Permit #:

ATENEO DE DAVAO UNIVERSITY

School of Nursing

SCORE:

Competency Appraisal 1
MIDTERM EXAMINATION
1ST Semester, 2015-2016

Name: _____________________________________________________________ Date: ________________________

Multiple Choice: Write the letter of the correct choice on the answer sheet provided.
1. When teaching an athletic teenager about
nutritional intake, the nurse should explain
that the carbohydrate food that would provide
the quickest source of energy is? a. glass of
milk
c. chocolate candy bar
b. slice of bread
d. glass of
orange juice
2. The assessment of a client that would be
most indicative of diabetes insipidus is?
a. increase blood glucose
b. low urinary specific gravity
c. elevation of blood pressure
d. decreased serum osmolority
3. To understand diabetes insipidus, the nurse
must be aware that an antidiuretic substance
important for maintaining fluid balance is
released by the?"
a. adrenal cortex
c. anterior pituitary
b. adrenal medulla
d. posterior pituitary
4. In an emergency the rapid adjustments
made by the body are associated with
increased activity of the:
a. thyroid gland
c. pituitary
gland
b. adrenal gland
d. pancreatic
gland
5. The nurse understands that the cause of
cushing's syndrome is most commonly:
a. pituitary hypoplasia
b. Insufficient ACTH
c. hyperplasia of the adrenal cortex
d. deprivation of adrenocortical hormones
6. When assessing a client with a cushing's
syndrome the nurse would expect to?
a. dehydration and menorrhagia
b. buffalo hump and hypertension
c. pitting edema and frequent
d. migraine headaches and dysmenorrhea
7. Hypotension associated with addison's
disease involves a disturbance in the
production of?
a. estrogens
c. glucocorticoids
b. androgens
d.
mineralocorticoids
8. The fuel glucose is delivered to the cells by
the blood for production of energy . The
hormone controlling use of glucose by the cell
is?
a. insulin
c. adrenal steroids

b. thyroxine

d. growth hormone

9. Oral hypoglycemic agents (oha) may be

used for clients with?
a. ketosis
c. type 1 diabetes
b. obesity
d. some insulin production
10. Diabetic coma results from an excess
accumulation in the blood of:
a. sodium bicarbonate causing alkalosis
b. ketones from rapid fat breakdown, causing
acidosis
c. nitrogen from protein catabolism, causing
ammonia intoxication
d. glucose from rapid carbohydrate
metabolism causing
11. A difference between diabetic coma and
hyperosmolar non ketotic syndrome is that
clients in diabetic coma experience?
a. fluid loss
c. kussmaul respirations
b. glycosuria
d. increased blood glucose
12. Underproduction of thyroxine produces?
a. myxedema
c. graves disease
b. acromegaly
d. cushing's disease
13. As a result of low levels t3 and t4 the
nurse should expect a client to exhibit?
a. irritability
b. tachycardia
diaphoresis

c. cold intolerance
d. profuse

14. to evaluate possible laryngeal nerve injury

following a thyroidectomy, the nurse on a n
hourly basis should?
a. ask the client to speak
b. ask the client to swallow
c. have the client hum a familiar tune
d. swab the client's throat to test a gag reflex
15. Thyroid crisis or thyroid storm is caused
by?
a. increased iodine in the blood
b removal of the parathyroid gland
c. high level of the hormone triiodothyronine
d. a rebound increase in metabolism following
anesthesia

16. An accidental removal of the parathyroid

glands during a thyroidectomy would cause:
a. myxedema
c. hypovolemic
shock
b. hypocalcemia
d. adrenocortical
stimulation
17. The hormone that tends to decrease
calcium concentration in the blood is?
a. calcitonin
c. triidothyronine
b. aldosterone
d. parathyroid
hormone
18. Following the removal of the parathyroid
glands, calcium is required because the
parathyroid hormone tends to:
a. decrease blood calcium concentration and
relieve tetany
b. accelerate bone breakdown with release of
calcium into the blood
c. increase blood phosphate concentration and
decrease calcium levels
d. increase calcium absorption into bone and
remove calcium from the blood
19. When assessing for complications of
hyperparathyroidism, the nurse should
monitor the client for
a. tetany
c. grave's disease
b. seizures
d. bone destruction
20. A thirty five year old male has been an
insulin-dependent diabetic for five years and
now is unable to urinate. Which of the
following would you most likely suspect?
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Diabetic nephropathy
C. Autonomic neuropathy
D. Somatic neuropathy
21. A patients chart indicates a history of
hyperkalemia. Which of the following would
you not expect to see with this patient if this
condition were acute?
A. Decreased HR
B. Paresthesias
C. Muscle weakness of the extremities
D. Migraines
22. A patients chart indicates a history of
ketoacidosis. Which of the following would
you not expect to see with this patient if this
condition were acute?
A. Vomiting
C. Weight gain
B. Extreme Thirst
D. Acetone breath
smell
23. A 28 year old male has been found
wandering around in a confused pattern. The
male is sweaty and pale. Which of the
following tests is most likely to be performed
first?
A. Blood sugar check
C. Blood
cultures
B. CT scan
D. Arterial blood
gases

24. The client with a history of diabetes

insipidus is admitted with polyuria, polydipsia,
and mental confusion. The priority
intervention for this client is:
A. Measure the urinary output
B. Check the vital signs
C. Encourage increased fluid intake
D. Weigh the client

25. A client has had a unilateral

adrenalectomy to remove a tumor. To prevent
complications, the most important
measurement in the immediate post-operative
period for the nurse to take is:
A. Blood pressure
C. Output
B. Temperature
D. Specific gravity
26. A client had a total thyroidectomy
yesterday. The client is complaining of tingling
around the mouth and in the fingers and toes.
What would the nurses' next action be?
A. Obtain a crash cart
B. Check the calcium level
C. Assess the dressing for drainage
D. Assess the blood pressure for hypertension
27. A 32-year-old mother of three is brought to
the clinic. Her pulse is 52, there is a weight
gain of 30 pounds in 4 months, and the client
is wearing two sweaters. The client is
diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the
following nursing diagnoses is of highest
priority?
A. Impaired physical mobility related to
decreased endurance
B. Hypothermia r/t decreased metabolic rate
C. Disturbed thought processes r/t interstitial
edema
D. Decreased cardiac output r/t bradycardia
28. A 25-year-old client with Grave's disease is
admitted to the unit. What would the nurse
expect the admitting assessment to reveal?
A. Bradycardia
C.
Exophthalmos
B. Decreased appetite
D. Weight
gain
29. A client with hypothyroidism asks the
nurse if she will still need to take thyroid
medication during the pregnancy. The nurse's
response is based on the knowledge that:
A. There is no need to take thyroid medication
because the fetus's thyroid produces a
thyroid-stimulating hormone.
B. Regulation of thyroid medication is more
difficult because the thyroid gland
increases in size during pregnancy.
C. It is more difficult to maintain thyroid
regulation during pregnancy due to a
slowing of metabolism.

D. Fetal growth is arrested if thyroid

medication is continued during pregnancy.
30. A client with diabetes has an order for
ultrasonography. Preparation for an ultrasound
includes:
A. Increasing fluid intake
B. Limiting ambulation
C. Administering an enema
D. Withholding food for 8 hours
31. The nurse should visit which of the
following clients first?
A. The client with diabetes with a blood
glucose of 95mg/dL
B. The client with hypertension being
maintained on Lisinopril
C. The client with chest pain and a history of
angina
D. The client with Raynaud's disease
32. The physician has prescribed NPH insulin
for a client with diabetes mellitus. Which
statement indicates that the client knows
when the peak action of the insulin occurs?
A. "I will make sure I eat breakfast within 2
hours of taking my insulin."
B. "I will need to carry candy or some form of
sugar with me all the time."
C. "I will eat a snack around three o'clock
each afternoon."
D. "I can save my dessert from supper for a
bedtime snack."
33. The physician has ordered a thyroid scan
to confirm the diagnosis. Before the
procedure, the nurse should:
A. Assess the client for allergies
B. Bolus the client with IV fluid
C. Tell the client he will be asleep
D. Insert a urinary catheter
34. The client has recently returned from
having a thyroidectomy. The nurse should
keep which of the following at the bedside?
A. A tracheotomy set
B. A padded tongue blade
C. An endotracheal tube
D. An airway
35. In assessing a patient for hypocalcemia,
Chvostek's sign is elicited by:
A. Applying a (BP) cuff to the upper arm,
inflating it, and
observing for carpopedal spasm.
B. Tapping a finger on the skin above the
supramandibular portion of the parotid
gland and observing for twitching of the
upper lip on side opposite stimulation.
C. Tapping a finger on the skin above the
supramandibular portion of the parotid
gland and observing for twitching of the
upper lip on same side as stimulation.
D. Having the patient hyperventilate (more
than 30
breaths/minute) to produce carpopedal
spasm resulting from respiratory alkalosis.

36. Trousseau's sign can be elicited in the

hypocalcemic patient by:
A. Applying a BP cuff to upper arm, inflating
it, and
observing for carpopedal spasm.
B. Tapping a finger on the supramandibular
portion of
the parotid cland and observing for
twitching of the upper lip on the side
opposite to the stimulation.
C. Tapping a finger on the supramandibular
portion of
the parotid gland and observing for
twitching of the upper lip on the same side
as stimulation.
D. Having the patient hyperventilate (more
than 30
breaths/minute) to produce carpopedal
spasm resulting from respiratory acidosis.

Situation:
A 71-year-old woman is transported to the ED
because of fatigue and a change in mental
status.
On
physical
examination,
her
temperature is 96.8 degrees F. (36 degrees C.)
rectally. Her BP is 110/74 mm Hg; pulse, 48
beats/minute; respirations, 12 breaths/minute;
periorbital edema is present, and a yellowish
skin pigmentation is noted. Her daughter
relates a history of "thyroid problem" and
noncompliance with medical therapy. The
diagnosis of myxedema is made.
37. The patient admitted with hypothyroid
crisis (myxedema coma) would most likely
have which of the following electrolyte
abnormalities?
A. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
38. Which of the following acid-base
imbalances is most likely to occur in this
patient?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis without
compensation
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis with compensation
39. Which medication is not an oral
hypoglycemic agent?
A. Glypizide (Glucotrol)
B. Tolbutamide (Orinase)
C. Chlorpropamide (diabinese)
D. Diazoxide (Hyperstat)
40. A diabetic client is admitted to the ER by a
coworker, who found him unconscious on the
floor. A nurse would first:
A. Check the client's blood sugar level and
start an IV infusion.

B. Contact the client's family and tell them to

come to the hospital immediately.
C. Assess the client for head trauma.
D.Ask the coworker how long the client was
unconscious.
41. A nurse caring for a patient with diabetic
ketoacidosis should monitor blood gas studies
because
which of the following may develop?
a. respiratory acidosis
c. metabolic
acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
d. metabolic
alkalosis
42. The nurse should observe a client with
Addison's disease closely for signs of
infectious complications because there is
disturbance in:
a. Stress Response
c. Electrolyte
imbalance
b. Respiratory function
d. Metabolic
processes
43. The emaciation, muscular weakness, and
fatigue associated with Addison's Disease
result from a disturbance in:
a. Fluid balance
anabolism
b. Electrolyte levels
Masculinizing effects

c. Protein
d.

44. The nurse knows that glucagon may be

given in the treatment of hypoglycemia
because it:
a. inhibits glycogenesis
b. stimulates release of insulin
c. increases blood glucose levels
d. provides more storage of glucose.
45. A client with Diabetes Mellitus states, "I
cannot eat big meals and I prefer to snack
throughout the day." The nurse should
carefully explain that:
a. Regulated food intake is basic to control.
b. Salt and sugar restriction is the main
concern.
c. Small, frequent meals are better for
digestion.
d. Large meals can contribute to a weight
problem.
46. A difference between diabetic coma and
hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic
syndrome (HHNS) is that the clients in diabetic
coma experience:
a. Fluid loss
c. Kussmaul respirations
b. Glycosuria
d. Increased blood glucose.
47. The gland that regulates the rate of
oxygenation in all the body cells is the:
a. Thyroid gland
b. Adrenal
gland
c. Pituitary gland
d. Pancreatic gland

48. Underproduction of thyroxine produces:

a. Acromegaly
b. Myxedema
c. Grave's disease
d. Cushing's disease
49. As a result of low levels of T3 and T4, the
nurse should expect a client to exhibit :
a. irritability
c. Profuse
diaphoresis
b. Tachycardia
d. Cold
intolerance
50. Thyroid crisis (storm) is caused by:
a. Increased iodine in the blood.
b. Removal of the parathyroid gland.
c. High levels of the hormone triiodothyronine.
d. A rebound increase in metabolism following
anesthesia.
51. Occasionally infants are born without an
immune system. They can live normally with
no apparent problems during their first
months after birth because:
A. Exposure to pathogens during this time can
be limited B. Limited antibodies are produced
by the infants colonic
bacteria
C. Antibodies are passively received from the
mother
through the placenta and breastmilk
D. Limited antibodies are produced by the
fetal thymus
during the eight and ninth months of
gestation

52. Using live virus vaccines against measles

is contraindicated in children receiving
cortecoisteroid, antineoplastic, or irradiation
therapy because this children may:
A. Have had the disease or have been
immunized
previously
B. Be unlikely to need this protection during
their
shortened life span
C. Be susceptible to infection because of their
depressed
immune system
D. Have an allergy to rabbit serum, which is
used as basis
for this vaccine
53. When a transfusion reaction is suspected
the first action generally taken is to:
A. Stop the blood or blood component infusion
B. Slow the rate of of blood or blood
component infusion
C. Notify the blood bank

D. Notify the physician

54. Paulo is now 4 months old. His mother
brings him to the clinic for his next set of
immunizations. Which of the following would
contraindicate Paulo from receiving
immunization this time?
A. Delayed development C. Anorexia
B. Weight loss
D. Active
infection
55. A patient who is diagnosed with the
human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is
complaining of weakness and fatigue. The
patients diagnosis is altered nutrition: less
than body requirements Which of the following
measures should the nurse include in the
patients care plan?
A. Offering raw fruits and vegetables
B. limiting the amount of oral fluids
C. Obtaining daily weights
D. Increasing the patients activity level
56. A pregnant woman who has tested
positive for the human immunodeficiency
virus (HIV) is admitted to the labor unit. Which
of the following statements, if made by the
woman, would indicate that she has an
accurate understanding of labor
management?
A. "I will receive antibiotics during my labor."
B. "My baby will be delivered by cesarean
section.
C. "My baby will have to be monitored
internally."
D. "I plan to have an epidural to help ease the
pain."
57. The nurse knows that positive diagnosis
for HIV infection is made based on:
A. A history of high risk sexual behaviors
B. Positive ELISA and Western blot test
C. Evidence extreme weight loss and high
fever
D. A decrease the serum level of glucose -6phosphate dehydrogenase

58. A farmer steps on a rusty nail and the

puncture becomes swollen and painful.
Tetanus antitoxin is prescribed. The nurse
explains that this is used because it:
A. Provides antibodies
B. Stimulates plasma cell
C. Produces active immunity
D. Facilitates long lasting immunity
59. Emma 2 years old had measles last
December 3 weeks after he sister Lisa got

sick. What type of immunity did Emma and

Lisa get?
A. artificially acquired active
B. naturally acquired passive
C. artificially acquired passive
D. naturally acquired active
60. The nurse's base knowledge of primary
immunodeficiencies includes which of the
following statements?
A. occur most commonly in aged individuals
B. develop as a result of treatment with
antineoplastic
agent
C. develop early in life after protection from
maternal
antibodies decreases
D. disappear with age
61. Agammaqglobulinemia is also known as:
A. bruton's disease
B nezelof syndrome
C. wiskott- aldrich syndrome
D. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
62. Cellular immunity is carried out by?
A. Specific antibodies
B. Sensitized lympocytes (T- cells)
C. Megakaryocytes
D. Eosinophils
63. Which nursing intervention is appropriate
for the nurse to take when setting up supplies
for a client who requires a blood
transfusion?
A. Add needed IV medication in the blood bag
within one
half hour of planned infusion.
B. Obtain blood bag from laboratory and leave
at room
temperature for at least one hour prior
to transfusion.
C. Prime tubing of blood administration set
with 0.9 % NS
solution, completely filling the filter.
D. Use a small-bore catheter to prevent rapid
infusion of
blood products that may lead to
reaction.
64. Which of the following would be included
in the teaching plan for a client diagnosed
with Systemic Lupus Erthymatosus (SLE)?
A. Wearing large-brimmed hats when exposed
to the sun
B. Using tanning beds instead of sunbathing
outside
C. Removing all rugs, curtains, and dustcollecting items
in the home
D. Carrying injectable epinephrine at all times
in case of
exacerbation
65. Cytotoxic T cells

A. are important in producing circulating

antibodies
B. lyse cells infected with virus
C. attack foreign invaders directly
D. decrease B cell activity to a level at which
the immune
system is compatible with life
66. When assisting the patient to interpret a
negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the
patient that the result mean that:
A. he has not been infeced with HIV
B. his body has not produced antibodies to the
AIDS virus
C. he is immune to the AIDS]
D. antibodies to the AIDS virus are in his blood
67. A client diagnosed with rheumatoid
arthritis (RA) complains about joints that
always hurt, saying. I just feel like staying in
bed all day. Which discharged instruction
would be aimed at maintaining as much
function as possible?
A. Refrain from exercise because it only
aggravates the
disease process.
B. Apply elastic bandage to all joints to
increase the pain
threshold.
C. Maintain a supine position most of the day
to prevent
the stress of weight bearing.
D. Promote aquatic (water) exercises to
enhance joint mobility.
68. The term pink puffer refers to the client
with which of the following conditions?
a. Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
b. Asthma
c. Chronic Bronchitis
d. Emphysema
69. Clients with chronic obstructive bronchitis
are given diuretic therapy. Which of the
following best explains why?
a. Reducing fluid volume reduces oxygen
demand.
b. Reducing fluid volume improves clients
mobility.
c. Reducing fluid volume reduces sputum
production.
d. Reducing fluid volume improves respiratory
function.
70. A client with emphysema should only
receive 1 to 2 L/minute of oxygen if needed, or
he may lose his hypoxic drive. Which of the
following statements is correct about hypoxic
drive?
a. The client doesnt notice he needs to
breathe.
b. The client breathes only when his oxygen
levels climb above a certain point.

c. The client breathes only when his oxygen

levels dip below a certain point.
d. The client breathes only when his carbon
dioxide levels dip below a certain point.
71. A male patient is admitted to the health
care facility for treatment of chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease. Which nursing
diagnosis is most important for this patient?
a. Activity intolerance related to fatigue.
b. Anxiety related to actual threat to health
status.
c. Risk for infection related to retained
secretions.
d. Impaired gas exchange related to airflow
obstruction.
72. For a patient with advance chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which
nursing action best promotes adequate gas
exchange?
a. Encouraging the patient to drink three
glasses of fluid daily.
b. Keeping the patient in semi- Fowlers
position.
c. Using a high flow venture mask to deliver
oxygen as prescribed.
d. Administering a sedative, as prescribed.
73. For a female patient with chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease, which nursing
intervention would help maintain a patent
airway?
a. Restricting fluid intake to 1000ml/day.
b. Enforcing absolute bed rest.
c. Teaching the client how to perform
controlled coughing.
d. Administering prescribed sedatives
regularly and in large amounts.
74. A nurse is caring for a male client with
emphysema who is receiving oxygen. The
nurse assesses the oxygen flow rate to ensure
that it does not exceed:
a. 1L/min
c. 6L/min
b. 2L/min
d. 10L/min
75. A nurse instructs a female client to use the
pursed-lip method of breathing and the client
asks the nurse about the purpose of this type
of breathing. The nurse responds, knowing
that the primary purpose of pursed-lip
breathing is to:
a. Promote oxygen intake.
b. Strengthen the diaphragm.
c. Strengthen intercostal muscles.
d. Promote carbon dioxide elimination.
76. A nurse is suctioning fluids from a male
client via a tracheostomy tube. When
suctioning, the nurse must limit the suctioning
time to a maximum of:
a. 1 minute
c. 10 seconds
b. 5 seconds
d. 60 seconds
77. A nurse is suctioning fluids from a female
client through an endotracheal tube. During

the suctioning procedure, the nurse notes on

the monitor that the heart rate is decreasing.
Which if the following is the appropriate
nursing intervention?
a. Continue to suction.
b. Notify the physician immediately.
c. Stop the procedure and re oxygenate the
client.
d. Ensure that the suction is limited to 15
seconds.

82. May Kulang is admitted to the hospital in a

state of sickle cell crisis. Which of the
following will be the most helpful in reversing
this episode and preventing a future crisis?
a. Prevention of dehydration.
b. Institution of pain relief measures.
c. Administration of anticoagulants
prophylactically.
d. Administration of diuretics to relieve
edema.

78. The parents of a pediatric client who has

sickle cell anemia ask about the cause of the
disorder. Which response would best describe
the cause?
a. It is caused by recessive trait that
primarily affects African Americans.
b. It is caused by an increased demand for
iron in the bloodstream.
c. It is an inherited disorder caused by
abnormal hemoglobin synthesis.
d. It is a rare, malignant disorder of the
lymphatic system.
79. When reviewing the management of sickle
cell anemia with a parent, the nurse
understands that additional teaching would be
needed if the parent said that which of the
following circumstances contributed to a
crisis?
a. Fever
c. foods that are low in
iron
b. Emotional stress
d. Excessive
vomiting

83. In preparation for discharge, the nurse

teaching the Mic family the principles of
management of sickle cell anemia. It is
important for the nurse to explain that:
a. Any undue stress can precipitate a crisis.
b. Vitamin supplements, especially vit.B can
prevent the sickling.
c. Participation in sports should be
discouraged to prevent a crisis.
d. Iron supplements are often useful in
maintaining normal hemoglobin levels.

80. A woman asks the nurse, "If they find the

sickle cell trait, does that mean I'll need
treatment?" Which of the following choices is
the best reply by the nurse?
a. The sickle cell trait just mean that you
have a tendency to develop the disease.
b. No, you won't need treatment unless you
actually develop the disease.
c. You won't need treatment now, but you
should have regular blood tests.
d. No, because people w/sickle cell trait don't
develop the disease under normal
circumstances.
81. Another woman tells the nurse that she
and her husband are afraid to have children
because she has sickle cell trait, and all her
children will have sickle cell anemia. Which
reply by the nurse would indicate the greatest
understanding of how the disease is
transmitted?
a. Does your husband also have the trait or
the disease?
b. Have you considered adopting a child?
c. It must be difficult for you knowing that
you could cause your children to become
ill.
d. Do you realize that there is only a 50%
chance that your children will have the
disease?

84. A patient with asthma is given

Aminophylline to:
a. Induce sleep and rest.
b. Relax the pulmonary vessels.
c. Cause dilation of the bronchi
d. Decrease the body's inflammatory reaction
to allergen.

85. The nurse should suspect the provoking

factor for an asthmatic attack is that the
patient:
a. Wore a new suit made of synthetic material
two days ago.
b. Ate strawberries.
c. Used a new kind of cough medicine.
d. Was playing with a cat.
86. A black client with asthma seeks
emergency care for acute respiratory distress.
Because of this clients dark skin, the nurse
should assess for cyanosis by inspecting the:
a. Lips
c. Nailbeds
b. b. Mucous membrane d. Earlobes
87. A 20- year old comes into the ER with
acute asthma. His RR is 44/min. and he
appears to be in acute respiratory distress.
Which of the following actions should be taken
first?
a. Take a full medication history.
b. Give a bronchodilator by nebulizer.
c. Apply a cardiac monitor to the patient.
d. Provide emotional support to the patient.
88. The nurse explains to the parents of a 1year old child admitted to the hospital in a
sickle cell crisis that the local tissue damage
the child has on admission is caused by which
of the following?

a. Autoimmune reaction complicated by

hypoxia.
b. Lack of oxygen in the red blood cells.
c. Obstruction to circulation.
d. Elevated serum bilirubin concentration.
89. Which of the following would the nurse
identify as the priority nursing diagnosis
during a toddlers vasoocclusive sickle cell
crisis?
a. Ineffective coping related to the presence
of life threatening disease.

b. Decreased cardiac output related to

abnormal hemoglobin formation.
c. Pain related to tissue anoxia.
d. Excess fluid volume related to infection.
90. A nurse checks the lab results of a child
suspected of sickle cell anemia. Which of the
following would be increased in this disease?
a. Platelet count
c. Reticulocyte level
b. Hematocrit level
d.
Hemoglobin level

TRUE or FALSE. Write T if the statement is TRUE, and write F if the statement is FALSE. Write your
answers on the provided answer sheet.
91.A patient diagnosed with emphysema is also called a "blue bloater."
92.In chronic bronchitis, the airflow may be hampered.
93.Cigarette smoking is by far the most common cause of chronic bronchitis.
94.There is no cure for asthma, but it can be managed and treated so one can live a normal,
healthy life.
95.Adrenocorticotropic hormone causes the adrenal cortex to produce and release cortisol and
aldosterone.
96.Sickle cell anemia is an acquired blood disorder where the red blood cells, which carry oxygen
around the body, develop abnormally.
97.If one parent has sickle cell anemia and the other is Normal, all of the children will have the
sickle cell disease.
98.Your risk of developing bronchitis is greater if you work around certain lung irritants, such as
grains or textiles, or are exposed to chemical fumes.
99.Dawn phenomenon is the nocturnal release of growth hormones which cause blood glucose
elevations about 3pm.
100. The sickle cells also block the flow of blood through vessels.