ASSORTED

Difficulty Level: EASY

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1. It is the ultimate fact to be established in the criminal or even civil litigations.
A.
Evidence
B.
Proof
C.
Factum probans
D.
Factum probandum
2. It is any evidence, whether oral or documentary, the probative value of which is not bases on
the personal knowledge of the witness, but on the knowledge of some other person non on the
witness stand.
A.
Confession
B.
Acknowledgement
C.
Admission
D.
Hearsay evidence
3. It is means the adjudication of the court that the accused is guilty or is not guilty of the offense
charge against the latter.
A.
Judgment
B.
Prosecution
C.
Verdict
D.
Promulgation
4. These are the things to be search, EXCEPT:
A.
Property subject of the offense
B.
Property stolen or fruits of the crime.
C.
Intended to be used for committing an offense.
D.
Personal property of the subject person
5. This is otherwise known as the anti-graft and corrupt practices act.
A.
R.A. No. 3019
B.
ACT NO. 3815
C.
B.P No. 22
D.
R.A. 9262
6. It is committed by more than three armed persons for the purpose of robbery or kidnapping for
extortion.
A.
Robbery in band
B.
Brigandage
C.
Carnappers
D.
Theft
7. It is a formal or regular combat previously concerted between two parties in the presence of
two or more seconds.
A.
Duel
B.
Dual
C.
Challenger
D.
Instigators
8. These are the elements of the crime of parricide, EXCEPT:
A.
A person is killed
B.
The deceased is killed by the accused
C.
The deceased is father, mother, or child
D.
The relationship must be real and legitimate
9. It is a swift attack, accompanied by violence, intimidation, threat, strategy or stealth, directed
against duly constituted authorities.
A.
Rebellion
B.
Sedition
C.
Coup d etat
D.
Disloyalty
10. This is otherwise known as the Revised Penal Code of the Philippines.
A.
Act No. 3815
B.
Presidential Decree No. 1508
C.
Administrative Order No. 94
D.
Act No. 3851
11. It is a single crime consisting of series of acts arising from one criminal action.
A.
Complex crimes
B.
Continuing crime
C.
Compound crime
D.
Impossible crime
12. It is a minor who is over nine (9) years, but is under eighteen (18) years of age at the time of
commission of an offense.
A.
Juvenile delinquents B.
Youthful offenders
C.
Delinquent minors
D.
Delinquent children
13. These are the requirements of alternative circumstances, EXCEPT:
A.
Relationship
B.
Intoxication
C.
Degree of education D.
Drug addiction
14. Factum probans means __.

A. preponderance of evidence
B. ultimate fact
C. evidentiary fact
D. sufficiency of
15. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one
generation to another.
A. inheritance
B. heritage
C. pedigree
D. culture
16. Deliberate planning of act before execution.
A. Treachery
B. evident premeditation
C. ignominy
D. cruelty
17. The willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of affirmation, administered by
authority of law on a material matter.
A. libel
B. falsification
C. perjury
D. slander
18. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker in
the execution of his criminal plan.
A. Misfeasance
B. entrapment
C. inducement
D. instigation
19. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can make known
their perception to others.
A. Suspects
B. witnesses
C. victims
D. informers
20. The Revised Penal Code was based on the
A. Spanish penal code
B. English penal code
C. American penal code
21. R.A. 6975 is known as theA PNP law
B PNP law of 1991
C DILG act of 1990
D PNP act of 1990
E DILG act of 1991
22. It refers to the weakest link in the security chain of an organization
A Documents
B Protective Cabinets
C Perimeter Barriers
D Personnel
23. Under the provision of R.A. 6975, who among the following is qualified for enlistment in
the PNP?
A A, who is under 21 years old
B B, who is 1 day older than 30 years old
C C, not a criminology student but earned more than 72 college units
D D, a female applicant who is standing only 1 centimeter below 52
E None of these
24. What is the compulsory retirement for PNP officers?
A 50 years old

B 55 years old
C 56 years old
D 58 years old
E 60 years old
25. Which of these pertains to the examination of the level of risk in the organization?
A Risk management
B Risk administration
C Risk analysis
D Risk interpretation
26. What it the type of lock that can be opened by pressing a series of numbered buttons in
the proper sequence?
A Combination lock
B Padlock
C None of these
D Code-operated lock
E Card-operated lock
27. What is the process of destroying a document which is no longer significant in the
organization?
A Retrieval
B Purging
C None of these
D Disposition
E Transfer
28. What stage new employees would receive detailed presentation of personnel security
policy?
A Security promotion
B Security reminders
C Orientation and training
D Refresher conference
E None of these
29. What is the kind of intelligence which is primarily long range in nature with little,
practical, immediate operational value?
A Strategic intelligence
B National intelligence
C Line intelligence
D Counter intelligence
E Combat intelligence
30. Knowledge communicated by others which can be obtained through personal study,
investigation, research and observation is called
A Intelligence
B Information
C Reliable source
D A1 information
E All of the above
31. The feeling of would be criminals that policemen are everywhere creates fear among
potential criminals. This can be explained by A. Police presence
C. High visibility patrol
B. Psychology of omnipresence
D. Overt patrol
32. Modern day measurement of crime solution efficiency and effectiveness of the police is
based on A. Number of criminals arrested
C. Police follow-ups
B. Number of crimes solved
D. Absence of crime
33. One below is an obvious disadvantage of mark police car.
A. Easy identification by the offender
B. Slow response
C. Expensive due to high cost of gasoline
D. Policeman lack agility to chase suspects

34. In studying the anatomy of crime, a crime will take place if all the three elements or
ingredients are present at the same time and place. The three basic elements of crime are
opportunity, means, and A. resistance to temptation
B. motive
C. tendency D. situation
35. Who among the following exercises the power to revoke, for cause, licenses issued to
security guards?
A. Chief of the PNP
C. Undersecretary for Peace and Order
B. Secretary, DILG
D. Chairman of the NAPOLCOM
36. The amount and nature of the demands of the police service are not the same on all of
the three (3) shifts. It is therefore necessary to make available maximum manpower when at
the time, the police, is of the greatest demand. This is organization by A. clientele B. purpose C. time D. process
37. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis,
integration, and
interpretation of all available information which concerns
one or more aspects of criminal
activity and which concerns one or more aspects of criminal activity and which is immediately or
potentially significant to police planning.
A. investigation
B. information
C. data
D. intelligence
38. The father of organized military espionage was:
A. Alphonse Bertillon
B. Alexander the Great
C. Jonathan Wild
D. Fredrick the great
39. CCTV means __________.
A. Corner Camera Television
B. Closed Circuit Television
C. Closed Camera Televison
D. Camera Close Television
40. The word Jemaah Islamiya also means?
A. Islamic Leaders
B. Religious Revolutionaries
C. Islamic Congregation
D. The Lamb of God
41. The continues accountability of persons handling evidences, and having responsibility of
taking care and preserving the evidences from the time it was found until brought to court for
presentation is called
A. Chain of events
B. Key events
C. Chain of custody of evidence
D. Chain of command
42. The SC ruled the illegally obtained evidence is inadmissible in state criminal prosecutions in
the famous case of
E. Miranda vs Arizona
F. Otit vs Jeff
G. Mapp vs Ohio
H. Milkey vs Wett
43. In England, he was a buckle maker then a brothel operator; a master criminal who became
Londons most effective criminal investigator. He was the most famous THIEF-CATCHER in
1720s.
I. Alexander Mocanochie
J. Jonathan Wild
K. Billy Cook
L. John Howard
44. It symbolized by letter X in the fingerprint classification.
M. Ulnar Loop
N. Plain arch
O. Accidental whorl
P. Tented arch
45. The major component of the polygraph machine are, except
Q. PNEUMOGRAPH

2.

R. CARDIO-SPHYMOGRAPH
S. GALVANOGRAPH
T. KYMOGRAPH
U. PEN AND INKING SYSTEM
46. It is a scientific diagnostic instrument used to record physiological changes in the blood
pressure, pulse rate, respiration and skin resistance of an examinee under controlled condition.
V. Lie detection
W. Polygraph
X. Polygraph examination
Y. Truth serum
47. The study of handwriting to determine one's personality traits is called
A. handwriting analysis
B. graphology
C. dactyloscopy
D. fecalysis
48. It is a kind of handwriting that is characterized by being connected in which one letter
is joined to the next.
A. Script
B. Block
C. Vigorous
D. Cursive
49. An autopsy report is an example of what kind of evidence?
A. documentary
B. deposition C. experimental
D. public report
50. What is the stiffening of a certain group of muscles occurring at the moment of death, usually
associated with violent deaths due to extreme nervous tension, or even fatigue?
A. cold stiffening
B. lifting
C. cadaveric spasm D. rigor mortis
51. The kind of protein found in human hair is referred to as A. Fibrinogen
B. Keratin
C. Lecithin
D. Chlorine
52. The known type of alcohol obtained from the destructive distillation of wood that can cause
blindness to a victim is
A. isopropyl alcohol B. ethyl alcohol
C. methyl alcohol
D. butanol
53. What type of poison gas known to have the odor of rotten egg?
A. CO
B. C02
C. H2S
D. 02
54. Some animals and insects are dangerous due to poisonous substances they carry. In the study
of poisons, what is the poisonous substance derived from a bullfrog?
A. Picrotoxin
B. Bufotoxin
C. Dilantin
D. Dexedrine
55. The study of the identification and characterization of body fluids as semen, blood and saliva
is called A. Semenology
B. Serology
C. Posology
D. Biology
56. The medical dissection and examination of a body in order to determine the cause of death is
called
A. Anthropological examination
B. Exhumation
C. Autopsy
D. Forensic Pathology
57. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which appears to go beyond a persons
defensive power.
a. Fear
b. Stimuli
c. Response
d. Reaction
58. The forking or dividing of one line to two or more branches.

e. Ridge
f. Island
g. Delta
h. Bifurcation
59. It is based on the maxim in vino veritas, in wine there is truth.
A. Hypnotism
B. Narco-analysis
C. Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverages
D. Administration of truth serum
60. Kymograph drives the chart paper under the recording pen simultaneously at the rate of
_________ per minute.
A. 5-11 inches

C. 5-8 inches

B. 6-12 inches

D. 7-12 inches

61. It is an activity that collects facts to accomplish the three fold aims, i.e., to identify, to locate
the guilty party, and to provide evidence for his guilt.
A.

investigation

B.

crime investigation

C.

crime scene search

D.

criminal investigation

62. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible in a court of law if it was
made in the presence of a counsel
of his own choice and must be in
A.

the presence of a fiscal

B.

the presence of a police investigator

C.

writing

D.

front of a judge

63. The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.

A. Traffic
B.

Flight

C. Trip
D.

Journey

64. This is any person who pays for, raises or supplies money for, or underwrites any of the
illegal activities prescribed by R.A. No. 9165.
A.

employee

B.

caretaker

C.

financier

D.

lookout

65. Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly; it is either set for revenge or self
aggrandizing; or set by psychotic fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
A.

group fire setter

B.

arson for profit

C.

fire starter

D.

solitary fire setter

66. It is a cluster of characteristic reaction and behavior of varying intensity, depending on the
amount of drug taken and length of time used which ensue upon abrupt cessation of drug upon
the body has physical dependence.
A.

rehabilitation of abuser

B.

treatment of abuser

C.

withdrawal symptoms

D.

diagnosis of abuser

67. It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an acknowledgement

of guilt.
A. Admission
B.

Confession

C.

Deposition

D. Accusation
68. An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation.
A. initial investigation
B.custodial investigation
C.secondary investigation
D.follow-up investigation
69. Any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
A.

controlling

B.

abatement

C.

fire fighting

D.

preventing

70. A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a different character to the same
point.
A.

Corroborative evidence

B.

Circumstantial evidence

C.

Direct evidence

D.

Real evidence

71. It is characterized as a structured group of three or more persons existing for a period of
time and acting in concert with the aim of committing one or more serious crimes or offenses.
A.

organized crime

B.

syndicated crime

C.

notorious criminal

D.

transnational crime

72. This is an Act Defining the Crime of Money Laundering, Providing Penalties Therefore, and
for Other Purposes.
A.

R.A. No. 9610

B.

R.A. No. 9160

C.

R.A. No. 9106

D.

R.A. No. 9061

73. It may be defined as an articles and material which are found in connection with an
investigation and which in establishing the identity of perpetrator or the circumstances which the
crime was committed, or assist in the discovery of facts.
A.

physical evidence

B.

clue materials

C.

minute objects

D.

minute details

74. This refers to the number of persons who handle the physical evidence between the time of
commission of the alleged offense and the ultimate disposition of the case should be kept to a
minimum.
A.

protecting evidence

B.

chain of custody

C.

evidence preservation D.

securing evidence

75. This refers to the offenders pattern of committing a crime.

A.

modus operandi

B.

motive & intent

C.

profiling

D.

characteristics

76. It is a file of photograph of arrested individuals which usually includes full-face and mug
shots along with detailed physical description of subject persons.
A.

rogues gallery

C.

fingerprint file

B.
D.

modus-operandi file

index card file

77. It is an investigative practice of placing the suspect within a group of people for the purpose
of being viewed by eyewitnesses.
A.

police line-up

B.

identification parade

C.

all of these

D.

none of these

78. It is entitled as an Act Defining Certain Rights of a Person Under Custodial Investigation,
Prescribing Penalties for the Violators Thereof, and for Other Purposes.
A.

RA 9262

B.

RA 7438

C.

RA 7659

D.

RA 8553

79. An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law against illegal drugs.
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
C. Dangerous Drug Board
B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs
D. Food and Drug Administration
80. Another term for tailing.
A.Impersonating
B.Backing
C.Supporting
D.Shadowing
81. Quetelet and Guerry are the leaders of the criminological approach which considers both
geographical and social factors as an attribute to crime. What is the approach they developed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Cartographic school
Sociological school
Environmental school
Psychological school
Ecological school

82. The theory of criminology, which maintains that the person commit crimes are, behaves
criminally mainly because he or she is being possessed by evil spirit or something of natural
force that controls his/her behavior is called:
a. Divine will theory

c. Classical theory

b. Demonological theory

d. All of these

83. The term white-collar crime was coined by

a. E. Sutherland
b. R. Quinney

c. E. Durkheim
d. C. Darwin

84. A person who is small-boned, fat, short, easy-going and craves for comfort and lifestyle is
__________
a. Endomorph

b. Ectomorph c. Octomorph

d. Mesomorphic

85. A PNP Regional Director must have the rank of ___________

a. P/Director

C. P/Senior Superintendent

b. P/Superintendent

D. P/Chief Superintendent

86. Conflicts and their behavioral outcomes are classified as follows EXCEPT:
A. Avoidance-approach conflict
B. Approach-avoidance conflict
C. Avoidance-avoidance conflict
D. Approach-approach conflict
87. It is referred to as sexual gratification by watching nude woman or man.
A. Exhibitionism
B. Necrophilia

C. Voyeurism
D. Fetishism

88. It means the orderly and organized physical movement of elements or units of the PNP
within the province, city or municipality for purpose of employment.
A. Deploy

B. Employ

C. Sent or mission

D. Assign

89. He espoused the theory that poor physical condition plus a defective state of mind were
determining factors in the criminal personality
A. Cesare Beccaria
B. Charles Goring

C. John Locke
D. Jeremy Bentham

90. There is _______ if the killing was considered beforehand and that it was motivated by more
than a simple desire to engage in an act of violence.
A. Implied malice
B. Deliberation

C. Express malice
D. Premeditation

91. The PNP was working for the return of their military ranks under the PNP Reform Bill. The
said bill was signed into law as RA 8551 and the existing police ranks are maintained. What is
the equivalent military rank of a P/Chief superintendent?
A. Major General

C. Lieutenant Colonel

B. Colonel

D. Brigadier General

92. These are written allegations of the parties of their respective claims and defenses submitted
to the court for trial and judgment.
A. Pleadings B. Notice

C. Motion

D. Complaint

93. Generally "insanity" is used to describe legally harmful behavior perpetrated under
circumstances in which the actor did not know the nature of quality of his act or did not know
right from wrong. This explanation was formulated in England in 1843 based on
A. Social Psychological School
C. Sociological School
B. "M Naghten Rule"
D. Socialist School of Criminology
94. Science concerned with improving the quality of human off springs.
a.

genetics

b. eugenics

c.

criminology

d. heredity

95. The mental capacity to distinguish right from wrong.

a. discernment

b. morality

c. ethics

d. imbecility

96. Which of the following is not a victimless crime?

a. vagrancy
c. illegal detention

b. illegal gambling
d. illegal possession of prohibited drugs

97. It refers to the conscience of man.

a. ego

b. id

c. super ego

d. spirit

98. The major function of the PROSECUTION component of the Criminal Justice System.
a. enforce the laws of the land
b. rehabilitate prisoners
c. represent the government in criminal cases
d. sentencing of the accused
99. A phenomena in a hostage situation where the hostages become sympathetic to the hostage
takers.
a. Oslo Syndrome

b. Stockholm Syndrome

c. Hostage Syndrome

d. Helsinki Syndrome

100. As a general rule, police officers are not permitted or allowed to engage in any other
business or calling.
a. bribery

b. moonlighting

c. neglect of duty

d. misconduct

101. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to suspend the execution of a penalty,
reduce the sentence and extinguish criminal liability.
A. Parole
B. Executive clemency
C. Pardon
D. Presidents clemency

102. Operation conducted by the BJMP wherein a prisoner maybe checked at any time. His
beddings, lockers and personal belongings may also be opened at anytime, in his presence,
whenever possible. This practice is known as:
A. Check and balance
B. S.O.P.
C. Inventory
D. Operation Greyhound
103. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances.
E. Murder
F. Brigandage
G. Rape
H. Impeachment
104. For amnesty to be granted, there should be __.
I. Recommendation from U.N.
J. Recommendation from C.H.R.
K. Application from C.H.R
L. Concurrence of the congress
105. It is a penalty wherein a convicted person shall not be permitted to enter the place
designated in the sentence or within the radius therein specified, which shall not be more than
250 and not less than 25 kilometers from the place designated.
M. Fine
N. None of these
O. P22.00/day
P. P19.00/day
106. Giving punishment to a person so to serve as an example to others is the theory of
Q. Self-defense
R. Social defense
S. Exemplary
T. Equality
107. The first workhouse in England (1557-1576).
A. Singsing prison
B. Bridewell
C. Alcatraz
D. Walnut Street Jail
108. Forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT
U. Computation
B. Amnesty
C. Reprieve
D. Probation
109. Can a probationer pursue a prescribed secular study or vocational training while on
probation?
a. Neither
B. No
C. None of these
D. Yes
110. All persons in custody shall, before final conviction, be entitled to bail as a matter of
_____________.
A.Preference
B. Privilege
C. Right
D. Choice
111. He opened Borstal prisons, considered that best reformatory institutions for young
offenders.
A.MaconochieB. Sir Walter Crofton
C. Z. R. Brokway
D. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Bris
112. ___________ is an act of grace and the recipient is not entitled to it as a matter of right.
A.Pardon
B. Parole
C. Probation
D. None of these
113. It is a temporary stay of execution of sentence
A.Reprieve
B. Commutation
C. Pardon
D. Amnesty
114. When shall probation order take effect?
a. Three days after issuance
C. Upon its issuance
b. Three days prior to issuance
D. 72 hours after issuance
115. The most common problem of the national prison is
b. Excessive number of escapes
C. Overcrowding
c. Disagreement about their mess
D. Lack of adequate funding
116. The ________ century may be considered as the period of transition from corporal
punishment to imprisonment.
A. 16th
B. 17th
C. 15th
D. 18th

117.

Probation may not be revoked unless

A.A hearing is held
B. All of these
C. Notice is given
D. A violation is alleged
118. No prisoner shall be made to serve more than
a. 2 times
B. 4 times
C. 3 times
D. 5 times
119. The period of deducted sentence granted to a prisoner who escaped on the occasion of
disorder arising from conflagration, earthquake or catastrophe where he voluntarily surrendered
within 48 hours following the issuance of a proclamation announcing the termination of such
disorder.
A.2/5 period of sentence
B. 1/3 period of sentence
C. period of sentence
D. 1/5 period of sentence
120. Who among the following is a provincial prisoner?
A. A prisoner serving a term below six (6) years
B. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) years and up
C. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) months and one (1) day to three (3) years
D. A prisoner serving a term of three (3) years and one (1) day up
______________________________________________________________________________
Nothing follows
______________________________________________________________________________