r3
M
=
=
M
4
3
3
R
M 3
3 r
R
(1)
(2)
Classical Mechanics
where the last step absorbs all the constants G, M , R , and m into the constant
k, which shows that Eq. 2 is linearly proportional to the radius. Similarly,
Hookes force law for simple harmonic motion states that the force of a simple
harmonic oscillator is proportional to the displacement from the equilibrium position. Since the center of the earth would be the particles equilibrium position,
r is the displacement, and thus by direct comparison, the particle obeys simple
harmonic motion, with spring constant k.
To computepthe period , we use what we know for a spring with resonant
frequency = k/m,
r
2
m
1
=
= 2
=
f
k
s
3
R
= 2
m
m
GM
s
3
R
= 2
GM
2
3
4 2 R
GM
(3)
which is Keplers 3rd law for planetary motion (for a small particle), again
indicating that motion is periodic.
Finally, one can find an estimate of this period by using Earths gravitational
3
4 2 R
GM
R
= 4 2
g
4R
(4)
= 4(6.4 10 m) [s]
= 2.57 107 s
= 5069 s = 84 min
(5)
(1)
where V is the potential energy matrix, T is the kinetic energy matrix, and
are the desired eigenfrequencies (frequencies of free oscillation) of the system.
The potential on the particles is the sum of each individual springs potentials,
V =
1 2 1 2 1 2
kd + kd + kd
2 1 2 2 2 3
1
(2)
Classical Mechanics
d1 =
d2 =
(x1 x1 ) + (0)
(x2
d3 =
(0)
x2 )
(0) +
(0)
+ (x1
(0)
(x2 x2 )
= 1
x1 ) = 2 1
= 2
=
=
=
1
1
1
k(1 )2 + k(2 1 )2 + k(2 )2
2
2
2
1
1 2 1
k + k(22 + 12 1 2 2 1 ) + k22
2 1 2
2
1
k 222 + 212 1 2 2 1
2
(3)
1
Vij i j =
2
2k
k
k
2k
(4)
The kinetic energy matrix is much easier to find because it is neatly diagonal:
1
1
mv 2 + mv 2
2 1 2 1
1
m 0
T Tij i j =
0 m
2
T =
(5)
= 2k I k
x
= mI
Now we can just diagonalize Eq. 6 instead of the usual determinant method,
since we know the eigenvalues of I are {1,1}, and for any
i are {1,1}. Ill also
use the fact that a diagonalized
x is just
z
0
D1 (m 2 I)D
2 (D1 ID)
= V 2T
= 2k I k
x m 2 I
= D1 (2k I k
x )D
k
2k
(D1 ID) (D1
x D)
=
m
m
2
Classical Mechanics
2 I =
1 0
2
=
0 1
2
2k
k
I
z
m m
2k
k
1 0
1
0 1
0
m
m
2k k
m
(7)
0
1
(8)
(9)
Well need the eigenvectors for part (b), so well find them now. A big
advantage to using this SU(2) group argument is that since Eq. 7 only involes
I and
z , we know immediately that the two (normalized) eigenvectors for the
system are the (normalized) eigenvectors of those two matrices,
1
1
(10)
for I u
1 =
1
2
1
1
for
z u
2 =
(11)
1
2
where u
1 corresponds to when the two masses are sloshing back and forth in
phase with each other, and u
1 is when they oscillate out of phase, i.e. if M1 is
moving to the left, M2 is moving to the right, or vice versa.
b) M1 is displaced from its position by a small distance A1 to the
right while M2 is not moved from its position. If the two masses are
released with zero velocity, what is the subsequent motion of M2 ?
With the (very safe) assumption that the system is periodic in time, we know
from Fouriers theorem that the positions of each particle as a function of time
may be written as a sum of sines and cosines, whose phase is the eigenfrequencies. So,
x1 (t) =
x2 (t) =
(12)
(13)
However, we can narrow this down at least a little because of the eigenvectors.
r
k
1
1
u
1 = 2
A = E, B = F
1 =
1
m
r
3k
1
2 =
u
2 = 12
C = G, D = H
1
m
which means Eqs. 12 and 13 (and there derivatives) simplify a lil bit to
x1 (t)
x 1 (t)
x2 (t)
x 2 (t)
Classical Mechanics
=
=
B =
x 1 (0) = 0
x 2 (0) = 0
A = C
B+D
BD
1
A1
=
2
A+C 3
AC 3
= 0
So then holy moly with extra cannoli, the positions of M1 and M2 at a funcion
of time are
!
!
r
r
1
1
k
3k
x1 (t) =
A1 cos
t + A1 cos
t
(14)
2
m
2
m
!
!
r
r
1
k
k
1
A1 cos
t A1 cos
t
(15)
x2 (t) =
2
m
2
m
Exam Iteration
Spring 2006
Fall 2006
Spring 2007
Question Number
X
X
#3
Notes/Changes
Added to bank.
GM m
r2
, V =
GM m
r
(1)
GM
rc
rc3
rc
= mac
v2
=
m t
rc
For circular orbits, r
vt2 = r 2 + r2 2
=
=
0
2 2
rc
= 2 rc2
GM
2
1/3
GM
=
2
(2)
Classical Mechanics
1+
2E2
mk 2
(3)
with E as the total energy, = mr2 as the angular momentum, and k is this
case as GM m. Since the orbit is circular, the eccentricity is zero, so the initial
total energy is
r
2E2
1+
0 =
mk 2
2E2
0 = 1+
mk 2
2
2E
1 =
mk 2
mk 2
(4)
E = 2
2
And finally, the total energy can also be written as the sum of the kinetic
an potential energies,
E
=
=
GM m
1 2
2 2
m
r
+
r
c
c
2
rc
2/3
GM
1
GM m
m
1/3
2
GM
=
=
E
2/3
2/3
1
m GM
m GM
2
2/3
1
1 m GM
2
2/3
1
m GM
2
(5)
Phew! Now, just after the explosion, the star is at the same radius, rc .
However the star has a new mass, M = (1 )M where Ive denoted as
the percentage of mass loss. The only portion of the energy that is effects is
the potential, in which k = (1 )k. The angular momentum = mrc2 is
independent of M . So, the new energy is
E
=
=
GM m
1
mrc2 2
2
rc
2/3
1
G ((1 )M ) m
GM
m
1/3
2
GM
2/3
2/3
1
m GM
(1 ) m GM
2
2
=
E
Classical Mechanics
2/3
1
(1 ) m GM
2
2/3
1
( + ) m GM
2
2
E
2/3
=
1
E
2
mGM
1
E
= 2 +
E
2
E = (1 2) E
This in turn affects the eccentricity, which means Eq. 3 becomes,
r
2E 2
1+
e =
mk 2
s
2(1 2) E2
1+
=
2
m ((1 ) k)
s
(1 2) 22
1+
E
=
(1 )2 mk 2
mk 2
Eq. 4: E =
22
s
2
(1 2) 22 mk
1
=
(1 )2 mk 2
2
s
1 2
e =
1
(1 )2
(6)
(7)
(8)
= 0.030928
(9)
Figure 1: A cube falling with friction holding one corner stationary, and the
same cube sliding on the corner without friction.
For both scenarios we can use a conservation of energy arguement to solve
for the angular velocity.
a) The initial kinetic energy, Ti is zero, because the the cube is in (unstable)
equilibrium. The potential we can say is simply that of a point mass at the
cubes center of mass, a height h above the ground,
0
Ei = T
i + Vi = mgh
1
Classical Mechanics
1
Vi = mg
2
(1)
In this case, the edge that is stationary acts as a pivot around which the
cube will rotate. Thus, the kinetic energy of the cube while in motion is only
rotational. We can use the parallel axis theorem to find the moment of inertia rotating about an edge of the cube, noting that the moment of inertia for
spinning along the center of mass, ICoM = 16 m2 , and the displacement, d is
h = 12 ;
I
=
=
=
1
m2 + mh2
ICoM + md2 =
6
2
1
m + m
6
2
1 1
2
2
m
=
+
m2
6 2
3
(2)
The final kinetic energy as the cube hits the plane is then
=
Tf
=
=
1
I 2
2 f
1 2
m2 f2
2 3
1
m2 f2
3
(3)
1
2
1
mg
2
(4)
=
=
=
=
=
Tf + Vf
1
1
m2 f2 + mg
3
2
1
1
2 + g
3 f 2
1
1
g
2 2
r
3g
21
2
(5)
Classical Mechanics
b) In this case, the kinetic energy will be slightly different. Now, because the
plane is frictionless, the cube rotates about its center of mass, which is moving
(only) in the direction of gravity. The position and velocity of the center of
mass become
~rCoM
=
=
~vCoM
=
=
=
yCoM
h sin +
4
y CoM
h cos +
4
cos +
4
2
taking to be .
Though the initial kinetic energy is still zero, the final kinetic energy changes
to
Tf
=
=
=
=
1
1
m~vf2 + ICoM f2
2
2
!
2
0
1 1
f
1
2
+
m
m2 f2
cos
f +
2
4
2 6
2
1
1
1
+
m2 f2
m2 f2
4
2
12
5
m2 f2
24
(6)
Notice that the initial and final potential energies will remain the same,
because the cube starts in the same position as in case a), and ends in the same
orientation, just displaced by 21 .
So, using Eq. 1 and 4, the conservation of energy equation is
Vi =
1
mg =
2
5
2 =
24 f
f2
Tf + Vf
5
1
m2 f2 + mg
24
2
1
1
g
2 2
!
21
24g
5
2
r
12g
21
5
(7)
Figure 1: A chain suspended a height h above the table at t0 , and then x amount
fallen onto the table after time t
The force exerted on the table will be equivalent to the sum of the gravitational (from whatever part of the chain has already landed on the table) and
impulse (from the part of the chain that has just hit the table) forces. The
gravitational force from the amount of mass m = x already on the table is
simply
Fg = mg = xg
(1)
1
Classical Mechanics
During a time interval dt, the mass of the rope equal to (v dt) is hitting the
table. The change in momentum imparted onto the table is then
dp
dm v
[(v dt)] v
v 2 dt
(2)
dp
= v 2
dt
(3)
However we would like to know how velocity v is related to x(t). Some one
dimensional kinematics should shed light on the matter:
v 2 vi2
2ax
v2
2g(x + h)
(4)
So Eq. 3 becomes
Fimpulse = v 2 = 2g(x + h)
(5)
Finally, the total force of the table from the falling chain is
F
= Fg + Fimpulse
= xg + 2(x + h)g
= 3xg + 2hg
= g(3x + 2h)
(6)
which is equivalent to the weight of the length 3x of the rope, plus the correction
for the initial height.
=
=
=
1 2
I
2
1
mR2 + mh2 2
2
1
m R2 + h2 2
2
1
(1)
Classical Mechanics
where the moment of inertia I was found using the parallel axis thereom,
I
= ICoM + md2
(2)
noting that d is the distance from the center of mass to the parallel axis, and
ICoM = 21 mr2 for a thin hoop.
The potential energy will be similar a simple pendulum:
V
m~g ~r
mgh cos
(3)
So using Eq. 1 and 3 the Lagrangian for a thin hoop hung from an off diameter
axis of rotation is then
L
T V
1
m R2 + h2 2 + mgh cos
2
(4)
dt
d
m R2 + h2 + mgh sin = 0
dt
m R2 + h2 =
mgh sin
gh
2
sin
R + h2
(5)
From here, we make the approximation that sin so that Eq. 5 becomes
a simplified 2nd order differential equation of the form x = 2 x, whose general
in which is the frequency. Hence,
solution is x(t) = x0 cos (t)
(t)
gh
R 2 + h2
r
0 cos
gh
t
2
R + h2
(6)
The period of small oscillations is the time it takes Eq. 6 to repeat the initial
2) = cos (0). From this we arrive at
conditions at t = 0, such that cos (
the familiar expression for the period of a pendulum as expected:
= 2
(7)
gh
R 2 + h2
12
(8)
Classical Mechanics
h
0
(gh) 2 (R2 + h2 ) 2
=
2
1
1
1
3
1
1
1
(gh) 2 (g) (R2 + h2 ) 2 + (gh) 2 (R2 + h2 ) 2 (2h)
2
2
1
g (R2 + h2 ) 2
2h
+
3
1
1
2 (gh) 2
2 (gh) 2 (R2 + h2 ) 2
=
=
R2
h
= g (h2 R2 )
= h2
= R
(9)
Only the nontrivial, positive value for h is physical, so the shortest period
would result if the axis of rotation which has a distance
h=R
(10)
~ =
Figure 1: Da Erf. Note that +
ex points North, and +
ey points West, so
ex .
(a) If the Earth is treated as perfectly round and uniform and the
acceleration due to gravity on a nonrotating earth is g, what is the
acceleration of gravity at the tower?
With Earth rotating, we must not only consider the acceleration due to
gravity, but the centripetal and Coriolis acceleration. At the top of the tower,
~agrav = g ez , the radial vector is ~r = +h ez , and the velocity is ~v = vr ez .
The effective acceleration (in the rotating frame) felt at the tower is then given
as
~aeff
(g
ez ) (
ex ) (
ex ) (h
ez ) 2(
ex ) (vr ez )
g ez h2 (
ex ex ez ) 2vr (
ex
ez )
1
~aeff
Classical Mechanics
g ez h2 (
ex
ey ) 2vr (
ey )
=
=
g ez h2 (
ez ) + 2vr ey
2vr ey (g h2 ) ez
(1)
Yet, at the top of the tower, we assume the object to have no radial velocity,
vr = 0. Thus, the effective acceleration is
~geff
(g h2 ) ez
(2)
(b) Even though it is released from rest, this object will not land
directly below the point from which it was dropped. Calculate the
amount and direction (N, E, S, W, or elsewhere) of the horizontal
deflection of the object. You may assume the deflection is small.
The Coriolis effect is the only term that will have an effect in the horizontal
(
ey , East or West) direction, so pulling the first term from Eq. 1 if vr is now
~geff t,
FCoriolis
m aCoriolis
2mvr ey
=
m y =
2m((g h2 ) t) ey
2m(g h2 ) t
2(g h2 ) t
1 2
2
y = 2(g h )
t
2
1 3
2
y = 2(g h )
t
6
y = (g h2 ) t3
(3)
3
This quantity y is the horizontal deflect, get we can be more explicit. The
time spent falling t can be found from the freefall kinematics of a particle
released from rest:
1
1
(g h2 ) t2
y =
v0t geff t2 h =
2
2
1/2
2h
2h
2
t =
(4)
t =
(g h2 )
(g h2 )
y =
(g h2 )
3
(2h)3/2
3(g h2 )1/2
2h
(g h2 )
3/2
(5)
1
mR2
(1)
2
Using the parallel axis theorem, which states that the moment of inertia around
a point parallel to the center of mass a distance d away is
ICoM =
Id = ICoM + md2
(2)
Id
1
mR2 + md2
2
1
m (R2 + 2d2 )
2
1
(3)
Classical Mechanics
= mgd sin
(4)
(c) Find the equation of motion for small oscillations and give the frequency . Further, find the value of d corresponding to the maximum
frequency for fixed R and m.
If we note that = I, then we know the equation of motion immediately
from Eq. 4(using the small angle approximation that sin = ),
Id
= mgd
mgd
=
Id
(5)
2
mgd
m (R2 + 2d2 )
2
2gd
=
R2 + 2d2
=
(6)
d
dd
(2gd)(R2 + 2d2 )1
21
2gd
1
2g (R2 + 2d2 )1 (2gd)(R2 + 2d2 )2 (4d)
2 R2 + 2d2
1
8gd2
1 R2 + 2d2 2
2g
2
2
2gd
R2 + 2d2
(R + 2d2 )2
!
1
2
1 R + 2d2 2
2g(R2 + 2d2 ) 8gd
2 2
2gd
2
(R
+ 2d )2
1
R2 + 2d2 2 2gR2 + 4gd2 8gd2
1
R2 + 2d2 2 (2g(R2 2d2 ))
1
R2 + 2d2 2 R2 2d2
2
Classical Mechanics
R2 + 2d2 = 0
iR
d=
2
R2 2d2 = 0
R
d =
2
(7)
R
,
2
so
(8)
=
=
mgR =
Ef
Tf + Vf
1
mv 2 + mgR cos
2
(1)
However, Eq. 1 does not contain the normal force N , which we need. It can be
found by assuming the hoop is circular, so that the normal force acting on the
Classical Mechanics
mg cos mac
v2
mg cos m
R
(2)
Multiplying this by 21 R will yield a more useful equation for the kinetic energy,
1
R (N
2
1
RN
2
1
mv 2
2
=
=
=
mg cos mac )
1
mgR cos
2
1
mgR cos
2
1
mv 2
2
1
RN
2
(3)
which we can now plug into the conservation equation (Eq. 1) to arrive at
explicit equation for N ,
mgR =
1
RN
2
N
=
=
1
1
mgR cos RN + mgR cos
2
2
3
mgR cos mgR
2
3mg cos 2mg
(4)
Since weve established that the particle falls off the hoop when N = 0, Eq. 4
becomes,
0 =
=
cos
mg(3 cos 2)
3 cos 2
2
3
(5)
So the angle at which a heavy particle of mass M slides off a circular hoop or
radius R is
48.2
(6)
0
= T
i + Vi
= mCoM g x sin
1
(1)
Classical Mechanics
Ef
0
Tf + V
f
1
1
mCoM v 2 + ICoM 2
2
2
(2)
Setting Eqs. 1 and 2 equal to each other, plugging in for the moment of
x
and = R
,
inertia of a sphere, ICoM = 52 mCoM R2 and noting that v = x,
Ei
g x sin
mCoM
x 2
dx
dt
Ef
1
5
x 2 +
mCoM
10
2
10
g x sin
7
2
2
x
2
R
m
CoM
5
R
(3)
x 2
q
where Ive defined a constant = 10
7 g sin . At this point we integrate both
sides to find x as a function of time, which we can then differentiate twice with
respect to time to get the acceleration, x
= aCoM ,
1
x 2 dx
1
2x 2
1 2 2
t
x =
4
= dt
= t
x = 21 2 t
q
2
10
x
= 12
7 g sin
aCoM =
7
5
g sin
x =
1 2
(4)
Calculate the maximum value of for which the sphere will not slip.
The sphere will begin to slip once the xcomponent of the weight becomes
greater than the maximum frictional force providable by . The angle at which
(
x)
this occurs, c can be found by setting the normal force, Fg equal to the force
of friction Ff = N ,
mg sin c
sin c
mg
= N
cos c
=
mg
sin c
= tan c
=
cos c
c = tan1 ()
(5)
Figure 1: A free rocket traveling in an inertial frame, without the force of gravity.
At some time t the rocket, traveling at a velocity v, has some mass m. An
infinitesimal time dt later, the rocket has lost a mass dm, and gained a speed
dv. At this time, an infinitessimal amount of fuel, dm is ejected at a velocity
u with respect to the rocket. In an inertial frame however, that fuels velocity
is v u. Thus, using conservation of momentum, we can get an expression for
the mass of the rocket as a function of time,
procket
= procket + pf uel
1
mv
mv
m dv
Classical Mechanics
= (m dm)(v + dv) + dm (v u)
= m v + m dv v dm du dv + v dm u dm
= u dm du dv
(1)
From here, we note that to first order, the term du dv is extremely small, so it
is dropped, leaving
1
dv
u
1
dm
m
(2)
dv =
dm
m m
0 u
0
v
m
= ln
u
m0
m
= m0 e u
(3)
1
2
mv 2
v
1
m0 v 2 e u
2
which we then maximize with respect to v to find the largest speed vmax ,
T
1
v
2 u
=
m0 v e
v
v 2
1 v
v
1
e u
0 = m0 v e u m0 v 2
2
u
v
v
v
m0
v
e u
m0
v
e u =
2u
vmax = 2u
(4)
(5)
Thus, the kinetic energy is maximum when the velocity of the rocket is twice
that of the ejected fuel.
Exam Iteration
Spring 2006
Fall 2006
Spring 2007
Question Number
#12
#12
#12
Notes/Changes
Added damping.
Classical Mechanics
(1)
and the potential, as long as we define the origin to be at the equilibrium point
such that the displacement y y ye = y, is as follows,
=
1
ky 2 + mgy
2
(2)
T V
1
1
my 2 ky 2 mgy
2
2
L =
(3)
We can use the form of the EulerLagrange equations which has forces not
derivable from a potential, Q, to determine the equation of motion. The forces
not derivable from potential are the driving and damping forces,
Fo
= A cos (t)
(4)
Fd
= y
(5)
=
dt y
y
d
(my)
(ky mg) =
dt
m
y + ky + mg =
m
y + y + ky
k
y +
y +
y
m
m
y + y + 02 y
x + x +
02
g
=
x+ 2
0
x
+ x + 02 x + g =
x
+ x + 02 x =
is
Qi
A cos (t) y
A cos (t) y
A cos (t) mg
A
cos (t) g
m
k
A
, 02 =
, and B =
Let =
m
m
m
B cos (t) g
Let x = g2 + y y = x +
0
x = y
x
= y
g
02
B cos (t) + g
B cos (t) + g
B cos (t)
(6)
Yes folks, its the driven harmonic oscillator with damping. Your favorite
differential equation to solve.
2
Classical Mechanics
x
H + x H + 02 xH
The characteristic equation:
0 = am2 + bm + c
r
b2
b
c
with p = and q =
2
4
r
2
02
p = and q =
2
4
Such that the general solution is
ept (C cos (q t) + D sin (q t))
xH (t)
21 t
C cos
02
t
4
+ D cos
02
t
4
!!
(7)
x
eI + x
e I + 02 x
eI
= Beit
and then take the real part at the end. This way we can assume a complex
e ei(t) , which knocks out the differentiation because
exponential solution, x
eI = G
e eit
x
eI = G
e eit
x
e I = i G
eI = 2 G
e eit
x
(8)
e
which means all we have to do is find the complex constant G,
Beit
B
B
e
G
e
G
e eit
e eit + i G
e eit + 2 G
= 2 G
0
e + i G
e + 02 G
e
= 2 G
e (02 2 ) i
= G
B
=
2
(0 2 ) i
2
B
(0 2 ) + i
=
(02 2 ) i (02 2 ) + i
B(02 2 ) + iB
=
((02 2 ) + 2 2 )
3
(9)
Classical Mechanics
xI (t)
xI (t)
B(02 2 )
B
eit +
ieit
2
2
2
2
2
((0 ) + )
((0 2 ) + 2 2 )
B(02 2 )
B
it
it
= e
e
+
ie
((02 2 ) + 2 2 )
((02 2 ) + 2 2 )
it
e e
= cos (t)
e ieit = sin (t)
=
B
B(02 2 )
cos (t) +
sin (t) (10)
2
2
2
2
2
((0 ) + )
((0 2 ) + 2 2 )
B
B(02 2 )
cos (t) +
sin (t)
2) + 22)
((02 2 ) + 2 2 )
(11)
((02
y(t)
C cos
02
t
4
+ D cos
g
,
02
02
t
4
!!
B(02 2 )
B
g
cos (t) +
sin (t) 2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
((0 ) + )
((0 ) + )
0
k
A
, 02 =
, and B =
And remember: =
m
m
m
!
!!
r
r
t
k
k
2
2
= e 2m C cos
t + D cos
t
m 4m2
m 4m2
+
y(t)
A(k m 2 )
A
mg
cos (t) +
sin (t)
(k m 2 )2 + 2 2
(k m 2 )2 + 2 2
k
(12)
A
mg
A(k m 2 )
cos (t) +
sin (t)
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
(k m ) +
(k m ) +
k
(13)
Exam Iteration
Spring 2006
Fall 2006
Spring 2007
Question Number
#13
#13
#13
Notes/Changes
3
24
[turns]
[sec]
[f rames]
[sec]
1 turns
8 f rame
(1)
Classical Mechanics
However, appearances can be deceiving. To the viewer, measuring the position of the wheel discretely, the wheel has turned only 1/8 of its circumference.
The car could be moving much faster, such that the wheel makes any integer
number N of extra turns before reaching the final 1/8 (for example, N=1 in
Figure 1. The angular velocity should then technically be
1
turns
=
N+
(2)
8 f rame
Finally, to find the (linear) speed v, we must convert Eq. 2 into the correct
units,
:
[f rames]
1
[turns]
[radians]
24
=
N+
2
:
[f rame]
[turn]
8
[sec]
1
rads/s
(3)
= 48 N +
8
and then convert angular to linear speed, noting that the wheel has a 1 m
diameter, and thus a 0.5 m radius.
v
=
r
1
rads/s (0.5 m)
=
48 N +
8
1
= 24 N +
m/s
8
(4)
Ei
>
1 2 1
ui 2
mvi + M
2
2
m vi2
vi2
Ef
1 2 1
mvf + M u2f
2
2
=
m vf2 + a
m u2f
=
vf2 + au2f
(1)
Classical Mechanics
m vi
vf
=
m vf + a
muf
= vi auf
(2)
vi2 =
vi2 + a2 u2f 2avi uf + avf2
2
0 = a
u
f
(a + 1) uf 2 a
vi
(a + 1)uf = 2 vi
2vi
uf =
(a + 1)
(3)
Finally, the kinetic energy lost by the first ball is just that that is gained by
the second,
E
=
=
1
M u2
2
2
2vi
1
am
2
a+1
2amvi2
(a + 1)2
(4)
To find the value for which the energy lost is largest, we can just maximize
with respect to a,
E
a
0
1
2
2mv
i
(a + 1)2
(a + 1)3
a+1
a=1
2mvi2 a (a + 1)2
a
= 2mvi2 (a + 1)2 4mvi2 a (a + 1)3
2a
2
=
2mv
(a + 1)3 i
= 2a
(a
+
1)2
=
= 2a
(5)
So, the change in energy is the greatest when the balls have the same exact
mass: the first balls kinetic energy is split evenly between them during the
collision such that vf and uf are equal, but in opposite direcetions.
(b) Investigate the limiting cases of heavy and light balls and comment on your result.
In the limiting case that a 1, the first ball will be much more massive
than the second. In this case, the first ball will lose virtually none of its energy,
but because the second ball is so less massive, it will propel off with uf = 2vi .
lim E
a0
2amvi2
2 =
(a
+ 1)
2
2M vi2
Classical Mechanics
lim vf
au
= vi
f =
lim uf
a0
a0
2vi
=
(a
+ 1)
vi
2vi
In the case where a 1, the energy imparted onto the second ball will be
neglegible. In addition, since so little velocity is transferred to the second ball,
the first will be forced in the opposite direction with a final velocity equal to its
initial.
lim E
lim vf
lim uf
2amvi2
=
:
a+
1)2
(
av
i
= vi (a2
=
+ 1)
i
= 2v
=
:
(
a+
1)
=
0
vi
0
Figure 1: (Left) Two masses orbiting about each other suddenly stopped, as a
two body problem. (Right) The same system reduced to a onebody problem
using the reduced mass .
As noted in the picture, the problem can be simplified to a one body problem
using the reduced mass,
=
=
=
m1 m2
m1 + m2
m2 + 2m
2m + 2
1 m+2
2 (1 + m1 )
(1)
Now a one body problem, we can find the Lagrangian of this more simple system,
V
k
r
1
T
L
L
Classical Mechanics
1
1
r 2 + r2 2
2
2
= T V
1
k
=
(r 2 + r2 2 ) +
2
r
dt r
r
d
k
(r)
(r 2 )
dt
r
k
r r + 2
r
d L
L
dt
d
r2 (0)
dt
r2
(2)
=
=
0
0
(3)
(4)
It appears as though the sooner will be a little more useful than the latter,
so lets roll with it. We know for circular motion, not only is Eq. 4 true, but
r = 0 is also true. Using this fact, we can distill Eq. 3 a bit to get a familiar
law from my buddy Kepler:
k
r r + 2
r
k
r2
r3
k
2
r3
kT 2
4 2
( = =
2
)
T
(5)
Now that weve naively rederived Keplers 3rd, lets stop the masses. Taking
Eq. 5 as our starting radius, r03 , we know stop the angular motion of the masses,
r
r
+ 2
r
k
r2
r
r r
r
=
= r
)
t
t r
r
2
Classical Mechanics
r dr
1 2
r
2
r 2
k
dr
r2
k
+C
r
2k
+ 2C
r
r =
r r0
12
2k 1
1
dr =
dt
r
r0
dr
dt =
12
2k 1
1
r r0
21
21 Z 0 1
1
t =
dr
(6)
2k
r
r0
r0
which is a horribly disgusting integral, that can be solved analytically using a
few u substitutions, (let u = r1 , and then u = u0 sec2 ) but Ill happily just
leave it as Eq. 6. Numerically evaluated this turns out to be
T
t
8 2
(7)
So for
~r1 = a x
r12 = a2
~r2 = a y + 2a z
~r3 = 2a y + a z
(1)
Classical Mechanics
I22
(2)
I33
(3)
(4)
I13 = I31
=
=
0
X
(5)
mi (xi zi )
I23 = I32
=
=
0
X
(6)
mi (yi zi )
=
=
4ma2
(7)
10ma2
0
0
0
6ma2 4ma2
I=
0
4ma2 6ma2
(8)
Classical Mechanics
The principle moments of inertia and principle axes are the eigenvalues and
eigenvectors (respectively) of the moment of inertia tensor. So to find eigenvalues, we find the characteristic equation of I
10ma2
0
0
h
i
0
6ma2
4ma2
det I b
1 =
0
4ma2
6ma2
0 = (10ma2 ) (6ma2 )(6ma2 ) (4ma2 )2 0 + 0
= (10ma2 ) 36m2 a4 12ma2 + 2 16m2 a4
= (10ma2 ) 2 12ma2 + 20m2 a4
= (10ma2 )(10ma2 )(2ma2 )
1 = 10ma2
3 = 2ma2
2 = 10ma2
(9)
0
0
0
x
0
0 4ma2 4ma2 y = 0
0 4ma2 4ma2
z
0
4ma2 y 4ma2 z
y = z
= 0
so, picking the simplest eigenvectors, the principle axes for 1 & 2 are
0
1
1 = 1 and 2 = 0
1
0
And for 3 = 2ma2 ,
8ma2
0
0
0
4ma2
4ma2
0
x
4ma2 y
4ma2
z
8ma2 x
2
4ma y 4ma z
4ma2 y + 4ma2 z
x = 0,
0
= 0
0
= 0
= 0
= 0
y = z
and again picking the simplest eigenvector, the principle axis for 3 is
0
3 = 1
1
(10)
(11)
= ( sin 1 ) x
+ ( cos 1 ) y
1 sin 1 y
=
1 cos 1 x
= ( sin 1 + sin 2 ) x
+ ( cos 1 + cos 2 ) y
1
(1)
(2)
v~2 = ~r 2
Classical Mechanics
(3)
(4)
In the kinetic energy term of the Lagrangian, well need the squares of the
velocities, which are
v12 = v~1 v~1
2
+ 1 sin 1
cos2 1 + sin2 1
1 cos 1
2
= 2 12
(5)
= 2 12
2
2
=
1 cos 1 + 2 cos 2 + 1 sin 1 + 2 sin 2
= 2 12 cos2 1 + 2 22 cos2 2 + 22 1 2 cos 1 cos 2
+ 2 12 sin2 1 + 2 22 sin2 2 + 22 1 2 sin 1 sin 2
= 2 2 cos2 1 + sin2 1 + 2 2 cos2 2 + sin2 2
1
(6)
=
=
1
1
m~v12 + m~v12
2
2
1
1
2 2
m 1 + m 2 12 + 2 22 + 22 1 2 cos (2 1 )
2
2
1
2 2
m 1 + m2 22 + m2 1 2 cos (2 1 )
2
m~g ~r1 + m~g ~r2
mg cos 1 mg (cos 1 + cos 2 )
=
=
=
(7)
(8)
=
=
T V
1
m2 12 + m2 22 + m2 1 2 cos (2 1 ) + 2mg cos 1 + mg cos 2
2
1 2 2 2
(9)
m 21 + 2 + 21 2 cos (2 1 ) + mg (2 cos 1 + cos 2 )
2
Classical Mechanics
b) Find an approximate Lagrangian that is appropriate for small oscillations and obtain from it the equations of motions when 1 & 2 1.
For small oscillations, we can approximate cos x 1 12 x2 + O(x4 ), and
drop those terms which are of higher order than quadratic in i and i so that
Eq. 9 is
1
1
2
(2
)
L m2 12 + m2 22 + m2 1 2 1
1
2
2
1
1
+ 2mg 1 12 + mg 1 22
2
2
where what is canceled above will turn out to be quartic in i and i so it is
dropped. Simplified, the approximate Lagrangian is then
L
1
1
m2 12 + m2 22 + m2 1 2 + 2mg mg12 + mg mg22
2
2
1
1 2 2 2
(10)
m 21 + 2 + 21 2 mg 212 + 22 + 3mg
2
2
c) Assuming that each angle varies as 1,2 = A1,2 eit , find the frequencies for small oscillations.
Performing the usual Lagrange processes using Eq. 10 to find the equations
of motion, we can then use these to solve for the frequencies of small oscillations.
In general, Lagranges equations of motion are defined by
L
d L
=0
(11)
dt qi
qi
where qi are the generalized coordinates of the system, and qi are their respective
time derivatives.
So the equations of motion for 1 and 2 are
L
= 2m2 1 + m2 2
1
2m2 1 + m2 2
21 + 2
L
= m2 2 + m2 1
2
m2 2 + m2 1
1 + 2
3
L
= 2mg 1
1
+
2mg 1 = 0
2g1 = 0
(12)
L
= mg 2
2
+
mg 2 = 0
g 2 = 0
(13)
Classical Mechanics
2 (2A1 + A2 )
2
= 2gA1
2gA1
=
(2A1 + A2 )
s
2gA1
=
(2A1 + A2 )
2 1 2 2
2 A1
eit + A2
eit
+ g 2 = 0
+ gA2
eit = 0
gA2
(A1 + A2 )
s
gA2
=
(A1 + A2 )
2 (A1 + A2 )
(14)
= gA2
=
(15)
(1)
=
=
~ + (x x
R
+ y y)
(X + cos ) x
+ ( sin ) y
1
(2)
Classical Mechanics
where is the distance the mass has traveled down the ramp. While the particle
is on the ramp, it is constrained to move along , or
y
x
yY
=
xX
= (y (0)) cos
tan
sin
cos
(x X) sin
f : (x X) sin
y cos = 0
(3)
m~g ~r
= mgy
(5)
T V
1
1
=
m(x 2 + y 2 ) + M X 2 + mgy
2
2
1
1
1
=
mx 2 + my 2 + M X 2 + mgy
2
2
2
(6)
which does not explicitly depend on time, so the Hamiltonian is the sum of the
kinetic and potential energies,
H=
1
1
1
mx 2 + my 2 + M X 2 mgy
2
2
2
(7)
=
+
dt qi
qi
qi
qi
(8)
yet the second term on the righthand side is zero because Eq. 3 is not a function
of any qi . From Eq. 8, the equations of motion for each coordinate are,
d
(mx)
=
dt
2
(sin )
Classical Mechanics
m
x =
d
(my)
mg
dt
m
y mg
sin
(9)
( cos )
cos
d
mX
=
dt
=
mX
(10)
( sin )
sin
(11)
Immediately, if we add Eq. 11 to Eq. 9, we see why Figure 1 has the direction
of motion for the wedge incorrect,
m
x + MX
x
=
M
X
m
(12)
=
=
=
M
x =
X
m
M
m
M
m
M
X
t t
X
t
t
Z X
X
0
or X =
m
x
M
(13)
= y cos
= x(1 +
= y cos
m
) tan
M
(14)
= x(1
+
(15)
Classical Mechanics
OK, OK, lets finally get the equations of motion. Starting with Eq. 9,
m
x = sin
m(
y g)
Eq. 10: m
y mg = cos =
cos
m
x = m(g y) tan
(16)
m
Eq. 15: y = x
(1 +
) tan
M
m
) tan2
m
x = mg tan m
x(1 +
M
m
m
x + m
x tan2 + m
x
tan2 = mg tan2
M
m
tan2 )
x =
mg tan
m(1 + tan2 +
M
cos2
sin2
m sin2
sin
( 2 +
+
)
x = g
2
2
cos cos M cos
cos
1
:
2 2
(
cos
+ sin ) + (m/M ) sin2 x
= g sin cos
g sin cos
x
=
1 + (m/M ) sin2
M sin cos
x
= g
(17)
M + m sin2
Since the acceleration in the x
direction is a constant in time, ax Eq. 17 has
the usual 1D kinematic solution,
1
x0 + v0,x t + ax t2
2
set x0 0, and v0,x 0
M sin cos
1
g
t2
x(t) =
2
M + m sin2
x(t)
(18)
For the y equation of motion, we plug Eq. 17 back into Eq. 15,
y =
=
y =
m
x
(1 +
) tan
M
sin
sin
M
cos
1
(M + m)
g
cos
M
M + m sin2
2
(M + m) sin
g
M + m sin2
(19)
which is also constant, so with the same initial conditions (y0 0, y0,y 0)
we get a similar freefall equation,
(M + m) sin2
1
t2
(20)
y= g
2
M + m sin2
4
Classical Mechanics
Finally we get the solution for X plugging Eq. 17 into Eq. 12,
m
X
= x
M
sin cos
M
m
g
=
M
M
+ m sin2
m sin cos
X
= g
M + m sin2
X0 0, and v0,X 0
1
m sin cos
X = g
t2
2
M + m sin2
(21)
One could also solve for the normal force via Eq. 9, but the problem does
not ask for it, so it is left as an exercise to the reader. (Ew. I feel so dirty saying
that.)
c) What are the constants of motion?
To find the constants of motion, i.e. conserved quantities, we need to express
the Lagrangian (Eq. 6), in terms of independent coordinates. We can use the
constraint equation (Eq. 3) to solve for X,
(x
x
X
L =
L =
X) sin y cos = 0
y
= 0
X
tan
y
x
tan
y
x
tan
1
1
1
mx 2 + my 2 + M X 2 + mgy
2
2
2
2
1
1
1
y
+ mgy
mx 2 + my 2 + M x
2
2
2
tan
(22)
L
x
px
x
y
tan
M y
= (m + M )x
tan
= mx + M
(1)
(23)
General Rule: If the Lagrangian is independent of any generalized coordinate, that coordinate is cyclic, and therefore its respective canonical momentum (pi L/ qi ) is conserved.
5
Classical Mechanics
Figure 1: A rod, with length L (which is the length of a chord subtending 120 )
is restricted to slide inside a frictionless circular pipe.
(a) Compute the center of mass moment of inertia of the rod ICoM in
terms of m and a (not the length of the rod).
In most general terms, the moment of inertia tensor is calculated as
Z
ICoM =
(r)(ij r2 xi xj ) d3 r
(1)
However, we assume the rod is only has one dimension so we need only
integrate along d instead of d3 r; there are no offdiagonal terms (i.e. xi xj = 0);
and the rod has constant density, so (r) = m/L, which means Eq. 1 becomes
considerable less intimidating,
ICoM
m
L
+L/2
m
d = 2
L
2
L/2
L/2
2 d
Classical Mechanics
3
m 3 L/2
m 1 L
=
2
L 3 0
L 3
2
3
2
L
=
m
24
L
1
mL2
(2)
ICoM =
12
Finally, because we know angle which the rod subtends is 120 , it forms an
isosceles triangle whose sides are a : a : L,
and interior angles are 120 : 30 : 30,
which means L/2 = a cos (30 ), or L = 3 a. Thus, in terms of m and a, the
center of mass moment of inertia is
1
ICoM =
ma2
(3)
4
=
(b) Obtain the potential energy, the kinetic energy, and the La
grangian L((t), (t);
m, a, g) for this system, where (t) the dynamical
variable, is the instantaneous angular position relative to its equilibrium position and m, a, and g are constant parameters of the system.
As the question implies later, once we have the center of mass moment of
inertia, we can treat the rod like a pendulum, as long as we displace ICoM to
the center of the circle, a distance d = a sin (30 ). So, following the parallel
axis theorem,
ICoM + md2
1
ma2 + m(a sin (30 ))2
=
4
2
1
1
=
ma2 + m
a
4
2
1
1
ma2 + ma2
=
4
4
1
2
ma
(4)
Id =
2
Now the kinetic energy T is only rotational, the potential V is only gravitational since there is no friction, and the Lagrangian is L = T V ,
Id
=
=
1 2
Id
2
1 1
2
ma 2
2 2
1
ma2 2
4
= mga cos
1
ma2 2 mga cos
4
2
(5)
(6)
(7)
Classical Mechanics
(c) Compare the dynamics of this system with that of a simple pendulum with mass M and length L (exactly, without any approximations
such as the small oscillation approximation). Compare the parameters L and M to a and m.
With out making any approximations (I promise!) we can find the equation of motion, and compare those to that of a simple pendulum. Lets get
Lagrangimiphysical!
d L
L
= 0
dt
d 1
+ mga sin = 0
ma2
dt 2
1
ma2 =
mg a
sin
2
g
= 2 sin
(8)
a
which is indeed comparable to a simple pendulums equation of motion which
is different only by the factor of 2 if L a and M m. For a pendulum of
length L, and mass M ,
T =
1
M L2 2
2
V = M gL cos
L =
d L
dt
d
+
M L2
dt
L2 =
M
=
1
M L2 2 M gL cos
2
L
= 0
M gL sin = 0
g
M
L sin
g
sin
L
(9)
2g
ra
2g
a
(10)
Exam Iteration
Spring 2006
Fall 2006
Spring 2007
Question Number
X
X
#22
Notes/Changes
Added to bank.
= ax + b y = ax
= x xe x = x
(1)
(2)
(3)
Classical Mechanics
and the potential energy is the sum of that from the spring and that from
gravity,
V
1
kx2 + mgy
2
(Because of Eq. 2, x = x)
1
kx2 + mgy
2
(4)
T V
1
1
2
2
2
m x + y
kx + mgy
2
2
1
1
1
mx 2 + my 2 kx2 mgy
2
2
2
(5)
ax y = ax
(6)
L =
=
L =
1
1
1
mx 2 + m(ax)
2 kx2 mg(ax)
2
2
2
1
1
1
mx 2 + ma2 x 2 kx2 mgax
2
2
2
1
1
m(1 + a2 )x 2 kx2 mgax
2
2
(7)
Using the EulerLagrange equation, we can then find an expression for x(t),
d L
L
0 =
dt x
x
d
=
m(1 + a2 )x (kx mga)
dt
0 = m(1 + a2 )
x + kx + mga
k
ga
x =
x
m(1 + a2 )
m(1 + a2 )
ga
k
, and R =
Let 2 =
2
m(1 + a )
m(1 + a2 )
x
x
2
= 2 + R
Let x = 2 x + R
x = 2 x
x
= 2 x
x R
+R
= 2
2
2
x
2
x
x (t)
Classical Mechanics
= x
= 2 x
= A cos (t)
(8)
Where the last step we know comes from the typical harmonic oscillator solution,
with A as some constant. Plugging back in for x, and using the initial conditions
that x(0) = x0 ,
2 x(t) + R =
x(t)
=
=
x(t)
A cos (t)
A
2 cos (t)
x0 = x(0)
x0 + R2
A
R
2
= A2 (1) R2
= A2
2
= x0 R
R
( 2 x0 R)
cos (t) 2
2
R
R
x0 + 2
cos (t) 2
R
ga
m(1 + a2 )
ga
=
=
2
m(1 + a2 )
k
k
s
!
k
=
m(1 + a2 )
s
!
ga
ga
k
x0
t +
cos
k
m(1 + a2 )
k
(9)
(10)
Exam Iteration
Spring 2006
Fall 2006
Spring 2007
Question Number
X
X
#22
Notes/Changes
0
2
7
vi =
2
v
=
v
2ax
2g h
p
2g h
The escape velocity on the asteroid occurs when the astronauts total kinetic
energy equals the potential felt from the asteroid, i.e. his total energy is zero,
E
0 =
1
2
m
av
2 esc
1
GMA ma
ma v 2
2
rA
1
GM
A ma
2
ma vesc
2
rA
m
GMA
a
rA
1
Classical Mechanics
2
vesc
vesc
=
=
vesc
p
2g
h =
rA
rA
=
=
2GMA
r
r A
2GMA
rA
A
A = M
VA
MA = A VA
3
MA = 4
r
A A
3
s
2G 4 3
r A
rA
3 A
r
4A
rA 2G
3
!
A =
A = 4M
3
3 R
v
!
u
u
M
4
rA t2G
4
3
3
3 R
s
2GM
rA
3
R
GM
g
2 , vesc = v
R
s
2g
rA
R
s
2g
rA
R
p
R h
p
(6.4 106 m)(0.5 m)
1788.85 m
(1)
(2)
b) How fast could the asteroid rotate and not have the astronaut
be flung away from the surface?
Here, the maximum rotation speed would be when the astronauts weight
on the asteroid exactly equals the asteroids centripetal acceleration,
Fa
m
a gA
gA
= m a ac
2
vt,A
m
=
a
rA
(vt = r)
2
= max
rA
2
Classical Mechanics
max
gA
rA
(3)
Yet, we dont know what gravity is like on this asteroid. We can find out,
because its density is equal to Earths,
gA
=
=
=
gA
GMA
2
rA
G 4 3
r A
2
rA
3 A
4
M R 3
GrA
4
3
3
rA GM
2
R
R
rA
g
R
!!
(4)
So the maximum rotation the asteroid can have with out flinging the astronaut
into space is
s
r
1
A
g
max =
rA R
r
g
(5)
max =
R
r
9.8 m/s
=
6.4 106 m
max = 1.23 103 rads/s
(6)
Exam Iteration
Spring 2006
Fall 2006
Spring 2007
Question Number
#X
#24
#24
Notes/Changes
(1)
GM
R2 + z 2
(2)
where R2 = x2 + y 2 .
If the point mass is displaced from the origin a positive distance z0 , without
moving radially, then P M (R, z) becomes
P M (R, z + z0 )
GM
GM
= p
= p
2
2
2
R + (z z0 )
R + (z0 z)2
(3)
(4)
Classical Mechanics
and hence by direct comparison with Eq. 3, for z < 0, Eq. 4 is the potential of
a point mass centered at z = a, and R = 0.
Similarly, the potential of a point mass shifted from the origin a negative z0
(again keeping R = R) is
P M (R, z z0 )
GM
GM
= p
= p
(5)
R2 + (z (z0 ))2
R2 + (z0 + z)2
GM
K (R, z) = p
2
R + (a + z)2
(6)
so, again by direct comparison with 5, Eq. 6 is the potential of a point mass
centered at z = a, and R = 0.
(b) Show that all the mass must be located on the z = 0 plane and
distributed according to the surface density
k (R) =
aM
2(R2 + a2 )3/2
(7)
(8)
pillbox
where the A is the area of the disk. We can simplify the lefthand side a bit,
Z
I
Z
~ K (R, 0) d~a =
K da =
K
da = A K
(9)
z
z
z
z=0
A
pillbox
A
K (R, +z)
K (R, z)
4GK A = A
z
z
z=0
z=0
!
GM
=
p
2
2
z
z=0
R + (a + z)
2
Classical Mechanics
GM
z
=
=
4 GK
p
R2 + (a z)2
z=0
2
(R + (a + z)2 )1/2
GM
z
z=0
2
2 1/2
+ GM
(R + (a z) )
z=0
z
1
2
2 3/2
(2(a + z))(1)
GM (R + (a + z) )
2
z=0
1
2
2 3/2
+ GM (R + (a z) )
(2(a z))(1)
2
z=0
!
(a (0))
(a + (0))
+
GM +
3/2
3/2
2
2
2
2
z=0
(R + (a + (0)) )
(R + (a (0)) )
2a
GM
3/2
(R2 + a2 )
Ma
(10)
3/2
2
2
2 (R + a )
da
=
Z
da
1
2
2Z
0
Ma
(R2
3/2
+ a2 )
R dR d
1
Z
2
Ma
R dR
2
2
0 (R + a2 )3/2
= 2R dR
du
1
let u = R2 + a2
du =
R dR
2
0 a2 ,
Z
i
Ma h
M a 3/2
u
du =
2u1/2 2
2 a2
a
2
0
h
1 i
1
Ma +
a2
(11)
Exam Iteration
Spring 2006
Fall 2006
Spring 2007
Question Number
X
X
#25
Notes/Changes
Added to bank.
V +
2
2mr2
(1)
=
+
r r=R r 2mr2 r=R
V
~
~
F (r) V (r) =
r
2
0 = (F (R)) +
mR3
2
F (R) =
mR3
mr2
Veff
r r=R
F (R) = m 2 R
(2)
(3)
Classical Mechanics
when the second derivative of the effective potential is positive. This restricts
both K and s,
Veff
2 Veff
=
r2 r=R
r
r
0 <
(Feff )
r
r=R
2
F+
<
r
mr3 r=R
32
F
<
r r=R mR4
F
2
0 <
+3
r r=R
mR4
2
F
1
< 3
r
R
mR3
r=R
V
= (sKrs1 )
=
2
F
r
Eq. 2: F (R) =
F
mR3
=
s(s 1)Krs2
r
F (R)
s(s 1)KRs2 < 3
R
V
= (sKrs1 )
F =
r
sKRs1
s2
s(s 1)KR
< 3
R
s2
s2
s(s 1)
KR
< +3 s
KR
(s 1) < +3
s1
s
> 3
> 2
(4)
<
(5)
(b) What is the relation between the period P of the orbit and the
radius R of the orbit?
Weve already shown that
F
V
= (sKrs1 )
r
(6)
We can set this equal to Eq. 3, using r = R and = 2/P because the orbit is
circular,
sKRs1
m 2 R
=
2
Classical Mechanics
1
2
P2
(2)2
P2
mR
sKRs1
m
sKRs2
4 2 m 2s
R
sK
4 2 m (2s)/2
R
sK
(7)
For a quick sanity check, lets make sure we get Keplers 3rd Law when
K = GM m and s = 1,
PKepler
=
=
PKepler
4 2 m
R(2(1))/2
(1)(GM m)
4 2
m (2+1)/2
R
GM
m
4 2 3/2
R
GM
Lchayim!
(8)
Figure 1: A bead confined to a parabolic wire that is spinning about the z axis.
A suitable set of generalized coordinates would be cylindrical coordinates,
r, , and z, (as shown in Figure 1) where the equation of constraint would be
that z = r2 .
(b) A system with generalized coordinates q1 , q2 and q3 is described by
the Lagrangian L(q1 , q2 , q3 , q3 ); that is, the Lagrangian is independent
of q1 , q2 and time (explicitly). What are the conserved quantities of
this motion?
Short answer: The conserved quantities are energy, p1 , and p2 .
Thorough answer: The canonical momentums are defined as
pi
L
qi
(1)
Classical Mechanics
L
qi
d
(pi )
dt
pi
0
7
L
=0
qi
= 0
= constant
(2)
Thus, since the Lagrangian is independent of q1 and q2 , p1 and p2 are constants of motion.
Also, if the Lagrangian is independent of time then the energy function h is
constant of motion, i.e. energy is conserved, and the Hamiltonian is H = T + V .
The proof is as follows,
dL
dt
dL
dt
Constant =
0
X L
X L
7
L
dqi +
dqi +
q
i
i
t
i
i
X L
X d L
dqi +
dqi
dt qi
qi
i
i
L
d
d L
L dqi
qi
=
dqi +
dt
qi
dt qi
qi dt
L
d
qi
dt
qi
X d L dL
qi
dt
qi
dt
i
!
d X L
qi
L
dt
qi
i
X L
L
qi
h =
qi
i
(3)
(c) IfP
the kinetic energy isP
a quadratic function of generalized velocities, k, ak qk q , express k qk (T / qk ) in terms of T .
qk
T
= 2T
qk
2
(5)
Classical Mechanics
2
M R2
5
IHS =
2
M R2
3
(6)
=
=
=
TSS
THS
=
=
=
THS
1
1
2
M vCoM,SS
+ ISS 2
2
2
1
vCoM,SS 2
1 2
2
2
M vCoM,SS
+
M
R
2
2 5
R
1
1
2
2
M vCoM,SS
+ M vCoM,SS
2
5
7
2
M vCoM,SS
10
1
1
2
M vCoM,HS
+ IHS 2
2
2
vCoM,HS 2
1 2
1
2
2
M vCoM,HS
+
M
R
2
2 3
R
1
1
2
2
M vCoM,HS
+ M vCoM,HS
2
3
5
2
M vCoM,HS
6
(7)
(8)
M gh =
2
vCoM,HS
5
2
M vCoM,HS
6
6
=
gh
5
(9)
which means the solid sphere will arrive first, since it is traveling at a faster
linear velocity (10/7 > 6/5) down the ramp.
Classical Mechanics
p2
p2
p2r
+
+
2m 2mr2
2mr2 sin2
(10)
1
m(r 2 + r2 2 + r2 sin2 2 )
2
(11)
and Hamiltonian can be found from (and is in fact defined as) a Legendre
transformation between qi and pi ,
H
qi pi L
where pi
L
qi
(12)
So, turning the crank on Eq. 11, and plugging back into Eq. 12,
pr
L
= mr
r =
r
m
L
p
2
p
= mr
=
2
mr
L
p
p
= mr2 sin2 =
2
mr sin2
pr
2 !
p 2
p 2
p
1
r
2
2
2
+r
+ r sin
m
2
m
mr2
mr2 sin2
p2
p2r
p2
+
+
2m 2mr2
2mr2 sin2
r
pr +
p +
H =
p
m
mr2
mr2 sin2
p2
p2
p2
r
2m
2mr2
2mr2 sin2
2
p
p2
p2
p2
p2r
p2r
+ 2 +
m
mr
mr2 sin2 2m 2mr2
2mr2 sin2
2
2
p
p
p2r
+
+
H =
2
2
2m 2mr
2mr sin2
(13)
(14)
(1)
where the summation is over all particles in a given system. Newtons equations
for each particle in the system are
Fi =
d~
pi
dt
(3)
which gives us the inspiration to take the full time derivative of the Virial,
dG(t)
dt
=
=
X d~
X
d~ri
pi
~pi
~ri +
dt
dt
i
i
X
X
mi~r i ~r i
F~i ~ri +
i
X
i
dG(t)
dt
X
i
F~i ~ri +
X
i
F~i ~ri + 2T
1
mri2
(4)
Classical Mechanics
Since were interested in the (time) average(d) kinetic energy, T , well integrate Eq. 4 over time, from 0 to some time and normalize by the same time
,
Z
X
1 dG(t)
F~i ~ri + 2T
dt =
0
dt
i
X
1
(5)
F~i ~ri + 2T
(G( ) G(0)) =
i
If we chose to be the period and motion is cyclic (as in a Keplerian orbit),
the lefthand side vanishes (G( ) G(0) = 0) leaving
2T
F~i ~ri
1X ~
Fi ~ri
2 i
(6)
1X ~
V ~ri
2 i
(7)
and for a single particle moving under a central force (as in a particle in a
Keplerian orbit), this reduces to
T
1 V
r
2 r
(8)
= arn+1
V
r = (n + 1)V
r
T
1
(n + 1)V
2
(9)
which means for a Keplerian orbit (whose force follows and inverse square law,
n = 2), the average kinetic energy and average potential have the following
constant of proportionality
T
1
V
2
(10)
Classical Mechanics
(b) Write down the Lagrangian and the Hamiltonian of a Free Particle
of mass m in three dimensional polar coordinates.
Short Answer: The Lagrangian and Hamiltonian in polar spherical coordinates are
L
1
m(r 2 + r2 2 + r2 sin2 2 )
2
p2
p2r
p2
+
+
2m 2mr2
2mr2 sin2
(11)
(12)
= r sin cos
y
z
= r sin sin
= r cos
1
m (x 2 + y 2 + z 2 )
2
d
r 2 sin2g
cos2 + r2 cos2 cos2 2 + r2 sin2 sin2 2
}
{
z
2
2
sin cos
2r
r sin
+2rr sin cos cos
(
(((
((
2
(
(
sin
cos
sin
cos
2r(
(
( (
2
+ r 2 sing
sin2 + r2 cos2 sin2 2 + r2 sin2 d
cos2 2
z
}
{
2
2
sin cos
+2rr sin cos sin +
2r
r sin
(
(((
((
2
(
(
sin
cos
sin
cos
+2r(
(
( (
i
+ r 2 cos2 + r2 sin2 2 2rr sin cos
3
(13)
=
2T
m
Classical Mechanics
r 2 sin2g
(sin2 + cos2 ) + r2 cos2 (sin2 + cos2 )2
d
+ r2 sin2 (sin2 + cos2 ) 2
2rr sin cos (sin2 + cos2 ) + r 2 cos2
+ r2 sin2 2 2rr sin cos
1 = sin2 + cos2
2 2
2 2
2
r 2 sin2 + r2 cos
{z } +r sin
(
(
((
((
2 2
((
((
2r(
r sin
cos + r 2 cos2 + r2 sin
+(
2r(
r sin
cos
{z } (
(14)
1 2
m r + r2 2 + r2 sin2 2
2
(15)
The Hamiltonian can be found from (and is in fact defined as) a Legendre
transformation between qi and pi ,
H
X
i
qi pi L
where pi
L
qi
(16)
So, turning the crank on Eq. 15, and plugging back into Eq. 16,
pr
L
= mr
r =
r
m
L
p
2
p
= mr
=
mr2
p
L
= mr2 sin2 =
p
2
mr sin2
pr
2 !
p 2
p 2
1
p
r
2
2
2
+r
+ r sin
m
2
m
mr2
mr2 sin2
p2
p2r
p2
+
+
2m 2mr2
2mr2 sin2
4
(17)
Classical Mechanics
p
H =
pr +
p
+
m
mr2
mr2 sin2
p2
p2
p2
r
2m
2mr2
2mr2 sin2
p2
p2
p2
p2
p2r
p2r
+ 2 +
2
2
m
mr
mr2 sin 2m 2mr
2mr2 sin2
2
2
p
p
p2r
+
+
H =
2
2m 2mr
2mr2 sin2
(18)
L
qi
(19)
L
qi
d
(pi )
dt
pi
0
7
L
=0
qi
= 0
= constant
(20)
Thus, since the Lagrangian is independent of q1 and q2 , p1 and p2 are constants of motion.
Also, if the Lagrangian is independent of time then the energy function h is
constant of motion, i.e. energy is conserved, and the Hamiltonian is H = T + V .
The proof is as follows,
dL
dt
0
X L
X L
7
L
dqi +
dqi +
q
i
i
t
i
i
X L
X d L
dqi +
dqi
dt qi
qi
i
i
L
d
d L
L dqi
qi
=
dqi +
dt
qi
dt qi
qi dt
5
dL
dt
Constant =
Classical Mechanics
d
L
qi
dt
qi
X d L dL
qi
dt
qi
dt
i
!
d X L
qi
L
dt
qi
i
X L
L
qi
h =
qi
i
(21)
To recap, weve decided that h (energy), p1 , and p2 are the conserved quantities of this system.
(d) A hollow and a solid sphere, made of different materials so as to
have the same masses M and radii R, roll down an inclined plane,
starting from rest at the top. Which one will reach the bottom first?
Short Answer: The solid sphere will reach the bottom faster because it has
a smaller moment of rotational inertia, i.e. less energy is put into rotating the
solid sphere so more energy can by used in linear velocity of the center of mass.
Thorough answer: The moments of inertia for a solid and hollow sphere
(abbreviated as SS and HS, respectively) are
ISS =
2
M R2
5
IHS =
2
M R2
3
(22)
=
=
=
TSS
THS
=
=
=
THS
1
1
2
M vCoM,SS
+ ISS 2
2
2
vCoM,SS 2
1 2
1
2
2
M vCoM,SS
+
M
R
2
2 5
R
1
1
2
2
M vCoM,SS
+ M vCoM,SS
2
5
7
2
M vCoM,SS
10
1
1
2
M vCoM,HS
+ IHS 2
2
2
1
vCoM,HS 2
1 2
2
2
M vCoM,HS
+
M
R
2
2 3
R
1
1
2
2
M vCoM,HS
+ M vCoM,HS
2
3
5
2
M vCoM,HS
6
6
(23)
(24)
Classical Mechanics
M gh =
M gh =
2
vCoM,HS
5
2
M vCoM,HS
6
6
=
gh
5
(25)
which means the solid sphere will arrive first, since it is traveling at a faster
linear velocity (10/7 > 6/5) down the ramp.
(e) A satellite initially at a distance RE (= radius of the Earth) above
the Earths surface is moved out to a distance 2RE . How does its
orbital time period change?
A satellite orbiting around the Earth can be approximated quite accurately
by a Keplerian orbit. Keplers 3rd law says that such an orbits period P is
proportional to the radius of orbit a taken to the 3/2s power, so
P2
P
P
a3
8P 2
(2a)3
8a3
(26)
0
pi
0
d L
L7
=
dt qi
qi
L
pi
qi
d
=
(pi )
dt
= constant
(1)
~ V
Z r
(k r ) dr
0
1 2
V =
kr
(2)
2
The kinetic energy T is that of any moving particle, which spherical polar coordinates (where is the angle from the z axis and is the angle from the x
to
the project of the vector onto the xy plane) is
1 2
(3)
T =
m r + r2 2 + r2 sin2 2
2
Combining Eqs. 2 and 3 yields the Lagrangian,
1
1 2
m r + r2 2 + r2 sin2 2 kr2
(4)
L =
2
2
1
Classical Mechanics
=
=
dL
dt
0 =
=
0 =
constant =
0
X L dqi X L dqi
L7
+
+
qi dt
qi dt t
i
i
X d L dqi X L dqi
+
dt qi
dt
qi dt
i
i
X d L dqi
L dqi
+
dt qi
dt
qi dt
i
L
d
d L
dqi
L dqi
qi
=
+
dt
qi
dt qi
dt
qi dt
X d
L
qi
dt
qi
i
X d
L
dL
qi
dt
dt
i
i
!
d X L
qi
L
dt
qi
i
L
pi
qi
!
d X
qi pi L
dt
i
X
qi pi L h
(5)
1
1 2
m r + r2 2 + r2 sin2 2 + kr2
2
2
(6)
= ~r p~
2
(7)
Classical Mechanics
is conserved. The definition of the cross product requires then that ~j is perpendicular to ~r (and p~). This can only be true if ~r lies in a plane whose normal
is parallel to ~j. Thus, motion is restricted to a plane, and must not only be
constant but zero. If = 0, then we can reduce the Lagrangian (Eq. 4) to just
a function of r, r,
and ,
1
1 2
m r + r2 2 + kr2
(8)
E =
2
2
and p is now a constant of motion because Eq. 8 is cyclic in . We can find
= mr2 =
2
mr
(9)
This means the total energy (after killing the term) becomes
1 2
m r + r2 2 + V
E =
2
2 !
1
2
2
=
m r + r
2
mr2
E
1
2
+V
mr 2 +
2
2mr2
r 2
mr2 d
dr
=
=
=
2
2mr2
2V
2
2E
2 2
m
m
m r
1/2
2E
2V
2
2 2
m
m
m r
dr
dr
dr d
=
=
r =
d dt
d
mr2 d
1/2
2V
2
2E
2 2
m
m
m r
1/2
2E
2V
2
2 2
dr
mr2 m
m
m r
1/2
kr2
2
1 m2 2E
dr
r 2 2
m
m
m2 r 2
1/2
mkr2
1
1
2mE
dr
2
2
r2
r2
du = r2 dr
let u = r1
r2 =
u2
EV
(10)
=
d
2 d
Classical Mechanics
1/2
2mE
mk
2
2 2 u
du
2
u
2u dv
dv =
u =
v 1/2
let v = u2
1 1/2
du = 2 v
dv
1/2
mk
2mE
1 1/2
2 v
u
dv
2
v
2
1/2
mk
1 2mvE
2
v
dv
2
2
2
2mE
let =
and = mk
2
1/2
v 2 v 2
dv
2
2
v 2 v 2 =
v 2 v 2 + 4 4
2
2
= 4 2 v 2 v + 4
2
2
v 2
=
2
4
1/2
2
2
2 v
dv
2
dy
= v 2
2
= 4 2
1/2
dy
a2 y 2
Z
1
p
dy
a2 y 2
y
+2
sin1
a
let y
let a2
2 d
Z
2 d
2 2
v 2
q
2
4 2
mE
u 2
1
r2
= dv
v 2
sin1 q
2
4
2
sin (2 2)
1/2
mk
m2 E 2
2
sin (2( ))
4
(11)
=
=
=
mP s
P s
me me+
me + me+
m2e
2me
1
me
2
(1)
Thorough Answer:
Effective mass is defined by analogy with Newtons second law F~ = m~a.
Using quantum mechanics it can be shown that for an electron in an external
electric field E,
1 d2 (k)
qE
(2)
a= 2
dk 2
h
where a is acceleration, h is reduced Plancks constant, h
= h/2, k is the wave
number (often loosely called momentum since k = p/h), (k) is the energy as a
function of k, or the dispersion relation as it is often called. From the external
~ where q
electric field alone, the electron would experience a force of F~ = q E,
is the charge. Hence under the model that only the external electric field acts,
effective mass m becomes:
1
2
d (k)
2
m =h
(3)
dk 2
For a free particle, the dispersion relation is a quadratic, and so the effective
mass would be constant (and equal to the real mass). In a crystal, the situation is
1
Classical Mechanics
far more complex. The dispersion relation is not even approximately quadratic,
in the large scale. However, wherever a minimum occurs in the dispersion
relation, the minimum can be approximated by a quadratic curve in the small
region around that minimum. Hence, for electrons which have energy close to
a minimum, effective mass is a useful concept.
In energy regions far away from a minimum, effective mass can be negative or
even approach infinity. Effective mass, being generally dependent on direction
(with respect to the crystal axes), is a tensor. However, for most calculations
the various directions can be averaged out.
Effective mass should not be confused with reduced mass, which is a concept from Newtonian mechanics. Effective mass can only be understood with
quantum mechanics.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Effective_mass, 2006
Regardless, since this question is asked in the classical mechanics portion
of the exam, (and every other classical mechanics reference I looked at refers
positroniums reduced mass) I assume effective mass is equivalent to the reduced mass.
mP s
mP s
= P s
me me+
=
me + me+
m2e
=
2me
1
m
=
2 e
(4)
(b) At what point in a bound Kepler orbit is the speed of the satellite
at its minimum?
Figure 1: A particle in bound Kepler Orbit about a more massive object. Point
P is the periapsis and point A is the apsis.
Short Answer: Keplers Second Law (of Planetary Motion) states that the
radius vector of an object caught in an inverse square potential sweeps out
equal areas in equal times (as in Figure 1). In order to adhere to this law, the
object must travel fastest at the closest point of orbit, known as periapsis (think
2
Classical Mechanics
1
k
m(r 2 + r2 2 + r2 sin 2 ) +
2
r
(5)
dt
d 1 2
= 0
mr
dt 2
1
(6)
r2 = constant
2
The factor 12 is inserted because 12 r2 is the areal velocity the triangular area
swept out by the radius vector per unit time.
L =
Figure 2: The area swept out but the radius vector in a time dt.
The interpretation follows from Figure 2 above, the differential area swept
out in a time dt being
dA
=
3
1
r r d
2
(7)
Classical Mechanics
dA
1 2 d
=
r
(8)
dt
2 dt
which from Eq. 6 we know is constant.
So, for a particle in Keplerian orbit to sweep out the same area per unit time,
the object must travel fastest at the closest point of orbit, known as periapsis
(think perigee, perihelion, periastron, etc.), and slowest at the farthest point,
known as apsis (apogee, aphelion, apasteron, etc.). In other words, point A in
Figure 1 is the point at which the satellites speed in minimum.
(c) If you have two spheres of the same mass and radius, describe a
nondestructive test by which you could distinguish between the one
that is solid and the one that is hollow.
Short Answer: If one rolls both spheres down a ramp, the solid sphere will
reach the bottom faster. The solid sphere has a smaller moment of rotational
inertia, i.e. less energy is put into rotating the solid sphere so more energy can
by used in linear velocity of the center of mass. Thus, the solid sphere will travel
faster down the ramp.
Thorough answer: The moments of inertia for a solid and hollow sphere
(abbreviated as SS and HS, respectively) are
2
2
M R2
IHS = M R2
5
3
Remember v = R, so each spheres kinetic energy is
ISS =
TSS
=
=
=
TSS
1
1
2
M vCoM,SS
+ ISS 2
2
2
vCoM,SS 2
1 2
1
2
2
M vCoM,SS
+
M
R
2
2 5
R
1
1
2
2
M vCoM,SS
+ M vCoM,SS
2
5
7
2
M vCoM,SS
10
(9)
(10)
1
1
2
M vCoM,HS
+ IHS 2
2
2
1 2
vCoM,HS 2
1
2
2
M vCoM,HS
+
M
R
=
2
2 3
R
1
1
2
2
=
M vCoM,HS
+ M vCoM,HS
2
3
5
2
M vCoM,HS
(11)
THS =
6
Energy is conserved in this system, so the gravitational potential at the top
of the ramp will equal the kinetic energy at the bottom, so
THS
Vi = Tf
4
Classical Mechanics
7
2
M vCoM,SS
10
10
2
vCoM,SS
=
gh
7
M gh =
M gh =
2
vCoM,HS
5
2
M vCoM,HS
6
6
=
gh
5
(12)
which means the solid sphere will arrive first, since it is traveling at a faster
linear velocity (10/7 > 6/5) down the ramp.
(d) Which way is a particle moving from east to west in the southern
hemisphere deflected by the Coriolis force arising from the Earths
rotation?
Figure 3: A particle moves from East to West in the Southern hemisphere, along
the vector ~r.
The Coriolis Force is defined as
FCor
2m(~ ~vr )
(13)
(14)
Classical Mechanics
where the summation is over all particles in a given system. Newtons equations
for each particle in the system are
Fi =
d~
pi
dt
(16)
which gives us the inspiration to take the full time derivative of the Virial,
dG(t)
dt
=
=
X d~
X
d~ri
pi
~pi
~ri +
dt
dt
i
i
X
X
mi~r i ~r i
F~i ~ri +
i
F~i ~ri +
F~i ~ri + 2T
mri2
dG(t)
dt
(17)
Since were interested in the (time) average(d) kinetic energy, T , well integrate Eq. 17 over time, from 0 to some time and normalize by the same time
,
Z
X
1 dG(t)
dt =
F~i ~ri + 2T
dt
0
i
X
1
(18)
F~i ~ri + 2T
(G( ) G(0)) =
i
If we chose to be the period and motion is cyclic (as in a Keplerian orbit),
the lefthand side vanishes (G( ) G(0) = 0) leaving
2T
F~i ~ri
1X ~
Fi ~ri
=
2 i
(19)
1X ~
V ~ri
2 i
6
(20)
Classical Mechanics
and for a single particle moving under a central force (as in a particle in a
Keplerian orbit), this reduces to
T
1 V
r
2 r
(21)
arn+1
V
r
r
(n + 1)V
1
(n + 1)V
2
(22)
which means for a Keplerian orbit (whose force follows and inverse square law,
n = 2), the average kinetic energy and average potential have the following
constant of proportionality
T
1
V
2
(23)
p2
p2
p2r
+
+
2m 2mr2
2mr2 sin2
(24)
1
m(r 2 + r2 2 + r2 sin2 2 )
2
(25)
and Hamiltonian can be found from (and is in fact defined as) a Legendre
transformation between qi and pi ,
X
L
qi pi L where pi
H
(26)
qi
i
So, turning the crank on Eq. 25, and plugging back into Eq. 26,
L
pr
= mr
r =
r
m
L
p
p
=
= mr2
2
mr
p
L
= mr2 sin2 =
p
2
mr sin2
pr
Classical Mechanics
2 !
p 2
p 2
1
p
r
2
2
2
+r
+ r sin
m
2
m
mr2
mr2 sin2
2
p
p2r
p2
+
+
2m 2mr2
2mr2 sin2
r
pr +
p
p
+
H =
m
mr2
mr2 sin2
p2
p2
p2
r
2m
2mr2
2mr2 sin2
2
2
2
p
p2
p
p2
pr
p2r
+ 2 +
2
m
mr
mr2 sin 2m 2mr2
2mr2 sin2
p2
p2
p2r
+
+
H =
2m 2mr2
2mr2 sin2
(27)
(28)
x 1 = a cos 1
y 1 = a sin 1
(1)
(2)
x2 = a sin 1 + sin 1
y2 = a cos 1 + cos 2
Classical Mechanics
x 2 = a cos 1 + 2 cos 2
y 2 = a sin 1 2 sin 2
(3)
(4)
where Ive used 1 = , which is constant. Using these, we can arrive at the
potential and kinetic energies,
V
m
~g
~r
 1{z }1
m2~g ~r2
(5)
( 1
1((
1
(
2 ((
m
(x(
+ y 12 )(
+ Ih 2 + m2 (x 22 + y 22 )
1(
1
(
(
2
{z
} 2
2
1
m2 (a cos 1 + 2 cos 2 )2 + (a cos 1 2 cos 2 )2
2
(a2 2 cos2 1 + 2 22 cos2 2 + 2a2 cos 1 cos 2 )
=
2T /m2
2T /m2
(6)
Finally, from Eqs. 5 and 6, the Lagrangian for this hooppendulum system is
L
L
= T V
1
1
=
m2 a2 2 + m2 2 22 + m2 a2 cos(1 2 )
2
2
+ m2 ga cos 1 + m2 g cos 2
(7)
0 =
dt
1
d
=
m2 a2 + m2 a2 cos (1 2 )
dt
m2 a2 sin (1 2 )(1) m2 ga sin 1
=
h
i
0 + m2 a2 cos (1 2 ) m2 a2 sin (1 2 )( 2 )
+ m2 a2 sin (1 2 ) + m2 ga sin 1
2
Classical Mechanics
(
(((
m2(
a
2 (
sin((1 2 ) m2 a22 sin (1 2 )
m2 a2 cos (1 2 ) (
((
(
(((
m2(
a
2 (
sin((1 2 ) + m2 ga sin 1
+ (
((
m2
a 2 cos (1 2 ) =
m2
a 22 sin (1 2 )
m2
a g sin 1
2
22 sin (1 2 ) g sin 1
cos (1 2 )
(8)
Equivalently, for 2 ,
0
=
=
L
d L
dt 2
2
d
m2 2 2 + m2 a cos (1 2 )
dt
m2 a2 sin (1 2 )(1) m2 g sin 2
= m2 2 2 m2 a sin (1 2 )( 2 )
m2 a2 sin (1 2 ) + m2 g sin 2
m
2 2
2
(
(((
m2(
a
2 (
sin((1 2 )
= m2 2 2 m2 a 2 sin (1 2 ) + (
((
(
(((
m2(
a
2 (
sin((1 2 ) + m2 g sin 2
(
((
2
=
m
m
2 a sin (1 2 )
2 g sin 2
= a 2 sin (1 2 ) g sin 2
(9)
Eqs. 8 and 9 are alternate versions the same the equation of motion of the
system. This means we can set Eqs. 8 and 9 to find an expression for 2 in
terms of , 1 , and 2 . Abbreviating 1 2 as
a 2 sin g sin 2
22 sin
cos
22
22 sin g sin 1
cos
cos
g sin 1
a 2 sin g sin 2
cos
g sin 2 cos
g sin 1
a 2 cos
sin
sin
1
2
g sin 1 a sin cos g sin 2 cos 2
sin
21
a 2
g sin 2
g sin 1
csc
cos
cot
(10)
n0
= N
(1)
E
(2)
With these numbers we can establish how the system behaves. This two level
energy system will follow a binomial distribution, such that the number of microstates in the system is
N
(N, n ) =
n
N!
=
n ! n0 !
N!
(E, N ) =
(3)
E
E
!
N
!
where Ive substituted in Eqs. 1 and 2. Now that we have the number of
microstates, the entropy is
S
S
kB
kB ln( (E, N ) )
E
E
= ln(N !) ln
! ln (N ) !
(4)
Statistical Mechanics
where Ive used the properties of the natural logarithm to break up the multiplication and division present in Eq. 3. From here, we can use Sterlings
approximation (ln(x!) = x ln(x) x) to simplify the expression further,
E
S
E
E
+
= N ln(N )
N
ln
kB
E
E
E
(N ) ln N
+ (N )
E
E
E
E
(N ) ln N
ln
= N ln(N )
E
E
E
E
S(E, N ) = kB N ln(N )
(N ) ln N
(5)
ln
E
E
N ln(N )
(N ) ln N
=
ln
kB T
E
"
1 #
1
E
E
1
E
=
ln
+
"
1
#
E
E
1
E
1
+ N
N
ln N
1
1
1
1
E
E
= ln
+
+
ln N
E
E
1
ln N
ln
=
1
E
=
N
ln
1
N
1
=
ln
1
kB T
(7)
T =
kB ln NE 1
2
Statistical Mechanics
(8)
So, from this expression we can exponentiate both sides and solve for the
energy condition under which the temperatures are negative:
E
2E
>
>
>
N
2
(9)
Exam Iteration
Spring 2006
Fall 2006
Spring 2007
Question Number
X
X
#32
Notes/Changes
A crude estimate of the surface temperature of the Earth is to assume that clouds reflect a fraction ( 0.3) of all sunlight, the rest
being absorbed by the Earth and reradiated. Treating the Sun as a
blackbody at temp TS = 5800 K, find the surface temperature of the
Earth. You may assume the earth is an ideal absorber and that the
rotation of the earth allows it to emit in all directions. The radius of
the Sun is RS = 6.96 105 km and that of the Earth is 6, 400 km.
(R)
The flux of sunlight recieved by the Earth S will be the power radiated
by the sun, PS reduced by the reflection factor , and the distance the Earth is
from the Sun d,
(r)
(1 )
PS
4d2
(1)
From the StefanBoltzman Law for blackbody radiators, we know the sun will
radiate a power,
PS
AS TS4
(2)
where AS is the total surface area of the Sun, is the Stefan Boltzmann constant, and TS is the temperature of the Sun. So, Eq. 1 becomes
(r)
=
=
(r)
(1 )
PS
4d2
(1 )
PS 4RS2 TS4
2
4d
R2
(1 ) 2S TS4
d
1
(3)
Statistical Mechanics
At any given time however, only half of the Earth is facing the sun, so the power
(a)
(r)
absorbed by the Earth PE will be the flux from the sun S , gathered by the
crosssection of the Earth E (i.e. the area of a circle with radius RE ),
(a)
PE
E
(r)
(a)
= E S
(r)
PE
2
= RE
(1 )
RS2
TS4
d2
(4)
Now since were treating the Earth as a perfect (blackbody) radiator, we can
set the power absorbed equal to the power emitted, and solve for temperature.
(e)
PE
2
TE4
4
R
E
TE4
TE
TE
(a)
= PE
RS2
2
=
R
TS4
E (1 ) 2
d
R2
= (1 ) S2 TS4
4d
1/4
R2
=
(1 ) S2
TS
4d
r
RS
1/4
= (1 )
TS
2d
(5)
Plugging in numerical values, (note that the distance from the Sun to Earth d
is not given),
r
RS
1/4
TS
TE = (1 )
2d
= 0.3
RS = 6.96 1010 cm
d = 1.496 1013 cm
TS = 5800 K
TE
= 255.874 K
(6)
Figure 1: An impurity taking a random walk either right (r) or left () with
N = 14 steps, resulting in n = 4 steps to the right.
(a) After N jumps have been made, find the probability that the atom
has moved a distance R = na from its starting point, in the limit of
large N , and n.
As can be seen in the picture, the particle can either move a step right, r or
left, (or a distance a), and since the total number of steps N = r + , and
the net number of steps n = r  = R / a, the distance traveled is
R
=
=
=
=
na
r  a
r (N r) a
(2r N ) a
(1)
Since the probability that the particle will travel right, PN (r) is just as
probable as it traveling left, PN (), the total probability of it traveling anywhere
is PN (n) = PN (r) + PN () = 2PN (r).
Statistical Mechanics
From here, because were operating with large N and n, well use the natural
logarithm, and take advantage of Sterlings approximation (x! = x ln(x) x)
and the binomial expansion (ln(1 + x) = x 21 + O(x3 )).
N n
N +n
! ln
!
ln PN (n)
= ln(2) + ln(N !) ln
2
2
N +n
N +n
N +n
ln
= ln(2) + N ln(N ) N
2
2
2
N n
N n
N n
ln
2
2
2
N +n
N +n
ln
= ln(2) + N ln(N )
2
2
N n
N n
ln
2
2
N +n N n
N+
+
2
2
n
1
1
N 1+
= ln(2) + ln() + N ln(N ) (N + n) ln
2
2
N
n
1
1
(N n) ln
N 1
2
2
N
1
(
(
(+ N +
(N
+
2N(+
n
n)
((
2
= ln(2) + ln() + N ln(N )
h
1
n i
(N + n) ln(2) + ln(N ) + ln 1 +
2 h
N
n i
ln(2) + ln(N ) + ln 1
N
N
:
1
1(N n) ln(2) + ln()
+
=
1 + (N+n)
2
2
((((
1
(1((N
(
(
+ N ((N
+
n)
n)
ln(N )
(
(
2
((( 2
n 1
n
1
(N n) ln 1
(N + n) ln 1 +
2
N
2
N
2
Statistical Mechanics
(1 + N ) ln(2) + ln()
4
n3
n2
1
n
n
+
+
O
(N + n)
2
3
2
N
2N
3N
4N 4
4
1
n3
n
n2
n
+ (N n)
2
N
2N 2
3N 3
4N 4
= (1 + N ) ln(2) + ln()
4
1
n2
n2
n3
n3
n
n
+
+ O
+
2
2
2
2N
3N
N
2N
4N 3
4
2
2
3
3
n
n
n
n
n
1
n
+
+ O
2
2
2
2N
3N
N
2N
4N 3
1
= (1 + N ) ln(2) + ln()
n
n)
(
2
2
3
3
1 n3 n
n
n
n2
1
O
+
+
2
2
2 2N
2N
2
6N
6N
4N 4
3
2
n
n
= (1 + N ) ln(2) + ln()
+O
2N
4N 4
3
2
n
n
ln PN (n)
= ln 2(N +1)
+ O 4
2N 4N
3
n
where Ive dropped the terms O 4N
because N is huge. Phew! We can then
4
exponentiate both sides to get,
PN (n)
R = na
PN (R)
n2
2(N +1) e 2N
n2 = R2 /a2
=
R2
2(N +1) e 2N a2
(3)
let x =
=
1
dR
dx =
a 2N dx = dR
a 2N
Z
2
ex dx
2(N +1) a 2N
0
a 2N
2(N +1)
2
1
N
a2
2N
R
a 2N
(4)
Statistical Mechanics
Thus, for the limit in which N and n are large, the probability of an impurity
has moved a distance R is
PN (R) =
=
PN (R) =
R2
1
(
N+1) 2N
a2
2
e
N
2N
a
2
R2
2
e 2N a2
a 2N
21
R2
2
e 2N a2
2
N a
(5)
(6)
2
a2 t
21
x2
e 2ta2
(7)
M
X
i=1
PN (xi , t)
(8)
If this is the case, then we can argue that Eq. 6 must be satisfied for
PN (x, t) in place of n(x, t). From this fact we can get a value for D. Before
we do that, lets clean up PN (x, t) a little bit to get it ready for some serious
differenchumacationating.
PN (x, t)
let
PN (x, t)
2
a2
2
a2
12
12
and
= t 2 ex
t 2 e 2a2 x
2 1
2 1
2a2
(9)
Statistical Mechanics
=
t 2 ex
t
{z
}
I
I =
=
=
II =
=
=
=
=
=
I =
2
2 x
t1
(t
2x )
e
=
+
5
2 t2
D
=
=
2 PN
x2
2 1 x2 t1
D
t 2 e
2
 x
{z
}
II
2 1
2 1
1
3
1
x2 t2
t 2 ex t + t 2 ex t
2
2 1
2 1
ex t
x2 ex t
+
3
5
2t 2
t2
2 1
(t 2x2 )ex t
5
2t 2
2 1
1
D
2xt1
t 2 ex t
x
!
2 1
2xex t
D
3
x
t2
!
2 1
2 1
2ex t
2xex t
2x
D
3
3
t
t2
t2
!
2 1
2 1
2ex t
42 x2 ex t
D
3
5
t2
t2
!
2 1
2 1
2tex t + 42 x2 ex t
D
5
t2
D
D
II
+D
2 1
5
2
2
1
2 x
2
(t
2x
)
e t
5
t2
1
4
1 2a2
4
a2
2
(10)
Huh! After all that work, the diffusion coefficient is gratifyingly elegant, depending only on the size of the lattice structure!
T V 2
T
where CP and CV are the heat capacities at constant pressure and constant volume, respectively, is the coefficient of thermal expansion,
and T is the isothermal compressibility.
CP = CV +
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
where the subscript on the parenthesis indicates what is being held constant in
the partial derivative. Note also that it is assumed that the number of particles
in the system N is constant, so that dN = 0 and the subscript N is suppressed.
We start by expanding the full differential entropy into partial differentials
with respect to T and V ,
S
S
dS =
dT +
dV
T V
V T
Plugging in Eq. 1, this becomes
CV
dS =
dT +
T
S
V
dV
CV
+
T
S
V
Statistical Mechanics
T
V
T
dT +
S
V
V
P
dP
(5)
With the goal to bring CP into the expression we take the pressure to be
constant so the dP = 0 and the second term in Eq. 5 vanishes to get
V
CV
S
T
(S)P =
+
T
V T T P
S
CV
V
S
=
+
T P
T
V T T P
where using Eq. 2 yields
CP
T
CP
=
=
V
S
V T T P
S
V
CV + T
V T T P
S
(V )
CV + T
V T
CV
+
T
(6)
(7)
So Eq. 6 is then
CP
CV + T V
P
T
CP
CV +
T V 2
T
(8)
V
T
{z
P
}
(9)
T V 2
T
(1)
and the only thing in the problem were not given is the volume, for one mole
is just V = M/. So
CV CV
= 8.7 107 K 1
T = 298 K
M =
CV CV
T M2
T
(2)
= 1.14 104 kg m3
T = 1.6 1010 P a
2.072 105 kg mole1
2.56224 1019 J kg 1 K 1
(3)
Statistical Mechanics
The Law of Dulong and Petit (describing the heat capacity at constant
volume, CV ) is the formal name for the following identity,
CV = 3R
(4)
1
nf RT
2
(5)
(6)
(7)
Thus, by the power of Dulong and Petit, I predict the heat capacity at
constant volume to be
CV
=
=
3(8.314472 J K 1 mole1 )
24.9434 J g 1 K 1
(8)
(c) Find the Debye temperature of lead. How does the specific heat
of lead vary with temperature for temperatures well below the Debye
temperature?
For the first part, Ill just explicitly state the definition of the Debye Temperature, TD and everything one needs to know. For the second part, Ill derive
the Debye Temperature from scratch, and then take the low temperature limit
(i.e. take whats important to the problem from pgs 308311 of Schroeder, and
added some steps he didnt do).
So, the Debye Temperature is defined as,
1
hcs 6N 3
TD
(9)
2kB V
where cs is the speed of sound in a solid. Converting to what weve been given
in the problem,
r
N
NA
T
=
cs
V
M
2
Statistical Mechanics
TD
h
2kB
h = 6.626 1034 J s
12
6NA
M
31
(10)
kB = 1.381 1023 J K 1
T = 1.6 1010 P a
M = 2.072 105 kg mole1
= 1.14 104 kg m3
NA = 6.02 1023 particles mole1
TD
113.242 K
(11)
Aside from a few subtle differences such as slower speeds, the addition of
longitudinal polarization, and a lower limit on wavelength, sounds waves in a
solid are quite similar to light waves. Thus, in a solid, each mode of simple
harmonic oscillation has a set of equally spaced energy levels with unit energy
equal to
hf =
hcs n
2L
hcs
(12)
1
e 1
(13)
(note n
P l is entirely different from n from Eq. 12). To find the total thermal
energy, E of the crystal, we add up the energies of all dimensions (or allowed
modes),
XXX
E=3
n
P l ()
(14)
nx
ny
nz
where the factor of 3 comes from that a phonon has three possible polarization
states (one longitudinal and two transverse). From here we would normally (i.e.
for electromagnetic waves) convert to integrals, but we first must worry about
the limits of integration.
As weve said, in a crystal the atomic spacing puts a lower limit on the
wavelength. Consider the following onedimensional lattice of atoms (Figure 1).
Each mode of oscillation has its own distinct shape, with number of bumps
equal to n. Because each bump has to contain at least one atom, n cannot
exceed the number of atoms in a row.
If a threedimensional
crystal is a perfect cube, then the number of atoms
Statistical Mechanics
Figure 2: The
sum in in Eq. 14 is technically over a cube in nspace, with a
side length of 3 N . Debye makes the approximation that the cube is a sphere
of radius nmax
4
Statistical Mechanics
ny
nz
nmax
n2 sin dn d d
/kB T 1
e
0
0
0
Z 2 Z 2
hcs n
, =
sin dd =
2
2L
0
0
Z nmax
3
3
n
hcs
dn
2 0
2L ehcs n/2LkB T 1
n2
(16)
which looks nasty at first, but if we choose our variables such that
x
dx =
hcs
dn
2LkB T
xmax
hcs
n
2LkB T
kB T dx =
=
=
hcs
dn
2L
hcs nmax
2LkB T
1 hcs
T 2LkB
TD
T
6N
V
31
(17)
where Ive finally introduced the Debye temperature,
1
hcs 6N 3
TD
2kB V
(18)
then E becomes,
E
=
=
=
=
nmax
hcs
3 3
1
n hc n/2Lk T
dn
s
B
2
2L
e
1
0
3
Z xmax
1
3 2LkB T
x
k T dx
x1 B
2
hc
e
s
0
3
T 3
2LkB T
=
TD
hcs
6N
3
Z TD /T
x3
T
3 6N
kB T
dx
2
TD
ex 1
0
Z TD /T
x3
9N kB T 4
dx
3
x
TD
e 1
0
Z
(19)
Statistical Mechanics
At which point you plug the integral into your favorite computer program to
find E for any temperature if you like. BET, the question ask for limits. First,
we can check the Law of Dulong and Petit by taking the limit when T TD ,
the upper limit of the integral is much less than 1, so x is always very small and
we can approximate ex 1 + x in the denominator,
E
9N kB T 4
3
TD
TD /T
TD /T
9N kB T
3
TD
x3
dx
1 + x 1
x2 dx
CV
3
kB T 4 TD
9N
3
3
3T
TD
3N kB T
(when T TD )
E
3N kB 3nR
T V,N
(20)
(21)
CV
3 4 N kB T 4
3
5
TD
3
12 4 N kB
T
5
TD
(when T TD )
(22)
(23)
m2
3
(1)
n(~v ) d ~v =
exp
m 2kB T
2mkB T
The equation given is wrong. I shall prove otherwise.
For the canonical ensemble, partition function for N indistinguishible particles in an ideal gas is
Z
VN
N!
2mkB T
h2
32
(2)
2
1 e 2m p~
3
3
=
23 d p~ d ~q
h3
V 2m
h2
Z
P (1) (~
p) d3 p~ =
P(~
p, ~q) d3 ~q d3 p~
P (1) (~
p, ~
q ) d3 ~p d3 ~q =
P (1) (~
p) d3 p~ =
1
h3
P (1) (~
p) d3 p~ =
e 2m p~
32 V
2m
2m
h2
32
e 2m
p
~2
d3 p~
(3)
Statistical Mechanics
Yet, both this momentum distribution, and some velocity distribution should
be normalized to unity, so
Z
Z
(1)
3
1 =
P (~
p)d p~ =
n(~v ) d3~v
n(~v ) d3~v
n(~v ) d3~v
= P (1) (~
p) d3 p~
32
2 2
e 2m m ~v m3 d3~v
=
2m
3
m 2 1 m~v2 3
=
e 2
d ~v
2
(4)
which differs from the equation given in that there is no /m factor out front,
and the argument of the exponential should have either have an extra m in the
numerator, or no m in the denominator.
Hok, now lets get onto the problem.
(a) What is the average velocity h~v i?
The average velocity is defined as
Z
h~v i =
v n(v) d3 v
(5)
(6)
P (v) dv
= 4v 2 n(v)dv
3
m 2 1
2
e 2
= 4v
2
mv 2
dv
(7)
Statistical Mechanics
P (v)
v
= 4
v = vmax
m(vmax ) e
21 mv 2
(vmax )2
v = vmax
m
2
1
2v e 2
23
2 1
v e 2
v
mv 2
+ v e 2
= 2(vmax )e
12 mv 2
= 2(vmax )e
2
=
m
r
2kB T
=
m
12 mv 2
mv 2
mv 2
i
(mv)
v = vmax
m(vmax ) e
12 mv 2
(8)
(d) Obtain expressions for vavg , root mean square speed, vrms , and v,
then rank them in increasing order.
q
We can obtain the root mean square velocity, vrms = (v 2 ) by doing the
integral
Z
(v 2 ) =
v 2 P (v) dv
(9)
0
3
kb T
2
1
m (v 2 )
2
3kB T
rm
3kB T
m
(v 2 ) =
vrms
1
mv 2
2
(10)
For the average velocity, vavg = v, well actually have to do the integral.
Z
v =
v P (v) dv
0
m
2
23 Z
v 3 e 2
mv 2
dv
=
=
Statistical Mechanics
1
let = m
2
Z
3
2
4 2
v 3 ev dv
0
Z
3
4 2
v 2
ve
dv
0
let u = v 2
=
=
=
du = 2v dv
1
(0 0, )
du = v dv
2
Z
3
1
4 2
eu du
pi 2 0
!
3
eu
2 2
0
3
2
2
1
=
=
v
2 2
2
1
2 2
2
m
r
8kB T
m
(11)
Thus, since Eq. 8, 10, and 11 all three have the factor
and only differ by 2 < 8/ < 3,
p
1/m in common,
(12)
T V
BV T 3
BV T 2
(1)
1
BV T 3
3
(2)
However, since wed like to bring A into the equation we have to use the Maxwell
relation
S
P
=
(3)
V T
T V
where the subscript denotes what is being held constant in the derivative. Plugging in our equation of state and Eq. 2,
1
3
AT 4 V
=
BV T
V 3
T
T
1
BT 3 = 4AT 3
3
B = 12A
(4)
1
Statistical Mechanics
1
BV T 3
3
(2)
=
=
Vi
Vf
Vi
Vf
Vf
1
BVf Tf3
3
Vf Tf3
3
Tf
Ti
3
1
(10 K)
=
(20 K)
8
8Vi
(5)
Exam Iteration
Spring 2006
Fall 2006
Spring 2007
Question Number
#27
#38
#38
Notes/Changes
Number Shift
Part (d) removed
1
e(j ) + 1
(1)
1
where = kT
, j is the kinetic energy of a state j, and is the chemical potential
of the particles. However, at the limit of zero temperature, h nj () iF D decays
to either 0 (when j > ) or 1 (when j < ). The energy, at T = 0, at which
the nowstepfunction distribution flips from 1 to 0 is the Fermi energy, whose
value is determined (again) by the number of particles.
To perform the calculation of the number of particles, we first find the density
of states: the Jacobian of transformation between summing over energy states
j , and integrating over kinetic energies. First, to account the spin degeneracy
Statistical Mechanics
X
j
Z Z
2
=
d3 p~d3 ~q
h3
Z
2
=
d3 p~
V
h3
Z
2V
(4)
p2 dp
=
h3
0
=
2m 1/2
2 p
p
1/2
let =
dp = 12 2m
d
2m 2
2m
p =
Z
1
8V
2m
2m1/2 d
=
h3
2
0
Z
8V 1
3/2
(2m)
=
1/2 d
h3 2
0
3/2
Z
Z
2m
1/2
g() d
4V
h2
0
0
(2)
Now we can find the number of particles N , and invert for the Fermi energy
F .
N (T = 0) =
X
j
h nj () iF D
h n() iF D gF D () d
Z
Z F
(0) g() d
(1) g() d +
0
=
N
=
=
4V
2m
h2
3/2
3/2
2m
2 23
2
h
3 F
3/2
3
8
2m
V
F2
2
3
h
2/3
2
13N
h
2m 8 V
2/3
h2 3 N
8m V
4V
2 d
(3)
Statistical Mechanics
2
h
2m
2/3
2N
3
V
(4)
In this form its nice and quick to pull out the Fermi wavevector kF , since
the quantum mechanical kinetic energy is
E
h2 2
p2
=
k
2m
2m
(5)
31
2 N
3
V
(6)
kB T
(7)
2
h
2mkB
2
N 3
3 2
V
(8)
hEiT =0
g() d
h n iF D gF D () d
Z
(0) g() d
(1) g() d +
V
2 2
V
2 2
V
5 2
3
V
2m 2 1
2 d
2 2 h2
3 Z
2m 2 F 3
2 d
h2
0
3
2m 2 2 52
5 F
h2
3
2m 2 52
F
h2
3
Statistical Mechanics
V
Eq. 3: N =
3 2
hEiT =0
2m
h2
32
3
N F
5
3
2
!
(9)
hEikT F
let u =
hni
v = 52 5/2
d<n>
du = d d
let dv = 3/2
"
#
:0 2 Z
d<n>
2 5/2
5/2
d
<n> +
CF
5
5 0
d
0
(11)
CF
5
d
0
1
d
d<n>
e(j )
=
=
d
d e(j ) + 1
(e(j ) + 1)2
Z
e(j )
2
CF
5/2 ( )
=
5
(e j
+ 1)2
0
dx
=
d
let x = ( )
0 ,
Z
2
ex
hEi =
CF
dx
(12)
5/2 x
5
(e + 1)
Statistical Mechanics
+ ( )
+ ...
d
2!
d2
5
1 15
5/2 + ( )3/2 +
( )2 1/2 + ...
2
2 4
5
15
5/2 + (xkT )3/2 + (xkT )2 1/2 + ...
2
8
(13)
So that
hEi
"
Z
2
ex
dx
CF 5/2
x
2
5
(e + 1)

{z
}
(I)
Z
ex
5
kT 3/2
dx
x x
+
2
(e + 1)2

{z
}
(II)
#
Z
15
ex
2 1/2
2
(kT )
dx +...
+
x
8
(ex + 1)2

{z
}
(III)
Z
(I)
ex
dx
x
(e + 1)
d<n>
d
d<n>
"
#
:1
:0
>
<
n()
> +
<
n()
=
Z
(II)
ex
dx
(ex + 1)
= 1
Z
(14)
ex
x ex
dx
x
+ 1)(e + 1) ex
Z
x
dx
x
(e + 1)(1 + ex )
{z
}
 {z } 
x ex
dx =
x
(e + 1)2
=
(ex
even
bounds
x ex
dx =
(ex + 1)2
odd
function
(15)
(III)

{z }
even
bounds
Statistical Mechanics
x2 ex
dx
(ex + 1)2
 {z }
= 2
v
let dv
x2
2x dx
Z
xm
dx
ex + 1
=
=
=
=
hEi
x2 ex
dx
(ex + 1)2
1
ex +1
ex
(ex +1)2
5
2
2
CF 5/2 (1) +
CF
kT 3/2 (0)
5
5
2
2
2
15
2 1/2
+
+ ...
CF
(kT )
5
8
3
2
2
CF 5/2 +
CF (kT )2 1/2 + ...
5
4
32
h
2
Eq. 4:
F
= 2m
3 2 N
V2
3
2m
F
=
3 2 N
V
h
2 3
3/2
2m 2
=
3 2 N
F
2
V
h
3
N
V
2m 2
=
3
2
2
3/2
3
2m 2
V
3 N
CF =
=
2 2
2 3/2
h
2
F
!
!
2
2
3 N
3 N
5/2 +
(kT )2 1/2 + ...
5
2 3/2
4 2 3/2
F
=
=
0
Z
>
x2
2x
+
2
dx
ex
x
+1 0
e +1
0
Z
x
dx
4
x
e +1
0
1
(1 m) (m + 1) (m + 1)
2
1
4(1 ) (2) (2)
2
2
1
(1)
4
2
6
2
3
2
3
x2 ex
dx
(ex + 1)2
even
function
let u =
du =
3
5/2
1/2
3 2
N 3/2 +
N 3/2 + ...
5
8
F
F
6
(16)
(17)
hEi
Statistical Mechanics
3
N F
5
5/2
(kT )2
3 2
N
+
8
F
1/2
+ ...
(18)
Performing a similar Taylor expansion process for N (see Schroeder pp 282284) yields the expansion that,
= 1
2
12
kT
F
2
+ ...
(19)
5/2
1/2
2
1
12
kT
F
2
!5/2
+ ...
and plug back into the ensemble average energy (Eq. 18),
!
2
5 2 kT
3
hEi =
N F 1
+ ...
5
24
F
!
2
2 kT
(kT )2
3 2
1
N
+ ... + ...
+
8
F
24 F
(22)
3
3 2
3 2
(kT )2
(kT )2
(kT )2
+
+O
N F
N
N
5
24
F
8
F
3F
3 2
2
(kT )2
(kT )2
(kT )2
3
+
+O
N F
N
N
5
8
F
8
F
3F
2
(kT )2
3
+ ...
N F +
N
5
4
F
(23)
Statistical Mechanics
Now we can finally get to the question. Remember we are trying to show
that CV T for low temperatures. This is quick attainable from Eq. 23, and
the definition of the heat capacity at constant volume,
hEi
CV
T V,N
3
2
(kT )2
=
+ ...
N F +
N
T 5
4
F
2
2
k
CV =
T T
(24)
N
2
F
Statistical Mechanics
OLD VERSIONS
(d) If the magnetic moment of the particles is e , show that the paramagnetic susceptibility for low fields in the limit of zero temperature
is given by
3 n2e
2 F
(25)
This part deals with the quantum mechanical property of fermions known as
the Zeeman splitting. When a weak magnetic field is applied to a fermi gas, the
~ i) and down (antiparallel to B,
~ +i) energy levels of
up (parallel to B,
the particles are perturbed such that the energy states of the up particles are
increased, and the down particles are decreased, causing a splitting of what
initially was a single set of quantized energy states. The Zeeman effect is a 1st
order perturbation theory problem in quantum mechanics (Check p245246 of
Griffiths, or Wikipedias article for more detialed explanations. Merzbachers is
pretty weak sauce, but its on p472473). Anyways, this is a StatMech problem,
so we really only care about the resulting energies, so Ill only highlight the
details.
The perturbing hamiltonian is
b
H
b B
~
~
e
(26)
~be
b
H
b
e B
b
H
b
~
gJ B S
h
(27)
2 B Sb
h
h
b
bi
Si =
2
B
bz B
(28)
where
bz is the Pauli spin matrix, and Ive assumed that the field was applied
in the zdirection.
9
Statistical Mechanics
The total energy of the antiparallel (down, +i, or the positive eigenvalue
of
bz ) state is
T
= + B B
= B B
1
e[(j B B)) + 1
(29)
and
1
h nj ( B B) iF D
2
(30)
where the factors of 1/2 insures the distribution remains normalized. The left
distribution corresponds to the up spins, i.e. those energy levels displaced by
a positive B B and therefore the probability range over which it extends is
from B B < T < . The right distribution are the down spins, displaced by
negative B B, so the range is B B < T < .
From here, we can calculate the net magnetization per unit volume M , the
derivative of which (with respect to B) is . The net magnetization would be
the total number of particles antialign subtracted from those aligned (in a given
volume), or
M
(N N )
V
(31)
We know how to find the number of particles: integrate the probability distribution corresponding the particles over the correct region. Thus, the magnetization
is then
Z
B
1
M =
h n( + B B) iF D gF D () d
V
B B 2
Z
1
h n( B B) iF D gF D () d
B B 2
Z
B
[h nj ( + B B)i h nj ( B B)i] g() d
=
2V 0
!
f (x)
f (x+h)f (xh)
x
2h
(x)
f (x h) f (x + h) =
2 h fx
Z
B
h n() i
=
g() d
2 B B
2V
0
Z
2B B
h n() i
M =
g() d
(32)
0
10
Statistical Mechanics
lim
T 0 0
0
which makes Eq. 32 a lot prettier,
M
=
=
=
Z
2B B
( F ) g() d
V
0
2B B
g(F )
V
1/2 B
2B CF F
V
!
3 N
Eq. 17: CF =
2 3/2
F
!
3
N
B
1/2
2B
F
2 3/2
V
F
3 2B N
B
2 F V
(34)
Finally, if I convert to the notation the proof desires (N/V n), the magnetic susceptibility is
M
B
3 2B
nB
B 2 F
3 n 2B
2 F
Its cool. Youll remember all of this during the qualifier. I promise.
11
(35)
Exam Iteration
Spring 2006
Fall 2006
Spring 2007
Question Number
#28
#39
#39
Notes/Changes
Number Shift
0 H
(1)
where the or up state is aligned with the magnetic field H, and the + or
down state is antialigned. The grand canonical partition function for the
particle is then,
X
Zi
eE(s)
=
=
Zi
s
E
+ eE+
e
0 H
e
+ e0 H
1
cosh (e + e )
2
2 cosh (0 H)
(2)
1
(Zi )N
N!
1
Statistical Mechanics
2N
coshN (0 H)
N!
(3)
where taking the partition function to the N th power accounts for all the particles, and dividing by N ! corrects for double counting present because of indistinguishability.
Once we have the partition function of a system, we can find any other
property of the system desired, as long as we remember a few relations. The
relation relevant to the ensemble mean energy hEi is
hEi
1 Z
=
(ln (Z))
Z
(4)
From Eq. 4 we see well need the natural log of Eq. 3, so lets get that out
of the way,
N
2
N
ln (Z) = ln
cosh (0 H)
N!
N
2
= ln
+ ln coshN (0 H)
N!
N
2
+ N ln (cosh (0 H))
(5)
ln (Z) = ln
N!
Happily, the first term will vanish when plugged into Eq. 4, because its independent of , so we need not use Sterlings approximation or anything fancy
like that. So, the ensemble mean energy is
!
N
2
+ N ln (cosh (0 H))
ln
hEi =
N !
N
=
sinh (0 H) 0 H
cosh (0 H)
hEi
= 0 N H tanh (0 H)
(6)
kT ln (Z)
from which well find the entropy using the following Maxwell relation,
F
S =
T V,N
(7)
(8)
Statistical Mechanics
2
N
S =
kT ln
cosh (0 H)
T
N!
"
!#
N
2N
2
N
ln
cosh (0 H) kT
+ N ln cosh (0 H)
= k ln
N!
T
N!
N
= k ln (Z) kT
sinh (0 H) 0 H
cosh (0 H)
T
1 1
1
1 1
=
=
=
T
T kT
k T2
kT T
N
H
sinh
(
H)
kT
0
0
= k ln (Z) +
kT T cosh (0 H)
N
2
0 N H
S = k ln
coshN (0 H) +
tanh (0 H)
(9)
N!
T
c) The magnetization m of a solid is defined as the net magnetic
moment per unit volume. The average magnetic moment is defined
via hEi = hM iH. For noninteracting moments, the magnetization
typically obeys a Curie Law where m = 0 H/T for vanishingly small
H, find the value of the constant 0 for this problem.
If (as given in the problem statement),
hEi = hM iH
(10)
then the average magnetic moment hM i, (which is effectively equivalent to magnetization m mentioned in the problem for large systems) using Eq. 6 is
hM i =
m
hEi
H
tanh (0 H)
0 N
H
H
0 N tanh (0 H)
(11)
(12)
H0
0 N
0 H
kT
Statistical Mechanics
m(T ; H 0) =
0
Doneski.
20 N H
k T
20 N
k
(13)
Exam Iteration
Spring 2006
Fall 2006
Spring 2007
Question Number
#29
#40
#40
Notes/Changes
Number Shift
Part (d) removed.
(1)
=
=
=
Z Z
2
d2 p~d2 ~q
h2
Z
2
A
d2 ~p
h2
Z
2A
(2)
p dp
h3
0
p2
p =
let =
dp =
2m
1
1
2
1/2
2m 1/2
2m
d
X
j
Statistical Mechanics
Z
4A
1 2m1/2
1/2
2m
=
d
2
h
2
0
Z
4A 1
=
d
2m
h2 2
0
Z
Z
4mA 2
g() d
h2
0
0
(2)
nF D
e()
+1
(3)
which at the limit of zero temperature splits into two regions (i.e. has values
1 or 0). The nonvanishing portion of the distribution is in the energy regime
0 < < F , (the upper limit is the Fermi Energy, or chemical potential at
zero temperature), because the Pauli Exclusion Principle dictates that fermions
(spin1/2 particles) cannot occupy the same energy state. Thus instead of all
collapsing to some ground state, they stack up in energy to F when temperatures very small.
The result of the integral will yield N (F ), which we can invert to get F (N )
X
nF D
N =
j
NT =0
=
=
lim
T 0
Z F
0
g() d
+1
Z
(0) g() d
(1) g() d +
e()
(4)
4mA
=
d
h2
0
4mA
N =
F
h2
N h2
(5)
F =
4mA
Finally, we make use of the equipartition theorem which states that every kinetic
degree of freedom gets an energy of 12 kB T . Since there are two degrees of
freedom in this 2D system,
Z
kB T
So,
TF
f
N h2
=
kB
4mkB A
(6)
Statistical Mechanics
(c) Find the total kinetic energy of the gas at zero temperature.
Again, well use Eq. 1 for ensemble average energy, hEi. Because we want the
value at T = 0, the same limits apply as in part (b). Ready, steady, integrate.
Z F
g() d
hEiT =0 =
0
Z F
4mA
hEiT =0 =
d
h2
0
1 2 4mA
=
2 F h2
2mA 2
F
(7)
hEiT =0 =
h2
and from Eq. 5,
hEiT =0
=
=
=
hEiT =0
2
2mA
h2
N
h2
4mA
N 2 h4
2mA
2
h
16 2 m2 L4
2 2
N h
8mA
N 2 h2
8mA
(8)
dx
=
d
d
=
kT x
let x = ( )
0 ,
Z
Z
4mkT
1
1
4mA
A
kT
dx
=
dx
=
2
x
2
x
h
h
e + 1
e + 1
3
Statistical Mechanics
1
b
dx = [x ln (ex + 1)]a ;
ex + 1
h2
2mkT
1/2 !
[x ln (ex + 1)]
2
h
i
lim x ln (ex + 1) = x ln (ex ) = x x = 0
x
i
A h
()
=
(0)
()
ln
(e
+
1)
2
= + ln (e + 1)
=
N
N 2
A
e
N 2
A
e
ln (e
= e eln (e
= e
N 2
A
= ln (e
= ln (e
+1)
= e (e + 1) = (1 + e )
N 2
A
N 2
A
= kT ln (e
1)
1)
N 2
A
1)
(9)
Statistical Mechanics
OLD VERSIONS
(d) Find the pressure exerted by the gas at zero temperature. dF =
pdA.
Im pretty sure that the reason the equation dF = pdA is to just to establish the sign convention (some texts like to define work, W = dF as positive
when leaving the system, i.e. W = P dV , and others like W = P dV , i.e. positive work is done when entering the system. This problem chooses the latter,
but since were dealing with a 2D system, dV dA).
Anyways, because of the convention chosen, the thermodynamic identity is
dhEi =
T dS P dA + dN
(10)
=
=
1
N 2 h2
8m A A
N 2 h2
1
2
8m
A
2 2
N h
8mA2
(12)
(1)
1
mv 2
2
(2)
Using the fact that photons have zero chemical potential, derive an
equation describing the concentrations n+ and n of positrons and
electrons as related to each other at a given temperature.
The second law of thermodynamics demands that the entropy S of a given
system and its surroundings must either remain the same (in equilibrium), or
increase (dStotal 0). Also, because of this fact the Gibbs free energy G either
must either remain the same (in equilibrium) or decrease, i.e. dG 0. For a
pure system, with only one type of particle, this differential Gibbs free energy
is
G
dG
dG
E TS + PV
(3)
= dE T dS SdT + P dV + V dP
(Thermodynamic ID: dE = T dS P dV + dN )
= SdT + V dP + dN
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
Statistical Mechanics
=
=
e+ Ne+ + e Ne + N
e+ (1) + e (1) + (2)
e+ + e + 2
(8)
However, the chemical potential for photons is zero (either believe the problem
statement, or check out Schroeder pp 289290), so
0 =
e+ =
e+ + e
e
(9)
But wait! The mass of positrons and electrons are the same, which means
their energies are the same (via Eq. 2). From Eq. 4, at constant S (were
in equilibrium, so its OK) and at constant V (were taking the whole early
universe as our system; also OK),
E
=
(10)
N S,V
which means the chemical potentials must be equivalent. Hmm... the only
number thats both equivalent and opposite to itself is zero. So,
e+ = e =
= 0
(11)
Good to know. Now, the only thing left to do is find the concentrations Ne+
and Ne .
Positrons and electrons are both fermions, which means they obey the FermiDirac distribution,
h nj (Ej ) iF D
1
e(Ej ) + 1
(12)
2
p
1
where = kT
, Ej is the kinetic energy = 21 mv 2 = 2m
plus the rest mass
2
mc (as in Eq. 2) of a state j. In the early universe, where we have to consider
relativistic energies Ej kT , the exponential will be huge, so we can ignore the
additive factor of 1. Also, weve already shown that the chemical potentials of
the particles were working with are zero. This leaves a probability distribution
of
h nj (Ej ) i =
1
+ 1
e(Ej )
1
= eEj
eEj
(13)
Statistical Mechanics
The total number of each particle, N defined by summing over the probability distribution of states (i.e. Eq. 13),
X
h nj (E) i
(14)
N
j
but as weve already established, there are lots of energy states so we can safely
convert this to an integral, as long as weve got the conversion factor: the density
of states g(). Scuse me while I grab this eversovital Jacobian,
X
X
= 2
j
=
=
=
d3 ~p d3 ~q
Z
3
V
2V
d p~ =
(2)3
Z
2V
(4)
k 2 dk
(2)3
0
2 2
p2
h k
=
2m
2m
let =
=
=
=
=
d3~k
=
=
=
h k
m dk
q
2m
h
2
q
2m
h
2
dk
m
h
2
m h2 1/2
2m
d
h2
h2 2m
0
Z
2 3/2
2V
m
1/2 d
(4)
(2)3
h3
0
Z
V 2 2 3/2
m
1/2 d
2 2
h3
0
3/2
Z
Z
2m
V
1/2
d
=
g() d
2 2 h2
0
0
2V
(4)
(2)3
h n(E) ig()d
e
E
E
eE
V
2 2
2m
h2
3/2
1/2
= mc2 + 1/2 mv 2
2
p
=
mc2 + 2m
=
mc +
mc2
=
e
e
3
(15)
Statistical Mechanics
3/2
Z
V
2m
mc2
=
e
e 1/2 d
2 2
h2
0
R
(n+1)
xn ex dx
=
n+1
R0 1/2 x
(3/2)
dx =
0 x e
3/2
(n + 1)
=
n!
(3/2)
= (1/2)! = 2
3/2
2m
V
mc2
e
=
2
3/2
2 2
2
h
3/2
2
2m
V
emc
=
4 h2
3/2
2
V 22 2mkT
=
emc
2
4
h
3/2
2
2mkT
emc
= 2V
2
h
1/2
h2
let =
2mkT
2
V
= 2 3 emc
(16)
Phew. OK, thankfully were done: because energies are the same, and s
are same, this calculation for N is valid for both positrons and electrons. If the
total number of each particle is the same, then the concentrations in the early
universe are equivalent.
The more subtle purpose of this question was to show the reason behind
one of the big unsolved questions in physics: we live in a real universe full of
electrons (as opposed to an antiuniverse full of positrons), i.e. in the early
universe there must have been slightly more electrons than positrons. But we
just just proved that the concentrations were the same... W T F mate? Whelp,
show how theyre different, and Ill give ya a Nobel Prize.
(j )
(1)
p2
j
is the kinetic energy of each state
over all j possible states. Here, j = 2m
1
(independent of position, q), is the chemical potential, and = kT
.
j=0
X
j=0
h nj iBE
(2)
1
e
(j )
1
e 1
X
j=1
1
e
(j )
(3)
BoseEinstein condensation occurs when the chemical potential is approximately zero. Thus, we exclude the first term in Eq. 3 for now, as its limit goes
to zero as approaches zero. Then we can change the second term to an integral (valid for large N ), and proceed finding expression for Tc . The conversion
involves finding the density of states for bosons, so lets take a detour for a bit:
Z Z
X
=
d3 ~p d3 ~q
d3 p~ =
V
(2)3
d3~k
Statistical Mechanics
V
(4)
(2)3
=
=
=
k 2 dk
p2
~2 k 2
=
2m
2m
let =
=
=
=
h k
m dk
q
2m
~2
q
~2
2m
m
~2 dk
2m
m ~2 12
d
2
~
~2 2m
0
Z
2 3
1
V
2
2 d
(4)
m
(2)3
~3
0
Z
3
V
3
1
(2)
2
2m
(4) 3
2 d
3
h
(2)
0
23
Z
Z
2V 2m
gBE () d
d
h2
0
0
V
(4)
(2)3
(4)
=
=
h nj ( 0) iBE
j=1
Z
0
=
=
h n( 0) iBE gBE () d
2V
2m
h2
2V
2m
h2
32 Z
32 Z
1
()
1
2
d
e 1
d
dx =
d =
kT dx
let x =
1
1
12
= (kT ) 2 x 2
3 Z
1
1
2V 2m 2
(kTc ) 2 x 2
kTc d
=
h2
ex 1
0
3
Z
1
3
x2
2V 2m 2
2
(kT
)
=
c
h2
ex 1
0
R
xn1
=
(n)(n)
x 1 dx
0
e
( 32 ) = 2
( 32 ) 2.612
3
2 2mk 2
3
2
Tc ( )
= V
2
h
2
2
2
(5)
Statistical Mechanics
3
3
2mk 2
Tc2
2
h
2 32
h
1 N
3 V
2mk
( 2 )
3
= ( ) V
2
N
3
Tc2
Tc
h2
2mk
1 N
( 32 ) V
23
(6)
1
nn
2
n =
2L
n
(7)
h
n
hni
2L
(8)
The individual kinetic energies in this 3D box define a sphere in nspace,
=
=
~
p2
2m
2
2
2 !
hnx
hny
hnz
1
+
+
2m
2L
2L
2L
h2
(n2 + n2y + n2z )
8mL2 x
(9)
where n is the radius of the sphere in nspace. The lowest energy state will then
be
0 =
h2
2
8mL2 (1
+ 12 + 12 ) =
3h2
8mL2
(10)
1
e
(0 )
(11)
When temperatures are below the critical temperature, N0 gets quite large.
Now look back at the integrand
of Eq. 5: as goes to zero, the density of
states (the part proportional to ) goes to zero while the BoseEinstein distribution blows up (in proportion to 1/). Although the product is an integrable
3
Statistical Mechanics
function, its not clear that this infinite spike at = 0 correctly corresponds
to the sum over all states (Eq. 3). In fact, weve already seen from Eq. 11
that the number of atoms in the ground state can be enormous when 0,
and this number was not included in the calculation of the critical temperature
in part (a). On the other hand, the integral should correctly approximate the
number of exited particles not in the ground state with energies far away from
this divergence, i.e. 0 . If one imagines cutting off the integral at a lower
limit that is somewhat greater than 0 but much less than kT , one still gets
approximately the same answer,
Nexcited
3
( ) V
2
2mkT
h2
T
Tc
23
(For T < Tc )
(12)
or more simply,
Nexcited
32
(T < Tc )
(13)
If these are all the excited particles, the rest must be in the ground state, and
thus it follows that
N
N0
=
=
=
N0
N0 + Nexcited
N Nexcited
23
T
N
N
Tc
32 !
T
1
N
Tc
(T < Tc )
(14)
kB T 2 CV
(1)
h (E hEi) i
h E 2 2 E hEi + hEi2 i
Ensemble average is linear: h A + B i = hAi + hBi
hE 2 i 2hEihhEii + hEi2
Ensemble average is a constant hhEii = hEi
hE 2 i 2hEi2 + hEi2
hE 2 i hEi2
(2)
which looks a lot like the definition of the variance that were used to from
statistics.
Now lets figure out some alternate definitions of each term in Eq. 2. The
ensemble average of any operator O is defined as
hOi
X
j
Oj Pj =
1 X
Oj eEj
Z j
(3)
P
where P is the probability distribution of states, Z j eEj is the partition
function, = (kT )1 , and Ej is the energy of the jth state.
1
Statistical Mechanics
eEj
Z
j
X
Ej
e
Z
hEi
hEi
1 Z
Z
(4)
2
2
1 Z
1 Z
= 2
=
Z
Z
(5)
which means
2
hEi
=
hE 2 i =
1 X 2 Ej
Ej e
Z j
!
P
P
Ej
Ej
=
j ( Ej ) e
je
P
P Ej
2
2 Ej
=
j Ej e
je
2
1 2 X Ej
e
Z 2
j
1 2Z
Z 2 2
(6)
hE 2 i hEi2 =
1
1 2Z
2
2
2
Z
Z
2
(7)
k
1
1
= (kT )2 (k) =
=
=
T
T kT
(kT )2
kT 2
2
Statistical Mechanics
CV is then
CV
=
kT 2 CV
=
=
kT 2 CV
hEi
hEi
1 hEi
=
=
T
T
kT 2
1 Z
Eq. 4: hEi =
Z
1
1 Z
+
kT 2 Z
Z
1 Z
1
+
Z
Z
2
1 Z
1 Z Z
+
Z 2
Z 2
2
1 Z
1 2Z
2
Z 2
Z
(9)
= h 2 i = hE 2 i hEi2
(10)
Eq. 1
: hE 2 i hEi2 = kT 2 CV
Equipartition Thm. : hEi = f N kT
=
rms
hEi
= f2 N k
Eq. 8
: CV = hEi
T
1/2
!1/2
1/2
2 f
2
N
k
kT
4 kT 2 f2 (N k)
2
kT
2
=
=
2
2
f 2 (N k)2 T 2
kT
fN
f
N
kT
2
1/2
2
(11)
fN
For macroscopic systems, in which N is huge, this ratio is really, really, really,
really, ridiculously small. For example, for 1 mole (N = NA = 6.02 1023 ) of
monatomic gas (f = 3),
rms
= 1.05234 1012
hEi
3
(1)
=
=
N
PV
kT
P
V
=
=
1 atm
100 cm3
k
=
=
=
1.013 105 P a
1 104 m3
1.381 1023 J K 1
(2)
=
hEi =
f
N kT
2
(Assume the gas is monatomic, i.e. f = 3)
3
(2.0958 1021 particles)(1.381 1023 J K 1 )(350 K)
2
15.159 J
(3)
(4)
Statistical Mechanics
If the small subvolume v has sides of length L, then the subbox has volume
v = L3 . Thus, there must be certain number Nv = V /v subvolumes in the total
volume V . Now imagine emptying box V of particles. If we toss one particle in
the box, the probability that it will not land in a given subbox will be
Nv 1
one particle
(5)
P
=
does not land in v
Nv
The next particle we toss in will have the exact same probability, and the one
after that, and so on. Thus, if we toss N particles in V , the probability that no
particles will be found in the subvolume v is
P
none of N particles
are in v
=
=
P
none of N particles
are in v
N
Nv 1
Nv
!N
V
v 1
(6)
V
v
v
V
V
1
v
v N
1
V
N
(7)
Exam Iteration
Spring 2006
Fall 2006
Spring 2007
Question Number
#35
#46
#46
Notes/Changes
The pressure in a vacuum system is 103 mm Hg. The external pressure is 1 atm at 300 K. This is a pinhole in the vacuum system of
area 1010 cm2 . Assume that any molecule entering the pinhole goes
through. Use an average molecular weight of air as 29 amu.
(a) How many molecules enter the vacuum system each hour?
The process in which gas at high pressure is moving freely through a pinhole
into a much lower pressure is known as effusion. Effusion problems are usually
defined such that the flow of particles is from a confined system, at high pressure,
outward into an unconfined vacuum. This problem, which has particles leaking
into a confined vacuum, is very similar. The resulting equation of particle flow
rate dN/dt will differ only by a negative sign to account for the directional
difference. Thus, Ill derive the flow rate for outward leaking gas, and change
the sign at the end.
The pressure P on an area A of the container wall caused by a single air
particle of mass ma over a time period t is
1
F
ma v
=
(1)
P =
A
t
A
If we (arbitrarily) chose a reference frame so the particle moves in the x
direction, with average velocity vx , then v as it bounces of the wall in time t
should be 2 vx . This velocity can be approximated by the rootmeansquared
velocity vx = vxrms defined by the temperature and mass of the particle via
the Equipartition Theorem,
hEiKin
hEiT herm
1
Classical Mechanics
1
ma vx2
2
1
ma vx2
2
=
=
vx2
q
vx2
1
kT
2
1
kT
2
kT
ma
r
kT
vxrms
ma
(2)
v 1
t A
2 vx 1
= ma
t A
2 vxrms 1
ma
t A
r
2ma
kT
=
At
ma
= ma
(3)
For an infinitesimal amount of (noninteracting) air particles dN , the pressure of the gas trying to escape becomes
r
r
2ma
2(ma dN )
kT
kT dN
=
(4)
P =
A dt
ma
A
ma dt
This pressure should be approximately equivalent to the pressure on a wall
with a pinhole poke in it, as the area of the hole (A = 1010 cm2 ) is approximately the size of the air molecule, allowing barely more than one particle
through at a time.
We can now rearrange for the flow rate of air particles dN/dt from a pressurized contain outward into a vacuum,
r
dN
P A ma
=
(5)
dt
2ma kT
As Ive mentioned earlier, Ill now flip the sign, because the direction of flow
is opposite from that which weve used to derive the flow rate. Thus, the flow
rate of particles into a confined vacuum from a pressurized exterior is
r
1
dN
1
=
P A
(6)
dt
2
ma kT
(Note that Ive combined the ma s).
Finally, we plug in the numbers given in the problem statement, converting
to mks units. For Pa = 1 atm = 1.013 105 P a, Apinhole = 1010 cm2 = 1
Classical Mechanics
1
(1.013 105 P a) (1 1014 m2 )
2
s
dN
dt
1
(4.8
kg)(1.381 1023 J K 1 )(300 K)
particles s1 3600 s hr1
1026
3.5854 1013
(7)
(b) If the volume of the system is 2 liters, by how much does the
pressure rise in 1 hour?
Assuming the air obeys the ideal gas law (quite safe at room temperature),
we can find the change in pressure by computing
V P
P
= kT N
kT
N
=
V
(8)
assuming that effusion happens slow enough such that the system remains in
thermal equilibrium, i.e. T is constant.
Having computed the flow rate of particles into the vacuum (Eq. 7), over
one hour the number of particles in the chamber should increase by
N = Nf Ni
N
dN
t
dt
= (1.3 1017 particles hr1 ) (1 hr)
= 1.3 1017 particles
(9)
=
=
kT
N
V
(1.381 1023 J K 1 )(300 K)
(1.3 1017 particles)
(0.002 m3 )
0.267 P a = 0.002005 mm Hg
(10)
(c) How long does it take for the pressure to rise to 750 mm Hg? Note:
this is close to the pressure outside the vacuum tank.
We now have a rate for pressure increase from part (b), (assuming the pressure increases linearly with time as the ideal gas law dictates),
dP
dt
(11)
Classical Mechanics
=
=
dt
t
(Reset clock such that ti = 0)
t
(750 mm Hg)
P
=
(12)
E TS + PV
(1)
= dE T dS SdT + P dV + V dP
(Thermodynamic ID: dE = T dS P dV + dN )
(2)
= SdT + V dP + dN
(3)
Taking the partial derivative of both sides of Eq. 3 with respect to N , holding
T and P constant,
G
=
(4)
N T,P
or more simply, since weve assumed the number of particles is fixed in addition
to temperature and pressure,
G =
(5)
Phase transitions are determined when two phases are in chemical equilibrium with each other (for example a solid phase in equilibrium with a liquid
phase is the melting/freezing phase transition). In order to achieve an overall
system (system A and the reservoir) increase in entropy (essential for a spontaneous process), the Gibb free energy is minimized in equilibrium:
dStotal
dSA + dSR 0
1
(6)
Statistical Mechanics
For each part of the system, Eq. 2 applies, (used here in the form dS =
P
T dV T dN ) such that for fixed T , P , and N
dStotal
=
=
=
=
dE
T
0
>
1
P
dSA +
dER +
dVR
dN
T
T
T
(dER = dER ; dVR = dVA )
dEA
P
dSA
dVA
T
T
1
(T dSA dEA P dVA )
T
1
(dEA T dS + P dVA )
T
1
(dN )T,P
T
0
0
:
:
(dG)
=
SdT
V dP + dN
T,P
dStotal
1
dG
T
(7)
Thus, the temperature and pressure line where the Gibbs free energy, and
(via Eq. 5) the chemical potential of each phase is equivalent defines the phase
transition. Therefore, on the coexistence linePcoex (T ), the chemical potentials
are equivalent.
By inspection, one can then infer that at low temperatures where phase 1
exists, phase 1 has lower chemical potential than phase 2, i.e. 1 < 2 (low
chemical potential corresponds to stronger attraction). At high temperatures
where phase 2 exists, 2 < 1 .
b) Derive the ClausiusClapeyron equation for the slope of the coexistence curve.
dPcoex
dT
L
T (v1 v2 )
(8)
As established in part (a), the Gibbs free energies along the coexistence
curve for two phases are equivalent. So, for constant N , using Eq. 3,
G1 = G2
: 0= S dT + V dP +
:0
S1 dT + V1 dP +
1
dN
2 dN
2
2
(V1 V2 ) dP = (S1 S2 ) dT
dP
(S1 S2 )
=
dT
(V1 V2 )
(9)
The molar latent heat L is defined as L Q/m where Q is the heat required
to complete a particular phase transition and m is the molar mass. During this
phase transition, temperature is constant, and for such an isothermal process
2
Statistical Mechanics
=
=
=
dP
dT
(S1 S2 )
(V1 V2 )
m
Q
T (V1 V2 ) m
Q/m
T (V1 /m V2 /m)
L
T (v1 v2 )
(10)
or P V = nRT
Pv
RT
RT
P
(12)
=
=
1
dP =
P
P0
P
=
ln
P0
P
=
P0
Psvp (T ) =
LP
RT 2
L
dT
RT 2
Z T
L
1
dT
R T0 T 2
L 1
1
R T
T0
L
eR
( T1 T1 )
0
P0 e R ( T0 T )
(13)
Z1
hi
ej
X
j
M =
j Pj
hi
V
1
ZN
N! 1
Z =
hi =
m =
ln(Z)
(B)
M
B
(1)
(2)
(3)
p2
B
2m
(4)
eB
p2
e 2m + eB
X
j
p2
e 2m
Statistical Mechanics
eB + eB
X
p2
e 2m
=
=
=
=
=
=
Z1
1 x
x
e +e
cosh x =
2
Z Z
p2
1
3
3
2m
(2 cosh (B))
d ~p d ~q
e
h3
Z
p2
V
e 2m d3 p~
2 cosh (B) 3
h
Z
p2
V
2 cosh (B) 3
e 2m d3 ~p
h
3
Z
p2
V
e 2m dp
2 cosh (B) 3
h
r
Z
x2
e
dx =
3/2
V 2m
2 cosh (B) 3
h
3/2
h2
2mkT
let
=
2V cosh (B)
h2
2mkT
2V
cosh (B)
3
(5)
1 X
j ej
Z j
p2
e 2m e
j
p2
2m
e
P
(B)
p2
e 2m e
p2
e 2m e
Statistical Mechanics
1
(Z)
Z (B)
(ln(Z))
(B)
=
hi
(8)
=
=
=
=
hi
"
#)
N
1 2V
N
ln
cosh ( B)
N ! 3
"
#
N
1 2V
N
ln
+ ln cosh B
(B)
N ! 3
"
#
N
2V
1
ln
+
[N ln (cosh ( B))]
3
(B)
N
!
(B)
d
cosh u = sinh u du
du
N sinh (B) ()
cosh (B)
N tanh (B)
(B)
(9)
hi
V
N
tanh (B)
V
(10)
M
N
=
tanh (B)
B
VB
(11)
p2
B cos
2m
3
(12)
Statistical Mechanics
which means we cant pull that portion out of the (single particle) partition
function as we did in part (a). So,
X
ej
Z1 =
j
=
=
Z1
Z Z
p2
B cos
2m
1
d3 p~ d3 ~q
e
h3
Z Z
p2
1
e 2m e+E cos d3 p~ d3 ~q
3
h
3
h

p2
e 2m
{z
Zp
3
e+B cos d3 ~q
d p~
}
{z
}

(13)
Zq
The momentum portion Zp computes very similar to part (a), just with out
the volume,
Z
p2
1
2m
Zp =
d3 p~
e
h3
Z
p2
1
2m
d3 ~p
e
=
h3
Z
3
p2
1
2m
e
=
dp
h3
3/2
1 2m
=
h3
3/2
1
2mkT
= 3
(14)
Zp =
2
h
The position portion of the partition function Zq (independent of momentum) is a little trickier, but still doable,
Z
Zq =
e+B cos d3 ~q
=
2 Z
R 3
if
d ~q = R R R
V
2
then
V
=
r
sin
R 2 drdd
V
=
4
r dr
R 2
r dr =
V /4
Z 2 Z
V
e+B cos sin dd
4 0
0
=
=
=
=
Zq
Statistical Mechanics
V
(2)
4
= sin d
du
du =
sin d
let u = cos
01
1
Z 1
V
Bu
e
du
2
1
Z 1
V
eBu du
2 1
1
V
1
Bu
e
2 B
1
V 1 B
e
eB
B 2
1 x
x
sinh(x) =
e e
2
V
sinh (B)
B
0
(15)
Combining Eqs. 14 and 15, the partition function for a single particle, and
thus for the whole system is
Z1
V sinh (B)
sinh (B)
3
B
N
N
V
sinh ( B)
2
B
(16)
From here, the rest is just plug and chug, in the same manner as in part (a):
find hi, then M , and finally m . Ere we go!
hi =
=
=
=
=
hi =
(ln (Z))
(B)
( "
N #)
N
V
sinh ( B)
ln
(B)
2
B
i
h
V
ln
N
N
ln
(sinh
(
B))
N
ln
B
+
(B)
2
(B)
d
sinh(u) = cosh(u)du
du
N
N cosh (B)()
sinh (B)
B
1
N coth (B) N
B
1
N coth (B)
(17)
B
5
=
=
Statistical Mechanics
N
1
hi
=
coth (B)
V
V
B
M
B
N
1
coth (B)
VB
B
(18)
(19)
and finally, plugging in = 3B as the problem desires, the magnetic susceptibility for a collection of spin1/2 particles, whose spin is treated classically
is
3B N
1
3B B
m =
(20)
coth
VB
3B B
W
Qh
(1)
where Qh is the heat cost, taken from the hot reservoir. For a closed cycle
(Carnot) engine, the first law of thermodynamics tells us that energy in the
cycle must be conserved. Thus, the heat absorbed must be equal to the heat
released Qc plus the work produced, or
Qh = Qc + W
or W = Qh Qc
(2)
Qc
Qh Qc
= 1
Qh
Qh
(3)
Tc
Th
Qc
Tc
Qh
Th
(4)
1
1
Tc
Th
(5)
Statistical Mechanics
The engines efficiency will drop to zero once the second term in Eq. 5 goes
to unity, in other words when Tc = Th . So, when the cold reservoir (originaly
as Tc ) reaches that of the hot reservoir Th , the engine will cease to do work.
b) How much heat flows into the cold reservoir until the engine stops
producing work?
When one asks how much heat can flow into an object, were concerned
about its heat capacity, C, defined as
C
Q
T
(6)
The engine will stop doing work once the maximum amount heat has flowed
into the cold reservoir, i.e. when the engine has increased the temperature from
its current Tc to Th , and described in part (a). To find the amount of heat this
requires, we rearrange Eq. 6, using this temperature change as T ,
Qch
CTch = C (Th Tc )
(7)
c) What is the total amount of work the engine can produce before
the process stops?
As the engine does work, it will steadily increase the temperature of the
cold reservoir to Th , at which point work will cease. As stated in part (a), the
entropy released to the cold reservoir must either remain constant or increase
during a cycle. We want the maximum amount of work, so well assume that
no entropy escapes during a given cycle such that
dQc
Tc
dQh
Th
(8)
Because the temperature of the cold reservoir is increasing every cycle, the
amount of heat that can be given decreases over time. Incrementally this heat
is dQc = CdTc , from Eq. 6. So, Eq. 8 becomes,
CdTc
Tc
dQh
dQh
Th
T
C h dTc
Tc
(9)
The amount of work produced by this incremental cycle in terms of temperature, from rearranging Eq. 1, plugging in Eq. 5 for , and Eq. 9 for
dQh
dW
=
=
dW
dQh
T
T
C h dTc
1 c
T
T
h c
Th
C
1 dTc
Tc
2
(10)
Statistical Mechanics
The total work produced by the engine as the temperature of the cold reservoir increases from some initial Tc = Tc to Th when work ceases is
W
Th
Tc
=
=
=
W
Th
1
Tc
dTc
Z Th
1
dTc
dTc C
CTh
Tc
Tc
T
hc
iTh
T
C Th ln (Tc )
Tc Thc
Tc
Th
C Th ln
Th + Tc
Tc
Th
C Th ln
1 + Tc
Tc
Z
Th
(11)
Exam Iteration
Spring 2006
Fall 2006
Spring 2007
Question Number
X
#52
#52
Notes/Changes
= b+
N RT
V
(1)
(2)
which Ill take a few lines to prove. The variables used will be entropy S, temperature T , pressure P , volume V , chemical potential , total internal energy E,
and total number of particles N . Subscripts on parentheses of partial derivatives
indicate what is being held constant.
S
T
S
T
dS
P,N
P,N
S(T, V, N )
S
S
S
dT +
dV +
dN
T V,N
V T,N
N T,V
V
S
S
S
(0)
(1) +
+
T V,N
V T,N T P,N
N
T,V
V
S
S
+
T V,N
V T,N T P,N
1
Classical Mechanics
!
S
S
1
T T
C
=
P
T P,N
T
P,N
(3)
S
S
T T
= T1 CV
T V,N
V,N
V
1
S
CV +
T
V T,N T P,N
V
S
T
V T,N T P,N
!
S
P
Maxwell relation:
(4)
=
V T,N
T V,N
V
P
T
T V,N T P,N
CP
CV
1
CP
T
CP CV
CP CV
(5)
OK, now that you believe me on that one, we can rearrange our equation
of state (Eq. 1) to find the partial derivatives in Eq. 2.
N RT
V
N RT
(P b) =
V
(P b)V = N RT
N RT
N RT
P = b+
V =
P b
V
V
NR
P
NR
=
=
T P,N
P b
T V,N
V
P
= b+
(6)
=
=
=
CP CV
NR
NR
T
V
P b
NR
NR
T
V
(N RT /V )
T
V
NR
V
T
NR
(7)
(b) Show that constant volume heat capacity is not dependent on the
volume. Specify how the heat capacity can depend on N and T .
We can kill two birds with one stone by showing that
CV
=0
V
(8)
Classical Mechanics
again,
CV
V
#
S
T
T P,N
T,N
"
#
S
T
V
T P,N
T,N
x y f (x, y) = y x f (x, y)
"
#
S
T
T
V T,N
P,N
"
#
P
T
T
T V,N
P,N
!
N RT
NR
P
b+
=
=
T V,N
T
V
V
NR
T
T
V
T,N
=
CV
V
"
(9)
Q
T
(10)
where Q is the heat leaving the system. The amount heat leaving the system
will be given by the first law of thermodynamics,
U
Q =
Q =
Q+W
U W
Equipartion Thm.: U
Isothermal process: T
U
=
=
N RT
0
0
(11)
The work done to decrease the volume from Vi to Vf can be found by integrating
the pressure,
W
= P V
Z Vf
P dV
=
Vi
Classical Mechanics
N RT
Eq. 1: P = b +
V
Z Vf
Z Vf
N RT
b dV
=
dV
V
Vi
Vi
Vf
= b(Vf Vi ) N RT ln
Vi
(12)
= W = b(Vf Vi ) + N RT ln
Vf
Vi
(13)
Vf
Vi
(14)
Q
b
=
(Vf Vi ) + N R ln
T
T
(1)
where h is Plancks constant, p & q are the generalized momentum and position,
and is the solid angle corresponding to internal rotations about and . The
factor of h3 appears to be sure the trace is dimensionless.
Because these particles have a permanent dipole moment , the Hamiltonian
is not just the usual freeparticle kinetic energy component, but also the electric
energy component generated by the interaction between the electric field E and
the dipole moment. In equation form, thats
b
H
b
H
2
b
p~
b~ E
~
2m
2
b
b
p~
=
p~ b
p~
b
~
~ E = E
b cos
pb2
E
b cos
2m
= pb2
!
(3)
where is the angle of the dipole from the z axis (in spherical polar coordinates),
~ is assumed to point (, the angle from the x
along which the electric field E
Statistical Mechanics
axis, is free to rotate from 0 to 2). Using Eqs. 1, 2, and 3 the partition function
for this system integral form is then
Z Z Z
p2
E cos
2m
1
~
d3 ~p d3 ~q d
Z1 =
e
h3
Z Z
p2
1
~
=
e 2m e+E cos d3 ~p d3 ~q d
3
h
Z1
1 Z
p2
d3 ~q
e 2m d3 ~p
= 3
h
{z
}
 {z }

Zp
Zq
~
e+E cos d
(4)
{z
}

Z
ex dx =
3/2
1 2m
=
h3
3/2
h2
2mkT
let
=
=
h2
2mkT
1
Zp =
(5)
3
where Ive defined a variable which has dimensions of length, typically called
the quantum length.
Because position portion of the partition function Zq (independent of momentum and internal angle) has no integrand, we just evaluate it to be the
volume,
Z
Zq =
d3 ~q = V
(6)
2 Z
Statistical Mechanics
Z
=
du
du =
let u = cos
01
Z 1
Eu
= 2
e
du
= 2
= 2
sin d
sin d
1
eEu du
Zq
1
1
Eu
= 2
e
E
1
2
eE eE
=
E
ex ex = 2 sinh(x)
=
4
sinh (E)
E
(7)
Combining Eqs. 5, 6, and 7 yields the partition function for one particle,
Z1 =
4V sinh (E)
3
E
(8)
hi
V
(10)
So, lets find hi. Any generic (ensemble) average of an observable is defined as
X
1 X
(11)
Oj ej
O(j)P(j) =
hOi =
Z
j
j
which means the average dipole moment is
1 X
j ej
hi =
Z j
3
Statistical Mechanics
=
=
hi
p2
e 2m e+(E)
p2
e 2m e+(E)
P
p2
+(E)
2m
e
e
j
(E)
P p2 +(E)
2m e
je
j
1
(Z)
Z (E)
(ln(Z))
(E)
(12)
ln
hi =
(E)
N!
3
E
#
"
N !
1 4V
N
N
=
ln
+ ln sinh ( E) ln (E)
(E)
N ! 3
"
!#
N
1
4V
ln
=
(E) N ! 3
i
h
+
ln sinhN ( E) ln (E)N
(E)
=
sinh ( E)
E
1
hi = N coth ( E) N kT
(13)
E
From which we find the polarization P (using Eq. 10) in terms of electric field
strength E, pressure P , and temperature T ,
hi
V
N
N kT 1
=
coth ( E)
V
V E
P V = N kT
P
N
V = kT = P and
1
= P coth ( E) P
E
1
P(E, P, T ) = P coth ( E)
E
P
N kT
V
= P
(14)
Exam Iteration
Spring 2006
Fall 2006
Spring 2007
Question Number
X
#54
#54
Notes/Changes
=
=
=
Z Z
2
d3 p~d3 ~q
h3
Z
2
d3 ~p
V
h3
Z
2V
(4)
p2 dp
h3
0
1
X
j
Classical Mechanics
p =
c
1
dp = c d
let = pc
2
2
p =
c2
Z 2
1
8V
=
d
2
h3
c
c
0
Z 2
8V
=
d
3
h3
c
Z 0
Z
8V 2
g() d
(hc)3
0
0
(2)
On to the total number of particles, which is the sum over the probabilities
of each state (i.e. Eq. 1 without the observable). The probability distribution
for fermions is the FermiDirac distribution,
nF D
e()
+1
(3)
which at the limit of zero temperature splits into two regions (i.e. has values
1 or 0). The nonvanishing portion of the distribution is in the energy regime
0 < < F , (the upper limit is the Fermi Energy, or chemical potential at
zero temperature), because the Pauli Exclusion Principle dictates that fermions
(spin1/2 particles) cannot occupy the same energy state. Thus instead of all
collapsing to some ground state, they stack up in energy to F when temperatures very small.
Thus, at zero temperature, the total number of particles is
X
PF D
N (T = 0) = lim
T 0
=
=
=
=
N
1
g() d
() + 1
e
0
Z
(0) g() d
(1) g() d +
F
0
Z F
Z F
8V 2
8V
d
=
2 d
3
3
(hc)
(hc)
0
0
8V 3F
(hc)3 3
8 V 2
(hc)3 3 F
lim
T 0
Z F
(4)
which we can solve for the Fermi energy of massless, spin 1/2 neutrinos,
3F
(hc)3 3 N
8 V
1/3
hc 3 N
2 V
2
(5)
Classical Mechanics
= pc
(p = h
k)
hk
=
c
2
2
=
cE
h
E
k
(6)
So,
kF
kF
2
c F
h
1/3 !
hc 3 N
2
c
=
h
2 V
1/3
3N
= c2
V
1/3
2N
2
= c 3
V
=
(7)
PF D g() d
Z F
8V 2
(1)
d
(hc)3
0
Z F
8V
3 d
(hc)3 0
8V 4F
(hc)3 4
1/3 !4
hc 3 N
2V
(hc)3
2 V
4/3 !
2V
(hc)4 3 N
(hc)3
16
V
1/3
3N
hc 3 N
V
V
8
V
0
UT =0
=
=
=
=
=
=
Classical Mechanics
hEiT =0
hc
2
3
N
4
3
N F
4
3N
V
1/3 !
(8)
N kB T
P
(9)
0
*
=
dQ
j + dWj
(Definition of Work: dW = P dV )
= Pj dV
j
=
V
(11)
For the free neutrino gas, the system is effectively an infinite 3D infinite
square well. Tor each dimension, the particles deBroglie wavelength must then
be half integer multiples of the length L of a side. Hence,
L =
1
nn
2
n =
2L
n
(12)
h
n
hnj
2L
(13)
1
hcnj
2L
L
(14)
= pj c =
4
Classical Mechanics
According to Eq. 20, we need the partial derivative of this energy with
respect to V . Acknowledging that L = V 1/3 ,
Pj
=
=
=
=
Pj
j
V
hcnj 1
V
2 V 1/3
1 1
hcnj
2
3 V 4/3
11
hcnj 1
+
2 V 1/3 3 V
1 j
3V
(15)
=
=
=
=
=
PT =0
1 X
Pj e
Z j
1 X 1 j
e
Z j
3V
1 11 X
j e
3V Z j
X
1 X
From Eqs. 1:
j Pj = hEi
j e =
Z j
j
1 hEiT =0
3
V
11 3
N F
3V 4
1N
F
4V
(16)
V
F
N
1/3 !
V
hc 3 N
= 4
N
2 V
1/3
3 V2
= 2hc
N2
= 4
(17)
Classical Mechanics
OLD VERSIONS
b) The pressure exerted by the neutrinos at T = 0.
In general, the probability distribution P in Eq. 1 is
P
1 X j
e
Z j
(18)
where Z is the partition function, and j is the energy of the jth state. The
pressure P exerted by neutrinos should then be
P
1 X
Pj e
Z j
(19)
0
*
=
dQ
j + dWj
(Definition of Work: dW = P dV )
= Pj dV
j
=
V
(20)
For the free neutrino gas, the system is effectively an infinite 3D infinite
square well. Tor each dimension, the particles deBroglie wavelength must then
be half integer multiples of the length L of a side. Hence,
1
nn
2
L =
n =
2L
n
(21)
h
n
hnj
2L
(22)
1
hcnj
2L
L
(23)
= pj c =
According to Eq. 20, we need the partial derivative of this energy with
respect to V . Acknowledging that L = V 1/3 ,
Pj
=
=
j
V
hcnj 1
V
2 V 1/3
Classical Mechanics
=
=
Pj
1 1
hcnj
2
3 V 4/3
hcnj 1
11
+
2 V 1/3 3 V
1 j
3V
(24)
PT =0
1 hEiT =0
3 V
(25)
hEikT F
let u =
hni
v = 52 5/2
d<n>
let dv = 3/2
du = d d
"
#
:0 2 Z
d<n>
2 5/2
5/2
d
<n> +
CF
5
5 0
d
0
(27)
Classical Mechanics
=
d
Z
2
=
CF
5/2
5
0
hEi
This leaves,
d<n>
d
d
e(j )
1
d
=
d e(j ) + 1
(e(j ) + 1)2
e(j )
(e(j ) + 1)2
dx
=
d
let x = ( )
0 ,
Z
ex
2
CF
dx
5/2 x
5
(e + 1)
(28)
+ ( )
+ ( )
+ ...
d
2!
d2
15
1
5
( )2 1/2 + ...
= 5/2 + ( )3/2 +
2
2 4
5
15
= 5/2 + (xkT )3/2 + (xkT )2 1/2 + ...
(29)
2
8
So that
hEi
(I)
"
Z
2
ex
dx
CF 5/2
x
2
5
(e + 1)

{z
}
(I)
Z
ex
5
dx
kT 3/2
x x
+
2
(e + 1)2

{z
}
(II)
#
Z
x
15
e
+
dx +...
(kT )2 1/2
x2 x
8
(e + 1)2

{z
}
(III)
Z
ex
dx
(ex + 1)
d<n>
d
d
Classical Mechanics
Z
d<n>
"
#
1
0
:
:
>
> +
<
n()
<
n()
=
Z
ex
dx
+ 1)
(II)
= 1
(ex
ex
x ex
dx
x
x
x
(e + 1)(e + 1) e
Z
x
dx
x + 1)(1 + ex )
(e
{z
}
 {z } 
x ex
dx =
(ex + 1)2
(30)
odd
function
even
bounds
x ex
dx =
+ 1)2
(III)
 {z }
even
bounds
(ex
x2 ex
dx
(ex + 1)2
 {z }
= 2
v
let dv
x2
2x dx
x2 ex
dx
(ex + 1)2
xm
dx
ex + 1
=
=
=
=
x2 ex
dx
+ 1)2
(ex
=
=
1
ex +1
ex
(ex +1)2
0
Z
>
x2
2x
+
2
dx
ex
x
+1 0
e +1
0
Z
x
dx
4
x+1
e
0
1
(1 m) (m + 1) (m + 1)
2
1
4(1 ) (2) (2)
2
2
1
(1)
4
2
6
2
3
2
3
=
Z
even
function
let u =
du =
(31)
(32)
hEi
Classical Mechanics
5
2
2
CF 5/2 (1) +
CF
kT 3/2 (0)
5
5
2
2
15
2
+ ...
CF
(kT )2 1/2
+
5
8
3
2
2
CF 5/2 +
CF (kT )2 1/2 + ...
5
4
32
h
2
Eq. 5:
F
= 2m
3 2 N
V2
3
2m
F
=
3 2 N
V
h
2 3
3/2
2m 2
F
=
3 2 N
V
h
2
3
N
2m 2
V
=
3
2
3/2
2
h
3
2m 2
V
3 N
CF =
=
2 2
2 3/2
h
2
F
!
!
2
3 N
3
N
2
5/2 +
(kT )2 1/2 + ...
5
2 3/2
4 2 3/2
F
=
hEi
(33)
3
5/2
1/2
3 2
N 3/2 +
N 3/2 + ...
5
8
F
F
5/2
1/2
(kT )2
3 2
3
N F
N
+
+ ...
5
F
8
F
F
(34)
Performing a similar Taylor expansion process for N (see Schroeder pp 282284) yields the expansion that,
2
2 kT
= 1
+ ...
(35)
F
12 F
which we can exploit for our purposes,
5/2
1/2
2
1
12
kT
F
2
!5/2
+ ...
Classical Mechanics
and plug back into the ensemble average energy (Eq. 34),
!
2
5 2 kT
3
N F 1
hEi =
+ ...
5
24
F
!
2
3 2
2 kT
(kT )2
+
1
N
+ ... + ...
8
F
24 F
(38)
3 2
3 2
(kT )2
(kT )2
(kT )2
3
+
+O
N F
N
N
5
24
F
8
F
3F
3 2
2
(kT )2
(kT )2
(kT )2
3
+
+O
N F
N
N
5
8
F
8
F
3F
3
2
(kT )2
+ ...
N F +
N
5
4
F
(39)
Now we can finally get to the question. Remember we are trying to show
that CV T for low temperatures. This is quick attainable from Eq. 39, and
the definition of the heat capacity at constant volume,
hEi
CV
T V,N
3
2
(kT )2
+ ...
N F +
N
=
T 5
4
F
2
2
T T
(40)
N
CV =
2
F
d) The rms fluctuations in the mean energy of the neutrinos of 0 <
T F .
As in part (c) it doesnt matter that the neutrinos are massless, only that
theyre fermions.
For any system in equilibrium the mean square fluctuations (variance) is
h 2 i =
hE 2 i hEi2 = kT 2 CV
(41)
(for a detailed proof of this check out statmechS0632F0643). From Eq. 40,
this becomes
h 2 i
h 2 i
= kT 2 CV
2
k2
2
= kT
T
N
2
F
N
= (kT )3
2 F
11
(42)
Classical Mechanics
1/2
N
(kT )3
2 F
12
(43)
Exam Iteration
Spring 2006
Fall 2006
Spring 2007
Question Number
#27
#38
#55
Notes/Changes
1
e(j ) + 1
(1)
1
where = kT
, j is the kinetic energy of a state j, and is the chemical potential
of the particles. However, at the limit of zero temperature, h nj () iF D decays
to either 0 (when j > ) or 1 (when j < ). The energy, at T = 0, at which
the nowstepfunction distribution flips from 1 to 0 is the Fermi energy, whose
value is determined (again) by the number of particles.
To perform the calculation of the number of particles, we first find the density
of states: the Jacobian of transformation between summing over energy states
j , and integrating over kinetic energies. First, to account the spin degeneracy
Statistical Mechanics
j
k
Z
2V
(4)
p2 dp
=
h3
0
2m 1/2
=
2 p
p
1
1/2
let =
dp = 2 2m
d
2m 2
p =
2m
Z
1
8V
=
2m
2m1/2 d
h3
2
0
Z
8V 1
3/2
(2m)
=
1/2 d
h3 2
0
3/2
Z
Z
X
2m
1/2
g() d
4V
h2
0
0
j
(2)
Now we can find the number of particles N , and invert for the Fermi energy
F .
N (T = 0) =
X
j
h nj () iF D
h n() iF D gF D () d
Z
Z F
(0) g() d
(1) g() d +
0
=
N
=
=
4V
2m
h2
3/2
3/2
2m
2 23
2
h
3 F
3/2
3
8
2m
F2
V
2
3
h
2/3
2
h
13N
2m 8 V
2/3
h2 3 N
8m V
2/3
N
h2
3 2
2m
V
4V
2 d
(3)
(4)
In this form its nice and quick to pull out the Fermi wavevector kF , since
Statistical Mechanics
(5)
(6)
kB T
(7)
(8)
=
hEiT =0
Z0 F
0
h n iF D gF D () d
Z
(0) g() d
(1) g() d +
F
g() d
=
=
=
=
hEiT =0
3
V
2m 2 1
2 d
2 2 h2
0
3 Z
2m 2 F 3
V
2 d
2 2 h2
0
3
2m 2 2 52
V
2 2 h2
5 F
3
V
2m 2 52
F
5 2 h2
!
3
V
2m 2 32
Eq. 3: N =
F
3 2 h2
3
N F
5
(9)
Statistical Mechanics
c) If the magnetic moment of the particles is e , show that the paramagnetic susceptibility for low fields in the limit of zero temperature
is given by
3 n2e
2 F
(10)
This part deals with the quantum mechanical property of fermions known as
the Zeeman splitting. When a weak magnetic field is applied to a fermi gas, the
~ i) and down (antiparallel to B,
~ +i) energy levels of
up (parallel to B,
the particles are perturbed such that the energy states of the up particles are
increased, and the down particles are decreased, causing a splitting of what
initially was a single set of quantized energy states. The Zeeman effect is a 1st
order perturbation theory problem in quantum mechanics (Check p245246 of
Griffiths, or Wikipedias article for more detialed explanations. Merzbachers is
pretty weak sauce, but its on p472473). Anyways, this is a StatMech problem,
so we really only care about the resulting energies, so Ill only highlight the
details.
The perturbing hamiltonian is
b
H
b B
~
~
e
(11)
~be
b
H
b
e B
b
H
b
~
gJ B S
h
(12)
2 B Sb
h
h
b
Si =
bi
2
B
bz B
(13)
where
bz is the Pauli spin matrix, and Ive assumed that the field was applied
in the zdirection.
The total energy of the antiparallel (down, +i, or the positive eigenvalue
of
bz ) state is
T
= + B B
4
Statistical Mechanics
= B B
1
e[(j B B))
+1
(14)
and
1
h nj ( B B) iF D
2
(15)
where the factors of 1/2 insures the distribution remains normalized. The left
distribution corresponds to the up spins, i.e. those energy levels displaced by
a positive B B and therefore the probability range over which it extends is
from B B < T < . The right distribution are the down spins, displaced by
negative B B, so the range is B B < T < .
From here, we can calculate the net magnetization per unit volume M , the
derivative of which (with respect to B) is . The net magnetization would be
the total number of particles antialign subtracted from those aligned (in a given
volume), or
M
(N N )
V
(16)
We know how to find the number of particles: integrate the probability distribution corresponding the particles over the correct region. Thus, the magnetization
is then
Z
B
1
M =
h n( + B B) iF D gF D () d
V
B B 2
Z
1
h n( B B) iF D gF D () d
B B 2
Z
B
[h nj ( + B B)i h nj ( B B)i] g() d
=
2V 0
!
f (x)
f (x+h)f (xh)
x
2h
(x)
f (x h) f (x + h) =
2 h fx
Z
B
h n() i
=
g() d
2 B B
2V
0
Z
2B B
h n() i
M =
g() d
(17)
0
At low temperatures (i.e kT F ), the FermiDirac distribution becomes
asymptotically close to a step function with the barrier at the Fermi energy
5
Statistical Mechanics
(as discussed in part (a)). Thus, the derivative of the distribution at low temperatures is well approximated by a delta function about F , or
Z
Z
h n() i
d =
( F ) d
(18)
lim
T 0 0
0
which makes Eq. 17 a lot prettier,
M
=
=
=
Z
2B B
( F ) g() d
V
0
2B B
g(F )
V
1/2 B
2B CF F
V
!
3 N
Eq. 28: CF =
2 3/2
F
!
3
N
B
1/2
2B
F
2 3/2
V
F
3 2B N
B
2 F V
(19)
Finally, if I convert to the notation the proof desires (N/V n), the magnetic susceptibility is
M
B
3 2B
nB
B 2 F
3 n 2B
2 F
Its cool. Youll remember all of this during the qualifier. I promise.
(20)
Statistical Mechanics
OLD VERSIONS
c) Show that the heat capacity at low temperature is proportional to
T.
The exact proof of this problem unfortunately gets rather lengthly, but is
known as the Sommerfield expansion.
If I denote the constants in Eq. 2 to be CF , and use < n > as shorthand for
h n() iF D then the ensemble average energy (as seen in part (b)) is
Z
Z
3
hEi =
h n() iF D gF D () d = CF
2 < n > d (21)
0
hEikT F
let u =
hni
v = 52 5/2
d<n>
let dv = 3/2
du = d d
"
#
:0 2 Z
2 5/2
d
<
n
>
5/2
d
CF
< n > +
5
5 0
d
0
(22)
CF
hEi =
5
d
0
d<n>
e(j )
1
d
=
=
d
d e(j ) + 1
(e(j ) + 1)2
Z
2
e(j )
=
CF
5/2 ( )
5
(e j
+ 1)2
0
dx
=
d
let x = ( )
0 ,
Z
ex
2
CF
dx
(23)
5/2 x
hEi =
5
(e + 1)
+ ( )
+ 2! ( )
+ ...
d
d2
1 15
5
( )2 1/2 + ...
5/2 + ( )3/2 +
2
2 4
5
15
5/2 + (xkT )3/2 + (xkT )2 1/2 + ...
2
8
=
=
So that
hEi
Statistical Mechanics
(24)
"
Z
2
ex
5/2
dx
CF
x
2
5
(e + 1)

{z
}
(I)
Z
ex
5
3/2
dx
kT
x x
+
2
(e + 1)2

{z
}
(II)
#
Z
15
ex
2 1/2
2
+
dx +...
(kT )
x
8
(ex + 1)2

{z
}
(III)
(I)
ex
dx
x
(e + 1)
d<n>
d
d<n>
"
#
:1
:0
>
<
n()
> +
<
n()
=
Z
ex
dx
(ex + 1)
(II)
= 1
Z
(25)
ex
x ex
dx
x
x
x
(e + 1)(e + 1) e
Z
x
dx
x
(e + 1)(1 + ex )
{z
}

 {z }
x ex
dx =
(ex + 1)2
=
even
bounds
(III)
 {z }
even
bounds
x ex
dx =
+ 1)2
(ex
x2 ex
dx
(ex + 1)2
 {z }
odd
function
= 2
(26)
Z
even
function
x2 ex
dx
(ex + 1)2
Statistical Mechanics
v
let dv
x2
2x dx
let u =
du =
xm
dx
+1
ex
=
=
=
=
hEi
2 x
x e
dx
+ 1)2
(ex
hEi
5
2
2
CF 5/2 (1) +
CF
kT 3/2 (0)
5
5
2
2
2
15
+
+ ...
CF
(kT )2 1/2
5
8
3
2
2
CF 5/2 +
CF (kT )2 1/2 + ...
5
4
32
h
2
3 2 N
Eq. 4:
F
= 2m
V2
3
2m
F
=
3 2 N
V
h
2 3
3/2
2m 2
F
=
3 2 N
2
V
h
3
V
2m 2
N
=
3
2
2
3/2
3
V
3 N
2m 2
CF =
=
2 2
2 3/2
h
2
F
!
!
2
2
3 N
3 N
5/2 +
(kT )2 1/2 + ...
5
2 3/2
4 2 3/2
F
5/2
1
ex +1
ex
(ex +1)2
0
Z
>
x2
2x
+
2
dx
x+1
ex
+ 1 0
e
0
Z
x
dx
4
x+1
e
0
1
(1 m) (m + 1) (m + 1)
2
1
4(1 ) (2) (2)
2 2
1
(1)
4
2
6
2
3
2
3
Z
=
=
(27)
(28)
1/2
3
3
N 3/2 +
N 3/2 + ...
5
8
F
F
5/2
1/2
3
(kT )2
3 2
N F
N
+
+ ...
5
F
8
F
F
(29)
Statistical Mechanics
Performing a similar Taylor expansion process for N (see Schroeder pp 282284) yields the expansion that,
= 1
2
12
kT
F
2
+ ...
(30)
5/2
1/2
2
1
12
kT
F
2
!5/2
+ ...
and plug back into the ensemble average energy (Eq. 29),
!
2
5 2 kT
3
N F 1
hEi =
+ ...
5
24
F
!
2
3 2
2 kT
(kT )2
+
1
N
+ ... + ...
8
F
24 F
(33)
(kT )2
3 2
3 2
(kT )2
(kT )2
3
+
+O
N F
N
N
5
24
F
8
F
3F
2
2
2
2
3
3
(kT )
(kT )
(kT )2
+
+O
N F
N
N
5
8
F
8
F
3F
2
(kT )2
3
+ ...
N F +
N
5
4
F
(34)
Now we can finally get to the question. Remember we are trying to show
that CV T for low temperatures. This is quick attainable from Eq. 34, and
10
Statistical Mechanics
3
2
(kT )2
=
+ ...
N F +
N
T 5
4
F
2
2
k
CV =
T T
N
2
F
11
(35)
(1)
where = (kT )1 , and j is the energy of the jth state. When particles obey
MaxwellBoltzmann statistics, it means that the two particles are distinguishable from each other. Each particle can occupy all three energy states, as shown
below.
Figure 1: The energy level diagram for a particle in three possible energy states.
The partition function a given particle is
X
ej
Z1 =
j
Z1
=
=
e
+ e() + e(3)
1 + e + e3
(0)
(2)
For N distinguishable particles, each will have the exact same partition function.
So, this system of two distinguishable particles will have the partition function
2
Z = Z1N = 1 + e + e3
(3)
1
Statistical Mechanics
= e
+ e2 + e3 + e5 + e6 + e9
= e
+ e(0+) + e(0+3) + e(+0) + e(+3) + e(3+3)
= 1 + e + e3 + e2 + e4 + e6
(4)
(0+0)
Statistical Mechanics
=
=
Z
(2s + 1) e1 + e2 + e4
(2s + 1) e(0+) + e(0+3) + e(+3)
(2s + 1) 1 + e + e3 + e4
(5)
Exam Iteration
Spring 2006
Fall 2006
Spring 2007
Question Number
X
X
#3
Notes/Changes
Added to bank.
a f3
df
1
ebf
(1)
hEi
1
1
(2)
j PjP
(3)
ej
where the sum is over j, the number of polarizations (for photons theres 2:
linearly polarized and circularly polarized), and wave number k = 2
c f.
X
j PjP
hEi =
j
= 2
X
k
k PkP
1
=
=
=
=
=
hEi
E(f ) df
Classical Mechanics
Z Z
1
2 3
p PpP d3 ~p d3 ~q
h
p R6= p (~q) and PpP 6= PpP (~q)
d3 ~q = V
Z
V
2 3
p PpP d3 p~
h
p = h
~
~k d3 p~ = h
3 d3~k
Z
V 3
2 3 h
k PkP d3~k
h
Z
V
k PkP d3~k
2
(2)3
Z
V
(4)
k PkP k 2 dk
2
(2)3
0
ck =
ck = 2f
k = 2 f
c
dk = 2 df
c
f = hf
2
Z
2
2
1
V
df
f
hf hf
2
0
e
1 c
c
Z
V (2)3 hf 3
df
2 c3
ehf 1
0
Z
f3
8V h
df
c3 ehf 1
0
8V h
f3
df
c3 ehf 1
(4)
(5)
So,
a
8V h
c3
(6)
and
b
h =
h
kB T
(7)
(b) The Wien displacement law describes the relationship between the
peak intensity in the blackbody energy distribution (Eq. 1) and the
temperature. Derive this relationship. Note: the function x3 /(ex 1)
has a maximum at x = 2.82 approximately.
The intensity at a given frequency for a blackbody is given by
I(f )
1
f3
1 E(f )
2h
c u(f ) =
c
=
4
4
V
c2 ehf 1
2
(8)
Classical Mechanics
Thus if we find a relationship between the maximum frequency fmax and temperature T , we find the relationship with the maximum intensity Imax and
temperature T .
As the problem suggests, we can define the dimensionless constant x = hf ,
so that f = x/(h) and
I(x)
2h
c2
1
h
3
x3
(kB T )3 x3
=
2
ex 1
(hc)2 ex 1
x3
0 =
x ex 1 xmax
(9)
(10)
we end up with exactly what we need from the hint, that xmax = 2.82. Plugging
back in for x,
xmax
fmax
fmax
= hfmax
kB T
xmax
=
h
kB =
h =
xmax =
5.873 1010
(11)
(c) Find the total energy of the blackbody radiation and how it depends on V, T, h, c and kB .
The total energy is given by Eq. 4, so we just need to carry out the integral,
Z
8V h
f3
hEi =
df
c3 ehf 1
0
1
=
f
h x
1
df
=
Let x = hf
h dx
00 ,
Z 3
1
x
1
8V h
dx
=
x1
c3
h
e
h
0
4 Z
x3
8V h 1
dx
=
3
x
c
h
e 1
0
Z
yn
dy
=
[n
+
1][n
+
1]
ey 1
0
4
8kB
V T 4 [4][4]
=
(hc)3
3
=
hEi
Classical Mechanics
4
4
[4][4] =
(6) =
90
15
5 4
8 kB
V T4
15(hc)3
V T 4
(12)
where at the last step Ive grouped all constants together into , which is known
as the radiation constant, related to the StefanBoltzmann constant in the
same way intensity (which is luminosity for you astronomers) is related to energy,
4
1
2 5 kB
c =
3
4
15h c2
1 V T 4
1 hEi
c
=
c
= T 4
4
V
4
V
(13)
(14)
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