Model Paper
Microbiology
MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY
Please use a dark pencil/pen to complete the test. Read the instructions at the
begining carefully. This is a practice test series in Medical Microbiology.
Please Note: There is a Negative Marking of (-1) for each incorrect response.
1. Case Study:
A 39-year-old man presents with fever, fatigue, headache and black discharge
from his nose. On physical examination, swelling is observed in one of his eyes.
The patient also complaints of persistent headache behind the affected eye. What
could be the most probable diagnosis?
A Mucormycosis
C Coccidioidomycosis
B Blastomycosis
D Cryptococcosis
C 2 and 3
B 1 and 3
D 1 and 2
C thioredoxin
B toxin A of pseudomonas
aeruginosa
D rImmunotoxin of P. pastoris
C Cryptosporidium
B Vibrio cholerae
D Schistosomiasis cercariae
C plasmodium malariae
B Cyclospora cayetensis
D Perkinsus marinus
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Series I-C
Model Paper
Microbiology
C Allergic reaction
D antibody-dependent
cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)
C scrofuloderma
B Lichen scrofulosorum
D erythema nodosum
D histiocytes
B tissue macrophage
E Hofbauer cell
C dendritic cell
10. Not true about Granuloma inguinale
A diagnosis usually made by Frie
test
B caused by Calymmatobacterium
G.
C Cryptococcus neoformans
B Madurella mycetomatis
D Candida albicans
C Cryptococcus neoformans
B Aspergillus fumigatus
D Coccidioides immitis
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Series I-C
Model Paper
Microbiology
B sputum cultures
E ELISA
D Pikes medium
E Stuart medium
D chocolate agar
E Nutrient broth
D Enterobactor
B Staphylococcus
E E.coli
B 10-3CFU/ml of urine
D 10-7CFU/ml of urine
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Series I-C
Model Paper
Microbiology
B lupus vulgaris
E lichen scrofulosorum
C papulonecrotic
22. All of the following tests are used in laboratory diagnosis of hydatidosis except:
A counterimmunoelectrophoresis
B indirect haemagglutination
E indirect immunofluorescence
assay
C Q Fever
B Cysticercosis
D Brucellosis
D Q Fever
B Coccidioidomycosis
E Neisseria meningitidis
C Tularemia
25. Type II hypersensitivity reaction is associated with
A Henoch-Schnlein purpura
C Goodpasture's syndrome
C Both
B tuberculoid form
D None
27. Which of the following organisms is the largest intestinal parasite of humans?
A Entamoeba hartmanni
D Balantidium coli
B Entamoeba histolytica
E Escherichia coli
C Entamoeba coli
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Series I-C
Model Paper
Microbiology
C Lyme disease
B Relapsing fever
B Rotavirus D causes
gastroenteritis >90% in humans
C single-stranded RNA virus
30. Hydatid cyst is caused by the larval form of which of the following organism?
A Taenia solium
D Hymenolepsis nana
B Echinococcus
E Toxocara canis
C Diphyllobothrium latum
31. Organism that causes amoebic dysentery in humans
A Entamoeba coli
C Entamoeba histolytica
B Balantidium coli
D Entamoeba dispar
32. Which organism constitutes about 30% of all gut flora (microflora of the gut)?
A Bacteroides
D Esch. coli
B Clostridium
E Lactobacillus
C Peptococcus
33. The virus that causes Molluscum contagiosum belongs to which family?
A Picornaviridae
C Parvoviridae
B Poxviridae
D Orthomyxoviridae
C Polyomavirus
D Cytomegalovirus
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Series I-C
Model Paper
Microbiology
C laboratory diagnosis is by
microscopy or PCR only
C IgD
B IgM
D IgG
C IgG
B IgE
D IgM
C Rickettsia rickettsii
B Cryptococcus neoformans
D Coxiella burnetii
C Haemophilus ducreyi
B Mycoplasma genitalium
C Human papillomavirus
B Human herpesvirus 6
C papilloma virus
B BK virus
D parvovirus
C dog
B cyclops
D fish
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Series I-C
Model Paper
Microbiology
C Orientia tsutsugamushi
B Rickettsia prowazeki
D Borrelia burgdorferi
45. Which type of human papilloma virus (HPV) is classified as low-risk mucosal type
HPV?
A type 6,11,40
D type 16 and 18
B type 6,16,18
C type 30,31,22
46. Swimming pool granuloma is caused by
A Mycobacterium fortuitum
C Mycobacterium ulcerans
B Mycobacterium chelonei
D Mycobacterium abscessus
C C. neoformans
B Rhizopus
D Absidia
C Tinea corporis
B Tinea capitis
D Tinea pedis
C 70 kDa
B 56 kDa
D 72 kDa
C Graves' disease
B Behet's disease
D Myasthenia gravis
C 2[21+2k or 2]+ J
D 2[22+2k or 2]+ J
C sIgA
B IgD
D IgM
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Series I-C
Model Paper
Microbiology
C Paragonimus westermani
B Fasciolopsis buski
D Leucochloridium paradoxum
C anaphylaxis
B serum sickness
D Multiple sclerosis
55. Which of the following is not an infection transmitted to man by tick bites?
A Rocky Mountain Spotted fever
C Babesiosis
B Relapsing fever
D Q fever
D R. prowazekii
B Ehrlichia chaffeensis
E R. typhi
C Coxiella burnetti
57. Which of the following organism is responsible for causing Q fever?
A Rickettsia rickettsii
C Coxiella burnetii
B Borrelia burgdorferi
D Amblyomma americanum
C oligoarthritis
B orchitis
D conjunctivitis
C Amoebic dysentery
B Ulcerative colitis
D Campylobacteriosis
C Coronaviridae
B Flaviviridae
D Togaviridae
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Series I-C
Model Paper
Microbiology
C Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
B Stevens-Johnson syndrome
D Spring catarrh
C Aedes albopictus
B Anopheles gambiae
D Aedis egypti
C interleukin-13
B interleukin-17
D interleukin-15
C Sporotrichosis
B Coccidioidomycosis
D Histoplasmosis
65. Which of the following immunoglobulins is/are used to detect or diagnose dengue
virus infection using ELISA?
A IgM
C IgA
B IgD
D IgG
Dengue virus
Hepatitis A virus
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis C virus
SARS
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
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Picornavirus
dsDNA-RT
Flaviviridae
Coronavirus
+
ssRNA
Series I-C
Model Paper
Microbiology
67. Most common cause of acute viral hepatitis in India is due to:
A Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
68. All of the following features are characteristics of HIV infection except:
A maculopapular rash
C lymphocytosis
B fever
B hepatitis
D Rheumatoid arthritis
C Addison's disease
B toxoplasmosis
C plasmacyte
B hemocyte
D plasmalogen
72. Which of the following statements about Giardia lamblia is/are incorrect?
A colonizes the large intestine
C lacks mitochondria
D lacks microtubules
C IL-6
B IL-1
D IL-4
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Series I-C
Model Paper
Microbiology
B itraconazole is an effective
treatment
D is a zoonotic infection
C Spilopsyllus cuniculi
B Dasypsyllus gallinulae
D Xenopsylla cheopsis
B formation inhibited by
interleukin-10
D activated by interleukin-12
C formation of zygotes
D erythrocytic schizogony
79. A patient with cancer on chemotherapy has a platelet count of 46,000 per
microliter. Which of the following agents do you think is the best to treat
thrombocytopenia?
A lithium carbonate
C interleukin-2
B interleukin-4
D interleukin-11
C Blastomycosis
B Sporotrichosis
D Tuberculosis
81. Arrange the items in their correct order of events/sequence regarding plasmodium
parasite:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
merozoites
zygotes
trophozoites
schizonts
sporozoites
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Series I-C
Model Paper
Microbiology
82. All of the following agents are mycotic mytotic inhibitors except:
A neoxaline
C aurantiamine
B griseofulvin
D colchicine
83. Which of the following statements about the mechanism of action of Amphotericin
B is correct?
A interfere with peptide chain
synthesis
84. An acute adverse reaction characterized by "shake and bake" effect may seen
with the use of
A quinine
C penicillin
B amphotericin B
D amoxicillin
C ascospore
B zygospore
D basidiospore
B coccidioidomycosis
E cat-scratch disease
C aspiration pneumonia
87. Fungus that form blastospores:
A saccharomyces cerevisiae
C candida albicans
B cryptococcus neoformans
D pneumocystis jirovecci
C chlamydospores
B sporangiospores
D basidiospores
C movement
B plasmodium
D presence of mitochondria
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Series I-C
Model Paper
Microbiology
90. Antibiotics can be extracted from all of the following organisms except:
A Fuligo septica
C Ganoderma lucidum
B Aspergillus terreus
D Penicillium patulum
C 1 and 3
B 2 and 3
D 1, 2, and 3
94. The vector which acts in mechanical transmission of Japanese encephalitis virus
A Culex titraeniorhynchus
C Aedes vexans
B Aedes aegypti
D Culex vishnui
95. Match the following causative organisms with the disease they cause:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Arena virus
Bunyaviridae
Hantavirus
Nairovirus
Orbivirus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
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Series I-C
Model Paper
Microbiology
96. Which of the following statements regarding Natural killer cells (NK cells) and
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL) aptly distinguish the former with the latter?
A NK cells can act in absence of
trigger response from MHC
97. Not true about the lysogenic cycle and lytic cycle of Bacteriophage:
A lysogenic cycle is avirulent or
temperate
Woronin body
A. Candida albicans
B.
C.
D.
E.
Aflatoxin B1
Ergot alkaloids
Yeast
Dimorphic fungi
B.
C.
D.
E.
Histoplasma capsulatum
Aspergillus flavus
Aspergillus fumigatus
Claviceps purpurea
D Epstein-Barr virus
B adenovirus
E HHV8
C HPV
100. A base triplet of 3'-TAC-5' in antisense DNA strand most likely is:
A 3'-UAG-5' base triplet in mRNA
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