U Y V X
8 2 A G L P S T V X
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8 2 C D D E E E F F F G E
8 2 T T T S S R Q Q Q P Q R O
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,
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8 1 1 6 36 3 18 108 7 8 9
8 1 2 6 12 36 72216 288 376 432
8 1 1 2 4 8 16 32 48 56 64
8 1 15 13 11 14 17 15 11 12 13
8 1 8 7 10 5 4 7 6 4 3
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8 1 8 12 17 24 28 33 38 48 28
8 1 7 10 9 12 11 .., . 14 13 12 14 13 14
8 1 1 6 36 3 18 108. 7 8 9
8 1 2 4 7 11 16 ., 21 29 22 28 21 28
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8 1 1/16 1/4 1/2 2 4 16 24 32 48
8 1 3 9 14 18 21 23 24 25 26
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8 1 5 3 9 7 21 19 9 36 57
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8 1 11 8 16 17 21 26 18 25 21
8 1 48 24 20 10 6 3 2 1 0
8 1 24 12 36 24 48 36 50 52 58
8 1 16 15 17 14 19 16 18
8 1 5 8 6 97 10 8 ., . 10 9 11 9 10 11
8 1 10 50 250 1250 6250 2500 5012
8 1 10 18 15 23 20 28 23 24 25
8 1 8 1624 32 40 48 64 96 56
8 1 3 6 18 108 216 648 1946 1944 1296
8 1 4 20 35 49 62 72 82 85 93
8 1 77 76 74 71 67 62 60 59 58
8 1 2 4 8 8 12 6 8 9 10
8 1 1 6 36 3 18 108 7 8 9
8 1 2 6 12 36 72 216 288 376 432
8 1 1 7 49 343 4201 1024 2410
8 1 2 5 4 6 8 8 14 11 22 15 .. 30 20 32 20 20 32
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8 1 32 33 31 34 30 36 32
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8 1 1 2 3 2 4 6 3 6 9 4 12 5, 9 15 9 14 10 15
8 1 1 4 2 8 6 88 24 84
8 1 1 5 17 86 97 249 251
8 1 05 .1 .3 1.2 6 36 48 72 164
8 1 7 6.5 6.25 5.75 5.5 5 4.75 4.5 4.25
8 1 1 2 4 8 16 32 48 56 64
8 1 7 4 12 9 27 24 36 48 72
8 1 .05 .1 .3 1.2 6 36 72 164 216
8 1 729 243 81 27 9 19 18
8 1 7 8 6 7 5 6 2 3 4
8 1 8.9 4.45 2.225 0.56625 1.9678 1.1125
8 1 1 2 2 4 4 8 8 16 12 1632 3216
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8 1 7 8 6 7 5 6 2 3 4
8 1 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 1 1 5 4 1 51
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8 1 7 8 6 7 5 6 3 4 5
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8 1 20 25 23 28 26 31 29 34 33 32 31
8 1 20 21 23 26 30 35 41 48 55 54 56
8 1 87 56 177 28 357 14 714 1717 537
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8 1 9 24 39 54 69 84 99 114 129 124 128
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8 1 53 48 50 45 47 42 96 54
8 1 1 2 5 26 130 488 52
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8 1 1 2 4 8 10 12 14
8 1 1 5 17 85 97 166 251
8 1 20 21 23 26 30 35 41 48 54 55 56
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8 1 2 6 18 54 108 162 176
8 1 9 20 31 42 49 52 43
8 1 1 2 4 7 11 16 24 29 22
8 1 2 4 8 16 32 64 128 228 130 256
8 1 8 16 24 32 40 48 54 48 56
8 1 2 4 4 8 8 16 16 54 48 16
8 1 3 6 18 36 108 216 648 1946 1944 1296
8 1 7 11 8 12 9 13 10 ___, ___ 14 10 14 12 14 11
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8 1 5 7 7 9 9 10 11
8 1 10 13 11 14 12 15 13 16 11 15
8 1 2 6 18 54 162 486 1556 496 1286
8 1 4 20 5 49 62 74 82 85 93
8 1 10 15 12 17 14 16 24 21
8 1 20 25 23 28 26 31 29 34 33 30 32
8 1 64 32 16 8 4 2 `1/2 1 `1/4
8 1 20 90 40 180 60 270 80 70
8 1 3 8 14 25 37 54 67 76 69
8 1 3 0 5 2 5 7 9
8 1 0 6 20 42 54 62 68
8 1 0 3 8 15 20 21 23
8 1 102 85 68 51 34 108 39 17
8 1 4 10 8 14 12 18 16 20 24
8 1 150 120 149 118 147 114 144 108 140 104 138 102 136 135 140
8 1 10 11 12 11 12 13 12 13 14 13 14 15 14 15 16 13 14 14 15
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8 1 6 18 72 360 2160 15120 15210 5260
8 1 3 6 18 36 108 216 648 1296 1692 1946
8 1 1 2 4 8 12 16 14
8 1 1 16 256 4096 65536 56535 65563
8 1 7 10 20 23 46 49 98 88 58
8 1 250 125 50 62 50 10 31.25 2 5 25
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8 1 10 13 11 14 12 15 13 16 11 15
8 1 1 2 3 2 4 6 3 6 9 4 8 12 5 9 15 9 14 10 15
8 1 1770 680 1590 1500 1910 1520 1320 1220
8 1 1 3 9 27 3 81 243
8 1 `1/8 9/27 25/125 36/343 343/343 343/729
8 1 8 23 38 53 68 83 98 113 128 125 126
8 1 1 4 2 8 6 26 20 48
8 1 4 10 8 14 12 18 16 20 24
8 1 `3/27, 5/24, 7/21, 9/18, 11/15, ___,___ 13/13, 15/13 13/12, 15/13 13/12, 14/13
8 1 10 18 15 23 20 28 23 24 25
8 1 49 36 25 16 9 4 0 1 5
8 1 7 14 28 56 112 224 336 231 448
8 1 `1 1/2 1/4 1/8 1/16 1/32 1/48 1/36 1/64
8 1 1 2 4 8 12 16 14
8 1 0 1 4 9 64 48 16
8 1 2 7 24 77 238 155 255
8 1 3.2 5.9 11.3 22.1 43.7 44.2 36.9
8 1 `1/2, 1/4, 1/8, 1/16, 1/32, ___ 1/48 1/64 1/62
8 1 5 9 17 33 65 74 66
8 1 1 2 10 9 3 4 8 7 9 8 9 7
8 1 2 4 4 8 8 16 16 64 32 56
8 1 2048 1024 512 256 128 64 72 24 36
8 1 161 13 81 9 121 40 11 17
8 1 8 16 24 32 40 48 64 56 58
8 1 5 15 23 29 39 47 53 63 72 73 71
8 1 3 9 14 18 21 23 27 25 26
8 1 10 13 11 14 12 13 15 14 16 13
8 1 8.9 4.45 2.225 0.55625 1.9678 1.1125
8 1 1 16 256 4096 65536 56535 36565
8 1 1 2 2 4 4 8 8 16 12 16 32 32 16
8 1 3 1.5 0.75 0.375 0.1873 0.1875 1.1875
8 1 1 5 13 29 58 62 61
8 1 1 8 64 512 6904 6049 4069
8 1 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 1 1 5 5 1 6 1
8 1 1 5 13 29 61 58 60
8 1 1 2 2 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5
8 1 1 3 5 3 5 1 2 7
8 1 1 2 10 9 3 4 7 8 9 8 12 11
8 1 8 11 16 23 32 42 43 44
8 1 3 6 18 36 108 216 648 1296 1096 1269
8 2 A B D EH I M N R O S
8 2 M N A M N B M N A B O
8 2 A B C D E D C B C A F
8 2 A G B H C D B I
8 2 C E H L Q M P
8 2 A D H K O Q R P
8 2 M N M N K L O P P Q O
8 2 A M N B O P C Q D R
8 2 A E I B F F H G
8 2 C D H IM N O S P
8 2 A E I B F E C J
8 2 X V S P M J I O
8 2 S W T X U N X Y
8 2 F H D F B A F D
8 2 K L N Q U Y Z W
8 2 C I D P E K S H
8 2 L B M C N R D G
8 2 Q N K H E A F B
8 2 T L P H L D J N
8 2 S V Y B F E D
8 2 B C H I N QT OT TO
8 2 A E J P X Z W
8 2 M N J Q G U S N
8 2 U B I T P W V
8 2 H V G T F R ES SP EP
8 2 E E F G G H I I F G H
8 2 D E F D E F G H I D E F
8 2 C D E X Y Z F G H X Y Z I J K
8 2 D E F D E G D E D F G
8 2 T S R T S R TS R S T
8 2 A R B S C T A R H A B C
8 2 E F H I K L M N O
8 2 A M N B O P C D E P
8 2 M N M N K L O P K L K O O
8 2 C D D E E E F F E F G
8 2 D F H J L J K L
8 2 A B C I J D E F I J G H I
8 2 E F G E F G E F G H I E G I
8 2 A I B C I D E F E F G
8 2 A B D E H I M N P Q R
8 2 B E C F D G E E F G
8 2 A D H K O P Q R
8 2 E F G H J K L N O P P Q R
8 2 A E I B F C D G
8 2 A E IM ? G W L
8 2 S V Y B ? K E D
8 2 N P R T ? S V W
8 2 B Z D 6 J I K 5 ? 9 18 M
8 2 LE MF OH RK ? VO WP UO
8 2 H V G T F R ? ? E and P K and y D and o
8 2 M T W T F ? B D S
8 2 B F J N ? R S Q
8 2 A G M S ? X Y Z
8 2 4/C F/7 11/J ?? L/5 E/4 12/G
8 2 AZ BBZ CCCZ DDD ____ DZ Z ZE
8 2 AB XDE XGH XJ _____ X KX KL
8 2 ZA YB XC____ WE DW WC
8 2 T S R T S R T S R T S
8 2 K I M G O E Q S C R
8 2 F G B H I B J K B M L C
8 2 A Z A Y B Z B Y C B Y X
8 2 C D E X Y Z F G H X Y Z H L K
8 2 E F G E F G E F G H I G J K
8 2 A I B C I D E ? F G I H
8 2 E F G H J K L N O P R S
8 2 AE IBF E C J
8 2 ZD WGT J I R
8 2 A C G M R U M
8 2 DFK FEL HDM JCN ? KAO LBO LDO
8 2 AZ BBZ CCCZ DDD ____ DZ Z ZE
8 2 ZA YB XC ______ WE DW WC
8 2 C D E Y Z F G H X Y Z J L K
8 2 IF "REPOPT" is equivalent to
'QDONQS'then "PERSON"is equivelent to?
QDQRNP QDQRNM DOQRNP
8 2 IF "PAKISTAN"is equialent to rbmjnucd then
"LAHORE" is equivient to?
MCIQSG KBFNPD NBJPTF
8 3 If 12 years are added to 2/3 age of Rani, she
will be three years older than today. What is
Rani's present age.
25 27 26
8 3 A cyclist covers half as much distance again
as a tonga driver, and the tonga driver half
as much again as a man on foot. If a man
can walk a distance of 3 km in one hour how
much will it take a cyclist to cover a distance
of 27 km.
3 hours 3 1/2 hours 4 hours
8 3 I drove south for 6 km, then turned left and
drove for 2 km and then turned right and
drove for 4 km again turned right and drove
2 km. How far am I from my starting point.
2 km 4 km 10 km
8 3 A man walked 3 km towards North, turned
West and walked 2 km, then turned North
again and walked 1 km and then turned East
and walked 5 km. How far is he from his
starting point.
4 km 7 km 5 km
8 3 A man faces North and covers 7 km, turns
West and covers 2 km then turns South and
covers 4 km and turns West again and
covers 2 km. How far is he from his starting
point.
6 km 7 km 5 km
8 3 A and B start walking in opposite directions
A walked 2 km and B walked 3 km. Then
each turned right and walked 4 km. Then
they turned right. A walked 3 km and B
walked 2 km. How far distance apart are
they at the end.
9 km 8 km 7 km
8 3 I drove North East for 4 km and then I turned
South East and drove another 4 km when
again I turned South East. In which direction
was I going then.
East wards South Wards West wards
8 3 A & B start from a point x. A goes North and
covers 3 km then turns right and covers 4
km. B goes West and covers 5 km, then
turns right and covers 3 km. How far is B
from A.
8 km 11 km 9 km
8 3 Point X is in North of point Y and point Y is
East of point Z. To which direction in point X
with respect to Z.
North East North East
8 3 Point A is located 8 km South of B and C is
located 6 km West of A. What is the
distance between C and B?
8 km j12 km 10 km
8 3 You are standing with your face towards
East. Then you turn right then again right
and then left. Which direction are you facing
at the end?
West South North
8 3 I am sixth in a queue numbering from either
end. How many are there in the queue?
11 9 7
8 3 In a cage there are rabbits and pigeons.
They have 20 heads and 48 feet. How many
rabbits are there
6 rabbits 4 rabbits 8 rabbits
8 3 A clock seen through a mirror reads quarter
past three. What is the correct time
Quarter to 9 15 past 9 15 to 3
8 3 If a man stands upside down with his face
towards South where will be his left hand
point
East West North
8 3 My Watch which loses 2 minutes in 24 hours
showed correct time at 11 a.m. How many
seconds could it have lost by 7. P.m.
30 sec 50 sec 40 sec
8 3 A is the father of B, but B is not A's son what
is the relationship of B to A
daughter father mother
8 3 A party consisted of a man and his wife, their
two sons and their wives and four children of
each son. How many persons were their in
all the party?
24 14 34
8 3 A boy had twice as many sums wrong as
right. If he had 24 sums in all how many of
them were wrong?
18 20 16
8 3 The old man's son is my son's uncle what is
the old man to me
brother father uncle
8 3 A is the cousin of the father of B. What is the
relationship between B and the son of A?
nephew cousin niece
8 3 If Sunday dawned 3 days before yesterday
what day will dawn two days after tomorrow
Sunday Sunday Monday
8 3 A man pointing to a photograph said" I have
no brothers or sisters, but that man's father
is my father's son." What relationship he to
me
father son brother
8 3 A man starts climbing a hill. Every minute he
ascends 20 yards but slips down 5 yards.
How long will he take to ascend a pt 80
yards high
5 minutes 5 minutes 20
seconds
6 minutes
8 3 An insect starts climbing a wall 11 feet high
at 10 a.m. Every minute it ascends 10 feet
but descends 6 inches. At what time will it
reach the top
10.19 am 10.20 am 10.21 am
8 3 Reaching a party day before yesterday I
found my self two days late. If day after
tomorrow is Friday on what day was the
party scheduled to be held
Sunday Monday Saturday
8 3 If X and Y are parents of Z, but Z is not the
son of X, what is Z to X
nephew daughter father
8 3 Your father says "I have four sons" but you
say "I have only three brother." who is
wrong?
father son none
8 3 A man faces south and walks 10 km, turns
west and covers 4 km, then turn north and
covers 7 km. How far is he form the starting
point
4 km 5 km 6 km
8 3 Horse Powers is a standard unit of power
equal to:
370 watts 480 watts 658 watts
8 3 At 12 O' clock noon Pakistan standard time,
the time in London (U.K) shall be
4.00 p.m 7 am 5.00 p.m
8 3 If the Doctor gave you 4 tablets and advised
you a take each tablet every half an hour,
how long will you take to eat all tablets?
2 hours 1 1/2 hours 2 1/2 hours
8 3 It takes 2 minutes to boil a single egg. How
many minutes will it take to boil 5 eggs
together.
2 minutes 5 minutes 8 minutes
8 3 If Tariq stood on the top step of a ladder and
there were six more steps the midway step,
how many steps in all did the ladder
comprise of :
10 12 14
8 3 How many different three-digit numbers can
be formed by 3 and 5, if none of them is
repeated in a number :
2 3 4
9 1 What is verbal meaning of word "islam"? Belief on Allah Confidence of
Allah
Obedience of
Allah
9 1 According to the holy quran what is the
chosen religion of Allah
Jewish Confucianism Islam
9 1 basic pillars of Islam are: 4 6 5
9 1 The Tauheed (Kalmah) is? First Pillar of
Islam
Second pillar
of Islam
Third pillar of
Islam
9 1 The second pillar of Islam is namaz Fast tauheed
9 1 The third pillar of Islam is? Namaz Fast Tauheed
9 1 The 4th Pillar of Islam is? Namaz Fast Tauheed
9 1 The 5th Pillar of Islam is? Hajj Tauheed Tauheed
9 1 Basic pillar of belief are : Four Five Six
9 1 Opposite of Tauheed is Ablees Idol Shirk
9 1 How many times command of erection of
namaz is given in the Quran?
500 times 600 times 700 times
9 1 On which time the Holy prophet (PBUH) was
gifted with Namaz?
Miraj Hijrat Gzwa Badar
9 1 Five Prayers were declared compulsory in? 9th Nabvi 10th Nabvi 11th Nabvi
9 1 Fajar, Zuhur, Asar, Maghrib and are
compulsory Salats?
Eid Khasoof Ishaa
9 1 On the Judgement day first question will be
about
Fast Zakat Hajj
9 1 what is most important ebadat of Islam from
the choices given bellow?
Fast Namaz Zakat
9 1 Nafl Prayers are: Four Five Six
9 1 The Maghrib (Prayer) is offered? Before sunset At noon Just after the
sun set
9 1 The obligations in islam are called? Farz Wajib Nafl
9 1 The part of prayer the Holy Prophet
(P.B.U.H) did is called?
Farz Wajib Nafl
9 1 Muslims must face in the direction of ______
for Namaz?
Bait-ul-
Maqadas
Madina Khana-e-
Kabah
9 1 How much Takbeers are recited by Moazin
in Azaan?
4 6 8
9 1 The Tasbeeh of subhana Rabi-al-Azeem is
recited in Azaan?
Sajda Rakuh Qaada
9 1 The tasbeeh of Subhana Rabi-al-Alaa is
recited in?
Sajdah Jalsa Raku
9 1 salat-e-Istasqa is offered on the Occasion
of?
Shortage of
rain
Solar eclipse Famine
9 1 salat-e-istakhara is performed for? Rain Fear Coming Hajat
9 1 The Salat-e-shukar is? Mustahab Nafl Wajib
9 1 To perform Salat-e-Istakhara is? Sunnah Nafl Mustahab
9 1 Name the Nafli Salat which can be offered
after sunrise till one-forth of the day?
Ishraq Chasht Salat Tasbeeh
9 1 Addictional Takbeers are performed in Eid
prayers?
7 6 8
9 1 The funeral prayer (Namaz-e-Janaza) is? Fera-e-Ain Sunnat Farz-e-Kaffaya
9 1 four or eight or twelve rakat offered in the
late night is called?
Isharq Salat-e-
Tahajjud
Witr
9 1 which prayer is performed while standing in
lines?
Funeral Rain Kisoof
9 1 The Namaz-e-Taraveeh can be offered
between the salats of?
Isha & fajar Zuhar and
maghrib
Asr and ishah
9 1 The act of shortening ones prayer while on
journey is called ?
Wajib Khusar Qasr
9 1 What is verbal meaning of Zakat? To purify To stained To adulteration
9 1 What is the number of zakat among the
pillars?
Second Third Fourth
9 1 The back bone of Islamic economic system
is?
Fitrana Sadqa Zakat
9 1 In which hijir year zakat was imposed? 2 Hijri 3 Hijri 4 Hijri
9 1 On which of the following zakat money can
be spent?
Parents Poor muslims Non muslims
9 1 Falqaram (Nisab)for camels is: 4 camels 5 camels 8 camels
9 1 What is falqaram for goats? 30 40 50
9 1 on gold fulqaram is 7-1/2 Tolas 8-1/2 Tolas 9-1/2 Tolas
9 1 on silver falqaram is: 50 Tolas 52-1/2 tolas 54 tolas
9 1 How many times orders for zakat came in
Quaran?
20 times 22 times 40 times
9 1 Which Khulifa-e- Rashid announced war
against the people who were unwilling to pay
zakat?
Hazrat Abu
Bakar
Siddique(R.A)
Hazrat Umer
Farooq (R.A)
Hazrat Usman
Ghani (R.A)
9 1 Who said the zakat is treasure of Islam? Rasool Ullah
(P.B.U.H)
Hazrat Umar
Farooq (R.A)
Imam Abu
Hanifa
9 1 Verbal meaning of Hajj is : To repay The will to visit To device
9 1 In which hijri year Hajj was made
compulsory?
8 Hijri 9 Hijri 10 Hijri
9 1 How many Hajj were performed by Hazrat
Muhammad (P.B.U.H)
Two Three One
9 1 which hirfi year Hazrat Muhammad
(P.B.U.H) Performed Hajj?
9 1 what is meant by Tawaff? To circle
around kaaba
One attempt
between saffa
and Marwah
Stay at Arfat
9 1 When the first Hajj performed by the
Muslims?
9 1 On which date ghrowing of stones is
performed on jumeraat?
10th Zulhajj 11th Zulhajj 12th Zulhajj
9 1 Tell the number of farz duties to be
performed during Hajj?
4 5 3
9 1 To stay at Arafaat is: Farz Wajib Sunnat
9 1 Muzdalfa is situated: Between
khana kaaba
and Minna
Between
minna and
Arafat
Not between
stated above
9 1 At the place of Muzdalfa on 9th Zulhajj which
tow prayers are performed together?
Zohr and asr Maghrib and
Eisha
Asr and
Maghrib
9 1 From where pabels for throwing on jumrat
are obtained
Cave sore Muzdalfa Minna
9 1 How much camels were sacrificed on the
occasion of Hajj by Hazrat Muhammad
(P.B.U.H)?
60 63 65
9 1 Who performed first Hajj Bait-Ullah? Hazrat
Ebrahim and
Hazrat Ismail
Hazrat Adam
and Hazrat
Hawa
Hazrat
Ebrahim and
Hazrat Hajira
9 1 What is verbal meaning of divine revelation
(Wahi)?
To point out or
to give
message
To talk To order
9 1 how many kinds of wahi are there? 2 3 4
9 1 which angel came to Hazrat Muhammad
(P.B.U.H) with Wahi?
Hazrat Mekail
(A.S)
Hazrat
Esrafeel (A.S)
Hazrat jibbrail
(A.S)
9 1 In which Islamic month first Wahi was
descended?
Rajab-ul-
Murajab
Safr Rabi-ul-sani
9 1 what was the age of Rasool Ullah (P.B.U.H)
at the time of first Wahi?
40 years 4
months
40 years 8
months
40 years 10
months
9 1 On which place first Wahi descended? Sore canve Hira canve Khana-e-kaaba
9 1 how many verses (Ayat) were in the Wahi? 2 3 4
9 1 After first Wahi Hazrat Muhammad
(P.B.U.H) came home then her wife Hazrat
KHudija (R.A) took him with her to which
cousin who was the scholar of inspiration
books?
Warqa bin
nophel
Umar bin alaas Umar bin
khatab
9 1 According to Hazrat Abdullah bin Abbas the
last Wahi was descended on Hazrat
Muhammad (P.B.U.H) how many days
before death?
2 days 3days 7 or 9 days
9 1 how many stages of the Quran are there? 2 stages 4 stages 7 stages
9 1 Makki period of the Holy Quran consists of: 12 years 8
months 5days
13 years 9
months 29
days
12 years
9 1 Duration of madni period is _________ 9 years
9months 9days
9 years 10
months 11days
9 years 11
months 3 days
9 1 Quran was descended? 21 years 3
months
21 years 4
months
22 years 5
months
9 1 How much Makke Surahs of the Holy Quran
are there?
30 surahs 32 surahs 88 surahs
9 1 Tell the name of suhabi who took first
advantage of calligraphy if Wahi?
Hazrat Abu
Bakar
Siddique (R.A)
Hazrat Usman
(R.A)
Hazrat Khalid
bin saeed bin
Alaaz (R.A)
9 1 Against which perston Yamama war was
fought by Muslims? Be aware that this
person had false proclaim of prophecy?
Aswad unsa Muselama
kazab
Tahha asadi
9 1 To which suhabi responsibility was given for
collection of the Holy Quran by Hazrat Abu
Bakr Siddique (R.A)?
Hazrat umar
bin Wahab
(R.A)
Hazrat Saeed
bin Alaas (R.A)
Hazrat Zaid
bin Sabit (R.A)
9 1 After Hazrat umar to whom lady script of
Musaef Abi Bakr was handed over? This
lady is amongst the Umhat-ul-Momenine
(R.A)
Hazrat Ysha
Siddiqa (R.A)
Hazrat
Memona (R.A)
Hazrat hifza
(R.A)
9 1 Who was the head of that board which was
established for the preparation of copies of
Musaef Abi Bakar?
Hazrat Zaid
bin sabit (R.A)
Hazrat Usama
bin Qais (R.A)
Hazrat usman
bin Maznoun
(R.A)
9 1 how many rakus are in the Holy Quran? 460 490 558
9 1 In which surah the numbers of Rakus are
maximum than other surahs?
Surah Al-Baruj Surah Al-Baqra Surah Al-fajr
9 1 How many Rukus are in Surah Al-Baqra? 30 35 39
9 1 Tell the name of that single surah which
consists of only one Raku and not included
in thirteenth section of the Holy Quran?
Surah An-Nisa Surah Al-Imran Surah Fateh
9 1 How many verses are in the Holy Quran? 5555 6666 6667
9 1 How many verses of Ayat-i-Tasbeeh are in
the Holy Quran?
200 100 110
9 1 How many Ayat-i-Mutafarqa are present in
the Holy Quran?
55 66 77
9 1 Which Ayat of the Holy Quran is called
Sardar-ul-Ayat?
Surah Yasin Ayat-ul-Kursi Surah Fateh
9 1 Minimum verses in a sura in the Holy Quran
are:
2 3 5
9 1 Which Alphabet is mostly used in the Holy
Quran?
Alif Te Jeem
9 1 Which alphabet is used minimum in number
in the holy Quran?
Sin Alif Ghain
9 1 No. of Madnin Surahs in Holy Quran are? 26 29 27
9 1 The Holy Prophet Hazrat Muhammad
(P.B.U.H) was born in?
570 A.D 575 A.D 580 A.D
9 1 The fathers name of Hazrat Muhammad
(P.B.U.H) is ?
Hazrat Abutalib Hazrat
Abdullah
Hazrat Abdul
Mutlib
9 1 The Mothers name of Hazrat Muhammad
(P.B.U.H) is
Hazrat Saffia Hazrat
Marryam
Hazrat Haleem
9 1 The Grand fathers name of Hazrat
Muhammad (P.B.U.H) is ?
Hazrat abutalib Hazrat
Abdullah
Hazrat Abdul
Mutlib
9 1 The Real Uncles name of Hazrat
Muhammad (P.B.U.H) who brought him up
is?
Hazrat Abu
Tallib
Hazrat
Abdullah
Hazrat Abdul
Mutlib
9 1 who was foster mother of Hazrat
Muhammad (P.B.U.H) ?
Marryam
Hazrat
Haleema
9 1 Who was first wife of Hazrat Muhammad
(P.B.U.H) ?
Marryam
Hazrat
Haleema
9 1 Year of Nabowwat of Hazrat Muhammad
(P.B.U.H) is?
610 A.D 622 A.D 640 A.D
9 1 Year of Hijrat of Hazrat Muhammad
(P.B.U.H) toward Madina is?
610 A.D 622 A.D 640 A.D
9 1 Year of whafat of Hazrat Muhammad
(P.B.U.H) is?
610 A.D 622 A.D 640 A.D
9 1 At the time of Nabowwat the Age of Hazrat
Muhammad (P.B.U.H) was?
9 1 Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) was father
of_______ sons?
Four Two Three
9 1 Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) was father of
________ Daughters?
Four Two Three
9 1 Where did Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H)
lived First 53 years of his life?
Madina Taaif Oman
9 1 Where did Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H)
lived last 10 years of his life?
Abdullah Bin
Ubai
Varqa bin
Naufal
Abu Hashim
9 1 Sahi Bukhari was comiled by Muhammad
Ismail Bukhari
Imam Abu
Daud
Imam Ahmad
Nisai
9 1 Sahi Muslim was compiled by Muhammad
Ismail Bukhari
Imam Abu
Daud
Imam Ahmad
Nisai
9 1 Sunan Abu Daud was compiled by Muhammad
Ismail Bukhari
Imam Abu
Daud
Imam Ahmad
Nisai
9 1 Sunan Tirmizi was compiled by Muhammad
Ismail Bukhari
Imam Abu
Daud
Imam
Muhammad
Trimizi
9 1 Sunan Nisai was comiled by Muhammad
Ismail Bukhari
Imam Abu
Daud
Imam Ahmad
Nisai
9 1 Sunan Ibn-e-Majah was compiled by Imam
Muhammad
Bin Majah
Imam Abu
Daud
Imam Ahmad
Nisai
9 1 Sunan Dar Qatni was compiled by Imam Bu
baker ahmed
bageeqi
Imam ali dar
qatni
Imam
muhamma
hakim
9 1 sunan hakim was compiled by imam abu
baker ahmed
baheeqi
imam ali dar
qatn
imam
Muhammad
hakim
9 1 sunan baheeqi was compiled by imam abu
baker ahmed
baheeqi
imam ali dar
qatni
imam
Muhammad
hakim
9 1 muta mam malik was compiled by imam abu
baker ahmed
baheeqi
imam ali dar
qatni
imam
Muhammad
hakim
9 1 mushaqatal m sabeeh was compiled by imam abu
baker ahmed
baheeqi
abu
Muhammad
hussain baghivi
imam
Muhammad
hakim
9 1 Shamail trimizi was compiled by Saeed bin
sakan
Imam ali dar
qatni
Imam
Muhammad
tirmizi
9 1 shahih ibn-e-sakan was compiled by imam abu
baker ahmed
baheeqi
imam ali dar
qatni
imam
Muhammad
hakim
9 1 imam ismail bukhari died in 256 AH 261 A.H 279 A.H
9 1 In which year imam muslim died 256 A.H 261 A.H 279 A.H
9 1 imam abu daud died in 306 A.H 261 A.H 279 A.H
9 1 In which year Imam Muhammad tirmizi died 256 A.H 273 A.H 279 A.H
9 1 Imam ahmad nisai died in 306 A.H 261 A.H 279 A.H
9 1 In which year Imam Muhammad Bin Majah
died
256 A.H 273 A.H 405 A.H
9 1 Imam Ali Dar Qatni died in 485 A.H 261 A.H 279 A.H
9 1 In which year imam Muhammad Hakim died 256 A.H 179 A.H 405 A.H
9 1 Imam abu Bakr Ahmed Baheeqi died in 485 A.H 261 A.H 279 A.H
9 1 In which year Imam Malik died 256 A.H 179 A.H 279 A.H
9 1 Abu Muhammad Hussain Bglavi died in 353 A.H 261 A.H 279 A.H
9 1 Saeed Bin Sakan died in 353 A.H 261 A.H 279 A.H
9 1 Six books of Hadith are called Sahah-e-sitta Books of
Hadith
Majmoa-e-
Hadith
9 1 First Article of faith in islam is To believe in
the day of
Resurrection
To believe in
all of angels
To believe in
all of revealed
books
9 1 Second Article of faith in islam is To believe in
the day of
resurrection
To believe in
all of angels
To believe in
all of revealed
books
9 1 Third article of faith in islam is To believe in
the day of
resurrection
To believe in
all of angles
To believe in
all of revealed
books
9 1 5th article in islam is to believe in
the day of
judgement (
yaum-e-Akhirt)
to believe in all
of angels
to believe in all
of revealed
books
9 1 First kalima is called Kalima
tayyabah
Kalima
shahadat
Kalima
tauheed
9 1 named the second kalmia kalima
tayyabah
kalima
shahadat
kalima tauheed
9 1 Third kalima is called Kalima
tayyabah
Kalima
shahadat
Kalima
tauheed
9 1 name the 4th kalmia kalima
tayyabah
kalima
shahadat
kalima tauheed
9 1 5th kalima is called kalima radd-I-
kufar
kalima istighfar kalima
shahadat
9 1 6th kalima is called kalima radd-i-
kufar
kalima
istghafar
kalima
shahadat
9 1 which is the first source of Islamic Law? Qiyas Al-Quran Sunnat
9 1 Second source of Islamic law is Qiyas Al-Quran Sunnat
9 1 Which is third source of Islamic law? Al- Quran Jima Sunnat
9 1 Which is 4th source of Islamic law? Al-Quran Qiyas Jima
9 1 5th source of Islamic laws is al-quran qiyas jima
9 1 who was first caliph of Islamic state? Hazrat usman
(R.A)
Hazrat Ali (R.A) Hazrat umar
(R.A)
9 1 Second caliph of Islamic state was Hazrat usman
(R.A)
hazrat ali (R.A) Hazrat umar
(R.A)
9 1 Who was the third caliph? Hazrat usman
(R.A)
Hazrat Ali (R.A) Hazrat umar
(R.A)
9 1 Who was last caliph (khulfa-e-rashedin) if
Islamic state?
Hazrat usman
(R.A)
Hazrat Ali (R.A) hazrat Umar
(R.A)
9 1 The duration of Hazrat Abu bakars (R.A)
reign was?
632-634 A.D 634-644 A.D. 644-656 A.D.
9 1 The duration of hazrat umars (R.A) khilafat
was?
632-634 A.D. 634-644 A.D. 644-656 A.D.
9 1 The duration of Hazrat Usmans (R.A) reign
was?
632-634 A.D. 634-644 A.D. 644-656 A.D.
9 1 The duration of Hazrat Alis (R.A) khilafat
was?
632-634 A.D. 634-644 A.D. 644-656 A.D.
9 1 Hazrat Abu Bakar (R.A) was born in ? 581 A.D. 574 A.D. 573 A.D.
9 1 The real name of hazrat abu baker (R.A)
was?
abu
Muhammad
Abdullah zaid
9 1 Hazrat abu baker (R.A) died in ? 656 A.D. 644 A.D. 661 A.D.
9 1 Hazrat umar (R.A) was born in ? 581 A.D. 574 A.D. 573 A.D.
9 1 The surname of Hazrat Umar (R.A) was? Abu
Muhammad
Abdullah Zaid
9 1 Hazrat Umar (R.A) died in? 656 A.D. 644 A.D. 661 A.D.
9 1 Hazrat Usman (R.A) was born in? 581 A.D. 574 A.D. 573 A.D.
9 1 The surname of Hazrat Usman (R.A) was? Abu amar Abdullah Zaid
9 1 Hazrat usman (R.A) died in? 656 A.D. 644 A.D. 661 A.D.
9 1 The fathers name of Hazrat Ali (R.A) is Hazrat Abbas
(R.A)
Hazrat Hamza
(R.A)
Abu Talib
9 1 The surname of Hazrat Ali (R.A) was? Abu
Muhammad
Abdullah Zaid
9 1 Hazrat Ali (R.A) died in? 656 A.D. 644 A.D.
9 1 Which is first month of Islamic calendar? Moharram Rajab Rabi-ul-awwal
9 1 The second month of Islamic calander? Rabi-us-sani Rajab Rabi-ul-awwal
9 1 Which is third month of Islamic calander? Jamadi-ul-
awwal
Rajab Rabi-ul-awal
9 1 The fourth month of Islamic calendar is? Rabi-us-sani Rajab Rabi-ul-awal
9 1 Which is 5th month of Islamic calander? Moharram Rajab Jamadi-ul-awal
9 1 The 6th month of Islamic calendar is? Rabi-ul-sani Rajab Rabi-ul-awal
9 1 Which is 7th month of Islamic calaendar? Jamadi-ul-awal Rajab Rabi-ul-awal
9 1 The 8th month of Islamic calendar is? Shaban Ramzan Rabi-ul-awwal
9 1 Which is 9th month of Islamic calendar? Shawwal Ramazan Rabi-ul-awal
9 1 The 10th month of Islamic calendar is? Ramzan Ziqaad Zilhaj
9 1 Which is 11th month of Islamic calendar? Ziqaad Safar Rabi-ul-awal
9 1 The 12th month of Islamic calendar is? Rabi-us-sani Rajab Zilhaj
9 1 Which angel is incharge of protection and
also to bring rains?
Hazrat gibraiel Hazrat mekail Hazrat israfil
9 1 Which angel will blow the trumpet on the day
of judgement?
Hazrat gibrail Hazrat mekail Hazrat israfil
9 1 Which angel is incharge of taking the life of
living creatures?
Hazrat gibrail Hazrat mekail Hazrat israfil
9 1 Incharge angels of right and left shoulders of
man are called?
Kiraman-
katabin
Monkar & nakir Hazrat israfil
9 1 Incharge Angels of grave are called? Kirman-katabin Monkar & nakir Hazrat israfil
10 1 The largest barrage in pakistan is Guddu barrage Cheshma
barrage
Ghulam
muhammad
barrage
10 1 Khanpur Dam is located on river Chenab Haro Jhelum
10 1 Simly lake is located near Mirpur Attock Islamabad
10 1 The tanda dam is located in province NWFP Sindh Balochistan
10 1 The hub river is located in Balochistan Punjab Sindh
10 1 The hub dam is constructed in the province
of
NWFP Balochistan Punjab
10 1 The first barrage in the sindh is Kotri barrage Indus barrage Sukkur barrage
10 1 The sukkur barrage is constructed on Jhelum river Hub river Indus river
10 1 Indus water treaty was signed on 09 Sep.,1960 19 Sep.,1960 19 Oct.,1960
10 1 The Indus water treaty was mediated by IMF USA World bank
10 1 Under indus water treaty the water of three
rivers was given to india.These are
Ravi,beas &
sutlej
Ravi & beas,
Jhelum
Indus, jhelum
& chenab
10 1 Under indus water treaty the water of three
rivers awarded to pakistan are
Ravi,beas &
sutlej
Ravi & beas,
chenab
Indus , jhelum
& chenab
10 1 Balloki barage is located on Gomal Indus Ravi
10 1 Chasma- Jhelum link canal is supplied water
from
Jehlum river Terbela dam Indus river
10 1 Kalabagh dam is supposed to be built on
river
Kabul Kuram Indus
10 1 Rawal dam is located on river Swan Kurrang Rwat
10 1 The largest earth- filled dam of the world is Tarbela dam Warsak dam Mangla dam
10 1 The length of tarbela dam across the top is 2843 m 2643 m 2743 m
10 1 The width of terbela dam at its base is 610 m 650 m 630 m
10 1 The height of tarbela dam is 141 m 142 m 143 m
10 1 The lake of tarbela dam can hold neraly
water.
14 m.cub.m 10 m.cub.m 11 m.cub.m
10 1 The world's largest spillways are installed at Gomal zan
dam
Mink dam Aswan dam
10 1 The maximum electricity generation capacity
of ghazi brotha dam is
1550 mw 1450 mw 1650 mw
10 1 The largest irrigation system of the world is in Iran Pakistan Sudan
10 1 The second largest earth-filled dam of the
world is
Mangla Aswan Tarbela
10 1 The largest electricity producing dam of
pakistan is
Tarbela Mangla Aswan
10 1 The lake of tarbela dam is 30 km long 40 km long 60 km long
10 1 The total length of irrigation canals in the
pakistan is
64,000 km 65,000 km 84,000 km
10 1 The number of major rivers in punjab is 5 7 9
10 1 The length of sutlaj river is 1550 km 1900 km 2000 km
10 1 Ghazi brotha dam is located on river Indus Chenab Ravi
10 1 Gomal zam dam is situated on river Gomal Kuram Swat
10 1 The number of police ranges in balochistan is 5 6 7
10 1 The number of districts in balochistan is 22 24 26
10 1 The area of balochistan is 347056 sq.km 343056 sq. km 377056 sq. km
10 1 The area of balochistan makes up per cent
of pakistan
44 50 24
10 1 Liyari river is situated in Balochistan Sindh Karchi
10 1 The east balochistan is divided from the rest
of sindh and punjab by
Kirthar Ranges Chagai ranges Kirthar &
Sulaiman
10 1 According to the census the population of
balochistan is
6511358 7511358 7614356
10 1 The largest province of pakistan by area is NWFP Punjab Balochistan
10 1 The oldest inhabitants of balochistan are Balochistan Brahuis Pakhtuns
10 1 Brahuis are centered around Quetta kalat lesbelal
10 1 The largest ethnic group in pakistan baluch pathans Brahui
10 1 The karez is a system of transportation underground
irrigation
system
carriage
10 1 the karez system for irrigation is used in kalat upper punjab sindh
10 1 The important minerals of balochistan are
coal, gold chrome, fluorite sulphur, quartz
and
Common Salt Marble Maganeze
10 1 The pakistan's fruits garden is Balochistan Punjab Chaman
10 1 Which area of pakistan is famous for apples,
melons, grapes, apricots, almonds, cherries,
and peaches?
Balochistan Punjab NWFP
10 1 A deep sea port being built in balochistan,
province is
Pasni Ormara Jiwani
10 1 Quetta was almost completely destroyed
because of the great earthquake on
31-May-35 19-May-35 21-May-35
10 1 How many people were killed in quetta in the
earth quake?
35,000 34,000 25,000
10 1 The murdar mountain is situated near Ziarat Pishin Quetta
10 1 Hanna lake is located in AJK Balochistan FANA
10 1 Lake pass is situated in Afghan border Ziarat Chaman
10 1 The Quaid-e-Azam stayed during his last
illness in 1948 in
Quetta Sibi Ziarat
10 1 Fort Munroe is located on the crest of Sulaiman
Mountains
Takh-e-
Sulaiman
Kirthar Range
10 1 The highest railway station in pakistan is Awaran Mastung Kan Mehtarzai
10 1 The Muslimbagh is famous for Chromite mine Natural Gas Coper
10 1 The Gomal pass is one of the most
important trade routes from
10 1 The total land area of pakistan is 802,840sq km 803,840, sq km 79,6096 sq km
10 1 The area of azad jammu & Kashmir is 83,216, sq km 83,716 sq km 13, 297 sq km
10 1 Total water area of pakistan is 15,220 km 25,220 km 24,220 km
10 1 Total length of land boundaries of pakisatn is 6,674 km 6,774 km 6,874 km
10 1 Ceasefire Line of Kashmir came in to
existence in
1949 1948 1950
10 1 The Line of control came into existence in 1965 1971 1972
10 1 The Ceasefire line was named as line of
control according to the agreement
Delhi
Agreement
Tashkent
Agreement
Simla
Agreement
10 1 The length of pak-Afganistan border is 2,330 km 1,430 km 2,252 km
10 1 The length of Pak-China border is 1,912 km 2, 192 km 2,612 km
10 1 The length of Pak-india border is 1,912 km 2,192 km 2,612 km
10 1 The length of Pakistan-Iran border is 709 km 909 km 809 km
10 1 The length of coastline of Pakistan is 1,748 km 1,046 km 1,846 km
10 1 The depth of Pakistan continental shelf is 150 nm 240 nm 230 nm
10 1 The lowest point of the country is (0m). Indus Plain Indian Ocean Cape Monze
10 1 The highest Mountain of pakistan is Koh-I-Suleman K-2 Pamir knot
10 1 The Other name of K-2 is Godwin Austen Barura Killing
Mountain
10 1 The highest Of K-2 is 7,611 (m) 8,611 (m) 9,511 (m)
10 1 The highest peak of Hindu Kash Range is Takht-e-
Sulaiman
K-2 Gasherbrum
10 1 The area which separates pakistan from
Tajikistan is called
Wakhan Pamir Knot Khyber Pass
10 1 Total%age of arableland of the country is 17% 29% 27%
10 1 The total area of irrigated land is 121,100 sq km 171,100 sq km 151,100 sq km
10 1 In how many natural regions pakistan can be
divided?
Seven Eight Six
10 1 The Chinese province adjoining pakistan is Minkiang Sinkiang Shanghai
10 1 Which mountain range is called roof of the
world
Himalayan Hindu kush Pamir
10 1 The range which links pakistan with china Is Hindu kush Kirthar Pamir
10 1 which mountain barrier influences the rainfall
pattern in pakistan by intercepting monsoon
winds from the south
Northen
mountains
Eastern
mountains
Southern
mountains
10 1 The highest, peak in the salt range is Sakesar Takht-e-
suaiman
Tilla Jogian Hill
10 1 Salt range starts from dina and ends at Jhelum Noshera Mirpur
10 1 The salt range is situated between rivers
soan and
Chenab Indus Jhelum
10 1 The khyber pass connects pakistan with Afghanistan Iran South Asia
10 1 Kirthar range separates the indus plain from Balochistan Punjab Sindh
10 1 Pakistan lies in the north west of China Iran Himalaya
10 1 Lawari pass connects peshawar with Babusar Top Mala Kand Der
10 1 The pass which links chitral with gilgit is Babusar pass Shandur pass Tochi pass
10 1 The highest peak of the sulaiman mountains
is
Takht-I-
Sulaiman
Koh-e-Safed Nanga Parbat
10 1 Which pass connects the kachhi- sibi plain
with Quetta
Khyber pass Bolan pass Tochi pass
10 1 Ras Koh range is situated in Balochistan
plateau
Indus plan Karakoram
10 1 The Chagai Hills are located At China
border
Near Quetta Near Sibi
10 1 The indus plain covers an area of about 203,000 sq.
miles
200,000 sq.
miles
206,000 sq.
miles
10 1 Pakistan's most prosperous agriculture
region is
Indus Plain Sialkot Region Punjat Region
10 1 The five tributaries of the indus river in
punjab are jhelum, the chenab, the beis the
sutlej, and the
Ravi Ganga Jamna
10 1 The tributaries of the indus river converge to
their confluence with the indus at
Rawala Kot Jhelum Mithankot
10 1 Land Situated between two rivers is called Combination Doab Bar
10 1 The Sindh sagar doab is situated between
the rivers
Jhelum Indus Chenab
Jhelum
Ravi bias
10 1 The problems of waterlogging and salinity in
indus plain is being addressed by the
construction of the
Right bank
outfall drain
Left bank
outfall drain
Both of them
10 1 Lake Manchhar is situated in NWFP Sindh Baluchistan
10 1 Lake Manchhar is one of the largest
freshwater lakes in
Southeast asia Asia The World
10 1 The sindh sagar doab is also known as Nili bar Thar desert Thal desrt
10 1 The land between the ravi and the old
course of the beas and the sutlej is called
Ganji bar Nili bar Chaj bar
10 1 High land between the old course of the
beas and the sutlej is called
Chaj bar Ganji bar Nili bar
10 1 The second largest over populated country
of islamic world is
Indonesia Pakistan UAE
10 1 The bars are called Barren soils Bara soils riverine soils
10 1 The south asian desert of bahawalpur is
known as
Cholistan Thal desert Thar desert
10 1 In sindh the south eastern desert is called as Thar desert Cholistan
desert
Thal desrt
10 1 The nelum valley is 200 km long and runs
parallel to the
Indus river Jehlum river Chenab river
10 1 The longest glacier outside the polar region
is found in
India China Pakistan
10 1 The rank of pakistan among the world's
largest countries is
30th 32th 29th
10 1 Warsak dam is situated on river Kabul Swat Indus
10 1 The oldest dam of pakistan is Terblla Mangla Warsak
10 1 The largest river of the pakistan is Swat Indus Satluj
10 1 The numbers of barrages constructed on the
river indus are
6 0 7
10 1 The kabul river falls into Indus river Jhelum river Kaghan river
10 1 The number of rivers in balochistan is 10 9 7
10 1 The number of rivers in the sindh is 3 4 2
10 1 Gomal rivers starts in Iran Bolochistan NWFP
10 1 Bolan,&rukshan are the rivers flowing in NWFP Punjab Balochistan
10 1 In which province these rivers are located"
sawat, gomal, karam & kabul
NWFP Punjab Balochistan
10 1 How many dry parts are there in punjab? 3 4 5
10 1 Baran rivers is following in the province of Punjab Balochistan Sindh
10 1 River ravi originates from Tibet Himachal
Pradesh
Northern
areas of
pakistan
10 1 The Ravi river falls in? Satluj Indus Arabian sea
10 1 From where jhelum river starts Hemaliah
perdash
Tibet Indian held
kashmir
10 1 The length of ravi river is 740 km 725 km 760 km
10 1 Indus river originates from Ladakh Tibet Jammu
10 1 The length of indus river is 2,900 km 2,500 km 2,800 km
10 1 The tributaries of the indus river in the
punjabregion are called
Jhelum &
chenab
Ravi and beas Beas & satluj
10 1 Head Sulamanki is situated on river Satluj Ravi Jhelum
10 1 A palla is A croco dile A Sindhi folk
dance
Dolphen Fish
10 1 From where jhelum river starts Hemaliah
perdash
Tibet Indian held
kashmir
10 1 Wular lake is situated on the river Jhelum Gomal Indus
10 1 The chaj doab is located between rivers. Jhelum & ravi Chenab &
Sutlej
Jhelum &
Chenab
10 1 The area of Chaj doab is called Sandal bar Neeli bar Ganji bar
10 1 The ganji bar is the area between Sutlej & ravi Ravi & jehlum Chenab &
jhelum
10 1 The river which from the part of the border
between azad kashmir and NWFP is
Indus Neelum Kabul
10 1 The upper chenab canal joins the river ravi
near balloki to supplement the water supply
of the
Lower bari
boab
Upper bari
doab
Link bari doab
10 1 The lower chenab canal starts from Rasul Khanki Trimun
10 1 The upper bari doab canal starts from Indian Punjab Pakistani
Punjab
near amritsar
10 1 Lower bari doab canal starts from Balloki Marala Sidhnai
10 1 Marala barrage is constructed on river Ravi Chanab Kabul
10 1 The longest river in punjab is Indus Beas Sutlej
10 1 The sutlej river originates from Tibet Hemachal
Pardesh
China
10 1 The chenab river joins the sutlej river near West of
bahawalpur
Punjab West of Multan
10 1 The jinnah barrage is situated on the river Kuram Kabul Gomal
10 1 Taunsa barrage is situated on Ravi Jehlum Zob
10 1 The Districts irrigated by taunsa barrage are D.G Khan &
Muzaffargarh
Bahawalpur &
Muzaffargrah
Multan &
Muzaffargarh
10 1 On which river guddu, Sukkur, Taunsa
Chashma,Jinnah and kotri barrages are
situated
Chenab Indus Kabul
Opt4 AnsNO
radio waves 3
all of them 4
electronics 3
20th century 3
modern
physics
1
particle physics 1
any of the
above
3
solid state
physics
4
information
technology
1
information
technology
4
conductors 2
water 3
all of them 4
none of the
above
3
as many as we
can
1
derived
quantities
4
Derived
quantities
4
derived
quantities
3
All of the above 2
mole (mol) 4
none of them 3
downwards 1
none of them 3
joining the tail
of the first with
the tail of
second
2
none of them 3
equilibrant 2
keeep the
same direction
of B and
subtract it from
A
2
A-B=A-(+B) 3
opposite
direction but
same
magnitude as
of A
1
opposite
direction and
same
magnitude as
of A
1
new
dimensions
different form
mass and
velocity
3
unit vector 4
arbitrary
magnitude and
arbitrary
direction
2
all of them 3
90 4
none of them 4
none of them 2
non of them 2
[LT-2 3
none of them 3
both of option
1 and 2
4
infinity 1
variable
velocity
2
acceleration 4
fixed quantity 3
either speed
or direction
changes
4
none of them 2
all of them 3
uniform velocity 4
may be all of
them
3
average
velocity
1
maximum 1
maximum 3
maximum 2
maximum 4
N-m-2 3
(d) none of
them
3
22.5 J 4
gravitational
field
4
the
displacement
is zero
2
the
displacement
is zero
1
all of them 2
neither of them 1
conservative
field
4
all of them 4
momentum 2
constant
quantity
2
watt 4
kinetic energy 3
angular velocity 2
positive 3
positive 4
all of them 3
fleemings right
hand rule
2
none of them 1
none of them 4
all of them 3
57.3 4
90 3
angular velocity 4
all of them 2
none of them 2
radians per
minute
3
angular
acceleration
4
along the axis
of rotation
4
all of them 4
fleemings right
hand rule
3
neither in
straight line
nor in circular
path
2
none of them 3
none of them 3
none of them 1
none of them 2
very small
viscosity
2
drag force 4
non of them 3
none of them 1
none of them 3
none of them 2
net force =
weight + drag
force
2
none of them 3
all of them 1
none of them 3
constant
quantity
3
none of them 2
2.2 m/s 2
weight 3
none of them 3
streamline 4
neither of them 1
none of them 2
neither of them 3
none of them 1
zero 3
resistive force 1
circular motion 2
simple
harmonic
motion
4
an acceleration 2
velocity 3
displacement 2
time period 3
total energy
remains
constant
4
directly
proportional to
the
displacement
but in opposite
direction
4
electrons
revolving
sound the
nucleus
3
a simple
pendulum
3
none of them 3
saw tooth wave 2
one third of
the maximum
value
2
one third of
the maximum
value
1
vibration/sec 1
none of them 3
none of them 3
none of them 3
none of them 2
none of them 1
none of them 3
none of them 1
none of them 1
none of them 2
none of them 3
none of them 3
frequency 2
frequency 1
frequency 3
all of them 3
none of them 3
all of them 3
none of them 2
any one of
them
3
compressional
wave
4
crests 2
crests 1
any one of
them
3
spherical 4
none of them 3
none of them 3
elliptical
wavefront
1
elliptical
wavefront
1
none of them 3
either of them 2
hyugen's
principle
4
both of them 2
none of them 2
compton 1
speed of light 2
speed of
proton
1
empty medium 2
polarization 1
polarization 1
increase
rapidly
2
all of them 4
four colurs 1
any one of
them
1
none of them 1
neither of them 1
all of them 3
both of them 4
optical
resolution
4
none of them 3
all of them 3
none of them 3
none of them 1
diminished
and virtual
2
none of them 1
25 1
none of them 2
two concave
lenses
2
very short 4
just beyond
the principle
focus of eye-
piece
3
viertual and
diminished
image
1
at the focus of
objective
3
near point of
eye
4
directly
proportional to
the k.E
4
PV=nRT 4
directly
proportional to
the P.E. of gas
molecules.
3
none of them 3
none of them 2
all of them 1
increases 4
none of them 3
none of them 3
any one of
them
1
any one of
them
2
none of them 3
both of them 3
has both A
and C
4
none of them 1
10J 4
none of them 2
none of them 3
not fixed 2
none of them 3
joule 2
the systeme of
units and the
medium
between the
charges
4
one half 3
one fourth 4
variable
velocity
2
Newton 4
dipoles 2
non of above 4
none of these 1
none of these 1
Michael
Faraday
4
1800-1860 1
electric
intensity
4
Volt 2
Mass 2
electric field 4
the force on a
charge of one
coulomb
would
experience
there
4
Wat/m 1
1 J/C 4
variable
velocity
2
none of these 1
none of these 2
ampere 4
none of these 3
ions and
electorns
4
electrons
revolving
sound the
nucleus
2
Mass 3
temperature 2
electrical
energy
4
electrical
energy
4
ohm's law 3
current 3
position 2
atoms 3
all of these 4
one ampere 1
parabola 2
resistance 4
Len's law 3
1 volt/ 1
coulomb
3
voltage
resistance and
charge
3
ellipse 2
none of these 2
F=DIL sin 3
-1 2
F=BIL cos 1
all of the above 4
IT =104G 4
self
inductances
2
6N 1
G=10-1T 3
weber 2 2
F=IL.B 3
F=B/2 3
magnetic flux
density
1
weber 4
magnetic field
intensity
1
Newton-
Amp/Meter
1
weber/meter 1
moving
permanent
magnet
1
potential
difference
4
none of these 3
opposite
direction
4
none of these 2
motional emf 4
non insulator 3
all of the above 4
capacitance
induced
2
weber 1
all of the above 4
none of these 3
Gauss's law 2
rate of change
of magnetic
flux
4
the magnitude
of induced emf
1
pole strength 2
none of these 1
1874 2
with a great
difficulty but at
very low cost
2
none of them 2
time constant 3
none of them 3
all of them 2
none of these 3
none of them 1
all of them 2
none of them 2
all of them 3
all of them 2
all of them 1
all fo them 3
none of them 2
none of them 1
any one of
them
3
any one of
them
3
none of them 2
all of them 3
none of tehm 1
unit cell 2
cubical 2
elasticity 4
neither stress
nor strain
3
stress 4
any one of
them
2
any one of
them
1
sixth group 3
none of them 2
none of them 1
depletion
region
4
0.9 v 3
none of them 2
none of them 1
few milli ohms 3
micro amperes 4
micro amperes 1
none of them 1
none of them 2
few mili ohms 3
forward
voltage and
reversed
voltage
3
polarization 2
foure 1
all of the above 3
neither of these 2
none of these 1
none of these 2
none of these 2
none of these 1
none of these 3
none of these 3
none of these 1
none of these 2
four postulates 2
all of these are
postulates of
special theorty
of relativity
2
none of these 2
9.6 s 4
in any direction 2
none of these 2
2.66 m 3
none of these 3
mass and
energy are
different
entities but
non
interconvertible
3
2000 cm/s 1
none of these 1
all of these 2
none of these 2
any one of
them
3
particle physics 3
none of these 2
discrete
spectra
2
none of these 1
none of these 3
j.j. balmer 4
1900 1
lies in the far-
infra red region
3
Lymann series 4
all of the above 4
Paschen
series and
Pfund series
2
Lyman series 4
Paschen
series and
Pfund series
4
Bracket series 1
4 1
visible region 4
one of its
electron jumps
from a lower
energy to a
higher energy
orbit
3
none of these 2
it has negative
charge
1
neither emit
nor absorb
1
1920 4
1932 4
Rutherford 3
Chadwick 1
electron 2
antineutrino 2
number of
isotopes
2
none of these 1
A+Z 1
none of these 3
A 3
A 3
Rutherford 4
neutral 4
neutral 2
isobars 3
4 2
tritium 1
tritium 4
none of these 1
Number with
direction
3
Time 4
A number only 1
Density 4
Positive 2
Position of a
vector
3
Position vector 3
None of the
above
3
Half magnitude 3
0 4
- k 3
1 2
Subtractive 2
none of them 1
none of them 2
non of them 2
[LT-2] 3
none of them 3
both of them 4
infinity 1
variable
velocity
2
acceleration 4
fixed quantity 3
either speed
or direction
changes
4
none of them 2
all of them 3
uniform velocity 4
may be all of
them
3
average
velocity
1
maximum 1
maximum 3
maximum 2
maximum 4
N-m-2 3
(d) none of
them
3
22.5 J 4
gravitational
field
4
the
displacement
is zero
2
the
displacement
is zero
1
all of them 2
neither of them 1
conserrvative
field
4
change in
energy
2
Electron volts 1
754 watts 2
Equal to P.E 1
Angular
velocity
3
Nuclear energy 4
Only y-
component
2
Electromagneti
c force
1
Decreases 1
Decomes
equal to
horizontal
velocity
2
Four
components
2
Horizontal 1
Total velocity 2
Threen times
the time to
reach the
highest point
1
At random 1
Elliptical motion 3
Torque 4
Impulse 3
Additionof
force and
moment arm
3
Directionof
torque changes
1
Produces no
acceleration
2
Zero 2
Quantity of
motion
3
Zero 2
Keep the body
stationary
3
Arm of the
weight
3
The surface of
the body
3
The mid-points
of axis
4
None of the
above
2
The moment
of momentum
in a body
4
The applied
torque
4
Maxwell 1
Frequency 4
Refraction 3
Light from sun 3
All of the above 4
Refraction 1
Dispersion of
light
1
5 3
Photo electric
effect
3
Reflection 3
Purple 3
All of them 4
Glass 3
Plano-concave
lens
2
Plano-concave
lens
2
Principal focus 3
Aperture 3
Aperture 1
Radius of
curvature
3
Dioptre 1
1/4 meter 1
Between f and
2f
2
Centre of
curvature
2
Within the
focal length
4
5 cm 3
q = 3p 1
4
3
2
Biology 4
Biology 2
Four 2
four 3
Decimal 1
Due to all
reasons in a, b
and c
4
All given in a,
b and c
4
all methods
explained in a,
b and c
3
all accurately
known digits
and the first
doubtful digit
4
significant
only if left to a
significant
figure
1
two 1
none of
these
2
only a and b
are correct
4
both (i) and (ii) 3
all of a, b and
c
3
Neither plane
angle nor solid
angle
2
only a and b
are correct
4
Division of
their absolute
uncertainties
1
deca 1
newton,N 2
4 2
Amount of
substance
2
Classified error 3
Absolute
uncertainties
are divided
1
None 4
Both a and c 3
None of these 2
D.C current at
peak value
3
Surface
cracking
1
Conductor 3
Dislocation 3
The external
symmetry of
form
4
Homogeneity 1
Cleavage 2
Six corners 3
All of the above 4
Empty band 1
Core band 4
Transport
impulses
3
Non metals 4
All of the above 1
First increases
then decreases
2
All of the above 3
A partly filled
valence band,
a totally empty
conduction
band and a
wide forbidden
band
3
All of the above 3
Neutral 4
Oscilloscope 1
4
3
3
2
directly
proportional to
the E.E
1
PV=nRT 4
directly
proportional to
the P.E. of gas
molecules.
3
none of them 3
none of them 2
all of them 1
increases 4
none of them 3
none of them 3
any one of
them
1
any one of
them
2
none of them 3
both of them 3
all of them 1
none of them 1
10J 4
none of them 2
none of them 3
not fixed 2
none of them 3
none of these 2
none of these 1
none of these 3
none of these 3
none of these 1
none of these 2
four postulates 2
all of these are
postulates of
special theorty
of relativity
2
none of these 2
9.6 s 4
in any direction 2
none of these 2
2.66 m 3
none of these 3
mass and
energy are
different
entities but
non
interconvertible
3
2000 cm/s 1
none of these 1
all of these 2
none of these 2
any one of
them
3
particle physics 3
none of these 2
discrete
spectra
2
none of these 1
none of these 3
j.j. balner 4
1900 1
lies in the far-
infra red region
3
Lymann series 4
all of the above 4
Paschen
series and
Pfund series
2
Lyman series 4
Paschen
series and
Pfund series
4
Bracket series 1
4 1
visible region 2
one of its
electron jumps
from a lower
energy to a
higher energy
orbit
3
none of these 2
it has negative
charge
1
neither emit
nor absorb
1
Nuclear 4
Beryllium 2
Two neutrons 1
Light rays 1
Light emitting
diode
3
Radio
phosphorus
1
Alpha particles 2
5 cm 3
Fast moving 3
Cobalt - 60 2
None of
them
2
Spherical
coordinate
system
2
No angle 3
All given
laws in a, b
and c
4
all a, b and
c are correct
4
Infinite 3
Infinite 4
Has
magnitude -2
4
Both a and b
are correct
1
Triangular
rule
2
Up 3
Both a and b
are not correct
3
Right hand rule 1
All a, b and c
are correct
4
Neither a nor
b is correct
1
Direction of
motion of the
body
3
May be at rest
or in motion
3
Both a and c
are correct
answer
3
Non parallel 1
Mass and
moment of
inertia
4
Has no
relation with
torque
2
Couple acts
on the wheel
4
its momentum 3
displacement
of origin
changes
4
infinite 3
velocity is zero 3
acceleration 3
momentum 1
moves in a
circle
1
Temperature 3
move with
velocity of light
4
both mass
and velocity of
a body
4
both A and B 1
force ,
momentum
3
impulse 2
hard and
elastic
3
increases his
momentum
1
centrifugal
force
3
25 m 1
declined curve 1
both
momentum
and K.E
remain
conserve
2
-2 2
a base ball
shot
1
2
constant for
short range
rocket
1
law of
gravitation
2
circle 2
both A and C 1
all of these 4
gravitational
field
2
maximum 4
centripetal
force
4
at high rate 3
energy 3
force into
small and
displacement
into large
intervals.
2
neither change
in K.E nor
change in its
P.E
3
gravitational
field of earth
3
Four times
than its
translational
K.E
1
24 hours 4
18000km 1
None of the
above
2
Directed away
form the center
2
Centripetal
acceleration
3
No work 4
Less than the
weight of the
stone
3
None 3
Centripetal
force
1
Rectilinear path 4
The friction
between the
tyres of the
cycle and road
vanishes
2
100N 1
At the point
where gravity
is not acting
2
Plank 4
Sun 1
Both inertial
and non inertial
2
5 2
39.2N 4
10N 1
129days 4
Angular motion 4
Water 4
Neither
uniform nor
maximum
3
Infinite 1
Square of
diameter of
the body
4
Straight line 2
Strokes law 4
Volume of the
fluid is constant
3
Laminar 2
All 1
Changes
continuously
1
All 2
Of rubber 2
75% 3
On himself 3
Lying
horizontally
4
04:03 2
fluid 2
None 3
Goes straight 1
Spherical 4
Abnormal
blood pressure
2
Sonometer 3
Moving fast 4
Stokes effect 3
Possess all
properties
4
Some time
high and some
time low
1
Both (a) and (b 3
None of these 2
None 3
None 1
None of these 2
None of these 1
Oil (kerosene) 1
None of these 3
60 to 140 torr 1
Total
momentum
remain
constant
3
None 4
Middle
between mean
and extreme
position on the
left side
1
Square of
amplitude
4
6 seconds 3
98cm 3
Two times 4
Mg 2
2.5 hertz 2
Vibratory
motion
4
Loudness 3
None time 2
g/T 1
All positions
during SHM
4
4 1
Equal to
square of
damping force
2
Bulb 4
mg cos 2
Neither
displacement
nor direction of
motion
3
Square root of
its length
4
Neither in
radio nor in
microwave
oven
1
4 x amplitude 4
All P.E
acceleration &
restoring force
are zero
4
Neither
amplitude nor
energy
3
Free vibration 3
Both (a) and
(c)
3
Is zero 1
None 1
None S.H.M 2
None 3
All of these 1
7.5cm 2
None of these 1
None 1
Mechanical
waves
4
Phase
difference
3
Becomes zero 3
Crests 1
Any of above 2
Sometimes a
node and
sometimes an
antinode is
formed
1
Diffraction 2
Isochoric 3
They do not
have enough
energy
3
Ammonia 3
May increase
or decrease
2
6000 to 8000
hertz
3
All of the above 2
Resonance 3
The frequency
of either of the
two tuning
forks
2
Destructive
interference
2
Resonance 2
Neither sound
nor light wave
3
No apparent
change in
frequency
2
2f 3
selected
harmonics are
present
3
Interference
plane
2
Sodium
chlorate
3
Polarized
fringes
3
All thickness,
nature and
angle of
incidence
4
Frequency 4
8 minutes 30
seconds
4
Plank 3
It was not his
discovery
3
Polarization 4
Bright for large
wavelength
1
A plane wave
front
3
Wave font 4
3
Diffraction 3
Diffraction 3
Impossible to
predict
2
Young 2
central fringes
are brighter
than the outer
fringes
3
polarization 3
polarization 4
less for a
sharp edge
3
No vibration at
all.
3
elliptically
polarized
1
Sound waves 4
They are
adjacent with
no space in
between
3
No scientific
reasoning
available
1
Bright 1
Interference
pattern not
disturbed
1
plano convex
lens
2
aperture 2
radius of
curvature
3
polarized 2
horsepower 3
negative 2
4 f 4
virtual 4
between
principle focus
and optical
center
3
list distance of
distinct vision
4
2 2
40cm 4
become
infinite after 60
years
2
distortion 1
f/2 2
f1f2/f1-f2 4
virtual and
inverted
4
different with
refractive
index of core
higher then
cladding
4
monomode
step index fiber
3
diffraction 1
all types of
fiber
2
neither zero
nor one
2
plano
concave lens
2
all of the
above
4
3f/2 3
infinite 4
How much
total absolute
energy a body
has
3
All of the
above
4
The
temperatures
of frozen and
boiling mercury
2
-273 1
2.12 degrees
of Fahrenheit
scale
2
A straight line 4
Same only
along normal
directions
2
All of the
above
4
All are correct 4
Laboratory 2
Could
formation in
the
atmosphere
3
Data is
insufficient
1
Any of above 2
Avagadros law 2
Time 3
Adiabatic
processes
3
One fourth 2
Kinetic energy 4
Isothermal 3
Both glass rod
and silk
acquire
positive charge
2
Remains same 3
All of above
are same
3
Both electric
and magnetic
field
4
An electrically
neutral body is
repelled both
positively and
negatively
charged bodies
4
Any of above 2
All the above 3
Data in
insufficient
1
Depends upon
case
2
All the above
statements are
true
1
Both potential
difference and
capacitance
decrease but
energy
increases
1
Zero 3
Both a and b
are possible
3
In the direction
of electric flux
4
Circular 1
Density of the
capacitor
plates
2
1 volts 1
None of above 3
Positively and
negatively
charged
3
Zero 3
Negative 2
A / m 3
100 eV 2
None of above 4
gravitational
field
4
still under
controversy
3
All of above 3
No specific
criterion
available
3
Becomes zero 2
Feed back
effect
2
Less heat is
produced in
thick wire
1
120W 1
one hour 4
mechanical
energy into
heat energy
3
14J 4
12KWh 2
changes with
every
conductor
4
depends upon
nature
4
copper 1
flexibility 2
all of above 4
capacitor 3
all 2
all will burn
equally brightly
4
dcpends upon
altitude of
experimentatio
n
1
will depend on
none of the
above
4
100 3
neutral
particles
3
2C 1
straight line 1
tungsten 1
may increase
or decrease
4
just to give a
good look to
circuit
4
kilowatt hour 3
different
current and
potential
differences
2
60 watt 4
over heating 1
the battery is
discharged
2
self inductance 3
lOOOA 3
R=qmB/V 2
they cancel
out their
individual
magnetic fields
1
none 1
exerts a force
if the charged
particle is
moving
perpendicular
to the
magnetic field
lines
4
0.4 volt 3
soft iron 4
flux density =
magnetic flux
x area
2
B 4
a helix 4
E = BeV/2 3
ammeter 3
smaller than
the restoring
couple
2
ABC/N 1
AC
transformer
and DC
generator
4
none of the
above
1
a high
resistance box
is used in one
of its gap
3
0.2 mA 1
in parallel with
any of the
series
resistances in
the circuit
1
measure
potential
difference
between two
points in a
circuit
1
use a very
strong
magnetic field
4
potential
difference
across
galvanometer
branch is zero
4
a straight line
along its initial
direction
3
directly
proportional to
B
2
radial field
disintegration
1
use spiral
springs whose
force constant
is small
4
demagnetize it
completely
1
comes to rest
after rotation
2
transformer 4
self-inductance 3
mean square
current
3
initial magnetic
flux
2
all of above 4
changes its
magnitude
continuously
and reverses
its direction of
flow after
regularly
recurring
intervals
4
magnetic
energy into
electrical
energy
1
all of above 4
all the above 3
all of the above 4
all 4
increase 4
none of these 2
all of the above 1
A.C generator 1
magnetic field 3
heating effect
through a
resistance
4
Back emf 2
0.03125 volt 4
Motional emf 1
Increases the
mutual
inductance
between the
solenoid and
the core
3
No resultant
force
4
Producing
magnetic field
3
Heating effect 2
Accelerating
charge
4
Half D.C
voltage
2
Transformer 4
6 2
Amplifier is
used
3
None of the
above
2
Hysteresis 4
Law of
conservation
of power
3
No back emf 1
changes its
magnitude
harmonically
and reverses
its direction of
flow after
regularly
recurring
intervals.
3
Artificial
gravitational
field
3
More than
sound waves
1
Parallel to
electric and
magnetic field
2
Electric and
magnetic
fields moving
perpendicular
to each other
4
Heat 1
Modulated
waves
2
All the above 3
None 2
Net current 3
Square of 1/2 2
5.66A 4
No phase
difference
3
No light 2
Increases 4
Peak value of
current
2
At L will be
less than at C
1
8.OH 2
Full wave
rectifier circuit
2
not definite 3
20mH 3
All of the above 4
One increases
whereas that
in the other
decreases
2
both electric
and magnetic
fields
3
Copper 2
Pressure 2
l.OJ 1
0.1 OOJ 3
Inversely
proportional to
extension
1
Polymers 2
The cross
sectional area
of the wire
remains
constant
1
Subtraction 2
Deformation 4
conduction
band
2
Metals
become super
conductor
1
Straight line 2
blockers 2
any of above 1
tetravalent 4
n-carriers and
p-carriers
respectively
3
off switch 4
any of above 2
any of above 3
using a
Coolidge tube
3
free electrons
in n-type and p-
type
1
when
temperature
varies
1
infinite 3
Forbidden
band
1
all of above 1
photons 3
an electron 2
arsenic 3
electrons 2
points form
north to south
1
All of the
above.
3
Its conductivity
increases with
rise of
temperature.
1
Either positive
or negative
half of A.C
2
Converter. 2
Oscillator 4
Solar cells. 2
Solar cells. 2
None at all 2
A digital
waveform
4
A low
resistance
amplifier
1
Zero 2
5 4
5 2
None of the
above
4
No effect 2
Triode vacuum
tube
4
Logic functions 1
Output 2
None of the
above
2
None of the
above
1
all the above 4
Newton's laws
of motion arc
valid in an
accelerated
(non inertial)
frame of
reference
4
a foolish
question
2
250 GWh 2
-rays 4
all of the above 4
photo cell 4
all of the above 3
De Broglie 3
zero 3
shifts towards
longer as well
as shorter
wavelengths
2
Einstein 4
angle of
scattering is
zero
3
refraction 3
a unit of
wavelength
3
Increases then
decreases
1
First increases
then
decreases
because
curvilinear
graph
2
The average
kinetic energy
of the
photoelectrons
decreases.
4
Quantum
property
2
Electromagneti
c wave
property
1
All the above
reasons.
3
Converging
source of
electrons
4
None of the
above.
2
Very high
velocity
1
Planck's. 3
Uncertain
nature of light.
1
S.H.M like
sound.
2
183.6 2
Lymann series 4
any of above 3
emit either
invisible or
visible light
3
it has a single
electron
4
no spectrum 1
radio isotopes 3
all of above 4
-1.5 leV 3
six 3
absorption
spectrum
2
visible radiation 3
ultraviolet rays 1
X- rays
production
4
all of the above 2
sometimes
increases and
sometimes
decreases
3
A & B 2
Infrared. 2
impossible to
predict
1
Increasing the
potential
difference
between the
cathode and
the target.
4
The
absorption of y
radiation by
the target
metal
3
all of above
are correct.
2
The
wavelengths of
X-rays are of
the same
order of
magnitude as
the separation
between
atoms in a
crystal
4
All the above. 2
Photoelectric
effect.
3
The velocity of
electron must
by very high
according to
uncertainty
principle.
4
Cause laser
production.
2
All the above. 3
Electrons of
Ne.
1
All the above. 1
Different for
different
colours or
frequency
3
different for
different
isotopes
4
mass is
reduced due
to energy
released
2
all of above
laws contradict
the statement
1
all of above
can build up a
change
reaction
1
all of above 4
quartz 1
don't know 2
A,B&C 3
20MeV 1
greater than
102
3
all of the above 4
all of above
are one and
same thing
2
moderators
reflect the
neutrons
1
positron 2
all of above 1
platinum rods 3
Thomson 3
no definite
charge
2
photon 2
lsomers 2
isotopes 2
some times
smaller some
times greater
2
light energy is
released
2
half life 4
chemical
reaction
3
all of the above 4
nothing 2
elliptical 3
nickel-63 1
10 times less 2
all situations 3
momentum 4
all of above 4
limit 2
C-14 4
all of above 3
charge is not
conserved
3
IR-rays 2
Wilson cloud
chamber
2
aluminum 3
3 rern per
week
2
the charged
particle
1
all of them 3
a visible
spectrum
1
A bond
breaking
reaction
1
passing
electricity
through
aqueous
solutions
1
18.75 g 1
m/e values of
a positive ion
4
electron gas 3
number of
atoms
1
Isotopes with
even atomic
masses and
odd atomic
numbers are
comparatively
abundant
3
boiling 4
filteraction 4
miscible liguid
from a solid
1
If the paper fits
tightly
1
sodium
chloride and
copper(II)
sulphate
1
heat the
mixture gently
and collect the
substance
which melts
3
add water to
the mixture
and filter
4
filtration 4
separate
solute from
solution
2
the tip of the
funnel should
not touch the
beaker
1
to dissolved
large amount
of substance
at its boiling
point
1
It is used to
separate
organic
compound
from water
1
avoid
premature
crystallization
of soluts
3
it dissolves a
large amount
of the
substance
3
solvent
extraction
technique
1
is mixed with
an immicible
liquid to get
the pure
crystals of the
products
2
immiscible
liquids
1
the gives the
bigger crystals
2
on hit trial basis 4
ionic and
covalent
compounds
3
volatile or
thermally
unstable
4
Trichlorometha
ne and water
do not mix
4
causing
pressure
1
definite shapes 1
cool down 4
the volume of
the molecules
is negligible
1
a multiple 2
Boyle's law 4
a curve called
isotherm
4
be doubled 2
temperature
and pressure
both are
increased
1
gas 4
Grahams law 2
stalagmometer 1
stalagmometer 3
in fractions 3
atomic volume 3
spreading of
smell from a
scent bottle
4
instantaneous
dipole-induced
dipole force
4
Ethanol in
water
1
Rn atoms are
joined by
dipole-dipole
forces
whereas He
atoms are joint
by hydrogen
bonding
3
solution of
NaCl in bezene
4
dipole-induced
dipole
interaction
1
pyramidal
structure of
NH3
3
none of these 1
lonic bonding 3
both 1 & 3 4
dipole-dipole
interaction
3
high dielectric
constant
2
ammonia 3
4 4
hydrogen
sulphide
3
dipole-induced
dipole forces
3
London
dispersion
forces
3
they comprise
neutron
particles
4
deuteron 4
hydrogen
nucleus
3
compton effect 1
depends on its
source
4
all of the above 3
there is
actually no
space
between the
nucleus and
the electrons
3
all of the above 4
n=2,1=0 1
nearest to the
valence shell
3
4f 1
d-orbitals 3
the spin of the
electron
1
spin of the
electron
2
Cathode rays
are material
particles
having
momentum
4
temperature
low
3
temperature of
cathode rays
is higher
3
cathode rays
become heated
2
cathode rays
remove
electrons from
gas molecules
4
London force 1
number of
protons in an
atom of the
element
1
heavy
substances
1
to make
gaseous
substances
1
Auf bau
principle
1
the two atoms
start ionization
2
micrometer 1
increases then
decreases
3
first increase
then decreases
2
a covalent
bond
4
ethane 3
none of these
is correct
3
none of this is
correct
2
bonding
molecular
orbitals are
formed when
the electron
waves
undergo
constructive
interference
2
high dielectric
constant
3
electronegative
character of
elemetns
2
their s and p
orbitals
completley
filled
4
volume change 1
temperature
increases
2
an energetic
reaction
2
watts 1
formation of
nitric oxide,
NO , form N2
and O2 at
room
temperature
4
chemical
potential
1
all of these 4
reversible
process
2
none of the
above
1
state function 4
none of these 3
7.184j 3
mechanics 3
none of these 1
thermodynamic
s
4
all these 4
none of these 3
none of these 3
None of these 3
heterogeneous 4
irreversible
reaction
3
total pressures
of the reactants
3
catalyst is
added
1
find best
conditions for
favorable
shifting of the
position of
equilibrium
4
3 4
acid with
greater pKa is
100 times
stronger acid
3
Lowery
Bronsted
concept
4
a solution of
weak
base+salt of
this base with
strong acid
3
salvation 2
ideal solution 1
mole fraction 3
molarity 2
dehydration 2
dehydration 1
saturated 2
none of these 1
2 M 1
42.7 1
247 4
2.4 moles 3
gas is solute
and solid is
solvent
1
gas is solute
and solid is
solvent
3
standard
solution
1
11.55% 2
0.25 3
a chemical cell 3
in metals the
ions are free
to move
1
reduction
occurs at
cathode
4
none of these 2
dry cell 2
neutralization 2
all of the
above cell
2
induction 1
copper
electrode
2
electropating 1
ionization
potential
2
fuel cells 1
infinite cells 2
none of these
occurs
2
overall rate 3
titration 4
lowing the
temperature
4
all of these 2
the catalytic
activity is
poisoned by a
co-enzyme
4
specific rate
constant
4
half decrease
in
concentration
of reactants
3
rate at any one
given instant
of time interval
4
final rate 1
active mass of
reactants
2
when molar
concentrations
of reactants
are unity
3
molecularity 3
pseudo first
order
1
instantaneous
rate
2
periodic law 1
atomic
numbers
4
sub groups 1
8 3
2,8,8 4
the inert gases 2
f-block
elements
4
d & f orbitals 4
S,Si,Na 3
decreases in a
period from
left to rigth and
increase down
a group
4
decreases in a
period and
increases
down the group
2
fight 1
s-orbital 3
2nd 3
ten 3
none of these 2
none of these 3
first increases
then decreases
2
first increases
then decreases
4
amphoteric 3
alkaline earth
metals
4
acidic 3
amphoteric 3
neutralization 3
32 3
four 2
none of these 3
s-orbital 4
crimson 1
ionization
potential
3
none of these 3
none of these
occurs
3
all of these 3
all of these 4
none of these 2
all these 4
none of these 3
none of thdese 3
none of these 1
none of these 1
alkali and
alkaline earth
metals
4
it is used as
furniture polish
3
semi
conductors
have different
resistance
under different
circumstances
1
zinc 3
none of these 3
oxygen 3
for enamels
and glazes
3
oxygen 4
C 2
f-block
elements
2
cu 1
aluminum 4
amphoteric 1
pentavalent
compounds
3
the stability of
+2 oxidation
state
1
In 3
aluminium 3
all of these 4
9 3
5 4
catalyst 3
o 4
both are
paramagnetic
4
Bi 1
Sb 1
all of the abvoe 4
carbon 3
16 atom of
sulphur
3
magnetic 2
hydro
sulphuric acid
3
castners
process
3
as salt beds in
ponds
3
it restricts to
oxidatioin
state-1 only
3
high atomic
number
4
bond energies 4
disproportion
reaction
4
for bleaching
raw sugar
4
HCI 1
CI2 1
calcium
hydroxide
4
a halogen 3
K 4
have no heat
of vaporization
1
At 4
all of the above 4
chlorine 2
shiny greyish
black solid
1
Te 4
Hf 4
their
compounds
are
diamagnetic
4
5 1
geometry of
complex
4
inner transition 4
number of
protons
3
case
iron=steel>wro
ught iron
3
loss of-
electrons
1
30 4
p-orbitals 2
none of these 2
80 3
none of these 3
magnetic 1
methane 1
lewis 1
organic
compounds
are water
soluble
4
wood 4
coke 2
1.84 million
tonnes
1
methane 4
kerosene,gasol
ine, petroleum
ether, natural
gas
1
normal
cracking
4
the
combustion
product,lead
causes air
pollutions
4
anthracene 3
10 isomers 4
butyi alcohol 1
isopentene 1
the presence
of a triple bond
in an
compound
1
no hydrogen
atom
4
Lavoisier 3
two pi bonds 2
cir-trans
isomerism
3
organic 4
partial
hydrogenation
of alkanes
4
catalytic
hydrogenation
1
none of these 1
resonance 3
none of these 3
haloform
reaction
1
in all these
preparations
4
alcohol 3
hydration 3
vinyl halides 3
ethylene 3
none of these 2
colourless 4
polyethylene 4
acetylene 4
all of these 4
free radical
chlorination of
benzene
4
delocalized
electron charge
4
cyclohexane 3
elimination
reactions
4
chlorobenzene 1
ethyne 2
they resist
reaction with
air
3
rearrangement 2
ortho and para
directing
4
ortho and
meta directing
1
its enthalpy
change of
formation is
positive
3
ether 1
glycol 3
Aldol
cindensation
1
decolorized -
element
1
chlorobenzene 1
keto group 4
no such group
exists
3
one or no
carbon atom
1
bromide >
iodide >
chloride
1
all the three 1
zero order
kinetics
2
E1 and Sn1 4
they have a
nuncleophilic
carbon and
good leaving
group
3
none of the
above
1
Imides 3
ethene and
ethanol
3
ether 1
Clemensen,
reaction
2
alkyl halide 4
benzene 3
alchols 3
alkdehyde 2
ether 3
water 4
flame test 1
alcohol>phenol
>carboxylic
acid
1
phenol and
acetone
3
ethoxy
methane
3
methanol+Mg+
CH3Br
1
fermentation 3
inverase 3
for denaturing
of ethly alcohol
3
benzyne 3
alkanes 1
both o and p-
nitrophenol
4
dimethlether 3
alkyl halide 1
butyl alcohol 3
all these 4
acides 1
acetone 4
aldyhydes and
ketones with -
hydrogen
4
nucleophilic
substitution
3
3-pentanone 4
trimethlyacetal
dehyde
1
Benedict's
reagent
1
carboxlic acids 1
amines 3
not hybridized 2
60% solution
of
formaldehyde
in water
3
none of these 2
esters 1
all of the above 4
by the
hydrolysis of p-
amines
4
cohesive
forces
2
benzylacetate 3
b-amino acids 1
esterification 1
a carbonyl and
an aldehydic
group
3
butanoic acid 3
the hydrolysis
of methl
cyanide
1
hydrolysis 2
is less viscous 3
none of these 1
solvlysis 3
methy butyrate 3
methl butyrate 1
formaldehyde 2
Newton 3
starch 4
nucleic acid 3
synthetic
polymer
4
65000 3
terpolymder 3
none of these 3
polyester is an
addition
polymer
1
phtalic acid
and
hexethylene
diamine
3
PVC 1
diamond 4
nucleus acid 4
keeping
pH7.35
4
nucleic acid 4
saoibucfucatio
n number
3
a hydrocarbon 1
the hydroglysis
of proteins
3
epoxy resin 3
polyester 4
decompose to
produce toxic
products
3
barium 4
20 3
30 3
20 1
N,K,C 3
rice straw 3
seed 3
4kg-40kg 3
1200 C 3
water hyacinth 3
marine shell 3
5 3
paddy rice 4
none of these 4
50% 2
none of these 3
apoenzyme 3
binder 3
all these 4
none of these 1
statosphere 4
to destroy
nitrogen oxide
from the
atmosphere
3
atmosphere 1
increase of
plantation
4
global warming 3
50,000 3
rain 4
7 days 3
the ground
water
1
treatmetn with
iodine
4
glass 3
less than 5 4
nose 1
kill herbs 1
biosphere 4
chromium (iii) 4
500 to 900 C 1
5 4
It is less stable 1
Reduction 2
C C 1
Benzene 1
Ether 1
2-pentyne 4
Cyclohexane 1
Acylation 3
Benzene 3
Ethyne 3
Methyl
hydrogen
sulphate
3
Glycol 3
Onion 3
propylene 2
Tetrahedral 1
6 4
> 100 3
100 1
a and b 4
Galactose 1
Glucose 2
Composition
and properties
of matter
4
30 mol of
hydrogen
atoms
3
water should
be preferred
over lemon
juice for
drinking
1
gram/lit 4
one 2
#NAME? 1
ionic
compounds
dont have
any empirical
formula
3
all of the above 1
3 2
80 g 4
an observation 3
always smaller
than molecule
2
6.8 4
graphite 4
exactly the
same as its
melting point
4
10.23 4
the gas is
chlorine
4
1.087 2
all of them 3
a visible
spectrum
1
the charged
particle
1
collied with
high frequency
2
a bond
breaking
reaction
1
passing
electricity
through
aqueous
solutions
1
18.75 g 1
m/e values of
a positive ion
4
number of
atoms
1
Isotopes with
even atomic
masses and
odd atomic
numbers are
comparatively
abundant
2
it has different
properties
from its
constituents
3
he will feel
warmth
3
nitrogen 3
Both A and C 3
B has 273
degrees
greater
reading than A
2
Absolute scale
is unable to
record this
temperature
2
4L to 2L 4
much larger
than the molar
volumes of
liquids and
solids
4
low
temperature
and high
pressure
4
actual volume
of a gas is not
negligible at
very high
pressure
4
less molecular
size
4
definite shapes 1
cool down 4
the volume of
the molecules
is negligible
1
a multiple 2
Boyle's law 4
a curve called
isotherm
4
There is no
relationship
between
elastic collision
and energy
3
be doubled 2
temperature
and pressure
both are
increased
1
Melted from
solid to liquid
state
4
Divided by the
total pressure
2
gas 4
Atmospheric
pressure
3
Grahams law 2
stalagmometer 1
79 cm 1
stalagmometer 3
causing
pressure
1
in fractions 3
atomic volume 3
spreading of
smell from a
scent bottle
4
have different
densities
2
HI > Ar > HCI 1
unaffected
instead
1
CsCI 1
minimum
potential
energy
1
NaF 2
meniscus may
be concave or
convex
depending on
the nature of
the metal
2
Plastic 4
metallic
crystals
4
6 4
CdS 4
molecular size 4
greater
molecular size
3
petrol
molecules
have greater
size
1
1 2 kJ per
mole of bonds
1
hydrochloric
acid
4
decreasing
surface tension
3
hydrogen
bonding
1
lattice energy
of KBr is 730
kJ/mol and
that of KI is
765 kJ/mol
2
instantaneous
dipole-induced
dipole force
4
no crystalline
structure
4
covalent
network solids
2
Ethanol in
water
1
Rn atoms are
joined by
dipole-dipole
forces
whereas He
atoms are joint
by hydrogen
bonding
3
solution of
NaCl in bezene
4
dipole-induced
dipole
interaction
1
pyramidal
structure of
NH3
2
none of these 1
lonic bonding 3
low pressure 4
dipole-dipole
interaction
3
high dielectric
constant
2
ammonia 3
4 4
hydrogen
sulphide
3
dipole-induced
dipole forces
3
London
dispersion
forces
3
does not
depend on the
nature of the
gas used in
the discharge
tube
3
actually e/m
ratio of canal
rays is greater
than that of
the cathode
rays
1
nuclei are
unstable
4
increase in the
proton number
of the metal
used as anode
4
ultraviolet
radiation
2
may be
greater or less
than the first
ionization
energy
depending on
the nature of
the element
2
5th group
elements have
half filled
atomic orbitals
4
photon 2
a sphere 4
3f 2
\radio waves 1
All d orbitals
have 4 lobes
4
4 1
2d orbitals 1
the principal
quantum
number
2
ultraviolet
radiation
3
X-radiation,
visible,
infrared,
microwave
2
3, 3, 2 4
Periodic law 2
Electron-pair
repulsion
1
Periodic law 3
K < Ca < Ba <
Rb
2
Sr 2
Na < Sr < F <
O
2
high, very
negative
3
-2.96 2
hydrogen
nucleus
4
they comprise
neutron
particles
4
deuteron 4
compton effect 1
depends on its
source
4
all of the above 1
there is
actually no
space
between the
nucleus and
the electrons
3
all of the above 4
n=2,l=0 1
nearest to the
valence shell
3
4f 1
d-orbitals 3
the spin of the
electron
1
spin of the
electron
2
Cathode rays
are material
particles
having
momentum
4
temperature
low
3
temparature of
cathode rays
higher
3
cathode rays
become heated
2
cathode rays
remove
electrons from
gas molecules
4
Each bonding
MO can
accommodate
only one
electron
2
C-I < C-Br < C-
F < C-CI
2
8 in bonding
MOs, 4 in
antibonding
Mos
4
London force 1
number of
protons in an
atom of the
element
1
heavy
substances
1
to make
gaseous
substances
1
Auf bau
principle
1
the two atoms
start ionization
2
micrometer 1
first increases
then decreases
2
a covalent
bond
4
ethane 3
none of these
is correct
3
none of this is
correct
2
bonding
molecular
orbitals are
formed when
the electron
waves
undergo
constructive
interference
2
high dielectric
constant
3
electronegative
character of
elemetns
2
their s and p
orbitals are
completley
filled
4
H 3
Hcondensation
<
Hsublimation <
Hfusion <
Hvaporization
3
=+K319 4
are exothermic 1
endothermic
processes
4
water will
freeze
4
no work is
done on the
surrounding
1
non-
spontaneous
endothermic
process
2
4kg H2O 4
heat of
vaporization
1
activation
energy
1
None of the
above
2
none of these 3
none of these 3
heterogeneous 4
irreversible
reaction
3
total pressure
of the reactants
3
catalyst is
added
1
find best
conditions for
favorable
shifting the
position of
equilibrium
4
acid with
greater pKa is
100 times
stronger acid
3
Lowery
Bronsted
concept
4
a solution of
weak
base+salt of
this base with
strong acid
3
rate constant
of the reaction
2
decreases
with increase
in
concentration
of the products
1
decreases
with increase
in
concentration
of the products
1
Super catalyst 1
quinoline is an
activator
2
Decreases the
number of
collisions
1
Activation
energy
4
First activated
and then
deactivated
1
None of the
above
2
Does not take
place
1
All the above 4
c 3
f 1
Bi 3
4B 3
3d8 4S2 2
Na 1
Br>CI>F>I 2
Be 2
zero 4
Sixteen 1
NaF 1
Mg 3
Alkali metals 2
Ba 2
Ba 1
F>O>N>C 3
VIIA 1
Reducing
power
4
17 2
Lanthanides 4
CI2O7 1
number of
neutrons
3
VIIIB 2
VIIIB 2
None of the
above
2
None of the
above
3
CI 4
F-H 4
None of the
above
3
VII 4
CI 2
the atomic
number of the
both elements
differs by less
than 8
3
Rubidium is
radio active
3
Iron 1
It can be
liberated from
its salts by
chlorine
4
None of the
above
1
carbon family 3
atomic
numbers
4
alkaline earth
metals
4
fight 1
acidic 3
neutralization 3
amphoteric 2
32 3
periodic law 1
sub groups 1
8 3
2,8,8 4
the inert gases 2
f-block
elements
4
f-block
elements
4
S,Si,Na 3
decreases in a
period from
left to right and
increase down
a group
3
decreases in a
period and
increases
down the group
2
s-orbital 3
2nd 3
ten 3
none of these 2
none of these 3
first increases
then decreases
2
first increases
then decreases
4
amphoteric 3
None of the
above
4
Crimson 1
Get pure most
AI
1
Moderator 4
None of the
above
2
Phosphor
pentaoxide
2
Carbon 1
light yellow
colored powder
3
Nitrate 2
reduction 2
Pb 1
Indium 1
Ag 3
It does not
dissolve in
water
1
Amphoteric
oxide
4
Soapy to touch 1
one
monovalent
and are
bivalent metal
2
Ionic bonds 3
Sulphur 3
Violet 2
none is stable 2
its is a non
metal
1
Sodium 3
zinc and
copper
3
Spot - welding 2
Sulphuric acid 4
Glazing 2
16 atoms of
sulphur
3
1.86 3
Ammoniacal
chlorine
2
Nitrogen gas 3
Carbonating
agent
2
it does not
lonise
3
Castner-
Kellner process
3
Electromagneti
c
2
None of the
above
4
Sub-
bitumenous
1
O 4
same
molecular
weights
3
1 1
Isomerization 2
Oxidation 1
Decane 3
Iodform 3
PVC 2
arenas 2
crude oil 3
None 3
4 1
Neopentane 1
Cis-trans
isomerism
4
lewis 1
methane 1
methane 4
organic
compounds
are water
soluble
4
wood 4
butyl alcohol 1
isopentene 1
no hydrogen
atom
4
coke 2
two pi bonds 2
1.84 million
tonnes
1
cir-trans
isomerism
3
kerosene,gasol
ine, petroleum
ether, natural
gas
1
normal
cracking
4
the
combustion
product,lead
causes air
pollutions
4
anthracene 3
10 isomers 2
the presence
of a triple bond
in a compound
1
Lavoisier 3
organic 4
Phenanthrene 3
A and C 4
dehydration 1
No 4
3 single and 3
double
3
Basic 2
Oxidation 1
Ethene 2
Benzene 3
Ethanoic acid 2
Alicyclic 2
Its high
electrophilicity
1
109.5 3
Towards the
addition
reaction
alkenes are
more reactive
than alkynes
4
Amylose 1
green 1
100 kcal 1
Two +ve
charges
3
K 1
A and D 2
Steroids 4
Acidic strength 3
Oils 1
1.4 4
Annomers 4
One glucose
and one
Galactose
molecule
1
Phenol
complexes
2
have different
physical and
chemical
properties but
catalyse the
same reaction
4
cancer 1
Hydrogenation
reaction
3
Ethene 3
Non-metals 3
Sucrose 2
lyases 1
metallic ion 2
Propanoic acid 3
B and C 2
Ketone 4
Amines 2
Alicyclic
hydrocarbon
3
Aldehyde and
alcohol
2
Winter green 2
Oxidation 3
Phenol and
Benzoic acid
4
0.2pm 3
m/e 4
None 2
Relative
atomic mass
3
None of these 4
all 4
Isotopes with
even atomic
number and
odd mass no
are abundant
1
Isotopes with
even atomic
number and
odd mass no
are abundant
3
All 1
all of the above 4
54 3
charge to
mass ratio
3
formula mass 3
relative
isotopic mass
1
chlorine 4
gold 2
1.00 2
posses same
position in the
periodic table
2
300 1
molar volume
of elements
1
20% 3
formula mass 1
atomic
masses are
average
masses of
isotopes
3
all of the above 1
all of the
above are
macromolecula
r
4
all of the
above
methods are
for different
purposes
1
same mass
number
(nucleon
number)
3
contains
protons and
neutrons
3
all are
collected at
same time
1
2.00 4
number of
isotopes of
many
elements is 2
2
chromatograph
y
1
all 4
decrease the
area
3
none of these 2
condensation 2
filtration 3
descending
chromatograph
y
2
partition or
phrase
3
quantum
chemistry
3
physical
chemistry
2
physical
chemistry
2
solvent
extraction
3
mud 2
solid particles 2
steel 3
all are equally
effective
2
fibre 2
all of the above 2
crystallization 4
crystallization
does not
involve heating\
2
any of above 2
gases 1
petrol 3
all the above
statements are
wrong
2
all are possible 2
solvents 1
vaporization 2
vaporization 2
slow 2
single phase 2
all of the above 3
static phase 2
separation 2
spectacles 3
no specific
critirea
1
all represent
same
1
Vander walls
forces
3
ionic 2
all of the
above are
correct
2
all of the above 3
b and c 4
Grahams law 2
atoms 2
none 2
zero 4
can be
liquefied
1
all of the above 4
two 2
semi solid 3
plasma 4
plasma 1
Daltons law of
partial pressure
3
all of the
above motions
2
curve 3
hydraulic
pressure
2
air 1
Greek chemist 2
Bernoulli 4
normal
temperature
1
Charles law 3
Vander wall 4
inter molecular
attraction only
3
low
temperature
and high
pressure
4
liquification of
gases
4
molecule
become more
further
separated
2
rhombohedra 1
any value of
pressure
1
cause cooling 3
diethyl ether 4
bravis 2
platinum 2
all 4
dipole induced
dipole
3
all are possible 2
sublimation 1
all of the above 2
condensation 4
cracking 2
change of
bond length
3
debye forces 1
dipole-dipole
forces
2
pressure 1
viscosity 3
fist convex
then concave
2
it has nothing
to do with
surface tension
2
evaporation 2
liquid
molecules can
slid over each
other
4
there will be
no boiling
2
a, b and c 4
all of the above 2
sharp boiling
points
3
color 1
all of the above 2
no concept of
viscosity in
solids
1
allotropy 2
vitreous 3
tin 2
brass 4
different
physical and
chemical
properties
4
all of the above 3
10 atmosphere 2
latent heat of
that liquid
3
none 3
Electrons
radiate energy
continuously in
a given orbit
3
spin (ms) 1
both a and b 4
hard to locate 1
18 3
hard to locate 4
composition of
glass
4
from anode
like cathode
rays from
cathode
3
all 4
Rutherfords
atomic model
3
Compton effect 1
equals to the
square of
amplitude
1
spin quantum
number
2
Schrodinger 2
0.01 torr 4
cathode 1
perrin 4
Bombardment
of electrons on
gas molecules
4
meson 3
Perrin 2
neutrons 2
never emit
energy
2
blue is more
dark color
2
absorption
spectrum
3
when
electrons jump
to 4-orbits
3
Schiff effect 1
orbit
asymmetrical
2
gamma rays 3
all are possible 1
Garter 2
electron cloud 1
s 1
none of the
above has
such capability
3
water 3
neutrons 1
all have little
contribution
1
b and c 4
bracket 1
all possible 1
all have a role 1
Heisenberg 3
none of the
above
3
does not
change in a
group
1
can not be
determined
2
P 4
Graphite 1
none 3
atomic size 3
all these 4
dipole moment 4
all of the
above
possibilities
are true
4
gun metals 1
all of the
above
represent
same entity
1
impossible to
predict
2
first decreases
then increases
2
all are right
justifications
4
variable trend 1
Ea 1
variable trend 1
solids 2
solids 2
Ea 3
variable trends 1
protons 3
IA is electro
positivity, while
IIA is electro
negativity
2
no specificity
exists
2
IA and IB 2
no such acids
exist
1
coordinate
covalent bond
4
1200 2
pyramida 4
zeeman orbital 1
impossible to
predict
2
2
3 lone pair, 1
bond pair
1
unhybrid and
un hybrid
orbitals
1
octahedral 3
super atomic
orbital
2
ferrimagnetism 2
dipole moment 4
newton 1
works 4
all 4
stoichiometery 1
state 3
GJ 1
enthalpy 3
P.E +
mechanical
energy
1
exothermic 4
eversible
process
2
initial and final
state
4
volume 3
exothermic 4
manometer 1
manometer 2
790Kj/mole 1
state function 4
3
phase 3
initial state 3
none 3
weak base
and its salt
with strong acid
4
any one 3
decrease of
temperature
3
strong bases
dissolve
completely in
water and
produce OH-
ions
2
non-
spontaneous
1
unidirectional
state
1
rate of co-
efficient
1
constant 1
no effect 1
Chadwick 3
pI 1
None of these 1
salt 2
dissociation
constant for an
acid
2
primary
solution
1
7.80 2
no. of moles of
species
decreased
2
catalyst 4
6.40 4
all 2
fog 4
mole fraction
of solute
2
all 2
one molal urea
solution
3
elevation of
polling point
2
none could be
said
2
phase 4
ion 1
ion 2
bad solution 3
mole fraction 3
no layer
formation
takes place
2
unsaturated
solution
1
lowering of
vapor
pressure is not
possible
3
non ideal
solution
2
ideal solution 2
none 2
ice will melt
swiftly
2
polarimeter 2
pressure 2
neutral atom 1
co ordinates
compounds
3
by passage of
electricity
1
parts of
solvent in one
million parts of
solute
3
evaporation 2
super
saturated
solution
2
None 3
E.M.F of cell 2
Mn 4
Ni- Cd cell 2
from anode to
cathode inside
the cell
2
electrical
energy is
converted into
heat
1
none 3
atoms of Na
and Cl
3
b+c 4
electrodes 2
all of the above 2
decomposition 1
does not
provide any
electron
1
no current
flows
1
all of the
above
represent
same entity
2
Fe 3
solvent
particles
2
by heating it 2
1M solution of
HCL
2
multiple of 1 1
Zn has no
potential
4
electrochemica
l series
4
no effect of
position
1
none 1
b and c 4
all are possible 1
Daniel cell 1
voltaic battery 1
1 volts 2
1M 4
charge no. 3
misnomer
because it is
not a cell
2
50% 3
0.55 2
no connection
exists
2
atomic mass 2
group VIII 1
reducing
behavior
1
halogens 3
iodine 4
Kr 4
all the metals
form acidic
oxides
4
all 4
all have
contributed a
lot
4
Al-Razi 1
germanium 4
no fix position 1
all 4
valence
electrons
3
all 4
8 1
7 2
none 2
continuously
change
character
3
all 4
all 3
Cu, Fe, Au 2
gallium and
helium
2
the number of
isotopes it has
4
coordination
number of ion
4
halogens 3
natural
radioactivity by
Henry
Becquere
2
atomic volume 3
isotropes 3
. Water gas 2
infinite 3
.E depends
upon all of the
above and the
nature of
orbital
4
all 3
data is
insufficient
2
the reason is
unknown
2
remain same 1
no regular
trends
1
none of the
above
correctly
represent it
3
none 3
all 1
all 3
they are found
in earth
3
spirit 3
none 1
Ca 4
all 4
not known yet 2
all have same
products
2
radium 4
barium
sulphate
4
none of the
above
1
sodium
hydroxide
3
mercury 3
increase the
number of
water of
crystallization
2
all 1
we could not
apply
3
excitation of
electrons from
low energy
levels to high
energy levels
3
all 3
sodium and
potassium
2
it reacts with
fats to form
soap
1
high electro
negativity
2
none 3
oxygen 2
they are metals 2
no authorized
justification yet
3
all 2
all 1
all 1
soluble only in
organic
solvents
2
Al 4
all 1
zinc 3
it does not
exists
3
tin 4
C 3
Sn 4
contact
process
1
all 2
water repellent 3
all of the above 4
metal silicate 2
bismuth 2
Bismuth 1
all varieties
are possible
2
P 2
all of above 1
tetrahedral 1
steel 4
yellow 1
electrode of
electrolytic cell
2
N 1
phosphorous
Penta oxide
1
Po 1
1 and 3 2
all of the above 3
all of the above 4
all of the above 2
Fe S 2
iodine 3
electronegativit
y
2
HF is kept in
glass container
4
HI 1
iodine 4
iodine 3
KI 2
complex 3
iodine 4
bromine 1
all the
halogens react
with noble
gases to form
their halides
4
Fluorine 1
paper pulb 4
8 2
8 2
Mn, Te, Re 3
transition
elements
4
d and f block
elements
2
no regular
trend
1
at start and
end
3
ferromagnetic 2
both a and c 4
infinite 1
d- orbitals 4
interstitial
compounds
4
strong anions 2
acid 3
bidentate
lignad
4
cyanide 2
complex
compound
1
hydrate 2
Hebrew 3
all of the above 3
carbonates 3
all of above 3
coating 3
a and b 2
Ro 4
plants 4
all 4
aldehyde 3
condensation 3
esters 2
high electrical
conductivity
3
structural
formula
1
berthlot 1
organic
compounds
can be
synthesized by
plants
2
urea 4
IV-B 2
salvation 1
depend upon
number of H
atoms
1
polymers 4
allotrope 3
no regular
character
present
3
water 1
ores 3
all 3
rocks 4
no such
process occurs
2
a & c 1
n-heptane 4
R-COOH 3
both b and c 3
ion 3
carbohydrates 2
position
isomerism
4
aldehydes 2
ethoxy butane 4
trigonal planar 3
no general
rules
1
branche 1
saturated
hydrocarbon
2
a & c 3
aldehydes 1
reducing agent 1
hydroxylation 2
Nao and KoH 2
Pinacol
Pinacolor
reagent
2
6 3
no justification
available
2
none 1
carbonation 3
b & c 3
Ni-Mg 2
-OH 3
five 2
halo group 2
8 3
iodine 4
the presence
of excessive
oxygen
3
distillation
method
2
six 2
-
119.5Kcal/mole
3
250.5Cal/mole 1
hydrolysis of
benzene
sulphonic acid
with super
heated steam.
3
weak
electrophile
3
other 2
no reaction 3
oxidation
reaction
3
chlorobenzene 3
condensation 2
Clemenson
reaction
3
all 4
glyoxal 4
C-l 1
R-l 4
I 3
extent of a
reaction
3
third 2
1 mole of
butane
4
propanol 2
all 3
zero order
kinetics
2
no dependence 1
they have a
nucleophilic
carbon and a
good leaving
group
2
dihydric alcohol 3
3-hydroxy
butanic acid
2
2, 2- dihydroxy
butanoic acid
1
molasses 4
diastase-
zymase-
maltase
1
100% alcohol 3
propanoic acid 3
all of the above 3
cyclohexane 1
benzene 1
polymerization 3
fermentation 3
for denaturing
of ethyl alcohol
3
hexanone 4
methyl ketone 3
60% 3
acetone 4
nucleophelic
substitution
3
all of the above 4
trimethyl
acetaldehyde
2
Benedicts
reagent
1
none 3
propionaldehde 1
in making
acetic acid
4
formalacstose 1
formation of
throat lozenges
4
8% 3
red 4
methanoic acid 3
Ester 2
none 3
valeric acid 3
acetaldehyde
+ acetaldehyde
4
aromatic 4
fumeric acid 3
strong acid 2
acetic acid 2
acetic acid 1
propanoic acid 1
benzoic acid 1
2 amino and 2
carboxylic
groups
3
carboxyl group
only
1
non-polar
structure of
amino aicds
3
succinic acid 2
oxalic acid 1
benedict test 1
glutamate 3
green color 1
citric acid 1
no specific
trend occurs
2
benzoic acid 2
D- alanine 2
butanoic acid 3
propolymers 1
biopolymer 2
hexamethylene
diamine
3
epichlorohydrin
with
diphenylol
propane
1
polyvinyl
chloride
2
aldehydes and
ketones
4
legumin,
amylopectin,
albumin
1
adipic acid
with
hexamethylene
diamine
4
many
monosaccharid
e unit
3
partially
soluble in
alcohol
1
amylase 1
conjugated
protein
4
primary
structure
2
precipitation of
proteins with
nucleoproteins
4
solubility has
nothing to do
with lipids
1
adipose tissues 4
tetraesters
formed from
glycerol and
fatty acids
3
not a type of
lipids
3
hydrolases 3
enzyme and
acid
2
ligases 1
isomerases 3
enzymes and
product
2
cellulose 3
lipids 2
DNA 2
all 3
mutation 3
guanine 1
all 4
it is involved in
the chlorophyll
synthesis
3
none of the
above
1
no heat energy
is involved
2
crystallization 1
ammonium
nitrate
4
75% 4
blast furnace
slag
4
blast furnace
slag
2
none 3
seed 4
5 1
surfactant 2
it is an
inorganic
water soluble
compound
1
66% 2
all 3
potassium
nitrate
3
all the above
statement are
correct
4
lime stone and
clay
2
roasted
gypsum
3
red lead 4
mixing,
heating,
grinding,
crushing
2
dry zone,
decomposition
zone, burning
zone, cooling
zone
4
55% lime
stone and
15% clay
1
to reduce the
impurities
3
none 4
carbon 4
30 to 400 kg 1
N, Ca, P 1
carbondioxide 4
not fix 2
all 1
all 2
winds 4
900 to 1000OC 4
thionosphere 2
CFC play
effective role
in the
removing O3
in the
stratosphere
1
all the above 4
barium
sulphate
1
5 4
copper 2
100000 2
all 1
all have equal
distribution
1
social biology 2
social biology 2
biology 2
inorganicmolec
ule
4
systems 1
eukaryotes 2
flowers 4
biosphere 1
biosphere 2
tissue 3
macromolecule
s
2
all these 2
both a and b 2
Neurology 3
Biology 4
Arabic 2
Plasmodium 1
14 days 3
social biology 2
Water 2
Kidney cells 2
Molecular
Biology
1
social biology 2
Both a and b 2
Gametocyte 3
biotechnology 3
Grassi 2
Biotechnologist
s
3
Ookinete 1
Molecular
biology
2
Birds are
involved in the
spread of
Malaria
3
Biotechnology 2
social biology 3
Mosquito 4
social biology 1
Law 3
Technology
Forestation
2
Internal
organs of
organisms
4
Structure and
functions of
cells
2
Statutes 2
None of these 4
Normal 1
embryology 1
Zygote 2
Merozoites 4
Temperature
rises up to 106
oF
3
Micro biology 4
Resochine 3
Cough 1
Banyan 2
Ronald Ross 3
water 3
quinine 4
Using
sensitive
electronic
measuring
instruments
3
glyceraldehyde 3
anatomy 3
polysaccharide 1
Reduction
reaction
1
Carbon 4
peptide bond 1
Lubricancy 2
C-O 2
Organic
compound
2
covalent bond 2
evaporation 2
All these 1
H+ions 2
All these 4
Tetravalent 4
Diester linkage 2
Glycogen 4
All these 1
Nucleic acids 1
Fungi 1
Catenation 2
Amylose 2
Glycogen 1
All these 2
Conjugated 1
Substract 1
Co-Enzyme 2
Inhibitor 1
Ribosomes 2
Coenzyme 1
Renin 3
Activator 1
both a and b 3
Metal activator 3
Coenzyme 4
Carbohydrates 2
Ribosomes 4
Five 2
Peroxisome 2
all these 4
some lie freely
in cytoplasm
and others are
bound to
organelle
4
cofactor 1
Melvin Calvin 3
jelly like 3
an organism 3
nucleus 2
schleiden 2
Biogenesis 3
de lamarck 2
all these 4
roudloph
virchow and
louis pasteur
2
theory of cells 1
none of these 1
weismann 2
weismann 4
400,000x 1
beam of blue
and red light
1
a beam of blue
and red light
1
5-7 angstron 1
centrifugation 1
all these 1
tonoplast 2
both a and b 2
robertson
model
1
carry on
heterotrophic
nutrition
2
contractile
vacuole
3
chlorophyll 3
middle lamella 3
golgi complex 3
nucleoprotein 2
cytosol 3
water 4
vacuoles 4
central vacuole 2
bryophytes ad
pteriodophytes
1
they are the
sites of protein
synthesis.
4
mitochondria 3
cell wall 1
50S and 30S 2
cytoplasm 2
60S 3
DNA &
Ribosome's
4
chemosynthesi
s
1
mitochondria 2
leucoplasts 4
chloroplast 2
golgi complex 1
mitochondria 3
chromatin 1
RNA and Lipids 1
Schleiden 2
Moderate
transport
3
Mulberry 3
Bacteria 3
Schleiden
observations
on cells
2
Chlorechyma
cells
3
Storage of
surplus food
4
Lipid soluble 4
Fast transport 2
Plasma
membrane
3
Middle lamella 4
A & B 3
90 4
Golgi
Apparatus
1
Decompose
proteins
2
One form 3
70S particle 3
Nucleolus 1
Centrioles 4
Angiosperms 2
Golgi Complex 2
Nuclear
membrane
4
Cell wall 2
Plasma
membrane___
_Osmosis
3
Cell wall 2
Three 3
Cholesterol 3
Chromoplast 3
Synthesizing
lipids
2
in all
eukaryotic cells
4
Cell wall 3
Chloroplasts
and
leucoplasts
2
Proplasts 3
Move the cell
from place to
place
2
non of these 1
is covered by
a single
protein layer
2
active transport 4
Plastids 3
Nucleus 3
Mitochondrion 4
Endoplasmic
reticulum
2
None of these 2
Nucleus DNA 2
Both are
double
membrane
structures
3
Chloroplast 4
all of these 4
protista 1
animalia 2
all these 4
membranes 3
animalia 1
animalia 2
fungus 4
animalia 4
fungi 2
kingdom 2
kingdom 1
family name 1
chana 1
both crow and
raven
4
family 2
prion 1
biology 3
amoebic
disease
1
Ivanowsky 4
D'Hellere 2
bacteria and
protozoans
2
chemotherapy 1
rabies 1
robert brown 2
robert koch 3
eukaryota 2
diplococcus 1
cocci 4
streptococcus 1
streptococci 3
sarcina 1
staphylococcus 2
spirilla 2
bacillus 1
spiral shaped 3
coccus 3
All these 3
mesosome 1
monotrichous 1
pertitrichous 2
monotrichous 1
vibrios 2
anaerobic 2
mesosomes 1
fibrinogen 1
flagella 2
capsule 1
cell envelope 1
algae 1
prokaryotes 4
algae 2
gamete 2
monera 1
All these 4
endocytosis 4
apicomplexans 1
plasmodium 3
collared
flagellated cells
1
pseudovacuole 4
apolyploid 3
balantidium 2
Ciliates 4
apicomplexans 4
Escherichia
coli
2
Entamoeaba 2
ciliates 2
spore 3
all these 4
desmids 3
Ulva 4
100,000 4
fungi 4
protoctologists 2
chitin 4
all thses 3
mushrooms 4
aspergillus 2
agaricus 2
all thses 1
all these 1
all these 4
all these 4
plantae 3
plantae 4
pteropsida 1
none of these 2
agiosprms 3
blue green
algae
2
archegoniopho
re
1
antheridiophore 4
oospore 1
funaria 3
survival on land 2
amorphic 2
all these 4
all these 4
hemisporous 1
naked 2
fungi 2
bilateria 2
annelida 1
proterostomia 3
indeterminate 2
All these 2
mesoderm 4
All these 4
All these 4
none of these 3
none of these 3
annelida to
chordata
4
respiration 3
potential 2
ribosomes 3
chemiosmosis 1
all these 4
all the times 3
Engleman 1
envelope
membrance
3
mesophyll 3
cristae 2
transmitted 3
all these 2
symbiotic 1
all these 4
None of these 1
ATP 3
magnesium 4
die at seedling
stage
2
all these 4
premature
death of plant
2
stunted growth 1
iron 2
all these 4
intercellular
spaces
2
55% 3
photooxidation 3
amount of
carbon dioxide
decreases
1
All these 3
both O2 and
CO2
2
glucose
phosphate
1
photosnthesis 3
both a and b 4
none of these 3
glyoxisomes 3
fructose 1
glyoxisomes 1
25% 4
Transport 4
All these 1
All these 4
Epidermal
cells of root
3
All these 1
A comination
of active and
passive uptake
4
All these 4
Passive uptake 2
Partially flaccid 2
Solute potential 2
Pure water 4
Vital theory 1
Imbibition 1
Many 3
none of these 3
Dissolved in
blood plasma
4
1 million 3
Cell-mediated
response
4
Thermoregulati
on
3
Homeostasis 2
All these 1
Uricotelic 2
Skin 1
All these 2
None of these 1
Homeotherms 3
Skin 3
All these 3
Osmoregulatio
n
1
Sweat glands 2
Turgor
pressure
3
Secondary
wood
1
Turgor
movements
1
Haptonasty 2
Circumnutation 1
Ethylene 1
Ligaments 1
Help the
animal to grow
larger
4
Polysaccharide
s
1
Twenty two -
All paired
2
Pelvic 1
Unstriated
muscles
3
Z - line 2
All these 2
Tube feet 2
Hop 1
All these 2
Genes 4
Cytokinins 3
All these 4
Thermoeceptor
s
2
Action potential 2
Cartilaginous
fish
3
All these 3
Epilepsy 3
Lnsulin 2
All these 4
Both a and b 2
Parthenogeneti
c
1
Independent
assortment
2
Angiosperms 4
Ovule 4
All the above 4
Wilkins and
Franklin
1
Chrysanthemu
m
2
Genetic
recombinations
1
None of These 2
Spermatids 1
Primary oocyte
and first polar
body
4
Many 1
AIDS 3
Both Primary
and Secondary
4
Bark 3
Brings cell
differentiation
1
Cell
differentiation
4
280th day 1
Neurula 3
Coelenteron 2
Serology 3
All these 1
Amphibian
larvae
2
A rule 3
vernalin 3
turgor
movement
1
vernalization 2
flowerless plant 3
CO 2
photosynthesis 3
four molecules
of pyruvic acid
1
38 1
cytokinins 2
algae 1
florigen 2
wrinkler 1
tomato 1
paratonic 4
photophosphyo
rlation
3
citric acid 1
6 3
6 2
both day and
night
4
charles darwin
and francis
4
florigen 2
hydrotropism 1
14L/10D 3
butanol 2
Lactic acid 4
Granum 2
1 ATP 2
Fermentation 3
Transpiration 3
Parenchyma 2
Cortex 3
Fumaric acid 2
Succinic acid 3
Fumaric acid---
-------- Malic
acid
2
Hydrogen 3
In all directions 2
Butyric acid 1
Does not
affect the
growth of
leaves
4
None of these 2
Both A & B 1
touch 4
get rid of
carbon dioxide
1
a specific
enzyme
4
without oxygen 4
Krebs cycle 3
3 2
virtually all cells 4
38 1
They are
eliminated in
the form of
methane
2
ATP 4
ATP is used 2
Carbon dioxide 1
water 2
isomerized 1
FAD 3
Electron
transport chain
4
40 ATP 2
8 ATP 1
long chain
carbon
2
within the
mitochondria
4
more carbon
dioxide is
released
2
more energy 2
triploid nuclei 1
pericycle 4
root apical
meristem
3
turgor 2
turgor 1
rapidly 2
Cytokinins 4
transported by
the phloem
1
stem 3
die 3
wilt 2
Beings with
glucose
3
carboxylation 2
all of the above 3
apomixes
(parthenogene
sis)
4
Cytokinins 2
Chromoplast 3
less than 1 3
ground tissue 2
cuticle 3
lateral
meristem
4
absorb
minerals
2
DNA and
Protiens
4
40 4
Super coils 4
Both DNA and
protein
2
Transforming
principle
2
Replication 2
More than one
site on DNA
where specific
enzymes are
present
3
Diabetes
mellitus
1
Acetabularia 3
Mathew
Meselson
2
Repression 2
CGC 2
Klineferlter
syndrome
1
M-phase 1
24 hours 4
Interphase 2
Telophase 1
Both a and b 4
Sporogenesis 2
Both b and c 4
Jacobs
syndrome
1
Edward
syndrome
2
Both a and b 1
Phenotypes 2
Genetic library 3
Gorn 2
Heterozygous 3
Both a and b 4
Brassica
campestris
2
All these 1
None of these 2
Polygeny 3
More than six
genes
3
Genotypes 3
Birds 2
Environmental
trait
3
All these 4
Gene cloning 2
Ligase 1
Polymerase
chain reaction
2
All these 4
All these 2
Gene
technology
3
None of these 2
Rice 1
Soyabeans 4
Origin of
eukaryotes
1
5 million years
ago
1
Charles Barwin 3
All these 4
Throat 1
Gene
frequency
1
All these 4
0.6 1
All these 2
Biosphere 3
Biosphere 3
Ethology 2
Bisophere 2
Xerosere 4
Pioneer 2
Grazing 4
Assimilation 4
Biomass 4
Unique
properties of
water
4
All the above 4
All these 4
Crustaceans 2
Hydrospheric 1
All are found in
Pakistan
4
Alpine 4
Grasslands 4
Sahara 4
Tundra 4
All these 4
Wild life 4
Water 3
Radioactive 2
All these 4
Water pollution 2
All these 4
Quarternary
consumer
1
Diostatistics 2
All the above 4
waldeyer 4
acentric 3
pollens 3
leptotene 2
16 2
metaphase ii 1
recombination 1
actin 2
13 2
waldeyer 3
Strickberger 1
position of the
centromere
4
metaphase 4
one side 1
Submetacentri
c
2
Submetacentri
c
3
Submetacentri
c
4
Telocentric 1
Karyotype 4
Centriole 2
20 1
Waldeyer 1
Waldeyer 2
Cytomitosis 3
Telophase 2
Cleavage
furrows
3
zygote 3
Five stages 4
twice the
number as in
somatic cell
4
zygote 4
16 3
Anaphase II 2
synapsis 4
Centrosomes 1
diplotene 3
metaphase II 1
telophase I 2
none of above 1
cartilaginous
fishes
3
cold blooded 3
all of these 4
rohu 1
none of these 4
none of these 4
none of these 1
all of these 2
absence of
middle ear
3
breath by gills
in the larval
stage
2
all of these 4
all of the above 3
diaphragm 4
0 1
five chambered 3
snake 2
hyla 3
fins 1
winter 4
Eel 3
echinodermata 1
all neuter
(without sex)
1
asymmetrical 1
well developed
large brain
2
cow 3
with a scaly
skin
2
wolves 2
proboscidia 4
Cetacean 2
have spiny skin 3
right aortic arch 4
bats 1
blood
movement
regulation
2
six parts 1
both internal
and external
2
polypods 2
dependent on
water for
reproduction
4
all of these 3
cold blooded 3
All of these 4
eight
chambered
3
eggs are
without yolk
3
embryo 4
snake 3
Alligator 2
natural gas 4
O2 3
anemia 1
niche 1
desert life 2
pneumonia 3
pollution 2
Heart disease 4
death within
minutes
4
15% 1
holland 4
Water pollution 1
None of these 2
Grazing 3
Increase in
soil nutrients
2
Rice, Pea and
Wheat
3
Soil erosion 4
Encouraged
native plants
and animals
1
Coal,
geothermal
and oil
3
Air 1
None of these 3
Korea 2
280,000
kilowatts
2
Bioconversion 3
3400 calories 1
20 30 grams 3
Circulatory
system
2
Small Pox 3
Measles,
Tuberculosis
and Goiter
2
Heart disease
and blood
pressure
4
Mercury 2
forestation 4
none of these 2
expanding
species
1
none of these 3
Hydroelectric
power
2
computer 2
40% 1
Iodine 2
pancreas 3
influenza 2
heart disease 1
12 minutes 4
Food vacuoles 1
None of above 3
None of above 4
Rectum 2
4 3
Fatty acid 2
stomach 4
Sterols 3
Glucagon 2
3 enzymes 3
Stomach 1
All of these 4
Liver 4
Pseudopodia 2
None of these 3
Amoeba 4
Earthworm 4
CaCO3 4
Enzymes 4
Amylase 4
Tongue 3
Oesophagus
to stomach
4
All of these 3
All of these 3
Trypsin 2
None of these 4
Water 1
Bile 3
Peptide bondys 4
Epithelial cells 1
Small intestine 4
Dysentery 2
Man 3
Sub-neural
blood vessel
2
Haemocoele 4
Tracheoles 3
mitral or
bicuspid valve
4
Pyloric muscle 1
Precaval 2
Salts 2
Renal vein 2
osmotic
pressure
2
Heparin 1
50% 3
None of these 2
None of these 1
None of these 3
None of these 2
Backward 4
yellow 4
Transport
system
3
All of these 3
Three
circulatory
fluids
3
Epicardium 2
Eight 2
Sandwiched
by the ventricle
1
All of these 2
None of these 2
Left ventricie 3
Aorta 4
Five flaps 1
Left ventricle 3
0.8 seconds 4
0.8 -1.00
seconds
1
Four layers 3
Four cells 1
7um 4
Right ventricle 2
Coronary 4
Right ventricle 2
All of these 3
Veins 4
None of these 2
100-110 1
Arteries 3
Arterioles 3
Arteries 2
Arteries 4
Gelatinous
substance
4
75 2
90 4
None 4
Rod-shaped 1
kidney 2
Seven million 3
7,000 8,000 4
Transport iron 3
Platelets 4
All of them 1
Producing
platelets
3
Trachea 2
Flame cells 1
Thrombocytes 3
None of the
above
3
Ventral 4
Tunica 2
Peristaltic 1
None of the
above
3
CO2 diffuses
through the
general surface
2
Man 4
Hydra 1
6 1
Nostril 3
Nosal cavity 2
None of these 1
Tracheae 2
Pleura 4
Chest wall and
diaphragms
4
None of these 1
Moving of air
inside
3
30 ml 3
4 ml 4
Rectum 1
Grasshopper 2
Nephridia 4
lower 4
4 million 1
Glomerulus 4
Nephridia 1
90% 2
Renal vein 4
Homeopathy 1
Uric acid 3
Man 3
HCI 3
Nephridiopore 3
None of these 1
Nephron 3
Three 4
2 3
Parathormone 3
All of these 1
Typhoid 3
Fatty acids 2
Liver 1
Reduction of
blood supply
to the skin
4
Excretory
system
1
Glands 3
Neuron 4
Sycon 2
Sensory and
motor neurons
2
Nerve cells 4
Nodes of
Ranvier
1
Thalamus 3
Hypophysic 2
None of the
above
2
hypothalamus 2
41 3
7 1
20 2
ectocrine 1
lodine 4
cretinism 4
Liver 3
pancreas 4
cerebral
medulla
1
adrenalin and
nor adrenalin
4
LH 1
oxytocin 4
None of the
above
3
Integration and
regulation of
activity
3
Control 1
Excretory
system
2
Three 4
All of these 3
Frog 2
None of these 1
Ultraviolet 4
Motor neurons 4
All of these 3
Impulse 3
None of these 2
None of these 1
200 3
Five 2
Acquired 4
Hindbrain 1
Hypothalamus 3
Cerebrum 4
Epithalamus 1
Memory 3
Smell 4
Hypothalamus 3
Medulla
oblongata
1
Pons 3
Smell 2
31 1
40 2
All of these 4
None of these 2
Rate of
breathing
3
All of these 4
None of these 1
Transferred to
the site of
action by their
own ducts
3
Below the heart 2
Slows down 1
Oxygen
consumption
1
All of these 4
Thickness of
skin and of
hair brittleness
4
Heart attack 2
None of these 1
All of these 3
All of these 4
All of these 1
Glycogon 1
Parathormone 3
Pituitary gland 2
luteinizing
hormone
1
Latinizing
hormone
3
Dwarf growth 2
Lactogenic
hormone
1
All of these 3
none of these 2
radial
symmetry
4
cilia 3
silver fish 3
octopus 4
valve 1
brachio radialis 2
fibrin 2
bradford 3
mandible 4
five vertebrae 1
hind gut 2
ankle 2
multigrade 3
None of these 2
None of these 1
10 2
Earthworm 2
Paramecium 3
Skeletons both
internal and
external
3
All of these 2
All of these 1
Both A & B 4
None of these 3
500-600 um 1
Actin 2
Atolemma 3
Radially 2
Proteins 4
Lysine 3
Ca++ 4
None of these 1
Many heads 3
20 1
10 3
vomer 4
All of these 4
Pelvic region 3
18 1
9 2
Thoracic 3
none of these 2
9 4
20 1
None of these 2
Clavicle 4
None of these 2
All of these 3
12 2
All of these 3
None of these 1
20 2
None of these 4
All of these 4
Can grow
(living)
1
do not grow 1
Snake 1
Bears 4
All of these 3
Man 1
multiple fission 4
Grasshopper 2
None of the
above
3
mammals 2
yolk sac 1
seminiferous
tubules
4
polar body 2
10 months 3
None of the
above
2
colostrum 4
corpus
callosum
3
28th 2
Gametes
formation
4
Ovaries 1
Testes 4
Neuter 2
None of these 2
Snakes 2
None of these 3
None of these 1
deers 1
None of these 2
All of these 3
None of these 1
frogs 3
Kangaroos,
cat, shark
2
Dpididymus 2
many 2
Oviduct 3
twelve months 2
Placenta 1
2 4
one of these 3
Uterus
remains intact
Onset of
menstruation
4
Luteinizing
hormone
2
Progesterone 1
Humans 1
microphylous 3
palaentology 3
None of these 2
in the base 4
Lignin 1
none of these 3
None of these 2
none of these 1
none of these 3
None of these 2
vertebral
column
2
all of these 4
anterior dorsal 1
opening 2
blastopore 2
None of the
above
1
Spleen 2
blastomeres 4
pseudocoel 3
pseudocoel 1
mecomorphesi
s
2
regeneration 4
gastrula 4
acromegaly 3
hershey 1
gastrula 3
All of these 2
Growth 3
Fertilization is
external
3
Fourth
cleavage
3
100% 1
A 1
Purple and
white in the
ratio of 3:1
respectively
1
Round and
wrinkled
appeared in
the ratio of 3.1
respectively
3
None of these 1
none of above 2
None of the
above
3
None 2
AB,AB 1
none 1
tetragenic
alleles
3
incomplete 1
alleles 4
1:2:1 3
3:1 2
recessive 3
none of these 1
TtRr 4
16 1
01-Mar 3
corecession 2
1 3
the F2
generation
1
multiple genes 2
both b and c 4
Green pigment 1
8 4
4 4
50% 1
56% 4
four type 1
all of these 3
colour
blindress
1
either his
mother or his
father
1
Birds 4
75% 1
Blood group 3
Red from
green
4
on both x and
y
chromosomes
2
extra nuclear
DNA in her
mothers egg
3
are linked 4
non
homologues
chrorhosomes
3
linkage 2
Acquired
immuno
deficiency
syndrome
4
44 1
all of these 2
xxx 4
nucleosome 1
xxy 2
13 3
malpighian
tubules
2
6 2
guinea pig 3
None of the
above
1
orange 2
100% of his
daughters
4
two x-
chromosomes
1
law of purity of
gametes
2
None of these 1
Immuno
deficiency
syndrome
2
1 member 4
sponge 1
Centrosomes 3
one fourth the
number of
chromosomes
as the body
cells
3
20 2
polygene 3
haemoglobin 3
autosomes 1
legumin 1
telophase 3
anaphase 2
metaphase I 1
1 4
submetacentric 3
interphse 4
anaphase II 3
telphase 3
cytokinesis 4
Scales on hind
limbs
2
all of these 4
all of these 3
Budding 4
Conjugation 1
Amoeba 3
Presence of
organs
4
Somatogamy 1
Euplectella 3
all of these 4
bilaterial
symmetry
4
echinodermata 4
stomach 1
akinetes 2
terrestrial and
freshwater
2
85% 4
echinodermata 2
liver fluke 2
arthropoda 2
planaria 1
round worm 3
coelomates 3
pinnacocytes 3
mesogloea 4
annelids 2
rhizopodes 2
25000 species 1
none of these 1
asymmetrical 4
Spiracle 1
Presence of
true body cavity
3
coelom 3
Sea anemone 4
choanocyte 2
Trypanosome 3
embryology 3
Echinodermata 4
all of these 2
all of these 4
bilaterally
symmetrical
body
3
four 3
10% 1
absence of
head
2
Coelenterata 1
Corals 4
annelida 4
Taenia 3
planaria 2
Planaria 3
nematode 4
coelenterate 3
Hydra 2
none of these 4
protozoans 3
diplobalstic 2
digestive
system
1
skeleton 2
Taenia 3
reproductoin 2
recapitulation
theory
1
natural
selection
4
hind limbs in
ostrich
4
fossils 1
hardy and
weinberg
4
recapitulation
theory
4
genotype 2
connecting link 1
15 billion years 3
of four kinds 2
no two
individuals are
exactly alike
4
after ten days 1
million of eggs 4
fifty years 3
Fastest
breeders
among
invertebrate
1
have high
survival
chances
4
degenerative 2
humerus 3
horses 2
Ethiopian 4
Nearctic 3
Australian 2
dark 1
coal black 4
clear and
pleasant air
2
none of these 1
Korea 2
Kara Kum 2
Green Book 3
Thomas
Carlyle
1
No Party
System
1
Karachi 2
Yemen 3
22nd 4
Arctic Ocean 2
Bangladesh 3
Arctic Ocean 1
Indonesia 2
Z . A . Bhutto 4
ASEAN 1
Poet 3
Democracy 1
A wireless
Massage
4
Washington 2
Dominatian 3
Waqar Younas 2
Swift 1
One Years 2
Peace 2
Europe 1
Lei 3
Chinese /
English
1
Four 4
Hazi at Ah
Afghani
1
Washington 3
10-Aug-01 2
Kofi Annan 4
2001 4
Sweden 2
Sweden 2
Denmark 4
Kenya 3
Indonesia 4
Norway 1
Indonesia 2
Thimpu 4
Laos 3
Pervaiz
Musharaf
1
Defense
Minster
3
Sarswati 2
Independent
Country
4
1918 2
Major Tufail
Ahmed
1
11th 2
Vajpee 2
Jaypur 2
Azerbaijan 3
Bangladesh 1
Colombo 3
1943 2
4 1
1949 1
New York 4
GCC 3
Jeddah 4
Xanana
Gusmas
2
WHO 2
Hogue 4
London 1
Paris 2
Paris 3
Paris 2
New York 1
1994 4
Paris 1
Reyyadh 3
Estonia 3
Vienna 4
Ethiopia 4
Iraq 1
Israel 2
Russia 3
France 3
Berlin 2
Albania 3
Hungry 4
Turkmenistan 2
Germany 1
Kuwait 2
Austria 3
India 4
Russia 2
India 1
Sri Lanka 2
Peru 1
US 3
Russia 4
India 1
China 2
Peru 1
Nepal and
Japan
2
Turkey 4
1985 3
9 1
Pakistan 3
Russia /
Pakistan
2
Germany 1
Norway 4
Italy 2
Nile 3
Turkey 4
Abdul Rahim 1
Tamerlane 3
Iran 1
France 2
Norway 3
Indonesia 1
Indonesia 2
Attock 4
Queen 1
Syria 2
Antarctica 1
Mount Everest 4
1400BC 3
China 2
Christianity 4
Britain's 3
Norway 1
1626 AD 1
All of these 4
None of these 2
Just feeling 3
Doctor 2
Buildings 1
US President 4
Russian 2
Rome 1
Beirut 2
North Korea
and South
Korea
1
Iran and Iraq 2
India and Sri
Lanka
3
Arabic 1
1990 3
12 3
40 2
All of these 4
Foot ball 1
Germany 3
France 2
Tibet 4
Religious
Harmony
1
1949 1
1949 3
French
Revolution
2
Jordon 1
Thailand 3
Thailand 2
Africa 4
Sydney 4
Foosa 2
Burma 1
Argentina 3
Canada 4
All of these 4
Benin 2
Congo 1
Dublin 3
All of these 4
Nairobi 1
Turkey 3
Japan 1
Indonesia 2
Bangladesh 4
Japan 1
Japan 3
Armenia 1
1950 3
Egypt 2
Haiti 1
Economist 2
Greek 1
William Words
Worth
4
None of these 3
Bishkek 1
King Shah
Faisal
2
George S.
Bush
3
Vladmir Putin 4
fourth 2
Chechnya 1
8th 3
India 2
07-Jun 2
01-May 4
Argentina 1
USA 4
Mirza Galib 2
45 3
South Africa 1
Autocracy 2
Literature 1
People's 3
2000 4
Slovenia 2
Grenada 1
Tudors 2
1850 3
PLO 4
eight 3
nine 2
PEB 2
lodhi 1
Damascus of
Syria
4
Washington 1
China 2
France 3
W.
Shakespeare
4
Dante 1
German artist 2
1965 4
nine 3
Italy 2
strike 1
1915 2
1990 4
Ibn-Khaldoon 1
Czar 2
950 3
Sri Lanka 2
Sonnet 3
Author 2
Critics 3
Iran 4
Keats 1
Belgrade 4
South Korea 2
17-Aug 3
15 December 1
12 September
2001
3
G. Allana 3
Virgil 2
40 2
Shangai-500 1
Cuba 4
Charles
Dickens
2
Korea 3
Thailand 2
Canada 2
Turkey 1
Hungary 3
Rome 2
Shamrock 1
Pakistan 4
a bull at the
baseplate
1
Rose 2
Cornflower 3
Kangaroo 4
India and
America
3
1964 3
London 3
a religion 2
1701 1
4th (AD) 2
27th May ,
1961
4
a mountain 2
Bahrain 4
Land of Lakes 3
USA 1
Tokyo m 2
Ghana 3
24th Oct . ,
1945
4
To develop
cooperation
and friendly
relations
among the
nations of the
world
3
12 2
Must
guarantee
fundamental
human rights
and freedom
to its citizens
4
Member states 1
Six years 2
Council 3
24 2
Trusteeship
Council
3
1945 3
Dryden 1
EU Nations 3
Study of Law 1
None of these 3
Adam Smith 1
Washington 3
1947 4
Korea 1
Dr Johnson 3
Dr . Henry 2
Colour
blindness
1
Ernest Trump 3
A bird 3
First
Chancellor of
Germany
1
A play Wright 1
NATO 3
A scientist 4
Victorian 1
a classical
singer
1
C.R Das 2
none of these 1
none of these 1
None of these 2
Islamic concept 1
none of these 2
none of these 3
none of these 2
none of these 1
none of these 2
none of these 1
none of these 3
he pushes the
bank to
produce
waves in the
water
1
none of these 2
none of these 2
none of these 2
none of these 1
none of these 2
none of these 1
none of these 1
none of these 2
Peacock 1
Heart beating 3
200 2
Switzerland 4
1974 2
N . Korea 2
1st April 1948 1
Newton ' s 3
West 4
Pakistan 4
Water 1
Allama Iqbal 2
9th November 3
World
Transport
Organization
2
1970 3
William
Armstrong
4
Central Asia 4
Goethe 4
North Korea 3
Sound 4
Education '
Culture and
Games
1
International
Monetary Fund
4
a fish 3
a tree 3
Guru Nanak 4
Foot Ball 1
Gas pressure 2
Moscow
declaration
3
it jointed
common
wealth
2
Compaq 3
Indian ocean 1
ajmeer 2
Dara 3
WB 3
saltmines 4
ultra violet rays 3
Shahjahan 4
Abdul Hafeez
Karder
2
India 1
Malaysia 2
France 3
Palestine 4
Shahjahan 4
Bangladesh
and Sri Lanka
2
Buddhist era 4
None of these 2
Mao Zondeg 3
Amundeson 1
Mrs. Golda
Meir
2
Iconology 4
PAPCO 1
Paris 4
quick 4
clean 3
tough 2
innocent 4
solid 2
achieve 2
permit 4
forsaken 1
alien 3
latter 4
control 1
strong 2
boldness 2
bitter 1
cowardly 3
pigeon 4
reluctant 3
aid 4
accumulate 2
obnoxious 3
diffused 4
pompous 2
accept 3
readable 4
certain 2
unknown 4
slow 4
disappear 1
gentle 1
release 4
stimulate 1
conformity 1
cunning 1
inferior 3
consistent 3
neglect 2
unreliable 3
emotional 1
sin 3
corruption 2
sobriety 1
sour 2
considerate 1
obedient 3
easy 2
surrender 2
inexperienced 4
sneer 2
defend 3
shaky 3
diseased 1
quiet 3
indiscreet 4
vindicate 1
appropriatenes
s
3
shrewd 1
animate 4
extinguish 4
dexterity 1
backwardness 1
foolish 2
bucolic 1
ferocious 2
fall 1
smooth 1
borrow 4
harsh 4
forgiving 1
absurdity 2
presumption 4
property 3
totalitarianism 4
crude 1
friendly 1
stale 2
decaying 1
austerity 4
small 1
shrink 2
shapely 4
happiness 3
generous 4
bright 3
wild 3
appreciation :
kindness
4
drug :
pharmacist
1
sudden
unwelcome
event
4
casual leave 4
hunt 1
humiliation 4
obvious 2
Para phrase 1
turn aside 1
pickup 1
suspended
action
4
unpleasant 3
perjure 2
washing 4
disappear 1
familiar 1
explain 1
fabricate 1
concentrate 1
sophisticated 1
reluctance 1
obvious 1
access 3
act strongly 2
a keeping in
repair
2
enthusiastic
approval
4
adaptation 4
honour 4
hardworking 3
process 1
to stock 3
ingratiating 2
very generous 3
intelligent 1
conventional 1
volatile 1
astute 1
ugly 3
despairing 1
add 1
abrasion 4
be alert to 2
editing 2
dawn 1
unfortunate 1
primary 1
unable 2
hatred 4
fall 1
resist 3
hefty 3
blesses 1
exonerate 2
ornate 4
conductor 3
relevance 4
upset 3
lament 1
diminished 2
bewilder 4
blessing 4
abundance 1
mendicant 1
gentle 4
corrupt 3
grouped
together
2
confuse 4
plot 2
squabble 4
impressive 2
coward 1
intolerance 4
instigator 1
many parts 2
math formula 2
uncooked 1
faulty 1
expansive 1
brusque 1
direct 1
hybrid 3
plateau 3
over powering 3
grateful 2
beg 4
outspokenness 3
profuse 1
injury 1
insensitive 4
sticky 2
type of
geometry
3
smooth and
fluent
3
overturn 2
weaken 1
freak 1
space object 3
cordial 1
fondle 4
permanently
altered
1
casual attitude 2
troublemaker 3
anger 1
lure on 3
exhibition of
courage
1
notorious 3
compunction 1
engagement 1
official
incharge of
census
2
some period 3
airjet fuel 3
death 3
dispute 1
order 3
noisy 1
stop 1
risk 3
stifle 4
happening
continually
4
wordiness 4
locate 3
harsh 3
skirmish 2
mix 2
intrigue 2
syllabus 1
compel 2
oblige 2
praise 1
disregard 1
defective 2
insult 3
delicious 4
to translate 3
bliss 1
coreless 1
sane 1
support 2
death 4
aristocracy 1
termination 1
dispossession 4
illustrative 1
vivacity 1
impetuous 1
fearless 3
spreading 1
act of confining 4
overthrow 3
baleful 1
indicative 1
distinctive 1
join 1
counsel 3
invalid 1
honest 2
likeness 1
bargain 4
false statement 3
domineering 4
research 1
reluctant 1
indolence 2
numeral 4
discredit 1
dreadful 4
disagree 1
debate 3
confuse 4
cure 3
sensitive 2
inconsiderate 2
arbitrarily 4
understand 1
gay 4
nucleus 2
illustrated 1
demand 1
recall 1
simple 3
thin 4
originates 4
frustrate 1
to exempt 2
decorate 4
assure 3
curious 2
leaving 2
assuaging 1
assistance 1
flattered 1
trespass 4
burden 4
strengthen 1
reject 1
intrigue 2
delay 2
exaggeration 1
exempt 2
to magnify 2
exaggerate 3
effectuation 1
fine 2
impoverish 1
invigorate 1
advisable 4
to do
immediately
4
be careless 1
excuse 2
extort 3
expel 3
eradicate 4
revealing 1
provident 1
valueless 1
bind 2
sing loudly 2
inappropriately
humorous
4
real 1
rival 1
proficiency 1
exasperating 2
useless 2
illusion 1
rebellious 1
popular item 3
social blunder 3
assumed 1
impetuous 1
fade away 1
constant 3
strong 1
vigorous 1
condone 3
cordial 1
bake slowly 3
pretend 1
state of
confusion
3
changing 4
rigid 1
strength 1
friendly 1
hysterical 1
positively 1
excite or stir up 1
cloudy 3
traditional
beliefs
4
futile 2
sweetness 2
agitate 3
impenetrable 4
feebleness 1
prearranged 2
prehistoric
remnant of
and animal or
plant
4
raise 4
fold 3
reason 3
short tempered 1
resentment 3
nostalgia 3
an engineer 1
seize 1
fear 2
contemporary 1
deficient 2
move slowly 4
applause 1
opponent 4
concord 3
austere 4
indict 4
freed 2
unfamiliarity 2
sensitive 3
division 2
abundant 3
enemy 3
approve 1
defend 1
catastrophe 3
calamity 3
natural 4
fear 3
native 4
unite 2
drowsy 2
intensification 2
decoy 1
separate 4
applause 3
worsen 4
offensive 1
crazy 3
acquittal 2
embalm 3
bless 4
descendants 4
attractive 2
climax 3
confident 4
cautious 2
encourage 4
dirty 1
smile 1
approve 2
derision 2
humane 2
dismiss 3
open 4
same 2
slow 2
tarnish 2
suffering 3
happiness 3
happy 1
genteel 4
rebuke 1
helpful 1
dud 2
dig 3
confident 4
capable 3
limited 4
surrender 1
reliable 4
insured 3
imaginary 2
narrow-minded 4
divorce 3
prodigal 2
serious 4
praise 2
flattered 1
approval 2
happy 2
reserve 3
attractive 3
emotional 3
dislike 4
defame 1
leisurely 1
reticent 4
diffused 2
deny 1
discover 2
indication 4
interpret 2
contend 1
shy 1
dissent 4
indifferent 4
identify 2
unknown 3
disappointed 4
postpone 1
indented 4
opposition 4
contest 3
pinch 1
wide 2
dense 2
analyze 2
barren 2
candid 4
defeat 3
defendable 4
victim 4
towering 3
adventurous 4
priceless 1
sufficiency 3
movement 3
dreamer 1
inhabiting 1
serious 4
fact 3
perfunctory 3
co-operation 3
anxiety 3
implicit 4
reproduce 2
injure 2
impulsive 4
fair-minded 3
rally 1
rarity 4
recover 2
prosperous 3
roguish 2
excitement 3
fate 3
create 1
concentrate 1
magnificent 1
simple 3
clear 1
concession 2
inconsistency 3
contempt 2
nave 4
save 2
controversy 1
maintain 2
instigate 2
defer 3
constrict 2
steady 2
transient 1
central 3
cheerful 4
cheerful 4
shadowy 2
gleam 1
even 3
segregation 3
bold 2
courageous 1
hurt 3
disapprove 2
extort 1
detached 4
disfigured 1
less 1
prologue 4
resentment 1
freed 1
ignorant 4
heal 2
negate 2
musical 1
invade 1
teasing 1
unimportant 3
suffering 3
simplify 1
tarnish 3
irritable 3
bless 4
concede 2
influx 4
boldness 2
conventional 4
implied 4
weakening 1
inward 3
engineered 3
fiction 4
magnificent 2
hard 1
humorous
:mature
1
emerge :
withdraw
4
decision :
vacillate
2
vaccinate :
disease
4
vault : money 4
man : woman 3
snake : rattle 3
haughty :
careless
2
reserve :
reticent
2
Courage :
timorous
4
speak :
stammer
4
bonus : worker 1
debauchery :
morality
4
ratify : contract 3
omnipotent :
power
4
confident :
poise
2
miser :
generous
4
parallel : align 3
shove : nudge 4
reimburse :
money
4
grimace : pain 4
slanderous
:illegal
1
furry : blizzard 4
incarcerate :
freedom
4
aquarium : tree 3
man :
omnivorous
4
stream :
current
1
milestone :
grinds
1
necromancy :
magic
1
stillness :
motion
1
continent :
peninsula
4
infection : elixir 4
verbosity :
words
1
eulogy : lament 3
avarice : vice 4
dismiss : indict 4
impecunious :
poor
4
dress :
stockings
2
native :
ingenuous
4
waitress :
restaurant
4
volume : length 3
prism : triangle 4
squad : group 2
moonlighting :
worker
1
never : always 4
acute : obtuse 1
steel : iron 3
real :
extraneous
4
eager : anxiety 1
writer : blot 1
narcotic :
sickness
2
stop : horse 2
painter : mural 4
bull : matador 1
rain : water 3
indisputable :
agreement
1
computer :
switch
2
muffler : noise 4
engine : fuel 3
heading : folder 3
reprehensible :
censure
4
kennel : dog 3
rank : nose 4
truculence :
ingrate
1
intolerable :
criticize
2
glove : hand 4
yard : playing 1
milestone :
distance
1
negotiable :
sold
2
rube :
sophistication
4
smile : sadden 1
flimsy :
tenuousness
4
poor man :
poverty
3
watch : hour 3
editor : author 2
works :
gadgets
1
club : advisor 4
writer : blot 1
box : sphere 4
prosthesis :
limb
1
beauty :
cosmetics
2
cats : mice 3
electrician :
pliers
4
success :
emotion
2
knight : spear 4
effusive :
melancholy
4
exigency :
urgency
3
like : love 2
attach : seize 1
same : different 3
novel : play 3
police : law 1
confidence :
man
1
congratulations
: benediction
2
evangelist:
sinner
4
turgid : bloated 3
jingoism :
loyalty
3
main : food 4
mitigate :
offense
4
lengthy : brief 4
effort : results 3
glass : metal 1
arbitration :
love
3
blanket : heat 1
dictate : govern 1
stocking : leg 4
dictate : govern 3
vaccinate :
disease
4
crying :
sympathy
3
symbiotic :
malignancy
2
limit : speed 2
ransom :
kidnap
2
apathy :
interest
4
dogmatic :
hostility
3
cut : saw 4
vessel : knots 1
hunter : prey 2
perfunctory :
attention
4
minister :
profanity
3
tender : hard 2
farmer : tractor 1
reliable :
defend
1
wall : house 2
dormer :
window
4
compulsory :
comply
4
suggested :
idea
1
fulfilling :
control
3
prevaricator :
lying
4
street : road 1
reagent :
chemical
1
conceit :
arrogant
4
economic :
theory
1
window : wall 2
ceremony :
televised
1
disease : germ 3
merchandise :
shoplifting
4
instruments :
musicians
1
misconstrue :
interpret
4
awl : pierce 4
swing : flail 1
fabricator : alibi 1
degree :
thermometer
2
stimulant :
energy
1
studio :
sculptor
3
painting : artist 1
courage :
cravenness
2
physician :
infirmary
4
horse : bridle 1
water : waves 4
understanding
: rage
1
ramble :
directness
3
delimit :
expand
3
antlers : stag 4
consider :
formulate
1
knapsack :
back
2
contended :
happiness
1
stammer :
speak
2
interruption :
continuity
4
antidote :
illness
2
byline : column 4
employment :
salary
3
judge :
courtroom
4
laws : courts 3
arrogance :
kings
2
trap : spring 4
grimace : joy 2
contentment :
mutter
2
dog : playful 4
arbitrary :
courage
3
string : beads 4
metal : heavy 2
country : city 4
evaporate :
perfume
1
prick : stab 4
hunt : stalk 4
ancient : value 3
volume : library 1
servile :
rebellion
1
needle : fir 3
clean : brush 2
disorient :
direction
4
numbers :
book-keeping
4
into 2
with 1
with 4
with 3
to 1
with 2
from 3
in 2
with 1
to 4
in 3
for 1
to 2
to 4
with 1
for 1
to 4
for 2
for 3
with 1
in 2
in 1
to 2
in 1
up to 1
with 1
from 2
from 1
for 3
up 1
up to 1
in 2
of 3
in 1
for 1
with 2
about 1
about 1
with 2
in 3
around 3
in 1
with 4
to 2
round 1
with 3
with 1
up 2
into 3
up 1
in 3
of 2
into 3
on 1
on 4
in 1
into 1
upon 2
for 1
from 3
from 4
of 3
out 1
on 3
to 3
from 4
from 1
in 2
in 3
in 1
to 2
on 1
into 1
in 4
to 3
off 1
to 2
out 1
from 2
to 1
off 3
with 1
for 2
from 1
into 3
with 4
from 1
in 2
on 1
over 4
with 2
with 2
with 1
over 4
out 1
to 1
in 3
at 1
into 1
over 2
at 1
to 1
to 2
in 4
in 1
at 3
from 1
to 2
to 2
to 1
after 2
in 1
after 4
to 1
upon 1
in 2
into 1
around 2
about 1
in 3
through 1
off 1
upon 2
to 1
over 1
into 1
with 1
with 2
for 1
in 2
upon 3
over 1
with 4
onto 1
upon 2
into 3
with 4
around 3
into 1
for 2
upto 2
from 1
in 2
from 3
on 1
for 3
from 4
up 1
to 2
up 4
in 1
on 3
in 3
over 2
in for 3
out 1
on 4
onto 1
upon 3
into 4
into 1
of 3
down 2
in 3
to 1
on 2
with 1
to 4
to 1
off 1
in 3
into 1
on 2
on 4
for 1
out 4
over 2
with 1
from 2
on 1
with 2
over 1
at 2
to 3
with 1
out 2
into 1
into 2
over 1
in having 2
for winning 3
of 2
are working 2
have 2
would have 1
have been 3
have had 3
were 2
will 3
for 3
on 3
about 3
will leave 1
over 1
off 4
will have had 2
had had 4
will see 4
have finished 4
of looking 3
aroused 4
have not met 4
is making 2
old 1
selection 2
jump 2
jump 2
tendency 3
consecration 3
infirm 2
powerful 2
moistened 1
discreetly 2
luminosity 3
transport 2
desert 2
finished 1
absolute 4
accumulate 4
censured 2
finished 2
convert 3
affliction 3
palliate 2
operator 3
resign 1
after 2
technique 2
letter 2
incongruous 1
regrettable 2
manifest 3
compound 2
acrid 3
depose 1
limited 3
unthrifty 3
in agreement 3
defection 1
fating 1
loaded 1
repel 3
culpable 4
humorous 3
perpetual 4
influence 2
acknowledge 4
conspicuous 3
aid 1
refresh 3
conceive 3
brutal 2
ado 1
wavering 1
wicked 3
receive 2
veneration 1
attain 2
spatial 2
declined 1
want 2
ranges 3
war 2
gratuitous 3
telling 2
precede 3
conclusion 1
desirable 2
touchy 1
boon 2
puerile 2
confederate 2
touchy 2
persistently 3
wipe away 1
ineligible 3
permanent 1
exhaustive 4
guessful 2
fury 4
artisan 4
redundant 4
profiteer 2
barbarism 3
acrimonious 1
veracious 3
usury 2
partition 2
insipid 2
dearth 4
holocaust 4
expunge 4
turbulent 4
expensive 2
cosmos 2
casualties 4
antithesis 4
senile 4
solstice 3
deliriously 2
work 3
fighting 1
clumsiness 2
scattered 1
embezzle 4
ignorant 3
happiness 2
revolutionary 3
arises 2
harassed 4
stringent 2
enervates 2
remarkable 2
regurgitate 3
inexhaustible 2
convincing 1
profligate 1
revenge 3
would be 1
about 3
that how 2
upon 1
within 1
are 1
are 2
is done 1
had 2
didn't it 2
doesn't he 1
still 3
from 3
it has 2
pulled it out 4
must confirm 2
was used to be 1
was used to be 2
in his success 1
to be filled 1
birds 4
had paid 3
also 1
no 2
a whole as 3
the harder 4
as 2
so high as 1
the high 3
enough old as 1
although
calcium
3
to show 2
handed over 1
will have
become
4
water boil 3
it will be heated 2
to surprise of 2
big amount 2
must buying 3
taken hardly 1
had taken
better
3
possibly 2
comes 4
enough the
food
1
as quickly
more
1
expose 2
Tomorrow will
be Sunday
and it shall be
a holiday.
2
You do not
understood
this point.
1
She does not
came here
every week.
1
Do children
likes riding on
top of the bus.
1
Does he liked
traveling by
train.
3
Do you knew
the place with
colored light.
2
Shall we got
off the bus
here.
3
The policeman
hold up his
hand and
stops the
stream of
traffic.
1
They have
arrived at the
station before
we reached.
1
The teacher
had enter the
room when the
bell rang.
1
You will has
recovered by
the time I
come back.
2
The train have
not left when
we reached.
3
The train had
not reaches
the station
before it grow
dark.
1
He will not has
spent all the
money by the
time his father
comes.
2
Has he
packed up
before he
receives the
orders?
1
Had the boys
entered the
room when the
bell rings?
2
Shall I have
recover by the
time the month
ends.
2
Will Anees
have spent all
the money
before his
father finds it
out.
4
Ahmad had
been waiting
for the bus
since full
twenty minutes.
2
They have
been living in
this tent from
many months.
1
I have not
feeling well for
many days.
1
Boys have not
doing anything
since
December.
2
Have you not
keeping good
health for a
long time.
3
He have not
been opening
his shop for
many days?
3
Hamid does
not went to
bed till eleven.
1
We do not
likes his
manners.
1
He had saved
their lives
before the
scouts
reaches.
2
Babar have
won the battle
before rain
came.
1
He have been
living in this
house for six
years.
1
If you listens to
the question
carefully, you
will answer
them easily.
1
He has been
living in this
house for six
years.
4
The child has
been crying for
three hours.
4
You should
helped the
poor.
2
His glorious
success is the
honour with
Pakistan.
3
How beautiful
the moon is.
2
India did
attacked
Pakistan in
1965.
2
When does
you come from
college.
3
We use to go
to movies
quite
frequently.
2
He was used
to drank too
much.
3
She used to
get up early.
4
If you will put
too much
water in rice
when you cook
it, it will get
sticky.
3
If you will
listen to the
question
carefully, you
will answer
them easily.
1
If I have more
time, I would
have checked
my paper
again.
2
Her watch has
needing repair.
2
Has you
written your
mother a
letter?
3
I am taking
this medicine
for last six
year.
1
We were
friends for we
were children.
3
He played very
well, didn't he?
4
It isn't far from
the university,
has it?
2
She
understood
question,
doesn't she?
3
He should be
enough strong
to get off the
bed in a few
days.
3
He drive so
fast, no one
likes to ride
with him.
2
This
composition is
more better
than your last
one.
4
The faster we
did finish, the
sooner we can
leave.
3
The rainy
season begins
in July.
4
Raza have a
part-time job
at night.
2
Haris has lots
of friends
besides his
roommate.
4
He borrowed
the pen so that
that he could
finish his
essay.
4
I thought he is
coming today.
3
We did not
received mail
yesterday
because it was
holiday.
3
There has very
little rain this
summer.
2
Four miles are
distance to the
office.
3
The staff is
meeting in the
conference
room.
4
Whoever
called will not
leave his
name and
number.
1
If one do not
work hard, one
cannot expect
to succeed.
1
If one knew
the facts, you
would not be
so quick to
criticize.
2
The money
that I have is
sufficient for
the needs.
2
The class
advanced
rapidly.
4
The smoke
who is rising
from that oil
refinery is
black.
3
He says that
he would get
up early in the
morning.
2
Tariq
exclaimed with
joy that he
have won the
match.
3
Either of the
boy has did
this.
2
He, you and
me should do
it.
2
I have bought
ten dozen
eggs at two
hundred
rupees.
3
I have been
confine to bed
for a month.
2
In my opinion,
this is too
soon to make
decision.
3
I have been
looking
forward to
meeting you.
4
You better had
to hurry if you
don't want to
miss the bus.
2
I shall buy a
pen and the
pencil.
3
The higher you
go, cooler it is.
3
We didn't
meet none of
these eight
persons.
2
Which is the
nearest post
office from
here?
3
Harder your
work, the
better will be
you result.
3
He makes her
obeys his
orders.
2
You should
regards him
your friend.
1
Always he
speak the truth.
3
I meet him
often at corner
of the street.
1
I do not
remember not
having done it.
4
Ex-office 2
connoisseur 4
hermit 3
butt 2
fratricide 4
hypomania 3
debility 2
philanthropist 3
logo mania 1
subject 3
reprisal 4
sensitive 4
gnaw 2
assemblage 1
accomplice 3
inexplicable 1
altruism 4
artist 2
contextual 2
parable 1
transmute 4
pantechnicon 3
acrobat 1
invective 2
antonym 1
toxin 3
concubine 2
metropolitan 3
nepotism 3
parable 1
amnesty 3
goon 2
evolutionary 3
immeasurable 1
topiary 4
hallucination 2
perennial 2
acrimony 2
verbatim 2
heresy 4
nymphomaniac 3
prodigy 4
deadly 3
hangman 3
optometrist 2
bit 2
truant 4
statement 2
plinth 1
fanatic 3
ideologist 3
moody 1
antiquated 4
stoic 1
cryptography 2
cuckold 4
masochism 1
philanderer 3
arena 3
concubine 2
telepathy 4
pleonasm 4
morphology 3
patriot 3
hypocrite 2
eclipse 3
celibacy 2
tranquilize 3
ambivalent 2
amateur 4
ambiguous 4
martinet 1
frigate 3
veteran 4
expiation 2
kaleidoscope 2
masquerade 3
amnesty 4
physiotherapist 3
incendiary 4
granary 4
invincible 3
highbrow 4
teetotaler 4
pseudonym 4
trough 3
licentious 3
apotheosis 3
vexation 2
agnosticism 3
bursar 4
fundamentalist 3
pirate 2
barbarian 1
prologue 1
legitimate 4
parody 4
franchise 3
logo mania 3
nincompoop 2
immolation 1
imposter 3
chum 3
Elysium 4
hypocrite 2
retired 1
polished 3
lithotomy 4
stupor 4
vacillation 4
mendicant 2
abrogate 4
stoic 1
defector 3
edible 2
autocracy 2
memorandum 4
bibliophilist 3
omniscient 4
ballad 4
formula 3
catalogue 2
isthmus 3
coquina 3
pantry 1
catharsis 1
apprentice 4
hurricane 1
procrastinate 3
excusable 2
agnostic 1
ebullient 2
epicure 2
orchard 4
supernatural 1
hostess 4
duffer 4
malapropism 3
reticence 2
diligent 3
colleague 3
litigant 1
reprimand 1
erotica 3
furrier 3
pugnacious 2
intercede 4
delicate 3
kiln 4
endocrinology 2
ornithologist 4
inheritance 2
gourmand 3
flirt 2
magician 1
carnivorous 3
compensation 2
stenophobia 1
supervisor 3
extrapolation 3
spectators 2
spectators 2
immigrate 4
transparency 4
worldliness 2
hedonist 1
hedonist 3
blasphemy 3
patriot 3
finish 4
matron 3
pompous 1
incendiarist 3
misogynist 2
anatomy 4
camouflage 4
recluse 4
document 3
psychiatrist 2
chord 1
birthday 3
arsenal 4
warden 3
usurer 3
incorrigible 4
vandal 2
intermission 2
sonnet 3
allergy 3
epicurean 3
ancient 3
spendthrift 4
septuagenarian 4
aggressor 1
stroll 2
congregation 3
hermaphrodite 4
parvenu 4
contemporary 2
appendix 2
philanderer 3
infanticide 4
strut 4
yokel 2
yokel 1
store 3
panchromatic 2
sensitive 2
directory 4
niche 2
Amazon 1
avaricious 3
avaricious 2
cavalryman 2
propitiate 3
dictatorship 1
transcript 1
felicitate 4
versatile 4
hierarchy 3
congregation 3
bearable 2
monumental 4
congregation 3
elope 4
sanatorium 4
malignant 1
commerce
house
2
agnostic 1
remove 2
astraphobia 1
none 4
21 4
200 4
2.27 4
0.00003 1
67 1
40 1
2423 1
none 4
42 1
a < c 2
3.392 3
0.12 1
30 1
none 4
32 4
33 3
300.4 1
65.81 1
2056 2
2018 3
3932 1
Rs. 28.00 1
Rs. 27.50 4
190 1
39 days 2
20 3/4 days 3
135 2
60 days 4
345,405,210 1
10 minutes 2
57 km/hr 3
24 2
132 cm 3
55 km/hr 2
240 3
42% 3
61.0% 21 1
77 marks 3
140, 190 1
Rs. 9400 1
Rs. 19000 2
27 2
8 1/2 years 1
26% 3
505 2
4 3
49 liters 1
13 1
Rs. 454000 1
3075.75 2
34.76% 1
Rs. 220 1
7.75 2
6300 3
Rs. 1000 3
10% 1
1438.25 1
13 years 3
50 2
Rs. 875 1
Rs. 85 2
1320 4
14% 2
none of these 3
Rs. 22000 1
20.75% 2
Rs. 575 2
80% 2
68.00% 3
345 1
24% 2
RS. 526 3
37 3
3999 2
49 2
10.65 km 2
39 km/h 1
9.58 km 2
Rs. 4.50 1
Rs. 725 1
Rs. 772.50 3
40.6 1
Rs. 425 2
4% loss 4
profit of Rs.
1.40
3
50% 1
20% 3
Rs. 110.00 3
2 hours 1
10 years 2
Rs. 110.00 2
114 1
8 4 2
62 64 1
4 4
35 1
6049 1
6 2
892 2
3750 1
67.5 3
2401 4
168 174 2
10 11 12 13 3
none of these 1
38 1
38 3
19 13 4
8 1
30 1
none of these 3
5 5 3
12 4 4
25 3
30 2
3 8 1
17 3
84 3
130 1
65 35 4
64 2
59 3
35 4
21 3
34 1
30 4
61 4
24 26 1
99 3
23 2
8 15 4
50 3
21 16 2
80 83 1
33 2
15 1
25 3
14 2
9 3
26 2
32 64 3
25 1
31 4
15 2
33 4
5/9 6/5 3
10 1
XK 2
WD 4
NM 3
A 1
J 2
Y 1
T 3
J 4
U 2
U 1
U 4
T 1
M 3
Q 1
N 3
D 3
Y 4
P 3
D 3
I 4
PE 2
S 2
J 4
Y 1
ST 1
M 3
J 4
R 1
K 2
D 4
I 1
I 1
F 2
H 4
E 2
Q 2
P 3
H 1
P 3
11 2
23 1
39 3
12 4
12 4
38 2
40 4
40 1
36 3
60 4
30 2
32 23 3
35 14 2
44 4
-1 4
10 3
476 3
80 3
14 3
2 4
12 4
40 4
14 11 1
10 3
22 29 4
40 1
64 2
27 1
30 2
59 3
64 3
38 2
26 4
-1 4
60 4
21 3
11 10 2
3750 1
36 3
62 3
1056 3
94 2
56 4
16 4
10 3
648 3
2401 4
31 21 2
12 3
34 1
140 100 4
10 14 3
86 2
166 1
252 4
4 1
80 3
64 4
252 4
3 1
5 3
0.5432 3
3264 2
4224 4
114 1
44 4
64 2
6 1
27 1
14 2
15 1
16 40 1
-2 3
892 2
38 2
5 3
5 5 3
5 3
36 3
25 3
30 2
4 1
56 4
2 2
24 3
30 2
59 3
573 2
54 3
130 1
64 2
59 3
73 1
16 4
30 3
28 2
22 2
none 3
677 3
360 3
42 4
60 2
60 2
25 4
16 4
89 1
59 3
14 1
16708 2
92 2
64 3
21 3
264 3
32 3
32 4
1056 3
11 14 3
5 2
55 2
18 4
47 2
36 1
64 1
12 1
17 1
1458 4
1458 2
15 1
31 3
`1/8 2
360 1
72 4
11 2
72 4
24 4
13 3
22 1
100 135 4
16 15 1
46 32 2
21560 1
1548 1
18 2
56635 1
48 1
2.5 1
73 1
17 1
10 14 3
1520 2
1 2
49/343 2
127 1
24 4
22 1
13/12, 15/9 4
36 3
64 1
455 3
1/72 3
1 2
24 3
188 1
47.3 1
1/128 2
72 1
7 8 1
96 2
32 4
8 2
62 2
69 3
24 4
17 2
47.3 3
65563 1
32 64 2
0.7581 2
60 3
4096 4
1 6 2
62 1
4 5 5 5 5 5 4
4 3
8 7 3
48 4
1946 1
P 3
C 4
D 2
F 3
O 1
S 2
L 3
E 1
I 2
R 4
H 1
R 1
K 3
H 3
N 2
Y 4
M 2
D 3
I 1
A 2
ST 1
S 3
T 4
S 2
PE 3
I 4
G 4
L 1
H 4
V 1
R 4
P 2
Q 4
Q 4
H 2
M 4
J 1
J 1
I 4
S 4
H 4
S 3
S 2
I 4
Q 4
L 2
Y 2
P 1
XM 3
X and A 1
E 2
T 4
V 2
O/16 1
EZ 4
XK 1
WD 2
Q 2
D 4
N 4
Z 3
I 2
I 4
DE 3
Q 1
G 2
H 2
O 1
LAO 4
EZ 4
WD 4
I 3
ODQUNM 4
NCJPTG 2
29 2
4 1/2 hours 3
12 km 3
12 km 4
9 km 3
6 km 2
North wards 3
10 km 3
None of the
above
1
9 km 3
East 2
13 1
10 rabbits 2
None of the
above
1
South 1
20 sec 3
None of the
above
1
16 2
15 3
None of the
above
2
None of the
above
2
None of the
above
1
None of the
above
2
None of the
above
1
10.22 am 3
Thursday 3
aunt 2
both 3
8 km 3
746 watts 4
4.00 am 2
None of the
above
2
10 minutes 1
16 3
5 3
Worship of
Allah
3
Christian 3
7 3
Fifth pillar of
Islam
1
zakat 1
Zakat 2
Zakat 4
Zakat 1
Seven 2
None of them 3
800 times 3
Non of them 1
12th Nabvi 2
Chasht 3
Namaz 4
Hajj 2
Seven 4
None of them 3
Sunnat 1
Sunnat 4
East 3
None of them 2
All of them 2
Qada 1
None of them 1
Death 3
Sunnah 1
Wajib 2
Tahajjud 1
9 2
Wajib 3
Sunnah 2
Nafl 1
Isha & wither 1
Sunnat 3
None of it 1
Fifth 3
None of them 3
5 Hijri 1
None of them 2
10 camels 2
60 2
10-1/2 Tolas 1
55 tolas 2
42 times 2
Hazrat Ali (R.A) 1
None of them 1
To
permanence
2
None of them 2
Four 3
11 Hijri 4
None of them 1
8 Hijri 2
13th Zulhajj 1
7 3
Mustahib 1
Between safa
and Minna
2
None of them 2
Arafaat 2
67 1
None of them 2
None of these 1
7 2
Hazrat Ezrail
(A.S)
3
Ramazan-ul-
Mubbarak
4
40 years 11
months
1
None of these 2
5 4
Saeed bin alaa 1
10 days 3
9 stages 3
11 years 2
months 5 days
1
10 years 3
months 3 days
1
22 years 6
months
3
35 surahs 3
Hazrat Umar
(R.A)
3
Mukhtar bin
Abu Abaid
Saqif
2
Hazrat Ali (R.A) 3
Hazrat Safia
(R.A)
3
Hazrat Muaz
bin Jabel (R.A)
1
570 3
Surah al-
Ghashia
2
40 4
Surah maida 3
6688 2
90 2
88 2
Surah Baqra 2
6 2
Dal 1
Zoan 4
30 1
581 A.D 1
None of them 2
Hazrat Aminah 4
None of them 3
None of them 1
Hazrat Aminah 3
Hazrat Khadija 4
632 A.D 1
632 A.D 2
632 A.D 4
55 years 1
Five 3
Five 1
Makah 4
Abu Lahab 1
Imam Muslim 1
Imam Muslim 4
Imam Muslim 2
Imam Muslim 3
Imam Muslim 3
Imam Muslim 1
Imam malik 2
imam malik 3
imam malik 1
imam malik 4
imam malik 2
Imam malik 3
saeed bin
sakan
4
275 A.H 1
275 A.H 2
275 A.H 4
385 A.H 3
385 A.H 1
275 A.H 2
385 A.H 4
275 A.H 3
516 A.H 1
275 A.H 2
516 A.H 4
516 A.H 1
None of them 1
To believe that
there is no god
except Allah
4
To believe I all
prophets of
Allah
2
To believe in
all prophets of
Allah
4
to believe that
there is no god
except Allah
1
Kalima tamjeed 1
kalima tamjeed 2
Kalima tamjeed 4
kalima tamjeed 3
kalima tamjeed 2
kalima tamjeed 1
None of them 2
Ijtihad 3
Ijtihad 2
Sunnat 4
sunnat 2
Hazrat abu
baker (R.A)
4
Hazrat abu
baker (R.A)
3
Hazrat abu
baker (R.A)
1
hazrat Abu
Bakar (R.A)
2
656-661 A.D. 1
656-661 A.D. 2
none of them 3
656-661 A.D. 4
661 A.D. 3
none of them 2
634 A.D. 4
661 A.D. 1
Abu hafs 4
634 A.D. 2
661 A.D. 3
None of them 1
none of them 1
None of them 3
Abu turab 4
661 A.D. 3
Safar 1
Safar 4
Safar 3
Jamadi-ul-awal 1
Safar 3
Jamadi-us-sani 4
Safar 2
Jamadi-us-sani 1
Safar 2
Shawwal 4
Shawwal 1
Jamadi-us-sani 3
Hazrat izrail 2
Hazrat izrail 3
Hazrat izraeil 4
none of them 1
none of them 2
Sulimanki
barrage
2
Indus 2
Hassan Abdal 3
Punjab 1
NWFP 1
Sindh 2
None of them 3
Baran river 3
19 Oct.,1960 2
Briatain 3
Indus & jehlum
ravi
1
Indus & jhelum
ravi
1
Sutlej 3
Chashma 3
None of them 3
Jhelum 1
Swan dam 1
2, 543 m 3
600 m 4
144 m 2
13 m.cub.m 1
Tarbela dam 1
1050 mw 2
China 2
None of them 1
None of them 1
None of them 2
60,000 km 1
6 1
None of them 1
Neelum 1
Kabul 1
8 2
28 3
337056 sq. km 1
34 1
Punjab 1
Sulaiman
ranges
3
7610358 1
Sindh 3
Pushtuns 2
loralai 2
seraiki 1
mining 3
balochistan 4
all of them 4
Turbat 1
Sindh 2
Gawadar 4
30-May-35 1
38,000 1
None of them 3
NWFP 2
Quetta 4
Makram 3
Koh-e-
Hundukush
1
None of them 3
Coal mine 1
2
801,940 sq km 3
81, 716 sq km 3
23,220 km 2
7,774 km 2
1947 1
1970 3
Lahore
Agreement
3
2,430 km 3
2,812 km 3
2,812 km 2
409 km 3
1,216 km 2
200 nm 4
None of them 2
Gasherbrem 2
Broad Peak 1
6,677(m) 2
Tirich Mir 4
Himalayan 1
37% 3
161,100 sq km 2
Twelve 3
Ching Chee 2
Pamirs 1
Karakoram 4
Western
mountains
1
None of them 1
Kalabagh 4
Haro 3
China 1
NWFP 1
afghanistan 3
Chitral 4
Khyber pass 2
None of them 1
Lowari pass 4
Kirthar Range 1
Pak Afghan
border
2
205, 000 sq.
miles
2
Seraik belt 1
All of these 1
Tarbela 3
Khaddar 2
Sutlej bias 1
None of them 2
Punjab 2
South Asia 4
Cholistan
desret
3
None of them 1
Rachna doab 3
None of them 2
None of them 2
Cholistan
Plains
4
Pat 1
Kunhar river 4
Nipal 3
34th 4
Chenab 1
None of them 3
Chenab 2
4 1
Kuram river 1
8 3
5 2
afghanistan 4
NWFP &
balochistan
3
Balochistan &
punjab
1
7 2
NWFP 3
Jammu and
Kashmir
2
Chenab 4
None of them 1
730 km 2
Kashmir 2
2,300 km 1
Jhelum,&
chenab, ravi,
beas, and
satluj
4
None of them 1
Important fish
found in indus
4
None of them 3
Kabul 1
Ravi & Jehlum 3
Thal 1
Indus & jehlum 1
Swat 2
Lower chenab
canal
1
none of them 2
madhopur
(india)
4
Head
sulaimanke
1
Jehlum 2
Ravi 3
None of them 1
Mailsi 2
Indus 4
Indus 4
Multan & D.G
Khan
1
Sutlej 2
Id Description
1 Physics . :
2 Chemistry . :
3 Mathematics :
4 Biology :
5 General Knowledge :
6 Verbal Ability :
7 Quantitative Ability :
8 Analatical Ability :
9 Islamic Studies
10 Pakistan Studies
ChaptId ChaptNo Description SubId
20 Chapter 20 Atomic Spectra : 1
19 Chapter 19 Dawn of Modren Physics : 1
18 Chapter 18 Electronics : 1
17 Chapter 17 Physics of Solids : 1
16 Chapter 16 Alternatng Current : 1
15 Chapter 15 Electromagnetic Induction : 1
14 Chapter 14 Electromagnetism : 1
13 Chapter 13 Current Electricity : 1
12 Chapter 12 Electrostatics : 1
11 Chapter 11 Heat and Thermodynamics : 1
10 Chapter 10 Optical Instruments : 1
9 Chapter 9 Physical Optics : 1
8 Chapter 8 Waves : 1
7 Chapter 7 Oscillations : 1
6 Chapter 6 Fluid Dynamics : 1
5 Chapter 5 Circular Motion : 1
4 Chapter 4 Work : 1
3 Chapter 3 Motion and Force : 1
2 Chapter 2 Vectors and Equilibrium : 1
1 Chapter 1 Measurement : 1
21 Chapter 21 Nuclear Physics : 1
20 Chapter 20 Aromatic Hydrocarbons : 2
19 Chapter 19 Aliphatic Hydrocarbons : 2
18 Chapter 18 Fundamemtal Priciples of organic Chemistry: 2
17 Chapter 17 Transition Elements : 2
16 Chapter 16 The Halogens and the Noble Gases : 2
15 Chapter 15 Group VA and VIA Elements : 2
14 Chapter 14 Group IIIA and Group lVA Elements : 2
13 Chapter 13 s-Block Elements : 2
12 Chapter 12 Periodic Classification of Elements : 2
11 Chapter 11 Reaction Kinetics : 2
10 Chapter 10 Electrochemistry : 2
9 Chapter 9 Solutions : 2
8 Chapter 8 Chemical Equilibrium : 2
7 Chapter 7 Thermochemistry : 2
6 Chapter 6 Chemical Bonding : 2
5 Chapter 5 Atomic Structure : 2
4 Chapter 4 Liquids and Solids : 2
3 Chapter 3 Gases : 2
2 Chapter 2 Experimental Techniques : 2
1 Chapter 1 Basic Concepts : 2
21 Chapter 21 Alkyl Halides : 2
22 Chapter 22 Alcohols, Phenols and Ephers : 2
23 Chapter 23 Aldehydes and Ketons : 2
24 Chapter 24 Carboxylic Acids : 2
25 Chapter 25 Macromolecules : 2
26 Chapter 26 Common Chemical Industries : 2
27 Chapter 27 Environmental Chemistry : 2
1 Chapter 1 Sets and Numbers : 3
2 Chapter 2 Matrics and Determinants : 3
3 Chapter 3 Groups : 3
4 Chapter 4 Equations : 3
5 Chapter 5 Sequences and Series : 3
6 Chapter 6 Propability and Binomial : 3
7 Chapter 7 Trigonometry : 3
8 Chapter 8 Function and Limits : 3
9 Chapter 9 Elements of Plane Analytical Geometry : 3
10 Chapter 10 Differentiation of Algebraic Function : 3
11 Chapter 11 Differentiation of Trig, Log, and Exp : 3
12 Chapter 12 Higher Order Derivatives : 3
13 Chapter 13 Anti-derivatives : 3
14 Chapter 14 Integration by Substitution : 3
15 Chapter 15 Pair of Lines and Circle : 3
16 Chapter 16 Conic SecII, Parabola, Ellipse and Hyperbola: 3
17 Chapter 17 Vectors : 3
18 Chapter 18 Products of Vectors : 3
27 Chapter 27 Man and His Enviroment : 4
26 Chapter 26 Some Major Ecosystems : 4
25 Chapter 25 Ecosystem : 4
24 Chapter 24 Evolution : 4
23 Chapter 23 Biotechnology : 4
22 Chapter 22 Variation and Genetics : 4
21 Chapter 21 Cell Cycle : 4
20 Chapter 20 Chromosomes and DNA : 4
19 Chapter 19 Growth and Developments in Plants : 4
18 Chapter 18 Reproduction : 4
17 Chapter 17 Coordination and Control : 4
16 Chapter 16 Support and Movements : 4
15 Chapter 15 Homeostasis : 4
14 Chapter 14 Transport : 4
13 Chapter 13 Gaseous Exchange : 4
12 Chapter 12 Nutrition : 4
11 Chapter 11 Gioenergetic : 4
10 Chapter 10 Kingdom Animalia : 4
9 Chapter 9 Kingdom Plntae : 4
8 Chapter 8 Fungi ( The Kindom of Recyclers) : 4
7 Chapter 7 Kingdom Protista (Protoctisa ) : 4
6 Chapter 6 Kindom Prokaryoteae ( Monera ) : 4
5 Chapter 5 Variety of Life : 4
4 Chapter 4 The Cell : 4
3 Chapter 3 Enzymes : 4
2 Chapter 2 Biological Molecules : 4
1 Chapter 1 Biology and its Major Fields of Specialization : 4
1 Chapter 1 General Knowledge : 5
1 Chapter 1 Synonyms : 6
2 Chapter 2 Antonyms : 6
3 Chapter 3 Analogy Test : 6
4 Chapter 4 Appropriate Prepositions : 6
5 Chapter 5 Sentence Completion : 6
6 Chapter 6 Correct / Incorrect : 6
7 Chapter 7 Most Suitable " One word " : 6
1 Chapter 1 Numerical Ability Test : 7
2 Chapter 2 Basic Arithmetic's : 7
1 Chapter 1 Number Series : 8
2 Chapter 2 Letter Series : 8
3 Chapter 3 Arithmetic : 8

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