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ENTRANCE EXAMINATION FOR ADMISSION, JUNE 2007.

M.Sc. (COMPUTER SCIENCE)

Register Number:

..………………………….
Signature of the Invigilator
(With Date)

Time: 2 Hours Max: 360 Marks

Instructions to candidates:
1. Write your Register Number within the box provided on the top of this page
and fill in the page 1 of the answer sheet using pen.
2. Do not write your name anywhere in this booklet or answer sheet. Violation
of this entails disqualification.
3. Read each question carefully and shade the relevant answer (A) or (B) or (C)
or (D) or (E) in the relevant box of the ANSWER SHEET Using HB pencil.
4. Avoid blind guessing. A wrong answer will fetch you -1 mark and the correct
answer 4 marks.
5. Do not write anything in the question paper. Use the white sheets attached at
the end for rough works.
6. Do not open the question paper until the start signal is given.
7. Do not attempt to answer after stop signal is given. Any such attempt will
disqualify your candidature.
8. On stop signal, keep the question paper and the answer sheet on your table
and wait for the invigilator to collect them.
9. Use of calculators, tables, etc., are prohibited.
10. Follow the instructions given in the question paper and page 1 of the answer
sheet.
M.Sc- Questions

1. You are auditing current customer practices potentially amenable to software


application(s). Which two should be part of the audit?
(i) Identification of current logical system(s)
(ii) Identification of current virtual system(s)
(iii) Identification of current physical system(s)
(iv) Identification of current corporate strategies
(a) i & ii (b)i & iii (c) ii& iii (d) i &iv (e) iii only

2. What are three phases of a feasibility analysis?


(i)Legal feasibility (ii) Political feasibility (iii) Technical feasibility (iv) Economic
feasibility (v) Environmental feasibility
(a) i & ii & iii (b) i & ii & iv (c) ii & iii & iv (d) iii & iv & v
(e) i & iii & iv

3. A corporation uses formal methods for requirements specification because they


believe that it guarantees that the customer's needs will be met by the new software
application. Which statement about this corporation's belief is true?
(a) Formal methods do provide this guarantee because they are safer to use.
(b) Formal methods do not provide this guarantee because they are not testable.
(c)Formal methods do provide this guarantee because they are based on
mathematical techniques for which proof systems exist.
(d)Formal methods do not provide this guarantee because they are difficult to
communicate accurately to the user.
(e) None of the above

4. What is configuration management?


(a) Overall management of design of the system
(b) Management of the configurable components in a system
(c) The identification of the configuration of a system at discrete points in time to
control changes to the configuration
(d) In object-oriented programming, the management of objects that control the
configuration of some other function(s) in the system
(e) None of the above

5. Which statement about the preliminary design stage of a software development project
is true?
(a) The preliminary design is an internal document used only by programmers.
(b) The preliminary design is the result of mapping product requirements into software
and hardware functions.
(c) The preliminary design of the product comes from the initial meetings between the
customer and the programmer.
(d) The developers produce the preliminary design by defining the software structure in
enough detail to permit coding.
(e) None of the above

6. When should the system testing phase begin?


(a) After beta testing (b) Before unit testing (c) After white box testing
(d) Before functional testing (e) After user acceptance testing

7. In the software testing process, when is validation testing performed?


(a) After coding (b) After unit testing (c) After module testing
(d) After integration testing (e) None of the above

8. Software _____ is work done to enhance software functionality, correct errors and
improve the performance of software.
(a) Re-design (b) Maintenance (c) Corrections (d) Re-engineering
(e) None of the above

9. How is an application's "version" different from its "release"?


(a) A release is a small change to an earlier release.
(b) A version is a small change made to an earlier version.
(c) A version is the one made available to customers and a release is a change to a
previous version.
(d) A release is the one made available to customers and a version is a change to a
previous release.
(e) None of the above

10. Integration is important because:


(a)It ensures that the software is familiar to those who will use it
(b)It ensures that the software is friendly to those who will use it
(c)It ensures that the software works where it is to be used
(d)It ensures that the software replaces the existing system simultaneously everywhere it
is to be used
(e)It ensures that the software is not installed until the old system has been removed.

11. System maintenance is necessary because


(a) Humans never get it right the first time
(b) The deployment platform may change over time
(c) The user’s needs may change over time
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

12. Software process model is


(a)A representation of the way in which software is developed
(b)A representation of the way in which software processes data
(c)A representation of the way in which software is used
(d)A representation of the way in which software may fail
(e)An attractive young person used in the process of selling software

13. Which of the following is not a software process model?


(a). The waterfall model (b).The fountain model
(c). The spiral model (d). The redwine model (e).The rainfall model
14. Good test program
(a) Finds a different error each time it is run
(b) Finds the same error by several different methods
(c) Has a low probability of finding a known error.
(d) Is a reversal of what Sommerville calls "code intuition”
(e) None of the above

15. Which is the null statement?


(a) ; (b) {} (c) '\0'; (d)all of the above (e) None of the above

16. Template classes that have already been written to perform common class tasks are
called
(a) Container classes (b) réceptacle classes (c) repository classes
(d) Alembic classes (e) All of the above

17. What will be the output of the program?


main()
{
main();
}
(a) recursive function
(b) Runtime error : Stack overflow
(c) pointer error
(d) none
(e) All the above

18. Select the choice which is wrong ?


(a)'volatile' is a reserved word
(b)'volatile' is a keyword
(c)'volatile' is a data type
(d)'volatile' is a Identifier
(e) All the above

19. The storage class ‘static’ can be used to


(a) Restrict the scope of an external identifier
(b) preserve the exit value of variables
(c) provide privacy to a set of functions
(d) all of the above
(e) None of the above

20. When a language has the capability to produce new data types, it is called
(a) extensible (b)overloaded (c ) encapsulated
(d) reprehensible (e) None of the above

21. The maximum distance between two nodes in a complete binary tree of n nodes is
(a).2 log n (b).log n (c).n (d).all of the above (e).None of the above

22.A search tree where we keep expanding nodes with least accumulated cost so far is
called
(a).backtracking (b).branch & bound (c).depth first (d).all of the above (e).
None of the above

23. What is the order of displaying all n elements in a sorted linked list?
(a). O(n). (b). O(log2 n). (c). O(n log2 n). (d). O(2n). (e). None of the above

24. RAID implies


a. disks operated in parallel b. mechanism for ensuring reliability c. independent
read and writes. (d) All of the above (e) None of the above
25. To prevent fragmentation of space with a memory block in the variable length record
------- is used.
(a) .fixed size block (b). Pointers (c). Reserved space (d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

26. The mechanism by which any record can be placed anywhere in the file where there
is space for the record is
(a). random file organization (b). Hash file (c). Heap file (d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

27. The main disadvantage of indexed sequential file is


(a) Insertion & deletion are difficult (b). large seek time for huge files
(c). performance degradation when file grows (d) All of the above (e) None of the above

28. If a bucket is full, records are inserted in some other buckets as the number of buckets
is fixed, refers to
(a) Closed hashing (b) Overflow chaining (c) Open hashing
(d) All of the above (e) None of the above

29. Which of the following component of a database is responsible for ensuring the
atomicity and durability properties of transaction?
(a) Recovery manager (b) Concurrency control (c) Transaction monitors
(d) All of the above (e) None of the above

30. Shadow copy scheme is used for ensuring


(a) Concurrency (b) Atomicity & durability (c) Consistency (d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

31. Under which of the following condition a lock may be released?


(a) Transaction committed successfully (b) Rollback performed
(c) Rollback to a save point. (d) All of the above (e) None of the above
32. Integrity of data refers to
(a)Protection from malicious access
(b) Avoidance of accidental loss of consistency
(c)Protection from unauthorized modification of data
(d) All of the above (e) None of the above

33. A scheduling policy may attempt to optimize on:

(a)CPU utilization (b) Average wait time (c) Average turnaround time

(d)Average throughput rate (e) All of the above

34. With dynamic address relocation, the relocation register contains

(a) The physical address of the first address in the address space

(b) The virtual address issued by the CPU

(c) The linear offset into the address space

(d) The size of the address space (e) None of the above

35. The basic operations performed by a computer are

(a) Arithmetic operation (b) Logical operation (c) Storage and relative

(d) All of the above (e) None of the above

36. The earliest calculating device(s) is

(a) Abacus (b) Clock (c) Difference Engine (d) All of the above

(e) None of the above


37. The first Mechanical Calculator built by

(a) Joseph Marie Jacquard (b) John Mauchly (c) Blaise Pascal

(d) Harward Ailken (e) None of the above

38. Punched cards were first introduced by

(a). Powers (b). Pascal (c). Jacquard (d). Herman Hollerith (e). None of the above

39. ORDBMS Stands for

(a)Optimal Relational Database Management System

(b)Object Relational Database Management System

(c)Originated Database Management System

(d)All of the above (e)None of the above

40. MDR (Memory Data Register) holds the

(a). Segment number (b). Address of a memory location

(c). Number of transistors (d). all of the above (e). none of these

41. A Compiler ____

(a) Is a computer program

(b) Translates a high level language into machine language

(c) Is a part of software (d) Is a Firmware (e) None of the above


42. Machine language ___

(a) Is the language in which programs were first written

(b) Is the only language understood by the computer

(c) Differs from one type of computer to another

(d) All of the above (e) None of the above

43. RTL means ______.

(a). Registered Transmission Logic (b). Register Transfer Logic (c). Register Transfer

Language (d). Register Transmission Language (e). none of the above

44. The basic fundamental component found inside a microprocessor is ___.

(a)a Transistor (b) a Logic Gate (c) a Register (d) a Flip-Flop

(e) None of the above

45. Which is the first process that will be executed immediately after PC is switched on?
(a) POST (b) INIT (c) CMOS (d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

46. Which of the following disk is having a maximum capacity?


(a) Digital Versatile Disk (b) Blu Ray (c)DIVX
(d) Compact Disc (e) None of the above

47. How many bits are required for High color Super-VGA adapter?
(a)8 Bits (b)16 Bits (c)24 Bits (d)32 Bits (e)None of the above

48. How many hard disks can be connected in a SCSI interface?


(a)4 (b)8 (c)12 (d)16 (e)None of the above
49. ADSL is a
(a) Device used for Broad band services
(b) Device used for browsing network
(c) Device used for dialup internet (d)All of the above
(e) None of the above

50. The process that allows a network to self repair networks problem.
(a) Beconing (b) Self Monitoring Tool
(c) Network Monitoring Tool (d) All of the above (e)None of the above.

51. ICMP stands for


(a) Internet Control Message Protocol
(b) Internet Configure Message Protocol
(c) Internet Control Mass Protocol (d) Internet Configure Mass Protocol
(e) None of the above.

52. The Performance of the pure Aloha protocol.


(a) Zero (b) Less than Five Percent
(c) Less than Seven Percent (d) Less than twenty Percent
(e) None of the Above

53. What is the IEEE specification for Ethernet?


(a) 802.10 (b) 802.2 (c)802.11 (d)802.3 (e) 802.5

54. Which of the following protocols are routable?


(a) DLC (b) Decnet (c) IPX/SPX (d) TCP/IP (e) All of the above

55. Which protocol is used in E-Mail Servers?


(a) POP3 (b) IMAP (c) SMTP (d) All of the above
(e) None of the above
56. A Router operates in which layer of the OSI model?

(a) The Physical Layer (b) The Data Link Layer

(c) The Transport Layer (d) All of the above (e) None of the above

57. Basic elements of product ciphers


(a) P-box. (b) S-box. (c) Product
(a) All of the above (e) None of the above

58. Which of the following tasks are performed by the process manager?

(a) Resource management (b) Synchronization management

(c) Deadlock management (d) Processor scheduling (e) All of the above

59. The process address space is ultimately defined by:

(a) Relocatable object modules (b) Link editor

(c) Absolute program (d) Load module (e) None of the above.

60. What is the difference between a scheduling mechanism and a scheduling policy?

(a) A mechanism involves mechanical parts

(b) A mechanism is capable of implementing a family of policies

(c) A policy is implemented in RAM rather than ROM

(d) A policy overrides the action of a mechanism (e) All of the above.
61. The interval timer device is:

(a) a virtual device (b)an unused option on most contemporary computers

(c) a programmable device that produces periodic interrupts

(d) a pseudonym for the hardware clock (e) None of the above

62. MODEM is a

(a) DCE (b) DTE (c) DCE for first few minutes

(d) DTE for the first few minutes (e) None of the above

63. What is the effect of increasing the time quantum to an arbitrarily large number for
Round Robin scheduling?

(a) The average wait time decreases (b) The average turnaround time increases

(c) The algorithm behaves exactly the same as nonpreemptive FCFS

(d) All of the above (e) None of the above

64. If the string of a language L can be effectively enumerated in lexicographic (i.e..,


alphabetic) order, which of the following statement is true?
(a) L is necessarily finite
(b) L is regular but not necessarily finite
(c) L is context free but not necessarily regular
(d) L is recursive but not necessarily context free
(e) All of the above
65. The language { ambncm+n, | m, n ≥ 1} is
(a) regular
(b) CF but not regular
(c) context sensitive but not Context free
(d) type-0 but not context sensitive

66. Consider the following grammar G:


S → bS | aA |b
A → bA | a B
B → bB | aS | a

Let Na (w) and Nb ( w) denote the number of a’s and b’s in a string w respectively. The
language L(G) { a, b}* generated by G is
(a){ w | Na (w ) > 3 Nb ( w) }
(b){ w | Nb (w ) > 3 Na ( w) }
(c){ w | Na ( w) = 3k, k € { 0, 1, 2, ……………..}}
(d){ w | Nb ( w) = 3k, k € { 0, 1, 2, ……………..}}
(e) None of the above

67. Consider a grammar with the following productions


S → a α b | b α c | aB
S → aS | b
S → α bb | b
bα → bdb | b
The above grammar is α
(a) Context free (b) Regular (c) Context sensitive
(d) LR ( k ) (e) None of the above

68. Let L ∑* where ∑ = ( a , b ). Which of the following is true?


(a) L = { x | x has an equal number of a’s and b’s } is regular
(b) L = { an bn | n≥1 } is regular
(c) L = { x | x has more a’s than b’s } is regular
(d) L = ambn | m ≥ 1, n ≥ 1} is regular (e) None of the above

69. Which of the following four regular expressions are equivalent (є - empty string).
1.( 00 ) * (є + 0) 2. ( 00 )* 3. 0* 4. 0( 00)*
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4. (e) 1 and 4

70. Which of the following statement is false?


(a) The halting problem for TM is undecidable
(b) Deterministic whether a CFG is ambiguous is undecidable
(c) Given two arbitrary CFG G1 and G2 it is undecidable wheter L(G1) = L(G2)
(d) Given two regular grammars G1 and G2 it is undecidable whether L(G1) = L ( G2)
(e) All of the above

71. How many pentagons are there in the following figure ?

(a) 17 (b)15 (c) 12 (d)13 (e) None of the above

72. How many rectangles are there in the following figure?

(a) 8 (b) 9 (c)10 (d)11 (e) None of the above

73. If one-third of one-fourth of a number is 15 then three-tenth of that number is

(a) 35 (b) 36 c(45) (d) 54 (e) 10


74. In a party, every body shakes hand with everybody else and there are 36 handshakes
in all. The number of persons in the party are

(a) 9 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 24

75. A total of 324 coins of 20 paise and 25 paise make a sum of Rs.71. The number of 25
paise coins is

(a) 200 (b) 144 (c)124 (d) 120 (e) 250

76. 15 men and 18 women together finish a work in 6 days. One man alone finishes that
work in 150 days. One woman will finish the same work in

(a) 170 days (b) 225 days (c) 230 days (d) 270 days (e) 300 days

77. What is the annual dividend received from 325 shares if the quarterly dividend is
Rs.10 Per share

(a) Rs.5000 (b)Rs.6250 (c) Rs.2600 (d) Rs.3000 (e) Rs.15000

78. A Computer can perform 30 identical tasks in six hours. At that rate, what is the
minimum number of computers that should be assigned to complete 80 of the tasks
within 3 hours?

(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 (e) 16

79. If x-y=8 then which of the following must be true?

I. Both x and y are positive II. If x is positive, Y must be positive

III. If X is negative, Y must be negative


(a)I only (b) I & II Only (c) I & III Only (d) All the above

(e) None of the above

80. What is the average of n, n+ 1, n+2, n+3, n+4, n+5?

(a) n+2 (b) n+ 21/2 (c) 6n + 15 (d) n+ 31/2 (e) None of the above

81. The average salary of an entire office is Rs.120 per month. The average salary of
officers is Rs. 460 and that of non-officers is Rs. 110. If the number of officers is 15, then
find the number of non-officers in the office.
(a) 150 (b) 15 (c) 510 (d) 51 (e) None of the above

82. In a zoo there are rabbits and pigeons. If heads are counted, there are 200 and if legs
are counted there are 580. How many pigeons are there?
(a) 100 (b) 110 (c) 125 (d) 90 (e) None of the above

83. A car starts from station A at the rate of 60 kmph and reaches the station B in 45
minutes. If the speed of the train is reduced by 6 kmph, how much more time will the
train take to return from station B to station A?
(a) 5 min (b) 6 min (c) 8 min (d) 9 min (e) None of the above

84. The day on 5th March of a year is the same day on what date of the same year?
(a) 5th August (b) 5th November (c) 5th January
(d) 5th February (e) None of the above

85. At what time between 5 and 6 o' clock are the hands of a clock coincident?
(a) 20 minutes past 5 (b) 23 minutes past 5 (c) 27 3/11 minutes past 5
(d). 21 minutes past 5 (e) 30 minutes past 5

86. The number in the unit place in (623)36 is


(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 0 (e) None of the above
87. 24345 and 33334 are divided by a certain three digit number and the remainder in
both the cases is same. What is that divisor and remainder
(a)101 and 4 (b) 103 and 4 (c) 106 and 4 (d) 102 and 6
(e) None of the above

88. Find the next element in the series 23, 24, 28, 37, 53, 78?
(a) 90 (b) 114 (c) 123 (d) 101 (e) None of the above

89. Find the odd number


(a) 121 (b) 484 (c) 1089 (d) 1936 (e) 3136

90. A train passes by a man standing on the platform in 7 seconds and passes by the
platform completely in 28 seconds. If the length of the platform is 330 meters then what
is the length of the train?
(a) 100 m (b) 120 m (c) 110 m (d) 140 m (e) None of the above
M.Sc Answers
1. Ans (d) i & iv
2. Ans (d) iii & iv & v
3. Ans (c) Formal methods do provide this guarantee because they are based on
mathematical techniques for which proof systems exist.
4. Ans (c) The identification of the configuration of a system at discreet points in
time to control changes to the configuration
5. Ans. (b) the preliminary design is the result of mapping product requirements
into software and hardware functions.
6. Ans. (c) after white box testing
7. Ans. (d) after integration testing
8. Ans. (a) Re-design
9. Ans. (d) a release is the one made available to customers and a version is a change
to a previous release.
10. Ans. (c). It ensures that the software works where it is to be used
11. Ans. (d) All of the above
12. Ans. (a).A representation of the way in which software is developed
13. Ans. (e).The rainfall model
14. Ans. (e). None of the above
15. Ans: (a)
16. Ans : (a)
17. Ans: (b)
18. Ans (C)
19. Ans : (d)
20. Ans : (a)
21. Ans. (a) 2log n
22. Ans.(b) Branch and bound
23. Ans.(a).O(n).
24. Ans. (d) All of the above
25. Ans. (b). Pointers
26. Ans. (c). Heap file
27. Ans. (c). performance degradation when file grows
28. Ans(c).open hashing
29. Ans (a). Recovery manager
30. Ans. (b). Atomicity & durability
31. Ans. (d) All of the above
32. Ans. (b) avoidance of accidental loss of consistency
33. Ans (e). All of the above
34. Ans. (a).the physical address of the first address in the address space
35. Ans (d) All the above
36. Ans (a) Abacus
37.Ans(c) Blaise Pascal
38. Ans (d) Herman Hollerith
39. Ans.(b) Object Relational Database Management System
40. Ans. (c) Number of transistors

41. Ans (b) translates a high level language into machine language
42. Ans (d) All of the above
43. Ans. (c) Register Transfer Language
44. Ans. (c). A Register
45. Ans. (a).POST
46. Ans.(b) Blu Ray
47. Ans. (c) 24 Bits
48. Ans. (d) 16
49. Ans: (e) None of the above
50. Ans. (a) Beconing
51. Ans.A Internet Control Message Protocol
52. Ans. (d) Less than twenty Percent
53. Ans. (d) 802.3
54. Ans.(e) all of the above
55. Ans. (d) All of the above
56. Ans. (e) None of the above
57. Ans (d) All of the above
58. Ans. (e) All of the above
59. Ans. (d) Load module
60. Ans. (b) A mechanism is capable of implementing a family of policies
61. Ans. (c) a programmable device that produces periodic interrupts
62. Ans. (a) DCE
63. Ans (c) The algorithm behaves exactly the same as nonpreemptive FCFS
64. Ans. (a) L is necessarily finite
65. Ans. (c) context sensitive but not Context free
66. Ans.( c ) { w | Na ( w) = 3k, k € { 0, 1, 2, ……………..}}
67. Ans.( c ) Context sensitive
68. Ans.(b). L = { an bn | n≥1 } is regular
69. Ans.(c) 1 and 3
70. Ans. (d). given two regular grammars G1 and G2 it is undecidable whether L(G1)
= L ( G 2)
71. Ans.(c) 12
72. Ans. (a) 8
73. Ans. (d) 54
74. Ans. (a) 9
75. Ans.(c).124
76. Ans. (d) 270 Days
77.Ans.(d) Rs.3000
78. Ans (a) 6
79. Ans. (a) I only
80. Ans.(b) n+ 21/2
81. Ans. C. 510
82. Ans. B. 110
83. Ans. A. 5 min
84. Ans. B 5th November
85. Ans. C. 27 3/11 minutes past 5
86. Ans. C. 1
87. Ans. A. 101 and 4
88. Ans. B. 114
89. Ans. E. 3136
90. Ans. C. 110 m

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