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In this section of the test you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken
English. There are four parts to this section with special directions for each part.

PART I. Directions: There are three items in this part. For each item, you will see a picture on
your test paper and you will hear four short statements. The statements will be spoken TWO
TIMES. They will not be printed on your test paper, so you must listen carefully to understand
what the speakers say.

When you hear the four statements, look at the picture on your test paper and choose the
statement that best describes what you see in the picture. Then, on your answer sheet, find the
number of the question and mark your answer.
Look at the sample below. Now listen to the four statements.

Sample Answer A C D
Statement (B), “There’s a bookcase behind the man,” best
describes what you see in the picture. Therefore, you
should choose answer (B).
Now let’s begin with the picture marked number (1) on your
test paper.

1. 2.

PART II. Directions: There are four items in this part of the test. For each item, you will hear
a question or statement spoken in English followed by three responses, also spoken in English.
They will be spoken TWO TIMES. They will not be printed on your test paper, so you must
listen carefully to understand what the speakers say. You are to choose the best response to
each question or statement.

Now listen to a sample question.

You will hear : Sample Answer
You will also hear : B C

The best response to the question, “How are you?” is choice (A), “I’m fine. Thank you.”
Therefore you should choose answer (A).

Now let’s begin with question number (4) on your test paper.

4. Mark your answer on your answer sheet. 6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
5. Mark your answer on your answer sheet. 7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

PART III. Directions: There are four items in this part of the test. For each item you will hear
a short conversation between two people. You will hear the conversations TWO TIMES. They
will not be printed on your test paper, so you must listen carefully to understand what the
speakers say. On your test paper, you will read a question about each conversation. The
question will be followed by four answers. You are to choose the best answer to each question.

Now, let’s begin with question number (8) on your test paper.

8. What is probably the reason of Gloria’s 9. What did the man do?
absence? A. He went to the dentist.
A. She might be ill. B. He wanted to finish the report.
B. She wants to see the man. C. He left the office before noon.
C. She has trouble with her car. D. He gave the woman permission.
D. She has something to do this morning.

10. What is the man doing? 11. What is the conversation about?
A. He is reserving a room. A. A date.
B. He is checking in a hotel. B. A weekend.
C. He is staying at the hotel now. C. An invitation.
D. He is confirming his reservation. D. A new president.
PART IV. Directions: In this part of the test you will hear two short talks. Each will be spoken
TWO TIMES. They will not be printed on your test paper, so you must listen carefully to
understand what the speakers say.

Now let’s begin with short talk number (12) on your test paper.

12. What is this announcement about? 13. To whom is the announcement given?
A. Apology. A. All of us.
B. Vacation policy. B. All trainees.
C. Next term activity. C. Management.
D. Training manual. D. A number of you.

14. What is being advertised? 15. Which show is cheaper?

A. A theater. A. 4 o’clock.
B. A school. B. 6 o’clock.
C. A ticket. C. 8 o’clock.
D. A film. D. 10 o’clock.



In this part of the test you will have the chance to show how well you understand written
English. There are three parts to this section, with special directions for each part.

PART V. Directions: Questions 16 – 25 are incomplete dialogues. Four clauses/sentences,

marked (A), (B), (C), or (D), are given beneath each question. You are to choose the one
clause/sentence that best completes the dialogue. Then, on your answer sheet, find the
number of the question and mark your answer.

16. Ariq : It would be nice to go to Bandung after the National Exam.

Farhan : … We need refreshing.
A. I prefer Semarang to Bandung.
B. I don’t want to go with you.
C. I’m not going anywhere.
D. I agree with you.

17. Budi : Excuse me, could you tell me the way to the museum?
Bubu : Sure. …
A. Go straight and turn left. It’s next to the bank.
B. You can call a taxi. It won’t be expensive.
C. I’m sorry but I’m a new comer here.
D. It’s not quite far from here.

18. Hani : What does your little girl do in the morning?

Diane : Well, … She loves cartoons very much.
A. She plays with her friends.
B. She sometimes stays with me.
C. She’s been sleeping for about two hours.
D. She usually watches morning entertainments.

19. Yono : Good afternoon. …, please.

Receptionist : Certainly. When are you going to fly?
Yono : On Saturday.
A. I’m going to cancel my flight.
B. I want to confirm my order.
C. I need some information.
D. I’d like to book a seat.

20. Boss : Where is Mr. Tanaka? I didn’t see him for a couple of days.
Secretary : … The last time I met him, he got terrible cold.
A. He may be sick.
B. He might be busy.
C. He can’t be absent.
D. He should be here now.
21. Secretary : Radifa Prima Utama. May I help you?
David : Hello. Can I speak to Mr. Rafael. This is David of Advindo Company.
Secretary : Hold on, please. …
A. I’ll put you through.
B. Mr. Rafael is not in today.
C. I’d like to leave a message.
D. Mr. Rafael is having a meeting.

22. Diana : Hi, Anne. …

Anne : It was wonderful. I climbed the mountain and saw the sun set from the top.
A. Where did you go?
B. How are you doing?
C. How was your holiday?
D. What do you do on weekends?

23. Nani : Tomorrow is my sister’s birthday. We will make a small party at the café. …
Rita : I’d love to. What time is the party?
A. Can I invite you?
B. Would you like to come?
C. Would you mind inviting me?
D. Could you invite some friends?

24. Students : We’re worried about the National Exam.

Teacher : You have to be optimistic. And … in order to succeed.
A. you would fail
B. you have passed
C. you should study hard
D. you could have prepared

25. Anne : Why didn’t you come to my party? A lot of friends showed up.
Candy :…
A. I wish I got the invitation.
B. If I get the info, I will come.
C. Unless you tell me, I will be absent.
D. If I had known it, I would have come.

PART VI. Directions: In items 26 – 35, each item has four underlined words or phrases,
marked (A), (B), (C), (D). You are to identify the one underlined word or phrase that should be
corrected or rewritten, and mark your answer.

26. Son : Mom, there will be a football competition at 5 o’clock.

Should I go there with Willy?
Mother : All right. But don’t forget to finish your homework first.
27. Nani : What was the decision of the meeting yesterday?
Is there any good news about the salary?
Manager : Nothing special. But if I were the director, I will raise the salary.

28. Ary : Why didn’t you join the concert last Friday? That was fantastic.
Rina : Really? I’m sorry. I have to say that I’m not interesting in music.

29. Adi : You have been living in town for three years. How do you like it?
Fika : Well, I prefer a village than a town.

30. Manager : Have you got the report from Finance?

Secretary : Yes. It were delivered yesterday by Tono.

31. Tika : Mom, should you teach me how to swim?

Mother : Sure. I was one of the best swimmers at school. When will you start?

32. Adli : What is the more effective way to speak English fluently?
Arif : Well, it’s so simple. Just be active and practice it everyday.

33. Manager : Since we have two qualified candidates, it’s difficult to decide
whom will get the promotion.
Secretary : I agree with you. They all have good performance.

34. Nania : Why do you want to resign?

Titan : I want to concentrate on taking care of the children.
Nania : You would think it over. You had better discuss all the consequences.
35. Boy : What does your sister look like?
Girl : Well, she has tall, slim, and has long wavy hair.

PART VII. Directions: Questions 36 – 50 are based on a selection of reading materials, such
as notices, letters, forms, articles, and advertisements. You are to choose the one best answer
the questions (A), (B), (C), or (D). Answer all the questions following each reading selection on
basis of what is stated or implied in the selection.

Questions 36 - 38 refer to the following information.


To access streaming data, such as real-time audio and video, you must set network and
proxy settings for the Real Player application.
To modify Real Player settings, select Connection, then select Real Player settings.
On the Network and Proxy pages, define the following:
 Connection timeout – specify how long Real Player waits before reporting a network
connection failure. Increase the time if you frequently receive a time-out error.
 Server timeout – specify how long Real Player waits for a response from the media
server before disconnecting.
 Port range – Specify the port range that is used for receiving data.
 Use proxy – Select Yes, if you internet service provider requires that a proxy server
is used to connect to the internet.
 Host address – Enter the proxy server address.
 Port – Enter the port number the proxy number.

36. What do we have to do to access streaming data?

A. Select the video.
B. Set the network.
C. Use the internet.
D. Play the media.

37. How can we overcome the frequent connection failure?

A. By adding the amount of time.
B. By waiting for a timeout error.
C. By reselecting the settings.
D. By specifying the network.

38. “To modify Real Player settings, ...” (2nd sentence)

The synonym of the underlined word is ...
A. disconnect.
B. change.
C. provide.
D. access.
Questions 39 - 41 refer to the following description.

Sumatran rhinoceros
The Sumatran rhinoceros (Dicerorhinus sumatrensis) is the smallest rhino species.
It is also the most distinctive rhinoceros. It has been hunted a lot that it almost extinct.
There are less than 300 Sumatran rhinoceros surviving in Malaysia and Indonesia.
Between 1985 and 1995, the number of Sumatran rhinos declined by 50 percent because
of poaching and habitat destruction.

The Sumatran rhinoceros has unique gray or reddish-brown coat. It is believed to

be the only survivor of the lineage that included the woolly rhinoceros. Sumatran rhinos
stand up to 1.4 m (4.6 ft) at the shoulder and weigh up to 1,000 kg (2,200 lb). They
have folded skin, like the other Asian rhinos, except that it is covered with coarse, bristly
hair. The Sumatran is the only rhino in Asia with two horns. The front horn is usually the
longest, reaching a length of 90 cm (36 inches), and the rear one is sometimes so small
the animal looks as if it is single-horned.

Adapted from: Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2007. © 1993-2006 Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved.

39. What is the text about?

A. The African rhinoceros.
B. The Sumatran rhinoceros.
C. The number of Sumatran rhinos.
D. The most distinctive animals in Malaysia.

40. Between 1985 and 1995, what’s the percentage of the decrease of Sumatran rhinoceros?
A. 46.
B. 50.
C. 90.
D. 300.

41. They have folded skin…….(paragraph 2 sentence 4). The underlined word refers to:
A. Two horns.
B. Asian rhinos.
C. Sumatran rhinos.
D. The wooly rhinos.
Questions 42 - 44 refer to the following CV.

Hanif Dwinanto
0 899 0909 0111

2004-2007 Hotel and Tourism Academy “Mandiri”
2006 English for Tourism training
2005 Hotel training
2001-2004 “Pariwisata” Vocational School
2001-2004 “Happy English” English Course

2006-present Waiter in Cozy Restaurant
2005-2006 Kitchen partner in Ambarrukmo Restaurant
2004-2005 Waiter in Luxurious Restaurant

Good command of spoken and written English (TOEIC score of

42. What is kind of text is this?

A. A business letter.
B. A curriculum vitae.
C. An application letter.
D. An educational background.

43. Where does Hanif work now?

A. In Ambarukmo Restaurant.
B. In an English course.
C. In Cozy Restaurant.
D. In Mandiri Hotel.

44. For how long did Hanif join an English course?

A. One year.
B. Two years.
C. Three years.
D. Four years.
Questions 45 - 47 refer to the following business letter.

William & Son

906 Butterfly Drive, Henson, Tel: 4223568

To whom it may concern

Miss Paula Bush joined our company in January 1980. She is one of the most competent
employees we have.

As my Secretary and Office Manager she has proved extremely hard-working,

conscientious, honest, and tactful. She is a rapid typist, quick in dictation, accurate in
filing, and exact in keeping the company books. Further, she has a very pleasant character
and gets on well with all her colleagues.

Now that she is leaving us of her own free will to acquire further experience in her
particular field, it gives me great pleasure to recommend her as an intelligent and efficient
young lady.


45. Why was this testimonial made?

A. To enable William & Son to be generally recognized.
B. Because the director wasn’t satisfied with his staff.
C. To explain about Paula’s previous employment.
D. Because Paula wanted to be more intelligent.

46. Which of the following is NOT true about Paula’s personality?

A. Hard-working.
B. Unskilled.
C. Friendly.
D. Honest.

47. “... of her own free will to acquire further ...” (paragraph 3)
The synonym of the underlined word is ...
A. get.
B. send.
C. forget.
D. receive.
Questions 48 - 50 refer to the following table.

Rive Gauche
Smoked salmon $ 4.95
Brie and crackers $ 3.15
Beef tips au jus $ 14.95
Chicken Kiev $ 12.95
Grilled swordfish $ 16.95
Includes salad and vegetable
Coffee $ 1.50
Tea $ 1.50
Soft drinks $ 0.75
Ice cream $ 1.00
Chocolate cake $ 1.50
Fruit w/ cream (in season) $ 2.50
Tax and tip not included.

48. What is the above information about?

A. A list of menu.
B. Different kinds of drinks.
C. The price of fish and meat.
D. Taxes charged in Les Faires.

49. What item is available only at certain times of the year?

A. Fish. C. Fruit.
B. Salad. D. Cheese.

50. What is the synonym of the word “includes”?

A. Excludes. C. Costs.
B. Covers. D. Charges.


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