MANAGEMENT
Unit1 - 1 Mark Quiz Questions
1.A measure of productivity which reflects a combination of some or all of the resources
used to obtain a certain output is:
a. machine productivity
b. materials productivity
c. labor productivity
d. multi-factor productivity
2.An operations strategy is developed using many sources of input - which is the least
likely to have input?
a. Planning
b. Quality
c. Suppliers
d. Top Management
a. facilities layout
b. price cost
c. quality
d. time
4.For this set of errors: -1, -4, 0, +2, +3, MAD is:
.
a. 1.6
b. 2.5
c. 2.0
d. 1.0
5. Many factors impact productivity, one factor not generally stated as having a negative
impact on productivity is:
a. Government regulations
b. Increased emphasis on services
c. Liability claims
d. Emphasis on short-term performance
a. incorporate a blend of positive and negative motivational features and also utilize
a. State-of-the-art support systems typically have the effect of raising a firm's unit
costs because of the high dollar outlays required to develop and install such
systems.
b. Well-conceived, state-of-the-art support systems can help a company mobilize
information, use knowledge effectively, redeploy resources quickly, and respond
faster.
c. Well-conceived, state-of-the-art support systems reduce the need for rigidly
prescribed policies and procedures.
d. Well-conceived, state-of-the-art support systems can strengthen organizational
capabilities enough to provide a competitive edge over rivals.
8. Which one of the following is not a valid reason why strategy-implementers need to be
deeply involved in the budget-making process?
a. high productivity
b. simplifies training
c. relatively low wages
b. motion study.
c. methods analysis.
d. simo chart.
b. Job enrichment
c. Job enlargement
d. Specialization
4.The need for methods analysis might come from any of these sources except:
6.When performing a time study, the analyst converts the observed time into the time an
average worker would require working at an acceptable pace by using which of the
following?
a. MTM
b. performance rating
c. methods analysis
d. allowance factors
7.Which of the following statements should not characterize an operations strategy
toward the design of work systems?
8.Which one of the following statements concerning work sampling is not true?
a. 1.4
b. 0.7
c. 0.3
d. 2.4
4. if a line is balanced with 90 percent efficiency, the balance delay would be:
a. 90 percent
b. unknown, since balance delay is not related to efficiency
c. 10 percent
d. 100 percent
c. high
d. moderate
6. In a product layout, the process of deciding how to assign tasks to work stations is
referred to as:
a. station balancing
b. process balancing
c. line balancing
d. task allocation
c. a job shop
d. continuous processing
8. Which one of the following is not generally regarded as an advantage of product
layouts?
a. Edwards Deming
b. Malcolm Baldrige
c. M. Juran
d. Philip Crosby
a. Crosby
b. Baldrige
c. Deming
d. Juran
a. Baldrige
b. Crosby
c. Juran
d. Deming
a. Benchmarking
7. Which one of these would not be considered a determinant of quality Warranty service,
processing of complaints, and costs of litigation are examples of: { ~internal failure costs
=external failure costs ~appraisal costs ~prevention costs }
a. Focus groups
b. Ease of use
c. Design
d. Service after delivery
Unit7 - 1 Mark Quiz Questions
1. A companys competitive strategy
2. Companies pursuing a low-cost provider strategy can open up a cost advantage over
rivals by
there are few ways to achieve differentiation that have value to buyers.
c. can involve incorporating product attributes and user features that lower buyers'
overall costs of using the product or that raise the performance a buyer gets from
the product or that enhance buyer satisfaction in noneconomic or intangible ways.
d. has to be grounded in providing buyers with unique extras that deliver real value
rather than perceived value.
4. Differentiation strategies
a. are an attractive competitive approach whenever buyers needs and preferences
are too diverse to be satisfied by a product that is essentially identical from seller to
seller; moreover, a differentiation strategy can produce sustainable competitive
advantage if the differentiating features possess strong buyer appeal and can not be
a. aim at becoming the market share leader and having more distinctive
a. A low-cost provider strategy works well in market situations where many buyers
are price-sensitive and price competition among rival sellers is especially vigorous.
0
b. A low-cost provider strategy entails pursuing cost-saving initiatives that will
yield a sustainable cost advantage over rivals.
c. A low-cost provider strategy is quite suitable for situations where there are few
ways to achieve product differentiation that have value to buyers, where most
buyers utilize the product in the same ways, and buyer switching costs are low.
d. A low-cost provider strategy entails concentrating on a narrow portion of the
value chain and abandoning all other activities that create costs.
8.
Which of the following is not characteristic of a low-cost provider strategy?
a. The product line consists of a few basic models having minimal frills and
acceptable quality.
b. The production emphasis is on continuously searching for ways to reduce costs
without sacrificing acceptable quality and essential features.
c. The marketing emphasis is on making virtues out of product features that lead to
low cost.
d. The strategic target is value-conscious buyers and sustaining the strategy depends
a. item of service
b. product or item
c. item or service.
d. product or service
2. DIN 69901 is a standardization from
a. Indian organization
b. British organization
c. German organization
d. American organization
3. It consists of the various activities of operations, resources and the limitations imposed
on them.
a. Project Cycle
b. Management
c. Product
d. Process
4. It is a part of the project which consists of simple and routine instructions to achieve a
desired result of any activity of the project.
a. Process
b. Project Cycle
c. Management
d. Product
5. Management is the technique of understanding the problems, needs and controlling the
use of resources, such as cost, time, manpower, materials, etc.
a. CPM
b. Management
c. PERT
d. Project
6. Project management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to
project activities to meet project requirements. This definition of Project Management is
as per :
a. PMBOK
b. BIS
c. DIN 69901
d. ISO
7. Project management is the complete set of tasks, techniques, tools applied during
project execution
a. ISO
b. DIN 69901
c. PMBOK
d. BIS
a. ideas or needs
b. items or necessity.
c. item or necessity
d. product or necessity
a. Marketing
b. Design
c. Execution
d. Analysis
2. In this phase the project manager and the teams members work on the project
objectives as per the plan.
a. Design
b. Analysis
c. Execution
d. Marketing
3.One can estimate the start time and the finish time for every event of the project in its
WBS using the __
a. CPM
b. PERT
c. ICT
d. CPM
4. One can find out the variance and use the variance to analyze the various probabilistic
estimates pertaining to the project in ___ method.
a. CPM
b. CPM
c. ICT
d. PERT
a. ICT
b. PERT and SRA
7. This phase involves the study of inputs and outputs of the various project stages.
a. Marketing
b. Evaluation
c. Design
d. Analysis
8. This proposal contains the strategies adopted to market the product to the customers.
a. Marketing
b. Evaluation
c. Analysis
d. Design
a.
PMIS
b. EIS
c. DSS
d.
KBS
3. Assists the managers in doing what if analyses about project staffing, proposed staffing
changes and total allocation of resources is one of the aspect of ____
a. KBS
b. PMIS
c. EIS
d. DSS
a. KBS
b. DSS
c. PMIS
d. EIS
4. Provide information to the major stakeholders i.e. the right information at the right
time is one of the aspects of ____
a. KBS
b. PMIS
c. DSS
d. EIS
4. The perception of a manager in current trends in project management is to____
a. analyse project
6. involves using various analysis techniques and procedure to identify major external
factors or forces which could affect development process.
7 . _ is a process through which a project team passes on the details of any system as
recommendation for standardization. It acts as a business process element for the
company as a whole.
a. SCM
b. MRS
c. EIS
d. TPS
2. Effective integration of multiple systems like ERP, communication systems ,
documentation system and secure is an objective of __
a. TPS
b. SCM
c. MRS
d. EIS
3. Enhancement of participation level and empowerment level is one of the
objectives of ___
a. SCM
b. TPS
c. DSS
d. KBS
4. Increase in functional effectiveness of existing systems like ERP, Accounting
Software and Documentation like Financial reports/ Statements/ ISO 9000
Documents etc. is one of the objectives of ___
a. SCM
b. TPS
c. KBS
d. DSS
5. Increase in functional effectiveness of existing systems like ERP, Accounting
Software and Documentation like Financial reports/ Statements/ ISO 9000
Documents etc. is one of the objectives of ___
a. KBS
b. TPS
c. DSS
d. SCM
a. EIS
b. TPS
c.
MRS
d.
SCM
a. SCM
b. DSS
c. KBS
d. TPS
a. KBS
b. SCM
c. TPS
d. DSS
b. Population enumeration
c. Count.
d. Pass/Fail
3. In which instance would acceptance sampling not be appropriate
5. Process capability calculations take into account the process width and
a. Control limits
b. Process standard deviation
c. Process dispersion.
d. Specifications.
a. 5
b. 2
c. 4
d. 3
7. What type of control chart would be used to monitor the number of defects in the
output of a process for making rope?
a. c chart.
b. x-bar chart.
c. p chart.
d. R chart
8. Which of the following quality control sample statistics indicates a quality
characteristic that is an attribute?
a. variance
b. standard deviation
c. mean
d. proportion
Unit13 - 1 Mark Quiz Questions
1. A basic requirement for operating with low inventories in JIT systems is:
c. one unit
d. the economic run size
3. Inventory management requires two questions to be answered: How many and when.
JIT answers those two questions with:
a. empowering suppliers.
b. placing the buyers representatives in the suppliers factory.
c. replacing one supplier with many suppliers for the same supplies to assure
availability.
d. a lower cost replacement for JIT I.
5. Which is not a benefit of JIT?
a. Lower Inventories
b. Work Cells
c. Flexibility
6.Which of these groups would be least likely to resist conversion from a ROP/EOQ
inventory management systems to a JIT system?
a. Management
b. Workers
c. Customers
d. Vendors
a. Low inventories
b. A push system
c. Preventive maintenance
d. Problem solving
a. Manufacturing cells
b. Preventive maintenance
a. 4
b. 3
c. 7
d. 12
2. A system with an arrival rate of two per hour, a service time of 20 minutes, and
one server, would have a utilization of.
a. 10%
b. 40%
c. 67%
d. 33%
3. A three-step repair service with one server at each step would be an example of a:
4. For an infinite-source system with an arrival rate of 6 per hour (Poisson) and
service time of 6 minutes per customer (exponential), the average number being
served is:
a. .60
b. none of these
c. .10
d. 1.0
5. The term queue discipline refers to:
7. When the cost incurred by all customers is not the same, an appropriate queuing model
is:
a. low utilization
b. poor scheduling
3. If EOQ = 1,000 units, order costs are $200 per order, and sales total 5,000 units,
what is the carrying cost per unit?
a. ~$10
b. ~$100
c. ~$1,000
d. =$2
4. If EOQ = 40 units, order costs are $2 per order, and carrying costs are $.20 per
unit, what is the usage in units?
a. ~40 units.
b. =80 units.
c. ~16 units.
d. ~10 units
5. Sixty percent of Basket Wonders annual sales of $900,000 is on credit. If its year-
end receivables turnover is 4.5, the average collection period and the year-end
receivables are, respectively __________ Assume a 365day year
6. The credit policy of Milwaukee Brewski Breweries is 1/10, net 30. At present
25% of the customers take the discount. What would accounts receivable be if all
customers took the cash discount?
a. The greater the uncertainty associated with forecasted demand, the lower the
level of safety stock needed
b. The greater the risk of running out of stock, the larger the safety stock needed.
c. The lower the opportunity cost of the funds invested in inventory, the smaller the
safety stock needed.
d. The higher the profit margin per unit, the lower the safety stock necessary.
8. Which ratio might you be the most concerned with in analyzing a firms financial
leverage position?
a. Inventory turnover.
b. Return on equity.
c. Debt-to-total assets.
d. Acid-test.