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INTERNAL MEDICINE BOARD REVIEW FLASHCARDS

General Internal Medicine


Includes 50 Flashcards for Board Exam prep

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KNOWMEDGE

INTERNAL MEDICINE BOARD REVIEW FLASHCARDS

General Internal Medicine

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This book contains 50 quick review General Internal Medicine flashcards written by the team of
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Question 1

Tumor marker CA 19-9 is associated with


which cancer?

Answer 1

Pancreatic cancer

Question 2

What cancer is associated with tumor


marker CA 125?

Answer 2

Ovarian cancer

Question 3

What cancer is associated with HPV 16


and HPV 18?

Answer 3

Cervical cancer

Question 4

What trimester in pregnancy is ideal for


air travel?

Answer 4

Second trimester

Question 5

What level is increased on bloodwork in


a patient with folate deficiency?

Answer 5

Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)

Question 6

What is the minimum timeframe that a


patient must live in a tropical country
before developing tropical sprue?

Answer 6

1 month

Question 7

What are 5 major medications that can


cause folate deficiency?

Answer 7

Phenytoin, Trimethoprim, Metformin,


Methotrexate and Sulfasalazine

Question 8

Which vitamin is most likely to be


deficient in a patient with celiac disease:
B1, B2, C, or D?

Answer 8

Vitamin D

Question 9

In addition to fat-soluable vitamins, what


else is not absorbed in patients with
celiac disease?

Answer 9

Folic acid, Iron, Vitamin B12

Question 10

Positive antibodies to tissue


transglutaminase suggests what
diagnosis?

Answer 10

Celiac disease

Question 11

What type of antidepressant is


imipramine?

Answer 11

Tricyclic antidepressant

Question 12

What is the first-line agent for major


depression?

Answer 12

The first-line agent for major depression


is a selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitor (SSRI).

Question 13
True or False: One of the most common
side effects of selective serontonin
reuptake inhibitors is sexual dysfunction
including decreased libido

Answer 13

True

Question 14

What type of antidepressant is


duloxetine?

Answer 14

Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake
inhibitor (SNRI)

Question 15

After a patient falls, what is the strongest


predictor of a fracture?

Answer 15

Presence or absence of osteoporosis

Question 16

At what age is osteoporosis screening


initiated in women?

Answer 16

65 years

Question 17

In addition to age greater than 65 years,


what are the risk factors for
osteoporosis?

Answer 17
Chronic glucocorticoid use, previous
fracture, low body weight (less than 127
lbs), cigarette smoking, excessive alcohol
consumption, family history of hip
fracture

Question 18

What are the 3 main effects of serotonin


syndrome?

Answer 18

Neuromuscular excitation, Autonomic


hyperactivity, and Altered mental status

Question 19

What is the most common diagnostic


feature of serotonin toxicity?

Answer 19

Clonus (usually at the ankle)

Question 20
Of the following 3 pain medications,
which is most commonly implicated in
the development of serotonin
syndrome? Oxycodone, Tramadol,
Hydrocodone/acetaminophen

Answer 20

Tramadol

Question 21
What is the likely diagnosis in individuals
who restrict their caloric intake to a
minimum because of the fear of gaining
weight and losing their ideal body
image?

Answer 21

Anorexia nervosa

Question 22

What are the main signs and symptoms


of anorexia nervosa?

Answer 22
Symptoms include dry skin, cold
intolerance, and soft downy hair (also
known as lanugo). Signs include
hypothermia, hypotension and
bradycardia

Question 23

What is the preferred treatment for


eating disorders?

Answer 23
Cognitive behavioral therapy. If
necessary after trying psychotherapy,
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
(SSRIs) may be prescribed.

Question 24

At what age should cholesterol screening


be initiated in males?

Answer 24

35 years of age

Question 25

At what age is colorectal cancer


screening initiated in patients without
family history of colorecal cancer?

Answer 25

50 years

Question 26

According to the latest guidelines by the


USPSTF, when should Pap smears be
initiated?

Answer 26

Age 21, regardless of sexual history

Question 27

What are the major reversible causes of


dementia?

Answer 27
Hypothyroidism, Vitamin B12 deficiency,
Depression, Polypharmacy, Normal
pressure hydrocephalus, or infections
like Syphilis, Lyme disease, Meningitis
and Whipples disease

Question 28

What are the major degenerative causes


of dementia?

Answer 28
Multi-infarct dementia, Dementia with
Lewy bodies, Parkinsons,
Frontotemporal dementia (Picks
disease) and Alzheimers dementia

Question 29

How are reflexes affected in Subacute


combined degeneration and Multiinfarct dementia?

Answer 29

Increased reflexes

Question 30

Which type of anti-psychotic (atypical or


typical) is preferred due to the reduced
risk of tardive dyskinesia?

Answer 30

Atypical anti-psychotic

Question 31

What type of anti-psychotic (atypical or


typical) are Haloperidol and
Fluphenazine?

Answer 31

Typical anti-psychotic

Question 32

What are some examples of symptoms


related to tardive dyskinesia?

Answer 32
Involuntary movements of the trunk and
lower face including tongue rolling, lip
smacking, facial grimacing, and repetitive
chewing

Question 33

Both postural and kinetic components


are seen in which tremor?

Answer 33

Essential tremor

Question 34

What is the typical frequency range of


essential tremors?

Answer 34

7-10 Hertz

Question 35

What are the main treatments for


essential tremors?

Answer 35

Propranolol, Primidone, Gabapentin,


Alprazolam, or Topiramate

Question 36
What are the 3 main indications for
prescribing prophylactic medication to
patients experiencing migraine
headaches?

Answer 36

Beta blockers, Calcium channel blockers,


Riboflavin (Vitamin B2), Topiramate,
Amitriptyline

Question 37

Which tricyclic antidepressant is typically


used for prophylaxis against migraines?

Answer 37

Amitriptyline

Question 38

What type of urinary incontinence


occurs because of increased detrusor
bladder activity?

Answer 38

Urge incontinence

Question 39

What agents can be used in the


treatment of urge incontinence?

Answer 39

Anti-cholinergic agents (e.g. oxybutynin,


tolteridine, and imipramine)

Question 40

What do the 5 R's represent in the


motivational interviewing technique for
smoking cessation counseling?

Answer 40

Relevance, Risk, Reward, Roadblock,


Repetition

Question 41

HLA-2 allele presents to which CD


marker?

Answer 41

HLA-2 allele presents to CD4 marker

Question 42

HLA-1 allele presents to what CD


marker?

Answer 42

HLA-1 allele presents to CD8 cell marker

Question 43

(CD4 or CD8) is involved in cell mediated


immunity.

Answer 43

CD4 is involved in cell mediated


immunity

Question 44

What signs and symptoms are seen in


patients using phencyclidine in low
doses?

Answer 44

Loss of coordination, slurred speech and


loss of balance

Question 45

What signs and symptoms are seen in


patients using phencyclidine in high
doses?

Answer 45

Depersonalization--a sensation of living


a dream, hallucinations and hostile or
aggressive behavior.

Question 46

To what category of drugs does


phencyclidine belong?

Answer 46

NMDA receptor antagonists

Question 47

In overflow incontinence, is the detrusor


activity increased, decreased, or the
same as unaffected patients?

Answer 47

Detrusor activity is decreased

Question 48

Which type of urinary incontinence is


defined by increased detrusor (bladder
muscle) activity?

Answer 48

Urge incontinence

Question 49
If behavioral therapy (e.g. frequent
voiding, biofeedback) fails to control
urge incontinence, what is the mainstay
of pharmacological treatment?

Answer 49

Anti-cholinergics (e.g. oxybutinin or


tolterodine)

Question 50
What type of urinary incontinence is due
to increased intra-abdominal pressure
overwhelming the urinary sphincter
tone?

Answer 50

Stress incontinence

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