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Nurs 304

Mother and Child Health Nursing


First Partial Test
100pts.
Name_______________________________
Date________________________
Choose the Best Answer

1.) While completing an assessment of a homeless woman, the nurse


should be aware of which of the following ailments this client is at a
higher risk to develop? (Select all that apply.)
a.) Infectious diseases
b.) Chronic illness
c.) Anemia
d.) Hyperthermia
e.) Substance abuse
2.) Syphilis is a complex disease that can lead to serious systemic illness
and even death if left untreated. Which manifestation differentiates primary
syphilis from secondary syphilis?
a.) Fever, headache, and malaise
b.) Widespread rash
c.) Identified by serologic testing
d.) Appearance of a chancre 2 months after infection
3.) The human papillomavirus (HPV), also known as genital warts, affects 79
million Americans, with an estimated number of 14 million new infections
each year. The highest rate of infection occurs in young women, ages 20 to
24 years. Prophylactic vaccination to prevent the HPV is now available.
Which statement regarding this vaccine is inaccurate?
a.) Only one vaccine for the HPV is available
b.) The vaccine is given in three doses over a 6-month period.
c.) The vaccine is recommended for both boys and girls.

d.) Ideally, the vaccine is administered before the first sexual contact.

4.) Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) is the most commonly reported
in American women?
a.) Gonorrhea
b.) Syphilis
c.) Chlamydia
d.) Candidiasis
5.) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends which
therapy for the treatment of the HPV?
a.) Miconazole ointment
b.) Topical podofilox 0.5% solution or gel
c.) Two doses of penicillin administered intramuscularly (IM)
d.) Metronidazole by mouth
6.) Which laboratory testing is used to detect the human immunodeficiency
virus (HIV)?
a.) HIV screening
b.) HIV antibody testing
c.) Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4) counts
d.) Cluster of differentiation 8 (CD8) counts
7.) Which treatment regime would be most appropriate for a client who has
been recently diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
a.) Oral antiviral therapy
b.) Bed rest in a semi-Fowler position
c.) Antibiotic regimen continued until symptoms subside
d.) Frequent pelvic examination to monitor the healing progress

8.) On vaginal examination of a 30-year-old woman, the nurse documents


the following findings: profuse, thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a

fishy odor and complaints of pruritus. Based upon these findings, which
condition would the nurse suspect?
a.) Bacterial vaginosis
b.) Candidiasis
c.) Trichomoniasis
d.) Gonorrhea

9.) Which viral sexually transmitted infection is characterized by a primary


infection followed by recurrent episodes?
a.) Herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2)
b.) HPV
c.) HIV
d.) CMV

10.) The nurse should understand the process by which the HIV infection
occurs. Once the virus has entered the body, what is the time frame for
seroconversion to HIV positivity?
a.) 6 to 10 days
b.) 2 to 4 weeks
c.) 6 to 12 weeks
d.) 6 months
11.) Which STI does not respond well to antibiotic therapy?
a.) Chlamydia
b.) Gonorrhea
c.) Genital herpes
d.) Syphilis

12.) Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is part of the normal vaginal flora in 20%
to 30% of healthy pregnant women. GBS has been associated with poor

pregnancy outcomes and is an important factor in neonatal morbidity and


mortality. Which finding is not a risk factor for neonatal GBS infection?
a.) Positive prenatal culture
b.) Preterm birth at 37 weeks or less of gestation
c.) Maternal temperature of 38 C or higher
d.) Premature rupture of membranes (PROM) 24 hours or longer before
the birth

13.) What is the drug of choice for the treatment of gonorrhea?


a.) Penicillin G
b.) Tetracycline
c.) Ceftriaxone
d.) Acyclovir
14.) The nurse providing care in a womens health care setting must be
knowledgeable about STIs. Which STIs can be successfully treated?
a.) HSV
b.) AIDS
c.) Venereal warts
d.) Chlamydia

15.) A woman has chosen the calendar method of conception control. Which
is the most important action the nurse should perform during the
assessment process?
a.) Obtain a history of the womans menstrual cycle lengths for the past
6 to 12 months
b.) Determine the clients weight gain and loss pattern for the previous
year.
c.) Examine skin pigmentation and hair texture for hormonal changes.
d.) Explore the clients previous experiences with conception control.

16.) Which client would be an ideal candidate for injectable progestins such
as Depo-Provera (DMPA) as a contraceptive choice?
a.) The ideal candidate for DMPA wants menstrual regularity and
predictability.
b.) The client has a history of thrombotic problems or breast cancer.
c.) The ideal candidate has difficulty remembering to take oral
contraceptives daily.
d.) The client is homeless or mobile and rarely receives health care.

17.) A client currently uses a diaphragm and spermicide for contraception.


She asks the nurse to explain the major differences between the cervical cap
and the diaphragm. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
a.) No spermicide is used with the cervical cap, so its less messy.
b.) The diaphragm can be left in place longer after intercourse.
c.) Repeated intercourse with the diaphragm is more convenient.
d.) The cervical cap can be safely used for repeated acts of intercourse
without adding more spermicide later.
18.) Which statement regarding emergency contraception is correct?
a.) Emergency contraception requires that the first dose be taken within
72 hours of unprotected intercourse
b.) Emergency contraception may be taken right after ovulation.
c.) Emergency contraception has an effectiveness rate in preventing
pregnancy of approximately 50%.
d.) Emergency contraception is commonly associated with the side
effect of menorrhagia.
19.) Although reported in small numbers, toxic shock syndrome (TSS) can
occur with the use of a diaphragm. If a client is interested in this form of
conception control, then the nurse must instruct the woman on how best to
reduce her risk of TSS. Which comment by the nurse would be most helpful
in achieving this goal?
a.) You should always remove your diaphragm 6 to 8 hours after
intercourse. Dont use the diaphragm during menses, and watch for danger

signs of TSS, including a sudden onset of fever over 38.4 C, hypotension,


and a rash.
b.) You should remove your diaphragm right after intercourse to prevent
TSS.
c.) Its okay to use your diaphragm during your menstrual cycle. Just be
sure to wash it thoroughly first to prevent TSS.
d.) Make sure you dont leave your diaphragm in for longer than 24
hours, or you may get TSS.
20.) The lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) of birth control is popular in
developing countries and has had limited use in the United States. As
breastfeeding rates increase, more women may rely upon this method for
birth control. Which information is most important to provide to the client
interested in using the LAM for contraception?
a.) LAM is effective until the infant is 9 months of age.
b.) This popular method of birth control works best if the mother is
exclusively breastfeeding.
c.) Its typical failure rate is 5%.
d.) Feeding intervals should be 6 hours during the day.
21.) If consistently and correctly used, which of the barrier methods of
contraception has the lowest failure rate?
a.) Spermicides
b.) Female condoms
c.) Male condoms
d.) Diaphragms
22.) The nurse is reviewing the educational packet provided to a client about
tubal ligation. Which information regarding this procedure is important for
the nurse to share? (Select all that apply.)
a.) It is highly unlikely that you will become pregnant after the
procedure.
b.) Tubal ligation is an effective form of 100% permanent sterilization.
You wont be able to get pregnant.
c.) Sterilization offers some form of protection against STIs.
d.) Sterilization offers no protection against STIs.

e.) Your menstrual cycle will greatly increase after your sterilization.

23.) The practice of the calendar rhythm method is based on the number of
days in each menstrual cycle. The fertile period is determined after
monitoring each cycle for 6 months. The beginning of the fertile period is
estimated by subtracting 18 days from the longest cycle and 11 days from
the shortest. If the womans cycles vary in length from 24 to 30 days, then
her fertile period would be day _____ through day ______.
24.) Which condition would be inappropriate to treat with exogenous
progesterone (human chorionic gonadotropin)?
a.) Thyroid dysfunction
b.) Recent miscarriage
c.) PCOD
d.) Oocyte retrieval
25.) What is the most common reproductive tract cancer associated with
pregnancy?
a.) Cervical
b.) Uterine
c.) Ovarian
d.) Fallopian tube
26.) A woman exhibits symptoms that may lead to a possible diagnosis of
polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). While completing the initial assessment
of the client, which clinical finding would the nurse not anticipate?
a.) Anorexia
b.) Hirsutism
c.) Irregular menses
d.) Infertility
27.) What information is important for the nurse to include in planning for the
care of a woman who has had a vaginal hysterectomy?

a.) Expect to be fully recovered in 4 to 6 weeks.


b.) Expect no changes in her hormone levels
c.) Expect surgical menopause.
d.) Take tub baths to aid in healing.
28.) A woman has preinvasive cancer of the cervix. Which modality would
the nurse discuss as an available option for a client with this condition?
a.) Cryosurgery
b.) Colposcopy
c.) Hysterectomy
d.) Internal radiation
29.) Which woman has the highest risk for endometrial cancer?
a.) Postmenopausal woman with hypertension
b.) Woman who has an intrauterine device (IUD)
c.) Client who has been on birth control for 15 years
d.) Perimenopausal woman who has a cystocele
30.) Leiomyomas (also known as fibroid tumors) are benign tumors arising
from the muscle tissue of the uterus. Which information related to these
tumors is accurate? (Select all that apply.)
a.) Are rapid growing
b.) Are more common in African-American women
c.) Are more common in women who have never been pregnant
d.) Obesity is a risk factor with leiomyomas
e.) Become malignant if left untreated
31.) Which presumptive sign or symptom of pregnancy would a client
experience who is approximately 10 weeks of gestation?
a.) Amenorrhea
b.) Positive pregnancy test
c.) Chadwick sign
d.) Hegar sign

32.) A client is seen at the clinic at 14 weeks of gestation for a follow-up


appointment. At which level does the nurse expect to palpate the fundus?
a.) Nonpalpable above the symphysis at 14 weeks of gestation
b.) Slightly above the symphysis pubis
c.) At the level of the umbilicus
d.) Slightly above the umbilicus
33.) Which hormone is essential for maintaining pregnancy?
a.) Estrogen
b.) hCG
c.) Oxytocin
d.) Progesterone
34.) Historically, what was the justification for the victimization of women?
a.) Women were regarded as possessions.
b.) Women were the weaker sex.
c.) Control of women was necessary to protect them.
d.) Women were created subordinate to men.
35.) Which trait is least likely to be displayed by a woman experiencing
intimate partner violence (IPV)?
a.) Socially isolated
b.) Assertive personality
c.) Struggling with depression
d.) Dependent partner in a relationship
36.) A woman who is 6 months pregnant has sought medical attention,
saying she fell down the stairs. What scenario would cause an emergency
department nurse to suspect that the woman has been a victim of IPV?

a.) The woman and her partner are having an argument that is loud and
hostile.
b.) The woman has injuries on various parts of her body that are in
different stages of healing.
c.) Examination reveals a fractured arm and fresh bruises.
d.) She avoids making eye contact and is hesitant to answer questions.
37.) Which statement regarding human trafficking is correct?
a.) Human trafficking is a multibillion-dollar business that primarily exists
in the United States.
b.) Victims often experience the Stockholm syndrome.
c.) Vast majority of the victims are young boys and girls.
d.) Human trafficking primarily refers to commercial sex work.
38.) Which statement is the most comprehensive description of sexual
violence?
a.) Sexual violence is limited to rape.
b.) Sexual violence is an act of force during which an unwanted and
uncomfortable sexual act occurs.
c.) Sexual violence encompasses a number of sexual acts.
d.) Sexual violence includes degrading sexual comments and behaviors.
39.) Women with severe and persistent mental illness are likely to be more
vulnerable to being involved in controlling and/or violent relationships;
however, many women develop mental health problems as a result of longterm abuse. Which condition is unlikely to be a psychologic consequence of
continued abuse?
a.) Substance abuse
b.) Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
c.) Eating disorders
d.) Bipolar disorder
40.) What are some common characteristics of a potential male batterer?
(Select all that apply.)
a.) High level of self-esteem

b.) High frustration tolerance


c.) Substance abuse problems
d.) Excellent verbal skills
e.) Personality disorders

41.) Which nursing diagnoses would be most applicable for battered women?
(Select all that apply.)
a.) Loss of trust
b.) Ineffective family coping
c.) Situational low self-esteem
d.) Risk for self-directed violence
e.) Enhanced communication
42.) The nurse who is evaluating the client for potential abuse should be
aware that IPV includes a number of different forms of abuse, including which
of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a.) Physical
b.) Sexual
c.) Emotional
d.) Psychologic
e.) Financial