S-(OBJ) 1997 1 of 16
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-I
1. A charge distribution is shown in the given The electric field Eat any point Z is given
figure: by
r ρ Z r
Which of the following expressions for the a. E = az
∈0 |Z |
displacement flux density D due to the
r ρ Z r
given charge distribution is correct? b. E = az Z > 0 = 0, Z = 0
1. D = − ρ 0 aix for x < − a ∈0 |Z |
r ρ Z r
2. D = − ρ 0 ( x + a ) ix for − a < x < 0 c. E = az | Z |> 0 = 0, Z = 0
∈0 |Z|
3. D = + ρ 0 ( x − a ) ix for 0 < x < a
r ρ |Z | r
4. D = + ρ0 aix for x > a E= az , Z < 0
∈0 Z
Select the correct answer using the codes
ρ |Z| r
given below: d. =− az , Z < 0
a. 1 and 4 ∈0 Z
b. 2 and 3 = 0, Z = 0
c. 1,2 and 3 4. A magnetic field B and an electric field E
d. 2,3 and 4 are at right angles to each other along the
2. Two concentric metallic spheres of radii ‘a y-axis and x = axis respectively as shown
and ‘b’ carry charges + Q and – Q in the given figure. the path of an electron
respectively as shown in the given figure. which starts at the origin will be
Potential at the centre ‘P will be
a. Infinite
2Q r
2 (
a. A dipole of moment P b. −n )
4π ∈0 R
b. A dipole of moment PR/d
2Q r
2 (
c. A dipole of moment PR2/d2 c. +n )
d. Not a dipole 4π ∈0 R
7. If two concentric square loops A and B d. Zero
shown in the given figure carry equal 10. A flat slab of, dielectric ( ∈r = 5 )is placed
currents in the same sense, then the normal to a uniform field with a flux
magnetic field at ‘O due to the two loops density D = 1 Coulomb/m2. The slab is
A and B will be in the ratio uniformly polarized. Polarization V in the
slab (in Coulomb/m2) will be
a. 0.8
b. 1.2
c. 4.0
d. 6.0
11. A parallel plate capacitor with air as
a. 1: 2 dielectric is charged and then disconnected
b. 1 : 1 from the supply. The force between the
c. 2 :1 plates is F. If the cap actor is now
d. 2 : 1 immersed in a liquid dielectric of dielectric
8. Match List-I (Phenomena) with List-Il constant e, then the force between the
(Reasons) and select the correct answer plates will be
using the codes given below the lists: a. ∈2 F
List I b. ∈ F
A. Force on a unit north pole due to c. F
current d. F / ∈
B. Flux density intensity relation in a 12. Match List-I with List-II and select the
magnetic material correct answer using the codes given
C. Force of attraction between a current below the Lists: (Symbols have the usual
carrying conductor and a magnetic slab meanings)
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List I c. Occurs along the line of the array
A. Poisson’s equation d. Could occurat any angle to the line of
B. Laplace’s equation the array
C. Joule’s equation 17. At a certain frequency ‘f’ a uniform plane
D. Helmholtz’s equation wave is found to have established a
List II wavelength λ in a good conductor. Of the
1. ∇ 2φ = 0 source frequency is doubled, then the
wavelength would change to
2. ∇ 2 E + K 02 E = 0 where K 0 = ω μ0 ∈0
λ
ρ a.
3. ∇ φ = −
2
2
∈0
b. 2λ
dP c. 2λ
4. = U j = E. J
dV d. 4λ
A B C D 18. Two loss-less transmission lines 1 and .2
a. 2 1 4 3 shown in the given figure have each a
b. 3 4 1 2 characteristic impendence Z. Line 1 is
c. 3 1 4 2 charged to a voltage of V and line 2 to a
d. 2 4 1 3 voltage of 2 V. Then both of them are
13. A circular loop has its radius increasing at discharged through resistances Z as
a rate of 2m/s. The loop is placed shown. If line 1 gets fully discharged in
perpendicular to a constant magnetic field time T, then line 2 will fully discharged in
of 0.1 Wb/m2. When the radius of the loop time
is 2 m, the emf induced in the loop will be
a. 0.8π V
b. 0.4π V
c. 0.2π V
d. Zero
14. Kirchhoff’s current law for direct currents a. T/4
is implicit in the expression b. T/2
r
a. V .D = ρ c. T
r d. 2T
b. ∫ J .n ds = 0
r 19. As the temperature of a ‘p’ type
c. V .B = 0 semiconductor is gradually and
∂D continuously increased, the Fermi level
d. ∇ × H = J + will move
∂t
15. A rectangular loop in the x-z plane a. Into the valence band
bounded by the lines x = 0, x = a, z = 0 b. Into the conduction band
and z = b, is in a time-varying magnetic c. Towards the middle of the forbidden
field given by gap
d. Into the region between the acceptor.
B = B0 cos ωt a y
level and the valence band
Where B0 is a constant, ω is the angular 20. Which one of the following polarization
frequency and ay is the unit vector in the mechanisms/ sets of mechanisms
y– direction, the emf induced in the loop is contribute (s) to the static dielectric
given by constant of a homopolar neutral dielectric?
a. abB0 cos ωt a. Electronic
b. abB0ω sin ωt b. Electronic and ionic
c. Electronic, ionic and dipolar
c. B0 ω sin ωt d. Electronic, and dipolar
d. Zero 21. Consider the following materials:
16. In a broadside array, the maximum 1. Pure silica
radiation 2. Bakelite
a. Occurs at 90° to the line of the array 3. Hard rubber
b. Occurs at 450 to the line of the array 4. Paraffin
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The correct sequence of the a. Perfect diamagnetism
DECREASING order of loss angle (60 b. Partial diamagnetism
Hz) these dielectric materials is c. Perfect paramagnetism
a. 1, 2, 3, 4 d. Partial paramagnetism
b. 1, 4, 3, 2 27. The magnetic susceptibility of a
c. 4, 1, 2, 3 paramagnetic material is
d. 4, 3, 1, 2 a. Less than zero
22. Which one of the following materials is b. Less than one but positive
piezoelectric? c. Greater than one
a. Pb2Au d. Equal to zero
b. Ba Ti O3 28. Magnetostriction is phenomenon whereby
c. Mg A12O4 the magnetization of a ferromagnetic
d. Ni Fe2O4 material leads to a change in
23. The residual resistivity of metals a. Relative permeability
a. Is essentially independent of b. Physical dimensions
temperature c. Spontaneous magnetization
b. Increase linearly with increasing d. Magnetic susceptibility
temperature 29. Match List - I with List-Il and select the
c. Decrease linearly with increasing correct answer
temperature List I (Type of magnetic material)
d. Initially increases linearly with A. Ferromagnetic
temperature and then remains constant. B. Anti-ferromagnetic
24. Consider the following metals: C. Ferromagnetic
1. Zinc. List II (Orientation of individual dipole
2. Gold. moments)
3. Silver. 1. ↓ ↑ ↓ ↑
4. Copper. 2. ↑ ↓ ↑ ↓
The correct sequence of the increasing 3. ↑ Ì É Ë
order of their resistivities is 4. ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑
a. 4, 3, 1, 2 A B C
b. 3, 4, 2, 1, a. 4 2 1
c. 4, 3, 2, 1 b. 1 2 4
d. 3, 4, 1, 2 c. 2 1 3
25. Match List-I with List-II and select the d. 4 2 3
correct answer: 30. Match List-I with List-LI and select the
List I (Class of material) correct answer
A. Ferromagnetio List I (Application)
B. Superconductor A. Power transformer
C. Semiconductor B. Audio transformer
D. Piezoelectric C. Pulse transformer
List II (Material) D. Welding transformer
1. YBa2 Cu2 O7 List II (Core material)
2. LiNbO3 1. Si-Fe alloy
3. Co 2. Permalloy
4. InGaAsP 3. Ferrite
A B C D 4. Supermalloy
a. 3 1 2 4 5. Hypersil
b. 3 1 4 2 A B C D
c. 1 3 2 4 a. 1 2 4 5
d. 1 3 4 2 b. 2 3 4 5
26. A type I superconductor maintained at a c. 1 2 3 4
temperature T<Tc is subjected to a d. 2 3 5 4
magnetic field H<Hc. The superconductor 31. Two initially identical samples A and B of
will exhibit pure germanium are doped with donors to
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concentrations of l × 1020m-3 and 3 ×l020 b. 100 V; 900
m -3 respectively. If the hole concentration c. 200 V; – 90°
in A is 9 ×1012 m-3, then the hole d. 200 V; 90°
concentration in B at the same temperature 37. From a sinusoidal voltage source Vs of
will be impedance Z s = Rs + jX s , power is drawn
a. 3 ×1012 m −3 by a load Z L = RL + jX L .The condition for
b. 7 ×1012 m −3 maximum power in ZL is given in List – II
c. 11×1012 m −3 for the constraints shown in List – I. Match
d. 27 ×1012 m −3 List - I with List - II and select the correct
32. Consider the following statements: answer using the codes given below the
Pure germanium and pure silicon are Lists:
examples of List I
1. Direct band-gap semiconductors. A. Xs = zero
2. Indirect band-gap semiconductors. B. XL = zero
3. Degenerate semiconductors. C. RL fixed
Of these statements D. XL fixed
a. 1 alone is correct List II
b. 2 alone is correct 1. Z L2 = RS2 + X s2
c. 3 alone is correct 2. Z L = RL − jX s
d. 1 and 3 are correct
3. Z L = Rs − jX s
33. Consider the following statements:
In a semiconductor, the measurement of 4. Z L = Rs
2 1/2
5. Z L = RS2 + ⎡( X s + X L ) ⎤ + jX L
Hall coefficient provides quantitative
information on ⎣ ⎦
1. Density of carriers. A B C D
2. Polarity of carriers. a. 4 1 2 3
3. Effective mass of the carriers. b. 2 3 4 5
4. Mobility of the carriers. c. 4 1 2 5
Of these statements d. 1 3 4 5
a. 1 and 2 are correct 38. For the networks shown in figures A and B
b. 2 and 3 are correct to be duals, it is necessary that R, L’ and C
c. 1 and 3 are correct are respectively equal to
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
34. Silicon carbide reinforced aluminum metal
matrix- composites find application in
a. The manufacture of transformer cores
b. The manufacture of cutting tools.
c. The manufacture of standard resistors
d. Aerospace industry
35. GaAsLEDs emit radiation in the
a. Ultra-violet region
b. Violet-blue-green range of the visible a. 1/R, C and L
region b. 1/R, I/L and 1/C
c. Visible region c. 1/ R, 1/L and C
d. Infra-red region d. R, L and C
36. A series RLC circuit, consisting of R = 10 39. The impedance Z (s) of the one-port
ohms, XL = 20 ohms and Xc = 20 ohms is network shown in the figure is given by
connected across an ac supply of 100 V
(rms). The magnitude and phase angle
(with reference to supply voltage) of the
voltage across the inductive coil are
respectively
a. 100 V; 90°
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L R b. 1 and 4 are correct
s2 + s + 1 c. 2 and 3 are correct
a. C LC
1 d. 2 and 4 are correct
s+ 42. The circuit shown in the given figure is in
LC
L + R1 R2C R1 + R2 steady-state with, switch ‘S’ open. The
s2 + s + switch is closed at t = 0. The values of
Vc ( 0+ ) and Vc ( ∞ ) will be respectively
R2 LC R2 LC
b. L
1
s+
R2C
L + C R1
s2 + s +
R1 R2 LC
c. L
1 a. 2 V, 0 V
s+
R1C b. 0V,2V
L + R2C R1 + R2 c. 2V,2V
s2 + s + d. 0V,0V
R1 LC R1 LC
d. 43. After closing the switch ‘S’ at t = 0, the
1
s+ current i(t) at any instant ‘t’ in the network
R1C shown in the given figure will be
40. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
true of the circuit shown in the given
figure?
a. 10 + 10e100t
1. It is a first order circuit with steady-
b. 10 − 10e100t
5 5
state values of V = V , I = A c. 10 + 10e−100t
3 3
2. It is a second order circuit with steady d. 10 − 10e−100t
state values of V = 1 V; I =1 A 44. The pole-zero configuration of a network
3. The network function V(s) /I(s) has transfer function is shown in the given
one pole. figure. The magnitude of the transfer
4. The network function V (s) /I(s) has function will
two poles.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 2 alone a. Decrease with frequency
d. 1 alone b. Increase with frequency
41. In addition to the condition that Y (s) is c. Initially increase and then decrease
real when ‘s’ is real, for an admittance with frequency
function Y (s) to be positive real, which of d. Be independent of frequency
the following conditions are to be 45. Consider the following statements:
satisfied? 1. The two-port network shown below
1. Re Y ( s ) ≤ 0 for Re s ≥ 0 does NOT have an impedance matrix
representation.
2. Re Y ( s ) ≥ 0 for Re s ≥ 0
3. | Arg Y ( s ) |≤| Arg s | for | Arg s |≤ π / 2
4. | Arg Y ( s ) |≥| Arg s | for | Arg s |≤ π / 2 2. The following two-port network does
Select the correct answer using the codes NOT have an admittance matrix
given below: representation
a. 1 and 3 are correct
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a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
3. A two-port network is said to be d. 1,2 and 3
reciprocal if it satisfies z12 = z21 49. Match List-I with List-II and select the
Of these statements correct answer:
a. 1 and 2 are correct List I (Function)
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct A. Unit tamp
c. 1 and 3 are correct B. Unit step
d. None is correct C. Unit impulse
46. Match List - I with List - II for the two- D. Unit doublet
port network shown in the given figure and List II (Laplace transform)
select the correct answer. 1. s
List I 2. 1
A. Z11 3. 1/s
B. Z12 4. 1/s2
C. Z21 A B C D
D. Z22 a. 4 3 2 1
List II b. 3 4 1 2
1. R c. 4 3 1 2
2. R+L d. 3 4 2 1
3. R-Ls 50. A system is represented by
4. R+Ls dy
+ 2 y = 4tu ( t )
dt
The ramp component in the forced
response will be
a. Tu (t)
b. 2t u(t)
A B C D c. 3t u(t)
a. 1 2 1 4 d. 4t u(t)
b. 2 1 1 3 51. The Laplace transform of the function i (t)
c. 1 1 1 4 10 s + 4
is: I ( s ) = its final
s ( s + 1) ( s 2 + 4s + 5 )
d. 2 1 3 4
47. Consider the following statements:
I : Any function in ‘s’ which can be value will be
expressed as a ratio of any two arbitrary a. 4/5
polynomials in ‘scan be realized s a b. 5/4
driving- point function of a passive c. 4
network. d. 5
II: Any function in ‘s’ which can be 52. If the unit step response of a network is
expressed as a ratio of two arbitrary (1 − e−α t ) , then its unit impulse response
polynomials in ‘s’, is a positive ,real
will be
function.
Of these statements a. α e−α t
a. both I and II are true b. α e− t /α
b. I is true but 11 is false 1 −α t
c. e
c. both I and II are false α
d. I is false but II is true d. (1 − α ) e−α t
48. Consider the following polynomials:
53. In the network shown in the given figure,
1. s 4 + 7 s 3 + 17 s 2 + 17 s + 6 if the voltage v at the time considered is 20
2. s 4 + 11s 3 + 41s 2 + 61s + 30 V, then dv/dt at that time will be
3. s 4 + s 3 + 2 s 2 + 3s + 2
Among these polynomials, those which are
Hurwitz would include
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have magnitude equal to 0.707 at an
angular frequency of
a. 1 V/s
b. 2 V/s a. zero
c. -2 V/s b. RC rad/s
d. zero c. 1/RC rad/s
54. Which one of the following pairs of poles d. 1 rad/s
and responses is correctly matched? 58. The phase angle of the current ‘I’ with
Poles Response respect to the voltage V1 in the circuit
a. shown in the figure is:
b.
a. 0°
b. +45°
c. – 45°
c. d. – 90°
59. A second order system is given by
d2y dy
+ 12 + 100 y = 0
dt 2 dt
The damped natural frequency in rad/sec is
d.
a. 100
b. 10
c. 44
d. 8
60. An alternator is delivering power to a
55. The impulse response of an R-L circuit is a balanced load at unity power factor. The
a. Rising exponential function phase angle between the line voltage and
b. Decaying exponential function the line current is
c. Step function a. 90°
d. Parabolic function b. 60°
56. A pulse of unit amplitude and width ‘a’ is c. 30°
applied to a series RL circuit as shown in d. 0°
the figure. The current i (t) as ‘t’ tends to 61. Eoa EOb and Eoc are three phase voltages
infinity will be while Eab , Ebc and Eca are the line voltage
of a balanced three-phase system having a-
b-c phase sequence. In relation to Eoc Ebc
would
a. Lag by 30°
b. Lead by 30°
c. Have the same phase
a. Zero
d. Have no definite phase relationship
b. 1 A
62. For loop 1 of the network shown in the
c. A value between zero and one
given figure, the correct loop equation is:
depending upon the width of the pulse
d. Infinite
57. The sinusoidal steady-state voltage gain of
the network shown in the given figure will
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1. Linearity is more important than
sensitivity
2. High precision indicates high accuracy.
3. Accuracy cannot be better than
resolution.
Of these statements
d a. 1, 2, and 3 are correct
v ( t ) = Ri1 ( t ) + L1 ⎡i1 ( t ) − i2 ( t ) ⎤⎦
dt ⎣ b. 1, and 2 are correct
a. c. 2 and 3 are correct
di2
− M 12 (t ) d. 1 and 3 are correct
dt 66. What voltage would a voltmeter with
d
v ( t ) = Ri1 ( t ) + L1 ⎣⎡i1 ( t ) − i2 ( t ) ⎦⎤ impedance 20,000 Ω and range 0–1V
dt show in the circuit given below?
b.
di2 di
− M 12 ( t ) − M 23 2 ( t )
dt dt
d ⎡ di
L1 ⎢i2 ( t ) − i1 ( t ) + ( L2 + L3 ) 2 ( t )
dt ⎣ dt
c.
di di
= 2 ( M 12 + M 23 ) 2 ( t ) − M 12 2 ( t ) a. 82 mV
dt dt b. 100 mV
d ⎡ di
L1 ⎢i2 ( t ) − i1 ( t ) + ( L2 + L3 ) 2 ( t )
c. 118 mV
dt ⎣ dt d. 5V
d. 67. Match List-I with List-II and select the
⎛ di di
= ⎜ M 12 1 ( t ) − 2 ( M 12 + M 23 ) 1 ( t ) correct answer:
⎝ dt dt List I
63. Consider the following statements: A. Cesium
In the circuit shown in the figure, if the B. Manganin
equivalent impedance between x-x is Zeq C. Standard voltage
then D. IEEE 488
List II
1. Standard resistance
2. Atomic clock
3. Instrument interface
4. Josephson Junction
1. Z eq = 2 + j 5 A B C D
a. 2 1 3 4
2. Z eq = 2 + j 3 b. 2 1 4 3
3. I1 = − I 2 c. 1 2 3 4
d. 1 2 4 3
4. I1 = I 2
68. The limiting errors of measurement of
Of these statements power consumed by and the current
a. 1 alone is true passing through a resistance are ± 1.5%
b. 2 and 4 are correct and ± 1% respectively: The limiting error
c. 2 and 3 are correct of measurement of resistance will then be
d. 1 and 4 are correct a. ± 0.5%
64. The residues at the pole of Y (s). of an R– b. ± 1.0%
C network are c. ± 2.5%
a. Real and negative d. ± 3.5%
b. Real and positive 69. Horizontal deflection in a CRO is due to E
c. Complex with positive real part sin ωt while vertical deflection is due to E
sin (ωt + θ ) with a positive θ . Consider the
d. Complex with negative real part
65. Consider the following statements:
In a measuring instrument, following patterns obtained in the CRO.
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c. 180°
d. 183°
74. Modem electronic multimeters measure
resistance by
a. Using a bridge circuit
b. Using an electronic bridge
compensator for nulling
The correct sequence of these patterns in c. Forcing a constant current and
increasing order of the value of θ is: measuring the voltage across the
a. 3, 2, 5, 1, 4 unknown resistor
b. 3, 2, 4, 5, 1 d. Applying a constant voltage and
c. 2, 3,5, 1,4 measuring the current through the
d. 2,3,5,4, 1 unknown resistor
70. Which of the following until axe present in 75. In the case of power measurement by two-
a spectrum analyzer? wattmeter method in a balanced 3-phase
1. Mixer. system with a pure inductive load,
2. Saw-tooth generator. a. Both the watt meters will indicate the
3. Local oscillator. same value but of opposite sign
Select the correct answer using the codes b. Both the watt meters will indicate zero
given below: c. Both the watt meters will indicate the
a. 1, 2 and 3 same value and of the same sign
b. 1 and 2 d. One wattmeter will indicate zero and
c. 1 and 3 the other will indicate some non-zero
d. 2 and 3 value
71. For the voltmeter circuit shown in the 76. Many modem capacitance meters measure
given figure, the basic D’ Arsonval meter capacitance by making the unknown
used has full-scale current of 1 mA and capacity an element in a charge amplifier.
meter resistance (Rm ) of 100 ohms. The A schematic f the same is given below. If
values of the series resistance R1 and R2 the maximum permissible output voltage is
required for 10V range and 50 V range limited to 1Vpeak’ due to slew rate
will be respectively constrainst, then the maximum Cx, with be
a. 10 pF
a. 9.9kΩ and 40 kΩ b. 100 pF
b. 10 kΩ and 50 kΩ c. 1000 pF
c. 20 kΩ and 30 kΩ d. 10 nF
d. 200 kΩ and 250 kΩ 77. A 230 V, 10 A, single-phase energy meter
72. Electronic voltmeter provides ore accurate makes 90 revolutions in 3 minutes at half
readings in high resistance circuits as load rated voltage and unity pf. if the
compared to a non-electronic voltmeter meter constant is 1800 revolution, kWh,
because of Its then its error at half load will be
a. High V/ohm ratings a. 13.04% slow
b. High ohm/ratings b. 13.04% fast
c. High meter resistance c. 15% slow
d. Low resolution d. 15% fast
73. A current transformer has a phase error of 78. A strain gauge bridge measures the strain
+ 30.The phase angle between the primary in a cantilever where the gauge is fixed.
and secondary currents is With strain ∈ , the gauge resistance
a. 30° increases from 110Ω to 110.520Ω. If the
b. 177°
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gauge factor is 2.03, then the strain in the List I
cantilever will be A. Low pass filter
a. 2.06 ×10−3 B. High pass filter
b. 3.15 ×10−3 C. Band pass filter
D. Band reject filter
c. 3.81×10−3
List II
d. 4.33 ×10−3 Ts
79. Consider the following statements: 1.
The causes of error in the measurement of 1 + Ts
temperature using a thermistor are 1
2.
1. Self heating ⎛ 1 ⎞
1 + ⎜ Ts + ⎟
2. Poor sensitivity. ⎝ Ts ⎠
3. Non-linear characteristics. 1
Of these statements Ts +
3. Ts
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
⎛ 1 ⎞
b. 1 and 2 are correct 1 + ⎜ Ts + ⎟
c. 2 and 3 are correct ⎝ Ts ⎠
d. 1 and 3 are correct 1
4.
80. A piezoelectric transducer has the 1 + Ts
following parameter values: A B C D
Crystal capacitance = 10-9 F a. 1 4 3 2
Cable capacitance = 2×10-10 F b. 4 1 2 3
Charge sensitivity = 4×10-6 Coulomb/cm. c. 1 4 2 3
If the oscilloscope used for read-out has an d. 4 1 3 2
input resistance of 1 MΩ in parallel with 84. Data buffering means
C = 4 × 10-10 F, then the voltage sensitivity a. A buffer stock of data already stored in
constant will be a computer unit
a. 2500 V/cm b. An electronic circuit which is used to
b. 3334 V/cm maintain the level of data
c. 4000 V/cm c. That data are first collected in an
d. 4500 V/cm external, unit and then processed into
81. For a thermocouple pair (A,B), the the computer
extension wires (C,P) d. Application of buffer (unity gain
a. Should be identical pair elements amplifier) at input interface to the
b. Should ‘have identical temperature - computer
emf relationship 85. A circuit draws a current T’. When a
c. Can be of any tewo dissimilar single-phase ac voltage V is applied to it.
materials If the power factor is cos φ then the
d. Should have very small temperature - dimensions of VI cos φ would be
emf sensitivity a. ML3T2
82. A 7- bit successive approximation DVM b. ML2T3
will convert the analog input into digital c. ML3T3
output in a period of d. ML2T-3
a. 7 clock pulses 86. Given: KKt = 99 ; s = j1 rad/s, the
b. 8 clock pulses sensitivity of the closed-loop, system
c. (shown in the given figure) to variation in
input signal amplitude parameter K is approximately
× 7 clock pulses
full-scale output amplitude
a.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D.
b. 91. The open-loop transfer function of a unity
feedback control system is
30
G (s) H (s) =
s ( s + 1)( s + T )
where T is a variable parameter. The
closed-loop system will be stable for all
c. values of
a. T > 0
b. 0 < T < 3
c. T > 5
d. 3 < T < 5
92. The Nyquist plot of the open-loop transfer
function G (s) H(s) is shown in the given
d.
figure. It indicates that
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⎡ 0 1 0 0 ⎤ ⎡0 ⎤
⎢ 0 0 1 0 ⎥ ⎢0 ⎥
b. ⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥
⎢ 0 0 0 1 ⎥ ⎢0 ⎥
⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥
⎣ −3 −5 −6 −7 ⎦ ⎣1 ⎦
⎡ 0 1 0 0 ⎤ ⎡1 ⎤
⎢ 0 0 1 0 ⎥ ⎢0 ⎥
a. The open-loop system is unstable but c. ⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥
the closed-loop system is stable ⎢ 0 0 0 1 ⎥ ⎢0 ⎥
⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥
b. Both open-loop and closed-loop ⎣ −5 −7 −6 −3⎦ ⎣0 ⎦
systems are unstable ⎡ 1 0 0 0 ⎤ ⎡0 ⎤
c. Open-loop system is stable but closed- ⎢ 0 0 0 0 ⎥ ⎢0 ⎥
loop system is unstable d. ⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥
d. Both open-loop and closed-loop ⎢ 0 0 1 0 ⎥ ⎢0 ⎥
⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥
systems are stable ⎣ −3 −6 −7 −5⎦ ⎣1 ⎦
93. In the control system shown in the given 96. A liner system is described by the state
figure, the controller which can give zero equations
steady-state error to a ramp input. with K
⎡ x1 ⎤ ⎡1 0 ⎤ ⎡ x1 ⎤ ⎡ 0 ⎤
⎢ ⎥=⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ + ⎢ ⎥ r C = x2
= 9 is
⎣ x2 ⎦ ⎣1 1 ⎦ ⎣ x2 ⎦ ⎣1 ⎦
where r and c are the input and output
reactively. The transfer function is:
a. 1/ (s+1)
b. 1/(5+1)2
a. Proportional type c. 1/ (s-1)
b. Integral type d. 1/ (s-1)2
c. Derivative type 97. The state equation of a dynamic system is
given by X ( t ) = AX ( t )
d. Proportional plus derivative type
94. The garn cross-over frequency and band-
width of a control system are ωcu and ωbu ⎡ −1 1 0 0 0 ⎤
⎢ 0 −1 1 0 0 ⎥
respectively. A phase-lag network is ⎢ ⎥
employed for compensating the system. If A = ⎢ 0 0 −1 0 0 ⎥
the gain cross-over frequency and ⎢ ⎥
bandwidth of the compensated system ⎢ 0 0 −6 −3 4 ⎥
⎢⎣ 0 0 0 −4 −3⎥⎦
are ωcc and ωbc respectively, then
a. ωcc < ωcu ; ωbc < ωbu The eigenvalues of the system would be
a. Real non-repeated only
b. ωcc > ωcu ; ωbc < ωbu b. Real non-repeated and complex
c. ωcc < ωcu ; ωbc > ωbu c. Real repeated
d. ωcc > ωcu ; ωbc > ωbu d. Real repeated and complex
98. A simple electric water heater is shown in
95. The transfer function of a certain system is
the given figure. The system can be
Y (s) 1
= 4 modelled by
U ( s ) s + 5s + 7 s 2 + 6 s + 3
3
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-I
1. Consider the following statements : pQ
b.
In electrostatics, the Equipotential surface 4π ∈0 D
is defined as the surface where
c. zero
1. electric field intensity is normal
d. dependent on the charge density
everywhere.
distribution on the conductor and will
2. electric field intensity is tangential not have a closed-form expression.
everywhere.
4. Two point charges (Q1 = Q, Q2 = 2Q) and
3. no work is done in moving a charge an infinite grounded plane are shown in
over it. the figure. The forces F1 and F2, on Q1 and
4. no charge is present. Q2, will be in the ratio
Of these statements
a. 1 alone is correct
b. 3 and 4 are correct
c. 1 and 3 are correct
d. 2 and 4 are correct
2. A capacitor is made up of two concentric
spherical shells. The radii of the inner and a. 1 : 1
outer shells are R1 and R2 respectively and b. 1 : 2
∈ is the permittivity of the medium c. 1 : 4
between the shells. The capacitance of the d. 1 : 8
capacitor is given by 5. Two rectangular loops and an infinite wire,
1 ⎛1 1 ⎞ all carrying current ‘I’ are shown in the
a. ⎜ − ⎟
4π ∈ ⎝ R1 R2 ⎠ given figure. If the force on loop I due to
the infinite wire were ‘F’, then the force on
1 ⎛1 1 ⎞ loop 2 due to the infinite wire would be
b. ⎜ + ⎟
4π ∈ ⎝ R1 R2 ⎠
RR
c. 4π ∈ 1 2
R1 − R2
RR
d. 4π ∈ 1 2
R1 − R2
3. A charge + q is placed at the centre of a a. F/3
spherical cavity in a grounded conduting b. F/2
sphere as shown in the figure. Another c. F
charge +Q is placed outside on the line 3
d. F
joining O and O’. The force acting on the 2
charge + q will be 6. An infinite number of concentric circular
loops carry a current ‘I’ each hut
alternately in opposite directions. The radii
of the loops are R, 2R, 4R………. in
geometric progression. The magnetic flux
density at the centre of the loops will be
pQ a. Zero
a.
4π ∈0 ( D + d ) μ0 I
b.
3R
2 of 15
μ0 I ∂B
c. a. e = − ∫ ds
4R ∂t
d.
μ0 I
6R
( )
b. e = −φc V × B .d I
9.
1800 out of phase
The force f per unit area On the surface of
c.
P
∈0
()
n
conductor, with surface charge density σ.
in the presence of an electric field is (an is d.
P
∈0
( )
−n
unit outward normal to the conductor
surface) 13. Match List-I with List-Il and select the
σ2 correct answer using the codes given
a. f = a0 below the lists :
2 ∈0
List-I
σ2 A. ∇.D = ρ
b. f = a0
∈0 ∂ρ
B. ∇.J =
c. f =∈0 σ 2 a 0 ∂t
d. f = 0 C. ∇ × H = jc
10. Two conducting shells of radii r1 and r, (r1 ∂B
> r2), each with a charge ‘Q’ are placed far D. ∇ × E =
∂t
apart in uniform external electric field. The
List-II
space surrounding each shell is filled with
1. Ampere’s Law
the same dielectric material. In this
situation, the 2. Gauss’s Law
a. shells will not experience any force 3. Faraday’s Law
b. shells will experience identical force 4. Continuity equation
c. shell with radius r1 will experience a A B C D
greater force a. 4 2 1 3
d. shell with radius r2 will experience a b. 2 4 1 3
greater force c. 4 2 3 1
11. When a closed conducting loop ‘C’ is d. 2 4 3 1
moving with a constant velocity ‘V’ 14. Which of the following pairs of parameters
through a non-uniform time-varying and expressions is/are correctly matched?
magnetic field ‘B’, the voltage induced in E
the loop is given by 1. Characteristic impedance….. ∈r
H
3 of 15
2. Power flow density ……… ∇ × H 2. electrical energy into mechanical
3. Displacement current in non- energy.
conducting medium ……. E × H 3. mechanical energy into chemical
energy.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below: 4. chemical energy into mechanical
energy.
a. 1 alone
Of these statements
b. 2 and 3
a. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 1 and 3
b. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
d. 1 and 2
c. 1 alone is correct
15. If the electric field E = 0 . 1 te–t ax and ∈ d. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
= 4 ∈0 , then the displacement current 20. Which one of the following classes of
crossing an area of 0.1 m2 at t = 0 will be materials can be categorised as ferrites?
a. zero a. Plastics
b. 0.04 ∈0 b. Metals
c. 0.4 ∈0 c. Alloys
d. 4 ∈0 d. Ceramics
16. The directivity of an isotropic antenna is 21. Consider the following in relation to the
a. zero orbital motion of an electron :
b. less than unity 1. State of energy level
c. unity 2. Orbital angular momentum
d. infinity 3. Angle between the applied magnetic
17. Consider the following statements: field and angular momentum.
For a uniform plane electromagnetic wave The quantum numbers, I, m and n of an
1. the direction of energy flow is the electron in orbit represent respectively
same as the direction of propagation of a. 1, 2 and 3
the wave. V b. 2, 3 and 1
2. electric and magnetic fields in time c. 3, 2 and 1
quadrature. d. 3, 1 and 2
3. electric and magnetic fields are in 22. The correct sequence of increasing order
space quadrature. of electrical resistivity of the given
Of these statements materials is
a. 2 alone is correct a. Diamond, doped germanium, silicon,
b. 1 and 3 are correct gold
c. 1 and 2 are correct b. Gold, silicon, doped germanium,
d. 3 alone is correct diamond
18. For an air dielectric transmission line. It is c. Gold, doped germanium, silicon,
found that as the frequency is varied from diamond
50 MHz upward, the current reaches a d. Gold, diamond, silicon, doped
minimum at 50-01 MHz and then a germanium
maximum at 50.04 MHz the distance of 23. Fermi level is the
the location of the short-circuit from the a. highest occupied energy level at zero
generator will then be kelvin
a. 10 km b. highest occupied energy level at 0°C
b. 2.5V km c. energy level at which electron
c. 1 km emission occurs
d. not determinable from the given data d. minimum energy level in the
19. Consider the following statements: conduction band
Piezoelectric materials are useful for 24. Which one of the following statements is
converting correct?
1. mechanical energy into electrical a. The absence of a hysteresis loop in plot
energy. Of polarization against field is proof of
4 of 15
the absence of spontaneous d. 2 and 3 are correct
polarization 29. Which one of the following is a realistic
b. The Curie temperature of a representation of an equivalent circuit of a
ferroelectric is the temperature above condenser containing a lossy dielectric?
which its spontaneous polarization
disappears
c. the curie temperature of a ferroelectric a.
is the temperature below which its
spontaneous. polarization disappears
d. Barium titanate is a ferroelectric b.
because its lattice strains
spontaneously above the Curie
temperature c.
25. The first critical condition a which free
electrons are diffracted in an FCC crystal d.
would occur at which one of the following 30. The spins in a ferrimagnetic material are
values of the wave number ‘K’/(‘a’ is a. all aligned parallel
lattice parameter) b. partially aligned antiparallel without
2 exactly canceling out sub-lattice
a.
a magnetism
πa c. randomly oriented
b.
3 d. all aligned antiparallel such that the
π sub-lattice magnetism cancels out
c. exactly
a 31. Consider the following functions:
3π 1. To mask against diffusion or ion
d.
a implant.
26. When the time period, of the applied 2. To act as a component in MOS
voltage is much shorter than the relaxation devices.
time of a polarization process, the loss 3. To provide low resistivity paths.
angle is 4. To facilitate the entry of dopants
a. zero The functions of an oxide layer on a
b. between 00 and 90°. silicon wafer would include
c. 90° a. 1 and 2
d. greater than 90° b. 2 and 3
27. A ferromagnetic material exhibits different c. 3 and 4
characteristics above and below the d. 1 and 4
a. Joule’s temperature 32. Match List-I (Application) with List-II
b. Faraday temperature (Semiconductor) and select the correct
c. Curie temperature answer using the codes given below the
d. Neel temperature lists :
28. Consider the following statements : List-I
If the temperature is increases the A. Light emitting diode
resistivity of a metal increases because of B. Gunn diode
1. decrease in carrier concentration C. Thyristor
2. an increase in the extent of scattering D. Infra-red detector
of carriers. List-II
3. increase in density of impurity. 1. Si
Of these statements 2. Gap
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct 3. InSb
b. 2 alone is correct 4. GaAs
c. 1 alone is correct A B C D
5 of 15
a. 2 4 3 1 c. 6A
b. 4 2 3 1 d. 7A
c. 4 2 1 3 37. A voltage V is applied to an ac circuit
d. 2 4 1 3 resulting in the delivery of a current I .
33. Lithium Niobate is used in Which of the following expressions would
a. SAW devices yield the true power delivered by the
b. LED’s source ?
c. the manufacture of optical fibres 1. Real part of VI *
d. laser diodes
2. Real part of VI
34. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the codes given V
3. F times the real part of
below the Lists : I
List-I (Malaria) Select the correct answer using the codes
A. Paramagnetic given below:
B. Diamagnetic a. 1 alone
C. Ferromagnetic b. 1 and 3
D. Ferrimagnetic c. 2 and 3
List-II (Magnetic susceptibility) d. 3 alone
1. 10–5 38. Match List-I (Loop concept) with List-II
2. 103 – 105 (Junction concept) and select the correct
3. 10–3 answer using the codes given below the
4. 10–102 Lists:
A B C D List-I
a. 3 1 2 4 A. Mesh
b. 3 4 2 1 B. Outside mesh
c. 1 3 2 4 C. Mesh current
d. 4 1 2 3 D. Number of meshes
35. Which of the following is/are the List-II
equivalent circuits of an iron-cored, valid 1. Number of nodes
at one frequency? 2. Node voltage
3. Reference node
4. Node
1. A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 3 4 2 1
2.
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 4 3 1 2
39. In the network shown in the figure, the
3. effective resistance faced by the voltage
Select the correct answer using the codes source is
given below:
a. 1 alone
b. 2 alone
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
36. A 10V battery with an internal resistance a. 4Ω
of 1Ω is connected across a non-linear b. 3Ω
load whose v-i characteristic is given by c. 2Ω
7i = v2 + 2v d. 1Ω
The current delivered by the battery is 40. For the network shown in the figure, if V =
a. 2.5 A V1 and V = 0, then = -5 A and if V = 0,
b. 5A and V1 = 1, then I = 1/2 A. The values of
6 of 15
Isc and R1 of the Norton’s equivalent ⎡ 10 5 ⎤
across AB would he respectively. ⎢ 200 200 ⎥
a. ⎢ ⎥
⎢ 5 10 ⎥
⎢⎣ 200 200 ⎥⎦
⎡ 10 −5 ⎤
a. -5 A and 2Ω ⎢ 200 200 ⎥
b. ⎢ ⎥
b. 10 A and 0.5 Ω ⎢ −5 10 ⎥
c. 5 A and 2 Ω ⎢⎣ 200 200 ⎥⎦
d. 2.5 A and 5 Ω ⎡ 15 −5 ⎤
41. The driving-point impedance of a one-port ⎢ 200 200 ⎥
reactive network is given by c. ⎢ ⎥
⎢ 5 15 ⎥
a.
( s 2 + 1)( s 2 + 2 )
⎣⎢ 200 200 ⎦⎥
s ( s 2 + 3)( s 2 + 4 ) ⎡ 15 5 ⎤
b.
( s + 1)( s + 3)
2 2
d. ⎢
⎢ 200 200 ⎥
⎥
s ( s + 2 )( s + 4 )
2 2 ⎢ 5 15 ⎥
⎣⎢ 200 200 ⎦⎥
s ( s + 1)
2
45. The time-constant to the network shown in
c.
( s + 2 )( s + 3)
2 2 the figure is
1
d.
s +1
42. The Thevenin equivalent of a network is as
shown in the given figure. For maximum a. CR
power transfer of the variable and purely b. 2CR
resistive load R1, its resistance should be c. CR/4
d. CR/2
46. For a two-port network to be reciprocal, it
is necessary that
a. Z11 = Z22 and y21 = y12
a. 60 Ω b. Z11 = Z22 and AD - BC = 0
b. 80 Ω c. h21 = -h12 and AD – BC = 0
c. 100 Ω d. y21 = y12 and h21 = - h12
d. infinity 47. Match List-I (Parameters) with List-Il
43. If i (t) = 1/4 (I – e–2t) u (t) where u (t) is a (Units) and select the correct answer using
unit step voltage, then the complex the codes given below the lists:
frequencies associated with i (t) would List-I
include A. h11
a. s = 0 and j2 B. h12
b. s = j2 and s = -j2 C. h22
c. s = -j2 and s = -2 List-II
d. s = 0 and s = -2 1. Dimensionless
44. A ‘T-network is shown in the given figure. 2. Ohms
Its Ysc matrix will (units in siemens) 3. Siemens
A B C
a. 1 2 3
b. 1 3 2
c. 2 1 3
d. 3 2 1
48. Two two-port networks with transmission
parametersA1, B1, C1, D1, and A2, B2, C2,
7 of 15
D2 respectively are cascaded. The K2 ( s + 2)
transmission parameter matrix of the b.
s+3
cascaded network will be
K2 s
⎡ A B1 ⎤ ⎡ A2 B2 ⎤ c.
s+5
a. ⎢ 1 ⎥+⎢ ⎥
⎣C1 D1 ⎦ ⎣C2 D2 ⎦ K2 s
d.
⎡A B1 ⎤ ⎡ A2 B2 ⎤ s+2
b. ⎢ 1
⎣C1 D1 ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣C2 D2 ⎥⎦ 52. For V(s) =
s+2
the initial and final
s ( s + 1)
⎡A A2 B1 B2 ⎤
c. ⎢ 1
D2 ⎥⎦
values of v (t) will be respectively
⎣C1 D2 D1 a. 1 and 1
⎡ ( A A + C1C2 )( A1 B2 + B1 D2 ) ⎤ b. 2 and 2
d. ⎢ 1 2 ⎥
⎣( C1 A2 − C1C2 )( C1C2 − D1 D2 ) ⎦
c. 2 and 1
d. l and 2
49. An initially relaxed RC-series network 53. The net work function
with R = 2MΩ and C = 1μF is switched on
to a 10 V step input. The voltage across F(s) =
( s + 2)
the capacitor after 2 seconds will be ( s + 1)( s + 3)
a. zero represents an
b. 3.68 V a. RC impedance
c. 6.32 V b. RL impedance
d. 10 V c. RC impedance and an RL admittance
50. On eliminating the feedback loop in the d. RC admittance and an RL impedance
system shown in the figure, 54. In the network shown in Fig. 1, if the IF
capacitor had, an initial voltage of 2V,
then which of the following would
represent the s-domain equivalent circuits?
it would lead to a simplification with a
single edge of gain
T12
a.
1 + T22
T22
b.
1 − T12
c. T12
T12
d.
1 − T22 1.
51. For the circuit shown in the given figure. if
the input impedance Z1 at port 1 is given
by 2.
K ( s + 2)
Z1 = 1
s+5
then the input impedance Z2 at port 2 will
be 3.
K 2 ( s + 3) 4.
a. Select the correct answer using the codes
s+5 given below:
a. and 3
8 of 15
b. 1 and 4 a 50 Hz fixed voltage source, draw a
c. 2 and 3 current of 10A. When the terminals of one
d. 2 and 4 of the coils are reversed, the current drawn
55. An initially relaxed 100 mH inductor is is 8A. The coefficient of coupling between
switched ‘ON’ at t = 1 sec. to an ideal 2 A the two coils is
dc current source. The voltage across the a. 1/100
inductor would be b. 1/9
a. zero c. 4/10
b. 0.2 δ (t–1) V d. 8/10
c. 0.2 δ (t–1) V 61. The voltage-ratio transfer function of an
d. 0.2 tu (t–l) V active filter is given by
56. The current through the current coil, of a V2 ( s ) (s 2 + δ )
= 2
wattmeter is given by V1 ( s ) ( s + α s + δ )
i = (1 + 2 sin ω t) A The circuit in questions a
and the voltage across the pressure coil is a. low- pass filter
v = (2 + 3 sin 2 ω t) V b. high-pass filter
The wattmeter will read c. band-pass filter
a. 8.00 W d. band-reject filter
b. 5.05 W 62. Swamping resistance is a resistance which
c. 2.0 W is added to the moving coil of meter to
d. 1.0 W a. reduce the full-scale current
57. In the circuit shown in the figure, vs = cos b. reduce the temperature error
2t, Z 2 = 1 + j. C1 is so chosen that i = 1 c. increase the sensitivity
cos 2t. The value of C1 is d. increase the field strength
63. The dimensional equation of resistance is
a. L2 MT–2 I–2
b. L2 MT–2 I–2
c. L2 M–3 I–2
a. 2 F d. L2 MT–3 I–2
b. 1 F 64. A high frequency ac signal is applied to a
PMMC instrument. If the rms value of the
c. 0.5 F
ac signal is 2 V, then the reading of the
d. 0.25 F
instrument will be
58. An RLC resonant circuit has a resonance
a. zero
frequency of 1.5 HMz and a bandwidth of
b. 2V
10 kHz. If C = 150 pF, then the effective
resistance of the circuit will be c. 2 2V
a. 29.5 Ω d. 4 2V
b. 14.75 Ω 65. The resistance of a shunt for a precision
c. 9.4 Ω grade ammeter can be best measured by
d. 4.7 Ω a. De Sauty bridge
59. A 3-phase, 3 wire supply feeds a load b. Scherring bridge
consisting of three equal resistors c. Maxwell bridge
connected in star. If one of the resistors in d. Kelvin double bridge
open circuited, then the percentage 66. Which one of the following has the highest
reduction in the load will be accuracy?
a. 75 a. Standard resistance
b. 66.66 b. Standard inductance
c. 50 c. Standard capacitance
d. 33.33 d. Standard mutual inductance
60. Two identical coils of negligible 67. In the circuit shown in the figure, is the
resistance, when connected in series across ammeter indicated 1A, and the voltmeter
9 of 15
having an internal resistance of 1 kΩ b. 1 4 2 3
indicated 100 V, then the value of R would c. 3 2 4 1
be d. 3 4 2 1
71. An indicating instrument is more sensitive
if its torque to weight ratio is
a. much larger than unity
b. of the order of unity
a. 111.11 Ω c. much less than unity
b. 105.2 Ω d. made deflection-dependent
c. 100 Ω 72. The X-and Y - inputs of a CRO are
d. 90.9 Ω respectively V sin ωt and -V sin ωt. The
68. The current ‘I’ through a resistance R is resulting Lissajous pattern will be
measured with the following uncertainties a. a straight line
I = 4A ± 0.5 % b. a circle
R= 100 Ω ± 0.2% c. an ellipse
If power is computed from these two d. a figure of eight
measured quantities, the uncertainty in the 73. A current i = (10 + 10 sin t) amperes is
power computed will be passed through an ideal moving iron type
a. ± 0.01% ammeter. Its reading will be
b. ± 0.29 % a. zero
c. ± 0.07 % b. 10 A
d. ± 1.2 % c. 150 A
69. In the balanced Wheatstone bridge shown d. 10 2A
in the figure. If the value of R6 is 74. In a Q-meter, a small resistance R is added
increased, the current I2 to the series resonance circuit to inject the
oscillatory voltage to the circuit. If Rs is
the apparent series resistance of the circuit
at resonance, then the value of the actual Q
will be equal to
1
a. observed Q
a. will increase R
b. will decrease 1+
Rs
c. will remain unchanged
⎛ R⎞
d. may increase of decrease depending b. observed Q ⎜1 + ⎟
upon the values of the other five ⎝ Rs ⎠
resistances 1
70. Match List-I, with List-Il and select the c. Observed Q
R
correct answer using the codes given 1+ s
R
below the Lists :
⎛ Rs ⎞
List-I d. Observed Q ⎜1 + ⎟
A. Low value, of R ⎝ R⎠
B. High- Q inductor 75. In a flux meter, the controlling torque is
C. Low - Q inductor a. produced by weights attached to the
D. High voltage capacitors moving coil
List-II b. produced by springs
1. Scherring bridge c. not provided at all
2. Maxwell bridge d. provided by crossed coil mechanism
3. Kelvin double bridge 76. Dummy strain gauge is used in
4. Hay bridge conjunction with the main strain gauge to
A B C D a. calibrate the system
a. 1 2 4 3 b. compensate temperature effects.
c. improve sensitivity
10 of 15
d. reduce strain on the main gauge 3. Time interval between two pulses.
77. In a two-wattmeter method of measuring 4. Pulse width.
power, one of the watt- meters is reading Select the correct answer using the codes
zero watts. The power factor of the circuit given below:
is a. 1, 3 and 4
a. Zero b. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 c. 2 and 4
c. 0.5 d. 1 and 2
d. 0.8 83. The bandwidth requirement of an FM
78. Hall effect device can be used to telemetry channel is
a. multiply two signals a. equal to that of an AM telemetry
b. divide one signal by another on .an channel
instantaneous basis b. smaller than that of an Am telemetry
c. add two signals channel
d. subtract one signal from another c. about 100 times that of an AM
79. Match List-I (Transducer) with List-II telemetry channel
(Input/Output variables) and select the d. about ten time that of an AM telemetry
correct answer using the codes given channel
below the Lists: 84. The recording head in a magnetic tape
List-I responds to
A. Electrodynamic generator a. electrical signal and creates a magnetic
B. Venturimeter signal
C. Pirani gauge b. thermal signal and creates a magnetic
D. Spring balance signal
List-II c. magnetic signal and creates an
1. Gas pressure to resistance change electrical signal
2. Force to displacement d. thermal signal and creates an electrical
3. Motion to voltage signal
4. Flow rate to pressure 85. When the signal flow graph is as shown in
A B C D the figure, the overall transfer function of
a. 2 1 4 3 the system will be
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 3 4 2 1
C
80. Doppler shift principle is used in the a. =G
measurement of R
C G
a. temperature b. =
b. frequency R 1+ H2
c. speed C G
c. =
d. pressure R (1 + H 2 )(1 + H 2 )
81. In distortion factor meter, the filter is used
C G
to suppress d. =
a. dc component R 1+ H2 + H2
b. odd harmonics 86. The block diagram shown in Fig. 1 is
c. even harmonics equivalent to
d. fundamentals
82. Which of the following measurements can
be made with the help of a frequency
counter?
1. Fundamental frequency of input signal.
2. Frequency components of the input a.
signal at least upto third harmonic.
11 of 15
00
∫ x (t ) e
− jwt
C. dt
00
b. 00
D. ∫ δ ( t )dt
00
List-II
c.
1. Step function
2. Convolution integral
3. Fourier transform
d.
87. The transfer function of a system is given 4. Laplace transform
by A B C D
K 1 a. 1 3 4 2
C ( jω ) = ,K < b. 1 4 3 2
( jω )( jωT + 1) T
c. 2 3 4 1
Which one of the following is the Bode d. 2 4 3 1
plot of this function? 89. The magnitude-frequency response of a
control system is shown in the figure. The
value of ω1 and ω2 are respectively
a.
b. a. 10 and 200
b. 20 and 200
c. 20 and 400
d. 100 and 400
90. A liner second-order system with the
transfer function
49
c. G(s) = 2
s + 16 s + 49
is initially at rest and is subjected to a step
input signal. The response of the system
will exhibit a peak overshoot of
a. 16 %
b. 9 %
d. c. 2 %
88. Match List-I (Mathematical expression) d. zero
with List-II (Nomenclature) and select the 91. A system has the following transfer
correct answer using the codes given function :
below the Lists : 100( s + 5)( s + 50)
List-I G(s) = 4
s ( s + 10)( s 2 + 3s + 10)
00
A. ∫ h ( t − τ ) x (τ )dτ
00
The type and order of the system are
respectively
00 a. 4 and 9
∫ x (t ) e
− st
B. dt b. 4 and 7
00
c. 5 and 7
d. 7 and 5
12 of 15
92. The open-loop transfer function of a unity- K
GH =
feedback control system is: s ( s + 1)( s + 2)( s + 3)
K ( s + 10)( s + 20)
G(s) = Which of the following statements
s 2 ( s + 2) regarding the conditions of the system root
The closed-loop system will be stable if loci diagram is/are correct?
the value of K is 1. There will be four asymptotes.
a. 2 2. There will be three separate root loci.
b. 3 3. Asymptotes will intersect at real axis at
c. 4 σA = –2/3
d. 5 Select the correct answer using the codes
93. Match List-I (Plot/diagram/chart) with given below:
List-II (Characteristic) and select the a. 1 alone
correct answer using the codes given b. 2 alone
below the lists : c. 3 alone
List-I d. 1, 2 and 3
A. Constant M loci 96. The value of A matrix in X = AX for the
B. Constant N loci system described by the differential
C. Nichol’s chart equation y + 2y + 3y = 0 is
D. Nyquist plot ⎡1 0⎤
List-II a. ⎢ ⎥
⎣ −2 −1⎦
1. Constant gain and phase shift loci of
the closed- loop system. ⎡1 0⎤
b. ⎢ ⎥
2. Plot of loop gain with variation of ω ⎣ −1 −2 ⎦
3. Circles of constant gain for closed loop ⎡0 1⎤
transfer function c. ⎢ ⎥
⎣ −2 −1⎦
4. Circles of constant phase shift of
closed - loop transfer function ⎡0 1⎤
d. ⎢ ⎥
A B C D ⎣ −3 −2⎦
a. 3 4 2 1 97. The minimum number of states necessary
b. 3 4 1 2 to describe the network shown in the
c. 4 3 2 1 figure in a state variable form is
d. 4 3 1 2
94. The state and output equations of a system
are as under state equation:
⎡ x1 (t ) ⎤ ⎡ 0 1 ⎤ ⎡ x1 (t ) ⎤ ⎡ 0 ⎤
⎢ x (t ) ⎥ = ⎢ −1 −2 ⎥ ⎢ x (t ) ⎥ + ⎢1 ⎥ u (t )
⎣ 2 ⎦ ⎣ ⎦⎣ 2 ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
⎡ x (t ) ⎤
Output equation : C (t ) = [1 1] ⎢ 1 ⎥ a. 2
⎣ x2 (t ) ⎦
b. 3
The system is
c. 4
a. neither state controllable nor output
d. 6
controllable
98. Consider the following statements
b. state controllable but not output
regarding a linear system y = f(x2) :
controllable
1. f(x1 + x) = f (x1) + f(x2)
c. output controllable but not state
controllable 2. f[x(t + T) = f[x(t)] + f [x(T)]
d. both state controllable and output 3. f(Kx) = KF(x)
controllable Of these statements
95. The loop transfer function GH of a control a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
system is given by b. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 2 alone is correct
13 of 15
d. 1 and 3 are correct 2. DC separately excited motor.
99. When the input to a system was withdrawn 3. Single- phase capacitance start
at t = 0, its output was found to decrease induction motor.
exponentially from 100 units to 500 units. 4. Universal motor.
in 1.386 seconds.. The time constant of the 5. Single-phase synchronous motor.
system is Select the correct answer using the codes
a. 0.500 given below :
b. 0.693 a. l, 2, 3, 4 and 5
c. 1.386 b. 2, 3 and 4
d. 2.000 c. 1, 2 and 5
100. Match List - I (System) with List - II d. 1 and 5
(Transfer function) and select the correct 103. The phase portrait of a non-linear system
answer using the codes given below the is shown in the figure. Here the origin is a
Lists:
List-I
A. AC servomotor
B. DC amplifier
C. Lead network
D. Lag network
List-II a. stable focus
s+z b. vortex
1. ( z < p) c. stable node
s+ p
d. saddle point
1 + T1S
2. (T1 < T2 ) 104. A closed-loop nonlinear system is shown
1 + T2 S in the figure:
K
3.
1 + Ts
K
4.
s(1 + Ts )
A B C D The phase plane plot in e-e plane is:
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 4 3 2 1
a.
101. Consider the following statements
regarding constructional features of
synchros :
1. Synchro repeater has a three-phase
stator and a three-phase rotor. b.
2. Disc shaped rotor of the synchro
control transformer offers a low
reluctance to the magnetic path
3. Synchro transmitter has a frictionless c.
bearing.
Of these statements :
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 alone is correct d.
c. 2 alone is correct 105. The block diagram of a sampled data
d. 2 and 3 are correct system is shown the figure:
102. Which of the following motors would be
suitable for, use as servomotors?
1. Two-phase induction motor
14 of 15
Reason (R) : In a type II superconductor,
magnetic flux lines are pinned by micro
structural imperfections.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
The output C (z) of the system is given by correct explanation of A
GR( z ) b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a
a. correct explanation of A
1 + GH ( z )
c. A is true but R is false
G ( z ) R( z ) d. A is false but R is true
b.
1 + GH ( z ) 110. Assertion (A) : In an alternating field of
GR( z ) 1014 Hz, the electrical conductivity of a
c.
1 + G( z) H ( z) metal is zero
G ( z ) R( z ) Reason (R) : As the electrons fail to
d. respond to the fast changing electric field,
1 + G( z) H ( z) there is no drift.
106. Assertion (A) : Static electric field and a. Both A and R are true and R is the
equipotential lines are orthogonal. correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : ∫ E.dl = 0 b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false
b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a d. A is false but R is true
correct explanation of A 111. Assertion (A) : Addition of boron to
c. A is true but R is false intrinsic or pure silicon in the proportion
d. A is false but R is true of one boron atom to 1015 silicon atom
increases the conductivity of pure silicon
107. Assertion (A) : The static magnetic field
by a factor of 103 at room temperature.
has zero divergence and non-zero curl.
Reason (R) : Addition of impurities to
Reason (R) : They static magnetic field
intrinsic semiconductors increases carrier
satisfies the flux law.
mobility.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a
b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a
correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
d. A is false but R is true
108. Assertion (A) : A glazed ceramic insulator
112. Assertion (A) : A network consisting of ‘n’
has a lower breakdown strength than an
nodes and ‘e’ elements can be completely
unglazed one.
analysed from (e-n +1) mesh equations or
Reason (R) : Glazing covers pores and
(n-1) node equations.
cracks and makes the surface non-
Reason (R) : The number of mesh
absorbent.
equations plus number of node equations
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
is equal to the number of elements in the
correct explanation of A
network.
b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a
d. A is false but R is true correct explanation of A
109. Assertion (A) : In a type II. c. A is true but R is false
superconductor, the magnetization
d. A is false but R is true
gradually decreases between two critical
113. Assertion (A) : The poles and zeros of a
values of the applied field HC1 and HC2.
reactance function alternate on the s-plane.
15 of 15
Reason (R) : The plot of a reactance Reason (R) : The Nyquist plot does not
function as a function of frequency always encircle the critical point (-1, j0).
has a positive slope. a. Both A and R are true and R is the
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a
b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false
c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true
d. A is false but R is true 118. Assertion (A) : When plant parameter
114. Assertion (A) : The steady-state response uncertainties are present, the open-loop
of a linear network is termed ‘forced structure is potentially superior to the
response. closed loop structure.
Reason (R) : The forcing function does not Reason (R) : When feedback is employed,
have any effect on the transient response there is a possibility of additional noise or
of a linear system. uncertainty in the measurement of the
a. Both A and R are true and R is the plant signals.
correct explanation of A a. Both A and R are true and R is the
b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a
c. A is true but R is false correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true c. A is true but R is false
115. Assertion(A) : A variance is dependent on d. A is false but R is true
the mean value of the set of data. 119. Assertion (A) : The compensating network
Reason (R) : Variance is the difference of shown in the given figure is used for
the mean squared values and the square of reduction of steady-state error in the
the mean value of the set of data. system response.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a
correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : A lead compensating network
c. A is true but R is false reduces system steady-state error.
d. A is false but R is true a. Both A and R are true and R is the
116. Assertion (A) : The vertical deflecting correct explanation of A
plates of a CRT are kept farther away from b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a
the screen as compared to the horizontal correct explanation of A
deflecting plates.
c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R) : This improves accuracy in
d. A is false but R is true
measurements.
120. A sampled data system has the following
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
characteristic equation in the r-plane
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a 3.5r 2 − 2.5r 2 + 0.5r + 2.5r = 0
correct explanation of A z −1
where r =
c. A is true but R is false z +1
d. A is false but R is true Assertion (A) : The system is unstable.
117. The Nyquist plot of a system with the loop Reason (R) : Not all the roots, of the
transfer function G(s) H(s) is shown in the characteristic equation F (z) = 0 lie within
given figure : the unit circle |z| = 1 in the z - plane.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
Assertion (A) : The system is unstable.
d. A is false but R is true
I.E.S-(OBJ) 1999 1 of 15
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER–I
1. Vacant lattice sites in halide crystals cause c. presence of axis of symmetry
a. plastic deformation and ionic d. lack of axis of symmetry
conductivity 6. If E - EF = 2kT (EF is Fermi energy and
b. transparency and diffusion ‘k’, the Boltzmann’s constant is 8.614 x
c. diffusion and ionic conductivity 10-5 eVK-1), then the probability that an
d. plastic deformation and transparency electron occupies an energy level ‘E’ is
2. In a linear chain of atoms of interatomic a. 0.63
distance ‘l’, the first Brillouin zone occurs b. 0.5
between wave numbers c. 0.27
a. −π / l and + π / l d. 0.12
b. −2π / l and + 2π / l 7. Match List I (Material) with List II
c. Zero and 2π / l (Superconducting transition temperature)
and select the correct answer:
d. −1/ e and + 1/ l
List I
3. The temperature coefficient of resistance A. Sn
of an insulator is
B. Nb3 Ge
a. positive and independent of
C. Y-Ba-Cu oxide
temperature
D. Bi-Sr-Ca-Cu oxide
b. negative and independent of
List II
temperature
1. 23 K
c. negative and dependent on temperature
2. 4 K
d. positive and dependent on temperature
3. 125 K
4. Match List I (Dielectric) with List II
(Loss-tangent) and select the correct 4. 90 K
answer using the codes given below: Codes;
List I A B C D
A. Teflon a. 2 1 4 3
B. Polystyrene b. 4 1 2 3
C. Bakelite c. 4 1 3 2
D. Glass d. 1 4 2 3
List II 8. Match List I (Type of magnetism) with
1. 5 × 10-5 List II (Material) and select the correct
answer:
2. 3 × 10-2
List I
3. 5 × 10-4
A. Diamagnetic
4. 7.7 × 10-3
B. Ferromagnetic
A B C D
C. Antiferromagnetic
a. 1 2 4 3
D. Ferromagnetic
b. 3 2 4 1
List II
c. 4 3 1 2
1. Ge
d. 3 1 2 4
2. NiO
5. Piezoelectric materials owe their property
to the 3. Ferrites
a. presence of a centre of symmetry 4. Cobalt.
b. lack of a centre of symmetry Codes;
A B C D
2 of 15
a. 1 4 3 2 12. The total iron loss in a transformer core at
b. 4 1 2 3 normal flux density was measured at 25
c. 4 1 3 2 Hz and at 50 Hz and was found to be 250
d. 1 4 2 3 W and 800 W respectively. The hysteresis
9. Consider the following statements: loss at 50 Hz would be
Permanent magnet dipoles in matter result a. 100W
from b. 150W
1. orbital angular momentum of electrons c. 200W
2. electron spin angular momentum d. 600W
3. nuclear spin angular momentum 13. Consider the following statements:
Which of these statements are correct? During an electron transition across the
a. 1 and 2 energy gap in GaAs, its
b. 1 and 3 1. momentum changes
c. 2 and 3 2. direction of motion changes
d. 1, 2 and 3 3. potential energy changes
10. The phenomenon by which a 4. kinetic energy remains constant
ferromagnetic material is magnetized to its Which of these statements are correct?
final state by a magnetic field is attributed a. 3 and 4
to b. 2 and 3
a. eddy currents and magnetic viscosity c. 1 and 2
b. magnetic viscosity and hysteresis d. 1 and 4
c. hysteresis and eddy currents 14. Match List I (Semiconductor property)
d. aging and magnetic viscosity with List II (Type of semiconductor) and
11. The current in a coil wound over a select the correct answer
ferromagnetic core is gradually increased List I
to 2 A and then reduced to 1 A and then A. Electron mobility of 0.13 m2V-1s-1
the current in it is again increased to 2 A. B. p-type
The variation of magnetization of the core C. n-type
will be as shown in D. Wide band gap
a. List II
1. Germanium doped with arsenic
2. Gallium arsenide
3. Silicon
4. Gallium doped silicon
b. Codes;
A B C D
a. 3 4 2 1
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 4 3 2 1
c. 15. The Hall coefficient of a sample of silicon
having 1022 arsenic atoms per m3 is
a. 3.49 × 10-3m3/C
b. 6.25 × 10-4m3/C
c. 1.37 × 10-4 m3/C
d. d. 9.44 × 10-5 m3/C
16. The ceramic dielectrics used in electrical
engineering in- dude
a. cermet and suicide
b. porcelain and cermet
c. cordierite and porcelain
3 of 15
d. suicide and cordierite 21. Assertion (A): A piezoelectric transducer
17. 17. Liquid crystal maternal is used in is not suitable for measurement of static
a. ultrasonic amplification and display pressure.
devices Reason (R): Piezoelectric effect is a
b. thermal sensors and transducers reversible phenomenon.
c. display devices and thermal sensors a. Both A and R are true and R is the
d. transducers and ultrasonic correct explanation of A
amplification b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
18. Match List I (Semiconductor) with List II the correct explanation of A
(Band gap in eV) and select the correct c. A is true but R is false
answer: d. A is false but R is true
List I 22. Assertion (A): The mechanical systems of
A. GaAs analog indicating instruments are critically
B. InP damped.
C. InGaAs Reason (R): It is desirable that the pointer
D. GaAIAs of an indicating instrument overshoots a
List I little above its equilibrium position
quickly.
1. 1.8
2. 1.43 a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
3. 1.35
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
4. 0.75
the correct explanation of A
Codes;
c. A is true but R is false
A B C D
d. A is false but R is true
a. 2 3 1 4
23. Assertion (A): The measurement of
b. 2 3 4 1 impedance by bridge method is more
c. 3 2 4 1 accurate than the direct method using
d. 3 2 1 4 indicating instruments.
19. Assertion (A): The relative dielectric Reason (R): The accuracy of the detector
constant does not affect the accuracy of
Reason (R): With increase in frequency of measurement in a bridge method.
the applied field, the polarization a. Both A and R are true and R is the
processes increase in number. correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are true and R is the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT c. A is true but R is false
the correct explanation of A d. A is false but R is true
c. A is true but R is false 24. Assertion (A): Electric field cannot exist
d. A is false but R is true inside a perfect conductor.
20. Assertion (A): Inasemiconductor, the Hall Reason (R): For a perfect conductor a = ∞
field per unit electric current density per and there is no voltage drop inside the
unit magnetic flux maybe zero. conductor.
Reason (R): The Hall coefficient is a. Both A and R are true and R is the
proportional ( pμh2 − nμe2 ) . correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are true and R is the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT c. A is true but R is false
the correct explanation of A d. A is false but R is true
c. A is true but R is false 25. Assertion (A): In a current-carrying
d. A is false but R is true cylindrical conductor, the magnetic field
intensity within the conductor increases
linearly with radial distance.
4 of 15
Reason (R): The enclosed current 29. The short-circuit test of a 2-port network is
increases as the square of the radial shown in figure-I. The voltage across the
distance while the perimeter increases only terminals AA in the network shown in
as the radial distance. figure-II will be
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
26. Assertion (A): An unstable control system
possesses at least a pair of complex
conjugate roots in its s-plane.
Reason (R): Complex conjugate roots a. 20V
always give rise to oscillating responses. b. 10V
a. Both A and R are true and R is the c. 5V
correct explanation of A d. 2V
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT 30. In a passive two-port network, the open-
the correct explanation of A circuit impedance matrix is
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
27. If the driving-point impedance function
2s + 1
is synthesized as shown in the
8s + 4 s + 1
2 If the input port is interchanged with the
given figure, then the values of R, L and C output port, then the open-circuit
will be respectively impedance matrix will be
a.
b.
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 2, 1 and 4
c. 1, 4 and 2 c.
d. 4, 2 and 1
28. If the two-port network shown in the given
2s + 1 d.
figure has the constant B then z(s)
s2
will be
a. s
b. 1/s
c. s+1
d. 1 + 1/s a. 10 V and 50 V/s
b. 10 V and -50 V/s
5 of 15
c. 100 V and 200 V/s s
d.
d. 100 V and -200 V/s (s +α ) + ω2
2
a. -8/9 V
b. 8/9V
ω c. 16/9V
a.
(s +α ) + ω2 d. -16/9 V
2
a. 3Z/16 a. 2/3A
b. 3Z/18 b. 3/2A
c. 2Z/3 c. 1/3A
d. Z/6 d. 1A
43. A 10 μF capacitor is fed from an ac 48. Consider the following statements
voltage source containing a fundamental regarding the circuit shown in the figure. If
and a third harmonic of value one-third of the power consumed by 5 Ω is 10 W, then
fundamental. The third harmonic current
flowing through the Capacitor expressed 1. I = 2 A
as percentage of the fundamental under 2. the total impedance of the circuit is 5W
steady- state condition will be 3. cos φ = 0.866
a. zero
b. 100
c. 30
d. 90
44. In a two-element series circuit, the applied
vo1tage and the resulting current are
respectively,
v(t) = 50 + 50 sin (5 × 103t) V and Which of these statements are correct?
i(t) = 11.2 sin (5 × 103t + 63.4°)A a. 1 and 3
The nature of the elements would be b. 2 and 3
a. R—L c. 1 and 2
b. R—C d. 1, 2 and 3
c. L — C 49. In the network shown in the given figure,
d. neither R, nor L. nor C the Thevenin source and the impedance
45. In a balanced Wheatstone bridge, if the across terminals A — B will be
positions of detector and source are respectively
interchanged, the bridge will still remain
7 of 15
a. 300 VAR
a. 15V and 13.33 Ω b. 200 VAR
b. 50 V and 15 Ω c. 100 VAR
c. 115 V and 20 Ω d. zero
d. 100 V and 25 Ω 54. For a series RLC citcuit, the power factor
50. For the function at the lower half power frequency is
a. 0.5 lagging
b. 0.5 leading
a. 3 c. unity
b. 1/3 d. 0.707 leading
c. Zero 55. If a network has all linear elements except
d. 2/3 for a few nonlinear ones, then
51. An arc source of 200 V rms supplies active superimpositions theorem
power of 600 W and reactive power of 800 a. cannot hold at all
VAR. The rms current drawn from the b. always holds
source is c. may hold on careful selection of
a. 10 A element values, source waveform and
b. 5 A response
c. 3.75 A d. holds in case of direct current
d. 2.5 A excitations
52. In the given 2-port network, if the driving- 56. A system function has a single zero and
point (d. p.) impedance at port 1 is single pole. The constant multiplier ‘K’ is
Z11 ( s ) = K1
( s + 2 ) the d. p. impedance at 1. For the given excitation sin t, the
response is 2 with 45° lagging. The
( s + 5) system has a pole and a zero respectively
port 2 will be at
a. zero and 1
b. infinity and -1
c. -1 and zero
d. zero and -1
57. Match List I with List II and select the
a. Z 22 ( s ) = K 2
( s + 3) correct answer:
( s + 5) List I
b. Z 22 ( s ) = K 2
( s + 2) A. Sensitivity
B. Resolution
( s + 3) C. Accuracy
s
c. Z 22 ( s ) = K 2 D. Precision
( s + 5) List II
s 1. Closeness to the true value.
d. Z 22 ( s ) = K 2
( 2)
s + 2. A measure of reproducibility of the
instrument
53. The reactive power drawn from the source 3. Ratio of response to the change in the
in the network shown in the given figure is input signal
4. Smallest change in input to which the
instrument can respond
Codes;
8 of 15
A B C D 63. In a PMMC instrument, the central spring
a. 3 4 1 2 stiffness and the strength of the magnet
b. 3 4 2 1 decrease by 0.04% arid 0.02% respectively
c. 4 3 2 1 due to a rise in temperature by 1°C. With a
d. 4 3 1 2 rise in temperature of 10°C, the instrument
58. In the SI system, the dimension of emf is reading will
a. M L3 T-3 I a. increase by 0.2%
b. M L3 T-3 I-1 b. decrease by 0.2%
c. M L2 T-3 I-1 c. increase by 0.6%
d. M-1 L2 T3 I d. decrease by 0.6%
59. Which one of the following techniques is 64. When a current i(t) = 5 + 10 cos 314t is
adopted to reduce the self-inductance of a measured by an electrodynamics ammeter,
wire-wound standard resistor? the meter will read
a. Bifilar winding a. 52 + 102
b. Negative impedance converter ⎛ 102 ⎞
c. Force balance type flux compensation b. 52 + ⎜ ⎟
d. Providing additional potential ⎝ 2 ⎠
terminals 2
⎛ 10 ⎞
60. The voltage of a standard cell is monitored c. 5 +⎜ ⎟
2
a.
( s + 10 ) a. 10 rad/s and 0.6
10 b. 10 rad/s and 0.8
s ( s + 10 )
c. 6 rad/s and 0.6
b. d. 6 rad/s and 0.8
10 87. Match List I (Roots in the ‘s’ plane) with
10 list II (Impulse response) and select the
c.
s + 10 correct answer:
10 List I
d.
s ( s + 10 ) A. A single root at the origin
84. The Bode plot shown in the given figure B. A single root on the negative real axis
has G(jω) as C. Two imaginary roots
D. Two complex roots in the right half
plane
List II
1.
100
a.
jω (1 + j 0.5ω )(1 + j 0.1ω ) 2.
100
b.
jω ( 2 + jω )(10 + jω )
3.
10
c.
jω (1 + 2 jω )(1 + 10 jω )
10 4.
d.
jω (1 + 0.5 jω )(1 + 0.1 jω )
1+ s
85. The polar plot of G (s) = for
1 + 4s
0 ≤ ω ≤ ∞ in G-plane is 5.
a.
Codes;
b. A B C D
a. 2 1 5 4
b. 3 2 4 5
c. 3 2 5 4
c. d. 2 1 4 5
88. The root-locus of a unity feedback system
is shown in the given figure. The open-
loop transfer function of the system is
d.
12 of 15
K 92. The characteristic equation of a feedback
a.
s ( s + 1)( s + 3) control system is
s 3 + Ks 2 + 5s + 10 = 0
K ( s + 1)
b. For the system to be critically stable, the
s ( s + 3) value of K should be
K ( s + 3) a. 1
c.
s ( s + 1) b. 2
c. 3
Ks
d. d. 4
( s + 1)( s + 3) 93. The Nyquist plot of the open-loop transfer
89. Match List I with List II in respect of the function of a feedback control system is
open-loop transfer function shown in the given figure. If the open-
K ( s + 10 ) ( s 2 + 20 s + 500 ) loop poles and zeros are all located in the
G (s) = and left half of the s-plane, then the number of
s ( s + 20 )( s + 50 ) ( s 2 + 4 s + 5 ) closed-loop poles in the tight half of the s-
select the correct answer: plane will be
List I(Types of loci)
A. Separate loci
B. Loci on the real axis
C. Asymptotes
D. Breakaway points
List II (Numbers)
1. One
2. Two a. Zero
3. Three b. 1
4. Five c. 2
Codes; d. 3
A B C D 94. The control system shown in the given
a. 3 4 2 1 figure has an internal rate feedback loop.
b. 3 4 1 2 The closed-loop system for open and close
c. 4 3 1 2 conditions of switch will be respectively
d. 4 3 2 1
90. If the characteristic equation of a closed-
loop system is
K
1+ =0
s ( s + 1)( s + 2 )
the centroid of the asymptotes in root- a. unstable and stable
locus will be b. unstable and unstable
a. Zero c. stable and unstable
b. 2 d. stable and stable
c. -1 95. The transfer function of a lead
d. -2 compensator is
1 + 0.12 s
91. The open-loop transfer function of a unity GC ( s ) =
10 1 + 0.04 s
feedback control system is . The
( s + 5) The maximum phase shift that can be
3
a. ⎢0 0 1 ⎥⎥ 2
⎢ c.
⎢⎣ −6 −5 −2 ⎥⎦ 20 s + 12 s + 1
2
2
⎡0 1 0⎤ d.
20 s + 12 s + 3
2
b. ⎢0 0 1 ⎥⎥
⎢ 99. A non-linear control system is described
⎢⎣ −2 −5 −6 ⎥⎦ by the equation θ + k sin θ = 0.The types
of singular point at A = (0, 0) and B = (π,
⎡0 0 1⎤
0) will be respectively
c. ⎢0 1 0 ⎥⎥
⎢ a. centre and saddle
⎢⎣ −6 −5 −2 ⎥⎦ b. centre arid focus
c. focus and saddle
⎡0 0 1⎤
⎢0 d. saddle and centre
d. ⎢ 1 0 ⎥⎥ 100. A non-linear control system is shown in
⎣⎢ −2 −5 −6 ⎦⎥ the figure. If the intercept of G(jω) on the
97. The state equation of a linear system is negative real axis of G-plane is
given by X = AX + BU, where ( −π / 2, + j 0 ) , then the amplitude of the
⎡ 0 2⎤ ⎡0 ⎤ limit cycle is
A=⎢ ⎥ and B = ⎢ ⎥
⎣ −2 0 ⎦ ⎣ −1⎦
The state transition matrix of the system is
⎡e2t 0 ⎤
a. ⎢ 2t ⎥
⎣0 e ⎦
⎡ e−2t 0 ⎤ a. m
b. ⎢ 2t ⎥
b. 2 m
⎣ 0 e ⎦ c. 3 m
⎡ sin 2t cos 2t ⎤ d. 4 m
c. ⎢ ⎥
⎣ − cos 2t sin 2t ⎦ 101. Consider the following statements
regarding hold circuits for the
⎡ cos 2t sin 2t ⎤ reconstruction of sampled signals:
d. ⎢ ⎥
⎣ − sin 2t cos 2t ⎦ 1. Hold circuits are essentially low pass
98. The system shown in the given figure filters.
relates to tempera- hire control of air flow 2. A first order hold circuit introduces
less phase lag in comparison to zero
hold circuit.
3. A zero order hold has a flat gain-
frequency over the frequency range of
2π
Equation of heat exchanger is 0≤ω ≤ . where T is the sampling
T
dT
10 A + TA = u period.
dt Which of these statements is/are correct?
Temperature sensor equation is a. 3 alone
dTs b. 1 and 2
2 + Ts = TA
dt c. 2 and 3
TA ( s ) d. 1 alone
The closed-loop transfer function
TR ( s ) 102. The overall pulse transfer function of the
system shown in the given figure is
of the system is
14 of 15
maximum voltage of 24 V. If the capacitor
is half filled with a liquid of dielectric
constant 4 as shown in the given figure,
1 − exp ( −1) then the capacitor will withstand a
a.
Z − exp ( −1) maximum voltage of
a. E A2 EC = EB3
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2000 1 of 17
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-I
1. Match List I (Components) with list II
(Transfer functions) and select the correct
answer:
List I
A. ac servo motor
B. Field controlled dc servo motor
C. Tacho generator
D. Integrating gyro a.
List II
K
1.
s (1 + sτ m ) b.
K
2.
s (1 + sτ m )(1 + sτ m )
3. Ks c.
K
4.
1 + sτ
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4 d.
b. 1 2 4 3 4. For the system + axx ± bx = 0, the
c. 2 1 3 4 equation for the phase-plane isocline of
d. 2 1 4 3 slope m is
2. Consider the following sampled data a. m2 + am + b = 0
systems: bx
b. m = – ax –
x
bx
c. m = ax +
1. x
2
d. m + axm + b = 0
5. For the determination of stability of a
2. nonlinear control system by the Describing
Function method, the plots of C (jω) and
— 1 / N(x) are drawn as shown in the
3. given figure for an input x = X sin ωt. The
Which of these systems are similar? types of limit cycles at the points P and Q
a. 1 and 2 will be respectively
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
3. A two-tank system is shown in Figure — I.
The electrical equivalent of this system is
a. stable and stable
b. stable and unstable
2 of 17
c. unstable and stable 9. The control system shown in the given
d. unstable and unstable figure is represented by the
6. A closed-loop system is shown in the ⎡y ⎤ ⎡ u1 ⎤
equation ⎢ 1 ⎥ = [matrix ‘G’] ⎢u ⎥
given figure. The noise transfer function ⎣ y2 ⎦ ⎣ 2⎦
C(s) / N(s) [Cn(s) = output corresponding
to noise input N(s) is approximately
c.
b
b. and a 2 + b 2
a +b
2 2
a
c. and a 2 + b 2
a +b
2 2
a
d. and a 2 + b 2
a +b
2 2
2.
a.
4 of 17
A B C D
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 1 3 2 4
c. 3 1 4 2
3. d. 3 1 2 4
21. The state-variable description of a linear
autonomous system is X = AX where X is
a state vector and
⎡0 2⎤
Which of these plot(s) represent(s) a stable A= ⎢ ⎥
system? ⎣2 0⎦
a. 1 alone The poles of the system are located at
b. 2, 3 and 4 a. –2 and +2
c. 1, 3 and 4 b. –2j and +2j
d. 1, 2 and 4 c. –2 and –2
18. The state diagram of a system is shown in d. +2 and +2
the given figure : 22. Consider the state transition matrix:
⎡ s+6 −1 ⎤
⎢ s 2 + 6s + 5 s 2 + 6s + 5 ⎥
φ(s) = ⎢ ⎥
⎢ −5 s ⎥
⎢⎣ s 2 + 6 s + 5 s 2 + 6 s + 5 ⎥⎦
The system is.
The- eigen values of the system are
a. controllable and observable
a. 0 and –6
b. controllable but not observable
b. 0 and +6
c. observable but not controllable
c. 1 and –5
d. neither controllable nor observable
d. –1 and –5
19. For the function X(s) =
1 23. The frequency spectrum of a signal lies
X ( s) = , the residues within the band f0 ≤ f ≤ f1 Hz. To sample
s ( s + 1)3 ( s + 2)
the signal properly, the sampling period
associated with the simple poles at s = 0 should be
and s = –2 are respectively
a. > 1 / 2 f0
a. 1/2 and 1/2
b. < 2 / f0
b. 1 and 1
c. < 1 / 2 f1
c. —1 and —1
d. > 2 / f 1
d. —1/2 and 1/2
24. For insulators, the forbidden gap is of the
20. Match List I (Matrix) with List II order of
(Dimensions) for the state equations : X(t)
a. 5ev
= PX(t) + QU(t) and Y(t) = RX(t) + SU(t)
and select the correct answer : b. 1 ev
List I c. 0.1 ev
A. P d. zero
B. Q 25. Which one of the following materials does
not have a covalent bond?
C. R
a. Metal
D. S
b. Silicon
List II
c. Organic polymers
1. (n × p)
d. Diamond
2. (q × n)
26. Match List I (Type of polarization) with
3. (n × n) List II (Signal frequency) and select the
4. (q × p) correct answer :
5 of 17
List I List I
A. Electronic polarisation A. Magnetic field
B. Ionic polarisation B. Flux density
C. Orientational polarisation C. Magnetization
D. Space charge polarisation List II
List II 1. Electric dipole moment per unit
1. 102 Hz volume
2. 1014 Hz 2. Electric force per unit positive charge
3. 106 Hz 3. Dielectric density
4. 1012 Hz A B C
A B C D a. 2 3 1
a. 2 1 3 4 b. 3 1 2
b. 3 4 2 1 c. 1 3 2
c. 2 4 3 1 d. 1 2 3
d. 3 1 2 4 31. High frequency transformer cores are
27. Piezoelectric effect is generally observed generally made of
in a. cast iron
a. Insulators b. mu-metal
b. insulators and semiconductors c. ferrite
c. conductors and superconductors d. graphite
d. conductors and semiconductors 32. A current of 50 A is passed through a
28. The conductivity of material ‘A’ is half metal strip which is subjected to a
that of material ‘B’. The ratio of relaxation magnetic flux density of 1.2 Wb/m2. The
time of ‘A’ to that of ‘B’ is magnetic field is directed at right angles to
a. 0.5 the current direction. Thickness of the strip
in the direction of the magnetic field is 0.5
b. 1 mm. If the Hall voltage is found to be 150
c. 2 V, the number of conduction electrons per
d. 4.1 m3 in the metal is
29. According to the BCS theory, a material a. 5 × 1027
goes into superconducting state when b. 0.5 × 1027
electron-pairs participate in the following
events: c. 50 × 1027
1. Lattice distorts as a free electron A d. 5 × 1026
attracts a lattice ion Temperature is 33. In the optical fibre used for
decreased communication, the core and cladding
2. Energy of electron B is lowered and it material used are respectively
forms a pair with electron A a. pure silica and Ge-doped silica
3. A phonon is created which interacts b. P-doped silica and Ge-doped silica
with electron B c. Ge-doped silica and P-doped silica
The correct sequence of occurrence of d. Ge-doped silica and pure silica
these events is : 34. Match List I (Materials) with List II
a. 2, 1, 3, 4 (Applications) and select the correct
b. 1, 2, 3, 4 answer:
c. 2, 1, 4, 3 List I
d. 1, 2, 4, 3 A. Tantalum
30. Match List I (Magnetic parameters) with B. Graphite
list II (Electric parameters) on the basis of C. Refractory metal
analogy in definition and select the correct D. Polysilicon
answer : List II
6 of 17
1. Schottky gate b. 2 1 4 3
2. Cryotron c. 3 1 4 2
3. IC -technology d. 2 4 1 3
4. Furnace 38. Consider the following statements:
A B C D In the case of paramagnetic materials,
a. 2 3 1 4 there
b. 1 4 2 3 1. is no permanent dipole moment.
c. 1 3 2 4 2. are permanent dipole moments.
d. 2 4 1 3 3. is no alignment of dipoles in the
35. The band-gap of a semiconductor is 1.43 absence of magnetic field.
ev. Its cut-off wavelength is 4. is no interaction among the dipoles.
a. 1 mm Which of these statement(s) is/are correct?
b. 0.81 mm a. 1 alone
c. 0.56 mm b. 3 and 4
d. 0.27 mm c. 2 and 4
36. Match List I (Semiconductor parameters) d. 2, 3 and 4
with List II (Physical processes) and select 39. Consider the following statements:
the correct answer : There will be no spontaneous polarization,
List I if
A. Impurity concentration 1. there is no hysteresis loop in a plot of
B. Carrier mobility polarization against field
C. Carrier life time 2. there is a hysteresis loop in a plot of
D. Intrinsic carrier concentration polarization against field
List II 3. the material is below the Curie
1. Recombination temperature
2. Band to band transition 4. the material is above the Curie
temperature
3. Scattering
Which of these statements are correct ?
4. Ion implantation
a. 1 and 3
A B C D
b. 1 and 4
a. 3 4 2 1
c. 2 and 3
b. 4 3 2 1
d. 2 and 4
c. 3 4 1 2
40. Consider the following types of
d. 4 3 1 2 semiconductors :
37. Match List I (Materials) with List II 1. n-type
(Thermal conductivity) and select the
correct answer : 2. p-type
3. Intrinsic
List I
A. Constantan 4. Extrinsic
B. Carbon Which of these statements are correct ?
C. iron a. 1 and 3
D. Quartz b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 4
List II
1. 4.2 W m–1 deg–1 d. 2 and 3
2. 12.6 W m–1 deg–1 41. Consider the following properties:
3. 22.5 W m–1 deg–1 1. Perfect diamagnetism
4. 67.0 W m–1 deg–1 2. Ionic conductivity
3. Magnetic field causes an increase in
A B C D
transition temperature
a. 3 4 1 2
7 of 17
4. Loss of superconductivity in long secondary winding with consequent severe
circular wire by large currents strain on the insulation and danger to the
Which of these properties are exhibited by operator.
a superconductor? Reason (R) : The high magnetic forces
a. 1, 2 and 3 acting on the core, if suddenly removed,
b. 2, 3 and 4 may leave behind considerable residual
magnetism in the core.
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4 a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
42. Assertion (A) : The basic principle of
operation of a Q-meter is based on the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
property of a series-resonant circuit. the correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : If a fixed voltage is applied to c. A is true but R is false
a series resonant circuit, the voltage d. A is false but R is true
developed across its capacitor is Q times 46. Assertion (A) : The stability of a closed-
the applied voltage. loop system can be obtained from the
a. Both A and R are true and R is the open-loop transfer function G(jω) H(jω)
correct explanation of A plot with respect to the critical point
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT (–1, j0) in G(jω) H(jω) plane.
the correct explanation of A Reason (R) : The origin of 1 + G(jω)
c. A is true but R is false H(jω) corresponds to (–1, j0) point in
d. A is false but R is true G(jω) H(jω) plane.
43. Assertion (A) : In a good quality, cassette a. Both A and R are true and R is the
audio tape recorder, ac bias is provided for correct explanation of A
recording purposes to improve the quality. b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
Reason (R) : The ac bias provided for re the correct explanation of A
cording in an audio tape recorder takes c. A is true but R is false
care of the non-linearity of the recording d. A is false but R is true
head. 47. Assertion (A) : The closed-loop system
a. Both A and R are true and R is the C (s) 5
correct explanation of A = for a step input can
R ( s ) ( s + 1)( s + 5)
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT C ( s) 1
the correct explanation of A be approximated by a system 1 =
R( s) s + 1
c. A is true but R is false
1
d. A is false but R is true for R(s) = .
s
44. Assertion (A) : A spectrum analyzer is an
instrument which displays the spectrum of C ( s) C (s)
Reason (R) : Both and 1 have
the input waveform with respect to the R( s) R( s )
frequency. approximately the same transient response.
Reason (R) : A spectrum analyzer consists a. Both A and R are true and R is the
of an internal sweep voltage generator correct explanation of A
connected to the X-deflecting plate of the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
CRT. the correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are true and R is the c. A is true but R is false
correct explanation of A d. A is false but R is true
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT 48. In the given figure, a single-turn
the correct explanation of A rectangular loop moves with uniform
c. A is true but R is false velocity ‘v’ through a region of uniform
d. A is false but R is true magnetic flux density B , the direction of
45. Assertion (A) : The opening of the B being perpendicular to the plane of the
secondary circuit of a current transfer loop.
results in a very high voltage in the
8 of 17
ferrimagnetic magnite by another divalent
metal such as Mg, Zn etc., but the
exchange interactions are
antiferromagnetic type.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
Assertion (A) : The emf induced in the the correct explanation of A
loop is maximum during the interval the
c. A is true but R is false
loop is fully inside the region of B . d. A is false but R is true
Reason (R) : Induced emf = –∂ / ∂t (flux 52. Assertion (A) : In the circuit shown in the
linkage). figure, five current equations are required
a. Both A and R are true and R is the to calculate the independent branch
correct explanation of A currents and four voltage equations are
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT required to determine the independent
the correct explanation of A branch voltages.
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
49. Assertion (A): Low frequencies are more
suitable than high frequencies for
underwater communication and for
communication with underwater objects.
Reason (R): Electric and magnetic fields in
the underwater objects are out of phase by
45°. Reason (R): The number of current
a. Both A and R are true and R is the equations is b – n + 1 and the number of
correct explanation of A voltage equations is n – 1 where b is the
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT number of branches and n is the number of
the correct explanation of A nodes for a circuit.
c. A is true but R is false a. Both A and R are true and R is the
d. A is false but R is true correct explanation of A
50. Assertion (A): Storage of energy in a b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
dielectric is due to shift in relative the correct explanation of A
positions of internal charges against c. A is true but R is false
normal atomic and molecular forms. d. A is false but R is true
Reason (R): All dielectrics are 53. Assertion (A) : A driving - point function
characterised by the presence of molecules should have its poles and zeros to the left
having permanent displacement between half of s - plane.
the centres of gravity of the positive and Reason (R) : Only a positive real function
negative charges. can be realized in network form.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true d. A is false but R is true
51. Assertion (A) : dc resistance of ferrites is 54. Assertion (A) : If the impulse response of
much higher than that of dia-, para- or a network is available, the response to any
ferro- magnetic materials. arbitrary input can be derived.
Reason (R) : Ferrites are obtained by Reason (R) : The Laplace transform of unit
replacing divalent ferrous ion in impulse is unity.
9 of 17
a. Both A and R are true and R is the d. 4
correct explanation of A 58. The hot resistance of the filament of a bulb
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT is higher than the cold resistance because.
the correct explanation of A the temperature coefficient of the filament
c. A is true but R is false is
d. A is false but R is true a. negative
55. Consider the following functions: b. infinite
s 3 + 3s c. zero
1. d. positive
2( s 2 + 1)
59. The Laplace transform of the function f(t)
s 4 + 3s + 1 is F(s). u(t) represents the unit step
2.
5( s 2 + 1) function. The inverse Laplace transform of
s2 +1 e–s F(s) is
3. a. f(t) u(t–1)
3s
b. f(t–1) u(t)
3( s 3 + 7 s / 2)
4. c. f(t–1) u(t–1)
s 4 + 14 s 2 + 30 d. f(t)/(t–1)
Which of these are valid driving- point 60. If the unilateral Laplace transform X(s) of
impedance functions?
7 s + 10
a. 1, 2 and 3 a signal x(t) is , then the initial
s ( s + 2)
b. 1, 3 and 4
and final values of the signal would be
c. 1, 2 and 4 respectively.
d. 2, 3 and 4 a. 3.5 and 5
56. Consider the following driving -point b. zero and 7
functions :
c. 5 and zero
( s 2 + 1)( s 2 + 3)
F1 = , d. 7 and 5
s ( s 2 + 4) 61. In the circuit shown in Figure I, the switch
( s + 1)( s + 3)
2 2 ‘k’ was initially at position ‘1’ and a
F2 = , current ‘I’ was flowing through the
( s 2 + 2)( s 2 + 4)
inductor ‘L’ and a voltage ‘V0’ existed
s ( s 2 + 3) across the capacitor ‘C’.
F3 = and
( s 2 + 2)( s 2 + 4)
( s 2 + 2)( s 2 + 5)
F4 =
s ( s 2 + 4)
Among these, the LC functions would
include
a. F1 and F2
b. F2 and F3
c. F3 and F4 If at t = 0, the switch ‘k’ is put on the
position ‘2’ in the circuit shown in Figure
d. F1 and F4
I, which one of the following transformed
57. A driving - point impedance function is circuits will give i(t) for t > 0 ?
given by
( s + k1 )( s + k2 )( s + k3 )
F=
( s + 1)( s + 2)( s + 3)( s + 4)
The product k1k2k3 cannot be more than
a. 48 a.
b. 24
c. 10
10 of 17
b. a. 4 kHz
b. 2 kHz
c. 0.5 kHz
d. 0.25 kHz
66. Match List I (Readings obtained while
c. measuring 3-phase power by two-
wattmeter method) with List II (Power
factors for the load) and select the correct
answer :
List I
d.
A. Both the wattmeters read equal values
62. In the case of the RLC circuit shown in the
of power but of opposite sign
given figure, the voltage across the R, L
and C would be respectively B. Both the wattmeters read equal values
of power and both are of positive sign
C. One wattmeter reads zero and the other
reads the, complete power
List II
1. Unity
2. Zero
a. 12V, 16V and 7V or 25V
3. 0.5
b. 16V, 12V and 7V or 25V
4. 0.866
c. 7V, 16V and 12V
A B C
d. 16V, 12V and 25V
a. 2 3 4
63. In an amplifier, the increase in gain is
b. 3 1 2
12dB if the frequency doubled. If the
frequency is increased by 10 times, then c. 1 4 3
the increase in gain will be d. 2 1 3
a. 2.4 dB 67. The equivalent inductance of two coils A
b. 20 dB and B connected as in the given figure is
given by
c. 40 dB
d. 60 dB
64. For a second order system, if both the
roots of the characteristic equation are real,
then the value of damping ratio will be
a. less than unity a. XL1 + XL2 — 2XM
b. equal to unity b. XL1 + XL2 + XM
c. equal to zero c. XL1 + XL2–XM
d. greater than unity d. XL1 + XL2 + 2XM
65. If the resonant frequency of the circuit 68. A linear transformer and its T-equivalent
shown in Figure I is 1 kHz, the resonant circuit are shown in Figure I and Figure II
frequency of the circuit shown in Figure II respectively. The values of inductance La,
will be Lb and Lc are respectively
Figure–I
11 of 17
a. 43.7 μF
b. 4.37 μF
c. 437 μF
d. 4.37 mF
73. The circuit shown in Figure I is replaced
a. 1H, –2H and 2H by its Norton’s equivalent in Figure II. The
b. –1H, 2H and 2H value of I’ will be
c. 3H, 6H and –2H
d. 3H, 6H and 2H
69. The voltage across the 1 kΩ resistor
between the nodes A and B of the network
shown in the given figure is :
a. 2 V
b. 3 V
c. 4 V 10 V a. 2.5 ∠45° A
d. 8 V b. 5 ∠90° A
70. Initially, the circuit shown in the given c. 10 ∠–90° A
figure was relaxed. If the switch is closed
at t = 0, the values of i(0+), di / dt (0+) and d. 15 ∠–45° A
d2 i / dt2 (0+) will respectively be 74. A certain network N feeds a load
resistance R as shown in Figure I. It
consumes a power of ‘P’ W. If an identical
network is added as shown in Figure II, the
power consumed by R will be
a. 0, 10 and –100
b. 0, 10 and 100
c. 10, 100 and 0
d. 100, 0 and 10
71. If the number of branches in a network is
‘B’, the number of nodes is ‘N’ and the
number of dependent loops is ‘L’, then the
number of independent node equations
will be a. less than P
a. N + L – 1 b. equal to P
b. B – 1 c. between P and 4P
c. B – N d. more than 4P
d. N – 1 75. For the network shown in the given figure,
72. A resistance of ‘R’ Ω and inductance of the voltage VB will be
‘L’ H are connected across 240 V, 50 Hz
supply. Power dissipated in the circuit is
300-W and the voltage across R is 100 V.
In order to improve the power factor to
unity,, the capacitor that is to be connected
in series should have a value of
12 of 17
a. (j 5.33) V
b. (5.33) V
c. (–j 5.33) V
d. (j 3.33)
76. In the two-port network shown in the a.
1
given figure, if G21 (s) is 2 , then Z(s)
s +1
will be
b.
a. s
b. s + 1
c.
1
c.
s
1
d. s +
s
77. Consider the following functions for the
rectangular voltage pulse shown in the d.
given figure : 79. Match List I {Input voltage v(t)} with List
II {I(s), the Laplace transform of i(t)} for
the given circuit and select the correct
answer :
d. A ≠ 0 and ∇ × A ≠ 0 c. 10
106. A filamentary current of 10 π A flows in ^ ^
of torque would be 5 ax + 8 az
a. mA / m
⎛^ ^
⎞
–6 ⎜ a x + 2 a y ⎟
4 μ0
a. 2 × 10 ⎝ ⎠ N-m ^ ^
5 ax + 8 az
⎛^ ^
⎞ b. mA / m
⎜ a
–6 x + 2ay ⎟ 6 μ0
b. 10 ⎝ ⎠ N-m ^ ^
5 ax 8 az
c. –4 × 10 N-m –6
c. + mA / m
⎛^ ^
⎞ 4 μ0 6 μ0
d. –2 × 10–6 ⎜⎝ a x + 2 a y ⎟⎠ N-m ^ ^
5 ax 8 az
d. + mA / m
117. The region z ≤ 0 is dielectric of relative 6 μ0 4 μ0
permittivity 2 while the region z ≥ 0 is a
dielectric of relative permittivity 5. If the
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2001 1 of 15
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-I
1. Digital data acquisition systems are used fundamental state of the atom cesium
1. Only when the output of the 133.
transducers is in digital form d. A second defined as 1/31556925.9747
2. When physical process being of the time required by the earth to
monitored is slowly varying (narrow orbit the sun in the year 1900
bandwidth) 4. Match List I (Error parameters) with list II
3. When low accuracy can be tolerated (Values) and select the correct answer: (a
4. When high accuracy and low per is the standard deviation of Gaussian
channel cost is required error):
Which of these statements are correct? List I
a. 1, 2 and 3 A. Precision index
b. 1, 3 and 4 B. Probable error
c. 1 and 3 C. Error limit
d. 2 and 4 D. Pak probability density of error
2. Match list I with list II and select the List II
correct answer: 1. 0.67 σ
List I (Terms) 2. 3 σ
A. Precision 3. 0.39/ σ
B. Accuracy 4. 0.71/ σ
C. Resolution A B C D
D. Static sensitivity a. 4 2 1 3
List II (Its meaning) b. 4 1 2 3
1. The smallest change in the input c. 3 1 2 4
quantity which can be detected with its d. 3 2 1 4
certainty 5. Match List I with List II and select the
2. Closeness of the reading with its true correct answer:
value List I (Bridge)
3. Measure of reproducibility of the A. Maxwell’s bridge
measurements B. Hay’s bridge
4. Ratio of infinitesimal change in output C. Schering bridge
to infinitesimal change in input D. Wien bridge
A B C D List II (Parameter to be measured)
a. 2 3 1 4 1. Frequency
b. 3 2 4 1 2. Inductance of medium Q-coils (1 < Q
c. 3 2 1 4 < 10)
d. 2 3 4 1 3. Inductance of high-Q coils (Q> 10)
3. The modern standard of time is 4. Capacitance
a. A second defined as 1/86,400 of a A B C D
mean solar day a. 4 3 2 1
b. A second defined as time constant of b. 4 1 2 3
an RC series circuit having R = 2 MΩ, c. 2 1 4 3
C = 500 pF d. 2 3 4 1
c. A second which is duration of 9 6. Which of the following are the
192631770 periods of radiation characteristics of a thermocouple type of
corresponding to the transition indicating instrument?
between the two hyperfine levels of the
2 of 15
1. Its accuracy is very high, as high as 9. If the Q-factor of a coil is measured by
about 1 percent. varying the frequency, then
2. It has a linear scale because a d’ a. The plot between Q and frequency is
Arsonval movement is used for linear
measuring the output. b. The value of Q initially decreases with
3. It is an RF instrument and can be used increase of frequency and afterwards it
for frequency up to about 50 MHz. will increase with increase of
4. It cannot be damaged by overloads. frequency
a. 1 and 2 c. The value of Q initially increases with
b. 2 and 3 increase of frequency and afterwards it
c. 3 and 4 will decrease with increase of
d. 1 and 3 frequency
7. Consider the following equations which d. The Q-factor remains constants
can be derived from the ac bridges shown irrespective of value of frequency
in the Figure I and Figure II by assuming 10. Consider the following statements:
ΔL/L = 0.1 and R = wL: The value of earth resistance depends upon
1. v01 = v02 1. Shape of electrode
2. Depth to which the electrode is driven
2. v01 = 0.05vs
into earth
3. v01 = 0.1vs 3. Specific resistance of soil
4. v02 = 0.05vs 4. Material of electrode
5. v02 = 0.1vs Which of the following statements is
correct?
a. 1,2,3 and 4
b. 2,3 and 4
c. 1 and 2
d. 1, 3 and 4
11. Which of the following electronic
instruments (or equipment) can be used to
measure correctly the fundamental
frequency component of a waveform and
its higher harmonics?
1. Cathode ray oscilloscope
2. Vacuum tube voltmeter
3. Spectrum analyzer
4. Distortion factor meter
Select the correct answer using the codes
The correct derived equations from these
given below:
figures of ac bridges are
a. 1 and 2
a. 1,3 and 4
b. 2 and 3
b. 2,4 and 5
c. 3 and 4
c. 2 and 5
d. 1 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 5
12. In a single-phase power factor meter; the
8. Which one of the following statements
controlling torque is
correctly represents the post acceleration
a. Provided by spring control
in a Cathode-Ray Tube?
b. Provided by gravity control
a. It provides deflection of the beam
c. Provided by stiffness of suspension
b. It increases the brightness of the trace
if the signal frequency is higher than d. Not required
10 MHz 13. Which one of the following transducers
can be used for measurement of pressures
c. It accelerates the beam before
as high as 100,000 atmosphere?
deflection
a. Mcleod gauge
d. It increases the brightness of the trace
of low frequency signal b. Pirani gauge
c. Bridgman gauge
3 of 15
d. Knudsen gauge a. 1 kHz and 12
14. A dc circuit can be represented by an b. 1 kHz and 14
internal voltage source of 50 V with an c. 2 kHz and 12
output resistance of 100 k Ω. In order to d. 2 kHz and 14
achieve accuracy better than 99% for 18. An ac voltmeter using full-wave
voltage measurement across its terminals, rectification and having a sinusoidal input
the voltage measuring device should have has an ac sensitivity equal to
a resistance of at least a. 1.414 times dc sensitivity
a. 10 MΩ b. dc sensitivity
b. 1 M Ω c. 0.90 times dc sensitivity
c. 10 kΩ d. 0.707 times dc sensitivity
d. 1 kΩ 19. Consider the following statements in
15. Consider the following blocks diagrams: connection with measurement of
1. temperature:
1. A thermistor is highly sensitive as
compared with platinum resistance
thermometer.
2. The resistance of a thermistor is solely
2. a function of its absolute temperature
whether the source of heat is external,
internal or both.
3. A thermistor has linear resistance
3. temperature characteristics.
4. Most thermistors exhibit negative
resistance temperature coefficient.
Which of these statements are correct?
a. 1,2 and 3
4. b. 1,2 and 4
c. 2,3 and 4
d. 1,3 and 4
20. Time division multiplexing is used when
Which of these block diagrams can be the data to be transmitted is
reduced to transfer function a. Slow changing
C (s) G1 b. Of small bandwidth
= ? c. Slow changing and has a small
R ( s ) 1 − G1G2 bandwidth
a. 1 and 3 d. Fast changing and has a wide
b. 2 and 4 bandwidth
c. 1 and 4 21. If an induction type energy meter runs fast,
d. 2 and 3 it can be slowed down by
16. In electrodynamometer type watt meters, a. Lag adjustment
the inductance of pressure coil produces b. Light load adjustment
error. The error is c. Adjusting the position of braking
a. Constant irrespective of the power magnet and moving it closer from the
factor of the load centre of the disc
b. Higher at higher power factor loads d. Adjusting the position of braking
c. Higher at lower power factor loads magnet and moving it away from the
d. Highest at unity power factor loads centre of the disc
17. An analogue voltage signal whose highest 22. The circuit generally used in digital
significant frequency is 1 kHz is to be instruments to convert sine waves into
coded with a resolution of 0.01 percent for rectangular pulses is a
a voltage range of 0 – 10 V. The minimum a. Saw tooth generator
sampling frequency and the minimum b. Differential amplifier
number of bits should respectively be c. Sample and hold circuit
4 of 15
d. Schmitt trigger a. 1.171GPa
23. Spectrum analyzer is a combination of b. 1.182GPa
a. Narrow band super heterodyne c. 2.6 GPa
receiver and CR0 d. 2.55 GPa
b. Signal generator and CR0 30. When temperature bf a conductor is
c. Oscillator and wave analyzer approaching zero Kelvin, the mean free
d. VTVM and CR0 path of the free electrons in the conductor
24. Total number of electrons that can be is proportional to
accommodated in various electron states in a. T
a valence band of a given solid is equal to b. T3
a. Atomic number of the solid c. (1/T)1/3
b. Half the number of atoms in the solid d. 1/T3
c. The number of atoms in the solid 31. In a conductor of size 20 mm × 10 mm ×
d. Twice the number of atoms in the solid 10 mm, the wavelength of the slowest
25. Consider the following properties moving free electron is
pertaining to an alloy used as a precision a. 5 mm
resistor: b. l0 mm
1. Uniform resistance c. 20 mm
2. Stable resistance d. 40 mm
3. Zero or low temperature coefficient of 32. The conductivity of a conducting material
resistivity on being subject to critical magnetic field
Which of these properties are desirable? changes to
a. 1,2 and 3 a. Normal state
b. 1 and 2 b. Unstable state
c. 1 and 3 c. Temperature-independent state
d. 2 and 3 d. Temperature-dependent state
26. By inserting a slab of dielectric material 33. A large value of the exchange interaction
between the plates of a parallel plate energy in a ferromagnetic material implies
capacitor, the energy stored in the. a. Large saturation magnetization
capacitor has increased three times. The b. High Curie temperature
dielectric constant of the material is c. High melting point
a. 9 d. Large diamagnetic susceptibility
b. 3 34. Which one of the following pairs is NOT
c. 1/3 correctly matched?
d. 1/9 a. Copper : Diamagnetic
27. When a dielectric is subjected to an b. Sodium : Anti ferromagnetic
alternating electric field, of angular c. Iron : Ferromagnetic
frequency ‘ ω ’, its power loss is d. Ferrite : Ferromagnetic
proportional to 35. Ferromagnetic behavior is shown by those
a. ω transition meals where the ratio of the
b. ω 2 atomic diameter to 3d orbital diameter is
c. 1/ ω a. In the range of 0.5 to 1
d. 1/ ω 2 b. In the range of 1 to 1.5
28. For a given dielectric, with increase in c. In the range of 1.5 to 2
temperature the ionic polarizability d. Greater than 2
a. Increases 36. Ferrites can be considered as mixed oxides
b. Decreases of metals A and B having inverse spinel
c. Remains same structure. Their formula can be written as
d. Fluctuates a. ABO2
29. A piezoelectric crystal has an Young’s b. A2BO2
modulus of 130 GPa. The uniaxial stress c. AB2O3
that must be applied to increase its d. AB2O4
polarization from 500 to 510 C m-2 is
5 of 15
37. Match List I (Magnetic materials) with 1. Integrated Circuit
List 11 (Main applications) and select the 2. Laser
correct answer: 3. Busbar
List I 4. Heating element
A. Ni-Zn ferrite 5. Oscillator
B. Co-Sm alloy A B C D
C. Yttrium Iron Garnet a. 2 4 5 1
D. Mg-Zn ferrite b. 1 5 3 2
List II c. 2 5 3 1
1. Recording head d. 1 4 5 2
2. Permanent Magnets 41. Consider the following energy-momentum
3. Audio & TV transformers (E-k) curves labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4 of
4. Memory cores different semiconductors:
5. Microwave isolators 1.
A B C D
a. 3 4 5 2
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 3 2 5 4
d. 1 4 3 2
38. For a semiconductor, which one of the
following statements is NOT correct?
2.
a. When an electron and a hole
recombine, energy must be liberated
b. Electrons in the conduction band can
acquire a net acceleration from a field
because there are empty energy levels
available
c. An electron in the valence band cannot
be accelerated by the field unless there 3.
are empty energy levels available
d. Holes cannot be accelerated by the
field unless there are empty energy
levels available
39. Consider the following statement:
Extrinsic semiconductors show high
electrical conductivity because the
impurities are 4.
1. Of high conductivity
2. Highly mobile
3. Highly charged
Which of these statements are NOT
correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
Sets of direct and indirect gap curves are
c. 1 and 3
respectively
d. 1,2 and 3
a. (1, 2) and (3, 4)
40. Match List I with List II and select the
b. (1, 4) and (2,3)
correct answer:
c. (1, 3) and (2, 4)
List I
d. (2, 3) and (1,4)
A. Ga-As
42. Match List I (p - n junction devices) with
B. Nichrome
List II (Application) and select the correct
C. Quartz
answer:
D. Si
List I
List II
6 of 15
A. Zener Diode d. A is false but R is true
B. Pin Diode 46. Assertion (A): When there is no charge in
C. Tunnel Diode the interior of a conductor the electric field
D. Varactor Diode intensity is infinite.
List II Reason (R): As per Gauss’s law the total
1. Fast-switching circuits outward electric flux through any closed
2. Microwave switches surface constituted inside the conductor
3. Local oscillators for radars must vanish.
4. Frequency converters a. Both A and R are true and R is the
5. Voltage regulators correct explanation of A
A B C D b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
a. 5 2 1 4 the correct explanation of A
b. 1 2 5 4 c. A is true but R is false
c. 5 3 1 2 d. A is false but R is true
d. 1 3 5 2 47. Assertion (A): The solution to the wave
43. The open circuit impedance of a certain equation at the critical diffracting
length of a lossless line is 100Ω. The short condition in a crystal yields standing
circuit impedance of the same line is also waves.
100Ω. The characteristic impedance of the Reason (R): Standing waves have periodic
line is variation both in amplitude as well as in
the electron probability density in the
a. 100 2Ω
crystal.
b. 50 Ω
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
c. 100 / 2Ω correct explanation of A
d. 100 Ω b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
44. Assertion (A): The relationship between the correct explanation of A
Magnetic Vector potential A and the c. A is true but R is false
Current density J in free space is d. A is false but R is true
∇ × ( ∇ × A ) = μ0 J . For a magnetic field in 48. Assertion (A): For a system to be stable,
free space due to a dc or slowly varying all coefficients of the characteristic
polynomial must be positive.
current is ∇ 2 A = − μ0 J
Reason(R): All positive coefficients of the
Reason (R): For magnetic field due to dc characteristic polynomial of a system is a
or slowly varying current ∇. A = 0 . sufficient condition for stability.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true d. A is false but R is true
∂D 49. In the feedback system C(s), R(s) and D(s)
45. Given that ∇ × H = J +
∂t are the system output, input and
Assertion (A): In the equation, the disturbance, respectively
∂D
additional term is necessary.
∂t
Reason (R): The equation will be
consistent with the principle of
conservation of charge. Assertion (A): For the system
a. Both A and R are true and R is the C ( s ) { R ( s ) + D ( s )} 1+ G (s)
=
correct explanation of A R (s) D (s) 1+ G (s) H (s)
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
Reason (R): Transfer function of a system
the correct explanation of A
is defined as the ratio of output Lap lace
c. A is true but R is false
transform and input Lap lace transform
7 of 15
setting other inputs and the initial a. Both A and R are true and R is the
conditions to zero. correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are true and R is the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT c. A is true but R is false
the correct explanation of A d. A is false but R is true
c. A is true but R is false 54. Assertion (A): A unit current impulse
d. A is false but R is true applied to a capacitor of ‘C’ farads
50. Assertion (A): The number of separate instantly inserts 1/2C Joules of energy in
loci of the closed loop system it.
corresponding to Reason (R): A unit current impulse has
K ( s + 4) infinite current for zero duration and
G (s) H (s) = is three.
s ( s + 1)( s + 3) encloses a charge of one coulomb in it.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
Reason (R) : Number of separate loci is correct explanation of A
equal to number of finite poles of G(s) b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
H(s) if the latter is more than the number the correct explanation of A
of finite zeros of G(s) H(s). c. A is true but R is false
a. Both A and R are true and R is the d. A is false but R is true
correct explanation of A 55. Assertion (A): In resistance
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT potentiometers used for measurement of
the correct explanation of A displacement, sensitivity and linearity are
c. A is true but R is false conflicting requirements.
d. A is false but R is true Reason (R): The voltmeter used for
51. Assertion (A): The current in a constant measurement of output voltage of the
inductive system does not change potentiometer has, a finite resistance
instantaneously. which causes loading effects.
Reason (R): In constant inductive system a. Both A and R are true and R is the
the flux linkage is conserved initially. correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are true and R is the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT c. A is true but R is false
the correct explanation of A d. A is false but R is true
c. A is true but R is false 56. Assertion (A): In good quality magnetic
d. A is false but R is true cassette tape recorders, ac bias is provided
52. Assertion (A): Equivalent network to recording head for better recording and
obtained from Δ − Y transformation reproduction.
relationships in general is valid only for Reason (R): The use of ac bias avoids the
one frequency. nonlinear characteristic of the B-H curve
Reason (R): The impedances involved in of the recording head.
Δ − Y vary with frequency. a. Both A and R are true and R is the
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false
c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true
d. A is false but R is true 57. Assertion (A): In digital transducers used
53. Assertion (A): Norton theorem is applied for measurement of displacement, it is
to a network for which no equivalent quite common to use Gray Code instead of
Thevenin’s network exists. natural binary code.
Reason (R): Norton’s Theorem enables Reason (R): Grey code is used for
one to calculate quickly current and overcoming the inherent disadvantages of
voltage in a particular branch of interest in a natural binary code. These include errors
a complicated network. that are caused on account of even slight
8 of 15
misalignment which may cause change of d.
decimal number thereby changing the
number of bits. Gray code does not sufer
from this disadvantage.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT 60. A point charge +Q is brought near a corner
the correct explanation of A of two right angle conducting planes
c. A is true but R is false which are at zero potential as shown in the
d. A is false but R is true given Figure I. Which one of the following
58. ∫ A.dl
If A = aˆr + aˆφ + aˆ z , the value of configurations describes the total effect of
the charges for calculating the actual field
around the closed circular quadrants
in the first quadrant?
shown in the given figure is
a.
a. π
π
b. +4
2
c. π + 4
π
d. +2
2
59. A coaxial cable has two concentric b.
dielectrics separated by a sheath as shown
in the given figure. The distribution of
electric field ‘E’ and potential ‘ φ ’ in the
coaxial’ cable exist as
c.
a.
b. d.
c.
61. Plane defined by z = 0 carry surface
current density 2aˆ x A / m . The magnetic
intensity ‘Hy’ in the two regions
−α < z < 0 and 0 < z < α are respectively
9 of 15
a. aˆ y and – aˆ y
b. – aˆ y and aˆ y
c. aˆ x and – aˆ x
d. – aˆ x and aˆ x
62. A solid cylindrical conductor of radius ‘R’ 3.
carrying a current ‘I’ has a uniform current
density. The magnetic field intensity ' H '
inside the conductor at the radial distance
‘r’ (r < R) is
a. Zero 4.
b. I / 2π r
c. Ir / 2π R 2
d. IR 2 / 2π r 3
63. The electric field across a dielectric-air
interface is shown in the given figure. The
surface charge density on the interface is
The electric field will induce an emf in the
coils
a. C1 and C2
b. C2 and C3
c. C1 and C3
a. −4 ∈0 d. C2 and C4
66. A circular loop is rotating about the y-axis
b. −3 ∈0
as a diameter in a magnetic field
c. −2 ∈0 B = B0 sin ωt aˆ x Wb / m 2 . The induced emf
d. − ∈0 in the loop is
64. When air pocket is trapped inside a a. Due to transformer emf only
dielectric of relative permittivity ‘5’, for a b. Due to motional emf only
given applied voltage across the dielectric, c. Due to a combination of transformer
the ratio of stress in the air pocket to that and motional emf
in the dielectric is equal to d. Zero
a. 1/5 67. Match List I with List II and select the
b. 5 correct answer:
c. 1+5 List I (Law/quantity)
d. 5-1 A. Gauss’s law
65. Consider coils C1, C2, C3 and.C4 (shown in B. Ampere’s law
the following figures) which are placed in C. Faraday’s law
the time-varying electric field E ( t ) and D. Poynting vector
electric field produced by the coils C’2, C’3 List II (Mathematical expression)
and C’4 carrying time varying current I(t) 1. ∇.D = ρ
respectively: ∂B
2. ∇ × E = −
1. ∂t
3. S = E × H
(
4. F = q E + v × B )
∂D
5. ∇ × H = J c +
∂t
A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3
2. b. 3 5 2 1
10 of 15
c. 1 5 2 3 a. Zeno
d. 3 2 4 1 b. 50%
1+ | Γ | c. 36%
68. In the relation S = ; the values of S
1− | Γ | d. 26%
and Γ (Where S stands for wave ratio and 73. Consider the following statements:
Γ is reflection coefficient), respectively, The characteristic impedance of a
very as transmission line can increase with the
a. 1 to 1 and –1 to 0 increase in
b. 1 to ∝ and –1 to +1 1. Resistance per unit length
c. –1 to +1 and 1 to ∝ 2. Conductance per unit length
d. –1 to 0 and 0 to 1 3. Capacitance per unit length
69. In the source free wave equation 4. Inductance per unit length
Which of these statements are correct?
∂2 E ∂E
∇ 2 E − μ0 ∈0 μ ∈ 2 − μ0 μ σ =0 a. 1 and 2
∂t ∂t b. 2 and 3
The term responsible for the attenuation of c. 1 and 4
the wave is d. 3 and 4
∂E 74. Match List I (Physical action or activity)
a. μ0 μσ
∂t with List II (Category of system) and
∂2 E select the correct answer:
b. μ0 ∈0 μ ∈ 2 List I
∂t
A. Human respiration system
c. ∇ 2 E B. Pointing of an object with a finger
∂E ∂2E C. A man driving a car
d. μ0 μσ and μ0 ∈0 μ0∈ 2 D. A thermostatically controlled room
∂t ∂t
70. Three media are characterized by heater
1. ∈r = 8, μ r = 2, σ = 0 List II
1. Man-made control system
2. ∈r = 1, μr = 9, σ = 0 2. Natural including biological control
3. ∈r = 4, μr = 4, σ = 0 system
∈r is relative permittivity, μ r is relative 3. Control system whose components are
both manmade and natural
permeability and σ is conductivity.
A B C D
The value of the intrinsic impedances of
a. 2 2 3 1
the media 1,2 and 3 respectively are
b. 3 1 2 1
a. 188 Ω, 377Ω and 1131Ω c. 3 2 2 3
b. 377Ω, 113Ω and l88Ω d. 2 1 3 3
c. 188Ω, 1131Ω and 377Ω 75. The Lap lace transform of a transportation
d. 1131Ω , 188Ω and 377Ω lag of 5 seconds is
71. ( )
A plane em wave E i H i traveling in a a. exp ( −5s )
perfect dielectric medium of surge b. exp ( 5s )
impedance ‘Z’ strikes 2Z. If the refracted 1
( )
em wave is E r H r , the ratios of E1 / Er c.
s+5
and Ei / H r are respectively ⎛ −s ⎞
d. exp ⎜ ⎟
a. 1/3 and 3/2. ⎝ 5 ⎠
b. 3/2 and 1/3 76. In the system shown in the given figure
c. 3/4 and 3/2 r ( t ) = 1 + 2t ( t ≥ 0 ) . The steady-state value
d. 3/4 and 2/3
of the error e(t) is equal to
72. For a perfect conductor, the field strength
at a distance equal to the skin depth is X%
of the field strength at its surface. The
value ‘X%’ is
a. Zero
11 of 15
b. 2/10 c. Non-zero number
c. 10/2 d. Constant
d. Infinity 81. The Nyquist plot of a servo system is
77. The phase angle of the system shown in the Figure I. The root loci for the
s+5 system would be
G (s) = 2 varies between
s + 4s + 9
a. 0° and 90°
b. 0° and –90°
c. 0° and –180°
d. –90° and –180°
78. The transfer function of a certain system is
s
given by G ( s ) =
(1 + s )
The Nyquist plot of the system is a.
a.
b. b.
c.
c.
d.
d. None of the drawn plot of (a), (b), (c)
of the question
82. The characteristic equation of a feedback
control system given by
s + 5s + ( K + 6 ) s + K = 0 .In the root loci
3 2
79. A second order control system is defined diagram, the asymptotes of the root loci
by the following differential equation: for large ‘K’ meet at a point in the s-plane
d 2c ( t ) dc ( t ) whose coordinates are
4 2
+8 + 16c ( t ) = 16u ( t ) a. (2, 0)
dt dt
b. (–1, 0)
The damping ratio and natural frequency
c. (–2, 0)
for this system are respectively
d. (–3, 0)
a. 0.25 and 2 rad/s
83. The open loop transfer function of a unity
b. 0.50 and 2 rad/s
K
c. 0.25 and 4 rad/s feedback system is given by . If
d. 0.50 and 4 rad/s s ( s + 1)
80. The steady state en-or due to a ramp input the value of gain K is such that the system
for a type two system is equal to is critically damped, the closed loop poles
a. Zero of the system will lie at
b. Infinite a. – 0.5 and 0.5
12 of 15
b. ± j0.5 Y (s) 2
d. =
c. 0 and –1 U ( s ) s 2 + 3s + 2
d. 0.5 ± j 0.5
84. If the Nyquist plot cuts the negative real 88. The mechanical system is shown in the
axis at a distance of 0.4, then the gain given figure
margin of the system is
a. 0.4
b. – 0.4
c. 4% The system is described as
d 2 y1 ( t ) dy ( t )
d. 2.5 a. M 2
+B 1 = k ⎡⎣ y2 ( t ) − y1 ( t ) ⎤⎦
85. The transfer function of a phase lead dt dt
1 + aTs d 2 y2 ( t ) dy ( t )
compensator is given by where b. M +B 2 = k ⎡⎣ y2 ( t ) − y1 ( t ) ⎤⎦
1 + Ts
2
dt dt
a > 1 and T > 0. The maximum phase shift d 2 y1 ( t ) dy ( t )
c. M +B 1 = k ⎡⎣ y1 ( t ) − y2 ( t ) ⎤⎦
provided by such a compensator is dt 2
dt
⎛ a +1⎞ d 2 y2 ( t ) dy ( t )
a. tan −1 ⎜ ⎟ d. M +B 2 = k ⎡⎣ y1 ( t ) − y2 ( t ) ⎤⎦
⎝ a −1 ⎠
2
dt dt
⎛ a −1 ⎞ 89. A linear time invariant system, initially at
b. tan −1 ⎜ ⎟ rest when subjected to a unit step input
⎝ a +1 ⎠
gave response. c ( t ) = te − t ( t ≥ 0 ) .
⎛ a +1⎞
c. sin −1 ⎜ ⎟ The transfer function of the system is
⎝ a −1 ⎠ s
⎛ a −1 ⎞ a.
d. sin −1 ⎜ ( s + 1)
2
⎟
⎝ a +1 ⎠
86. Consider the single input, single output 1
b.
s ( s + 1)
2
system with its state variable
representation: 1
⎡ −1 0 0 ⎤ ⎡1 ⎤ c.
( s + 1)
2
X = ⎢ 0 −2 0 ⎥ X + ⎢⎢1 ⎥⎥ U
⎢ ⎥
1
⎣⎢ 0 0 −3⎦⎥ ⎣⎢0 ⎦⎥
d.
s ( s + 1)
Y = [1 0 2] X 90. A synchro transmitter consists of a
The system is a. Salient pole rotor winding excited by
a. Neither controllable nor observable an ac supply and a three-phase
b. Controllable but not observable balanced stator winding
c. Uncontrollable but observable b. Three-phase balance stator winding
d. Both controllable and observable excited by a three- phase balanced ac
87. A particular control system is described by signal and rotor connected to a dc
the following state equations: voltage source
⎡0 1⎤ ⎡0 ⎤ c. Salient pole rotor winding excited by a
X =⎢ ⎥ X + ⎢ ⎥ U and Y = [ 2 0] X dc signal
⎣ −2 −3⎦ ⎣1 ⎦ d. Cylindrical rotor winding and a
The transfer function of this system is: stepped stator excited by pulses
Y (s) 1 91. The torque-speed characteristic .of two-
a. = 2
U ( s ) 2s + 3s + 1 phase induction motor is largely affected
Y (s)
by
2
b. = 2 a. Voltage
U ( s ) 2s + 3s + 1 b. R/X and speed
Y (s) 1 c. X/R
c. = 2
U ( s ) s + 3s + 2 d. Supply voltage frequency
92. Match List I (Nature of eigen value) with
List II (Nature of singular point) for
13 of 15
linearised autonomous second order
system and select the correct answer:
List I
A. Complex conjugate pair
B. Pure imaginary pair a. 3.5Ω
C. Real and equal but with opposite sign b. 2.5Ω
D. Real, distinct and negative c. 1Ω
List II d. 4.5Ω
1. Centre 97. An electric circuit with 10 branches and 7
2. Focus point nodes will have
3. Saddle point a. 3 loop equations
4. Stable node b. 4 loop equations
5. Unstable node c. 7 loop equations
A B C D d. 10 loop equations
a. 1 5 3 4 98. For the circuit shown in the given figure,
b. 2 1 3 4 the current through L and the voltage
c. 2 1 4 3 across C2 are respectively
d. 1 5 4 3
93. In order to use Routh Hurwitz Criterion for
determining the stability of sampled data
system, the characteristic equation
1 + G(z) H(z) = 0 should be modified by
using bilinear trans form of a. zero and RI
a. z = r + 1 b. I and zero
b. z = r − 1 c. zero and zero
r −1 d. I and RI
c. z = 99. For the circuit shown in the given figure,
r +1
when the voltage E is 10 V, the current i is
r +1
d. z = 1 A. If the applied voltage across terminal
r −1 C-D is 100 V, the short circuit current
94. The system matrix of a discrete system is flowing through the terminal A-B will be
given by
⎡0 1⎤
A=⎢ ⎥
⎣ −3 −5⎦
The characteristic equation is given by a. 0.1A
a. Z2 + 5z + 3 = 0 b. 1A
b. Z2 – 3z – 5 = 0 c. 10A
c. Z2 + 3z + 5 = 0 d. 100A
d. Z2 + z + 2 = 0 100. The Thevenin’s equivalent resistance Rth
95. The current in the given circuit with a for the given network is
dependent voltage source is
a. 1Ω
a. 10A b. 2Ω
b. 12A
c. 4Ω
c. 14 A
d. Infinity
d. 16A
101. For the circuit shown in the given figure
96. The value of resistance ‘R’ shown in the
the current I is given by
given figure is
14 of 15
d 2i / dt 2 + i = v . If v = Ae2t , the dominant
solution of I for t > 0 is of the nature.
a. K1et
a. 3A b. K1e −t
b. 2A
c. K1e 2t
c. 1A
d. Zero d. K 2 cos t + K 3 sin t
102. The value of V in the circuit shown in the 107. A unit step u(t–5) is applied to the RL
given figure is network
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER–I
1. A potential field is given by V = 3x2y – yz. 6. A medium behaves like dielectric when
Which of the following is NOT true? the
a. At the point (1, 0, -1), V and the a. displacement current is just equal to
electric field E vanish the conduction current
b. x 2 y = 1 is an equipotential line in the b. displacement current is less than the
conduction current
xy-lane
c. The equipotential surface V – 8 passes c. displacement current is much greater
through the point P(2, -1, 4)
than the conduction current
d. displacement current is almost
d. A unit normal to the equipotential
surface V = -8 at P is
negligible
( −0.83xˆ + 0.55 yˆ + 0.07 zˆ ) 7. Two conducting coils 1 and 2 (identical
except that 2 is split) are placed in a
2. The relation between electric intensity E, uniform magnetic field which decreases at
voltage applied V and the distance d a constant rate as in the figure. If the
between the plates of a parallel plate planes of the coils are perpendicular to the
condenser is field lines, the following statements are
a. E = V/d made:
b. E = V × d
c. E = V/(d)2
d. E = V × (d)2
3. Ohm’s law in point form in field theory
can be expressed as
1. an e.m.f. is induced in, the split coil 2
a. V = RI
2. e.m.f. is are induced in both coils
b. J = E / σ
3. equal Joule heating occurs in both coils
c. J = σ E 4. Joule heating does not occur in any
d. R = ρ l / A coil
4. The magnetic flux through each turn of a Which of the above statements is/are true?
100 turn coil is (t3 - 2t) milli-Webers a. 1 and 4
where t is in seconds. The induced e.m.f. b. 2 and 4
at t = 2s is c. 3 only
a. 1V d. 2 only
b. -1V
8. For linear isotropic materials, both E and
c. 0.4 V
H have the time dependence e jωt and
d. -0.4 V regions of interest are free of charge. The
5. If a vector field B is solenoidal, which of value of ∇ × H is given by
these is true?
a. σ E
a. L ∫ B.dl = 0 b. jωε E
b. S ∫ B.ds = 0 c. σ E + jωε E
c. ∇ × B = 0 d. σ E − jωε E
d. ∇.B ≠ 0
2 of 16
9. Which of the following equations is/are 12. A plane wave whose electric field is given
not Maxwell’s equation(s)? by E = 100 cos(ωt - 6π x ) ẑ passes
∂lv normally from a material ‘A’ having
1. ∇.J = −
∂t ε r = 4, μr = 1 and σ = 0 to a material ‘B’
2. ∇.D = lv having ε r = 9 , μr = 4 and σ = 0 . Match
∂B items in List I with List II and select the
3. ∇.E = − correct answer:
∂t
List I
⎛ ∂E ⎞
4. ∫ H .dl = ∫ ⎜⎝ σ E + ε ∂t ⎟⎠.ds A. Intrinsic impedance of medium ‘B’
B. Reflection coefficient
Select the correct answer using the codes C. Transmission Coefficient
given below: D. Phase shift constant of medium ‘A’
a. 2 and 4 List II
b. 1 alone
1. 6 π
c. 1 and 3
2. 80 π
d. 1 and 4
3. 1/7
10. In free space
H ( z , t ) = 0.10 cos ( 4 × 10 t − β z ) Tx A/M.
7
4. 8/7
Codes;
The expression for E ( z , t ) is A B C D
a. E ( z, t ) = 37.7 cos ( 4 ×107 t − β z ) Ty a. 4 1 2 3
b. 2 3 4 1
b. E ( z, t ) = 2.65 ×10 cos ( 4 ×107 t − β z ) Tz c. 4 3 2 1
c. E ( z, t ) = 37.7 cos ( 4 ×107 t − β z ) Tx
d. 2 1 4 3
13. In free space E ( z, t ) = 50 cos (ωt − β z ) ax
d. E ( z, t ) = −37.7 cos ( 4 ×107 t − β z ) Ty A/m and H ( z , t ) = 5 /12π cos (ωt − β z ) a y
11. A/m. The average power crossing a
circular area of radius 24 m in plane z =
constant is
a. 200 W
b. 250 W
c. 300 W
Consider the arrangement of two equal and d. 350 W
opposite charges of magnitude q separated 14. A copper wire carries a conduction current
by an infinitesimal distance 1 as shown in of 1.0 A at 50 Hz. For copper wire
the figure given above. If ar is the unit ε = ε 0 , μ = μ0 , σ = 5.8 ×10 mho/m. What
vector in the direction r and aθ is the unit is the displacement current in the wire?
vector in the directionθ, the electric field at a. 2.8 × 10 A
the point P is b. 4.8 × 10 A
−2q / cos θ q / sin θ c. 1 A
a. ar − aθ
4πε r 3
4πε r 3 d. It cannot be calculated with the given
−2q / cos θ q / sin θ data
b. ar + aθ
4πε r 3
4πε r 3 15. If A and J are the vector potential and
2q / cos θ q / sin θ current density vectors associated with a
c. ar + aθ
4πε r 3
4πε r 3 coil, then ∫ A.Jdv has the units of
2q / cos θ q / sin θ a. Flux-linkage
d. ar − aθ
4πε r 3
4πε r 3 b. Power
c. Energy
3 of 16
d. Inductance d. 100%
16. A transmission line has R, L G and C 20. Which of the following has the greatest
distributed paramenters per unit length of mobility?
the line, γ is the propagation constant of a. Positive ion
the lines. Which expression gives the b. Negative ion
characteristic impedance of the line? c. Electron
γ d. Hole
a.
R + jωl 21. Match List I (Type of the material) with
R + jωl List II (Name of thfe material) and select
b.
γ the correct answer:
List I
G + jωC
c. A. Ferroelectric material
γ
B. Piezoelectric material
G + jωC C. Soft magnetic material
d.
R + jω L D. Hard magnetic material
17. Which of the following equations is List II
correct? 1. Permalloy
a. ax × ax = ax
2
2. BaTiO3 ceramic
3. KH2PO4
b. (a x × a y ) + ( a y × ax ) = 0 4. Tungsten steel
c. ax × ( a y × az ) = ax × ( az × a y ) Codes;
A B C D
d. ar .aθ + aθ .ar = 0
a. 3 2 1 4
18. Match List I with List II and select the b. 1 4 3 2
correct answer:
c. 3 4 1 2
List I (Term)
d. 1 2 3 4
A. Curl ( F ) = 0 22. On the application of the field E , the
B. Div ( F ) = 0 modified field due to polarization P in
solids and liquids having cubic symmetry
C. Div Grad (φ) = 0 is given by
D. Div div (φ) = 0 P
a. E +
List II (Type) ε0
1. Laplace equation
P
2. Irrotational b. E −
ε0
3. Solenoidal
P
4. Not defined c. E +
A B C D 3ε 0
a. 2 3 1 4 P
d. E −
b. 4 1 3 2 3ε 0
c. 2 1 3 4 23. The complex dielectric constant of a
d. 4 3 1 2 material is given by the expression :
19. Assuming the Fermi level EF to be ε = ε '− jε "
independent of temperature, EF may be
If a parallel plate capacitor with area ‘A’
defined as the level with an occupancy
and separation‘d’ is formed with this
probability of
material as a dielectric, the loss factor will
a. 0% be
b. 50%
a. ( Aε ') / ( d ε ")
c. 75%
b. ε "/ ε '
4 of 16
c. tan ⎡⎣( Aε ') / ( d ε ") ⎤⎦
−1 a. increase permeability of the material
b. increase electrical resistivity of the
d. tan −1 ⎡⎣( Aε ") / ( Aε ') ⎤⎦ material
24. At optical frequencies, the major c. increase the coercive force
contribution to the total polarization comes d. increase the saturation flux density
from 31. Which of the following is piezoelectric
a. space charge polarization material?
b. orientation polarization a. Quartz
c. ionic polarization b. Silica sand
d. electronic polarization c. Corundum
25. Which of the following insulating d. Polystyrene
materials has the least affinity for 32.
moisture?
a. Cotton
b. Paper
c. Asbestos
d. Mica
26. Which of the following statements is NOT
true? The resistance seen from the terminals A
a. Superconductors show perfect and B of the device whose characteristic is
diamagnetism shown in the figure is
b. Superconductors have almost zero a. – 5 Ω
resistivity b. – 1/5 Ω
c. The external magnetic field has no c. 1/5 Ω
effect on superconductors d. 5 Ω
d. Entropy increases on going from 33. The Fig. 1 shows a network, in which the
superconducting state to normal state diode is an ideal one.
27. The transition temperature of Mercury at
which it becomes superconductive is
a. 4.12°F
b. 4.12°C
c. 4.12 K
d. 41.2 K
28. de Brogue wavelength associated with a the terminal v – I characteristics of the
material particle is network is given by
a. inversely proportional to its energy a.
b. directly proportional to its momentum
c. directly proportional to its energy
d. inversely proportional to its
momentum
29. Which one of the following materials can
not be used for permanent magnets?
b.
a. Alnico
b. Barium Ferrite
c. Carbon-steel
d. Iron-Cobalt alloy
30. Upto about 4% silica is added in iron to be
used as a soft magnetic material. The
major reason for this is to c.
5 of 16
37. Superposition theorem is hot applicable for
a. voltage calculation
b. bilateral elements
c. power calculations
d. passive elements
38.
d.
c.
d.
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-I
1. Consider the following statements with d. 1 and 4
reference to a system with velocity error 4.
constant Ky = 1000
1. The system is stable.
2. The system is of type 1
3. The test signal used is a step input.
Which of these statements are correct? The Bodge phase angle plot of a system is
a. 1 and 2 shown above.
b. 1 and 3 The type of the system is
c. 2 and 3 a. 0
d. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1
2. Which one of the following statements is c. 2
NOT of correct? d. 3
a. With the introduction of integral 5. The loop transfer function of a system is
control, the steady state error increases given by:
b. The generalised error coefficients K ( s + 10) 2 ( s + 100)
provide a simple way of determining G(s) =
s ( s + 25)
the nature of the response of a
The number of loci terminating at infinity
feedback control to any arbitrary input
is
c. The generalized error coefficients lead
a. 0
to calculation of complete steady state
response without actually solving the b. 1
system differential equation c. 2
d. For a type-1 system, the steady state d. 3
error for acceleration input is infinite 6.
3. Consider the following statements with
reference to the root loci of the
characteristic equation of unity feedback
control system with an open loop transfer
function of
K ( s + 1)( s + 3)( s + 5)
G(s) = The Nyquist plot of a unity feedback
s ( s + 2) K ( s + 3)( s + 5)
1. Each locus starts at an open loop pole system having open G ( s ) =
( s − 2)( s − 4)
and ends either at an open loop zero or
loop transfer function for K = 1 is as
infinity
shown above. For the system to be stable,
2. Each locus starts at an open loop pole the range of values of K is
or infinity and ends at an open loop
a. 0 < K < 1.33
zero.
b. 0 < K < 1/1.33
3. There are three separate root loci.
c. K > 1.33
4. There are five separate root loci.
d. K > 1/1.33
Which of these statements are correct ?
7.
a. 2 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 3
2 of 15
c. Phase-lag compensation improves
steady state response and often results
in reduced rise time
d. Compensating network can be
introduced in the feedback path of a
control system
The Nyquist plot of a control system is 11. Consider the following statements with
shown above. For this system, G(s) H(s) is respect to a system represented by its state-
equal to space model
K X = AX + Bu and Y = CX
a.
s(1 + sT1 ) 1. The static vector X of the system is
K unique.
b.
s (1 + sT1 )
2 2. The Eigen values of A are the poles of
the system transfer function
K
c. 3. The minimum number of state
s (1 + sT1 )
3
variables required is equal to the
K number of independent energy storage
d.
s (1 + sT1 ) s (1 + sT1 )
2 elements in the system.
Which of these statements are correct ?
8.
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
12. The state-space representation of a system
is given by
The pole-zero map and the Nyquist plot of
⎡ −1 0 ⎤ ⎡1 ⎤ ⎡1⎤
the loop transfer function GH(s) of a X =⎢ ⎥ X + ⎢ ⎥ U and Y = ⎢ ⎥ X
feedback system are shown above. For this ⎣ 0 −2 ⎦ ⎣0⎦ ⎣1⎦
a. Both open loop and closed loop system Then the transfer function of the system is
are stable 1
a.
b. Open loop system is stable but closed s + 3s + 2
2
2.
Consider the circuit as shown above which
has a current-dependent current source.
The value V2/V1 is
3. a. 1
b. 2
1+ α
c.
2 +α
4. α
d.
2 +α
87. A certain network consists of a large
number of ideal linear resistances, one of
A B C D which is designated as R and two constant
a. 3 4 1 2 ideal sources. The power consumed by R
b. 4 3 1 2 is P1 when only the first source is active
c. 3 4 2 1 and P2 when only the second source is
d. 4 3 2 1 active. If both sources are active
84. In a network made up of linear resistors simultaneously, then the power consumed
and ideal voltage sources, values of all by R is
resistors-are doubled. Then the voltage a. P1 ± P2
across each resistor is b. P1 ± P2
a. Doubled
( )
2
b. Halved c. P1 ± P2
c. Decreases four times
( P1 ± P2 )
2
d. Not changed d.
85. 88. Torque / Weight ratio of an instrument
indicates
a. Selectivity
b. Accuracy
c. Fidelity
d. Sensitivity
The incandescent bulbs rated respectively 89. Which of the following are data
as P1 and P2 operation at a specified mains representation elements in a generalized
voltage are connected in for series across measurement system ?
the mains as shown in the above figure. 1. Analog indicator
Then the total power supplied by the mains 2. Amplifier
to the two bulbs is 3. A/D converter
P1 P2 4. Digital display
a.
P1 + P2 Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
b. P12 + P22 a. 1 and 2
c. ( P1 + P2 ) b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 4
d. P1 × P2
d. 3 and 4
86. 90. A first order instrument is characterized by
a. Time constant only
b. Static sensitivity and time constant
13 of 15
c. Static sensitivity and damping d. Two cycles of the sine wave with
coefficient clipped amplitude
d. Static sensitivity, damping coefficient 97. The difference between the indicated value
and natural frequency of oscillations and the true value of a quantity is
91. Wire-wound resistors are unsuitable for a. Gross error
use at high frequencies because b. Absolute error
a. They are likely to melt under excessive c. Dynamic error
eddy current d. Relative error
b. They exhibit unwanted inductive and 98. Vibration galvanometers, tuneable
capacitive effects amplifiers and head phones are used in
c. They create more electrical noise a. d.c. bridges
d. They consume more power b. a.c. bridges
92. Decibel scale is useful while measuring c. Both d.c. and a.c. bridges
voltages covering d. Kelvin double bridge
a. Wide frequency ratio 99. A Wien-bridge is used to measure the
b. Wide voltage ratio frequency of the input signal. However,
c. Narrow frequency range the input signal has 10% third harmonic
d. Narrow voltage range distortion. Specifically the signal is 2 sin
93. A standard resistance is made ‘Bifilar’ 400 πt + 0.2 sin 1200 πt (with t in sec.).
type of eliminate With this input the balance will
a. Stray capacitance a. Lead to a null indication and setting
b. Temperature effect will correspond to a frequency of 200
c. Inductive effect Hz
d. Skin effect b. Lead to a null indication and setting
94. Standard cell will correspond to 260 Hz
a. Will have precise and accurate c. Lead to a null indication and setting
constant voltage when current drawn will correspond to 400Hz
from it is few microamperes only d. Not lead to null indication
b. Will have precise and accurate 100. Which one of the following multi-range
constant voltage when few voltmeters has high and constant input
milliamperes are drawn from it impedance ?
c. Will continue to have constant voltage a. Permanent magnet moving coil
irrespective of loading conditions voltmeter
d. Can supply voltages up to 10 V b. Electronic voltmeter
95. For time and frequency, the working c. Moving iron voltmeter
standard is d. Dynamometer type voltmeter
a. Microwave oscillator 101. In a Q-meter measurement to determine
b. Crystal controlled oscillator the self capacitance of a coil, the first
c. Laser resonance occurred at f1 with C1 = 300 pF.
d. Arf oscillator The second resonance occurred at f2 = 2f1
with C2 = 60 pF. The self-capacitance of
96. A C.R.C. is operated with X and Y settings
coil works out to be
of 0.5 ms/cm and 100 mV/cm. The screen
of the C.R.O. is 10 cm × 8 cm (X and Y). a. 240 pF
A sine wave of frequency 200 Hz and b. 60 pF
r.m.s. amplitude of 300 mV is applied to c. 360 pF
the Y-input. The screen will show d. 20 pF
a. One cycle of the undistorted sine wave 102. A multimeter is used for the measurement
b. Two cycles of the undistorted sine of the following:
wave 1. Both a.c. and d.c. voltage
c. One cycle of the sine wave with 2. Both a.c. & d.c. voltage
clipped amplitude 3. Resistance
4. Frequency
14 of 15
5. Power C. Displacement
Select the correct answer using the codes D. Stress
given below: List II
a. 1, 2 and 4 1. Thermistor
b. 1, 2 and 5 2. Piezoelectric crystal
c. 1, 3 and 5 3. Capacitance transducer
d. 1, 2 and 3 4. Resistance strain gauge
103. Which one of the following truly 5. Ultrasonic waves
represents the output on the screen of A B C D
spectrum analyzer when an amplitude a. 1 2 5 3
modulated wave is connected to it? b. 2 1 4 3
a. Single vertical line on the screen c. 1 2 5 4
b. Two vertical lines on the screen d. 2 1 3 4
c. Three vertical lines with amplitude 109. Measurement of flow, thermal
d. Three vertical lines out of which two conductivity and liquid level using
have equal magnitude thermistors make use of
104. Three d.c. voltmeters are connected in a. Resistance decrease with temperature
series across a 120 V d.c. supply. The b. Resistance increase with temperature
voltmeters are specified as follows:
c. Self-heating phenomenon
Voltmeter A : 100 V, 5 mA d. Change of resistivity
Voltmeter B : 100 V, 250 ohms/V 110. Pair of active transducers is
Voltmeter C : 10 mA, 15,000 ohms a. Thermistor : Solar cell
The voltages read by the meters A, B and b. Thermocouple; Thermistor
C are, respectively
c. Thermocouple; Solar cell
a. 40, 50 and 30 V
d. Solar cell; LVDT
b. 40, 40 and 40 V
111. Sensitivity of LVDT is mainly due to
c. 60, 30 and 30 V
a. Magnetic shielding of the core
d. 30, 60 and 30 V
b. Permeability of the core
105. The capacitance and loss angle of a given
c. Exact cancellation of secondary
capacitor specimen are best measured by
voltages
a. Wheatstone bridge
d. Insulation used in the winding
b. Maxwell bridge
112. A strain gauge with a resistance of 250
c. Anderson bridge ohms undergoes a change of 0.150 ohm
d. Schering bridge during a test. The strain is 1.5 × 10–4. Then
106. The energy capacity of a storage battery is the gauge factor is
rated in a. 2.0
a. kwh b. 3.0
b. kw c. 4.0
c. Ampere hours d. 100 V
d. Joules 113. Integrating principle in the digital
107. The pressure coil of an induction type measurement is the conversion of
energy meter is a. Voltage to time
a. Highly resistive b. Voltage to frequency
b. Highly inductive c. Voltage to current
c. Purely resistive d. Current to voltage
d. Purely inductive 114. The correct sequence of the blocks is an
108. Match List I (Parameter) with List II analog data acquisition unit starting from
(Transducer) and select the correct answer: the input is
List I a. Transducer - Recorder Signal -
A. Pressure Conditioner
B. Temperature
15 of 15
b. Transducer - Signal - Conditioner - c. 3 4 1 2
Recorder d. 4 3 2 1
c. Signal - Conditioner - Transducer -
Recorder
d. Signal - Conditioner - Recorder -
Transducer 117.
115. Which one of the following effects in the The gain C(s) / G(s) of the signal flow
system is NOT caused by negative graph shown above is
feedback? G1G2 + G2G3
a.
a. Reduction in gain 1 + G1G2 H + G2G3 H1 + G4
b. Increase in bandwidth
G1G2 + G2G3
c. Increase in distortion b.
1 + G1G2 H1 + G2G3 H1 − G4
d. Reduction in output impedance
116. Match List I (Block Diagram) with List II G1G3 + G2G3
c.
(Transformed Block Diagram) and select 1 + G1G3 H1 + G2G3 H1 + G4
the correct answer : G1G2 + G2G3
List I d.
1 + G1G3 H1 + G2G3 H1 − G4
A.
118.
B.
C (s)
The overall gain of the block
R( s)
diagram shown above is
C. G1G2
a.
1 − G1G2 H1 H 2
G1G2
b.
D. 1 − G2 H 2 − G1G2 H1
G1G2
c.
1 − G2 H 2 + G1G2 H1 H 2
List II G1G2
1. d.
1 − G1G2 H1 − G1G2 H 2
119. The unit impulse response of a second
order system is 1/6 e–0.8t sin (0.6 t). Then
the natural frequency and damping ratio of
2. the system. are respectively
a. 1 and 0.6
b. 1 and 0.8
3. c. 2 and 0.4
d. 2 and 0.3
120. A second order control system has
100
4. M ( jω ) =
100 − ω 2 + 10 2 jω
Its Mp (Peak magnitude) is
a. 0.5
A B C D b. 1
a. 3 4 2 1
c. 2
b. 4 3 1 2
d. 2
I.E.S. (OBJ) - 2004 1 of 16
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER–I
1. What is the force experienced per unit 5. Two extensive homogenous isotropic
length by a conductor carrying 5 A current dielectrics meet on a plane z = 0. for z ≥ 0,
in positive Z direction and placed in a ε r1 = 4 and for z ≤ 0, ε r2 = 2 uniform
magnetic field B = ( 3ax + 4a y ) ? electric field exists at z ≥ 0 as E1 = 5aˆ x − 2
r r
a. 15ax + 20a y N / m aˆ y + 3aˆ z kw/m. What is the value of E2 in
r r the region z ≤ 0?
b. −20ax + 15a y N / m
r r a. 3aˆ z
c. 20ax − 15a y N / m
r r b. 5aˆ x − 2aˆ y
d. −20ax − 20a y N / m
c. 6aˆ z
2. Plane z = 10 m carries surface charge
density 20 nc/m2. What is the electric field d. aˆ x − aˆ y
at the origin?
6. What will be the reflected wave for an
a. −10aˆ z v / m elliptically polarized wave incident on the
b. −18π az v / m interface of a die-electric at the Brewester
angle?
c. −72π aˆ z v / m
a. Elliptically polarized
d. −360π aˆ z v / m b. Linearly polarized
3. Consider the following diagram: c. Right circularly, polarized
d. Left circularly polarized
7. A flat slab of dielectric, ε r = 5 is placed
normal to a uniform field with a flux
density D = 1 Coulomb/m2. The slab is
uniformly polarized. What is the
Which of the following statements is polarization P of the slab in Coulomb/m2?
correct? a. 0.8
The electric field E at a point P due to the b. 1.2
presence of dipole as shown in the above c. 4
diagram (considering distance r >>
distance d) is proportional to d. 6
a. 1/r 8. Which one of the, following gives the
approximate value of the capacitance
b. 1/r2 between two spheres, whose separation is
c. 1/r3 very much larger than their radii R?
d. 1/r4 a. 2π / ε 0 R
4. What is the value of total electric flux
coming out of a closed surface? b. 2 π ε 0 R
a. Zero c. 2 π ε 0 / R
b. Equal to volume charge density d. 4 π ε 0 / R
c. Equal to the total charge enclosed by 9. Which one of the following is the correct
the surface electromagnetic wave equation in terms of
d. Equal to the surface charge density vector potential A?
2 of 16
∂ A
2 A B C D
a. ∇ 2 A − = −J
∂t 2 a. 4 3 2 1
μ ∂2 A b. 4 1 2 3
b. ∇ 2 A − = −μ J c. 2 3 4 1
ε ∂t 2
d. 2 1 4 3
∂2 A
c. ∇ 2 A − = −μ J 13. In a lossless medium the intrinsic
∂t 2
impedance η = 60π and μr = 1 . What is
∂2 A
d. ∇ 2 A − με = −μ j the value of the dielectric constant ε r ?
∂T 2
a. 2
10. Which one of the following statements is
correct? b. 1
The wavelength of a wave propagating in a c. 4
wave guide is d. 8
a. Smaller than me free space wavelength 14. Match List I (Type of field denoted by A ).
b. Greater than the free space wavelength with List II (Behavior) and select the
c. Directly proportional to the group correct answer using the codes given
velocity. below:
d. Inversely proportional to the phase List I
velocity A. A static electric field in a charge free
11. Which one of the following statements is region
correct? B. A static electric field in a charged
For a lossless dielectric medium, the phase region
constant for a traveling wave, β is C. A steady magnetic field in a current
proportional to carrying conductor
a. ε r D. A time-varying electric field in a
charged medium with time-varying
b. ε magnetic field
c. 1/ ε r List II
1. ∇A = 0
d. 1/ ε r
∇× A ≠ 0
12. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer using the codes given 2. ∇. A ≠ 0
below: ∇× A = 0
List I 3. ∇. A ≠ 0
A. Continuity equation
∇× A ≠ 0
B. Ampere’s law
4. ∇. A = 0
C. Displacement current
∇× A = 0
D. Faraday’s law
List II A B C D
a. 4 2 3 1
∂D
1. ∇ × H = J + b. 4 2 1 3
∂t
c. 2 4 3 1
∂D
2. J = d. 2 4 1 3
∂t
15. Which one of the following statements is
∂B
3. ∇ × E = − correct?
∂t A wave guide can be considered to be
∂l analogous to a
4. ∇.J = − v
∂t a. Low pass filter
3 of 16
b. High pass filter 20. Which one of the following is the correct
c. Band pass fitter expression for the propagation constant in
d. Band stop filter a transmission line?
16. Consider the following statements about a. ( R − jω L )( G − jωC )
the effective length of a half wave dipole
(Elevation angle θ is measured from the b.
( R + jω L )
dipole axis) ( G − jωC )
1. Effective length is a function of θ .
c.
( R + jω L )
2. Effective length is maximum for
θ =π / 2. ( G + jωC )
3. Maximum effective length is larger d. ( R + jω L )( G + jωC )
than physical length.
21. On which of the following factors does the
4. Effective length is the same for the
value of critical current density in a
antenna in transmitting and receiving
superconductor depend?
modes.
a. Temperature
Which of the statements given above are
correct? b. Applied magnetic field
a. 1, 2 and 4 c. Temperature and applied magnetic
field
b. 2, 3 and 4
d. Silsbee’s rule
c. 1, 2 and 3
22. Match List I (Materials) with List Il
d. 1, 3 and 4
(Equation/rule) and select the correct
17. A lossless transmission line of length 50 answer using the codes given below:
cm with L = 10μ H / m C = 40 pF/m is
List I
operated at 30 MHz. What is its electric
A. Dielectric material
length ( β l ) ?
B. Ferromagnetic material
a. 20 λ C. Conductors
b. 0.2 λ D. Superconductor
c. 108° List II
d. 40 π 1. Debye equation
18. Which one of the following statements is 2. Curie Weiss law
correct?
3. Matthiessen’s rule
If the Fermi level ties midway between the
4. Meissner effect
conduction and valence bands, then the
semiconductors A B C D
a. Intrinsic A B C D
b. Extrinsic a. 3 4 1 2
c. p-type b. 1 4 3 2
d. n-type c. 3 2 1 4
19. Which one of the following statements is d. 1 2 3 4
correct? 23. A dielectric material has the real part of
Superconductors are popularly used for the dielectric constant ( ε r ) as 4 and its
a. Generating very strong magnetic field loss tangent is 0.004. What is the complex
b. Reducing i2R losses dielectric constant ( ε r *) represented by?
c. Generating electrostatic field a. 4 + j 0.016
d. Generating regions free from magnetic b. 4 – 0.016
field c. 4 + j 0.001
d. 4 – j 0.001
4 of 16
24. Match List I with List II and select the 2. Alnico
correct answer using the codes given 3. Perm alloy
below: 4. Ga As
List I A B C D
A. Larmon frequency a. 3 1 2 4
B. Bohr magnetron b. 1 3 2 4
C. Magnetic induction c. 3 1 4 2
D. Curie-Weiss law d. 1 3 4 2
List II 28. Which one of the following statements is
1. χ = C / (T − θ ) correct?
2. B = μ0 ( H + M ) A ferrite core has lower specific eddy
current loss compared to an iron core
3. eh / 4π m because the iron core has
4. eB/2m a. Higher electrical resistance
A B C D b. Lower electrical resistance
a. 2 1 4 3 c. Higher permeability
b. 2 3 4 1 d. Lower permeability
c. 4 1 2 3 29. In which one of the following ways can
d. 4 3 2 1 the Hall voltage across an impurity
semiconductor crystal be increased?
25. Which one of the following statements is
not correct? a. By increasing the thickness of the
crystal
a. Vacuum can act as a dielectric material
b. By increasing the concentration of
b. Piezoelectric, materials can act as
impurity atoms in the crystal
transducers
c. By increasing the width of the crystal
c. Quartz crystal is a ferroelectric
material d. By increasing the current flowing
through the crystal
d. The dielectric constant of diectrics
depends on the frequency of the 30. Which one of the following statements is
applied field correct?
26. Which one of the following is the The Hall coefficient of an intrinsic
temperature below which certain material semiconductor is
are ant ferromagnetic and above which a. Positive
they are paramagnetic? b. Negative
a. Curie temperature c. Zero
b. Neel temperature d. Infinite
c. Transition temperature 31. Consider the following circuit:
d. Weiss temperature
27. Match List I (Type of the material) with
List II (Name of the material) and select
the correct answer:
Which one of the following statements is
List I correct?
A. Ferromagnetic The circuit shown above is
B. Soft magnetic a. Passive and linear
C. Hard magnetic b. Active and linear
D. Semiconductor c. Passive and non-linear
List II d. Active and non-linear
1. Rochelle salt 32. Consider the following circuit:
5 of 16
a. 3A, 40Ω
b. 4A, 24Ω
c. 1A,60Ω
d. 2A,100Ω
In the above circuit, when
Vs = 3V , I = 4 A , what is the value of I 37. Consider the following circuit:
when Vs = 12V?
a. 5 A
b. 10 A
c. 15 A
d. 20 A What is the value of current I in the above
circuit?
33. Three parallel resistive branches are
connected across a. d.c. supply. What will a. 1 A
be the ratio of the branch currents I1:I2:I3 b. 2 A
if the branch resistances are in the ratio c. 3 A
R1 : R2 :R3::2:4:6? d. 4 A
a. 3 :.2 : 6 38. Consider the following circuit:
b. 2:4:6
c. 6:3:2
d. 6:2:4
34. Consider the following circuit:
What should be the value of resistance R,
in the above circuit if it has to absorb the
maximum power from the source?
a. 8/3 ohms
What is the value of current I in the 5Ω b. 3/8 ohms
resistor in the above circuit?
c. 4 ohms
a. 0A
d. 8 ohms
b. 2A
39. The transfer function of a system
c. 3A
V (s) s
d. 4A Z (s) = = . The system is at rest
35. A voltage source having an internal I (s) s + 3
impedance of 8 + j6 ohms supplies power for the t < 0.
to a resistive load. What should be the load What will be the value of v(t) for t ≥ 0, if
resistance for maximum power transferred i(t) = 3u(t) , where u(t) is a unit step?
to it?
a. e − t
a. 8 ohms
b. 2e−3t
b. 6 ohms
c. 10 ohms c. 3e−3t
d. 10 ohms d. 4e − t
40. Consider the following circuit:
36. Consider the circuits A and B given below:
d.
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER–I
1. A set of independent current b. Co-axial copper cables transmission
measurements taken by four observers was system
recorded as: 117.02 mA, 117.11 mA, c. Fibre-optic data transmission system
117.08 mA and 117.03 mA. What is the d. Synchro-position repeater system
range of error?
6. Why are dummy strain gauges employed?
a. ± 0045
a. For calibration of strain gauges
b. ± 0054
b. For increasing the sensitivity of the
c. ± 0065 bridge
d. ± 0056 c. For compensation of temperature
2. The reference voltage and the input variations
voltage are sequentially connected to the d. For neutralizing the influence of bridge
integrator with the help of a switch in a voltage supply variations
a. Successive approximation A/D 7. Match List I (Type of DVM) with List II
converter (Sub-component in ADC) and select the
b. Dual slope integration A/D converter correct answer using the codes given
c. Voltage to time converter below the lists:
d. Voltage to frequency converter List I
3. A single channel digital storage A. Ramp type
oscilloscope uses a 12 bit, 108 samples/s B. Dual-slope
ADC. For a 10 kHz sine wave input, what C. Servo-type
is the number of samples taken per cycle
of input? D. Successive approximation
a. 1012 List II
b. 108 1. DAC
c. 104 2. Voltage to time converter
d. 102 3. Pulse-generator
4. Consider the signal: 4. Potentiometer
Vm sin 100t + 2 Vm sin 200t 5. Capacitor
to be sampled and stored in a data Codes;
acquisition system. The same is to be A B C D
extracted off-line later on. In order to a. 2 1 4 5
extract the signal effectively, the original b. 4 5 3 1
sampling frequency has to be c. 2 5 4 1
a. 100 rad/s d. 4 1 3 5
b. 200 rad/s 8. In modern electronic multi meter a FET or
c. 210 rad/s MOSFET is preferred over BJT because
d. 1002 + 2002 rad/s a. Its input resistance is low
5. Which one of the following transmission b. Its input resistance is high
systems for telemetry has largest c. Its input resistance is high and does not
bandwidth? vary with the change of range
a. FM/FM radio transmission system d. It is cheaper
2 of 16
9. Which of the following bridges can be List I
used for inductance measurement? A. Phosphor-bronze
1. Maxwell’s bridge 2. Schering bridge B. Manganin
2. Wein bridge 4. Hay’s bridge C. Aluminium
3. Wheatstone bridge D. Eureka
Select the correct answer using the codes List II
given below 1. Coils
a. 1 and 2 2. Discs
b. 2 and 3 3. Control Springs
c. 3, 4 and 5 4. Shunts
d. 1 and 4 5. Multipliers
10. Match List I (Frequency) with List II Codes;
(Detector) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists A B C D
List I a. 3 5 2 4
A. Zero frequency b. 2 4 1 5
B. 50 Hz c. 3 4 2 5
C. 1200 Hz d. 2 5 1 4
D. 10 kHz 13. Match List I (type of Electronic
Voltmeter) with List II (Major
List II Characteristic) and select the correct
1. Head phone answer using the code given below the
2. D’Arsonval galvanometer lists:
3. Cathode ray oscilloscope List I
4. Vibration galvanometer A. Amplifier-rectifier
5. Ballistic galvanometer B. Rectifier-amplifier
Codes; C. True R.M.S.
A B C D D. Logarithmic
a. 2 1 5 3 List II
b. 3 4 1 2 1. Wide input-signal dynamic range
c. 2 4 1 3 2. High sensivity, limited bandwidth
d. 3 1 5 2 3. Limited sensivity, large bandwidth
11. Which of the following factors decide the 4. Capability to read non-sinusoidal ac
accuracy in a bridge measurement? Codes;
1. Accuracy of the null indicator A B C D
2. Accuracy of the bridge components. a. 4 1 2 3
3. Sensitivity of the null indicator. b. 2 3 4 1
4. Applied voltage to the bridge system. c. 4 3 2 1
Select the correct answer using the code d. 2 1 4 3
given below 14. What is the effect of inductance in the
a. 1 and 2 pressure coil on performance of a
b. 2 and 3 dynamometer type wattmeter?
c. 3 and 4 a. It reads low on lagging power factor
d. 1 and 3 and high on leading power factor
12. Match List I (Material Used in b. It reads high on lagging power factor
Instruments) with List II (Purpose) and and low on leading power factor
select the correct answer using the code c. Its reading is not affected at all
given below the lists: d. It always reads low
3 of 16
15. To measure 5 volts, if one selects a 0 - 100 the correct answer using the code given
volt range voltmeter which is accurate below the Lists
within ± 1%, then the error in this List I
measurement may be up to A. Does not intersect the negative real
a. ± 1.5% axis
b. ± 2.5% B. Intersects the negative real axis
c. ± 7.5% between 0 and (-1, jo)
d. ± 20% C. Passes through (-1, jo)
16. Consider the following statements with D. Encloses (-1, jo)
regard to the bandwidth of a closed-loop List II
system: 1. > 0
1. In systems where the low frequency
2. ∞
magnitude is 0 dB h the Bode diagram,
the bandwidth is measured at the -3dB 3. < 0
frequency. 4. 0
2. The bandwidth of the closed loop Codes;
control system is a measurement of the A B C D
range of fidelity of response of the a. 2 4 1 3
system.
b. 3 1 4 2
3. The speed of response to a step input is
c. 2 1 4 3
proportional to the bandwidth.
d. 3 4 1 2
4. The system with the larger bandwidth
provides slower step response and 19. Which one of the following is the steady
lower fidelity ramp response. state error of a control system with step
error, ramp error and parabolic error
Which of the statements given above are
constants kp, kv and ka respectively for the
correct?
input (1 - t2) μ(t)?
a. 1, 2 and 3
3 3
b. 1, 2 and 4 a. −
1 + k p 2k a
c. 1, 3 and 4
3 6
d. 2, 3 and 4 b. +
17. Consider the following statements: 1 + k p 2k a
A first order system with a proportional 3 3
c. −
controller exhibits an offset to a step input. 1 + k p 2k a
In order to reduce the offset, it is necessary
to 3 6
d. −
1. Increase the gain of proportional 1 + k p 2k a
controller. 20.
2. Add a derivative mode.
3. Add an -integral mode.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 What is the overall transfer function of the
c. 2 and 3 block diagram given above?
d. 1 and 3 G1G2 + G2G3
a.
18. Match List I (Nyquist Plot of Loop 1 + G2 H1
Transfer Function of a Control System) G1G2 + G2G3
with List II (Gain Margin in dB) and select b.
1 + G3 H1
4 of 16
c. G1G2 + G2G3 c. A is unstable limit cycle but B is stable
G1G3 + G2G3 d. Both A and B are unstable
d. 25. Match List I (Specifications of Voltages to
1 + G2G3 H1
be Measured) with List II (Type of Most
21. Suitable Instruments) and select the correct
answer using the code given below the
Lists:
List I
A. 0 - 10 mV from a source of internal
resistance of 1. MΩ
B. Thermo-emf ranging up to 5 mV from
For which of the following values of k, the
a thermocouple
feedback system shown in the above figure
is stable? C. Supply voltage of 230 V, 50Hz
a. k > 0 D. R.M.S. value of a voltage containing
dc and ripples of 50 Hz and harmonic
b. k < 0
List II
c. 0 < k < 42
1. Thermal
d. 0 < k < 60
2. Moving Iron
22. If the rotor axis of synchro transmitter is
along the axis of S2 stator winding, when 3. Permanent magnet moving coil
will be the electrical zeroing? 4. Electronic
a. VS1VS2 is maximum 5. Ballistic galvanometer
Codes;
b. VS2VS3 is maximum
A B C D
c. VS2VS3 is minimum a. 2 3 5 1
d. VS3VS1 is minimum b. 4 1 2 3
c. 2 1 5 3
23. The constant M-circles corresponding to
the magnitude (M) of the closed loop d. 4 3 2 1
transfer function of a linear system for 26. What are the order and type of close-loop
values of M greater than one lie in the G- system for the plant transfer
plane and to the k
function G ( s ) = 2 and with unity
a. Right of the M = 1 line s (1 + Ts )
b. Left of the M = l line feedback?
c. Upper side of the M = ± j1 line a. Two and two
d. Lower side of the M – j1 line b. Three and two
24. c. Two and zero
d. Three and zero
27. The open loop transfer function of a unity
feedback control system is given by
k
G (s) = . If gain k is increased to
s ( s + 1)
infinity, then damping ratio will tend to
become
a. Zero
Which one of the following is correct in
b. 0.707
respect of the figure given above?
c. Unity
a. A and B are stable limit cycles
d. Infinite
b. A is stable limit cycle but B is unstable
5 of 16
28. The characteristic equation of a control Which of the statements given above are
system is given by s(s + 4)(s2 + 2s + s) + k correct?
(s + 1) = 0 a. 1 and 4
What are the angles of the asymptotes for b. 1 and 3
the root loci for k ≥ 0? c. 2 and 3
a. 60°, 180°, 300° d. 2 and 4
b. 0°, 180°, 300° 32. Match List I (Name of the Control System
c. 120°, 180°, 240° Component) with List II (Use of the
d. 0°, 120°, 240° Component in Control System) and select
29. Encirclement of origin of 1 + G(s) plane the correct answer using the code given
corresponds to encirclement of a point in below:
the -1 + G(s) plane, given by List I
a. 1 + j0 A. Amplidyne
b. 0 + j0 B. Potentiometer
c. - 2 + j0 C. Stepper motor
d. - 1 + j0 D. AC tacho-generator
30. Consider the following statements List II
regarding compensators used in control 1. Feedback element
systems 2. Actuator
1. For type-2 or higher systems, lag 3. Control Amplifier
compensator is universally used to
4. Error detector
overcome the undesirable oscillatory
transient response. Codes;
2. In case of lag-lead compensator, a lag A B C D
and a lead compensator are basically a. 3 1 2 4
connected in parallel. b. 2 4 3 1
3. The S-plane representation of the lead c. 3 4 2 1
compensator has a zero closer to the d. 2 1 3 4
origin than the pole.
33. The maximum temperature rise of a
4. A lag compensator improves the steady transformer is 50°C. It attains a
state behaviour of a system while temperature 31.6° in 1/2 hour. What is its
nearly maintaining its transient thermal time constant?
response.
a. 2 hours
Which of the statements given above are
b. 1/2 hour
correct?
c. 1 hour
a. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1/4 hour
b. 2, 3 and,4
34. The state equations of a system are given
c. 1 and 2
by
d. 3 and 4
⎡ −3 1 0 ⎤ ⎡0 ⎤
31. The open loop transfer function of a
feedback system has m poles and n zeros x& = ⎢ 0 −3 0 ⎥ x + ⎢⎢ 0 ⎥⎥ u
⎢ ⎥
(m > n). ⎢⎣ 0 0 −1⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 0 ⎥⎦
Consider the following statements:
y = [1 0 1] x
1. The number of separate root loci is m.
2. The number of separate root loci is n. The system is
3. The number of root loci approaching a. Controllable and observable
infinity is (m - n). b. Controllable but not completely
4. The number of root loci approaching observable
infinity is (m + n).
6 of 16
c. Neither controllable nor completely 1. The natural frequency of the response
observable is 6 rad/s.
d. Not completely controllable but 2. The response is always oscillatory.
observable 3. The percentage overshoot is 10% and
35. In a speed control system, output rate damping ratio of the system is 0.6.
feedback is used to 4. Both system time constant and settling
a. Limit the speed of motor time are infinite.
b. Limit the acceleration of the motor Which of the statements given above are
c. Reduce the damping of the system correct?
d. Increase the gain margin a. 1 and 3
36. Consider the following equation: b. 2 and 4
2s4 + s3 + 3s2 + 5s + 10 = 0 c. 1, 2 and 3
How many roots does this equation have in d. 2, 3 and 4
the right half of s-plane? 39. Match List I (Original Diagram) with List
a. One II (Equivalent Diagram) and select the
b. Two correct answer using the code given below
the Lists
c. Three
List I
d. Four
A.
37. Match List I (System) with List II
(Transfer Function) and select the correct
answer using the code given below:
List I
A. Lag Network B.
B. AC Servomotor
C. Field Controller dc servomotor
D. Tacho-generator
List II C.
⎛ 1 + aTs ⎞
1. K ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 1 + Ts ⎠
2. K1S D.
K
3.
s (1 + sτ m ) (1 + sτ f )
K
4.
s (1 + sτ m ) List II
1.
Codes;
A B C D
a. 2 3 1 4
b. 1 4 3 2
2.
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 1 2 3 4
d2y
38. 4 + 36 y = 36 x
dt 2
3.
Consider the following statements in
connection with the differential equation
given above
7 of 16
state at a temperature less than the
transition temperature is
a. Zero
4. b. Greater than the critical field
corresponding to the given temperature
c. Less than the critical field
corresponding to the given temperature
d. Equal to the critical field
Codes; corresponding to the transition
A B C D temperature
a. 3 1 4 2 45. Match List I (Response) with List II
(Parameter) and select the correct answer
b. 2 4 1 3
using the codes given below the Lists:
c. 3 4 1 2
List I
d. 2 1 4 3
A. Swiftness of transient response
40. A 12 bit A/D converter has a range 0 - 10
B. Closeness of the response to the
V. What is the approximate resolution of
desired response
the converter?
C. Reduction of steady state error
a. 1 mV
D. Number of integrators in loop transfer
b. 2.5 mV
function
c. 2.5 μV
List II
d. 12 mV
1. Feedback control
41. Pulse code modulation is commonly used
2. Type number
in telemetry because
3. Rise time and peak time
a. It ensures immunity from noise during
transmission 4. Overshoot and settling time
b. The bandwidth requirement of the Codes;
channel is reduced A B C D
c. It removes quantization error a. 3 4 1 2
d. It permits lower rate of sampling than b. 2 1 4 3
what is normally required under c. 3 1 4 2
Shanon’s theorem d. 2 4 1 3
42. A uniform plane wave has a wavelength of 46. Consider the following statements
2 cm in free space and 1 cm in a perfect regarding magnetic materials:
dielectric. What is the relative permittivity
1. Relative permeability of water is
of the dielectric?
0.99999 and that of oxygen is 1.00002;
a. 2.0 hence water is dia-magnetic and
b. 0.5 oxygen is para-magnetic material.
c. 4.0 2. Ferrimagnetic material has no eddy
d. 0.25 current loss.
43. What are the materials which exhibit 3. Permalloy and Alnico are two
electric polarization even in the absence of examples of hard magnetic materials.
an applied electric field called? 4. The magnetisation and applied electric
a. Ferromagnetic field in ferromagnetic materials are
b. Paramagnetic related non-linearly.
c. Ferroelectric Which of the statements given above are
correct?
d. Anti-ferroelectric
a. 1, 2 and 3
44. The magnetic field at which a super-
conductor remains in its superconducting b. 2, 3 and 4
8 of 16
c. 1, 3 and 4 d. Alnico
d. 1, 2 and 4 52. In metals, resistivity is composed of two
47. The systeresis loop for the material of the parts: one part is characteristic of the
core of a transformer should be particular substance. The other part is due
a. Short and narrow to
b. Tall and narrow a. Applied voltage
c. Short and wide b. Crystal imperfections
d. Tall and wide. c. Applied magnetic field
48. All magnetic materials lose their magnetic d. Supplied thermal energy
properties when 53. Fermi level in a p-type semiconductor lies
a. Cooled to low temperature close to
b. Heated to high temperature a. The top of the valence band
c. Kept in an aluminium box b. The bottom of the valence band
d. Kept in vacuum c. The top of the conduction band
49. The electrical conductivity of a d. The bottom of the conduction band
semiconductor increases with increase in 54. Above the Curie temperature, Ferro-
temperature because magnetic materials behave like
a. The mobility of the carriers increases a. Paramagnetic
b. The carrier concentration increases b. Diamagnetic
c. Both carrier concentration and c. Anti-ferromagnetic
mobility increase d. Ferromagnetic
d. Thermal energy of electrons increases 55. Match List I with List II and select the
50. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given
correct answer using the code given below below the Lists:
the Lists: List I
List I A. Breakaway point
A. Non-linear system B. Phase margin
B. Linear system C. Gain margin
C. Time varying system D. Second order system
D. Multiplication in S-domain List II
List II 1. Stable
1. Principle of superposition and 2. Phase cross-over frequency
homogeneity and homogeneity 3. Gain cross-over frequency
2. Describing function 4. Root locus
3. Convolution integral Codes;
4. Rocket A B C D
Codes; a. 4 3 2 1
A B C D b. 4 3 1 2
a. 1 2 3 4 c. 3 4 2 1
b. 2 1 4 3 d. 3 4 1 2
c. 2 1 3 4 56. In an analog data acquisition unit, what is
d. 1 2 4 3 correct sequence of the blocks starting
51. Which one of the following is not a from the input?
permanent magnetic material? a. Transducer — Recorder — Sgna1
a. Chromium steel conditioner
b. Silicon iron b. Transducer — Signal conditioner —
c. Cobalt steel Recorder
9 of 16
c. Signal conditioner — Transducer — 61. Chopper stabilized d.c. amplifier type
Recorder electronic voltmeter overcomes the effect
d. Signal conditioner — Recorder — of
Transducer a. Amplifier CMRR
57. Thermistors are essentially semiconductors b. Amplifier sensitivity
a. Well suited to precision measurement c. Amplifier drift
of temperature d. Electromagnetic interference
b. Widely used in the lower temperature 62. Which of the following measurements can
range of -100°C to 300°C be made using Lissajous figures?
c. Which behave as resistors with a high 1. Frequency
negative temperature coefficient of 2. Phase difference
resistance
3. Time interval between pulses
d. All of the above
4. Pulse width
58. Which one of the following frequency
meter is suitable for measuring radio 5. Fundamental and higher harmonic
frequency? components.
a. Vibrating reed frequency meter Select the correct answer using the code
given below
b. Weston frequency meter
a. 1 and 2
c. Electrical resonance frequency meter
b. 2 and 3
d. Hetrodyne frequency meter
c. 3 and 4
59. Which one of the following digital
voltmeters is most suitable to eliminate the d. 4 and 5
effect of period noise? 63. Wagner Earth devices in AC bridge
a. Ramp type digital voltmeter circuits are used for
b. Integrating type digital voltmeter a. Shielding all the bridge elements from
external magnetic field
c. Successive approximation type digital
voltmeter b. Eliminating the effect of stray
capacitance
d. Servo type digital voltmeter
c. Minimizing the effect of inter-
60. Match List I with List II and select the component capacitance
correct answer using the code given below
the Lists: d. Eliminating all the node to earth
capacitances
List I
64. Which one of the following defects is
A. imaginary axis of S-plane responsible for creeping in an induction
B. Oscillatory time domain response type energy meter?
C. Over damped time response a. Imperfect lag compensation
D. Poles at origin of S-plane b. Over friction compensation
List II c. Imperfect overload compensation
1. Imaginary axis poles and S-plane d. Misalignment of brake magnet
2. Type of the system 65.
3. Unit circle of Z-plane
4. Poles on real axis of S-plane
Codes;
A B C D
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 1 3 2 4 In the circuit given above, the steady state
c. 3 1 4 2 is attained with S open. S is closed at t = 0.
d. 3 4 1 2 What is the value of current I at t = 0+?
a. 2 A
10 of 16
b. 2.25 A d. 2 A
c. 3 A 69.
d. 4 A
66.
Z2 ( s ) =
( s + 2 )( s + 6 ) load consumes P watt of power from a
( s + 4) balanced supply. If the same load is
connected in star to the same Supply, then
Z3 ( s ) =
( s + 4) what is the power consumption?
( s + 2) a. P/3
b. P
Z4 ( s ) =
( s + 2)
( s + 1)( s + 3) c. 3 /P
d. 3P
a. Z1 ( s )
77. A network has a zero at S = -1 and poles at
b. Z 2 ( s ) S = - 4 ± j1, the multiplier being unity. If
the input is α unit step function, then what
c. Z 3 ( s ) is the steady state response?
d. Z 4 ( s ) a. 2∠0°
74. b. 1∠-45°
c. 3∠90°
d. 0.5∠0°
78.
one of the following figures shows the dielectric constant of the medium?
pole-zero pattern of I(s)?
a. 30
a.
b. 10
c. 9
d. 3
92. In the wave equation
b. ur ur
ur ∂2 E ∂E
∇ E = μ ∈ 2 + μσ
2
∂t ∂t
Which term is responsible for attenuation
of the wave?
ur
a. ∇ 2 E
ur
c. ∂2 E
b. μ ∈ 2
∂t
ur
∂E
c. μσ
∂t
14 of 16
d. All of the above three 100.
93. Metallic copper is a
a. Paramagnetic substance
b. Diamagnetic substance
c. Ferromagnetic substance
d. Ferromagnetic substance
94. The magnetic field required to reduce the
residual magnetisation to zero is called
a. Retentivity
→
b. Coercivity What is the value of the integral ∫c
dl
c. Hysteresis along the curve c (c) is the curve ABCD in
d. Saturation magnetisation the direction of the arrow)?
95. Bohr magneton is unit of a. 2 R ( aˆ x + aˆ y ) / 2
a. Magnetic energy
b. Permanent dipole moment due to spin b. −2 R ( aˆ x + aˆ y ) / 2
c. Polarisability c. 2 Raˆ x
d. Hysteresis loss d. −2 Raˆ y
96. Magnetostriction is a phenomenon of
101. Consider the following statements:
a. Generation of electricity in ferro-
magnetic materials 1. Poisson’s equation finds application in
vacuum tube and gaseous discharge
b. Generation of magnetism in
problems.
conductors
2. Gauss’s law is useful for determining
c. Change in permeability of ferro-
field and potential distribution about
magnetic materials during
bodies having unsymmetrical
magnetisation
geometry.
d. Change in physical dimensions of
3. For the propagation of electro-
ferromagnetic materials during
magnetic waves, the time varying
magnetisation
electric fields must support time
97. Superconductivity is destroyed varying magnetic fields.
a. At high temperature 4. The unit of Poynting’s vector is W/m2.
b. At high magnetic field Which of the statements given above are
c. In presence of magnetic impurities correct?
d. In all the above cases a. l, 2 and 3
98. Hall Effect can be used b. 1, 3 and 4
a. To find type of semiconductor c. 2, 3 and 4
(whether p or n type) d. 1, 2 and 4
b. To find carrier concentration 102. If the electric field established by three
c. To measure conductivity point
ur charges Q, 2Qurand 3Q exerts a force
d. All of the above 3 F on 3Q and 2 F on 2Q, then what is
99. For electrostatic fields in charge free the force exerted on the point charge Q?
ur
atmosphere, which one of the following is a. F
correct? ur
ur ur b. - F
a. ∇ × E = 0 and ∇.E = 0 ur
ur ur c. 5 F
b. ∇ × E ≠ 0 and ∇.E = 0 ur
ur ur d. -5 F
c. ∇ × E = 0 and ∇.E ≠ 0
ur ur
d. ∇ × E ≠ 0 and ∇.E ≠ 0
15 of 16
103. Which one of the following is not the valid a. ∇ 2V = − ρ / ∈
expression for magneto static field
ur b. ∇. (∈ ∇V ) = − ρ
vector B ?
ur ur
a. B = ∇. A c. ∇.∇ (∈ V ) = − ρ
ur ur
b. B = ∇ × A d. ∇ 2V = − ρ / ∈
ur
c. ∇.B = 0 109. The open circuit and short circuit
ur ur impedances of a line are 100 Ω each. What
d. ∇ × B = μ0 J
is the characteristic impedance of the line ?
104. What is the value of standing wave Ratio a. 100 2 Ω
(SWR) in free space for transmission
coefficient Γ = −1/ 3 ? b. 100 Ω
a. 2/3 c. 100/ 2 Ω
b. 0.5 d. 50 Ω
c. 4.0 110. A load impedance of (75 - j50) is
d. 2.0 connected to a transmission line of
105. What is the phase velocity of plane wave characteristic impedance Z0 = 75Ω. The
in a good conductor? best method of matching comprises
a. A short circuit stub at load
a. π f μσ
b. A short circuit stub at some specific
π fσ distance from load
b.
( μσ ) c. An open stub at load
d. Two short circuited stubs at specific
πf distances from load
c.
( μσ ) 111. When a lossless transmission line is
terminated by a resistance equal to surge
πf
d. 2 impedance, then what is value of the
( μσ ) reflection coefficient?
106. What is the attenuation constant α for a. 1
distortion less transmission line? b. -1
a. α = 0 c. 0
C d. 0.5
b. α = R 112. The instantaneous electric field of a plane
L
wave propagating in z-direction is
L
c. α = R E ( t ) = ⎡⎣ aˆ x E1 cos ωt − aˆ y E2 sin ωt ⎤⎦ e − jkz
C
This wave is
RL
d. α = a. Linearly polarized
C
b. Elliptically polarized
107. A 50 Ω distortion less transmission line
c. Right hand circularly polarized
has a capacitance of 10-10 f/m. What is the
inductance per meter? d. Left hand circularly polarized
a. 0.25 μH 113. Assertion (A): For a lossy transmission
line, the voltage standing wave ratio
b. 500 μH (VSWR) is higher near the load end than
c. 5000 μH that near the source end.
d. 50 μH Reason (R): In the presence of losses, the
108. Which one of the following is the propagation constant of the line becomes a
Poisson’s equation for a linear and complex quantity.
isotropic but inhomogeneous medium? a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
16 of 16
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the a. Both A and R are individually true and
correct explanation of A R is the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
d. A is false but R is true correct explanation of A
114. Assertion (A): The flux densities used in c. A is true but R is false
PMMC instruments vary from 0.1T to d. A is false but R is true
1.0T. 118. Assertion (A): For a control system having
Reason (R): The power requirement for synchro pair as error detector dc amplifier
PMMC movement to give full scale as control amplifier, a phase sensitive
deflection is small ranging from 25μW to detector is required to demodulate in place
200 μW. of ordinary diode detector.
a. Both A and R are individually true and Reason (R): Synchro output is a
R is the correct explanation of A suppressed carrier amplitude modulated
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the signal which cannot be demodulated by
correct explanation of A ordinary diode detector.
c. A is true but R is false a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
115. Assertion (A): The variation in gain of the
correct explanation of A
system does not alter the phase angle plot
in the Bode diagram. c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R): The phase margin of the d. A is false but R is true
system is not affected by the variation in 119. Assertion (A): Skin depth is the depth by
gain of the system. which electromagnetic wave has been
a. Both A and R are individually true and increased to 37% of its original value.
R is the correct explanation of A Reason (R): The depth of penetration of
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the wave in a lossy dielectric increases with
correct explanation of A increasing wavelength.
c. A is true but R is false a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
116. Assertion (A): Signal flow graphs can be
correct explanation of A
used for block diagram reduction of linear
control system. c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R): Signal flow graph is a d. A is false but R is true
graphical representation for the variables 120. Assertion (A): An insulator has a high
representing the outputs of the various value of resistivity, and with increasing
blocks of the control system. temperature the value of its resistivity
a. Both A and R are individually true and decreases exponentially.
R is the correct explanation of A Reason (R): With increasing temperature,
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the the value of the energy band gap
correct explanation of A decreases.
c. A is true but R is false a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
117. Assertion (A): The PMMC type of
correct explanation of A
indicating instruments are always critically
damped. c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R): A critically damped system d. A is false but R is true
directly moves to its steady state without
oscillation.
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2006 1 of 15
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-I
1. For a line of characteristic impedance Z0 6. With increase ‘in temperature, magnetic
terminated in a load of ZR such that ZR = susceptibility of a ferromagnetic material
Z0/ 3, what is the reflection coefficient will
ΓL? a. increase
a. 1/3 b. decrease
b. —1/3 c. increase, initially and then decrease
c. 2/3 d. remain constant
d. —1/2 7. Match List-I with List-II and select the
2. A transmission line has R, L. G, C correct answer using the code given below
distributed parameters per unit length of the Lists :
line. If γ is the propagation constant of the List-I
line, which one of the following A. No eddy current loss
expressions represents the characteristic B. Small hysteresis loss
impedance of the line? C. Large hysteresis loss
γ List - II
a.
R + jω L 1. Ferrimagnetic material
R + jω L 2. Soft magnetic material
b. 3. Hard magnetic material
γ
4. Non-ferrous material
G + jωC
c. A B C
γ a. 2 1 3
G + jωC b. 2 3 4
d.
R + jω L c. 1 3 4
3. Impedance inversion may be obtained with d. 1 2 3
a. a short-circuited stub 8. What is the packing fraction of a BCC
b. an open-circuited stub (body-centered cubic) unit cell?
c. a quarter-wave line 3π
a.
d. a half-wave line 16
4. When the temperature of a magnetic 3π
material is raised above the Curie point, it b.
8
becomes
a. diamagnetic 3π
c.
b. paramagnetic 12
c. ferromagnetic 2π
d.
d. ferrimagnetic 8
5. Soft iron is used in the manufacture of 9. The relative dielectric constant of solid
electromagnets because of its dielectrics in the alternating field is
a. high saturation magnetisation only a. maximum at the power frequencies and
b. low retentivity only decreases to unity at frequencies in the
c. low coercive field only ultraviolet range
d. high saturation magnetisation, low b. maximum at the power frequencies and
retentivity and low coercive field decreases to zero at frequencies in the
ultraviolet range
2 of 15
c. unity at the power frequencies and b. Both A and R are individually true but
increases to its maximum value at R is not the correct explanation of A
frequencies in the ultraviolet range c. A is true but R is false
d. independent of frequency variations d. A is false but R is true
10. Width of energy bands depends on which 16. Assertion (A) : The rotating disc in an
of the following? energy meter is made up of a magnetic
a. Temperature material.
b. Pressure Reason (R) : Braking takes place due to
c. Relative freedom of electrons in the eddy current generated by the braking
crystal magnet.
d. Mass of atom in the material a. Both A and R are individually true and
11. Which one of the following statements is R is the correct explanation of A
not true for a p-type semiconductor ? b. Both A and R are individually true but
a. Conduction is by the movement of R is not the correct explanation of A
holes in the valence band c. A is true but R is false
b. Holes constitute the majority charge d. A is false but R is true
carriers 17. Assertion (A) : A p-type GaAs sample can
c. Fermi level lies closer to the be converted to a semi-insulating substrate
conduction band between the by doping it with chromium.
conduction and valence bands Reason (R) : Chromium increases the band
d. It is formed by adding an acceptor gap of GaAs.
impurity to germanium a. Both A and R are individually true and
12. Principle of Hall effect is used in the R is the correct explanation of A
construction of which one of the b. Both A and R are individually true but
following? R is not the correct explanation of A
a. Ammeter c. A is true but R is false
b. Voltmeter d. A is false but R is true
c. Galvanometer 18. Assertion (A) : DC servomotors are more
d. Gaussmeter commonly used in armature controlled
13. For which one of the following materials, mode instead of in field controlled mode.
is the Hall coefficient zero ? Reason (R) : Armature controlled DC
a. Metal motors have higher starting torque than
b. Insulator field controlled motors.
c. Intrinsic semiconductor a. Both A and R are individually true and
d. Alloy R is the correct explanation of A
14. What is the magnetic, susceptibility χ of b. Both A and R are individually true but
an ideal superconductor ? R is not the correct explanation of A
a. 1 c. A is true but R is false
b. –1 d. A is false but R is true
c. 0 19. Assertion (A) : General purpose
dynamometer type Wattmeter cannot
d. Infinite
indicate the correct value of power at low
15. Assertion (A) : It is always desirable to
power factors.
take the reading of an indicating
instrument very close to the full - scale Reason (R) : The presence of self-
reading. inductance in the pressure coil circuit
introduces an error in the indicated value
Reason (R) : Accuracy of an indicating
which increases appreciably with decrease
instrument is maximum at the full-scale
in power factor.
deflection and error increases as reading
comes closer to the beginning of the scale. a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
3 of 15
c. A is true but R is false c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true d. A is false but R is true
20. Assertion (A) : With lag-lead 24. A rectifier instrument is used to measure
compensation, the bandwidth of the an alternating square wave, of amplitude
system is not affected much. 100 V. What is the meter reading?
Reason (R) : The effect of lag and lead a. 100 V
compensations at high frequencies cancel b. 70.7 V
one another. c. 111
a. Both A and R are individually true and d. None of the above
R is the correct explanation of A 25. For defining the standard metre,
b. Both A and R are individually true but wavelength of which material is
R is not the correct explanation of A considered?
c. A is true but R is false a. Neon
d. A is false but R is true b. Krypton
21. Assertion (A) : For a stable feedback c. Helium
control system, the zeros of the d. Xenon
characteristic equation must all be located 26. Consider the following statements in
in the left-half of the s-plane. connection with feedback in control
Reason (R) : The poles of the closed-loop system:
transfer function are the zeros of the 1. With an increase in forward gain, the
characteristic equation. output value approaches the input
a. Both A and R are individually true and value in the case of negative feedback
R is the correct explanation of A closed-loop system.
b. Both A and R are individually true but 2. A negative feedback closed loop
R is not the correct explanation of A system when subjected to an input of 5
c. A is true but R is false V with forward gain of 1 and a
d. A is false but R is true feedback gain of 1 gives output 4.999
22. Assertion (A) : All the systems which V.
exhibit overshoot in transient response will 3. The transfer function is dependent only
also exhibit resonance peak in frequency upon its internal structure and
response. components, and is independent of the
Reason (R) : Large resonance peak in input applied to the system.
frequency response corresponds to a large 4. The overall gain of the block diagram
overshoot in transient response. shown is 10.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but Which of the statements given above are
R is not the correct explanation of A correct ?
c. A is true but R is false a. Only 1 and 2
d. A is false but R is true b. Only 2 and 3
23. Assertion (A) : Superconductivity of a c. Only 3 and 4
superconducting material can be destroyed d. Only 1 and 3
by application of an external magnetic 27. For a discrete-time system to be stable, all
field. the poles of the Z-transfer function should
Reason (R) : If the applied magnetic field lie
is greater than the critical magnetic field at a. within a circle of unit radius
a given temperature which is more than the b. outside the circle of unit radius
transition temperature, superconductivity c. on left-half of Z-plane
can be destroyed.
d. on right-half of Z-plane
a. Both A and R are individually true and
28.
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
4 of 15
c. 2 1 5 3
d. 4 3 2 1
1
33. What is the range for a 3 digital meter?
2
In the network shown above, what is the
a. 0 to 1999
current I in the direction shown ?
b. 0 to 1500
a. 0
c. 0 to 999
b. 1/3 A
d. 0 to 19999
c. 5/6 A
34.
d. 4 A
29. With increase in applied frequency, the
dielectric loss, in a material will
a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain constant Which one of the following is represented
d. become zero by the circuit shown above?
30. Consider the network function : a. DeSauty bridge
2( s + 3) b. Anderson bridge
H ( s) = c. Heaviside-Campbell bridge
( s + 2)( s + 4)
d. Hay bridge
What is the steady-state response due to a
35. What should be the main characteristic(s)
unit step input?
of the null detector in a bridge
a. 4/3
measurement?
b. 1/2
1. Accuracy
c. 3/4
2. Precision
d. 1
3. Sensitivity
31. What is the effect of phase lead
4. Resolution
compensator on gain crossover frequency
Select the correct answer using the code
(ωcg) and on the bandwidth (ωb) ?
given below :
a. Both are increased
a. Only 1 and 2
b. ωcg is increased but ωb is decreased b. Only 2 and 3
c. ωcg is decreased but ωb is increased c. Only 3 and 4
d. Both are decreased d. Only 3
32. Match List-I with. List-II and select the 36. A moving-coil instrument gives full- scale
correct answer using the code given below deflection for I mA and has a resistance of
the Lists : 5 Ω. If a resistance of 0.55 Ω is connected
List-I in parallel to the instrument, what is the
A. Bolometer maximum value of current it can measure?
B. Hot-wire Anemometer a. 5 mA
C. C-type Bourdon Tube b. 10 mA
D. Optical Pyrometer c. 50 mA
List-II d. 100 mA
1. Measurement of temperature of a 37. A single slide wire is used for the
furnace measurement of current in a circuit. The
2. Measurement of high pressure voltage drop across a standard resistance
3. Measurement of flow of air around an of 1.0 Ω is balanced at 70 cm. What is the
aeroplane magnitude of the current, if the standard
4. Measurement of power at 500 MHz cell having an e.m.f. of 1.45 volts is
5. Measurement of angular position balanced at 50 cm?
A B C D a. 3.09 A
a. 2 3 5 1 b. 2.65 A
b. 4 1 2 3 c. 2.03 A
5 of 15
d. 1.45 A 4. Shape of the polo shoe of the
38. When reading is taken at half scale in the horseshoe magnet
instrument, the error is Select the correct answer using the code
a. exactly equal to half of full-scale error given below :
b. equal to full-scale error a. Only 1 and 3
c. less than full-scale error b. Only 2 and 4
d. more than full-scale error c. Only 2 and 3
39. Match List-I with List-Il and select the d. Only 1 and 4
correct answer using the code given below 42. Which of the following indicating
the Lists : instruments has/have linear scale ?
List- I (Parameter to be measured) 1. Moving-iron meter
A. Average value of current 2. Permanent magnet moving-coil meter
B. QMS value of current 3. Thermocouple meter
C. Frequency of a wave 4. Rectifier type meter
D. Strain gauge resistance Select the correct answer using the code
List-H (Instrument to be used) given below:
1. Self-balancing bridge a. Only 1 and 2
2. Wien bridge b. Only 2 and 3
3. PMMC ammeter c. Only 3 and 4
4. Moving-iron ammeter d. Only 2
A B C D 43. A sinusoidal voltage of 1 V r.m.s. value at
a. 3 4 2 1 10 Hz is applied across the two terminals
b. 2 1 3 4 of a PMMC type of voltmeter. What is the
c. 3 1 2 4 deflection of the pointer?
d. 2 4 3 1 a. Zero volt
40. Match List-I with List-II and select the b. 1 volt
correct answer using the code given below c. 2 volts
the Lists: d. The pointer oscillates around zero volt
List- I 44. Match List-I with List-II and select the
A. Digital Counter correct answer using the code given below
B. Schering Bridge the Lists :
C. Megger List- I (Instrument)
D. Spectrum Analyzer A. A. PMMC voltmeter
List-II B. B. AC ammetor
1. Measurement of harmonics C. C. Current transformer
2. Measurement of frequency D. D. Energy meter
3. Measurement of dielectric loss List-II (Error)
4. Measurement of insulation resistance 1. Eddy current error
A B C D 2. Phase angle error
a. 1 3 4 2 3. Braking system error
b. 2 4 3 1 4. Temperature error
c. 1 4 3 2 A B C D
d. 2 3 4 1 a. 2 3 4 1
41. Which of the following factors limit the b. 4 1 2 3
deflection of the pointer of a PMMC c. 2 1 4 3
instrument to about 90°? d. 4 3 2 1
1. Its damping mechanism 45. Maxwell’s inductance-capacitance bridge
2. Linearity of the magnetic field in is used for measurement of inductance of
which the coil moves a. 1ow Q coils only
3. Control spring arrangement b. medium Q coils only
c. high Q coils only
6 of 15
d. low and medium Q coils 52. Image theory is applicable to problems
46. Which one of the following statements involving
does not state that electrostatic field is a. electrostatic field only
conservative? b. magnetostatic field only
ur
a. The curl of E is identically zero c. both electrostatic and magnetostatic
b. The potential. difference between two fields
points is zero d. neither electrostatic nor magnetostatic
c. The electrostatic field is a gradient of a field
scalar potential 53. What is the forcer
on a unit charge moving
d. The work done in a closed path inside with velocity v in presence of electric
ur ur
the field is zero field E and magnetic field B ?
47. In free space, if ρ = 0, the Poisson’s ur r ur
a. E − v.B
equation becomes ur r ur
b. E + v.B
a. Maxwell’s divergence equation ∇.B=0 ur ur r
b. Laplacian equation V2 V = 0 c. E + B × v
ur r ur
c. Kirchhoff’s voltage equation ΣV 0 d. E + v × B
d. None of the above 54. Six capacitors of different capacitances C1,
48. What is the magnetic field due to an C2, C3, C4, C5 and C6 are connected in
infinite linear current carrying conductor? series. C1 > C2 > C3 > C4 > C5 > C6.What
μI is the total capacitance almost equal to ?
a. H = A/ m a. C1
2π r
I b. C3
b. H = A/ m c. C4
2π r
d. C6
μI
c. H = A/ m 55. Where is the Laplace’s equation valid?
2r a. Only in free space
I
d. H = A / m b. Only in conductors
r c. Only in charge free dielectric regions
ur
49. Equation ∇.B = 0 is based on d. Only in cavities bounded on all sides
a. Gauss’s Law by conducting walls
b. Lenz’s Law 56. Plane y = 0 carries a uniform current
^
c. Ampere’s Law density 30 k mA/m. At (1, 20, —2) what is
d. Continuity Equation the magnetic field intensity?
50. Sphere of radius a with a uniform charge ^
density pv C/m3 shall have electric flux a. −15 i mA/m
density at r = a, equal to ^
b. 15 i mA/m
a ^
a. ρv i r C / m2 ^
3 c. 18.85 j mA/m
1 ^ ^
b. ρv i r C / m 2 d. 25 i mA/m
3
^
57. Equipotential surfaces about a pair of
c. a ρ v i r C / m 2
equal and opposite linear charges exist in
what form?
a ^
d. ρv i r C / m2 a. Concentric spheres
4
b. Concentric cylinders
51. Which of the following is zero as applied
c. Non-concentric cylinders
to electromagnetic fields?
ur d. Planes
a. grad div A 58. What does the function f(x—v0t)
b. div grad V represent?
ur
c. div curl A a. A stationary wave
ur
d. curl curl A b. A wave motion in a reverse direction
7 of 15
c. A wave motion in a forward direction exceeding the critical angle, the wave
d. Not a travelling wave suffers total internal reflection.
59. The materials to be used in the Which of the statements given above are
manufacture of a standard resistance correct ?
should be of a. Only 1 and 2
a. high resistivity and low temperature b. Only 2 and 3
coefficient c. Only 1 and 3
b. low resistivity d. 1, 2 and 3
c. high temperature coefficient 63. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number
d. low resistivity and high temperature of electrons is equal to the number of holes
coefficient at which temperature ?
60. What is the Poynting’s vector on the a. 0 K
surface of a long straight conductor of b. 0°C
radius b and conductivity a which carries c. High temperature
current I in the z-direction? d. All temperatures
I2 ^ 64. Elements can reach a stable atomic
a. − ir
2σπ 2b3 structure by
I2 ^ a. losing electrons only
b. ir b. gaining electrons only
2σπ 2b 2
c. losin or gaining or sharing electrons
I2 ^ d. collisions between atoms
c. iz
σπ b 2 65. The values of radiative and non-radiative
I ^ lifetime of minority carriers in a
d. iφ
2π b semiconductor are 50 ns and 100 ns,
61. Match List -I with List-II and select the respectively. What is the effective
correct answer using the code given below lifetime?
the Lists a. 12.2 ns
List - I (Material) b. 150 ns
A. Fe c. 33.3 ns
B. MnOFe2O3 d. 75 ns
C. MgOFe2O3 66. Match List-I (Parameter) with List-II
D. NiOFe2O3 (Unit) and select the correct answer using
List - II (Curie Temperature) the code given below the Lists :
1. 783K List- I
2. 523K A. Boltzman constant
3. 863K B. Permeability of free space
4. 1043K C. Permittivity of free space
A B C D D. Mobility
a. 2 3 4 1 List - II
b. 4 1 2 3 1. farad/Metre
c. 2 1 4 3 2. cm2/volt – second
d. 4 3 2 1 3. henry/metre
62. Consider the following statements 4. cm2/second
regarding EM wave: 5. electron volt/kelvin
1. An EM wave incident on a perfect A B C D
dielectric is partially transmitted and a. 5 2 1 4
partially reflected. b. 1 2 5 4
2. An EM wave incident on a perfect c. 5 3 1 2
conductor is fully reflected. d. 1 3 5 2
3. When an EM wave is incident from a 67. III-V alloy semiconductor crystallizes in
more dense medium to less dense what form?
medium at an angle equal to or
8 of 15
a. Simple cubic structure
b. Body-centered cubic structure
c. Zinc blende structure
d. Wurtzite structure
68. Match List-I (Term) with List-II (Concept)
and select the correct answer using the In the circuit shown in the figure above,
code given below the Lists : for what value of C will the current I be in
List-I phase with the sinusoidal source voltage
A. Norton equivalent of one port Vs = sin2 t?
B. Open-circuit output admittance 1
a. F
C. Reciprocal network 4
D. Transmission parameters 1
List-II b. F
2
1. Network where loop and mode 1
equations have a symmetric coefficient c. F
matrix 2
2. Hybrid parameter h22 d. 1 F
3. Parameters where V1 and I1 are 72.
expressed as functions of V2 and -I2
4. Current source in parallel with
Thevenin impedance
A B C D In the circuit shown in the figure above, if
a. 1 3 4 2 is = u(t) A, then what are the initial and
b. 4 2 1 3 steady-state voltages across the capacitor?
c. 1 2 4 3 a. 1 V and I V, respectively
d. 4 3 1 2 b. 1 V and 0, respectively
69. A system function has a pole at s = 0 and a c. 0 and I V. respectively
zero at S - –1. The constant multiplier is d. 0 and 0, respectively
unity. For an excitation sin t, what is the 73.
steady-state response ?
a. 2 sin(t + 45o )
b. 2 sin(t − 45o )
c. sin(t − 45o )
d. sin t
In the circuit shown above, the constant
V (s) s + 3
70. A system function N(s) = = current source of value I is switched on at t
I (s) 4s + 5 = 0. What are the values of currents i1 and
The system is initially at rest. If the i2 at t = 0, with zero initial conditions ?
excitation i(t) is a unit step, which of the i1 i2
following are the initial and steady-state a. I 0
values of v(t)? b. 0 I
Initial Value Steady-state value R2 R2
a. 0 3/5 c. I I
R1 + R2 R1 + R2
b. 1/4 0
c. 3/5 1/4 d. 0 0
d. 1/4 3/5
71.
74.
In the circuit shown in the figure given
above, the switch is opened at t = 0 after
9 of 15
having been closed for a long time. What ⎡0 1⎤ ⎡0⎤
is the current through 50 Ω resistor? [X ] = ⎢ ⎥ [ x] + ⎢ ⎥ u
⎣ −1 1⎦ ⎣k ⎦
a. 3e–1/160 t
y = x1 + x2
b. 3e–1/100 t
⎡x ⎤
c. 3e–100 t [ X ] = ⎢ x1 ⎥
d. 3e–160 t ⎣ 2⎦
75. Consider the following statements What is the transfer y/x ?
The gain cross-over point is the point k ( s + 2)
where a. 3
s + 2s 2 + s + 1
1. the magnitude |G(jω)| = 1 in polar plot k ( s + 2)
2. the magnitude curve of G(jω) crosses b. 2
s + s +1
zero dB line in Bode plot
ks
3. magnitude vs phase plot touches the c. 2
zero dB loci in Nichol’s chart s + 2s + 1
Which of the statements given above are k
d. 2
correct? s + s +1
a. Only 1 and 2 79. An electromechanical closed-loop control
b. Only l and 3 system has the transfer function
c. Only 2 and 3 C ( s) k
d. 1, 2 and 3 R( s ) s( s + s + 1)( s + 4) + k
2
1.
( s 2 + 1)( s 2 + 4 ) 101. Z (s) =
2( s 2 + 1)( s 2 + 9)
may be
( s 2 + 3)( s 2 + 9 ) s ( s 2 + 4)
synthesized into Cauer first form as
2.
(s 2
+ 1)( s 2 + 9 )
s ( s2 + 4)
s ( s2 + 9)
3.
( s + 1)( s
2 2
+ 4) a.
s ( s + 4)
2
4.
( s + 1)2
3. e
( −πδ / 1−δ )
2
B. 4
4.
δωn
A B C D
C. a. 1 2 3 4
List-II b. 3 4 1 2
1. Type 0 c. 1 4 3 2
2. Type 1 d. 3 2 1 4
3. Type 2 117. Consider the following statements in
A B C connection with the addition of a pole to
a. 1 3 2 the forward path transfer function :
b. 2 1 3 1. Closed-loop system becomes less
c. 3 2 1 stable.
d. 1 2 3 2. Rise time of the system increases.
115. 3. Bandwidth of the system increases.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
a. Only 1 and 2
b. Only 2 and 3
c. Only 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
118. The open-loop transfer function for unity
feedback system is given by
What is the approximate value of the gain 5(1 + 0.1s )
margin in the Nyquist diagram given s (1 + 5s )(1 + 20 s )
above?
Consider the following statements
a. 0.67
1. The steady-state error for a step input
b. 3.0
of magnitude 10 is equal to zero.
c. 1.0
2. The steady-state error for a ramp input
d. 1/3
of magnitude 10 is 2.
116. A second-order control system has a
3. The steady-state error for an
transfer function
acceleration input of magnitude 10 is
C ( s) ωn2 infinite.
= 2
R( s) s + 2δωn s − ωn2 Which of the statements given above are
For unit step input, match List - I with correct?
List- II and select the correct answer using a. Only 1 and 2
the code given below the Lists b. Only 1 and 3
List- I (Time Domain Specification) c. Only 2 and 3
15 of 15
d. 1, 2 and 3
119. Match List-I (Nyquist Plot) with List-Il
(Frequency Response) and select the
correct answer using the code given
below:
List I
3.
A.
4.
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
B. b. 4 2 1 3
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 2 4 3 1
120. The Nyquist plot of a system is sketched
below :
C.
k
d.
s (1 + sT1 )(1 + sT2 )(1 + sT3 )
2
2.
I.E.S- (OBJ) 2008 1 of 13
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-I
1. Consider the following statements: b. product of lengths of vectors from mm
When all the elements in one row of the the zeroes to that point
Routh’s tabulation are zero then this c. ratio of product of lengths of vectors
condition indicates from poles to that point to the product
1. one pair of real roots with opposite of length of vectors from zeros to that
sign in s-plane point
2. one pair of conjugate roots on the d. product of lengths of vectors from all
imaginary axis in s-plane poles to zeros
3. conjugate roots forming a quadrate in 5. Which one of the following is correct ?
s-plane The slope of the asymptotic Bode
Which of the statements given above is/are magnitude plot is integer multiple of
correct? a. ± 40 db/decade
a. 1 only b. ± 12 db/decade
b. 2 only c. ± 6 db/decade
c. 3 only d. ± 3 db/decade
d. l, 2 and 3 6. What is the range of K for Which the open
2. The low frequency and high frequency K
loop transfer function G ( s ) = 2
asymptotes of Bode magnitude plot are s ( s + a)
respectively -60 db/decade and -40
represents an unstable closed loop system?
db/dccade. What is the type of the system?
a. K > 0 only
a. Type 0
b. K = 0 only
b. Type I
c. K < 0 only
c. Type II
d. - ∞ < K < ∞
d. Type III
7. The characteristic polynomial of a discrete
3. Which one of the following is correct?
time system is given by z2 + z + a. For
If the open-loop transfer function has one what value of ‘a’ is the system stable ?
pole in the right half of s-plane, the closed
a. 2
loop system will be stable if the Nyquist
plot of GH b. 0.5
a. does not encircle the (-1 + j0) point c. 1.5
b. encircles the (-1 + j0) point once iii the d. -0.5
counter-clockwise direction 8. Isocline method is used for which one of
c. encircles the (-1 + j0) point once in the the following?
clockwise direction a. Design of nonlinear system
d. encircles the origin once- in the b. Construction of root loci of nonlinear
counter-clockwise direction system
4. Which one of the following is correct? c. Construction of phase trajectories of
The value of the system gain at any point nonlinear systems
on a root locus can be obtained as a d. Stability analysis of non-linear system
a. product of lengths of vectors from the
poles to that point
2 of 13
9. To detect the position error in a position C. h22
control system, which of the following D. h21
may be used?
List-II
1. Potentiometers
(Dimension)
2. Syncbros
1. Impedance
3. LVDT
2. Admittance
Select the correct answer using the code
3. Current ratio
given below:
4. Voltage ratio
a. 1 and 2 only
Code:
b. 1 and 3 only
A B C D
c. 2 and 3 only
a. 2 4 1 3
d. 1, 2and 3
b. 2 3 1 4
10. Single step response of a typical stepper
motor is quite oscillatory. Brakes are used c. 1 3 2 4
to reduce or eliminate oscillations. Which d. 1 4 2 3
one of the following statements is not 14. Which one of the following is correct? The
correct regarding use of brakes? impedance function
a. It provides memory or position
information when motor is switched z (s) =
(s 2
+ 1) ( s 2 + 3)
is an
off. s ( s2 + 2)
b. reduces deceleration time. a. LC driving point function
c. It reduces length of motor load. b. RL driving point function
d. It reduces pullout torque. c. RC driving point function
11. Synchro machines are used for which one d. PLC driving point function
of the following?
15. Which one of the following passive
a. Converting 1-phase supply to 3-phase components has the most precise and
supply accurate standard ?
b. Stepping up low frequency signal to a. Resistance
high frequency
b. Inductance
c. Detection of positional error in a.c.
servo system c. Capacitance
d. Conductance.
d. Detection of positional error in d.c.
servo system 16. Which of the following is/are primary
12. A, B, C and D represent the transmission standard(s) for voltage maintained by
parameters of a two-port network. When is National Standards Laboratories?
the network reciprocal? 1. Zener diode with 1.5 V output at 20°C
a. AB - CD = 1 2. Nickel cadmium rechargeable cell of
1.25 V output at 20 °C
b. AD - BC = 1
c. AB - CD = 0 Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
d. AD – BC = 0
a. 1 only
13. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer using the code given below b. 2 only
the lists; c. Both 1 and 2
List-I d. Neither 1 nor 2
(Network parameter) 17. What is the prefix tera equivalent to?
A. h11 a. 103
B. h12 b. 106
3 of 13
c. 109 b. Eureka
d. 1012 c. Manganin
18. The errors introduced by an instrument fall d. Nichrome
in which category? 24. How can a milli-ammeter be used as a
a. Systematic errors voltmeter ?
b. Random errors a. By connecting a low resistance in
c. Gross errors parallel with the instrument
d. Environmental errors b. By connecting a high resistance in
parallel with the instrument
19.
c. By connecting a low resistance in
series with the instrument
d. By connecting a high resistance in
series with the instrument
25. The principle of Hall effect is made use of
A waveform shown in the figure above, in the construction of which one of the
following?
is fed to a d.c. ammeter. What is the
reading shown by the meter ? a. Ammeter
a. Zero b. Voltmeter
b. 50 rn-A c. Gaussmeter
c. 75mA d. Galvanometer
d. 100 mA 26. What is the radiation resistance of a dipole
antenna λ/20 long approximately equal to?
20. Which one of the following instruments is
commonly used to measure primary a. 2 Ω
current of a transformer connected to b. 40 Ω
mains? c. 0.6 Ω
a. Electrostatic meter d. 20Ω
b. Current transformer 27. According to maximum power transfer
c. Moving coil type meter theorem, when is the maximum power
d. Moving iron meter absorbed by one network from another
21. What is clamp-on ammeter used for ? network?
a. Low a.c. current a. The impedance of one of the networks
is half that of the other
b. High a.c. current
b. The impedance of one is the complex
c. Low d.c. current conjugate of the other
d. High d.c. current c. The impedance of one is equal to that
22. Which one of the following is used for the of the other
measurement of 3-phase power factor? d. Only the resistive parts of both are
a. Power factor meter equal
b. Crosse coil power factor meter 28. Consider the following statements for
c. Phase-angle waft hour meter transmission lines:
d. Polarised-vane power factor meter 1. When a transmission line is terminated
23. What is the ‘swamping’ resistance which by its characteristic impedance the line
is connected in series with the working will not have any reflected wave.
coil of a voltmeter to drastically reduce the 2. For a finite line terminated by its
error in measurement caused due to characteristic impedance the velocity
variation in temperature, made of? and current at all points on the line are
a. Constantan exactly same.
4 of 13
3. For a lossless half wave transmission 33. Which one of the following modes
line the input impedance is not equal to has the highest cut off wavelength in a
load impedance. rectangular wave guide?
Which of the statements given above are a. TE10
correct? b. TE01
a. 1 and 2 only c. TM01
b. 2 and 3 only d. TM11
c. 1 and 3 only 34. A long straight wire carries a current I =
d. 1, 2 and 3 10 A. At what distance is the magnetic
29. Which of the following is a vector field H = 1 AM-1?
quantity? a. 1.19 m
a. Standing wave ratio only b. 1.39 m
b. Reflection coefficient only c. 1.59 m
c. Gain d. 1.79 m
r
d. Standing wave ratio and reflection 35. The magnetic vector potential A obeys
coefficient which equations?
30. What causes electromagnetic wave r r
1. B = ∇ × A
polarization? r r
a. Refraction 2. ∇ 2 A = − μ 0 J
r
b. Reflection r μ 0 IDI
3. A = ∫
c. Longitudinal nature of electromagnetic 4πR
wave Select the correct answer using the code
d. Transverse nature of electromagnetic given below:
wave a. 1 and 2 only
31. A plane wave traveling in air is incident on b. 2 and 3 only
a conducting medium. Which one of the
following is correct? c. 1 and 3 only
The magnetic field intensity d. 1, 2 and 3
a. becomes approximately half 36. The force on a charge moving with
velocity v under the influence of electric
b. gets approximately doubled and magnetic fields is given by which one
c. remains unchanged of the following?
( )
d. cannot be determined r r r
a. q E + B × v
Consider the following three equations:
( )
32. r r r
r b. q E + v × H
r ∂B
( )
1. ∇ × E = − r r r
∂t c. q H + v × E
( )
r r r r
r r ∂D d. q E + v × B
2. ∇ × H = J +
∂t 37. Which one of the following is the correct
r statement?
3. ∇ . B = 0
Equi-potential lines and field lines
Which of the above appear in Maxwell’s
equations? a. are parallel
a. 1, 2 and 3 b. are anti-parallel
b. 1 and 3 only c. are orthogonal
c. 2 and 3 only d. bear no definite relationship
d. 1 and 3 only 38. Consider the following statements for an
electrostatic field:
5 of 13
1. Its curl is zero 42. The impulse response of a second-
2. It is negative of gradient of scalar order under-damped system starting from
potential φ rest is given by
3. It is conservative c(t) = 125. e-6t sin 8t, t ≥ 0.
Which of the statements given below are The natural frequency and the damping
correct? factor of the system are respectively
a. 1 and 2 only a. 10 and 0.6
b. 2 and 3 only b. 10 and 0.8
c. 1 and 3 only c. 8 and 0.6
d. 1, 2 and 3 d. 8 and 0.8
39. The input-output relationship of a system 43. Given a unity feedback system with
is given by K
G(s) = the value of K for damping
d 2 c(t ) dc(t ) s( s + 4)
r (t ) = 2
+3 + 2c(t ) ratio of 0.5 is:
dt dt
where r(t) and c(t) are input and output a. 1
respectively. The transfer function of the b. 4
system is equal to c. 16
1 d. 64
a.
(
s +s+2
2
) 44. For type 2 system, the steady-state error
1 due to ramp input is equal to:
b.
(s + 3s + 2
2
) a. zero
b. finite constant
2
c.
(s + 3s + 2
2
) c. infinite
d. indeterminate
1
d. The type number of the control system
(s + 5s + 3
2
) 45.
with
40. Consider the function: K ( s + 2)
G(s) H (s) = is
ω s ( s 2 + 2 s + 3)
F (s) =
s +ω2
2
a. one
where F(s) = Laplace transform of f(t). b. two
The final value of f(t) is equal to c. three
a. infinite d. four
b. zero 46. A discrete-time system is stable if all the
c. finite constant poles of the Z-transfer function of the
d. a value in between —1 and +1 system lie
41. Given the Laplace transform of f(t) = F(s) a. outside the circle of unit radius on the
the Laplace transform of [f(t)e-at] is equal Z-plane
to: b. within a circle of unit radius on the Z-
a. F(s + a) plane
F ( s) c. to the left of imaginary axis on the Z-
b. plane
(s + a
d. to the right of imaginary axis on the Z-
c. easF(s)
plane
d. e-asF(s)
47. The Nyquist plot of a system passes
through (-1, j0) point in the G(jω) H(jω)
plane, the phase-margin of the system is:
6 of 13
a. infinite (Where ω s is the sampling
b. greater than zero but not infinite frequency and ω s is the maximum
c. zero frequency contained in the signal.)
d. less than zero 53. For a tachometer if θ (t ) is the rotor
48. If the poles of a system lie on the displacement, e(t ) is the output voltage
imaginary axis, the system will be: and Kt it the tachometer constant, then the
a. Stable transfer function is defined as
b. Conditionally stable a. Kt.s2
c. Marginally stable b. Kt.s
d. Unstable c. Kt/s
49. The transfer function of a P-I controller is d. Kt
a. Kp+Ki.s 54. A tachometer is added to a servo-
b. Kp + (K/s) mechanism because
c. (Kp/s) + K.s a. It is easily adjustable
d. Kp.s + (Ki/s) b. It can adjust damping
50. Given the matrix c. It converts velocity of the shaft to a
proportional d.c. voltage
⎡0 1 0⎤
d. It reduces steady-state error
A = ⎢⎢ 0 0 1 ⎥⎥
55. Assertion (A): Ferrites are useful at very
⎢⎣− 6 − 11 − 6⎥⎦ high frequencies.
the eigenvalues of A are Reason (R): Ferrites have high
a. -1, -2, -3 permeability and high resistivity.
b. -1, 2, -3 a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
c. 0, 0, -6
b. Both A and R are individually true but
d. -6, -11, -6 R is not the correct explanation of A
51. The state-variable description of a linear c. A is true but R is false
autonomous System is X& = AX where X
d. A is false but R is true
is a two-dimensional state vector and A is
56. Assertion (A): A percisison instrument is
⎡0 2⎤ always accurate.
a matrix given by A = ⎢ ⎥
⎣2 0⎦ Reason (R): A precision instrument is one
The poles of the system are located at: where the degree of reproducibility of the
a. -2 and +2 measurements is very good.
b. -2j and +2j a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
c. -2 and -2
b. Both A and R are individually true but
d. +2 and +2
R is not the correct explanation of A
52. The information contained in a signal is
c. A is true but R is false
preserved in the sampled version if
d. A is false but R is true
a. ω s = ω m
57. Assertion (A): A PMMC instrument is
b. ω s = 0.5ω m used for reading both d.c. and a.c. signals.
c. ω s = 0.1ω m Reason (R): The deflecting torque in a
PMMC instrument is directly proportional
d. ω s = 2ω m to the current in the moving coil.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
7 of 13
b. Both A and R are individually true but a. Balun transformer
R is not the correct explanation of A b. Single stub of adjustable position
c. A is true but R is false c. Double stub
d. A is false but R is true d. Broad band directional coupler
58. Assertion (A): Piezoelectric transducers 63. The capacitance of an insulated conducting
can be used for measurement of both static sphere of radius R in vacuum is:
and dynamic phenomena.
a. 2πε 0 R
Reason (R): Piezoelectric transducers have
very good high frequency response. b. 4πε 0 R
a. Both A and R are individually true and c. 4πε 0 R 2
R is the correct explanation of A
d. 4πε 0 / R
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A 64. Two materials having temperature
c. A is true but R is false coefficient of 0.004 and 0.004 respectively
are joined in series. The overall
d. A is false but R is true
temperature coefficient is approximately:
59. Assertion (A): Sampled-data system
a. 0.08
requires hold circuit.
b. 0.04
Reason (R): Hold circuit converts the
signal to analog form. c. 0.001
a. Both A and R are individually true and d. 0.0001
R is the correct explanation of A 65. A 10 μF capacitor is fed from an a.c.
b. Both A and R are individually true but voltage source containing a fundamental
R is not the correct explanation of A and a third harmonic of strength one-third
c. A is true but R is false of fundamental. The third harmonic
current flowing through the capacitor
d. A is false but R is true
expressed as percentage of the
60. Assertion (A): Capacitive transducers can fundamental under steady-state condition
be used for measurement of both static and will be:
dynamic phenomena.
a. 150%
Reason (R): capacitive transducers are
b. 100%
extremely sensitive.
c. 50%
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A d. 33%
b. Both A and R are individually true but 66. In a two element series network, the
R is not the correct explanation of A voltage and current respectively are given
as, v(t) = 50 sin (314 t) + 50 sin (942 t) V
c. A is true but R is false
i(t) = 10 sin (314 t+ 60°) + 8 sin (942t +
d. A is false but R is true 45°) A, then the power factor of the
61. Two coils are coupled in such a way that network is approximately:
the mutual inductance between them is 16 a. 0.9
mH. If the inductances of the coils are 20
b. 0.6
mH and 80 mH respectively, the
coefficient of coupling is: c. 0.3
a. 0.01 d. 0.1
b. 0.4 67. The network function, F ( s) =
(s + 2 )
c. 0.1 (s + 1)(s + 3)
d. 0.0025 represents an:
62. For a transmission line load matching over a. RL impedance only
a range of frequencies, it is best to use a b. RC impedance only
c. RL admittance and RC impedance
8 of 13
d. RC admittance and RL impedance
68. In a CRO astigmatism is:
a. A source of generating fast electrons
b. A medium for absorbing secondary
emission electrons For circuit shown above, the black box
c. An additional focus control contains resistors and independent sources
only. The current I is 3 A and 1.5 A for R
d. A time-delay control in the vertical
= 0 and 2Ω, respectively. For R = 1Ω,
deflection system
what is the current I?
69. In an electrometer, the movable plate is 11
a. 1A
cm in diameter. When 12 kV is applied
between the movable plate and the fixed b. 2A
plate, the force is 0.006 N. The change in c. 3A
capacitance for 1.5 mm movement of the d. 4A
movable plate is:
74. What is the Laplace transform of a
a. 0.44 × 10-12F function δ (t-2) ?
b. 0.37 × 10-6F a. 2
c. 0.125 × 10-12F b. 0
d. 12.5 × 10-12F c. e-2s
70. Continuous recording of a signal is not d. 2s
possible in a
75.
a. Magnetic tape recorder
b. Strip chart recorder
c. X Y recorder
d. Galvanometric recorder
71. The successive approximation A/D output
for a 4-bit converter to a 8.217 Volt input What is the time constant of the circuit
(if the reference is 5 V) will be: above?
a. 1101 a. 0.5 s
b. 0110 b. 1s
c. 1010 c. 2s
d. 1001 d. 4s
72.
76.
In the circuit shown above, when is the In the network shown above, it is given
power absorbed by the 1 Ω resistor dv
that v = 1 V and = -10 V/s at a time t,
maximum? dt
a. R = 0 where t is the time after the switch S is
closed. What is the value of C?
b. R = 2 Ω
a. 0.05 F
c. R = 4 Ω
b. 0.1 F
d. R = ∞
c. 0.15 F
73.
d. 0.2 F
9 of 13
77. A series R-L circuit is to be connected to
an a.c. source v(t ) = Vm sin(ωt + ϕ ) volt.
Which one of the following is correct?
The transient current will be absent if the b.
source is connected at a time t0 such that
a. ω t0 = 0
π c.
b. ω t 0 =
2
ωL
c. ω t0 = tan −1
R
d. ω t 0 has any arbiter value d.
c.
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-II
1. When a thyristor is negatively biased above the rated speed of the motor. Which
a. All the three junctions are negatively one of the following methods is best suited
based for this purpose? (Va = armature voltage,
b. Outer junctions are positively biased If = field current and If rated = field current
and the inner junction is negatively at rated speed)
biased. a. If = If rated ‘Va variable
c. Outer junctions are negatively biased b. Va fixed’ If variable
and the inner junction is positively c. Va and If variable, with If ≤ If rated
biased d. Va and If variable, with If ≥ If rated
d. The junction near the anode is 6. A separately excited dc motor is required
negatively biased and the one near the to be controlled from a 3-phase source for
cathode is positively biased operation in the first quadrant only. The
2. Consider the following semiconductor most preferred converter would be:
devices: a. Fully controlled converter
1. Triac b. Fully controlled converter with
2. Thyristor freewheeling diode
3. Amplifying gate thyristor. c. Half-controlled converter
The correct sequence of these devices in d. Sequence control of two series
increasing order of their di/dt capabilities connected fully controlled converters
is 7. If the commutation angle of a diode
a. 1, 3, 2 rectifier (due to source inductance effect)
b. 1, 2, 3 is μ, then the inductive voltage regulation
c. 3, 1, 2 will be
d. 3, 2, 1 1 + cos μ
a.
3. In dc choppers feeding highly inductive 2
loads, the waveforms for input and output cos μ
currents are b. 1 +
2
a. Discontinuous and continuous cos μ
respectively c. 1 −
2
b. Both continuous
1 − cos μ
c. Both discontinuous d.
d. Continuous and discontinuous
2
respectively 8. Consider the following statements:
4. A. single-phase voltage source square- The diodes in a voltage source inverter
wave inverter feeds pure inductive load. (McMurray inverter) should be able to
The waveform of the load current will be 1. Withstand a large voltage in the
a. Sinusoidal reverse direction.
b. Rectangular 2. Carry the commutating current excess
of load current.
c. Trapezoidal
d. Triangular 3. Provide the required reverse bias to the
outgoing thyristor.
5. In machine tool drive application, the
speed of a separately excited dc motor is 4. Feedback the reactive current to the
source.
required to be controlled both below and
2 of 16
Of these statements 3. Suitable for low-power circuits.
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct 4. Suitable for high-power circuits.
b. 1, 3 and 4 are correct Of these statements
c. 2, 3 and 4 are correct a. 1 and 2 are correct
d. 1, 2 and 4 are correct b. 1 and 3 are correct
9. The ac-to-dc voltage ratio of a converter in c. 2 and 3 are correct
the state of discontinuous conduction is d. 2 and 4 are correct
a. Dependent upon the firing angle but 13. In dc choppers, per unit ripple is maximum
independent of load time constant when the duty cycle α is
b. Dependent upon load time constant but a. 0.2
independent of firing angle b. 0.5
c. Dependent upon both firing angle and c. 0.7
load time constant
d. 0.9
d. Independent of both firing angles and 14. Match the 3 curves labelled A, B, C and D
load time constant with the characteristics given under list-II
10. In a 3-phase bridge rectifier fed from the and select the correct answer using the
star connected secondary winding of a codes given below the figures:
transformer, let the voltage to the neutral
of the A - phase (phase sequence A, B, C)
be Vm sin ω t. At the instant when the
voltage of A-phase is maximum, the
output voltage at the rectifier terminals
will be
a. Vm / 2
b. Vm
c. 1.5 Vm
d. 3Vm
11. Consider the following statements
regarding speed control of induction
List II: Control characteristic of a
motors by means of external rotor
resistors: 1. 3-pulse converter feeding pure
resistance
1. Reduction in speed is accompanied by
reduced efficiency 2. Fully controlled converter feeding R-L
load with perfect smoothing
2. With a large resistance in the rotor
circuit, the speed would vary 3. Single-phase ac voltage controller
considerably with variation in torque. feeding pure inductive load
3. The method is very complicated. 4. 6-pulse half -controlled converted
The Disadvantages of such a method of A B C D
speed control would include a. 1 2 3 4
a. 1 and 2 b. 1 2 4 3
b. 2 and 3 c. 2 1 3 4
c. 1 and 3 d. 2 1 4 3
d. 1, 2 and 3 15. A 3-pulse converter feeds a pure resistive
12. Consider the following statements: load at a firing angle of α = 60°. The
average value of current flowing in the
Switched mode power supplies are
load is 10 If a very large inductance is
preferred over the continuous types,
connected in the load circuit, then the
because they are
a. Average value of current will remain
1. Suitable for use in both ac and dc.
as 10 A
2. More efficient.
3 of 16
b. Average value of current will become b. 10 V
greater than 10A c. 14V
c. Average value of current will become d. 20V
less than 10 A 20. A difference amplifier is shown in the
d. Trend of variation of current cannot be figure transistors Q1 and Q2 have identical
predicted unless the exact value, of the parameters. Assuming that VBE = 0.7 V
inductance connected is known and β = 200 for each transistor and given
16. In a 3-phase rectifier circuit, thyristor that VSI = VSI = VS2 = 0, the value of the
number 1,2 and 3 are connected collector current IC will be
respectively to R, Y and B phases of the
star- connected transformer secondary.
When the current is being commutated
from thyristor No. 1 to No. 2 the effect of
the transformer leakage and the ac system
inductance will be such that it will
a. Prolong the conduction in No. 1 and
a. 2 mA
delay the turn- on of No. 2
correspondingly b. 1 mA
b. Stop the conduction in No. 1 at the c. 0.5 mA
scheduled time, but delay the turn-on d. 2.5 μA
of No.2 21. A junction transistor operating at room
c. Produce conduction in both No. 1 and temperature with IC =2 mA where kT/q =
No.2 in parallel for an overlapping 25 mV has β = 100. The values of the
period through a transient parameters gm in mhos and rπ in ohms will
d. Double the voltage output through a be respectively
commutation transient a. 0.04 and 2500
17. If an intrinsic semiconductor is doped with b. 0.08 and 1250
a very small amount of boron, then in the c. 0.5 and 800
extrinsic semiconductor so formed, the d. 0.08 and 5000
number of electrons and holes will
22. An amplifier with mid-band gain |A| = 500
a. Decrease 1
b. Increase and decrease respectively has negative feedback |β| = . If the
100
c. Increase. upper cut-off without feedback were at 60
d. Decrease and increase respectively kHz, then with feedback it would become
18. If α = 0.98, Ico = 6μA and Iβ = 100μA for a a. 10 kHz
transistor, then the value of Ic will be b. 12 kHz
a. 2.3 mA c. 300 kHz
b. 3.1 mA d. 360 kHz
c. 4.6 mA 23. The circuit shown in the figure has a Zener
d. 5.2 mA regulated dc power supply. Assuming that
19. The given figure shows a silicon transistor the Zener diode is ideal, the MINIMUM
connected as a common emitter amplifier. value of RL down to which the output
The quiescent collector voltage of the voltage would remain constant is
circuit is approximately
a. 15 ohms
a. 20/3 V b. 24 ohms
c. 27 ohms
4 of 16
d. 45 ohms ⎡ R2 R4 ⎤
24. A non-inverting OP-AMP summer is ⎢ R + R + R3 ⎥
shown in the figure. The output voltage V0 c. − ⎢ 2 4
⎥
⎢ R 1 ⎥
is ⎢⎣ ⎥⎦
⎡ R + R3 ⎤
d. − ⎢ 2 ⎥
⎣ R1 ⎦
27. Consider the following statements
regarding an RC phase-shift oscillator:
1. The amplifier gain is positive.
a. sin 100 t 2. The amplifier gain is negative.
3 3. The phase shift introduced by the
b. sin100t feedback network is 180°.
2
4. The phase shift introduced by the
c. 2 sin 100 t feedback network is 360°.
d. 3 sin 100 t Of these statements
25. The expression for the output voltage V0 in a. 1 and 3 are correct
terms of the input voltages V1 and V2 in
b. 2 and 3 are correct
the circuit shown in the figure, assuming
the operational amplifier to be ideal is: c. 2 and 4 are correct
d. 1 and 4 are correct
V0 = AV1 1 + A2V2
28. If an input signal with non-zero dc
The values of A1 and A2 would be component is applied to a low pass RC
respectively network, the dc component in the output
will be
a. The same as that in the input
b. Less than in the input
c. More than that in the input
d. Zero
a. 9 and -10 29. For the given input, the output waveform
b. 9.9 and -10 across the diode shown in the figure will
c. -9 and 10 be
d. -9.9 and 10
26. The transfer gain for the circuit shown in
the figure is given by
a.
⎡ R2 R3 ⎤
⎢ R2 + R3 + R ⎥ b.
a. − ⎢ 4
⎥
⎢ R 1 ⎥
⎢⎣ ⎥⎦
⎡ R3 R4 ⎤
⎢ R + R + R2 ⎥ c.
b. − ⎢ 3 4
⎥
⎢ R1 ⎥
⎢⎣ ⎥⎦
5 of 16
d.
d.
30. The waveform of the output of a low pass
filter to a step input will bw as in
a.
c.
a. AB
b. A
6 of 16
c. B c. Frequent disk I/Os s
d. AB d. Need for a data-wind path
37. The circuit schematic shown in the 40. DB. DW and DD directives are used to
following figure place data in particular locations or to
simply allocate space without reassigning
anything to space. The DW and DD
directions are used to generate
a. Offsets
Represents 4-bits b. Full address of variables
a. Static shift register c. Full address of labels
b. Dynamic shift register d. Offsets or full address of labels and
c. Asynchronous counter variables
d. Synchronous counter 41. Match List-I (Type of instruction) with
38. Match List-I (Function/circuit) with list-II list-II (Instruction) and select the correct
circuit realization) and select the correct answer
answer List I
List I A. One byte instruction
A. D-flip flop B. Two bytes instruction
B. T-flip flop C. Three bytes instruction
C. Exclusive OR D. Register indirect addressing
D. Half adder List II
List II 1. MOV A, data
1. 2. MOV A, B
3. MOV A, M
4. JMP addr.
A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3
2.
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 1 2 3 4
42. Consider the following set of instructions:
3. STC
CMC
MOV A,B
RAL
MOV B,A
4. This set of instructions
a. Doubles the number in Register be B
b. Divides the number in Register by 2
c. Multiplies B by A
A B C D d. Adds A and B
a. 2 3 1 4 43. The number bits needed to address 4K
b. 2 3 4 1 memory is
c. 3 2 4 1 a. 6
d. 3 2 1 4 b. 8
39. The large the RAM of a computer, the c. 12
faster is its speed. since it eliminates d. 16
a. Need for ROM 44. The ESC instruction of 8086 may have
b. Need for external memory two formats. In one of the formats, on
7 of 16
memory operand is used. Under this 49. A carrier signal of frequency fc is
format, the number of external op-codes modulated by a signal
(for the co-processor) which can be 2 A cos 2π f1t − A sin 2π f 2t
specified is
The spectrum of the modulated signal will
a. 64 include which of the following frequency
b. 128 components?
c. 256 1. f c + f1 + f 2
d. 512
2. f c − f1 − f 2
45. The TRAP is one of the interrupts
available in TNTEL 8085. Which one of 3. f c + 2 f1 − f 2
the following statements is true of TRAP? 4. f c − 2 f1 + f 2
a. It is level triggered
Select the correct answer using the codes
b. It is negative edge triggered
given below:
c. It is positive edge triggered
a. 1 and 2
d. it is both positive edge triggered and
b. 3 and 4
level triggered
c. 3 alone
46. Consider the following figures showing
clock periods of Instruction Fetch machine d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
cycle for INTEL 8085. 50. Which one of the following is the
advantage of base modulation over
collector modulation of a transistor Class
C amplifier?
a. Requires lower modulation power
b. Higher power output per transistor
c. Better efficiency
d. Better linearity
51. In a narrow band FM system. the highest
An ERROR in the above diagram relates modulating frequency is fm. The
to the signal bandwidth of the system will be
a. IO/M a. 6fm
b. SO b. Fm
c. SI c. 2fm
d. R D d. 10fm
47. In a 16-bit microprocessor, words are 52. A telephone channel will PCM gives good.
stored in two consecutive memory performance at a transmission rat” of 64k
locations. The entire word can be read in bits/s. With companding and complex
one operation provided the first version pf delta modulation (DM), to
a. Word is even achieve the same performance, the
b. Word is odd transmission rate must be close to
c. Memory location is odd a. 64 k bits/s
d. Memory address is even b. 100 k bits/s
48. A 3×8 decoder with two enable inputs is to c. 64 M bits/s
be used to address 8 blocks of memory. d. 100 M bits/s
What will be the size of each memory 53. Equalizing pulses in IV are placed during
block when addressed from a sixteen bit the
bus with two MSBs used to enable the a. Vertical blanking period
decoder? b. Horizontal blanking period
a. 2 K c. Serrations
b. 4 K d. Horizontal retrace
c. 16 K
d. 64 K
8 of 16
54. The most useful approach to radar system b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
for monitoring the speed of moving correct explanation of A
vehicles is: c. A is true but R is false
a. Pulsed radar d. A is false but R is true
b. Monopulse 59. Assertion A: In a salient-pole
c. Dopier radar synchronous motor, the angular
d. Auto-tracking radar displacement of rotor per unit change of
55. Consider the following statements: power is less than that for a similar
The maximum range of radar can be cylindrical rotor machine.
increased by Reason R: A reluctance torque is
1. Increasing the peak transmitted power developed in the salient- pole machine due
to the effect of direct axis flux on the
2. Increasing the gain of the receiver
damper winding.
3. Increasing the diameter of the antenna
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
4. Reducing the wavelength used correct explanation of A.
Of these statements b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
a. 1,3 and 4 are correct correct explanation of A
b. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct c. A is true but R is false
c. 2 and 4 are correct d. A is false but R is true
d. 1 and 3 are correct 60. Assertion A: During the load flow study,
56. Consider the following statements about a voltage controlled bus is treated as a load
broadband communications using bus when the magnitude of the voltage is
submarine cables: very much higher or very much lower than
1. A submarine cable repeater contains the scheduled voltage.
filters for the two directions of Reason R: A tap changing transformer is
transmission. represented as an net work in the load flow
2. Armoured submarine cable is used for model.
the shallow- shore ends of the cable. V a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
3. Fibre-optic submarine cable is used to correct explanation of A.
prevent inadvertent plugging- in of the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
cable. correct explanation of A
Of these statements c. A is true but R is false
a. 1 and 2 are correct d. A is false but R is true
b. 2 and 3 are correct 61. Assertion A: In the residual type earth
c. 1 and 3 are correct compensation used in the distance
d. 1, 2, and 3 are correct protection schemes with solidly earthed
57. To couple a coaxial line to a parallel wire neutral systems, the residual compensation
line, it is best to use a circuit uses auxiliary current transformers.
a. Slotted line Reason R: A fraction of the residual
b. Balun current is added to the fault current Ia for
an earth fault on phase ‘a’. This fraction is
c. Directional coupler
so chosen that the relay measures the
d. Quarter-wave transformer positive sequence impedance Z1.
58. Assertion A: A differentially compounded a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
dc motor has the possibility of starting in correct explanation of A.
the reversed direction.
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
Reason R: Owing to higher inductance in correct explanation of A
the series field, the resultant main flux
c. A is true but R is false
reverses during starting.
d. A is false but R is true
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A. 62. Assertion A: In HVDC systems, the dc
voltage should be as high as possible and
9 of 16
the rectifier control angle alpha should be degree of modulation of the original radio
as low as possible. frequency signal in AM detector.
Reason R: Control of dc voltage is Reason R It depends primarily on the ratio
exercised by the rectifier and inverter of the source impedance of the radio
control angles alpha and gamma frequency voltage to the diode load
respectively. impedance.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true d. A is false but R is true
63. Assertion A: A-3 phase induction motor 67. Assertion A: The different components of
operation on a 3-phase voltage controller a composite video signal are needed
for speed control cannot be used for consecutively and not simultaneously at
constant torque loads. the TV receivers.
Reason R: The output voltage waveform Reason R: The different components of
of the controller is distorted, the composite video signal are sent to the
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the receiver on a frequency division basis.
correct explanation of A. a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A.
correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
c. A is true but R is false correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true c. A is true but R is false
64. Assertion A: TTL and CMOS cannot be d. A is false but R is true
normally used together. 68. If the applied voltage of a certain
Reason R: TTL operates on a (+ 5 ± 0.25) transformer is increased by 50% and the
V regulated supply voltage and some mA, frequency is reduced to 50% (assuming)
while the CMOS operates on unregulated that the magnetic circuit remains
supply voltage of +3V to +15V and unsaturated), the maximum core /flux
someμA. density will
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the a. Change to three, times the original
correct explanation of A. value
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a b. Change to 1.5 times the original value
correct explanation of A c. Change to 0.5 times the original value
c. A is true but R is false d. Remain the same as the original value
d. A is false but R is true 69. The low-voltage winding of a core-type
65. Assertion A: Machine language program transformer is subdivided into two equal
is written in hexadecimal. halves, each of half the original width of
Reason R: Microprocessor can under the single winding with the high-voltage
stand hexadecimal number system. winding in between these two halves of
low-voltage winding (instead of having
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A. usual construction of low-voltage winding
adjacent to the core and surrounded b the
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
high-voltage winding.) Such an interlacing
correct explanation of A
of coils would make the combined primary
c. A is true but R is false and secondary leakage reactance (in terms
d. A is false but R is true of the primary) nearly
66. Assertion A: The degree of modulation of a. Twice
radio- frequency voltage present at the b. Equal
input terminals of the diode is less than the
c. Half
d. One-fourth
10 of 16
70. Two 3-limb, 3-phase delta-star connected b. The first and the second terms cancel
transformers are supplied from’ the same each other
source. One of the transformers is of Dy 1 dL1 dL2
and the other is of Dy 11 connection. The c. and have opposite signs and
dθ dθ
phase difference between the dL1
corresponding phase voltages of the two
dθ
second Aries would be
( i2 )
2
dL2
a. 0° =
dθ ( i1 )
2
b. 30°
c. 60° d. L1 and L2 do not very with respect to
d. 120° θ
71. In a transformer fed from a fundamental 75. Match List-I (Parts of electrical machines)
frequency voltage source, the source of with List - II (The approximate nature of
harmonics is the the air-gap mmf pattern produced by them)
a. Overload and select the correct answer
b. Poor insulation List I
c. Iron loss A. DC machine, stator
d. Saturation of core B. DC machine, rotor
72. A 40k VA transformer has a core loss of C. Salient-pole synchronous machine,
400W and. a full-load copper loss of 800 stator
W. The proportion of full-load at D. Squirrel-cage rotor of induction motor
maximum efficiency is List II
a. 50% 1. Sinusoidal
b. 62.3% 2. Trapezoidal
c. 70.7% 3. Triangular
d. 100% A B C D
73. A single-phase transformer has a. rating of a. 1 2 1 3
15 k VA, 600/120V. It is reconnected as b. 3 1 3 1
an auto- transformer to supply at 720 V c. 2 3 1 3
from a 600 V primary source. The d. 2 3 1 1
maximum load it can supply is 76. A dc shunt generator, when driven at its
a. 90 kVA rated speed, is found to be not generating
b. 18 kVA any voltage. Which of the following would
c. 15 kVA account for this?
d. 12 kVA 1. There is no residual magnetism.
74. The general expression for the 2. The connection of the field winding is
instantaneous value of the torque of not proper with respect to the armature
dynamo-electric machines is given by terminals.
1 2 dL1 1 2 dL2 dM 3. The resistance of the field circuit is
T = ( i1 ) + ( i2 ) + i1i2
2 dθ 2 dθ dθ greater than the critical field resistance.
Where i1 and i2 are rotor and stator 4. The load resistance is less than the
currents respectively, L1 and L2 are rotor critical armature resistance.
windings’ self inductances. Select the correct answer using the codes
M is the mutual inductance between stator given below:
and rotor windings and θ is the angular a. 3 and 4
displacement of the rotor. b. 1, 2 and 4
For a synchronous machine (cylindrical c. 1, 2 and 3
rotor), the torque is given by only the third d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
term of the equation, because 77. To have spark less commutation, the
a. The average value of (i1)2 and (i2)2 armature reaction effect in a dc machine is
each is zero neutralized by
11 of 16
a. Using compensating winding and
commutating poles
b. Shifting the brush axis from the
geometrical neutral axis to the
magnetic neutral axis
c. Fixing the brush axis in line with the A B C D
pole axis a. 3 1 4 2
d. Increasing the field excitation b. 3 1 2 4
78. In a dc shunt generator working on load, c. 1 3 2 4
the brushes are moved forward in the
d. 1 3 4 2
direction of rotation. As a result of this,
commutation will 80. Which one of the following figures best
represents the variation in armature current
a. Improve but terminal voltage will fall
and speed with time during the stating of a
b. Worsen and terminal voltage will fall dc shunt motor?
c. Improve and terminal voltage will rise a.
d. Worsen and terminal voltage will rise
79. Match List-I (Ways of compounding series
and shunt field windings of a dc compound
generator) with list-II (Volt- ampere
characteristics at constant speed) and
select the correct answer using the codes
b.
given below the Lists:
List I
A. Over compounded
B. Level compounded
C. Differentially compounded
D. Under-compounded c.
List II
1.
d.
2.
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-II
1. If a 230 V dc series motor is connected to Permanent magnet dc motors used in
a 230 V ac supply, cassette tape recorder have
a. the motor will vibrate violently 1. magnets on stator and armature on the
b. the motor will run with les efficiency rotor.
and more sparking 2. magnets on the rotor and armature on
c. the motor will not run the stator.
d. the fuse will be blown 3. electronic commutation and no
brushes.
2. The interpoles in dc machines have a
tapering shape in order to 4. mechanical commutation and brushes.
a. reduce the overall weight 5. automatic speed governors.
b. reduce the saturation in the interpole Of these statements
c. economise on the material required for a. 1, 3 and 5 are correct
interpoles and their windings. b. 1, 4 and 5 are correct
d. increase the acceleration of c. 2, 3 and 5 are correct
commutation d. 1 and 4 are correct
3. Consider the following statements: 6. Two single-phase transformers with turns
At starting, the field excitation of a dc ratios 1 and 2 respectively are connected to
shunt motor is kept at its maximum value a 3-phase supply on the primary side as
to reduce shown in the figure. The voltmeter V2, will
1. sparking at brushes read
2. acceleration time.
3. starting current.
4. voltage dip in supply.
of these statements
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct a. 100 V
c. 1,3 and 4 are correct b. 173 V
d. 1,2,3 and 4are correct c. 200 V
4. As compared to the use of a single series d. 265 V
dc motor for electric traction for a given 7. In a 3-phase transformer shown in the
starting time t. the series-parallel control figure, the phase displacement of
using two similar motors with time t/2 for secondary line voltages with
each series and parallel operation would corresponding primary line voltages will
give a saving in starting energy of be
a. 100%
b. 50 %
c. 25 %
d. Zero
5. Consider the following statements:
a. zero
2 of 15
b. 300 lag 2. fractional slot winding.
c. 30° lead 3. short - chorded winding
d. 180° 4. distributed winding.
8. Three 3-phase transformers each rated at Of these statements
75 MVA, 132 kV/1 kV, have the following a. 1 and 2 are correct
different methods of cooling.:
b. 2, 3 and 4 correct
1. Self oil cooled
c. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
2. Forced oil cooled.
d. 1 and 3 are correct
3. Forced air cooled.
13. Which one of the following methods
The correct sequence in ascending order in would give a higher than actual value of
terms of the weights of these transformers regulation of an alternator?
is
a. ZPE method
a. 1,2,3
b. MMF method
b. 2, 3, 1
c. EMF method
c. 3, 1, 2
d. ASA method
d. 3, 2, 1
14. A turbo alternator set feeds power to a 3-
9. A single-phase induction regulator is a phase constant-voltage, constant-
constant input transformer to obtain frequency bus. If the steam supply to the
smooth variation of the output voltage by set is cut off, then the set will
varying the
a. continue to run at rated sped in the
a. ratio of turns between primary and same direction
secondary windings
b. continue to run at a reduced speed in
b. frequency the same direction
c. flux density in the core c. run at rated speed in the reverse
d. angle between the magnetic axes of the direction
primary and secondary windings d. come to a stop
10. An auto-transformer having a 15. An ideal synchronous motor has no
transformation ratio of 0.8 supplies a load starting torque because the
of 10 kW. The power transferred
a. rotor is made up of salient poles
inductively from the primary to the
secondary is b. relative velocity between the stator and
the rotor mmf’s is zero
a. 10 kW
c. relative velocity between stator and
b. 8 k W
rotor mmf’s is not zero
c. 2kW
d. rotor winding is highly reactive
d. Zero
16. A synchronous motor is operating on no-
11. If the dimensions of all the parts of a load at unity power factor. If the field
synchronous generator, and the number of current is increased, the power factor will
field and armature turns are doubled, then become
the generated voltage will change by a
a. leading and the current will decrease
factor of
b. lagging and the current will increase
a. 1
c. lagging and the current will decrease
b. 2
d. leading and the current will increase
c. 4
17. A 3-phase induction machine draws active
d. 8
power ‘P’ and reactive power ‘Q’ from the
12. Consider the following statements grid. If it is operated as a generator, P’ and
The effects of slot harmonics are Q will respectively be
1. skewing the slots a. positive and negative
3 of 15
b. negative and negative b. non-sinusoidal nature of the supply
c. positive and positive voltage
d. negative and positive c. stator circuit asymmetry
18. The deep bar rotor of an induction motor is d. rotor circuit asymmetry
considered equivalent to a double cage 23. The phenomenon of crawling in a 3-phase
rotor for the purposes of starting and cage induction motor may be due to
performance. At the time of starting, the a. unbalance supply voltages
current distribution in deep bar rotor slot
b. 7th space harmonic of air-gap field
will be as shown in
c. 7th time harmonic of voltage wave
d. 5th space harmonic
24. Zero sequence impedance of a 3-phase
cage induction motor is due to
a. stator circuit 3rd time harmonic
19. A 3-phase induction motor fed f a 3-phase
voltage controller is suitable for driving b. stator circuit 3rd space harmonic
loads whose torque is c. rotor circuit 3rd time harmonic
a. constant irrespective of speed d. rotor circuit 3rd space harmonic
b. inversely proportional to the square of 25. Consider the following statements:
speed Star-delta starter is used in 3-phase.
c. directly proportional to the square of induction motor because it
speed 1. prevents heating of the motor
d. inversely proportional to speed windings.
20. A 3-phase induction motor is used as an 2. ensures permissible minimum starting
adjustable speed drive from zero to 2.0 per current.
unit speed using a variable frequency 3. is regulated by electricity authorities.
inverter. In the speed range of 1.0 to. 2.0
4. ensures smooth run-up to full speed.
per unit, in order to ensure satisfactory
operation. Of these statements :
Which one of the following sets of a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
quantities is to be maintained b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
approximately constant? c. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
a. Voltage and power d. 1 and 2 are correct
b. Flux and torque 26. Match List-I (Types of motor) with List-II
c. Voltage and torque (Applications) and select the correct
d. Flux and power answer using the codes given below the
lists :
21. A 3-phase slip-ring induction motor has
chopper controlled resistance in the rotor List-I
circuit. Its power factor and efficiency can A. Shaded pole motor
be characterised respectively as B. Capacitor motor
a. good and poor C. Permanent magnet motor
b. poor and good D. Steppermotor
c. good and good List-II
d. poor and poor 1. Robotics
22. A 3-phase slip-ring induction motor when 2. Rockets
started picks up speed but runs stably at
3. Ceiling fan
about half the normal speed. This is
because of 4. Table fan
a. unbalance in the supply voltages A B C D
4 of 15
a. 4 3 1 2 c. one-third of the average
b. 3 4 2 1 d. zero
c. 3 4 1 2 31. Match List-I (parameter) with List-II
d. 4 3 2 1 (Effects) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the Lists:
27. Hysteresis motors are used for Hi-Q record
players because of their List-I
a. constant (synchronous) speed A. Percent power lost in transmission
b. extremely steady torque B. For a given current density, the
conductor size
c. insensitivity to supply voltage
fluctuations C. Power handling capacity of a line at a
given voltage
d. non-dependence on centrifugal switch
requirement D. Surge impedance of a transmission line
28. Which of the following are the features of List-II
a shaded pole motor? 1. Decreases with system Voltage
1. Salient-pole stator. 2. Reduces with line length
2. Uniform air-gap 3. Remains independent of line length
3. Two stator windings one of which is a 4. Increases with line length
short-circuited ring A B C D
4. Squirrel cage rotor. a. 1 2 4 3
Select the correct answer using the codes b. 3 4 2 1
given below:
c. 3 2 4 1
a. 1 and 4
d. 1 4 2 3
b. 2 and 4
32. “Expanded ACSR” are conductors
c. 1, 3 and 4 composed of
d. 1, 2 and 3 a. larger diameter individual strands for a
29. A hydel power plant of run-off-river type given cross-section of the aluminium
should be provided with a pondage so that strands
the b. larger diameter of the central steel
a. firm-capacity of the plant is increased strands for a given overall diameter of
b. operating head is controlled the conductor
c. pressure inside the turbine casing c. larger diameter of the aluminium
remains constant strands only for a given overall
diameter of the conductor
d. kinetic energy of the running water is
fully utilised d. a filler between the inner steel and the
outer aluminium strands to increase the
30. If within an untransposed 3-phase circuit
overall diameter of the conductor
of a transmission lines the series
impedance of each of the conductors is 33. Which of the following are the advantages
considered, it is found to contain resistive of interconnected operation of power
⎛d ⎞ systems?
terms of the form K 1og, ⎜ 12 ⎟ K being a 1. Less reserve capacity requirement.
⎝ d13 ⎠
2. More reliability.
constant and d12 and d11 etc. being
spacings between the conductors. These 3. High power factor.
terms represent power transfer from one 4. Reduction in short-circuit level.
phase to another. The sum of these terms Select the correct answer using the codes
over the three phases is given below;
a. three times the average a. 1 and 2
b. 3 times the average b. 2 and 3
5 of 15
c. 3 and 4 c. ordinate of the post-fault power-angle
d. 1 and 4 characteristic is higher than that of
during-fault characteristic
34. Steady-state stability of a power system is
improved by d. voltage behind the transient reactance
increases to a higher value
a. reducing fault clearing time
39. Consider the following statements:
b. using double circuit line instead of
single circuit line The transient stability of the power system
under unbalanced fault conditions can be
c. single pole switching
effectively improved by
d. decreasing generator inertia
1. Excitation control
35. Equal area criterion gives the information
2. phase-shifting transformer
regarding
3. single-pole switching of circuit
a. stability region
breakers
b. absolute stability
4. increasing the turbine input.
c. relative stability
Of these statements
d. swing curves
a. 1 and 2 are correct
36. With a number of generators of MVA
b. 2 and 3 are correct
capacities S1, S2, S3 ………………Sn and
inertia constants H1, H2 …………Hn,, c. 3 and 4 are correct
respectively connected to the same bus bar d. 1 and 3 are correct
in a station, the inertia constant of the 40. The non-uniform distribution of voltage
equivalent machine on a base of Sb is across the units in a string of suspension
given by type insulators is due to
n
a. ∑H S
i =1
i i
a. unequal self-capacitance of the units
b. non-uniform distance of separation of
n
Sb the units from the tower body
b. ∑S
i =1
.H i c. the existence of stray capacitance
i
between the metallic junctions of the
n
Si
c. ∑S .H i units and the tower body
i =1 b d. non-uniform distance between the
n
Si 1 cross-arm and the units
d. ∑S
i =1
.
Hi 41. Whenever the conductors are dead-ended
b
or there is a change in the direction of
37. The critical clearing time of a fault in transmission line, the insulators used are of
power systems is related to the
a. reactive power limit a. pin type
b. short-circuit current limit b. suspension type
c. steady-state stability limit c. strain type
d. transient stability limit d. shackle type
38. The use of fast acting relays and circuit 42. Consider the following statements :
breakers for clearing a sudden short-circuit In the case of suspension-type insulators,
on a transmission link between a generator the string efficiency can be improved ‘by
and the receiving-end bus improves the
transient stability of the machine because 1. using a longer cross arm.
the 2. using a guard ring.
a. short-circuit current becomes zero 3. grading the insulator discs.
b. post-fault transfer impedance attains a 4. reducing the cross-arm length.
value higher then that during the fault Of these statements
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
6 of 15
b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct figure. To improve the through-fault
c. 2 and 4 are correct stability, a stabilizing resistor is connected
between the points
d. 1 and 3 are correct
43. In a power system, each bus or node is
associated with four quantities, namely
1. real power,
2. reactive power,
3. bus-voltage magnitude and
a. R and P in series
4. phase-angle of the bus voltage.
b. P and S in series
For load-flow solution, among these four,
c. P and T in series
the number of quantities to be specified is
d. P and Q in parellel
a. an one
47. One current transformer (CT) is mounted
b. any two
over a 3-phase 3-core cable with its sheath
c. any three and armour removed from the portion
d. all the four covered by the CT. An ammeter placed in
44. Match List-I (Type of relay) with List-Il the CT secondary would measure
(For the protection of) and select the a. the positive sequence current
correct answer using the codes given b. the negative sequence current
below the Lists :
c. the zero sequence current
List-I
d. three times the zero sequence
A. Buchholtz relay
48. In connection with the arc extinction in
B. Translay relay circuit breaker, resistance switching is
C. Negative sequence relay employed wherein a resistance is placed in
D. Directional over current relay parellel with the poles of the circuit
breaker as shown in the figure. This
List-II
process introduces damping in the LC
1. Feeder circuit. For critical damping, the value of
2. Transformer ‘r’ should be equal to
3. Generator
4. Long Overhead line
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 3 4 C
a.
c. 2 1 4 3 L
d. 1 2 4 3 C
b. 0.5
45. A line trap in carrier current relaying tuned L
to carrier frequency presents
L
a. high impedance to carrier frequency c. 0.5
but low impedance to power frequency C
b. low impedance to both carrier and 1 L
d.
power frequency 2π C
c. high impedance to both carrier and 49. Load frequency control is achieved by
power frequency properly matching the individual
d. low impedance to carrier frequency but machine’s
high impedance to power frequency a. reactive powers
46. The basic circuit of circulating current b. generated voltages
system of protection is shown in the
7 of 15
c. turbine inputs a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
d. turbine and generator ratings b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
50. If a voltage-controlled bus is treated as c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
load bus, then which one of the following d. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
limits would be violated?
55. Analysis of voltage waveform of a single-
a. Voltage phase bridge converter shows that it
b. Active power contains x% of 6th harmonic. The 6th
c. Reactive power harmonic content of the voltage waveform
of a 3-phase bridge converter would be
d. Phase angle
a. less than x% due to an increase in the
51. In a conventional reverse blocking
number of pulses
thyristor
b. equal to x%, the same as that of the
a. external layers are lightly doped and
single-phase converter
internal layers are heavily doped
c. greater than x% due to changes in the
b. external layers are heavily doped and
input and output voltages of the
internal layers are lightly doped
converter
c. the p-layers are heavily doped and n-
d. difficult to predict as the analysis of
layers are lightly doped
converters is not governed by any
d. the p-layers are lightly doped and the generalised theory
n-layers are heavily doped
56. In a single-phase semi-converter with
52. If the amplitude of the gate pulse to resistive load and for a firing angle α, each
thyristor is increased, then SCR conduction and freewheeling action
a. both delay, time and rise time would take place respectively, for
increase a. α, 0°
b. the delay time would increase but the
b. π — α, α
rise time would decrease
c. π + α, α
c. the delay time would decrease but the
rise time would increase d. π — α, 0°
d. the delay time would decrease while 57. The torque produced by a single phase
the rise time remains unaffected induction motor fed through an ac voltage
53. In order to obtain static voltage controller for speed control is due to
equalization in series- connected SCRs, a. fundamental component of current as
connections are made of well as harmonics, both odd and even
a. one resister across the string b. fundamental component and even
b. resistors of different value across each harmonic of current
SCR c. fundamental component and odd
c. resistors of the same value across each harmonics of current
SCR d. fundamental component of current
d. one resistor in series with the string alone
54. Consider the following statements : 58. A dc chopper is fed from a constant
voltage main. The duty ratio α of the
The overlap angle of a phase-controlled chopper is progressively increased while
converter would ‘increase on increasing, the chopper feeds a RL load. The per unit
the current ripple would
1. supply voltage a. increase progressively
2. supply frequency b. decrease progressively
3. load current
c. decrease to a minimum value at α =
4. source inductance 0.5 and then increase
Of these statements
8 of 15
d. increase to a maximum value at α = List-II
0.5 and then decrease 1. Voltages spikes in the output voltage
59. In a two quadrant dc to dc chopper, the 2. Peaks in the inverter current
load voltage is varied from positive 3. Inductive loads of phase-controlled
maximum to negative maximum by converter
varying the time ratio of the chopper from
4. Inductive loads of dc to ac inverters
a. zero to unity
A B C D
b. unity to zero
a. 4 3 1 2
c. zero to 0.5
b. 3 4 1 2
d. 0.5.to zero
c. 3 4 2 1
60. The purpose of feedback transformer and
diode in complementary commutated in d. 4 3 2 1
verters is to 64. Match List-I with List-II and select the
a. improve the power factor of the load correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists :
b. return the trapped energy to source
List-I
c. improve the input power factor
A. Discontinuous conduction of the
d. adsorb more reactive power from the converter
source
B. Source inductance of the converter
61. Use of a reverse conducting thyristor in
place of antiparallel combination of C. Use of free-wheeling diode
thyristor and feedback diode in an inverter D. Symmetrical angle control
a. effectively minimises the peak List-II
commutating current 1. Additional reactive power loading
b. decreases the operating frequency of 2. Better displacement factor
operation 3. Poor power factor
c. minimises the effects to lead 4. Unity displacement factor
inductances on the commutation
performance A B C D
d. causes deterioration in the a. 3 1 2 4
commutation performance b. 1 3 2 4
62. A voltage source inverter is normally c. 1 3 4 2
employed when d. 3 1 4 2
a. source inductance is large and load 65. Avalanche photodiodes are. preferred over
inductance is small PIN diodes in optical communication
b. source inductance is small and load systems because of
inductance is large a. speed of operation
c. both source and load inductances are b. higher sensitivity
small c. larger bandwidth
d. both source and load inductances are d. larger power handling capacity
large
66. The drain source voltage at which the
63. Match List-I with List-II and select the drain current becomes nearly constant is
correct answer using the codes given called
below the Lists :
a. barrier voltage
List-I
b. breakdown voltage
A. Freewheeling diode
c. pick - off voltage
B. Feedback diode
d. pinch-off voltage
C. Current source inverter
D. Voltage source inverter
9 of 15
67. In the case of a BJT amplifier, bias b. 20 V
stability is achieved by c. 17.98 V
a. keeping the base current constant d. 14. 12 V
b. changing the base current In order to 71. A transformer coupled amplifier would
keep the IC and VCB constant give
c. keeping the temperature constant a. maximum voltage gain
d. keeping the temperature and the base b. mipedance matching
current constant
c. maximum current gain
68. The voltages at V1 and V2 of the
d. larger bandwidth
arrangement shown in the figure will be
respectively 72. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists :
List-I
A. Class A amplifier
B. Class B amplifier
C. Class C amplifier
D. Class AB amplifier
a. 6 V and 5.4V List-II
b. 5.4 V and 6 V 1. Hi Fidenlity
c. 3 V and 5.4 V 2. Tuned amplifier
d. 6 V and 3 V 3. Power amplifier
69. The best approximation for VC in the 4. Low distortion power
circuit shown in the figure will be (assume
5. amplifier
β to be high)
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 1 3 2 4
73. The overall bandwidth of two identical
voltage amplifiers connected in cascade
a. 4 V will
b. 6.8 a. remain the same as that of a single
c. 8.7 V stage
d. 10.7 V b. be worse than that of a single stage
70. For the full-wave rectifier shown in the c. be better than that of a single stage
figure, the rms voltage across each diode d. be better if stage gain is low and worse
will be (assume the diodes and the if stage gain is high
transformer to be ideal)
74. If the differential and common mode gains
of a differential amplifier are 50 and 0.2
respectively, then the CMRR will be
a. 10
b. 49.8
c. 50.2
d. 250
a. 28.28 V
10 of 15
75. An operational amplifier can be connected 78. A unit positive step is applied at the input
as a non-inverting voltage comparator as of the circuit shown in the figure. After 20
shown in seconds, the output V0 will be
a.
a. + 20 V
b. + 10 V
c. – 10 V
b. d. – 20 V
79. A clipping circuit is shown in the given
Fig. I. Its transfer characteristic will be as
shown. in
c.
d.
76. In the circuit shown in the given figure, the
output voltage will be
a.
a. 9 V
b. 10 V b.
c. 11 V
d. 12V
77. The open-loop gain of an operational
amplifier is 105. An input signal of 1 m V
is applied to the inverting input with the
non-inverting connected to the ground.
The supply voltages are ±10 V. The output c.
of the amplifier will be
a. + 100V
b. – 100V
c. 10 V (approximately)
d. – 10 V (approximately)
d.
11 of 15
80. Which one of low-pass filter the following b. ( A + B) + ( A + B)
correctly depicts the output of a to a pulse
input c. ( A + B ) AB
d. A + B + AB
83. Which one of the following is an non-valid
BCD code?
a. 0111 1001
b. 0101 1011
a. c. 0100 1000
d. 0100 1001
84. The expression X + Y( )( X + Y ) ( X + Y ) is
equivalent to
a. XY
b. XY
b.
c. X Y
d. XY
85. The output X of the circuit shown in the
figure will be
c.
a. AB
b. AB
c. AB
d. AB
d. 86. The output ‘F of the circuit shown in the
81. The output voltage of the circuit shown in given figure is
the given figure is
a. 1.0 V
b. 1.5 V
c. 2.0 V
a. AB
d. 2.5 V
82. The output of an EX-OR gate with A and b. AB
B as inputs will c. AB + AB
a. AB + AB d. AB + AB
12 of 15
87. The block diagram of an AM receiver is d. None of the counts
shown in the figure. The missing block 91. Which one of the following is an example
and its location are respectively of non-vola-tile memory
a. Static RAM
b. Dynamic RAM
c. ROM
d. Cache memory
92. Ab RRC instruction in 8085
microprocessor instruction set will affect
a. CY, S, Z flags
a. BPF at A
b. CY flag
b. HPF at B
c. S flag
c. BPF at C
d. Z flag
d. LPF at D
93. In a 8085 microprocessor, the following
88. In the circuit shown in the figure, Q = 0,
sequence of instructions is executed :
initially. When clock pulses are applied,
the subsequent states of ‘Q’ will be STC
CMC
MOVE A, B
RAL
MOVE B,A
After the last unstruction the output will
a. rotate the contents of the accunulator
and store it in B
a. 1,0,1,0…………… b. get the contents of B register into
b. 0,0,0,0…………… accumulator and rotate it to left by one
bit
c. 1,1,1,1……………
c. double contents of B register
d. 0, 1,0, 1…………..
d. manipulate carry in A and B
89. For the diode matrix shown in the figure,
the output Y1 will be 94. The highest priority in 8085
microprocessor system is
a. RST 7.5
b. RST 6.5
c. INTR
d. TRAP
95. In 8085 microprocessor system, the direct
addressing instruction is
a. X0X2 a. MOV A, B
b. X1X3 b. MOV B, OAH
c. X1 + X3 c. MOV C, M
d. X0 + X2 d. STA addr
90. If a mod-6 counter is constructed using 3- 96. A fragment of assembly code is given
flip-flops, the counter will skip below for 8085 :
a. 4 counts El
b. 3 counts MVI 09
c. 2 counts SIM
13 of 15
This sequence of instructions d. zero
a. Enables RST 7.5, RST 6.5 and RST 101. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by
5.5 two sine waves with modulation indices of
b. Enables RST 7.5 and RST 6.5 and 0.4 and 0.3. The resultant modulation
disables RST 5.5 index will be
c. Enables RST7.5 and disables RST 6.5 a. 1.0
and RST 5.5 b. 0.7
d. Disables RST 7.5, RST 6.5 and RST c. 0.5
5.5 d. 0.35
97. Consider the following Assembly 102. In FM, modulation index mf is equal to (Δ
Language program: f is the frequency deviation and fm is the
MVIA, 30 H modulating signal frequency)
ACI, 30H a. Δf.f m
XRA, A fm
POP H b.
Δf
After the execution of the above program, Δf
the contents of the c.
fm
Accumulator will be
a. 30 H 1
d.
b. 60 H Δf .f m
c. 00 H 103. The most useful modulation technique for
high fidelity audio broadcasting on radio
d. contents of Stack
in current practice is
98. The rms thermal noise currents of three
a. amplitude modulation
resistors are I1, 12 and I3 respectively. If
these resistors are connected in parallel, b. frequency modulation
the total equivalent noise current ‘I’ will c. pulse amplitude modulation
be d. pulse code modulation
a. I1 + I2 + I3 104. In a 100% amplitude modulated signal, if
b. (I1 + I2 + I3)1/3 the total transmitted power is P, then the
c. I21 + 122 + I23 carrier power will be
d. √ I1 + I2 + I3 a.
2
P
99. The capacity of channel is given by the 3
a. number of digits used in coding 1
b. P
b. volume of information it can take 2
c. maximum rate of information 1
c. P
transmitted 3
d. bandwidth required for information 1
d. P
100. In respect of the block diagram shown in 4
the figure, the input power is I m W. The 105. Match List-I (Types of analog
output power P0 will be communication) with List-II (System
bandwidth) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the Lists :
List-I
a. 2 m W A. Single sideband AM
b. 1 m W B. Wideband FM
c. 0.5 m W C. Vestigial sideband AM
14 of 15
D. Double sideband AM Reason (R) : Skewing of the rotor slots of
List-II an induction motor reduces the effects of
slot harmonics.
1. BW proportional to modulation index
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
2. Bw = 2x maximum signal frequency,
correct explanation of A
Fmax
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
3. fmax < BW < 2fmax
correct explanation of A
4. BW = fmax
c. A is true but R is false
A B C D
d. A is false but R is true
a. 1 4 3 2
111. Assertion (A) : In a cylindrical rotor
b. 4 1 3 2 synchronous machine, the armature
c. 1 4 2 3 reaction flux a Φ is in phase with the
d. 4 1 2 3 armature current I but in a salient-pole
106. A speech signal occupying the band width machine Φa is not in phase with I.
of 300 Hz to 3 kHz is converted into PCM Reason (R) : The reluctances along the
format for use in digital communication. If direct axis and the quadrature axis being
the sampling frequency is 8 kHz and each different, the ratios of the mmfs and the
sample is quantized into 256 levels, than respective fluxes in the two cases are not
the output bit rate will be equal.
a. 3 kb/s a. Both A and R are true and R is the
b. 8 kb/s correct explanation of A
c. 64 kb/s b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
correct explanation of A
d. 256kb/s
c. A is true but R is false
107. Message switching in computer
communication d. A is false but R is true
a. is a store and forward system 112. Assertion (A) : One-phase supply can be
converted to a 3- phase supply with the
b. requires a dedicated path between help of a suitable transformer.
transmitter and receiver
Reason (R) : 3-phase supply can be
c. is used only for long messages converted to a 1-phase supply by a suitable
d. does not require a buffer at transmitter transformer.
108. In order to obtain monochrome display in a. Both A and R are true and R is the
a colour TV monitor, the green, red and correct explanation of A
blue colors are respectively added in the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
proportion correct explanation of A
a. 0.59, .20, and 0.21 c. A is true but R is false
b. 0.60, 0.25 and 0.15 d. A is false but R is true
c. 0.59, 0.30, and 0.11 113. Assertion (A) : The concept of self-GMD
d. 0.60, 0.10 and 0.30 is applicable for the calculation of
109. A broadcast radio receiver with IF = 455 inductance of transmission lines.
kHz is tuned to 1500 kHz. The image Reason (R) : The radius of a conductor of
frequency will be transmission lines, in the expression for
a. 1045 kHz. inductance is not the self GMD of the
b. 1500 kHz conductor.
c. 1955 kHz a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
d. 2410 kHz
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
110. Assertion (A) : The winding factor of slot correct explanation of A
harmonics is equal to that of the
fundamental. c. A is true but R is false
15 of 15
d. A is false but R is true Reason (R) : A thyristor requires a definite
114. Assertion (A): The bulk supply into the amount of time to regain forward blocking
large urban areas is often carried out by capability after its current has become
underground cables operating at 132 kV zero.
and above. This results in large generation a. Both A and R are true and R is the
of VARs by the cable and consequent rise correct explanation of A
in voltage at the receiving end. b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
Reason (R) : These VARs may be correct explanation of A
neutralised by using series capacitance in c. A is true but R is false
the line at appropriate intervals.
d. A is false but R is true
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
118. Assertion (A) : A 3-phase thyristorised full
correct explanation of A
converter feeding a purely resistive load
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a with delayed firing angle of thyristors will
correct explanation of A draw reactive power from the ac supply.
c. A is true but R is false Reason (R) : The ac supply current at
d. A is false but R is true delayed firing angle will be non-sinusoidal
115. Assertion (A) : A short length of cable and its fundamental component would lad,
between an overhead line and the the supply voltage.
substation is effective in reducing the a. Both A and R are true and R is the
incoming surge voltage. correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : The surge impedance of the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
cable is quite low when compared with correct explanation of A
that of the incoming overhead line. c. A is true but R is false
a. Both A and R are true and R is the d. A is false but R is true
correct explanation of A
119. Assertion (A) : The gain of an RC coupled
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a CE amplifier falls off at low frequencies.
correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : The low frequency response
c. A is true but R is false depends on the transistor junction
d. A is false but R is true capacitance.
116. Assertion (A) : Residual earth fault relays a. Both A and R are true and R is the
cannot give satisfactory protection in the correct explanation of A
case of resonant earthed system. b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
Reason (R) : Earth fault currents are very correct explanation of A
large. c. A is true but R is false
a. Both A and R are true and R is the d. A is false but R is true
correct explanation of A
120. Assertion (A) : Read only memory (ROM)
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a is a random access memory.
correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : Time taken to access any
c. A is true but R is false location of ROM is the same.
d. A is false but R is true a. Both A and R are true and R is the
117. Assertion (A) : During inverter operation correct explanation of A
of a phase controlled thyristor power b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
converter, the upper value of firing angle correct explanation of A
range is limited to a value of less than
c. A is true but R is false
1800.
d. A is false but R is true
I.E.S-(OBJ) 1999 1 of 14
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER–II
1. A thermal generating station has an d. 0.1 pu
installed capacity of 15 MW and supplies a 5. A short transmission line has a total
daily load of 10 MW for 12 hours and 5 resistance of 2Ω, reactance of 3Ω, current
MW for remaining 12 hours. The plant of 125 A and pf of 0.8. Regulation in
capacity factor for this station is percentage is equal to
a. 1 a. 1.9
b. 0.75 b. 0.38
c. 0.67 c. 3.8
d. 0.5 d. 0.19
2. Power output (in kW) of a hydro power 6. A star-connected 3-phase 11 kV. 25 MVA
station is equal to (Q = discharge in m3/s, q alternators with its neutral grounded
overall. efficiency of the plant, h = head in through a 0.033 Pu reactance (based on the
m, ω = density of water) alternator rating) has positive negative and
75 Qω h zero-sequence reactance’s of 0.2 pu, 0.1 pu
a.
0.736 η and 0.1 pu respectively. A single line to
ground fault on one of its terminals would
0.736
b. Qω hη result in a fault current of
75 a. 150 MVA
750 Qθη b. 125 MVA
c.
0.736 h c. 100 MVA
0.736 Qhη d. 50 MVA
d.
750 ω 7. Compared to Gauss-Seidel method,
3. Consider following moderators used in Newton-Raphson method takes
nuclear reactors: a. less number of iterations and more
1. Graphite time per iteration
2. Beryllium b. less number of iterations and less time
3. Heavy water per. iteration
Their correct sequence in increasing order c. more number of iterations and more
of their neutron absorption cross-sections time per iteration
is d. more number of iterations and less
a. 1, 3, 2 time per iteration
b. 2, 1, 3 8. An infinite bus of 1 Pu is fed from a
c. 3, 1, 2 synchronous machine having E = 1.1 Pu.
If the transfer reactance between them is
d. 3, 2, 1
0.5 pu, the steady stat? power limit will be
4. 3-phase alternator rated at 50 MVA, 22 kV
a. 1.1 pu
has a synchronous reactance per phase of 5
Pu on its thermal rating. The pu value of b. 0.5 pu
this reactance on a base of 100 MVA and c. 2.2 Pu
220 kV is d. 1 pu
a. 25 pu 9. The positive sequence current for a L - L
b. 12.5 Pu fault of a 2 kV system is 1400 A, and
c. 1 pu corresponding current for a L - L - G fault
2 of 14
is 2220 A. The zero sequence impedance
of the system is
a. 62.75 Ω
b. 4.5275 Ω
c. 5.275 Ω
d. 0.5275 Ω
10. The inertia constant of a 100 MVA, 50 Hz,
4-pole generator is 10 MJ/MVA. If the
The equivalent capacitor arrangement of a
mechanical input to the machine is
two-string insulator is shown in the above
suddenly raised from 50 MW to 75 MW
figure. The maximum voltage that each
the rotor acceleration will be equal to
unit can withstand should not exceed 17.5
a. 225 electrical degree/s2 kV. The line-voltage of the complete string
b. 22.5 electrical degree/s2 is
c. 125 electrical degree/s2 a. 17.5 kV
d. 12.5 electrical degree/s2 b. 33 kV
11. A surge of 260 kV traveling in a line of c. 35 kV
natural impedance of 500Ω arrives at a d. 37.3 kV
junction with two lines of natural
16. Consider the following statements:
impedances of 250Ω and 50Ω
1. By using bundle conductors in an
respectively. The voltage transmitted in
overhead line, the corona loss is
the branch lines is
reduced.
a. 400kV
2. By using bundle conductors, the
b. 260 kV inductance of transmission line
c. 80 kV increases and capacitance reduces;
d. 40 kV 3. Corona loss causes interference in
12. Insulation coordination of UHV lines adjoining communication lines.
(above 500 kV) is, done based on Which of these statements are correct?
a. lightning surges a. 1 and 2
b. lightning surges and switches surges b. 2 and 3
c. switching surges c. 1 and 3
d. None of the above d. 1, 2 and 3
13. The number of discs in a string of 17. Which one of the following sequences of
insulators for 400 kV ac overhead operations represents the rated operating
transmission line lies in the range of duty cycle of a circuit breaker?
a. 32 to 33 (O - open; C - close; t = 3 sec.; T = 3 mm.)
b. 22 to 23 a. O – t - C0 – T - CO
c. 15 to 16 b. O – CO – t – CO – T – C
d. 9 to 10 c. O – C – T – OC – T
14. The insulation resistance of a single-core d. O – CO – T – CO – T - C
cable is 200 MΩ/km. The insulation 18.
resistance for 5 km length is
a. 40 MΩ
b. 1000 MΩ
c. 200MΩ
d. 8 MΩ
15.
3 of 14
With the usual notation, the impedance
matrix for the system shown in the above
figure is
⎡3 1 ⎤
a. ⎢ ⎥
⎣1 3⎦
⎡ 3 / 8 −1/ 8⎤ The distribution system shown in the
b. ⎢ ⎥ above figure is to be protected by over-
⎣ −1/ 8 3 / 8 ⎦ current system of protection. For proper
⎡ 6 / 5 4 / 5⎤ fault discrimination, directional over-
c. ⎢ ⎥
⎣ 4 / 5 6 / 5⎦ current relays will be required at locations
a. 1 and 4
⎡5 4⎤
d. ⎢ ⎥ b. 2 and 3
⎣4 5⎦ c. 1, 4 and 5
19. A 3-phase circuit breaker is rated at 2000 d. 2, 3 and 5
MVA, 33 kV; its making current will be
23. If the fault current is 2 kA, the relay
a. 35 kA setting is 50% arid the CT ratio is 400/5,
b. 49 kA then plug setting multiplier will be
c. 70 kA a. 25
d. 89 kA b. 15
20. Line trap at coupling capacitors are used c. 50
for carrier current protection in which d. 12.5
a. line trap has high impedance to 50 Hz 24. A three-phase 11/66 kV, delta/star
signal but low impedance to carrier transformer, protected by Merz-price
current signal whereas a coupling scheme has CT ratio of 400/5 on L.T. side.
capacitor has low impedance to 50 Hz Ratio of C.T. on H.T. side will be equal to
signal but high impedance to carrier
a. 1 : 23
signal
b. 23 : 1
b. line trap has low impedance to 50Hz
signal but high impedance to carrier c. 23 : 3
current signal, whereas a coupling d. 3 : 23
capacitor has high impedance to 50 Hz
signal but low impedance to carrier 25. Which one of the following statements in
signal respect of HVDC transmission line is not
correct?
c. both line trap and coupling capacitor
have low impedance to 50 Hz signal a. the power transmission capability of
but high impedance to carrier current bipolar line is almost the same as that
signal of single circuit ac line
d. both line trap and coupling capacitor b. HVDC link line can operate between
have high impedance to 50 Hz signal two ac systems whose frequencies
but low impedance to carrier current need not be equal
signal c. There is no distance limitation for
21. Four alternators, each rated at 5 MVA, 11 HVDC transmission by UG cable
kV with 20% reactance are working in d. Corona loss is much higher in HVDC
parallel. The short-circuit level at bus bars transmission line
is 26. In a 3-phase converter used in HVDC
a. 6.25 MVA transmission, the three anodes conduct
b. 20 MVA sequentially. Due to overlap caused by the
circuit inductance, two anodes conduct
c. 25 MVA simultaneously during the overlap period
d. 100 MVA The output voltage waveform during this
22. period is the
4 of 14
a. voltage of the 1st anode, because the firing angle α min = φ where
2nd anode has not completely taken
φ = tan −1 (ω L / R ) .
over
b. mean of the two anode voltages, as Reason (R): In an ac voltage regulator
they conduct together feeding R — L load, control is lost if
c. voltage of the 2nd anode, because the α min < φ .
voltage of this anode is greater than a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
that of the 1st correct explanation of A
d. sum of the 1st and the 2nd anode b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
voltages, because both the anodes are the correct explanation of A
conducting c. A is true but R is false
27. If, for a given alternator in economic d. A is false but R is true
operation mode, the incremental cost is 32. Assertion (A): A 64 input MUX can be
given by (0.012P +8) Rs./mwh, dPL / dP = built by using eight 8 input multiplexers
0.2 and plant λ = 25, then the power
Reason (R): Any six variable functions can
generation is
always be implemented by a multiplexer
a. 1000 MW with six address lines.
b. 1250 MW a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
c. 750 MW correct explanation of A
d. 1500 MW b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
28. Load frequency control uses the correct explanation of A
a. proportional controllers alone c. A is true but R is false
b. integral controllers alone d. A is false but R is true
c. both proportional and integral 33. Assertion (A): The input resistance of a
controllers silicon JFET is of the order of tens or
d. either proportional or integral huntlreds of megaohms.
controllers Reason (R): The gate-source junction of
29. Two generators rated at 200 MW and 400 JFET is a reverse biased silicon diode and
MW are operating in parallel. Both the hence only a very small leakage current
governors have a drop of 4%, when the flows through the gate.
total load is 300 MW They share the load a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
as (suffix ‘1’ is used for generator 200 correct explanation of A
MW and suffix ‘2’ is used for generator b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
400 MW) the correct explanation of A
a. P1 = 100 MW and P2 = 200MW c. A is true but R is false
b. P1 = 150 MW and P2 = 150 MW d. A is false but R is true
c. P1 = 200 MW and P2 = 100 MW 34. Assertion (A): The per unit impedance of a
d. P1 = 200 MW and P2 = 400 MW synchronous machine is the reciprocal of
30. Assertion (A): dc series motors are used short-circuit ratio of the machine
to drive electric locomotives. Reason (R): For the computation of the
Reason (R): dc series motor develop high short-circuit ratio, the field excitation to
torque at high speed. generate rated voltage on open-circuit
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the should be read from the open-circuit
correct explanation of A characteristic of the machine.
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
the correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true
c. A is true but R is false
31. Assertion (A): If an ac-voltage regulator is
feeding and R — L ked, the minimum d. A is false but R is true
5 of 14
35. Assertion (A): The switching function F = b. 22.22 mA, 8.61 mA and 12.3mA
Σ(0 - 3, 12 - 15) does not have a unique c. 28.33 mA, 14.61 mA and 13.33 mA
minimal sum of product form. d. 40 mA, 20 mA and 25 mA
Reason (R) The switching function F = 39. The transition capacitance of a diode is 1
Σ(0 - 3, 7, 12 - 15) has cyclic prime nF and it can withstand reverse potential of
implicants. 400 V.A capacitance of 2 nF which can
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the withstand a reverse potential of 1 kV is
correct explanation of A obtained by connecting
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a. two 1 nF diodes in parallel
the correct explanation of A b. six parallel branches with each branch
c. A is true but R is false comprising three 1 nF diodes in series
d. A is false but R is true c. two 1 nF diodes in series
36. Assertion (A): The maximum possible d. three parallel branches with each
output frequency of the basic series branch comprising six 1 nF diodes in
inverter, using SCR’s T1 and T2 is limited series
to the resonant frequency. 40.
Reason (R): Thyristor T2 can only be fired
when thyristor T1 is OFF and vice-versa,
otherwise a dead short-circuit will take
place across the dc supply.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A The circuit of a class B push-pull amplifier
c. A is true but R is false shown in the above figure. If the peak
d. A is false but R is true output voltage VO is 16 V, the power
37. drawn from the dc source would be
a. 10 W
b. 16 W
c. 20 W
d. 32 W
41. An FET source follower circuit has gm of
2 m band rd of 50 k . If the source
resistance RS is 1 kΩ, the output resistance
of the amplifier will be
A 5 V reference is drawn from the circuit a. 330 Ω
shown in the above figure. If the zener b. 450 Ω
diode is of 5 mV and 5 V, then RZ will be
c. 500 Ω
a. 50 Ω
d. 1 k Ω
b. 500 Ω
42. If the counters of INTEL 8253
c. 5000 Ω (programmable interval timer) are loaded
d. 50000 Ω with a hew value while counting, then
38. A voltage of 200 cos 100 t is applied to a a. the counter will stop counting
half-wave rectifier with a load resistance b. the counter will ignore the new. loaded
of 5 kΩ. The rectifier is represented by an value d continue to count as per
ideal diode in series with a resistance of 1 previous loaded value
kΩ. The maximum value of current, dc c. the counter will start counting
component of current and rms value of backwards
current will be respectively d. counting will restart from the new
a. 33.33 mA, 10.61 mA and 16.67 mA value of count which has been loaded
6 of 14
43.
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-II
1. If the bandwidth of ith channel is ‘Wi’ and a. 900 kHz
the total number of channels b. 450 kHz
accommodated in a time interval of T is
c. 300 kHz
‘N’, then the minimum bandwidth ‘Bmin’
for TDM is equal to d. 225 kHz
N 6. In the circuit shown in the given figure, if
a. N ∑ wi gm is 0.5 × 10–3, then the current ‘I’ will be
i =1
N
b. N
∑w
i =1
i
N
c. ∑w
i =1
i
a. Is
1 b. 100 Is
d. N
∑w
i =1
i
c. 101 Is
d. 200 Is
2. In a DSB-SC system with 100% 7. In a delta modulation scheme the step
modulation, the power saving is height is 75 mV and step width is 1.5 ms.
a. 50% The maximum slope that the staircase can
b. 66% track is
c. 75% a. 50 V/s
d. 100% b. 55 V/s
3. The noise figure of an amplifier is 6 dB. If c. 60 V/s
the input SI N ratio is 38 dB, then the d. 65 V/s
output S/N ratio will be 8. Two signals have the same frequency
a. 44dB spectrum but different phase function.
b. 40dB Their power density spectrum will
c. 36 dB V a. differ in phase
d. 32 dB V b. differ by eωt0
4. The output VR of the ratio detector and the c. differ by ω0
output VF of similar Foster-Seeley d. be identical
discriminator are related as 9. For the network shown in the given figure,
a. VF = VR the hybrid parameter h21 is
b. VF > VR
c. VF = 0.51 VR
d. VF = 2.51 VR
5. Without any filtering, a broadcast station
at 1600 kHz is heard together with another
station at 2500 kHz on a superheterodyne
receiver. The IF employer would have
been
2 of 14
r2 2. Polarity of interpole must be the same
a.
r1 + r2 as that of the main pole in advance
3. Distortion of the main field under the
r1 + r2
b. pole shoes is not affected by the use of
r1 + r2 + r3 interpoles
r2 Which of these statements regarding
c. −
r1 + r2 interpole used in dc motors is/are correct?
r1 a. 1 and 2
d. − b. 2 and 3
r1 + r2
c. 1 and 3
10. In a dc machine, the armature is always on
the rotor unlike an ac machine where it d. 1 alone
could be either on the stator or rotor, 14. A series motor drawing an armature
because current of Ia is operating under saturated
a. commutation action would otherwise magnetic conditions. The torque developed
not be possible in the motor is proportional to
b. armature reaction demagnetising action a. 1 / Ia
would otherwise be more b. 1 / I 2a
c. otherwise it would not be possible to c. I 2a
place compensating winding in pole
shoes d. Ia
d. self-starting of dc motor would not be 15. A dc shunt motor having unsaturated
possible otherwise magnetic circuit runs at 1000 rpm with
11. The armature mmf of a dc machine has rated voltage. If the applied voltage is half
of the rated voltage, the motor will run at
a. triangular space distribution and
rotates at the speed of armature a. 2000 rpm
b. trapezoidal space distribution and is b. 1000 rpm
stationary in space c. 750 rpm
c. stepped distribution and rotates at the d. 500 rpm
speed of the armature 16. A 200 V dc shunt motor delivers an output
d. triangular space distribution and is of 17 kW with an input of 20 kW. The
stationary in space field winding resistance is 50 Ω and
12. Consider the following statements : armature resistance is 0.04Ω. Maximum
efficiency will be obtained when the total
For a level compounded dc generator to
armature copper losses are equal to
run at constant speed, the series field mmf
must effectively compensate a. 2632 W
1. armature reaction mmf b. 3000 W
2. armature resistance voltage drop c. 3680 W
3. brush contact voltage drop d. 5232W
Which of these statements is/are correct? 17. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer :
a. 2 alone
List I
b. 1 and 2
A. Voltage drop test
c. 1 and 3
B. Hopkinson’s test
d. 1, 2 and 3
C. Swineburne’s test
13. Consider the following statements:
D. Retardation test
1. Interpole windings are connected in
series with armature winding List II
1. Efficiency
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2. Separation of iron and friction losses c. 198 V
3. Open- and short-circuited armature d. 390 V
coild 20. A 3-phase alternator is connected to a Dd
4. Temperature rise transformer. The hysteresis and eddy
A B C D current losses of the transformer are
respectively 300 W and 400 W. If the
a. 3 1 4 2
speed of the alternator is reduced by 10%,
b. 2 4 1 2 then the hysteresis and eddy current losses
c. 3 4 1 2 of the transformer will be respectively
d. 2 1 4 3 a. 228 W and 262.44 W
18. Match List I with List II and select the b. 243 W and 324 W
correct answer: c. 243 W and 360 W
List I d. 270 W and 400 W
A. Shell type with wound core 21. In an autotransformer of voltage ratio V1 /
B. Core type with core of laminated V2 and V1 > V2, the fraction of power
sheets transferred inductively is
C. Shell type with laminated core V1
a.
D. Core type with wound core V1 + V2
List II V2
b.
V1
V1 − V2
c.
V1 + V2
1.
V1 − V2
d.
V1
22. The windings of a Q kVA, V1 / V2 volts,
2. three phase Dd core type transformer are
reconnected to work as a single-phase
transformer, the power rating and the
maximum voltage ratio of the new
configuration will be respectively
3. a. Q/3 kVA and V1/V2 volts
b. 3Q kVA and 3V1 / 3V2 volts
c. 2Q kVA and 3 V1 / 3 V2 volts
d. 2/3Q kVA and 2V1 / 2V2 volts
4.
23. The mmf produced by the current of a 3-
A B C D
phase induction motor
a. 4 3 1 2
a. rotates at the speed of rotor in the air
b. 4 2 1 3 gap
c. 1 2 4 3 b. is standstill with respect to stator mmf
d. 1 3 4 2 c. rotates at slip speed with respect to
19. A 10 kVA, 400 V/ 200 V single-phase stator mmf
transformer with a resistance of 3% and a d. rotates at synchronous speed with
reactance of 6% is supplying a current of respect to rotor
50 A to a resistive load. The voltage across
24. A 3-phase slip-ring induction motor is
the load is
wound for 4 poles on stator and 6 poles on
a. 194 V rotor. When 3-phase balanced voltage
b. 196 V
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source at 50 Hz is applied to the motor, it 29. An induction motor and synchronous
will run at : motor are connected to a common feeder
a. 1500rpm line. To operate the feeder line at unity pf,
the synchronous motor should be
b. 1000rpm
a. under-excited
c. 750 rpm
b. over-excited
d. zero speed
c. normally excited
25. If the rotor power factor of a 3-phase
induction motor is 0.866, the spatial d. disconnected from the common
displacement between the stator magnetic terminals
field and the rotor magnetic field will be 30. Consider the following statements
a. 30° regarding the design of distributed
armature winding in a 3-phase alternator :
b. 90°
1. It reduces the phase belt harmonics
c. 120°
2. It increases utilisation of armature iron
d. 150°
and copper
26. The stator of a 6-pole, 3-phase induction
3. It increases rigidity and mechanical
motor is fed from a 3phase, 50 Hz supply
strength of the winding
which contains a pronounced fifth time
harmonic. The speed of the fifth space 4. It reduces copper in the overhang of
harmonic field produced by the fifth time the winding
harmonic in the stator supply will be Which of these statements are correct?
a. 200 rpm a. 1, 3 and 4
b. 1500 rpm b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1000 rpm c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 5000 rpm d. 1, 2 and 4
27. A 6-pole, 50 Hz wound rotor induction 31. Match List I (Power factor) with list II
motor when supplied at the rated voltage (Armature reaction of an alternator) and
and frequency with slip-ring open- select the correct answer :
circuited, developed a voltage of 100 V List I
between any two rings. If the rotor is
A. UPF
driven by an external means at 1000 rpm
opposite to the direction of stator field, the B. ZPF lagging
frequency of voltage across slip-rings will C. ZPF leading
be D. Intermediate Lagging
a. zero List II
b. 50 Hz 1. Fully demagnetising
c. 100 Hz 2. Fully magnetising
d. 200 Hz 3. Cross - magnetising
28. In a 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor, 4. Partly cross-magnetising and
skewing of rotor slots reduces 5. partly demagnetising
a. parasitic torque and noise but increases A B C D
pullout torque
a. 3 1 4 2
b. parasitic torque and noise but increases
starting torque b. 3 1 2 4
c. noise but increases pullout torque and c. 1 3 2 4
parasitic torque d. 1 3 4 2
d. parasitic torque, noise, pullout torque 32. ac tachometers are often built with thin
and starting torque metallic drag cup rotor to
a. reduce inertia
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b. obtain low Q 3. SCRs have lower power losses than
c. make them suitable for high frequency MOSFETs and IGBTs
(400 Hz) operation Which of these statements are correct?
d. eliminate direct coupling between two a. 1, 2 and 3
stator windings b. 1 and 2
33. In a synchronous machine, damper c. 2 and 3
windings are used to
d. 1 and 3
a. help in starting as a motor
37. A thyristor converter of 415 V, 100 A is
b. run it as an induction motor operating at rated load. Details of the.
c. help in starting as a motor and to thyristor used are, as follows :
reduce hunting ‘ON’ state power loss = 150 W,
d. increase efficiency Thermal resistance
34. Match List I with list II and select the Junction to case = 0.01° C/W
correct answer:
Case to sink = 0.08° C/W
List I
Sink to atmosphere = 0.09° C/W
Flux due to
Assume ambient temperature as 35°C. The
A. currents in damper windings junction temperature for 100% load is
B. currents in field windings a. 48.5° C
C. armature currents with unity internal pf b. 54.5° C
D. armature currents with zero pf c. 60° C
List II d. 62° C
1. Direct axis synchronous reactance 38. When compared to those of a symmetrical
2. Quadrature axis synchronous reactance thyristor, the turn-off time and reverse
3. Transient reactance blocking voltage of an asymmetrical
thyristor are respectively
4. Sub-transient reactance
a. large and large
A B C D
b. large and small
a. 4 3 1 2
c. small and large
b. 3 4 2 1
d. small and small
c. 3 4 1 2
39. Match List I (Devices) with List II
d. 4 3 2 1
(Properties) and select the correct answer :
35. During the turn - off process of a thyristor,
List I
the current flow, does not stop at the
instant when the current reaches zeros but A. Triac
continues to flow to a peak value in the B. Reverse conducting thyristor (RCT)
reverse direction. This is due to C. Gate turn-off thyristor (GTO)
a. commutation failure D. Amplifying gate thyristor
b. hole storage effect List II
c. presence of reverse voltage across the 1. Good di/dt behaviour even at low gate
thyristor currents
d. protective inductance in series with the 2. Normally provided with a small
thyristor continuous negative, gate pulse during
36. Consider the following statements: off state
1. BJT has lower power losses than 3. Negative gate pulse for reverse
MOSFETs. conduction
2. MOSFETs have lower power losses 4. No gate pulse for reverse conduction
than IGBTs A B C D
6 of 14
a. 4 3 1 2 43. In a 2-pulse bridge converter with
b. 3 4 2 1 freewheeling diode, the width of the diode
c. 3 4 1 2 current pulse is (α is the firing angle)
d. 4 3 2 1 a. π + α
40. In a 3-phase semi-converter, if the firing b. π—α
angle is less than or equal to 60°, then the c. π
duration of conduction of each thyristor d. 2α
and diode would be respectively
44. A single-phase ac voltage regulator is fed
a. 60° and 60° from a 50 Hz supply system. If it supplies
b. 90° and 30° a load comprising a resistance of 2 Ω
c. 120° arid 120° connected in series with an inductance of
d. 180° and 180° 6.36 mH, then the range of firing angle ‘α’
providing controlled voltage would be
41. A 3-pulse converter feed an RLE Load.
The source has a definite inductance a. 0° < α < 180°
causing overlap. The thyristors are ideal. It b. 450 < α < 1800
has an overlap angle ‘μ’ of 200 at the c. 900 < α < 1800
minimum firing angle ‘α’. The current
remains constant in the complete range of d. 0° < α < 45°
firing angles. The range of firing angles of 45. The most accurate and versatile method of
the converter would be achieving reactive power compensation is
by using
a. 00 < α < 180°
a. switched capacitors
b. 20° < α < 180°
b. fixed capacitor with controlled reactor
c. 200 < α < 160°
c. saturable reactor with capacitor bank
d. 0° < α < 160°
d. switched capacitor with controlled
42. Match List I with List II and select the reactors
correct answer
46. A voltage source inverter will have better
List I performance if its
A. Phase-controlled rectifier feeding RL a. load inductance is small and source
load with perfect smoothing inductance is large
B. Single-pulse converter feeding RL load b. both load and source inductances are
C. A constant dc voltage-fed dc to ac small
inverter feeding RL load c. both load and source inductances are
D. A constant dc current-fed dc to ac large
inverter feeding RL load d. load inductance is large and source
List II inductance is small
1. Output voltage depends on the values 47. Consider the following features:
of R and L of the load 1. Inherent short-circuit protection
2. Depends on firing angle 2. Regeneration capability
3. Constant and independent of R and L 3. Need for inverter grade thyristors
of the load
4. Voltage spikes across the load
4. Depends on firing angle and also
impedance angle of the load Which of these are the features associated
with current source inverter?
A B C D
a. 1, 2 and 3
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 2, 3 and 4
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1 3 4 2
d. 1, 2 and 4
d. 2 4 3 1
7 of 14
48. A series capacitor commuted inverter can a. iron rods
operate satisfactorily b. cadmium rods
1 R2 c. graphite rods
a. if > 2
LC 4 L d. brass rods
1 R2 54. In the statement, “In a star/delta
b. if = 2 transformer, there exists a phase difference
LC 4 L
of ‘X’ between the corresponding
1 R2
c. if < 2 phases of primary and secondary ‘Y’ ”,
LC 4 L ‘X’ and ‘Y’ stand respectively for
d. irrespective of the values of R, L and C a. 60° and voltages
49. A single-phase full-bridge voltage source b. 60° and currents
inverter operating in square wave mode c. 30° and voltages
supplied a purely inductive load. If the
d. 30° and currents
inverter time period is T, then the time
duration for which the feedback diodes 55. Which of the following conditions is/are
conduct in a cycle is necessary for the parallel operation of two
transformers?
a. T
a. Percentage impedance should be the
b. T/2
same
c. T/4
b. Polarities of both secondaries should
d. T/8 be’ the same
50. If power P available from a hydro scheme c. Voltage ratings should be the same
is given by the formula P = 9.81 QH,
d. All the conditions mentioned above in
where Q is the flow rate through the
(a), (b) and (c)
turbine in l / s and H is the head in metres,
then P will be in units of 56. The impedance per phase of a 3-phase
transmission line; on a base of 100 MVA,
a. W
100 kV is 2 pu. The value of this
b. HP impedance on a base of 400 MVA and 400
c. kJ/s kV would be
d. kWH a. 1.5 Pu
51. A coal-fired steam power station working b. 1.0 pu
at a plant load factor of 80% has one 500 c. 0.5 pu
MW generating unit. If the heat content of
d. 0.25 Pu
coal is 2 kWh/kg, the overall plant
efficiency is 40% and a train load of coal 57. The values of A, B, C and D constants for
is 2000 metric tons, then the number of a short transmission line are respectively
trains required daily for the plant is a. Z, 0, 1 and 1
a. 1 b. 0, 1, 1 and Z
b. 6 c. 1, Z, 0 and 1
c. 10 d. 1, 1, Z and 0
d. 24 58. The self GMD of a conductor with three
52. In a nuclear power station using Boiling strands each of radius ‘r’ arid touching
Water Reactor (BWR), water is used as each other is
a. a moderator but not as a coolant a. r (0.7788 × 2 × 2)1/3
b. a coolant but not as a moderator b. r (0.7788 × 2 × 2 × 2)
c. both moderator and coolant c. r (0.7788 × 2 × 2 × 2)3
d. neither moderator nor coolant d. r (0.7788 × 2 × 2)3
53. In a nuclear reactor, chain reaction is
controlled by introducing
8 of 14
59. If a short transmission line is delivering to 64. An overhead line with a surge impedance
lagging pf load, the sending-end pf would of 400 Ω is connected to a transformer by
be (notations have their usual meaning) a short length of cable of surge impedance
VR cos φ + IR sin φ 100 Ω. If a rectangular surge wave of 40
a. kV travels along the line towards the
VS
cable, then the voltage, of the wave
VR cos φ + IR travelling from the junction of the
b.
VS overhead ,line through the cable towards
the transformer would be
VR cos φ + IR
c. a. 16 kV
VS
b. 24 kV
VR sin φ + IR cos φ
d. c. 32 kV
VS
d. 36 kV
60. If the positive, negative and zero sequence 65. Disruptive corona begins in smooth
reactances of an element of a power cylindrical conductors in air at NTP if the
system are 0.3, 0.3 and 0.8 respectively, electric field intensity at the conductor
then the element would be a surface goes up to
a. synchronous generator a. 21.1 kV(rms) / cm
b. synchronous motor b. 21.1 kV(peak) / cm
c. static load c. 21.1 kV(average) / cm
d. transmission line d. 21.1 kV(rms) / m
61. An isolated synchronous generator with 66. Load flow studies involve solving
transient reactance equal to 0.1 pu on a simultaneous
100 MVA base is connected to the high
a. linear algebraic equations
voltage bus through a step up transformer
of reactance 0.1 Pu on a 100 MVA base. b. non - linear algebraic equations
The fault level at the bus is c. linear differential equations
a. 1000 MVA d. non-linear differential equations
b. 500 MVA 67. A 12-bus power system has 3 voltage
c. 50 MVA controlled buses. The dimensions of the
Jacobian matrix will be
d. 10 MVA
62. If a generator of 250 MVA rating has an a. 21 × 21
inertia constant of 6 MJ/MVA, its inertia b. 21 × 19
constant on 100 MVA base is c. 19 × 19
a. 15 MJ/MVA d. 19 × 21
b. 10.5 MJ/MVA 68. An over-current relay, having a current
c. 6 MJ/MVA setting of 125% is connected to a supply
d. 2.4 MJ/MVA circuit through a current transformer of
ratio 400/5. The pick-up value is
63. An overhead line with surge impedance of
400 Ω is terminated through a resistance a. 6.25 A
‘R’. A surge travelling over the line will b. 10 A
not suffer any reflection at the junction, if c. 12.5 A
the value of R is d. 15 A
a. 100 Ω 69. If the inductance and capacitance of a
b. 200 Ω power system are respectively 1 H and 001
c. 400 Ω μF and the. instantaneous value of
interrupted current is 10 A, then the
d. 800 Ω
voltage across the breaker contact will be
a. 50 kV
9 of 14
b. 57 kV alternator ‘2’ is rated for 8 MW When the
c. 60 kV total load is 10 MW the Loads shared by
alternators 1 and 2 would be respectively
d. 100 kV
a. 4 MW and 6 MW
70. A three-phase circuit breaker is rated at’
2000 MVA; 33 kV. Its making current will b. 6 MW and 4 MW
be c. 5 MW ad 5 MW
a. 35 kA d. 10 MW and zero
b. 70 kA 76. The cost function of a 50 MW generator is
c. 89 kA given by (Pi is the generator, loading)
d. 161 kA F(Pi) = 225 + 53 Pi + 0.02 Pi2
71. In Merz Price percentage differential When 100% loading is
protection of a Δ–Y transformer, the CT a. Rs. 55 per MWh
secondaries connection in the primary and b. Rs. 55 per MW
secondary windings of the transformer c. Rs. 33 per MWh
would be in the form
d. Rs. 33 per MW
a. Δ–Y
77. In terms of power generation and Bmm
b. Y–Δ coefficients, the transmission loss for a
c. Δ–Δ two-plant system is (Notations have their
d. Y–Y usual meaning)
72. When there is interference in an overhead a. P 12 B11 + 2 P1P2 B12 + P 22 B22
communication line running parallel and in
b. P 12 B11 – 2 P1P2 B12 + P 22 B22
close proximity to an overhead power
Line, the voltage induced in the c. P 22 B11 + 2 P1P2 B12 + P 12 B22
communication line in the longitudinal and
lateral directions by ‘the power line are d. P 12 B11 + P1P2 B12 + P 22 B22
due to 78. Assertion (A) : A threshold effect is
a. magnetic induction and electric observed in square law detectors.
induction respectively Reason (R) : Square law detector is
b. electric induction and magnetic nonlinear.
induction respectively a. Both A and R are true and R is the
c. both magnetic induction and electric correct explanation of A
induction b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
d. magnetic induction only the correct explanation of A
73. In the case of a HVDC system, there is c. A is true but R is false
a. charging current but no skin effect d. A is false but R is true
b. no charging current but skin effect 79. Assertion (A) : PSK is inferior to FSK.
c. neither charging current nor skin effect Reason (R) : PSK requires less bandwidth
d. both charging current and skin effect than FSK.
74. Shunt compensation in an EHV Ine is used a. Both A and R are true and R is the
to improve correct explanation of A
a. stability and fault level b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
b. fault level and voltage profile
c. A is true but R is false
c. voltage profile and stability
d. A is false but R is true
d. stability, fault level and voltage profile
80. Assertion (A) : The op-amp is known for
75. Two alternators each having 4% speed
its very high voltage gain and broad
regulation are working in parallel.
bandwidth.
Alternator ‘1’ is rated for 12 MW and
10 of 14
Reason (R) : The op-amp has high R 84. Assertion (A) : The rotor resistance of a
CMRR. deep bar type cage induction motor is
a. Both A and R are true and R is the higher than the running resistance.
correct explanation of A Reason (R) : The extra resistance present
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT in the rotor circuit at starting is cut out by
the correct explanation of A a centrifugal switch during normal
running.
c. A is true but R is false
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
d. A is false but R is true
correct explanation of A
81. Assertion (A) : A MOSFET amplifier
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
offers very high input impedance
the correct explanation of A
irrespective of its circuit configuration.
c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R) : MOSFET has extremely low
gate current. d. A is false but R is true
a. Both A and R are true and R is the 85. Assertion (A) : It is easy to parallel power
correct explanation of A MOSFETs for increased current handling
capability.
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A Reason (R) : The ON state resistance of a
power MOSFET has a positive
c. A is true but R is false
temperature coefficient.
d. A is false but R is true
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
82. Assertion (A) : In a bipolar junction correct explanation of A
transistor, the emitter region width (in
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
comparison to base region width) is
the correct explanation of A
immaterial in the design so long as the
base doping is kept lower than the emitter c. A is true but R is false
doping. d. A is false but R is true
Reason (R) : The emitter injection 86. Assertion (A) : It is strongly recommended
efficiency is also dependent on both that the GTO (Gate Turn— Off thyristor)
emitter and base region width and their should not be turned ‘on’ until it has been
relative dopings. ‘off’ for a specified time.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the Reason (R) : There may be poor current
correct explanation of A sharing between the various cathode
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT islands.
the correct explanation of A a. Both A and R are true and R is the
c. A is true but R is false correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
83. Assertion (A) : On supplying 2-phase
voltages to balanced two-phase windings c. A is true but R is false
(two identical windings in space d. A is false but R is true
quadrature), a rotating field is developed. 87. Assertion (A) : Variable frequency square
Reason (R) : The amplitude of rotating wave inverter providing variable voltage
field is 1.5 times that of each phase. cannot be operated below 10% of base
a. Both A and R are true and R is the frequency.
correct explanation of A Reason (R) : The thyristors get damaged
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT due to high di/dt.
the correct explanation of A a. Both A and R are true and R is the
c. A is true but R is false correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
11 of 14
d. A is false but R is true 3. a hyper abrupt junction with both sides
88. Assertion A : Voltage-time insulation heavily doped.
coordination curves for the equipment to 4. a majority camer device.
be protected and the lightning arrester to Which of these statements are correct?
be employed are used for determining the
a. 1 and 2
required insulation levels.
b. 3 and 4
Reason (R) : Voltage - time insulation
coordination curves indicate the time of c. 1, 3 and 4
arrival of the peak of surge wave at the d. 1, 2 and 4
equipment location. 94. The sensitivity of a photodiode depends
a. Both A and R are true and R is the upon
correct explanation of A a. light intensity and depletion region
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT width
the correct explanation of A b. depletion region width and excess
c. A is true but R is false carrier life time
d. A is false but R is true c. excess carrier life time and forward
89. Assertion (A) : In a high- or medium-head bias current
hydroelectric power station having a long d. forward bias current and light intensity
penstock, a surge-tank is provided near the 95. In the pnp transistor circuit shown in the
turbine. given figure, the transistor is in V,
Reason (R) : A surge-tank stores saturation with values of Vbe = 0.7 V,
additional water to be released during the Vce(sat) = 0.3 V and βmin = 20. The value of
peak-load period. IC will be
90. The main functions of the presentation
layer of the OSI model include
a. encryption and authentication
b. authentication and compression
c. compression and coding a. 4.7 mA
d. encryption and compression b. 5.3 mA
91. Which one of the following signal c. 8.6 mA
combinations will generate MEMR signal?
d. 10 mA
a. IO / M ^ RD 96. The mobility of electrons in a material is
b. IO / M ^ RD expressed in units of
a. V / s
c. IO / M ^ RD
b. m2 / V-s
d. IO / M ^ RD c. m2 / s
92. An ADC normally used in a 3½ digit d. J / K
multimeter is of
97. Match List I (Symbols) with List II
a. dual slope integration type (Devices) and select the correct answer :
b. voltage to frequency converter type
c. flash (or parallel) type List I
d. successive approximation type
93. Consider the following statements:
A tunnel diode is
1. made of Ge or GaAs.
A.
2. an abrupt junction with both sides
heavily doped.
12 of 14
100. Consider the following features regarding
an amplifier:
1. Voltage gain being less than one
B. 2. High input impedance
3. High output impedance
4. High current gain
Which of these are the characteristic
C. features of an emitter follower amplifier?
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
D. d. 2, 3 and 4
List II 101. The upper cut-off frequencies f21 and f22 of
1. Depletion mode MOSFET the two stages of a cascaded amplifier are
2. p - channel JFET respectively 5 MHz and 3.3 MHz, The
equivalent upper cut-off frequency of the
3. n - channel JFET cascaded amplifier would be
4. Enhancement mode MOSFET a. 4.16 MHz
A B C D b. 3.33 MHz
a. 2 1 4 3 c. 2 MHz
b. 4 3 2 1 d. 5 MHz
c. 2 3 4 1 102. Match List I with List II and select the
d. 4 1 2 3 correct answer :
98. FET voltage divider bias circuit is shown List I
in the given figure. If ID = 4mA, then VGS A. When bridge oscillator
and VDS will be respectively.
B. Voltage shunt feedback amplifier
C. Crystal oscillator
D. Current shunt feedback amplifier
List II
1. Low output impedance
2. RF frequency range
3. Audio frequency range
4. High input impedance
5. High output impedance
a. — 3.78 V and 4 V
A B C D
b. 4 V and — 3.78 V
a. 2 1 3 5
c. —3.78 V and —4V
b. 3 4 2 1
d. —4 V and —3.78 V
c. 5 4 2 1
99. If Vm is peak value of an applied voltage
in a half-wave rectifier with a large d. 3 1 2 5
capacitor across the load, then the peak 103. An amplifier circuit has an overall current
inverse voltage will be gain of –100 and an input resistance of 10
a. Vm / 2 kΩ with a load resistance of 1 kΩ. The
overall voltage gain of the amplifier is
b. Vm
a. 5 dB
c. 2 Vm b. 10 dB
d. 2Vm c. 20 dB
13 of 14
d. 40 dB 109. The states of a RS flip-flop are given in the
104. An op-amp has a common mode gain of following table :
0.01 and a differential mode gain of 105.
Its common mode rejection ratio would be
a. 10–7
b. 10–3
c. 103 The mode of operation of states 1, 2 and 3
are respectively
d. 107
a. indeterminate, set and reset
105. The Barkhausen criterion for sustained
oscillation is given by b. prohibited, set and hold
c. set, hold and reset
a. Aβ = 1
d. hold, set and reset
b. |Aβ| ≥ 1
110. Match List I (Circuits) with List II
c. |Aβ| < 1 (Applications) and select the correct
d. ∠Aβ = 180o answer :
106. An op-amp circuit is shown in the given List I
figure. The current ‘I’ is A. Astable multivibrator
B. Schmitt trigger
C. Bistable multivibrator
List II
1. Counter
2. Sweep generator
3. Voltage to frequency converter
a. zero
4. Comparator
b. 6mA
A B C
c. 10 mA
a. 3 4 1
d. 12 mA
b. 3 2 1
107. The waveform of the output voltage ‘V0’
c. 1 4 3
for the circuit shown in the given figure
(RC > >1) is a d. 1 2 3
111. A monostable multivibrator circuit is
shown in the given figure. The value of C
would be nearly
a. sinusoidal wave
b. square wave
c. series of spikes
d. triangular wave
108. A 10 MHz square wave clocks a 5-bit a. 0.001 μF
ripple counter. The frequency of the third b. 0.01 μF
flip-flop’s output would be c. 0.1 μF
a. 2 MHz d. 1 μF
b. 1.25 MHz 112. A 4-bit modulo 16 ripple counter uses JK
c. 50 MHz flip-flop. If the propagation delay of each
d. 615 MHz
14 of 14
flip-flop is 50 ns, the maximum clock a. IO / M , RD , WR ,
frequency that can be used is
b. S1, S0 , INTA
a. 20 MHz
b. 10 MHz c. IO / M , S1, S0
c. 5 MHz d. S2, S1, S0
d. 4 MHz 117. Control bus is used for transmitting and
receiving control signals between
113. The circuit shown in the given figure is
a. processor and key board
b. processor and various devices
c. processor and memory
d. input devices and memory
118. If (BX) = 0158
(DI) = 10A5
Displacement = 1B57
a. an AND gate (DS) = 2100
b. an OR gate (where DS is used as a segment register)
c. a XOR gate then the effective and physical addresses
produced using “RELATIVE BASE
d. a NAND gate INDEXED INDIRECT ADDRESSING”
114. In the case of a 16-bit processor, a single will be respectively
instruction is enough to process a function. a. 2D54 and 23D54
For processing the same function.
b. 23D54 and 2D54
a. more than one 8-bit processors will be
required to work in sequence c. 1B57 and 1CAF
b. more than one 8-bit processors will be d. 1CAF and 1B57
required to work in parallel 119. A sequence of instruction is executed as
c. a long sequence of instructions will be follows :
required for a 8-bit processor begin
d. the same instruction will do for a 8-bit decode the instruction fetched;
processor also if operand in memory then fetch, operand;
115. Consider the following functions of an execute instructions;
8086 microprocessor: end
1. Temporary storage of data This sequence of instructions has
2. Storing offset of a memory address in performed
DS a. fetch cycle
3. String instructions b. both fetch and execute cycles
4. JNLE instructions c. execute and decode cycles
5. JCXZ instructions d. execute cycle.
Which of these functions require the use of 120. An 8085 microprocessor based system
the SI and DI registers? drives a multiplexed 5-digit, 7-segment
a. 1, 2 and 3 display. The digits are refreshed at a rate
b. 1, 2 and 4 of 500 Hz. The ON time for each digit
c. 2, 3 and 5 (assumed equal) is
d. 3, 4 and 5 a. 4 × 10–3 s
116. Which one of the following sets of status b. 0.4 × 10–3 s
signals is used in an 8085 microprocessor c. 10–2 s
to uniquely identify the seven machine d. 2.5 × 10–2 s
cycles ?
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2001 1 of 14
ELECTRONICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-II
c.
B.
Which one of the following PCM schemes
is depicted in the above figure?
a. Adaptive DM
b. Differential PCM
c. Companding C.
d. Delta Modulation
104.
D.
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER–II
1. A d.c. series motor is accidentally d. Variable - reluctance motor
connected to single- phase a.c. supply. The 6. A 6-pole, 3-phase alternator running at
torque produced will be 1000 rpm supplies to an 8-pole, 3-phase
a. of zero average value induction motor which has a rotor current
b. oscillating of frequency 2 Hz. The speed at which the
c. steady and undirectional motor operates is
d. pulsating and unidirectional a. 1000 rpm
2. The ‘synchronous - impedance method’ of b. 960 rpm
finding the voltage regulation by a c. 750 rpm
cylindrical rotor alternator is generally d. 720 rpm
considered 7. For maximum current during ‘Slip Test’
a. a pessimistic method because on a synchronous machine, the armature
saturation is not considered V and aligns along
b. an optimistic method because a. d-axis
saturation is not considered b. q-axis
c. a fairly accurate method even if power c. 45° to d-axis
factor is not taken into account while d. 45° to q-axis
determining synchronous impedance
8. Match List I with List II and select the
d. a fairly accurate method when power correct answer:
factor is taken into account while
List I (Name of test)
determining synchronous impedance
A. Open circuit and short circuit tests
3. Generally the no-load losses of an
electrical machine is represented in its B. Open circuit and zero power factor
equivalent circuit by a tests
a. parallel resistance with a low value C. Slip test
b. series resistance with a low value D. Maximum lagging current test
c. parallel resistance with a high value List II (Result)
d. series resistance with a high value 1. Leakage reactance
4. The power factor of a synchronous motor 2. Direct axis synchronous reactance
a. improves with increase in excitation 3. Quadrature axis synchronous reactance
and may even become leading at 4. Ratio, of direct axis synchronous
higher excitations reactance to quadrature axis
b. decreases with increase in excitation synchronous reactance
c. is independent of its excitation Codes;
d. increases with loading for a given A B C D
excitation a. 1 2 4 3
5. When the excitation of normally operating b. 1 2 3 4
unloaded salient-pole synchronous motor c. 2 1 4 3
suddenly gets disconnected, it continues to d. 2 1 3 4
run as a 9. A 3-phase 50 MVA 10 kV generator has a
a. Schrage motor reactance of 0.2 ohm per phase. Hence the
b. Spherical motor per-unit value of the reactance on. a base
c. Switched- reluctance motor of 100 MVA 25 kV will be
2 of 13
a. 1.25 List I (Transformer)
b. 0.625 A. Power transformer
c. 0.032 B. Auto transformer
d. 0.32 C. Welding transformer
10. The results of a ‘Slip Test’ for determining D. Isolation transformer
direct-axis (Xd) and quadrature-axis (Xq) List II (Voltage ratio)
reactance’s of a star-connected salient - 1. 230 V / 230 V
pole alternator are given below
2. 220 V / 240V
phase values: Vmax = 108V ; Vmin = 96V , 3. 400 V / 100V
I max = 12 A, I min = 10 A. Hence the two 4. 132 k V / 11 kV
reactance will be Codes;
a. Xd = 10.8 ohms and Xq = 8 ohms A B C D
b. Xd = 9 ohms and Xq = 9.6 ohms a. 4 2 3 1
c. Xd = 9.6 ohms and Xq = 9 ohms b. 4 2 1 3
d. Xd = 8 ohms and Xq = 10.8 ohms c. 2 4 1 3
11. Stepper motors are widely used because of d. 2 4 3 1
a. wide speed range 16. A two-winding transformer is used as an
b. large rating auto-transformer. The kVA rating of the
c. no need for field control auto-transformer compared to the two-
d. compatibility with digital systems winding transformer will be
12. a. 3 times
b. 2 times
c. 1.5 times
d. same
17. A 20 kVA, 2000/200 V, 1-phase
transformer has nameplate leakage
A 3-phase transformer having zero - impedance of 8% Voltage required to be
sequence impedance Z0 has zero-sequence applied on the high - voltage side to
network as represented in the figure. The circulate full - load current with the low-
connections of its windings are voltage winding short-circuited will be
a. star with isolated neutral - delta a. 16 V
b. star with grounded neutral- delta b. 56.56 V
c. delta- star with grounded neutral c. 160 V
d. delta-delta d. 568.68 V
13. A 2-phase servomotor in control system 18. The full-load copper-Loss and iron-loss of
a transformer are 6400 W and 5000 W
a. uses drag - cup rotor
respectively. The copper-loss and iron-loss
b. solid cylindrical rotor without slots or at half load will be, respectively
windings
a. 3200 W and 2500 W
c. ordinary squirrel - cage rotor
b. 3200 W and 5200 W
d. slip - ring rotor with inherent low
c. 16O0 W and 1250 W
rotor resistance
d. 1600 W and 5000 W
14. Capacitor in a single-phase induction
motor is used for 19. In a 100 kVA, 1100/220 V, 50 Hz single -
phase trans former with 2000 turns on the
a. improving the power factor
high -voltage side, the open- circuit test
b. improving the starting torque result gives 220 V, 91 A, 5 kW on low
c. starting the motor voltage side. The core-loss component of
d. reducing the harmonics current is, approximately
15. Match List I with List II and select the a. 9.1 A
correct answer:
3 of 13
b. 22.7 A d. 3 4 2 1
c. 45.0 A 23. Match List I with list II and select the
d. 91 A correct answer:
20. Match List I with List II and select the List I
correct answer: A. Commutation
List I (Types of electrical loads) B. V-curves
A. Hoist C. Free wheeling diode
B. Fans D. Overlap
C. Machine Tools (Lathe, Milling List II
machine etc.) 1. Inductive load
D. Loads with fluid friction 2. Capacitive load
List II (Torque-speed characteristics) 3. Interpole
1. Torque ∝ (speed)2 4. Source inductance
2. Torque ∝ (speed) 5. Synchronous motor
3. Constant Torque Codes;
4. Torque ∝ 1/ (speed) A B C D
Codes; a. 3 5 1 4
A B C D b. 2 4 3 5
a. 1 3 2 4 c. 3 4 1 5
b. 1 3 4 2 d. 2 5 3 4
c. 3 1 4 2 24. Possible three -to - three phase transformer
d. 3 1 2 4 connection for parallel operation is
21. For a given torque, reducing the diverter- a. Δ - Y to Δ - Y
resistance of a d.c. series motor b. Δ - Δ to Δ - Y
a. increases its speed but armature current c. Y – Y to Δ - Y
remains the same d. Δ - Y to Y - Δ
b. increases its speed demanding more 25. Match list I with list II and select the
armature current correct answer:
c. decreases its speed demanding less List I
armature current
A. Silica Gel
d. decreases its speed but armature
B. Porcelain
current remains the same
C. Mercury
22. Match List I with list II and select the
correct answer: D. Fins
A. List I (Types of motors) List II
B. d.c. series motor 1. Bushing
C. d.c. shunt motor 2. Buccholz relay
D. 3-phase induction motor 3. Tank
E. Synchronous motor 4. Breather
List II (Characteristics) Codes;
1. Constant speed A B C D
2. High starting torque a. 2 1 4 3
3. Low starting torque b. 4 3 2 1
4. Poor stability c. 2 3 4 1
A B C D d. 4 1 2 3
a. 2 4 3 1 26. A 4 kVA, 400/200 V single-phase
transformer has resistance of 0.02 p.u. and
b. 3 1 2 4
reactance of 0.06 p.u. Its actual resistance
c. 2 1 3 4
4 of 13
and reactance referred to h.v. side, are, b. in the inverse ratio of their ratings
respectively c. in the direct ratio of their ratings
a. 0.2 ohm and 0.6. ohm d. purely reactive
b. 0.8 ohm and 2.4 ohm 32. The per-unit impedance of a circuit
c. 0.08 ohm and 0.24 ohm element is 0.15. lithe base kV and base
d. 2 ohm and 6 ohm MVA are halved, then the new value of the
27. A certain R - L series combination is per-unit impedance of the circuit element
connected across a 50 Hz single-phase a.c. will be
supply. If the instantaneous power drawn a. 0.075
was found to be negative for 2 b. 0.15
milliseconds in one cycle, the ‘power c. 0.30
factor angle’ of the current must be d. 0.60
a. 9° 33. The per-unit impedance of an alternator
b. 18° corresponding to base values 13.2 kV and
c. 36° 30 MVA is 0.2 p.u. The p.u. value of the
d. 45° impedance for base values 13.8 kV and 50
28. Stepper motors are mostly used for MVA in p.u. will be
a. high power requirements a. 0.131
b. control system applications b. 0.226
c. very high speed of operation c. 0.305
d. very low speed of operation. d. 0.364
29. A delta/star transformer has a phase-to- 34. Match List I with List II and select the
phase voltage transformation ratio of K correct answer:
⎛ List I (Phenomenon)
delta phase voltage ⎞
⎜K = ⎟ A. Voltage stability
⎝ star phase voltage ⎠
B. Transient stability
The line -to - line voltage ratio of star/delta C. Oscillatory instability
connection is given by
D. Steady-state Dynamics
a. K / 3 List II (Dominant features)
b. K 1. Power system stabilizer
c. K 3 2. Damping power
d. 3 /K 3. ‘Angle’ stability
30. Two 10 kV/440V, 1-phase transformers of 4. Reactive power
ratings 600 kVA and 350 kVA are Codes;
connected in parallel to share a load of 800 A B C D
kVA. The reactances of the transformers, a. 1 3 2 4
referred to the secondary side are 0.0198 b. 4 2 3 1
Ω and 0.0304 Ω respectively (resistances c. 1 2 3 4
negligible). The load shared by the two d. 4 3 2 1
transformers will, be, respectively
35. For transmission line which one of the
a. 484.5 kVA and 315.5 kVA following relations is true?
b. 315.5 kVA and 484.5 kVA a. AD - BC = 1
c. 533 kVA and 267 kVA b. AD - BC = 1
d. 267 kVA and 533 kVA c. AD - BC = - 1
31. Two transformers, with equal voltage ratio d. AD - BC = 0
and negligible excitation current,
connected in parallel, share load in the 36. For a given base voltage and base volt-
ratio of their kVA rating only, if their p.u. amp, the per-unit impedance value of an
impedances (based on their own kVA) are element is X. What will be the per-unit
impedance value of this element when the
a. equal
5 of 13
voltage and volt-amp bases are both 40. A cable has inductance of 0.22 mH per km
doubled? and capacitance of 0.202 μF per km. The
a. 4X surge impedance of the cable is
b. 2X a. 28 Ω
c. X b. 33 Ω
d. 0.5 X c. 42 Ω
37. d. 50 Ω
41. For some given transmission line the
expression for voltage regulation is given
V − VR
by s ×100% . Hence,
VR
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-II
1. The direction of rotation of V d.c series a. 2 and 3
motor can be reversed b. 1 and 4
a. By interchanging supply terminals c. 3 and 4
b. By interchanging field terminals d. 1 and 2
c. Either by interchanging supply 5. The dummy coils in d.c. machines are
terminals or by interchanging field useful to
terminals a. Increase the efficiency
d. By interchanging supply terminals as b. Improve the commutation
well as field terminals
c. Reduce the cost of the machine
2. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer: d. Maintain mechanical balance of
armature
List I (Machine)
6. The speed of a d.c. shunt motor may be
A. DC Motor varied by varying
B. DC Generator 1. Field current
C. Alternator 2. Supply voltage
D. Induction Motor 3. Armature circuit
List II (Graph) Select the correct answer using the codes
1. Circle Diagram given below
2. V-Curve a. 1, 2 and 3
3. Open Circuit Characteristics b. 1 and 2
4. Speed-Torque Characteristics 4. 1 and 3
A B C D 5. 2 and 3
a. 4 3 1 2 7. If the field of a synchronous motor is
b. 3 4 2 1 under excited, the power factor will be
c. 4 3 2 1 a. Lagging
d. 3 4 1 2 b. Leading
3. The current drawn by a 120 V d.c. motor c. Unity
with back e.m.f. of 110 V and armature d. More than unity
resistance of 0.4 ohm is 8. Which of the following graphs represents
a. 4A the speed-torque characteristic of a
b. 25A synchronous motor?
c. 275 A a.
d. 300 A
4. Armature torque of a d.c. motor is a
function of which of the following factors?
1. Speed
2. Field Flux b.
3. Armature Current
4. Residual Magnetism
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
2 of 15
11. The synchronous reactance is the
a. Reactance due to armature reaction of
the machine
b. Reactance due to leakage flux.
c. c. Combined reactance due to leakage
flux and armature reaction
d. Reactance either due to armature
reaction or leakage flux
12. Match List I (Type of AC Winding) with
List II (Feature of AC Windings) and
d. select the correct answer :
List I
A. Single Layer
B. Double Layer
C. Full Pitch
9. Match List I (Machine Components) with D. Chorded
List II (Functions) and select the correct List II
answer : 1. Coil span and pole pitch are. equal
List I 2. Coil span is shorter than pole pitch
A. Damper Winding 3. Number of slots is equal to number of
B. Interpole Winding coils
C. End Ring 4. Number of slots is twice the number of
D. Conservator coils
List II A B C D
1. Used in synchronous motor to provide a. 3 4 1 2
starting torque b. 4 3 2 1
2. Used in d.c. generator to neutralize the c. 3 4 2 1
reactance voltage and cross d. 4 3 1 2
magnetizing effect of armature 13. Match List I (Machines) with List II
reaction (Tests) and select the correct answer :
3. Used to short circuit rotor bars of cage- List I
type induction motor
A. Transformer V
4. Used to protect transformers from
B. DC Motor
damage when oil expands due to rise in
temperature C. Alternator
A B C D D. Induction Motor
a. 2 1 3 4 List II
b. 1 2 4 3 1. Slip Test
c. 2 1 4 3 2. Blocked Rotor Test
d. 1 2 3 4 3. Sumpner’s Test
10. An induction motor having 8 poles runs at 4. Swinburne’s Test
727.5 r.p.m. If the supply frequency is 50 A B C D
Hz, the e.m.f. in the rotor will have a a. 3 4 1 2
frequency of b. 4 3 2 1
a. 1.5 Hz c. 3 4 2 1
b. 48.5 Hz. d. 4 3 1 2
c. 51.5 Hz 14. The leakage reactance of a three-phase
d. 75 Hz alternator determined by performing
3 of 15
a. Open circuit and zero power factor c. A high value for satisfactory speed
tests control
b. Zero power factor and slip tests d. The same phase as the rotor e.m.f. and
c. Open- and short-circuit tests a high value for satisfactory speed
d. Short-circuit and slip tests control
15. Consider the following types of single- 20. In an induction motor, when the number of
phase motors: stator slots is equal to an integral multiple
of rotor slots
1. Capacitor start induction motor
a. There may be a discontinuity in
2. Capacitor start and run induction motor torque-slip characteristics
3. Permanent split capacitor motor
b. A high starting torque will be available
4. Shaded pole motor
c. The maximum torque will be high
The correct sequence of these in the
d. The machine may fail to start
ascending order or magnitude of starting
torque is 21. The use of higher flux density in the
transformer design
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
a. Reduces the weight per kVA
b. 2, 3, 4, 1
b. Increases the weight per kVA
c. 3, 4, 2, 1
c. Has no relation with the weight of
d. 4, 3, 2, 1 transformer
16. Which one of the following statements is
d. Increases the weight per kW
correct in respect of an induction motor ?
22. The function of oil in a transformer is to
a. The maximum torque will depend on provide
rotor resistance
a. Insulation and cooling
b. Although the maximum torque does
not depend on rotor resistance, yet the b. Protection against lightning
speed at which maximum torque is c. Protection against short circuit
produced depends on rotor resistance d. Lubrication
c. The maximum torque will not depend 23. A coil of 1000 turns is wound on a core. A
on standstill rotor reactance current of 1 A flowing through the coil
d. The slip of induction motor decreases creates a core fluex of 1 mWb. The energy
as torque increases stored in the magnetic field is
17. The crawling in the induction motor is a. 0.25 J
caused by b. 0.5 J
a. Improper design of stator laminations c. 1 J
b. Low voltage supply d. 2 J
c. High loads 24. Consider the following statements relating
d. Harmonics developed in motor to the constructional features of a large
18. The rotor slots are slightly skewed in power transformer:
squirrel-cage induction motor to 1. The conservator is used to maintain the
a. Increase the strengths of rotor bars level of oil in the transformer tank
b. Reduce the magnetic hum and locking 2. The bushing is used to protect
tendency of rotor transformer insulation against lightning
over-voltages
c. Economise on the copper to be used
3. The Buchholz relay is an over current
d. Provide ease of fabrication relay
19. The injected e.m.f. in the rotor of 4. Silica gel is used to absorb moisture.
induction motor must have
Which of these statements are correct ?
a. The same frequency as the slip
frequency a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. The same phase as the rotor e.m.f. b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 4
4 of 15
d. 1, 2 and 4 A. Moderator
25. Two transformers operating in parallel will B. Control Rod
share the load depending upon their C. Coolant
a. Ratings D. Shield
b. Leakage reactance List II (Materials)
c. Efficiency 1. Boron
d. Per unit impedance 2. Concrete
26. A 1 kVa, 200/100 V, 50 Hz, single-phase 3. Graphite
transformer gave the following test results 4. Sodium
on 50 Hz :
A B C D
OC (LV side) : 100 V, 20 watts
a. 3 1 4 2
SC (HV side) : 5 A, 25 watts
b. 1 3 2 4
It is assumed that no-load loss components
are equally divided. The above tests were c. 3 1 2 4
then conducted on the same transformer at d. 1 3 4 2
40 Hz. 30. The bus admittance matrix of a power
Tests results were : system is given as
OC (HV) :160 V, W1 watts.
SC (LV) : 10 A, W2 watts
Neglecting skin effect, W1 and W2 will be
a. W1 = 16 watts, W2 = 25 watts The impedance of line between bus 2 and
b. W1 = 25 watts, W2 = 31.25 watts 3 will be equal to
c. W1 = 20 watts, W2 = 20 watts a. + j 0.1
d. W1 = 14.4 watts, W2 = 25 watts b. – j 0.1
27. A generated station has a maximum c. + j 0.2
demand of 30 MW, a load factor of 60% d. – j 0.2
and a plant capacity factor of 50%. The 31. Th.e component inductance due to the
reserve capacity of the plant is internal flux-linkage of a non-magnetic
a. 5 MW straight solid circular conductor per metre
b. 4 MW length has a constant value, and is
c. 6 MW independent of the conductor-diameter,
because
d. 10 MW
a. All the internal flux due to a current
28. When a ‘pumped storage’ power plant is remains concentrated on the peripheral
operated in conjunction with a steam region of the conductor
power plant
b. The internal magnetic flux-density
a. The operating cost of the steam plant along the radial distance from the
becomes optimum centre of the conductor increases
b. Load factor .of the steam plant is proportionately to the current enclosed
increased c. The entire current is assumed to flow
c. Chances of the tripping of the system along the conductor-axis and the
decrease because of the use of two internal flux is distributed uniformly
heterogeneous types of plants and concentrically
d. Operation of the storage plant in the d. The current in the conductor is
puming-mode during the low-load assumed to be uniformly distributed
period improves the steam-plant throughout the conductor cross-section
stability 32. Match List I with List II and select the
29. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
correct answer : List I
List I (Components)
5 of 15
A. Graetz Bridge Converter end of the line being short-circuited. On
B. Series Compensation reaching the end of this line
C. Sag Templates a. The current wave is reflected back
D. Grading Ring with positive sign, but the voltage
wave with negative, sign
List II
b. The current wave is reflected back
1. EHV/UHV AC Transmission
with negative sign, but the voltage
2. HVDC Transmission wave with positive .sign
3. Insulators c. Both the current and the voltage waves
4. Tower Location are reflected with positive sign
A B C D d. Both the current and the voltage waves
a. 2 1 3 4 are reflected with negative sign
b. 1 2 4 3 36. Two insulator discs of identical
c. 2 1 4 3 capacitance value C make up a string for a
22 kV, 50 Hz, single-phase overhead line
d. 1 2 3 4
insulation system. If the pin to earth
33. A 100 km long transmission line is loaded capacitance is also C, then the string
at 110 kV. If the loss of line is 15 MW and efficiency is
the load is 150 MVA, the resistance of the
a. 50%
line is
b. 75%
a. 8.06 ohms per phase
c. 90%
b. 0.806 ohm per phase
d. 86%
c. 0.0806 ohm per phase
37. Which one of the following statements is
d. 80.6 ohms per phase
not correct for the use of bundled
34. conductors in transmission lines ?
a. Control of voltage gradient
b. Reduction in corona loss
c. Reduction in radio interference
d. Increase in interference with
communication lines
The above circuit shows a 3-phase system 38. A power system consists of two areas
having a balanced self-inductive reactance connected via a tie line. While enter in the
of XL per phase a mutual reactance of Xm data for load flow the tie line parameters
between pairs of phases. The line currents and its connectivity data were
are Ia, Ib and Ic, and they may be inadvertently left out, if the load flow
unbalanced. program is run with this incomplete data,
The series voltage-drop relations would be then the load flow calculations will
Vaa’ = Ia XL + Ib Xm + Ic Xm converge only if
Vbb’ = Ia Xm + Ib XL + Ic Xm a. One slack bus is specified in the first
area
Vcc’ = Ia Xm + Ib Xm + Ic XL
b. One slack bus is specified in the
The positive, negative and zero-sequence
second area
reactances X1, X2 and X0, respectively,
would be c. One slack bus is specified in either of
the two areas
a. (XL – Xm), (XL – Xm) and (XL – 2 Xm)
d. TWO slack buses, one in each area, are
b. (XL + Xm), (XL – 2Xm) and (XL + 2Xm)
specified
c. (XL – 2Xm), (XL + Xm) and (XL + Xm)
39.
d. (XL + 2Xm), (XL + 2Xm) and (XL + Xm)
35. A rectangular voltage wave is impressed
on a loss-free overhead line, with the far
6 of 15
generator-base. Each generator has a
reactance of 0.2 p.u.
The value of the reactor x to limit a
symmetrical short-circuit (a-b-c) current
through the circuit breaker to 1500 MVA
is
In the network as shown above, the a. 0.05 p.u.
marked parameters are p.u. impedances.
b. 0.10 p.u.
The bus-admittance matrix of the network
is c. 0.15 p.u.
d. 0.20 p.u.
⎡10 −5⎤
a. ⎢ ⎥ 42. The zero sequence current of a generator
⎣ −5 5 ⎦ for line to ground fault is j 2.4 p.u. Then
⎡ 5 −5⎤ the current through the neutral during the
b. ⎢ ⎥ fault is
⎣ −5 10 ⎦
a. j 2.4 p.u.
⎡ −10 5 ⎤
c. ⎢ ⎥ b. j 0.8 p.u,.
⎣ 5 −5⎦ c. j 7.2 p.u.
⎡ −5 5 ⎤ d. j 0.24 p.u.
d. ⎢ ⎥
⎣ 5 −10 ⎦ 43. In HVDC transmission there are
40. Consider the following statements with predominant
reference to protective relays a. Voltage harmonics on d.c. side and
1. The minimum relay coil current at current harmonics a.c. side of
which the relay operates is called pick- converters
up value. b. Current harmonics on d.c. side and
2. The pick-up value of a relay is 7.5 A voltage harmonics on a.c. side of
and fault current is 30 A. Therefore, its converters
plug setting multiplier is 5. c. Current harmonics only on the d.c. side
3. An earth fault current is generally of converters
lesser than the short-circuit current. d. Voltage harmonics only on the a.c.
4. Induction relays are used with both a.c. side of converters
and d.c. quantities. 44. Match List I (Different Configurations for
Which of these statements are correct ? Asynchronous Interconnection) with List
II (Corresponding Figures) and select the
a. 1 and 2 correct answer :
b. 2 and 3 List I
c. 1 and 3 A. Two-terminal DC Link
d. 1, 2 and 4 B. Back to back HVDC Link along with
41. AC feeder
C. Back to back HVDC Link at border
List II
1.
2.
Four identical 100 MVA, 33 kV
generators are operating in parallel, as
shown above, in two bus-bar sections,
interconnected through a current limiting 3.
reactor of x p.u. reactance on the
7 of 15
A B C
a. 3 2 1
b. 2 3 1
c. 3 1 2
d. 2 1 3
45. Consider a silicon transistor connected as a
common emitter amplifier as shown
above. The quiescent collector voltage of
the circuit is approximately
a. 6.67
b. 10 V
c. 14
d. 20 V
48.
Consider a power system with two plants
S1 and S2 connected through a tie line as
shown above.
When the load-frequency control of the
system is considered, the ‘Flat tie-line
control’ system is preferred over the ‘Flat
frequency regulation system’, because
a. It is advantageous to control the
In the transistor circuit as shown above,
frequency from any one particular
the collector to ground voltage is + 20 V.
plant without disturbing the other one
The possible condition is
during load-swings on either S1 or S2
areas a. Collector-emitter terminals shorted
b. This ensures that only the more b. Emitter to ground connection open
efficient plant’s input is controlled for c. 10 kilo-ohms resistor open
load, variation in any area d. Collector-base terminals shorted
c. Only the tie line is required to absorb 49. In an RC coupled common emitter
the load-swing amplifier
d. The load-change in a particular area is a. Coupling capacitance affects the h.f.
taken care of by the generator in that response, and bypass capacitance
area resulting in the tie-line loading to affects the 1.f response
remain constant b. Both coupling and bypass capacitances
46. In a p-n junction, to make the depletion affect the h.f. response
region extent predominantly into p-region, c. Both coupling and bypass capacitances
the concentration of impurities in the p- affect the 1.f. response only
region must be d. Coupling capacitance affects the 1.f.
a. Much less than the concentration of response and the bypass. capacitance
impurities in n-region affects the h.f. response
b. Much higher than the concentration of 50. Consider the following with reference to a
impurities in n-region CE transistor amplifier:
c. Equal to the concentration of 1. The use of negative feedback
impurities in n-region 2. The conversion of d.c. power to a.c.
d. Zero 3. High voltage and current gains
47. 4. The use of a step-up transformer
The power gain is due to
8 of 15
a. 1 and 2 b. 1
b. 2 and 3 c. 3
c. 1 and 3 d. 29
d. 1 and 4 55.
51. The open-loop voltage gain of an amplifier
is 240. The noise level in the output
without feedback is 100 mV. If a negative
feedback with β = 1/60 is used, the noise
level in the output will be
a. 1.66 mV
b. 2.4 mV Consider the following statements with
c. 4.0 mV reference to an ideal voltage follower
d. 20 mV circuit as shown above :
52. 1. Unity gain and no phase shift
2. Infinite gain and 1800 phase shift
3. Very high input impedance and very
low output impedance
4. It is a buffer amplifier
Which’ of these statements are correct ?
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
In the circuit as shown above, the ratio of d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
V0 to (V2–V1) would approximately 56.
(neglecting constant due to Vcc) be
a. RC / RE
b. RE / RC
c. –RC / RE
d. –RE / RC
53. An op-amp has a differential gain of 103
and a CMRR of 100. The output voltage of In the op-amp circuit as shown above, the
the op-amp with inputs of 120 μV and current iL is
80μV will be a. Vi / ZL
a. 26 mV b. Vi / ZL | | R1
b. 41 mV c. Vi / R1
c. 100 mV d. Vi(R1 + ZL)
d. 200 mV 57. Match List I (Circuits) with List II
54. (Characteristics/Applications) and select
the correct answer :
List I
A. High-pass RC circuit
B. Low-pass RC circuit
C. Clamping circuit
D. Clipping circuit
An FET oscillator uses the given phase
List II
shift network as shown above. The
minimum gain required for oscillation is 1. Comparator
a. –29 2. DC Restorer
9 of 15
3. Integrator
4. Differentiator
5. Compensated Attenuator
A B C D
a. 5 4 2 1
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 5 4 1 2 The above shown NMOS circuit is a gate
d. 4 3 2 1 of the type
58. The simplified form of a logic function Y a. NAND
( )(
= A B . A B is ) b. NOR
c. AND
a. A + B d. EXCLUSIVE-OR
b. A B 63. D flip-flop can be made from a J-K flip-
c. A + B flop by making
d. A B + A B a. J = K
59. The reduced form of the Boolean b. J = K = 1
c. J = 0, K = 1
expression A[B + C( AB + AC )] is
d. J = K
a. AB 64.
b. AB
c. AB
d. AB + BC
60. An n-bit AID converter is required to
convert analog input in the range 0-5 V to
an accuracy of 10 mV. The value of n In the circuit as shown above, assuming
should be initially Q0 = Q1 = 0. Then the states of Q0
a. 16 and Q1 immediately after the 33rd pulse
are
b. 10
a. 1 1
c. 9
b. 1 0
d. 8
c. 0 1
61. Consider the following statements in
respect of ECL gate: d. 0 0
1. Its switching speed is high 65. Which one of the following statements is
not correct? Conversion of EXCESS-3
2. It provides OR and NOR logic code to BCD can be achieved by using
operations
a. Discrete gates
3. Its power dissipation is small as
compared to other logic gates b. 4 : 16 de-multiplexer
4. Its logic levels are compatible with c. 4-bit full adder
other logic family gates d. A 4-bit half adder
Which of these statements are correct ? 66.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
62.
10 of 15
The three-stage Johnson Ring Counter as a. A carry and an odd parity number
shown above is clocked at a constant having 1 as the MSB
frequency of fc from the starting state of b. Zero and the auxiliary carry flag being
Q0 Q1 Q2 = 101. The frequency of outputs set
Q0 Q1 Q2 will be c. A number with even parity and I as the
a. fc / 8 MSB
b. fc / 6 d. A number with odd parity and 9 as the
c. fc / 3 MSB
d. fc / 2 71. The program counter in a 8085
67. A 4-bit modulo-16 ripple counter uses J-K microprocessor is a 16-bit register,
flip-flop. If the propagation delay of each because
flip-flop is 50 nanoseconds, the maximum a. It counts 16 bits at time
clock frequency that can be used is equal b. There are 16 address times
to c. It facilitates the user storing 16-bit data
a. 20 MHz temporarily
b. 10 MHz d. It has to fetch two 8-bit data at a time
c. 8 MHz 72. A microprocessor is ALU
d. 5 MHz a. and control unit on a single chip
68. The binary representation 100110 is b. and memory on a single chip
numerically equivalent to the c. register unit and I/O device on a single
1. Decimal representation 46 chip.
2. Octal representation 46 d. register unit and control unit on a
3. Hexadecimal representation 26 single chip
4. Excess-3 representation 13 73. In Intel 8085 A microprocessor ALE
Select the correct answer using the codes signal is made high to
given below : a. Enable the data bus to be used as low
a. 1 and 2 order address bus
b. 2 and 3 b. To latch data D0 — D7 from data bus
c. 1 and 3 c. to disable data bus
d. 2 and 4 d. To achieve all the functions listed
69. A Direct Memory Access (DMA) transfer above
implies 74. Examine the following instruction to be
a. Direct transfer of data between executed By a 8085 microprocessor. The
memory and accumulator input port has an address of 01 H and has a
data 05H to input :
b. Direct transfer of data between
memory and I/O devices without the IN 01
use of microprocessor ANI 80
c. Transfer of data exclusively with in After execution of the two instructions the
microprocessor registers following flag portions may occur :
d. A fast transfer of data between 1. Zero flag is set
microprocessor and I/O devices 2. Zero flag is reset
70. After an arithmetic operation, the flag 3. Carry flag is cleared
register of a 8085 microprocessor has the 4. Auxiliary carry flag is set
following look: Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1 and 3
The arithmetic operation has resulted in b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 3 and 4
11 of 15
d. 1, 2 and 4 79. If the accumulator of n Intel 8085 A
75. Match List I (Introduction) with List Il microprocessor contains 37 H and the
(Type of Addressing) and select the previous operation has set the carry flag,
correct answer : the instruction ACl 56 H will result in
List I a. 8 E H
A. MOVA,M b. 94 H
B. LXIH, E400H c. 7 E H
C. LDA Fl CDH d. 84 H
D. CMC 80. Which one of the following statements
List II about RAM is not correct?
1. Direct addressing a. RAM stands for random-access
memory
2. Register addressing
b. It is also called read/write memory
3. Implicit addressing
c. When power supply is switched off,
4. Register indirect addressing the information in RAM is usually lost
5. Immediate addressing d. The binary contents are entered or
A B C D stored in the RAM chip during the
a. 5 4 1 3 manufacturing state
b. 4 5 3 1 81. A handshake signal in a data transfer is
c. 5 4 2 3 transmitted
d. 4 5 1 3 a. Along with the data bits
76. How many and which types of machine b. Before the data transfer
cycles are needed to execute PUSH PSW c. After the data transfer
by an Intel 8085A microprocessor? d. Either along with the bits or after the
a. 2, Fetch and Memory write data transfer
b. 3, Fetch and 2 Memory write 82. Which one of the following is not a
c. 3, Fetch and 2 Memory read vectored interrupt ?
d. 3, Fetch, Memory read and Memory a. TRAP
write b. INTR
77. Output of the assembler in machine codes c. RST 3
is referred to as d. RST 7.5
a. Object program 83. Ports are used to connect the CPU to
b. Source program which of the following units?
c. Macroinstruction 1. Printer
d. Symbolic addressing 2. Floppy disk drives
78. Three devices A, B and C are connected to 3. Video display unit
an Intel 8085 A microprocessor. Device A 4. Incoming power supply
has the highest priority and device C has Select the correct answer using the codes
the lowest priority. The correct assignment given below :
of interrupt inputs is
a. 1 and 2
a. A uses RST 5.5, B uses RST 6.5 and C
uses TRAP b. 2 and 3
b. A uses RST 5.5 B uses RST 6.5 and C c. 3 and 4
uses RST 7.5 d. 1 and 3
c. A uses RST 7.5, uses RST 6.5 and C 84. For an AM signal, the bandwidth is 10
uses RST 5.5 kHz and the highest frequency component
d. A uses TRAP, B uses RST 5.5 and C present is 705 kHz. The carrier frequency
uses RST 6.5 used for this AM signal is
a. 695 kHz
12 of 15
b. 700 kHz b. 16.67%
c. 705 kHz c. 23.34%
d. 710 kHz d. 37.5%
85. If large amount of information is to be 90. Which of the following desirable features
transmitted in a small amount of time, we are possessed by SSB in comparison to
require AM ?
a. Low-frequency signals 1. Less power is required
b. Narrow-band signals 2. Bandwidth required is less
c. Wide-band signals 3. Antenna size can be reduced
d. High-frequency signals 4. Lower frequency can be used
86. Match List I (System) with List II Select the correct answer using the codes
(Application) and select the correct given below :
answer: a. 3 and 4
List I b. 2, 3 and 4
A. Pre-emphasis c. 1 and 2
B. Armstrong Method d. 1, 2 and 4
C. Envelope Detector 91. The detection-gain for coherent DSB
D. De-Emphasis demodulator is
List II a. 2
1. AM Detector b. 4
2. FM Receiver c. 8
3. FM Generator d. 16
4. FM Transmitter 92. Power spectral density of a signal is
5. AM Transmitter a. Complex, even and non-negative
A B C D b. Real, even and non-negative
a. 4 3 2 1 c. Real, even and negative
b. 3 5 1 2 d. Complex, odd and negative
c. 4 3 1 2 93. Which one of the following multiplexing
d. 5 3 2 1 techniques involves signals composed of
87. A modulator is a device to light beams ?
a. Separate two frequencies a. CDM
b. Impress the information on to a radio b. FDM
frequency carrier c. TDM
c. Extract information from the carrier d. WDM
d. Amplify the audio frequency signal 94. In a communication system, a process for
88. A modulation technique in which which statistical averages and time-
bandwidth of the modulated signal is averages are equal, is called
extended well beyond the bandwidth of the a. Stationary
modulating signal, independent of the b. Ergodic
modulating. signal bandwidth, is called c. Gaussian
a. Wide-band modulation d. BIBO stable
b. Extended bandwidth modulation 95. In which type of the switchings given
c. Spread spectrum modulation below, entire capacity of a dedicated link
d. Narrow-band modulation is used ?
89. In AM, the percentage of total power in a. Circuit switching
sideband is b. Data gram packet switching
a. 10% c. Virtual circuit packed switching
13 of 15
d. Message switching 4. Affect the delay time
96. In TV transmission, the modulation A B C D
schemes for Video and Audio are, a. 2 1 4 3
respectively b. 1 2 3 4
a. FM and AM c. 2 1 3 4
b. FM and FM d. 1 2 4 3
c. AM and FM 100. An ideal chopper operating at a frequency
d. AM and AM of 500 Hz, supplies a load having
97. Match List I (Converters) with List II resistance of 3 ohms and inductance of 9
(Type of Conversion) and select the mH from a 60 V battery. The mean value
correct answer : of the load voltage for on/off ratio of 4/1,
List I (assuming that load is shunted by a perfect
A. Controlled Rectifier commutating diode and battery is loss-
less) is
B. Chopper
a. 240 V
C. Inverter
b. 48 V
D. Cycloconverter
c. 15V
List II
d. 4V
1. Fixed DC to variable voltage and
variable frequency AC 101. The characteristic features of
discontinuous conduction compared to
2. Fixed DC to variable DC continuous conduction in a four-pulse,
3. Fixed AC to variable DC single-phase bridge converter are
4. Fixed AC to variable frequency AC a. Larger average value of load voltage
A B C D and larger ripple-content
a. 2 3 1 4 b. Larger average value of load voltage
b. 3 2 4 1 and smaller ripple-content
c. 2 3 4 1 c. Smaller average value of load voltage
d. 3 2 1 4 and smaller ripple content
98. Turn-on and turn-off times of transistor d. Smaller average value of load voltage
depend on and larger ripple-content
a. Static characteristic 102. If the r.m.s. source voltage is V volts, the
minimum and maximum values of firing
b. Junction capacitances
angles for a single-phase, half-wave
c. Current gain controlled rectifier, supplying a load with a
d. None of the above back e.m.f. of 40 volts are
99. Match List I (Characteristic/Action) with a. 00 and 180o
List II (Observations) and select the
b. α = sin–1 (40/ 2V ) and 1800
correct answer:
List I c. α = sin–1 (40/ 2V ) and [π–sin–1
A. Turn-on time of thyristor (40/ 2V )]
B. Turn-on time of transistor d. 00 and [π – sin–1 (40/ 2V )]
C. Rate of rise of gate current in thyristor 103. An AC voltage-regulator using back-to-
D. If the gate pulse is removed, when the back connected SCRs is feeding an RL
thyristor is carrying a current, less than load. The SCR firing angle α < φ (φ is
latching current power factor angle of the load). If SCRs
List II are fired using short-duration gate pulses,
1. Depends on junction capacitances the output load-voltage waveform will be
2. Is the sum of delay and rise times a. Symmetrical chopped ac. voltage
3. Thyristor switches back to OFF-state b. Half-wave rectified
14 of 15
c. Full-wave rectified 2 × 48V
d.
d. Sinusoidal 2 2π
104. In a self-controlled synchronous motor fed 108. A boost-regulator has an input voltage of
from a variable frequency inverter 5V and the average output voltage of 15 V.
a. The rotor poles invariably have damper The duty cycle is
windings a. 3/2
b. There are stability problems b. 2/3
c. The speed of the rotor decides stator c. 5/2
frequency d. 15/2
d. The frequency of the stator decides the 109. An inter-group reactor is used in a single-
rotor speed phase cycloconverter circuit to
105. A d.c. source is switched in steps to a. Reduce current-ripples
synthesize the three-phase output. The
basic three-phase bridge inverter can be b. Reduce voltage-ripples
controlled. The angle through which each c. Limit circulating current
switch conducts, and at any instant the d. Limit di/dt in the semiconductor switch
number of switches conducting 110. Assertion (A) : DC series motors are
simultaneously are, respectively. suitable for cranes.
a. 120° and 02 Reason (R) : DC, series motors provide
b. 120° and 03 high starting torque.
c. 180° and 02 a. Both A and R are individually true and
d. 1800 and 04 R is the correct explanation. of A
106. b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
111. Assertion (A) : The short circuit, ratio
(SCR) of a three-phase alternator should
be high.
Reason (R) : A high value of SCR will
For a single-phase, full-bridge inverter
decrease the value of voltage regulation
supplying power to a highly inductive load
and will increase the maximum power
as shown above, the correct sequence of
output.
operation of switches and diodes is
a. Both A and R are individually true and
a. S1S4 – S3S2 – S1S4 – S3S2
R is the correct explanation. of A
b. D1D4 – S1S4 – D2D3 – S2S3
b. Both A and R are individually true but
c. S1D3 – S1S4 – S4D2 – D2D3 R is not the correct explanation of A
d. S2D4 – D4D1 – D1S3 – S3S2 c. A is true but R is false
107. A single-phase, half-bridge inverter has d. A is false but R is true
input voltage of 48 V DC. Inverter is
112. Assertion (A) : Single-phase induction
feeding a load of 2.4 Ω. The r.m.s. output
motor is not self-starting.
voltage at fundamental frequency is
Reason (R) : No rotating magnetic field is
2 × 48V
a. set up in the air gap of a single-phase
π induction motor.
2 × 48V a. Both A and R are individually true and
b.
2π R is the correct explanation. of A
2 × 48V b. Both A and R are individually true but
c. R is not the correct explanation of A
π
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
15 of 15
113. Assertion (A) : A double-cage induction execution of the following couple of
motor has good starting characteristics. instructions
Reason (R) : At starting, a large position of MVI B, 03
starting current flows in the bottom cage. MOV A, B
a. Both A and R are individually true and Reason (R) : After the execution of a data
R is the correct explanation of A. transfer instruction, zero-flag is set if the
b. Both A and R are individually true but accumulator content is zero.
R is not the correct explanation of A. a. Both A and R are individually true and
c. A is true but R is false R is the correct explanation. of A
d. A is false but R is true b. Both A and R are individually true but
114. Assertion (A) : Hydroelectric plants with R is not the correct explanation of A
large storage can be best used as base toad c. A is true but R is false
plants high load factor. d. A is false but R is true
Reason (R) : For a plant to .be used as base 118. Assertion (A): Microwave links are
plant, the unit cost of energy generated by generally preferred to coaxial cable for TV
the plant should be low. transmission.
a. Both A and R are individually true and Reason (R) : Microwave links have greater
R is the correct explanation. of A bandwidth than coaxial cables. .
b. Both A and R are individually true but a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is not the correct explanation of A R is the correct explanation. of A
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A and R are individually true but
d. A is false but R is true R is not the correct explanation of A
115. Assertion (A) : Transistor h-parameter c. A is true but R is false
equivalent circuit can be used for the d. A is false but R is true
analysis irrespective of the configuration 119. Assertion (A) : FM transmission is noise
(CE, CB or CC) of the transistor used. free.
Reason(R) : The values of h-parameter Reason (R) : In FM, information is carried
remain unchanged with transistor as frequency variation.
configuration.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation. of A
R is the correct explanation. of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
b. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
d. A is false but R is true
120. Assertion (A) : The critical rate of change
116. Assertion (A) : In an asynchronous of forward-voltage is the value of dv/dt, at
counter, output of each FF serves as CLK which the device just goes into conduction
input signal for the next FF without a gate pulse.
Reason (R) : All the FFs do not change Reason (R) : Thyristors go to a state of
states in exact synchronism with the clock conduction with the application of sharp
pulses. rate of change of forward-voltage in the
a. Both A and R are individually true and absence of gate pulse, even before the
R is the correct explanation. of A break- forward voltage limit is reached.
b. Both A and R are individually true but a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is not the correct explanation of A R is the correct explanation. of A
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A and R are individually true but
d. A is false but R is true R is not the correct explanation of A
117. Assertion (A) :. The zero-flag of a 8085 c. A is true but R is false
microprocessor is not affected after the d. A is false but R is true
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2004 1 of 16
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-II
1. The diagram given below shows the 4. Self–starting
connection of a four–wire delta bank for A B C D
obtaining a 3–phase 4–wire distribution a. 3 4 1 2
system. The secondary voltages between
the terminals are as indicated, a b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 4 3 2 1
4. In a d.c. machine, for the same values of φ,
Z and N; which one of the following
statements is correct ?
What is the voltage between the terminals
b and d in the above system when the a. Armature e.m.f. is more with wave
primary side is energized from an winding than with lap winding
appropriate symmetrical 3–phase system? b. Armature e.m.f. is less with wave
winding than with lap winding
a. 230 / 2 V
c. Armature e.m.f. depends on whether
b. 230 / 3 V the machine is running as a motor or a
c. 115 × 3 V generator
d. Armature e.m.f. is the same as long as
d. 115 × 2 V the flux density in the air gap remains
2. If per unit impedances of two transformers the same
connected in parallel are not equal, then 5. Match List I (Constructional Components)
which one of the following statements is with List II (Machines) and select the
correct? correct answer using the codes given
a. The power factor of the two below :
transformers will be different from that List I
of the connected load
A. Damper bars
b. Transformers will get overloaded
B. Equalizer rings
c. Dead short circuit occurs
C. Skewed slots
d. The transformer with higher per unit
D. Water–cooling ducts
impedance will share more load
List II
3. Match List I (Machine) with List II
(Performance) and select the correct 1. Cylindrical – rotor synchronous
answer using the codes given below : generator
List I 2. Salient pole synchronous motor
A. Three phase induction motor 3. Squirrel–cage induction motor
B. Synchronous motor 4. Direct current generator
C. D. C. series motor A B C D
D. D. C. shunt motor a. 2 4 3 1
List II b. 1 3 4 2
1. Adjustable speed c. 1 4 3 2
2. High starting torque d. 2 3 4 1
3. Not self–starting 6. A d.c. shunt motor is excited from an
alternating power frequency voltage
2 of 16
source. Its brush–axis is rotated by an. 9. What is the increase in the torque
angle α from the geometrical neutral axis. expressed as percentage of initial torque, if
The torque developed will be proportional the current drawn by a d.c. motor is
to which one of the following? increased from 10 A to 12 A (Neglect
a. sin α saturation)?
b. cos α a. 21%
b. 25%
c. tan α
c. 41%
d. cos 2α
d. 44%
7. Four types of d.c. generators of constant
speed are considered (List I). Their 10. Consider the following statements
external characteristics at constant speed In a d.c. machine, iron loss occurs in
are given in List II. Match List I (Type of 1. armature core
d.c. generator) with List II (External 2. yoke
characteristics) and select the correct
3. pole cores
answer using the codes given below :
4. pole shoes
List I (Type of d.c. generator)
Which of the statements given above are
A. Separately excited
correct?
B. Series excited
a. 1 and 4
C. Shunt excited
b. 1 and 2
D. Over–compound excited
c. 1 and 3
List II (External characteristics)
d. 2 and 3
1.
11. Four important parameters of alternators
have comparatively larger or smaller
values. In comparison to a steam turbine
driven alternator, a hydraulically driven
machine will have which one of the
following combinations?
Number of Axial Number Operating
armature length of of poles speed
A B C D conductors armature
a. 2 3 1 4 conductors
( X +X +L + X )
q+1 q+2 m −1
b. ( X ⊕ X ⊕L X )
p p+1 q
(X q+1 +X q+2 + L + X m −1 ) d.
c. (X p +X p+1 + L + X q−1 + X q )
(X q+1 .L.X m −1 )
d. ( X +X +X +L + X )
0 1 2 q
(X q+1 .X q+2 .L.X m −1 ) 68. A silicon transistor with VBE sat = 0.8 V, βdc
66. Consider the following circuit : = 100 and VCE sat = 0.2 V is used in the
circuit shown below :
( a+jw )
2
c. X(jw) = c.
jw
1
d. X(jw) =
( a+jw )
2
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER–II
1. A coil of 1000 turns is wound on a core. A C. Sumpner’s Test
current of 1 A flowing through the coil D. Load Test
creates a core flux of 1 mWb. What is the
energy stored in the magnetic field? List II
1. Copper loss and iron loss
1
a. J 2. Total losses
4
1 3. Iron loss
b. J 4. Copper loss
2
c. 1 J Codes;
d. 2 J A B C D
2. Match List I (Type of Coil) with List II a. 3 4 1 2
(Use of Coil) and select the correct answer b. 2 1 4 3
using the code given below the lists: c. 3 1 4 2
List I d. 2 4 1 3
A. Sandwitch coils 4.
B. Disc coils
C. Cross-over coils
D. Spiral type
List II
1. Low voltage coils for currents above
100 A
2. High voltage windings of small The exact equivalent circuit of a two-
transformers winding transformer is given in the figure
3. Cooling oil is in contact with each turn given above. For affecting simplification,
of the winding the parallel magnetising branch, consisting
of RC and XQ is shifted to’ the left of the
4. Shell-type transformer core
primary leakage impedance (r1 + jx1). This
Codes; simplification introduces the inaccuracy, in
A B C D the neglect of:
a. 2 3 4 1 a. Voltage-drop in ‘the primary
b. 4 1 2 3 impedance due to the secondary
current
c. 2 1 4 3
b. Voltage-drop in the primary
d. 4 3 2 1 impedance due to the exciting current
3. Match List I (Test) with List II c. Voltage-drop in the secondary
(Quantities) and select the correct answer impedance due to the exciting current
using the code given below the lists:
d. Reduction in values of RC and XQ of
List I the exciting circuit
A. O C Test 5.
B. S C Test
2 of 16
4. Sumpner’s test
Codes;
A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3
b. 3 4 2 1
A single-phase, 10 kVA, 2000/200 V, 50
Hz transformer is connected to form an c. 1 4 2 3
auto transformer as shown in the figure d. 3 2 4 1
given above. What are the values of V1 9.
and I2 respectively?
a. 2200 V, 55 A
b. 2200 V, 45 A
c. 2000 V, 45 A
d. 1800 V, 45 A
6. Three single phase 11000/220 V
transformers are connected to form 3- Two single phase transformers A and B
phase transformer bank. High voltage side are connected in parallel, observing all
is connected in star, and low voltage side requirements of a parallel operation,
is in delta. What are the voltage ratings except that the induced voltage Ea is
and turn ratio of 3-phase transformer? slightly greater than Eb; Zea and Zeb being
a. 19052/220V, 50 the equivalent impedances of A and B,
both referred to the secondary side.
b. 19052/220V, 50 3 Under this operating condition with the
c. 11000/381 V, 50 3 primary bus-bars being energized, a
circulating current will flow:
d. 11000/220 V, 50
a. Only in the secondary windings of A
7. If the wave form of the voltage impressed
and B
on the primary of a Y — Δ bank contains
5th harmonics, what are the wave forms of b. In both the primary and the secondary
the resultant voltages of the primary and windings of A and B
the secondary? c. In both the primary and the secondary
Primary Secondary windings of A and B, as well as in the
primary side network
a. Peaked Peaked
d. In the primary and the secondary
b. Peaked Flat-topped windings of A and B, and boost the
c. Flat-topped Peaked voltages on the secondary side of both
d. Flat-topped Flat-topped A and B
8. Match List I (Machine) with List II (Test) 10. The armature resistance of a 6-pole lap
and select the correct answer using the wound d.c. machine is 0.05Ω. If the
code given below the lists: armature is rewound as a wave-winding,
List I what is the armature resistance?
A. DC Motors a. 0.45 Ω
B. Single phase transformers b. 0.30 Ω
C. 3-phase induction motors c. 0.15 Ω
D. Salient pole alternators d. 0.10 Ω
List II 11. In a d.c. compound generator, “flat-
compound” characteristic, required for
1. Slip test
certain applications, may be obtained by
2. Blocked rotor test connecting a variable resistance:
3. Swinburne’s test
3 of 16
a. Across the series field 15. In the measurement of Xd, Xq (in ohms),
b. In series with the series field following data are obtained by the slip test
on a salient pole machine:
c. In parallel with the shunt field
Id max = 10 A Id min = 6.5 A
d. In series with the shunt field
Vd max = 30 V Vd min = 25 V
12. A 6-pole lap wound d.c. machine armature
has 720 conductors and it draws 50 A from Which one of the following is correct?
supply mains. What is the flux distribution a. Xd = 3, Xq = 3.86
produced by the armature reaction per b. Xd = 4.615, Xq = 2.5
pole?
c. Xd = 3, Xq = 2.5
a. Rectangular in wave shape with a peak
of 500 AT d. Xd = 4.61, Xq = 3.86
b. Rectangular in wave shape with a peak 16. What are the conditions to be satisfied for
of 100 AT alternator to be synchronized with an
incoming supply?
c. Triangular in wave shape with a peak
of 500 AT 1. Equal voltage
d. Triangular in wave shape with a peak 2. Equal frequency
of 1000 AT 3. Same power rating
13. Match List I with List II and select the 4. Same phase sequence
correct answer using the code given below Select the correct answer using the code
the lists: given below:
List I (DC Motor) a. 2, 3 and 4
A. Cumulatively compound motor b. 3 and 4
B. Differentially compound motor c. 1, 2 and 3
C. Series motor d. 1, 2 and 4
D. Shunt motor 17. The stator and the rotor of a 3-phase, 4-
List II (Characteristic) pole wound-rotor induction motor are
1. Fairly constant speed irrespective of excited, respectively, from a 50 Hz and a
the load 30 Hz source of appropriate voltage.
Neglecting all losses, what is/are the
2. It may start in reverse direction possible no-load speed/speeds at which the
3. Definite no-load speed motor would run?
4. Is never started without load a. 1500 rpm and 900 rpm
Codes; b. 2400 rpm and 600 rpm
A B C D c. 2400 rpm only
a. 4 1 3 2 d. 600 rpm only
b. 3 2 4 1 18. A starting torque of 80 Nm is developed in
c. 4 2 3 1 an induction motor by an auto-transformer
starter with a tapping of 30%. If the
d. 3 1 4 2 tapping of auto-transformer starter is 60%,
14. A synchronous motor is operated from a then what is the starting torque?
bus voltage of 1.0 pu and is drawing 1.0 pu a. 40 Nm
zero power factor leading current. Its
synchronous reactance is 0.5 pu. What is b. I60 Nm
the excitation emf of the motor? c. 240 Nm
a. 2.0 d. 320 Nm
b. 1.5 19. Which of the following methods are
c. 1.0 suitable for the speed control of squirrel
cage induction motors?
d. 0.5
4 of 16
1. Voltage control load, when the D.C. shunt motor takes 50
2. Rotor resistance control A on full load?
3. Frequency control a. 0.94
4. Pole changing method b. 0.8
Select the correct answer using the codes c. 0.6
given below: d. 0.4
a. 2, 3 and 4 25. A linear ac servomotor must have:
b. 1, 3 and 4 a. High rotor resistance
c. 1, 2 and 3 b. High rotor reactance
d. 2 and 4 c. A large air gap
20. A capacitor-start single-phase inductor d. Both high rotor resistance and
motor is used for: reactance
a. Easy to start loads 26. A wound rotor induction motor runs with a
b. Medium start loads slip of 0.03 when developing full load
torque. Its rotor resistance is 0.25 ohm per
c. Hard to start loads phase. If an external resistance of 0.50
d. Any type of start loads ohm per phase is connected across the sup
21. In hand-tool applications, which one of the rings, what is the slip for full torque?
following single phase motors is used? a. 0.03
a. Shaded pole motor b. 0.06
b. Capacitor start motor c. 0.09
c. Capacitor run motor d. 0.1
d. AC series motor 27. Match List I (Characteristics) with List II
22. (Relation) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists
List I
A. Open circuit characteristics
B. Internal characteristics
What is the phase displacement between C. External characteristics
primary and secondary voltages for a star- D. Load saturation curve
delta, 3-phase transformer connection
List II
shown above?
1. V v. If
a. 300 lagging
2. E0 v. If
b. 30° leading
3. E v. Ia
c. 0°
4. V v. I
d. 180°
Codes;
23. What is the shunt resistance component in
equivalent circuit obtained by no load test A B C D
of an induction motor representative of? a. 4 3 2 1
a. Windage and frictional losses only b. 2 1 4 3
b. Core losses only c. 4 1 2 3
c. Core, windage and frictional losses d. 2 3 4 1
d. Copper losses 28. In the block diagram of a separately
24. A 400 V D.C. shunt motor takes 5 A at no- excited dc motor, how does the armature
load. Ra = 0.5 ohms, Rf = 200 ohms. What induced emf appear as?
is the ratio of speed from full load to no- a. Positive feedback
5 of 16
b. Negative feedback 33.
c. Disturbance input
d. Output
29. A Buchholz relay is used for:
a. Protection of a transformer against all
internal faults
A zero-sequence network of a 3-phase
b. Protection of a transformer against transformer is given above. Z0 is the zero-
external faults sequence impedance of the transformer.
c. Protection of a transformer against What is the type of transformer
both internal and external faults connections?
d. Protection of induction motors a.
30. On what basis is the insulation level of a
400 kV, EHV overhead transmission line
decided? b.
a. Lightning over voltage
b. Corona inception voltage
c. Switching over voltage c.
d. Radio and TV interference
31. On which one of the following cycles does
a modern steam power plant work? d.
a. Carnot cycle
b. Rankine cycle
c. Otto cycle 34. The charging reactance of 50 km length of
d. Bell-Coleman cycle the line is 1500Ω. What is the charging
reactance for 100 km length of the line?
32. Match List I (Classification of Head) with
List II (Type of Turbines) and select the a. 1500 Ω
correct answer using the code given below b. 3000 Ω
the lists:
c. 750 Ω
List I
d. 600 Ω
A. Low head, 2 – 15 m
35. Equivalent n model is quite suitable for
B. Medium head, 15 – 70 m analyzing the performance of transmission
C. High head, 70 – 500 m line of
D. Very high head > 500 m a. 50 km length
List II b. 150 km length
1. Propeller or Kaplan c. 250 km length
2. Kaplan or Francis d. All of the above lengths
3. Pelton 36. Consider the following statements in
4. Francis or Pelton respect of load flow studies in power
systems:
Codes;
1. Bus admittance matrix is a sparse
A B C D
matrix.
a. 1 3 4 2
2. Gauss-Seidel method is preferred over
b. 4 2 1 3 Newton-Raphson method for load flow
c. 1 2 4 3 studies.
d. 4 3 1 2
6 of 16
3. One of the buses is taken as slack bus 40. A fault occurring at the terminals of an
in load flow studies. unloaded synronous generator operating at
Which of the statements given above are its rated voltage has resulted in the
correct? following values of currents and voltages:
a. 1, 2 and 3 Iao = j 2.37 pu,
b. 1 and 2 Ial = - j 3.05 pu, Ia2 = j = 0.68 pu,
c. 1 and 3 Vao = Va1 = Va2 = 0.237 pu
d. 2 and 3 Which one of the following faults has
occurred?
37. Buses for load flow studies are classified
as: (i) Load bus (ii) PV bus (iii) Slack Bus a. L - L fault
Which one of the following is the correct b. L - G fault
combination of the pair of quantities c. L – L - G fault
specified having their usual meaning for d. L – L – L fault
different buses?
41. For 800 MJ stored energy in the rotor at
Load bus PV bus Slack bus synchronous speed, what is the inertia
a. P, | v | P, Q P, δ constant H for a 50 Hz, four pole turbo-
b. P, Q P, | v | | v |, δ generator rated 100 MVA, 11kv?
a. 2.0 MJ/MVA
c. | v |, Q P, δ P, Q
b. 4.0 MJ/MVA
d. P, δ Q, | v | Q, δ
c. 6.0 MJ/MVA
38.
d. 8.0 MJ/MVA
42. A 50 Hz, 17.32 kV generators is connected
to a power system. The system reactance
and capacitance per phase are 10 mH and
0.02 mF, respectively. What is the
maximum voltage across the contents of
the circuit breaker at an instant when it
passes through zero?
A sample power system network is shown a. 28.28 kV
in the figure given above. The reactances b. 29.28 kV
marked are in pu. What is the pu value of c. 30.28 kV
Y22 of the Bus Admittance Matrix (YBUS)?
d. 31.28 kV
a. j 10.0
43.
b. j 0.4
c. – j 0.1
d. – j 20.0
39. The direct axis reactance Xd of a
synchronous generator is given as 0.4 Pu
based on the generator’s name plate rating
of 10 kV, 75 MVA, The base for The distribution system shown in figure
calculation is 11 kV, 100 MVA. What is given above is to be protected by over
the pu value of Xd on the new base? current system of protection.
a. 0.279 At which locations are directional over
current relays required for proper fault
b. 0.578 discrimination?
c. 0.412 a. 1 and 4
d. 0.44 b. 2 and 3
7 of 16
c. 1, 4 and 5 47. Two p-n junction diodes are connected
d. 2, 3 and 5 back to back to make a transistor. Which
one of the following is correct?
44. Match List I (Relay) with List II (Protected
Power system Component) and select the a. The current gain of such a transistor
correct answer using the code given below will be high
the lists: b. The current gain of such a transistor
List I will be moderate
A. Distance relay c. It cannot be used as a transistor due to
large base width
B. Under frequency relay
d. It can be used only for pnp transistor
C. Differential relay
48. Match List I with List II and select the
D. Buchholz relay correct answer using the code given below
List II the lists
1. Transformers List I
2. Turbines A. Modified during fetch phase
3. Busbars B. Holds subscripts of arrays
4. Shunt capacitors C. Needed by the DEBUG program
5. Alternators D. Calculates addresses of data in data-
6. Transmission lines segment
Codes; List II
A B C D 1. DI
a. 6 5 3 1 2. DS
b. 3 1 4 2 3. IP
c. 6 1 3 2 4. TF
d. 3 5 4 1 Codes;
45. Which type of connection is employed for A B C D
current transformers for the protection of a. 2 4 1 3
star-delta connected 3-phase transformer? b. 3 1 4 2
a. Delta-delta c. 2 1 4 3
b. Star-star d. 3 4 1 2
c. Star-delta 49. Consider the following statements about
d. Delta star register indirect addressing:
46. 1. It helps in writing code that executes
faster.
2. It helps in writing compact code.
3. It allows reuse of memory CPU data
transfer instruction.
4. It is essential for stack operations.
For the circuit shown in figure given
above, assume β = hFE = 100. The Which of the statements given above are
transistor is in correct?
a. Active region and VCE = 5 V a. 1, 3 and 4
b. Saturation region b. 1, 2 and 4
c. Active region and YCE = 1.42 V c. 2, 3 and 4
d. Cut-off region d. 1, 2 and 3
8 of 16
50. Which of the following does not take place a. 1, 2 and 4
when 8085 processor is reset? b. 1 and 3
a. 8055 gives reset out signal to reset c. 2, 3 and 4
external hardware
d. 1, 2 and 3
b. 8085 resets program counter to FFFFH
54. Consider the following 8085 instructions:
c. The interrupt system is disabled
ANA A, ORA A, XRA A, SUB A, CMP A.
d. The busses are tristated
Now, consider the following statements:
51. Memory chips of four different sizes as
1. All are arithmetic and logic
below are available:
instructions.
1. 32 k × 4
2. All cause the accumulator to be cleared
2. 32 k × 16 irrespective of its original contents.
3. 8 k × 8 3. All reset the carry flag.
4. 16 k × 4 4. All of them are 1-byte instructions.
All the memory chips as mentioned in the Which of the statements given above is/are
above list are Read/Write memory. What correct?
minimal combination of chips or chip
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
alone can map full address space of 8085
microprocessor? b. 2 only
a. 1 and 2 c. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1 only d. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2 only 55. INR instruction of 8085 does not affect
carry flag. Which of the following is
d. 4 only
correct about INR instruction?
52. A good assembly language programmer
a. Overflow cannot be detected
should use general purpose registers rather
than memory in maximum possible ways b. Overflow can be detected
for data processing. This is because: c. If a programme requires overflow to be
a. Data processing with registers is easier detected, ADD instruction should be
than with memory used instead of INR
b. Data processing with memory requires d. It can be used to increase the contents
more instructions in the program than of the BC register pair
that with registers 56. Which of the following is not correct?
c. Of limited set of instructions for data a. Bus is a group of wires
processing with memory b. Bootstrap is a technique or device for
d. Data processing with registers takes loading first instruction
fewer cycles than that with memory. c. An instruction is a set of bits that
53. Which of the following notations have two defines a computer operation
representations of zero? d. An interrupt signal is required at the
1. 1’s complement with radix of number start of every program
being 2 57. The interrupt vector table IVT of 8086
2. 7’s complement with radix of number contains
being 8 a. The contents of CS and IP of the main
3. 9’s complement with radix of number program address to which the interrupt
being 10 has occurred
4. 10’s complement with radix of number b. The contents of CS and IP of the main
being 10 program address to which the control
Select the correct answer using the code has to come back after the service
given below: routine
9 of 16
c. The starting CS and IP values of the a. 118
interrupt service routine. b. 140
d. The starting address of the IVT c. 98
58. Consider the following statements: d. 108
1. A total of about one million bytes can 61. When an 8086 executes an INT type
be directly addressed by the 8086 instruction, it:
microprocessor.
a. Resets both IF and TF flags
2. 8086 has thirteen 16-bit registers.
b. Resets all flags
3. 8086 has eight flags. V
c. Sets both IF and TF
4. Compared to 8086, the 80286 provides
a higher degree of memory protection. d. Resets the CF and TF
Which one of the statements given above 62. An AM voltage signal s(t), with a carrier
is correct? frequency of 1.15 GHz has a complex
envelope g(t) = AC [1+ m(t)], AC = 500 V,
a. 2, 3 and 4 and the modulation is a 1 kHz sinusoidal
b. l, 3 and 4 test tone described by
c. 1, 2 and 4 m(t) = 0.8 sin (2 π × 103t),
d. 1, 2 and 3 appears across a 50Ω resistive load. What
59. The following sequences of instructions is the actual power dissipated in the load?
are executed by an 8085 microprocessor: a. 165kW
1000 LXI SP, 27FF b. 82.5kW
1003 CALL 1006 c. 3.3 kW
1006 POPH d. 6.6 kW
What are the contents of the stack pointer 63. A broadcast AM radio transmitter radiates
(SP) and the HL register pair on 125 kW when the modulation percentage
completion of execution of these is 70. How much of this is carrier power?
instruction?
a. ≈ 25 kW
a. SP = 27 FF, HL = 1003
b. ≈ 50 kW
b. SP = 27 FD, HL = 1003
c. ≈ 75 kW
c. SP = 27 FF, HL = 1006
d. ≈ 100 kW
d. SP = 27 FD, HL = 1006
64. When a radio receiver is tuned to 555 kHz,
60. Consider the program given below, which its local oscillator provides the mixer with
transfers a block of data from one place in an input at 1010 kHz. At the output,
memory to another: another signal is also received along with
MVIC OBH the desired signal. What is the frequency
LXIH 2400 of the other station?
LXID 3400 a. 910 kHz
L1:MOV AM b. 355 kl-Iz
STAX D c. 455 kHz
INR L d. 1465 kHz
INRE 65. Which of the following is not a component
of PLL?
DCRC
a. Frequency multiplier
JNZ LI
b. Phase detector
What is the total number of memory
accesses (including instruction fatches) c. VXD
carried out d. Loop filter
10 of 16
66. Which of the following modulated signals C. Speech Signal
can be detected by an envelope detector? D.
a. DSB-suppressed carrier
b. DSB-full carrier
c. Frequency modulated signal
List II
d. SSB-suppressed carrier
1.
67. A given AM broadcast station transmits an
average carrier power output of 40 kW and
uses a modulation index of 0.707 for sine
wave modulation. What is the maximum 2.
(peak) amplitude of the output if the
antenna is represented by a 50 Ω resistive
load?
a. soy 3.
b. 50 kV
c. 3.414 kv
d. 28.28 kv 4.
68. A microphone with inbuilt amplifier has
an output noise level in a very quiet room
of about 30 μV rms. The maximum output
level is about 300 mV rms before severe Codes:
distortion occurs. What dynamic range A B C D
does this represent in dB?
a. 1 3 2 4
a. 4dB
b. 2 4 1 3
b. 36dB
c. 2 3 1 4
c. 40dB
d. 1 4 2 3
d. 80dB
71. A converter which can operate both in 3-
69. Which one of the following statements is pulse and 6-pulse modes is a
correct?
a. 1-phase full converter
Noise has the greatest effect in a
b. 3-phase half-wave converter
communication system when it interferes
with the signal c. 3-phase semi converter
a. in the transmitter d. 3-phase full converter
b. in the channel 72. Analog data having highest harmonic at 30
kHz generated by a sensor has been
c. in the receiver
digitized using 6-level PCM. What will be
d. in the transducer the rate of digital signal generated?
70. Match List I (Signal) with List II a. 120 kbps
(Spectrum) and select the correct answer
b. 200 kbps
using the code given below the lists:
c. 240 kbps
List I
d. 180 kbps
A.
73. The channel capacity of a noiseless
channel is equal to
a. Rate at which information is
B. transmitted
b. Signaling speed
c. Bandwidth
11 of 16
d. Bandwidth-SNR product 78. Power electronic device with poor turn-off
74. Match List I (Coding Technique in Digital gain is
Communication Systems) with List II a. A symmetrical thyristor
(Purpose) and select the correct answer b. A conventional thyristor
using the code given below the lists:
c. Power bipolar junction transistor
List I
d. Gate turn-off thyristor
A. Huffman code
79. Match List I (Limiting Factor) with List II
B. Error correcting code (Safe Operating Area Portion) and select
C. NRZ-coding the correct answer using the code given
D. Delta modulation below the lists:
List II List I
1. Elimination of redundancy A. The peak voltage limit
2. Reduces bit rate B. Secondary breakdown limit.
3. Adapts the transmitted signal to the C. Power dissipation limit.
line D. Peak Current limit
4. Channel coding List II
Codes; 1. PQ
A B C D 2. QR
a. 1 2 3 4 3. RS
b. 3 4 1 2 4. ST
c. 1 4 3 2 Codes;
d. 3 2 1 4 A B C D
75. To overcome slope overload problem, a. 2 1 4 3
which type of the integrator is used in b. 4 3 2 1
delta modulation?
c. 2 3 4 1
a. Fixed slope integrator
d. 4 1 2 3
b. Variable slope integrator
80. Which one of the following statements is
c. Linear slope integrator not correct?
d. Bipolar integrator a. Power MOSFETs are so constructed as
76. Quantization noise occurs in to avoid punch through
a. Pulse amplitude modulation b. In a power MOSFET, the channel
b. Pulse width modulation length is relatively large and channel
width is relatively small
c. Pulse code modulation
c. Power MOSFETs do not experience
d. Pulse position modulation any minority carrier storage
77. A gate turn off (GTO) thyristor has d. Power MOSFETs can be put in parallel
capacity to to handle larger currents
a. Amplify the gate-current 81. Carrier frequency gate drive is used for
b. Turn-off when positive current pulse is turn-on of a thyristor to reduce
given at the gate a. di/dt
c. Turn-off when a gate-pulse is given at b. Turn-on time
the gate even though it is reverse
biased c. dv/dt
d. Turn-off when a negative current pulse d. Size of pulse transformer
is given at the gate 82. In a thyristor, di/dt protection is achieved
by the use of
12 of 16
a. An inductance L in series with the b. Back emf load
thyristor c. Inductive load
b. A resistor in series with the thyristor d. Resistive inductive load
c. RC in series with the thyristor 88. A motor armature supplied through phase
d. RL in series with the thyristor controlled SCRs receives a smoother
83. The circulating current inductor is required voltage shape at
in a dual converter to a. High motor speed
a. Improve the p.f. b. Low motor speed
b. Smoothen the waveform of circulating c. Rated motor speed
current d. None of the above
c. Limit the circulating current 89. Which one of the following statements is
d. Increase the circulating current correct? A voltage source inverter is
84. In a single-phase semi converter, with normally employed
discontinuous conduction and extinction a. when the source has low impedance
angle β < π, freewheeling action takes and load has high reactance.
phase for b. when the source has high impedance
a. α and load has low reactance.
b. π − β c. when both the source and load have
high values of impedance and
c. β − π reactance respectively.
d. Zero degree d. when both the source and load have
85. A three pulse converter is feeding a purely high values of impedance and
resistive load. What is the value of firing reactance respectively.
delay angle α, which dictates the boundary 90. The corona loss on a particular system at
between continuous and discountinuous 50 Hz is 1 kW/ km per phase. What is the
mode of current condution? corona loss at 60 Hz in kW/km per phase?
a. α = 0° a. 0.83
b. α = 30° b. 1.0
c. α = 60° c. 1.13
d. α = 150° d. 1.2
86. For a single phase a.c. voltage controller 91. Consider the following statements:
feeding a resistive load, what is the power In memories,
factor?
1. ROMs are used for temporary program
(where α is firing angle measured from and data storage.
voltage zero.) 2. Dynamic RAM is less expensive than
a. Unity for all values of firing angle static RAM.
1/2
⎡1 ⎧ 1 ⎫⎤ 3. MASK ROM is used in high volume
b. ⎢ ⎨(π − α ) + sin 2α ⎬⎥ microprocessor based system.
⎣π ⎩ 2 ⎭⎦
1/2
Which of the statements given above is/are
⎡1 ⎧ 1 ⎫⎤
c. ⎢ ⎨(π + α ) + sin 2α ⎬⎥
correct?
⎣π ⎩ 2 ⎭⎦ a. 1 only
⎡1 ⎧
1/2 b. 1 and 2
1 ⎫⎤
d. ⎢ ⎨(π + α ) − sin 2α ⎬⎥ c. 2 and 3
⎣π ⎩ 2 ⎭⎦
d. 1, 2 and 3
87. Triacs cannot be used in AC voltage
regulator for a 92. In a p-type silicon sample, the hole
concentration is 2.25 ×x 1015/cc. If the
a. Resistive load
13 of 16
intrinsic carrier concentration is 1.5 × 10 96. The dynamic transfer characteristics of a
10
/cc, what is the electron concentration in transistor is represented by
the p-type silicon sample? iC = A1ib + A2ib2
a. zero
Where A1 and A2 are constants. If input
b. 10 10/cc
singnal ib = I1 cos ω1t + I 2 cos ω2t the
c. 10 5/cc output will contain
d. 1.5 × 10 25/cc
a. ω1 , ω2 , 2ω1 , 2ω2
93. What is the reverse recovery time of a
diode when switched from forward bias VF b. dc term, ω1 , ω2 , ω1 + ω2 , ω1 − ω2
to reverse bias VR? c. dc term, ω1 , ω2 , 2ω1 , 2ω2 , 2ω1 + 2ω2 , 2ω1 − 2ω2
a. Time taken to remove the stored
d. dc term, ω1 , ω2 , 2ω1 , 2ω2 , ω1 + ω2 , ω1 − ω2
minority carriers
b. Time taken by the diode voltage to 97. Find the break region (voltage range) over
attain zero value which the dynamic resistance of a diode is
multiplied by a factor of 1000. Let this
c. Time to remove stored minority
region be contained between v1 and v2,
carriers plus the time to bring the diode
then is |v1 - v2| given by
voltage to reverse bias VR
a. logC (1000 VT)
d. Time taken by the diode current to
reverse b. 1000VT
94. Which one of the following statements is c. (loge103) VT
correct? In a transistor, d. The value cannot be computed with the
a. ICBO is greater than ICEO, and does not given data
depend upon temperature 98. An emitter in a bipolar junction transistor
b. ICBO is greater than ICO, and doubles is doped much more heavily than the base
for every ten degrees rise in as it increases the
temperature a. Emitter efficiency
c. ICBO is equal to ICO, and double for b. Base transport factor
every ten degrees rise in temperature c. Forward current gain
d. ICEO is equal to ICO and doubles for d. All the three given above
every ten degrees rise in temperature
99. Match List I (Type of Device) with List II
95. Consider following statements: (Characteristics/Application) and select the
1. BJT is a current controlled device with correct answer using the code given below
high input impedance and high gain the lists:
bandwidth. List I
2. FET is a voltage controlled device with A. Zener diode
high input impedance and low gain
bandwidth. B. Tunnel diode
3. UJT is a negative resistance device and C. Schottky diode
can be used as an oscillator. D. Photo diode
4. BJT, FET and UJT can all be used for List II
amplification. 1. Display panel
Which of the statements given above are 2. Voltage reference
correct?
3. Light detection
a. 1 and 2
4. Negative resistance
b. 2 and 3
5. High frequency switching
c. 3 and 4
Codes;
d. 1 and 4
A B C D
14 of 16
a. 3 4 5 2 4. Voltage variable resistor
b. 2 5 1 3 Codes;
c. 3 5 1 2 A B C D
d. 2 4 5 3 a. 2 3 4 1
100. Match List I (Circuit Symbol) with List II b. 4 1 2 3
(Device) and select the correct answer c. 2 1 4 3
using the code given below the lists:
d. 4 3 2 1
List I
102. Consider the following statements:
A.
1. A Hartley oscillator circuit uses a
tapped inductor for inductive feedback.
2. Oscillator circuit can be operated in
B. class A condition for better wave
shape.
3. Frequency stabilization is obtained by
C. use of automatic biasing.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
D. b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
List II 103.
1. N-channel FET
2. Varactor
3. Tunnel diode
4. P channel MOSFET
Codes;
A B C D
In the rectifier circuit shown above, what
a. 3 2 1 4 should be minimum peak-inverse-voltage
b. 1 4 3 2 (Ply) rating of the diode?
c. 3 4 1 2 a. 12 V
d. 1 2 3 4 b. 12 2 V
101. Match List I (Device) with List II c. 24 V
(Application) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists: d. 24 2 V
List I 104. Which one of the following statements is
correct? In the case of load regulation
A. p-n junction diode
a. when the temperature changes, the
B. tunnel diode output voltage remains constant
C. WET b. when the input voltage changes, the
D. Schottky barrier diode load current remains constant
List II c. when the load’ changes, the load
1. Microwave generator current remains constant
2. Low frequency rectifier d. when the load changes, the output
voltage remains
3. High frequency rectifier
15 of 16
105. In a centre tap full wave rectifier, 100 V is Removing the small resistance (-100Ω) in
the peak voltage between the centre tap the collector lead of the pull-up transistor
and one end of the secondary. What is the of a totem pole output gate, will result in
maximum voltage across the reverse a. reduced switching time from Vout (I) to
biased diode? Vout (O)
a. 200 V b. incorrect operation of the gate
b. 141V c. lower power dissipation
c. 100 V d. more noise generation in the power
d. 86 V supply distribution at high frequencies
106. Match List I (Type of Logic) with List II 110. In a ripple counter, the stage whose output
(Characteristics/ Application) and select has a frequency equal to 1/8th that of the
the correct answer using the code given clock signal applied to the first stage also
below the lists: has an output periodicity equal to 1/8th that
List I of the output signal obtained from the last
stage. The counter Is
A. Direct coupled logic
a. Modulo-8
B. Diode transistor logic
b. Modulo-6
C. Emitter coupled logic
c. Modulo-64
D. Resistor transistor logic
d. Modulo-16
List II
111. Consider the following statements:
1. Good for monolithic I.C.
In amplifiers,
2. Slow speed of operation
1. a complementary symmetry amplifier
3. Very fast speed of operation
has 1 PNP and 1 NPN transistor.
4. Current hogging
2. a boot strap incorporates emitter
Codes; follower.
A B C D 3. the main function of transformer used
a. 2 1 3 4 in the output of a power amplifier is to
b. 4 3 1 2 increase its voltage gain.
c. 2 3 1 4 4. the harmonic distortion of the signal
produced in a RC coupled transistor
d. 4 1 3 2 amplifier is due to transformer itself.
107. Which of the following statements is not Which of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
a. X + XY = X a. 1, 2 and 3
b. X ( X + Y ) = XY b. 2, 3 and 4
c. X + XY = X c. 1, 3 and 4
d. ZX + ZXY = ZX + ZY d. 1, 2 and 4
108. The Boolean expression YZ + XZ + XY is 112. In a single stage RC-coupled amplifier
logically equivalent to stage, what are the phase shifts introduced
at lower and upper 3-dB frequencies,
a. YZ + X respectively?
b. YZX + XYZ a. 45°, 225°
c. YX + XZ + XY b. 45°, 135°
d. XYZ + XYZ + XYZ + XYZ c. 90°, 180°
109. Which one of the following statements is d. 45°, 180°
correct? 113. Which one of the following statements is
correct? A Darlington amplifier has a
16 of 16
a. large current gain and high input affecting the magnetic properties in any
resistance way.
b. large voltage gain and low output a. Both A and R are individually true and
resistance R is the correct explanation of A
c. small voltage gain and low input b. Both A and R are individually true but
resistance R is not the correct explanation of A
d. small current gain and high output c. A is true but R is false
resistance d. A is false but R is true
114. The gain of a bipolar transistor drops at 118. Assertion (A): In a d.c. generator, even
high frequencies. This is because of the though the armature magnetic field is in
a. Coupling and bypass capacitors quadrature with the main magnetic field,
b. Early effect each considered alone, the resultant
magnetic field due to interaction of both
c. Inter-electrode transistor capacitances the fields is shifted backwards by certain
d. Coupling and bypass capacitors, and angle from the geometrical neutral axis
inter-electrode transistor capacitances depending upon the load.
115. Assertion (A): Emitter coupled oscillator is Reason (R): In a d.c. generator, the trailing
capable of high frequency operation. pole-tips get magnetically saturated as the
Reason (R): It consists of saturating NPN load reaches its rated value.
BJTs. a. Both A and R are individually true and
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are individually true but
b. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
R is not the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false
c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true
d. A is false but R is true 119. Assertion (A): Vestigial Side Band (VSB)
116. Assertion (A): A pumped storage plant is modulation is used for TV broadcasting.
very suitable for supplying peak loads. Reason (R): Video signals have negligible
During off peak period, water is pumped power at low frequencies.
back from tail race pond to head water a. Both A and R are individually true and
pond. R is the correct explanation of A
Reason (R): The starting time of pumped b. Both A and R are individually true but
storage plant is very short. R is not the correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are individually true and c. A is true but R is false
R is the correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A 120. Assertion (A): An FET operated crystal
oscillator operates on the concept of
c. A is true but R is false feedback.
d. A is false but R is true Reason (R): The feedback is provided by
117. Assertion (A): For obtaining improved the drain-to-gate capacitance Cdg
magnetic properties, the transformer a. Both A and R are individually true and
magnetic core is assembled using cold- R is the correct explanation of A
rolled silicon-steel sheets.
b. Both A and R are individually true but
Reason (R): The laminations for the core R is not the correct explanation of A
could be cut out of the cold-rolled silicon
steel sheets, cutting either in the direction c. A is true but R is false
of rolling or transverse thereof, without d. A is false but R is true
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2006 1 of 15
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-II
1. Which one of the following is employed as d. tan–1 R/X
a moderator by CANDU type of slow 6. For a loss-free long transmission line, the
thermal nuclear reactors? conventional line equations become,
a. Water Vs = ( cos β l ) VR + ( j sin β l ) I R
b. Heavy water
⎛ j sin β l ⎞
c. Graphite and Is = ⎜ ⎟ VR + ( cos β l ) I R
d. Beryllium ⎝ Zc ⎠
2. A power station has maximum demand of Which one of the following statements is
15000 kW. The annual load factor is 50% correct?
and plant capacity factor is 40%. What is If the line is terminated at the receiving
the reserve capacity of the plant? end by its natural load impedance Zc, then
a. 1875 kW a. the voltage is constant in magnitude at
b. 3750 kW all points along the line and, Vs and VR
c. 6000 kW always remain in phase.
d. 7500 kW b. the voltage is constant in magnitude at
all points along the line but Vs
3. A power station’s plant load factor is
advances in phase relative to VR by an
defined as the ratio of
angle β radians per km.
a. the energy generated to that of
maximum energy that could have been c. the magnitude of the voltage along the
generated line changes in proportion to the line-
length, and the Vs and VR always
b. average load to peak load remain m phase.
c. minimum load to peak load d. the magnitude of the voltage along the
d. minimum load to average load line changes in proportion to the line-
4. In a 7/30 A.C. SR conductor why is grease length, Vs advances in phase relative to
put between steel and aluminium VR by β radians per km.
conductors ? 7. What is the approximate value of the surge
a. To reduce corrosion by electrolytic impedance loading of a 400 kV, 3-phase
action between zinc (galvanising agent 50 Hz overhead single circuit transmission
on steel) and aluminium line?
b. To reduce friction between the strands a. 230 MW
c. To reduce leakage of current from b. 400 MW
aluminium strands to steel strands c. 1000MW
d. To eliminate air pockets d. 1600MW
5. If X is the inductive reactance/phase and R 8. Which one of the following statements is
is the resistance! phase of a short correct?
transmission line, what is the power factor
The elements of each row of a YBUS matrix
angle of the load for maximum voltage
for load flow studies in power system add
regulation?
up to zero,
a. cos–1 X/R
a. always
b. tan–1 X/R
b. if the shunt admittances at the buses
c. cos–1 R/X are ignored.
2 of 15
c. if mutual couplings between overhead, line of surge impedance of
transmission lines are absent. 400Ω and enters a cable of surge
d. if both (b) and (c) are satisfied. impedance of 40 Ω What is the voltage
9. For a synchronous generator connected to entering the cable at the junction?
an infinite bus through a transmission line, a. V/11
how are the change of voltage (ΔV) and b. 4 V/11
the change of frequency (Δf) related to the c. 2 V/11
active power (P) and the relative power
d. V
(Q)?
14. To protect the power transformer (Y — Y
a. ΔV is proportional to P and Δf to Q with neutral grounded) against fault, what
b. ΔV is proportional to Q and Δf to P type of connection do the CTs have ?
c. Both ΔV and Δf are proportional to P a. Δ—Y connection
d. Both ΔV and Δf are proportional to Q b. Δ—Δ connection
10. c. Y—Y connection
d. Y—Δ connection
15. The operating point of RI amplifier m an
AM receiver is normally biased in
a. Class-A
b. Class-B
For the system shown in the diagram given
above, what is a the transformer the line c. Class – C
side of line-to-ground fault on equivalent d. Class B-C condition
to ? 16. Which one of the following signals can be
a. A line-to-ground fault on the generator applied to a delta modulator whose step
side of the transformer size is 0.1 V and sampling frequency is 20
b. A line-to-line fault on the generator π kHz so that no slope overload occurs?
side of the transformer a. 2 sin (1200 πt)
c. A double line-to-ground fault on the b. 1 sin (2600 πt)
generator side of the transformer c. 3 sin (1000 πt)
d. A 3-phase fault on the generator side
d. 4 sin (400 πt)
of the transformer
17. A sinusoidal signal with a random phase is
11. For which one of the following types of
given by x(t) = A sin [π/2 — (2π ft + θ)]
motors, is the equal area criterion for
with the probability density function
stability applicable?
⎧1/ 2π , 0 ≤ θ ≤ 2π
a. Three-phase synchronous motor Pθ (θ ) = ⎨
b. Three-phase induction motor ⎩ 0, otherwise
c. D.C. series motor What is the maximum amplitude of the
d. D.C. compound motor autocorrelation function of this signal ?
12. The steady state stability limits for round a. A
rotor and salient pole 3-phase synchronous b. A/2
generator are attained at the values of c. A2
power angle δ d. A2/2
a. = π/2, and = π/2, respectively 18. Consider the following statements :
b. < π/2, and < π/2, respectively 1. Indirect addressing is not possible for
c. < π/2, and = π/2, respectively I/O mapped I/O port addresses.
d. = π/2, and < π/2, respectively 2. Pointers cannot be used to access
13. A travelling wave due to lightning with an memory mapped I/O addresses.
incident voltage V travels through the
3 of 15
3. Fewer machine instructions can be a. Contents of H and L registers are 20 H
used with I/O mapped I/O addressing and 01 H, respectively
as compared to memory mapped I/O b. Contents of H and L registers are AAH
addressing. and BBH, respectively
4. With an 8085 microprocessor, one can c. Contents of H and L registers are BBH
access at the most 512 devices with and CCH, respectively
unique addresses using 1/0 mapped 1/0 d. Contents of H and L registers are CCH
addressing. and BBH, respectively
Which of the statements given above are 22. How many times will the following loop
correct ? be executed?
a. 1, 2 and 3
LXIB 0010 H
b. 2 and 4 LOOP : DCX B
c. 3 and 4 MOV A, B
d. 1 and 3
ORA C
19. Which one of the following instructions is
JNZ LOOP
a 3-byte instruction?
Select the correct answer using the code
a. M V I A
given below :
b. L D A X B
a. 10
c. J M P 2050 b. 100
d. MOV A, M c. 16
20. Match List-I (interrupt) with List-II d. 15
(Property) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists : 23. In 8085, the DAA instruction is used for
List-I a. Direct Address Accumulator
A. RST 7.5 b. Double Add Accumulator
B. RST 5.5 c. Decimal Adjust Accumulator
C. INTR d. Direct Mess Accumulator
D. TRAP 24. Processor status word of 8085
microprocessor has five flags. Which are
List-II these five flags?
1. Non -maskable a. S, Z, AC, P, CY
2. Edge sensitive b. S, OV, AC, P, CY
3. Level sensitive
c. S, X, OV, P, CY
4. Non-vectored d. S, Z, AC, P, OV
A B C D 25. Suppose 64 kB, ROM ICs, are available in
a. 1 3 4 2 abundance. 1 MB ROM can be obtained
b. 2 4 3 1 from
c. 1 4 3 2 a. 16 ICs in a row
d. 2 3 4 1 b. 16 ICs in a column
21. The contents of memory locations 2000 H, c. 8 ICs in a column and 2 ICs in a row
2001 H and 2002 H are AAH, BBH and d. None of the above
CCH respectively. What are the contents 26. Which one of the following is the software
of H and L registers after executing the intercept of 8085 microprocessor?
following instructions in sequence ?
a. RST 7.5
LXI H, 2001 H
b. RST 7
LHLD 2001 H
c. TRAP
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below : d. INT1R
4 of 15
27. Match List-I (Device) with List-II List-II
(Application) and select the correct answer 1. Reverse current varies directly with the
using the code given below the Lists : amount of light
List- I 2. Exhibits negative resistance region in
A. Diode its I-C characteristic
B. Transistor 3. Uses only majority carriers and is
C. Tunnel Diode intended for high frequency operations
D. Zener Diode 4. Silicon p-n junction diode that is
designed for limiting the voltage across
List-II
the terminals in reverse bias
1. Amplifier
A B C D
2. Oscillator
a. 2 3 1 4
3. Rectifier
b. 1 4 2 3
4. Voltage Regulator
c. 2 4 1 3
A B C D
d. 1 3 2 4
a. 4 1 2 3
30. Match List-I (Parameter) with List-II
b. 3 2 1 4 (Variation) and select the correct answer
c. 4 2 1 3 using the code given below the Lists :
d. 3 1 2 4 List- I
28. Match List-I (Type of Amplifier/ A. Electron mobility around room
Configuration) with List-II (Characteristic temperature
Property) and select the correct answer B. Energy gap
using code given below the Lists :
C. Intrinsic carrier concentration
List- I
D. Mole density (gm/mole)
A. Common emitter amplifier
List-II
B. Emitter follower
1. Increases with temperature
C. Common base amplifier
2. Decreases with temperature
D. Darlington pair
3. Remains constant as temperature is
List-II varied
1. Very low output resistance A B C D
2. Current gain ≈1 a. 2 1 1 1
3. Beta multiplication b. 1 2 1 3
4. Very high power gain c. 2 2 1 3
A B C D d. 2 2 1 1
a. 4 1 2 3 31. Match List-I (Metal semiconductor Band
b. 2 3 4 1 Diagram under Equilibrium) with List-II
c. 4 3 2 1 (Type of Contact) and select the correct
d. 2 1 4 3 answer using the code given below the
Lists :
29. Match List-I (Type of Diode) with List-IT
(Characteristics! Applications) and select List-I
the correct answer using the code given
below the Lists :
List-I
A. Tunnel diode A.
B. Zener diode
C. Photodiode
D. Schottky diode
B.
5 of 15
b. 6.36 V,130 Ω
c. 6.36 V,115 Ω
d. 4.54 V, 130 Ω
C. 34. What is the value of the load angle when
the power output of a salient pole
synchronous generator is maximum?
a. 00
D. b. 450
List - II c. 90°
1. Rectifier to n-type d. None of the above
2. Ohmic to n-type 35. Which one of the following statements is
3. Rectifier to p-type not correct in respect of synchronous
4. Ohmic to p-type machines ?
A B C D a. In salient pole machines, the direct-
a. 1 4 2 3 axis synchronous reactance is greater
than the quadrature axis synchronous
b. 1 4 3 2
reactance.
c. 4 1 3 2
b. The damper bars help the motor to
d. 4 1 2 3 self-start.
32. Consider the following statements c. Short circuit ratio is the ratio of the
Data that are stored at a given address in a field current required to produce the
random access memory are lost rated voltage on open circuit to the
1. when power goes off. rated armature current.
2. when the data are read from the d. The V-curve of a synchronous motor
address. represents the variation in the armature
3. when new data are written at the current with field excitation at a given
address. output power.
4. because it is non-volatile memory. 36. In which one of the following is reluctance
power developed?
Which of the statements given above are
correct? a. Salient pole alternator
a. 1 and 2 b. Non-salient pole alternator
b. 1, 2 and 4 c. Squirrel cage induction motor
c. 2 and 3 d. Transformer
d. 1 and 3 37. When the applied rated voltage per phase
is reduced to one-half, the starting torque
33. of a three-phase squirrel cage induction
motor becomes
a. 1/2 of the initial value
b. 1/4 of the initial value
c. Twice of the initial value
The circuit shown above is the Thevenin’s d. 4 times of the initial value
equivalent circuit of a centre-tapped full 38.
wave rectifier with diode forward
resistance Rf = 100 Ω, transformer
secondary coil resistance Rs = 30Ω, peak
input voltage Vm = 10 V.
What are the values of V and R0,
respectively ?
a. 10 V, 100 Ω
6 of 15
The required load torque line intersects the What is the slip with respect to the
resultant torque- speed characteristic of a backward field?
3-phase squirrel cage induction motor at a. s
points P, Q and R as shown in the figure
b. — s
above. Which is/are the stable opening
point(s) ? c. (1 — s)
a. P and Q d. (2 — s)
b. Q and R 44. Which one of the following has the highest
numerical value in a stepper motor?
c. P and R
a. Detent torque
d. Only R
b. Holding torque
39.
c. Dynamic torque
d. Ripple torque
45. Match List-I (Power Station) with List-Il
(Component) and select the correct answer
using the code given below :
List- I
Which of the points on the torque-speed A. Hydroelectric power station
curve of induction motor represent B. Nuclear power station
operation at a slip greater than the 1? C. Steam power station
a. W D. Pressure gasification combined cycle
b. X power plant
c. Y List-Il
d. Z 1. Grate and stokers
40. If the load on an induction motor is 2. Forebay
increased from no load to full load, its slip 3. Pressurized water reactor
and the power factor will, respectively
4. Fluidized bed gasifier
a. decrease, decrease
A B C D
b. decrease, increase
a. 1 4 2 3
c. increase, decrease
b. 2 3 1 4
d. increase, increase
c. 1 3 2 4
41. The voltage actually, used for setting up of
d. 2 4 1 3
the useful flux in the air gap of a 3-phase
induction motor is 46. In hydro power stations, what is an
enlarged body of water just above the
a. = Applied voltage
intake and used as a regulating reservoir,
b. > Applied voltage called ?
c. < Applied voltage a. Spillways
d. = Rotor induced emf b. Forebay
42. Which one of the following is the type of c. Reservoir
single phase induction motor having the
d. Penstock
highest power factor at full load?
47. For variable heads of near about but less
a. Shaded. pole type
than 30 metres, which type of turbines is
b. Split-phase type used in hydro power stations ?
c. Capacitor-start type a. Pelton
d. Capacitor-run type b. Kaplan
43. A single phase induction motor is running c. Francis
at N r.p.m. Its synchronous speed is Ns. If
d. None of the above
its slip with respect to forward field is s,
7 of 15
48. Which one of the following parameters in d. Increase in reverse collector - base
an induction motor influences the saturation current due to rise in internal
magnetizing reactance to the maximum device temperature
extent? 53. The reverse saturation current of a Si-
a. Axial length of the rotor stack based p-n junction diode increases 32
b. Axial length of the stator stack times due to a rise in ambient temperature.
c. Radial length of air gap If the original temperature was 400 C,
what is the final temperature?
d. Number of slots on the stator
a. 90°C
49. Which one of the following equations
represents the energy gap (EG) variation of b. 72°C
silicon with temperature (T)? c. 450 C
a. EG(T) = 2.11 – 3.60 × 10–4 T d. 500 C
b. EG(T) = 1.21 – 3.60 × 10–4 T 54. What is the main difference between
MOSFETs and BJTs in terms of their I —
c. EG (T) = 1.41 – 2.23 × 10–4 T V characteristics?
d. EG(T) = 0.785 – 2.23 × 10–4 T a. Current in quadratic with VGS for
50. MOSFETs and linear with VBE for
BJTs
b. Current in linear with VGS for
MOSFETs and exponential with VBE
for BJTs
Consider the circuit given above where R c. Current is exponential with VGS/VBE in
is the diode forward resistance and RL the both these devices, but rise is faster in
load resistance. What is the average MOSFETs
rectified current equal to ? d. Current in quadratic with V for
a. Vm / (RL + Rf) MOSFETs and exponential with VBE
for BJTs
b. Vm / {π(Rf + RL)}
55.
c. 2Vm / π
d. Vm / { 2 (RL + Rf))
51. In a Hall effect experiment, a p-type
semiconductor sample with hole
concentration p1 is used. The measured
value of the Hall voltage is now replaced
by another p-type sample with hole
concentration p2 where p2 = 2 p1, what is
the new Hall voltage VH2? In the circuit given above, if the output is
taken from point E instead of node C, what
a. 2VH1
will be the result?
b. 4 VH1
a. An increase in the output impedance
c. (1/2) VH1
b. A reduction in the output impedance
d. (1/4) VH1
c. An increase in the input impedance
52. What is the thermal runaway in a bipolar
d. A reduction in the input impedance
junction transistor biased in the active
region due to ? 56. If an input periodic signal with non-zero
d.c. component is impressed upon a high-
a. Heating of the transistor emitter region
pass RC circuit, what will be the d.c.
b. Changes in ‘β’ which increases with component in the output waveform?
temperature
a. Zero
c. Base emitter voltage VBE which
b. It depends on the value of the capacitor
decreases with rise in temperature
c. It depends on the value of the resistor
8 of 15
d. Same as that in input
57.
B.
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-II
1. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the list:
List –I
(Logic Circuit/function)
A. D flip-flop In the circuit given in the above figure, Q
B. T flip-flop =0 initially. What shall be the subsequent
states of Q when clock pulses are given?
C. Exclusive
a. 1, 0,1,0, …
D. Half –adder
b. 0, 0, 0, 0…
List II
c. 1, 1, 1, 1, …
(Circuit realization)
d. 0, 1, 0, 1, …
1.
3. The following truth table has to be realized
with the circuit shown in the figure:
A B Qn+1
0 0 Q’ n
2. 0 1 1
1 0 Qn
1 1 0
3.
d.
14 of 15
What type of winding will be
selected for this machine?
a. Double-layer, fractional slot, short-
pitched winding
b. Single-layer, fractional slot, short-
104. Match List – I with List – II in respect of pitched winding
synchronous machines and select the c. Single-layer, integral slot, full-pitch
correct answer using the code given below winding
the List: d. Double-layer, fractional slot, full-pitch
List-I (Machine characteristic) winding
A. Open-circuit characteristic 108. When are eddy-current losses in a
B. V-curve transformer reduced?
C. Internal Characteristic a. If laminations are thick
D. Inverted V-curve b. If the number of turns in primary
List-II (Quantity) winding is reduced
1. p.f. vs. If c. If the number of turns in secondary
2. Ea vs. Ia winding is reduced
3. Eg vs. If d. If laminations are thin
4. Ia vs. If 109. Why is a centrifugal switch used in a
single-phase induction motor?
Code:
a. To protect the motor from overloading
a. A3, B1, C2, D4
b. To improve the starting performance of
b. A2, B4, C3, D1
the motor
c. A3, B4, C2, D1
c. To cut off the starting winding at an
d. A2, B1, C3, D4 appropriate instant
105. Which of the following conditions are to d. To cut in the capacitor during running
be satisfied for proper synchronization of conditions
alternators?
110. What is the operating slip of a 400 V, 50
1. Equal terminal voltage Hz, 6-pole, 3-phase induction motor, while
2. Same frequency the speed is 936 r.p.m. with a 400 V, 45
3. Same phase sequence Hz, 3-phase supply?
4. Same kVA rating a. 0.036
5. Same phase displacement b. 0.064
Select the correct answer using the code c. 0.025
given below: d. 0.075
a. 1, 3, and 4 only 111. A 3-phase slip-ring induction motor
b. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only having negligible stator impedance drives
c. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only a constant torque load. If an additional
d. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only resistance is included in the rotor circuit,
what does the motor experience?
106. If the excitation of a 3-phase alternator
operating on infinite bus bars is changed, a. Increase in both the stator current and
which one of the following shall alter? the slip
a. Active power of machine b. No change in the stator current and
increase in the slip
b. Reactive power of machine
c. Increase in the stator current and no
c. Terminal voltage of machine change in the slip
d. Frequency of machine d. Decrease in the stator current and
107. The stator of a 3-phase, 6-pole a.c. increase in the slip
machine has 45 slots. The stator winding 112. Breakdown torque in a 3-phase induction
has 45 coils with a coil span of 6 slots. motor of negligible stator impedance is
15 of 15
a. Directly proportional to rotor d. A pair of 3-phase converter in
resistance sequence control
b. Inversely proportional to rotor 116. A single-phase full-bridge inverter is
resistance connected to a load of 2.4 Ω . The d.c.
c. Directly proportional to rotor leakage input voltage is 48 V. What is the r.m.s.
reactance output at fundamental frequency?
d. Inversely proportional to rotor leakage 4× 48
a. V
reactance 2π
113. Match List – I with List – II and select the 2× 48
correct answer using the code given below b. V
2π
the Lists:
List-I 4× 48
c. V
(Controller) π
A. Chopper-controlled resistance in the 2× 48
d. V
rotor π
B. Sub-synchronous converter-cascade in 117. A buck regulator has an input voltage of
the rotor circuit of an induction motor 12 V and the required output voltage is 5
C. 3-phase a.c. voltage controller V. What is the duty cycle of the regulator?
D. Cyoloconverter a. 5/12
List-II b. 12/5
(Type of load) c. 5/2
1. Very low speed, high-power reversible d. 6
drive 118. A balanced 3-phase induction motor runs
2. Centrifuges in sugar industry at slip S. If ω s is its synchronous speed,
3. Blowers and compressors what is the relative speed between the
4. Loads requiring good starting stator m.m.f. and rotor m.m.f.?
performance a. S ω s
Code: b. (1− S )ω s
a. A3, B4, C2, D1
c. ω s
b. A3, B4, B1, D2
c. A4, B3, C1, D2 d. Zero
d. A4, B3, C2, D1 119. Maximum efficiency of modern coal-fired
steam-raising thermal power plants is
114. A cyclo-converter-fed induction motor restricted to about 0.35 (a low value),
drive is most suitable for which one of the mainly because of
following?
a. Low alternator efficiency
a. Compressor drive
b. High energy loss in boilers
b. Machine tool drive
c. Low steam turbine mechanical
c. Paper mill drive efficiency
d. Cement mill drive d. High energy loss from turbine exhaust
115. A large d.c. motor is required to control to condenser
the speed of blower from a 3-phase a.c. 120. Mho relay is usually employed for the
source. What is the most suitable a.c. to protection of
d.c. converter?
a. Short lines only
a. 3-phase fully controlled bridge
converter b. Medium lines only
b. 3-phase fully controlled bridge c. Long lines only
converter with free wheeling diode d. Any line
c. 3-phase half-controlled bridge
converter
I.E.S- (OBJ) 2008 1 of 11
Directions (For the 9 items which follow): Directions (For the 7 items which follow):
Each of the following nine items consists of a word or a group of Each of the following seven items consists of a word in capital
words in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word
words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the word in capital
meaning to the word or group of words in capital letters. letters.
22. There were gapes of horror Example ‘X’ has been solved for you.
(a)
form the spectators as (EXAMPLE)
X. S1 : There was a boy named Jack
(b) S6 : At least she turned him out of the house
the performer fell from the tightrope P: So the mother asked him to find work
(c) Q: They were very poor
No error R: he lived with his mother
(d) S: But Jack refused to work
23. She gazed at me
(a) Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
in misbelief when (a) R–Q–P-S
(b) P–Q–R-S
3 of 11
(c) Q–P–R-S S6: We are the inheritors of a great
(d) R–P–S-Q world heritage.
P: They try to find out whatever is of value in
Explanation: The correct sequence in this example is R-Q-P- them.
S, which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is the correct
Q: You will find that other religions are
answer.
studies with sympathy and respect by those
who do not adhere to them
28. S1 : The first aeroplanes were fragile and
R: All that has changed today.
clumsy.
S: The classics of the whole world form the
S6 : In those days people considered flight in
classics of every human being.
an aeroplane to be a miracle
Which one of the following is the correct
P : When they took off they would not fly
sequence?
very high
a. P – S – R – Q
Q : They also broke down frequently
b. R – Q – P – S
R: It was difficult for them to take off
c. P – Q – R – S
S : They flew slowly and only in the
d. R – S – P – Q
vicinity of the airfield
32. S1: Javert was a strong, upright and just man.
Which one of the following is the correct
S6: So he took the only way out for him-he
sequence?
killed himself.
a. R – P – S – Q
P: But now his life was turned upside down.
b. S – Q – R – P
Q: It was his safe world of rules.
c. R – Q – S – P
R: He would help no one, and he helped no
d. S – P – R – Q
one.
29. S1 : Lions usually live in a family parties
S: He did not want favours from a thief.
called ‘prides’.
Which one of the following is the correct
S6 : They actack man only when they are
sequence?
wounded or otherwise aroused.
a. Q – P –S – R
P : Wild lions are not normally a menance
b. S – R –Q – P
to man.
c. Q – R –S – P
Q : A pride is commonly made up of a lion,
d. S – P – Q – R
two lionesses and cubs.
33. S1: Nowadays we pay a great deal of attention
R : Sometimes pigs and other animals are
to pure air, open windows and garden cities.
also killed by them.
S6: Pasteurised milk is milk which has been
S : They usually prey on zebras and
treated in this way.
antelopes.
P: Another useful discovery of Pasteur’s was
Which one of the following is the correct
the process, now called, pasteurization.
sequence?
Q: Pasteur was one of the first to show how
a. P – S – R – Q
necessary all these are if we are to fight
b. Q – R – S - P
against germs and disease.
c. P – R – S – Q
R: Pasteur helped them by showing that by
d. Q – S – R – P
heating win or milk to a temperature of 60
30. S1 : Not long age television was a rarity.
degree Centrigrade, the germs were made
S6: Only a few people understand the
harmless.
technology behind it.
S: Some wine-growers were troubled by a
P: It has become a means of entertainment and
germ which has turned their win sour.
information.
Which one of the following is the correct
Q: Yet nowadays there is one in virtually
sequence?
every home.
a. R – S –P – Q
R: But most of us do not know much about
b. Q– P – S – R
how an image appears on the television screen
c. R – P – S – Q
S: We have grown used to it.
d. Q– S – P – R
Which one of the following is the correct
34. S1: Scientist have found that any train running
sequence?
on wheels cannot go faster than 300 kilometres
a. P – R – Q – S
an hour.
b. Q – S – P – R
S6: Japanese engineers are, therefore, planning
c. P – S– Q – R
another kind of train, a magnetic train without,
d. Q – R – P – S
wheels, which would also float above the
31. S1: I have know in my own life, in my own
ground.
experience, people who were hating one
another on account of their religious views.
4 of 11
P: One way of building such trains has already Q: This work could be termed as
been tried out socially productive labour.
Q: If we want trains which can go still faster R: It consists of cooking, washing, cleaning,
we must build them without wheels. fetching fuel and water etc.
R: But it would not be possible to run them on S: This work is crucial to the survival of
the Tokaido line because in same tunnels there society.
would not be enough air to support them Which one of the following is the correct
S: Here, the whole train floats above the sequence?
ground on top of a cushion of air created by a. P–Q–R–S
powerful fans. b. R–S–P–Q
Which one of the following is the correct c. P–S–R–Q
sequence? d. R–Q–P–S
a. Q–P–S–R
b. S–R–Q–P ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
c. Q–R–S–P Direction (For the 10 items which follow)
d. S–P–Q–R In the following item, some parts of the sentence have been
jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are
35. S1: Newspapers are the cheapest medium of labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sequence. Choose the
information today. proper sequence and marks in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
S6: Consequently, 50 percent of our population Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you.
is denied across to information vital for the
(EXAMPLE)
functionaries of a democracy. Z. It is well-known that
P: If you cannot buy a paper, you can go to a the effect it very bad
public library. P Q
Q: And yet newspapers do not reach nearly on children of cinema
fifty percent of our population. R S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
R: They are also easily available to everybody (a) P–S–R–Q
S: It is because people are illiterate. (b) S-P-Q-R
Which one of the following is the correct (c) S-R-P-Q
sequence? (d) Q-S-R-P
Explanation:
a. R–S–Q–P The proper way of writing the sentence is “It is well-known that
b. Q–P–R–S the effect of cinema on children is very bad.” This is indicated by
c. R–P–Q–S the sequence P-S-R-Q and so (a) is the correct answer.
d. Q–S–R–P
36. S1: Social isolation, overcrowding, the 38. Life comes
competitiveness of our society and several Awed by all the things that their words can do
other factors are responsible for stress. with computer and gadgets
S6: Yet some other get totally depressed and P
often much worried. who can get anything done by clinking a few
P: In England we refer to competition in buttons
society as the ‘rat-race’. Q
Q: All of us react to that rat-race in different a full circle when some technologically
ways. challenged mothers
R: But some of us get very much tried and R
bored every easily. begin to believe that their child is a super-kid
S: The pressures on all of us are very great in the digital world
because speed and competition have become S
part of everyday life. Which one of the following is the correct
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
sequence? a. R–P–Q–S
a. R–P–Q–S b. P–R–Q–S
b. S–Q–P–R c. R–P–S–Q
c. R–Q–P–S d. P–R–S–Q
d. S–P–Q–R 39. Unaware
37. S1: It is true that a few women have Reading other periodicals and publication
opportunities to work outside the home. P
S6: If women stop doing this work there would ourselves with merely
be havoc in the public life. Q
P: Women do much work all the time within of the need to build
the house. R
5 of 11
the intellect we tend to entertain in which Indian Cricket administration
S should definitely
Which one of the following is the correct Q
sequence? denying the benefits of Indian corporate
a. Q–P–R–S sponsorship
b. R–S–Q–P R
c. Q–S–R–P use its financial clout is in
d. R–P–Q–S S
40. Loss of employment Which one of the following is the correct
in a country like India where sequence?
P a. R–P–Q–S
is no social security net to fall back on b. Q–S–R–P
Q c. R–S–Q–P
most people are still poor and there d. Q–P–R–S
R 44. While improvements
or livelihood can be really injurious have definitely helped climbers now carry
S lighter oxygen bottles
Which one of the following is the correct P
sequence? in technology over the years
a. S–R–P–Q Q
b. Q–P–R–S made of titanium and get regular weather
c. Q–R–P–S updates
d. S–P–R–Q R
41. Many people through satellite phones the route to Mt.
organized their energies around a goal Everest remains treacherous as ever
P S
but simply because they have never Which one of the following is the correct
Q sequence?
or brains or even courage a. Q–P–R–S
R b. S–R–P–Q
fail in life not for lack of ability c. Q–R–P–S
S d. S–P–R–Q
Which one of the following is the correct 45. Life
sequence? the number of breaths you take
a. P–Q–R–S P
b. S–R–Q–P that take your breath away
c. P–R–Q–P Q
d. S–Q–R–P is not measured by
42. Being R
to a viewing point a higher more expansive but by the moments
place S
P Which one of the following is the correct
to move from a point of view sequence?
Q a. Q–P–S–R
willing to change allows you b. R–S–P–Q
R c. Q–S–P–R
from which you can seen both sides d. R–P–S–Q
S 46. The greatest
Which one of the following is the correct miss it but that it is too
sequence? P
a. R–Q–P–S danger for most of us
b. Q–R–P–S Q
c. Q–R–S–P is not that our aim is too high and we
d. R–Q–S–P R
43. Yet one area low and we reach it
to players who have violated the spirit of the S
game Which one of the following is the correct
P sequence?
a. Q–S–P–R
6 of 11
b. P–R–Q–S peace”, which is response (b). So (b) is the
c. Q–R–P–S correct answer.
d. P–S–Q–R PASSAGE I
47. The fundamental J.K Galbraith has described the current inflation as a “revolt of the
but an institutional framework that lays down rich against the poor”. Richard Parker supports this view with the
P claim that it is the richest people that benefit by inflation: while the
rest, especially the poorest, suffer in proportion to their relative
and cannot be trampled on by the ruling property. On the other hand, a 1979 study published by the
government Brookings Institute indicates that the lower classes are generally
Q benefited by inflation, while the upper classes lose. The confusion
the rights of the people and rules of political over who suffers from inflation is extended to other questions such
engagement as the major causes of inflation. In addition to the proponents of the
demand theory, there are many who doubt whether inflation is
R essentially an economic problem at all. Konard Kellen holds that
mark of a democracy is not elections inflation is not an economic problem but a psychological one. Paul
S Samuelson cites a social factor, the evaluation of a more humane
Which one of the following is the correct society, as a root cause of inflation.
sequence?
48. What does the author believe?
a. S–P–Q–R
a. Only the rich suffer from inflation
b. P–S–R–Q
b. Only the poor suffer from inflation
c. P–S–Q–R
c. Both the rich and the poor suffer from
d. S–P–R–Q
inflation
d. It is debatable as to who suffers from
inflation
COMPREHENSION
Directions (For the 13 items which follow): 49. From the passage, which one of the following
In this section, you have three short passages. After each passage, may be inferred?
you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read a. The effect of inflation can be studied with
and passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are scientific precision
required to select your answers based on the contents of the
passage and opinion of the author only.
b. The effect of inflation cannot be studied
with scientific precision
Example ‘T’ and ‘J” are solved for you c. Economists are biased towards the rich or
the poor
PASSAGE (EXAMPLE) d. The effect of inflation varies from place to
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact
that confronts us squarely and unmistakable is the desire for peace, place, and people to people
security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of 50. On the basis of the information given in the
existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, passage, what are the causes of inflation?
no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human a. Essentially economic
beings or to the lower groups and as animals, all beings primarily
seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature
b. Essentially psychological
as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection c. Essentially social
against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to d. Highly controversial
live and not to die, so do all other creature. 51. How des the author write?
a. Objectively
I. The author’s remains point is that
(a) different forms of life are found on earth b. Critically
(b) different levels of existence are possible in nature c. Sympathetically
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of all living d. Persuasively
beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life PASSAGE II
J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is Work itself is a very important factor in motivating a person. A
essential in developing the author’s position? person tends to perform a task more enthusiastically if that work
(a) All forms of life have a single over-riding goal affords more satisfaction than the other work. A person’s
(b) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a satisfaction out of work is more is it is more need satisfying. A
desire of peace man seeks something from work and if he gets more satisfaction
(c) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups from a particular work he will be prone to do that work better or
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and harder. There are incentives for work; these can be financial or
pain and death. non-financial. People like missionaries and some scientists do not
work basically for material gains as such. A person wants to do a
Explanation: work which is personally meaningful.
I. The idea which represents the author’s main point is
“peace and security are the chief goals of all living
being”, which is response (c). So (c) is the correct 52. Which one of the following is correct?
answer. a. Work is the most important factor by
J. The best assumption underlying the passage in “The will which a person is motivated.
to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for
7 of 11
b. Work is the least important factor that d. The author condemns the attitude
motivates a person displayed by newspapers in the matter of
c. Among the several factors that motivate a promoting popular writing on science.
person, work is an important one. 58. Which one of the following is correct?
d. Nothing can motivate a person who does Popular writing on science in our country
not have some permanent work. appears to be
53. Which one of the following is correct? a. not properly digested and easily
A person’s work satisfaction depends on comprehensible
a. the money and other benefits he receives b. extremely restricted in outlook
from work c. very lucid, intelligible and self explanatory
b. the need satisfying nature of the work he d. based on obsolete knowledge of the topics
does chosen
c. the physical environment in which he 59. Which one of the following is correct?
works The propose of promoting popular scientific
d. the personal relationship he establishes writing in newspapers is
with his colleagues and superiors a. to attract more people to the study of
54. Which one of the following is correct? science
If, a person get more satisfaction from a b. to spread scientific knowledge and
particular work, he will encourage scientific temper among the
a. stick on the that work for every common people
b. certainly achieve mastery over that work c. to give the people information about
soon modern scientific inventions
c. slowly develop a taste for that work d. to help the newspapers to increase their
d. do that work in a better and harder manure circulation among the students of science
55. Which one of the following is correct? 60. The author wants some of the scientists “to
Both the scientists and the missionaries work turn to popularization”. What does that imply?
a. because of the incentives given to them a. The scientists should go round and country
b. without hopping for any material gain and explain to the people the various
c. without receiving any material gain achievements of science
d. because they want to be appreciated b. The scientists should make use of the
56. Which one of the following is correct? television and radio to spread the message
Every person wants to have a work which of science among the common people
a. helps him to get involved meaningfully c. The scientists should write in newspapers
b. helps him to earn substantially about the various aspects of science in
c. is pleasant and easy easily understandable language.
d. can be finished quickly d. The scientists should seek the help of
social organizations to spread scientific
PASSAGE III knowledge among the common people.
In our country there is very little popular writing on science. Those
who write are writing for other scientists. The newspapers these PART-B
days devote a little more space then before for scientific topics but
they appear to be rather ill-digested knowledge not written in 61. The deficiency of which one of the following
simple readable language. So if we are to bridge this gap and leads to anemia?
disseminate scientific knowledge and promote scientific temper, it
has become necessary for some of the scientists to turn to
a. Ascorbic acid
popularization. Today we have almost compulsion for doing this if b. Citirc acid
we are to convey to the people the meaning and relevance of the c. Folic acid
pursuit of science. It is time same scientists enters the field of d. Nicotinic acid
scientific journalism. 62. The highly fatal disease of Rabies is caused by
which one of the following?
57. What does the passage suggest? a. Virus
a. The author is fully satisfied with the role b. Bacteria
of newspapers in promoting popular c. Protozoan
writing on science. d. Nematode worm
b. The author is totally dissatisfied with the 63. How in jasmine plant propagated?
role of newspapers in promoting popular a. Grafting
writing on science. b. Layering
c. The author appreciates the readiness of c. Root cutting
newspapers to allow more space than d. Stem cutting
before to writings on science.
8 of 11
64. Which chamber of the heart has the thickest a. Ministry of Planning
muscular walls? b. Ministry of Human Resource
a. Right atrium Development
b. Left atrium c. Ministry of Home Affairs
c. Right ventricle d. Ministry of Statistics and Programme
d. Left ventricle Implementation
65. Among the following fruits, which one is not a 74. In terms of both quantity and value, which one
true fruit? of the following countries is the largest cutting
a. Apple and polishing centre of diamonds in the world?
b. Date a. Belgium
c. Coconut b. France
d. Tomato c. India
66. In human body, while one of the following d. South Africa
glands is located in the neck? 75. Regarding the procurement of wheat for
a. Adrenal central pool, which one of the following States
b. Hypothalamus has the highest share of contribution?
c. Pituitary a. Haryana
d. Thyroid b. Madhya Pradesh
67. In human body, which one among the c. Punjab
following secretes digestive enzyme? d. Uttar Pradesh
a. Large institute 76. So far how many times has the countrywide
b. Liver “Economic Census” been done in India?
c. Pancreas a. Thrice
d. Spleen b. Five times
68. Which one among the following is a warm c. Seven times
blooded animal? d. Nine times
a. Anaconda 77. Which among the following was the capital of
b. Crocodile Shivaji?
c. Shark a. Singhagarh
d. Whale b. Raigarh
69. Which one among the following is an ape c. Panhala
naturally found in India? d. Poona
a. Chimpanzee 78. Who among the following arrived in the court
b. Hoolak Gibbon of Jehangir as an official ambassador of King
c. Gorilla of England?
d. Orangutan a. William Hawkins
70. Which one among the following plants b. Sir Thomas Roe
produces seeds without producing flower? c. Sir Edward Terry
a. Cashew nut d. Bernier
b. Date Palm 79. Which Mughal Emperor granted the Dewani
c. Pinus of Bengal to the British East India Company in
d. Toddy the year 1765?
71. The stem of which one of the following plants a. Jehangir
is usually underground? b. Shahjahan
a. Banana c. Aurangzeb
b. Sweet potato d. Shah Alam-II
c. Topioca 80. Who of the following was the representative of
d. Water melon Indian National Congress in the Second Round
72. In the context of Wholesale Prize Index (WPI) Table Conference, held in London?
in India, under the Primary Articles’ group, a. Madan Mohan Malviya
what is the approximate weight of ‘Food b. C. Rajagopalachari
Article’ in WPI? c. Mahatma Gandhi
a. 12 d. Vallabhbhai Patel
b. 15 81. Where did Lala Hardayal and Sohan Singh
c. 18 Bhakna form the Gadar Party in 1913?
d. 21 a. Paris
73. Which one of the following is responsible for b. San Francisco
bringing out the report on National and Per c. Tokyo
Capita Income in India? d. London
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82. Prior to Independence, the elections to the or till they attain the age of 65
Constituent Assembly were held under which years, whichever is earlier.
one of the following? Which of the statements given above is/are
a. Mountbatten Plan correct?
b. Cabinet Mission a. 1 only
c. Cripps Proposals b. 2 only
d. Wavell Plan c. Both 1 and 2
83. Who among the following introduced cashew d. Neither 1 nor 2
nut, pineapple and tobacco into India? 90. According to the provisions of the
a. Dutch Constitution of India, who inquires into all
b. English doubts and decides disputes arising out of or in
c. French connection with the election of Vice-President
d. Portuguese of India?
84. When All India Trade Union Congress was a. The President of India
founded in 1920, who of the following was b. The Supreme Court of India
elected its president? c. The Election Commission of India
a. C.R. Das d. The Attorney General of India
b. Lala Pajpat Rai 91. Who among the following tribes live in the
c. N.M. Joshi Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar
d. V.V. Giri Islands?
85. Which one of the following was the occasion a. Apatani
on which Jawaharlal Nehru stepped forward, b. Jarawa
as an important national leader? c. Munda
a. Agitation against Rowlatt Act d. Santhal
b. Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement 92. Match List I with List II and select the correct
c. Formation of Swaraj Party answer using the code given below the lists:
d. Agitation against the arrival of Simon List I
Commission (Book)
86. At the time of Tripuri Congress Session in A. Crime and Punishment
1939 in which Subhash Bose has defeated B. Farewell to Arms
Sitaramayya, who among the following had C. The Rights of Man
withdrawn his candidature from D. Unto The Last
Presidentship? List II
a. Abdul Kalam Azad (Author)
b. Jawaharlal Nehru 1. Ernest Hemingway
c. Jayaprakash Narayan 2. Feodor Dostoyevsky
d. Vallabhbhai Patel 3. John Ruskin
87. Which one of the following was not a 4. Thomas Paine
programme of the Non-Cooperation cell given Code:
in 1920? A B C D
a. Boycott of titles a. 2 3 4 1
b. Boycott of Civil Services b. 4 1 2 3
c. Boycott of English education c. 4 3 2 1
d. Boycott of police and army d. 3 1 4 3
88. In which year was Mahatma Gandhi’s famous 93. In India, when both, the offices of the
work Hind Swaraj written? President and the Vice-President happen to be
a. 1907 vacant simultaneously, who will discharge the
b. 1909 duties of the President?
c. 1914 a. The Prime Minister
d. 1934 b. The Union Home Minister
89. Consider the following statements with c. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
reference to Union Government: d. The Chief Justice of India
1. The tenure of Chairman/Members of Staff 94. For the review of which of the following was a
Selection Commission is for five years or Commission under the chairmanship of Justice
still they attain the age of 62 years, M.N. Venkatachaliah constituted by Union
whichever is earlier. Government?
2. The tenure of Chairman/Member of Union a. Industrial sickness
Public Service Commission is for six years b. River water disputes
c. The Constitution of India
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d. Centre-State relations d. 3 4 1 2
95. In which one of the following countries did the 102. Where is the Port of East London located?
Industrial Revolution first take place? a. England
a. USA b. Ireland
b. UK c. East coast of USA
c. Germany d. South Africa
d. France 103. Which one of the following pairs is not
96. Who of the following is the author of the correctly matched?
famous book ‘Das Kapital’? a. Northern Rhodesia : Namibia
a. Adam Smith b. Gold Coast : Ghana
b. Karl Marx c. Dutch Guyana : Suriname
c. Rousseau d. Dutch East Indies : Indonesia
d. Voltaire 104. Khmer Rouge atrocities pertained to which
97. Which one of the following is the correct one among the following?
statement? a. South Africa
In the Parliament of India, a money bill can be b. Iraq
introduced only with the recommendation of c. Libya
a. the President of India d. Cambodia
b. the Prime Minister of India 105. Recently, the President of India conferred the
c. the Speaker of Lok Sabha India Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament
d. the Union Finance Minister and Development for 2006 on whom among
98. Which one of the following is a place of the following?
famous Hindu pilgrimage as well as a site of a. Kim Dae Jung
important hydroelectric power project? b. Mohamed El Baradei
a. Devaprayag c. Shirin Ebadi
b. Guntur d. Wangari Muta Maathai
c. Nasik-Triambakeshwar 106. In the year 2007, which one of the following
d. Omkareshwar pairs of countries launched spacecrafts to carry
99. State which one of the following groups of out research on the Moon?
oceanic water currents meet near a. Australia and Canada
‘Newfoundland Island’ of Canada? b. China and Japan
a. Gulf Stream and Labrador c. France and Germany
b. Kuroshio and Kurile d. Russia and South Korea
c. Agulhas and Mozambique 107. In December, 2007, which one of the
d. Brazilian and Falkland following countries launched in interceptor
100. How many Indian States border Myanmar? missile called AAD-02 to intercept a ballistic
a. Three missile?
b. Four a. Iran
c. Five b. North Korea
d. Six c. India
101. Match List I with List Ii and select the correct d. Pakistan
answer using the code given below the lists: 108. Recently, who of the following writers in
List I English, has been awarded the Sahitya
(Name of the River) Akademi Fellowship?
A. Godavari a. Amitav Ghosh
B. Krishna b. Anita Desai
C. Tapti c. Jhumpa Lahiri
D. Cauvery d. Shashi Tharoor
List II 109. In the context of Indian Defence, what is
(Tributary Joining) Admiral Gorshkov, frequently in the news?
1. Parna a. Stealth worship
2. Hemavati b. Nuclear powered submarine
3. Pranhita c. Aircraft carrier
4. Koyana d. Marine oil drilling platform
Code: 110. Hugo Chavez, who is frequently in the news,
A B C D is a President of which one of the following
a. 1 4 3 2 countries?
b. 3 2 1 4 a. Argentina
c. 1 2 3 4 b. Brazil
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c. Cuba
d. Venezuela
111. What is the Defence outlay (approximate) in 116. The well-known sportsman Liu Xiang has
India for the year 2008-09? excelled in which event?
a. Rs. 65,000 crores a. Table Tennis
b. Rs. 85,000 crores b. Weightlifting
c. Rs. 95,000 crores c. Hurdles race
d. Rs. 1,05,000 crores d. Swimming
112. What is a major use of allethrin? 117. Which one of the following subjects is mainly
a. In household insecticides dealt with by Montreal Protocol?
b. In glass manufacture a. Undersea cable network
c. In steel manufacture b. International cooperation against terrorism
d. In paints and varnishes c. Depletion of Ozone layer
113. Which one of the following is not correctly d. Exploration of outer space
match (approximately)? 118. From which year does the 11th Five Year Plan
a. 4 Imperial gallons = 18.18 litres start?
b. 4 pounds = 1.81 kilograms a. 2005
c. 30 pounds per sq. in. = 2.07 kg per sq. cm. b. 2006
d. 5 hectares = 18.35 acres c. 2007
114. Big Mac Index is employed in the d. 2008
determination of which one of the following? 119. In the context of India’s defence, what is C-
a. Infrastructure development 130 J Hercules?
b. Purchasing power parity a. A supersonic fighter jet
c. Defence budget per capita b. A troop transport aircraft
d. Crop yield c. An unmanned patrol aircraft
115. What does the term ‘Pyrrhic Victory’ imply? d. A multi-purpose amphibious vehicle
a. A victory in a war wherein Air Force has 120. Who among the following is a blanker?
played a major role a. Samir Jain
b. A victory achieved at a great cost to the b. Raghav Bahl
winner c. K.V. Kamath
c. A victory of a political party wherein d. G.M. Rao
members of the opposition party have
betrayed their own members
d. A victory achieved in games as a result of
match-fixing