As cells are pushed from the deeper portion of the epidermis toward the surface,
4. What contributes to the color of skin and absorbs ultraviolet (UV) light?
A. epidermal cells
B. specialized connective tissue cells
C. specialized dermal cells
D. subcutaneous tissue
Congratulations, your answer is correct!
A. dermis
B. epidermis
C. hypodermis
D. peridermis
A. stratum basale
B. stratum granulosum
C. stratum lucidum
D. stratum spinosum
10. People who rarely venture outdoors or completely cover their skin when outdoors may develop a deficiency of .
11. At what age, on average, do pronounced aging conditions begin to occur more rapidly?
A. early thirties
B. fifty-five
C. late forties
D. twenty-five
12. Gray hair and changes in skin pigmentation in older people are due to
13. Half of burn victims die when the burn area exceeds percent of the body.
A. 30
B. 50
C. 70
D. 90
A. keratinocyte
B. Langerhans cell
C. melanocyte
D. Merkel cell
16. Which of the following are cells of the epidermis that participate in immune responses mounted against microbes that invade the
skin?
A. keratinocytes
B. Langerhans cells
C. melanocytes
D. Merkel cells
18. Hair and nails are composed primarily of which of the following substances?
A. collagen
B. elastin
C. fibrin
D. keratin
19. In which stratum do new skin cells arise, in this figure of the epidermis?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
20. Which of the strata of the epidermis in the figure is missing in thin skin?
A. Stratum granulosum
B. Stratum basale
C. Stratum corneum
D. Stratum lucidum
21. Constant exposure to friction or pressure stimulates the formation of a , which is an abnormal thickening to the
epidermis.
A. abrasion
B. blister
C. contact dermatitis
D. callus
YOUR ANSWER:
24. __________is the tough, fibrous protein that helps protect the skin and underlying tissues from abrasion, heat, microbes, and
chemicals.
YOUR ANSWER:
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27. __________is a yellow-orange pigment and a precursor of vitamin A that contributes to skin color.
YOUR ANSWER:
28. The smooth muscle that gives one "goose bumps" and makes the hair stand on end is called the muscle.
YOUR ANSWER:
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31. The portion of a hair which is below the surface of the skin is the .
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32. The presence of the masculinizing hormones, , induces male-pattern baldness, the most common form of baldness.
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33. The deepest part of the skin is composed of dense regular connective tissue.
A. True
B. False
34. The build-up of bilirubin in the blood makes the mucous membranes, nail beds, and skin appear blue in color (cyanotic).
A. True
B. False
A. True
B. False
36. The skin is the largest organ of the body both in surface area and in weight.
A. True
B. False
1. Hemopoiesis occurs in
A. yellow marrow.
B. red marrow.
C. periosteum.
D. the osteogenic layer.
3. When there is too little calcium in blood, which cells begin resorption of bone to release calcium into the blood?
A. chondrocytes
B. osteoblasts
C. osteoclasts
D. osteocytes
6. Which of the following provide a pathway for the diffusion of nutrients within compact bone?
A. canaliculi
B. lamellae
C. medullary cavity
D. periosteum
A. compact bone
B. flat bone
C. long bone
D. spongy bone
8. When blood calcium levels rise above normal, osteoclast activity is inhibited by which of the following hormones?
A. calcitonin
B. calcitriol
C. PTH
D. triodothyronine
A. It consists of two layers and is essential for bone growth and repair.
B. It is formed by lacunae and canaliculi.
C. It is the area where the epiphysis joins the diaphysis.
D. It lines the medullary cavity and contains osteoprogenitor cells.
12. As epiphyseal cartilage cells stop dividing and are replaced by bone, the result is a bony structure called the .
A. epiphyseal line
B. metaphysis
C. osteon
D. periosteum
14. The first indication that a cartilage model is beginning to form into a bone is the
A. differentiation of mesenchyme cells into chondroblasts.
B. calcification of the cartilage matrix and formation of a bone collar in the diaphyseal region.
C. formation of the epiphyseal plate.
D. penetration of a nerve into the cartilage.
15. Abnormal growth in height of an individual is caused by excess
A. cancerous growth in the epiphyseal plates.
B. production of insulin.
C. production of vitamin D.
D. secretion of human growth hormone.
17. In an infant, which curve of the vertebral column develops when the baby starts holding its head erect?
A. cervical
B. lumbar
C. sacral
D. thoracic
18. Spinal nerves enter and leave the spinal cord through passages between the vertebrae called
.
A. foramen magnum
B. intervertebral foramina
C. pedicles
D. vertebral arches
19. The rib pairs known as the false ribs are the
A. 1st through 7th pairs.
B. 8th through 10th pairs.
C. 8th through 12th pairs.
D. 11th and 12th pairs.
20. _________ are posterior projections from the body of a vertebra that help to form the vertebral foramen.
A. Laminae
B. Pedicles
C. Spinous processes
D. Transverse processes
21. Which of the following bones contains the mandibular fossa and external auditory meatus?
A. frontal
B. occipital
C. sphenoid
D. temporal
23. Which of the following bones has a styloid process and a mastoid process?
A. ethmoid
B. occipital
C. sphenoid
D. temporal
26. In a newborn infant, the is located between the angles of the two parietal bones and the two segments of the frontal
bone.
A. anterior fontanel
B. coronal suture
C. temporal foramen
D. vertical plate
27. Which of the following is associated with the ethmoid bone and it separates the two sides of the nose?
A. foramen ovale
B. hypophyseal fossa
C. mastoid process
D. perpendicular plate
30. With which of the following does the manubrium of the sternum articulate?
A. clavicle, first rib and part of second rib
B. humerus
C. second cervical vertebra
D. xiphoid process
32. Which of the following type of bones are slightly curved to absorb the stress of the body, and consist mostly of compact bone?
A. flat bones
B. long bones
C. regular bones
D. short bones
33. Which bone does NOT belong in the list with the others?
A. femur
B. rib
C. sternum
D. vertebra
34. Which of the following is a cranial bone?
A. frontal bone
B. mandible
C. maxilla
D. zygomatic bone
37. Which bone of the skull contains a sinus that is just inferior to the floor of the brain?
A. maxilla
B. occipital
C. parietal
D. sphenoid
38. Which bone of the skull articulates with the vertebral column?
A. hyoid
B. occipital
C. parietal
D. temporal
39. The carotid foramen is a hole through which the carotid artery passes. In what bone is this foramen located?
A. frontal
B. occipital
C. parietal
D. temporal
40. Soft spots in the skull filled with fibrous connective tissue, which will eventually be replaced by bone are called .
A. fontanels
B. meatuses
C. sinuses
D. sutures
41. The hypophyseal fossa, located in the sphenoid bone, is a depression where the _________
is located.
A. inner ear
B. optic nerve
C. pituitary gland
D. sphenoid sinus
42. Which of the following bones resembles a bat with outstretched wings.
A. frontal
B. occipital
C. sphenoid
D. temporal
43. Which bone is surrounded by and touches all of the other bones of the cranial floor?
A. ethmoid
B. frontal
C. sphenoid
D. temporal
45. Which bone does NOT make up part of the bony orbit of the eye?
A. frontal bone
B. maxilla
C. nasal bone
D. sphenoid bone
46. The olfactory foramina are located in the bone which makes up most of the nose.
A. ethmoid
B. maxillary
C. nasal
D. sphenoid
47. Which curve of the vertebral column is convex with respect to the anterior side of the body, in other words, it bulges anteriorly?
A. cervical curve
B. sacral curve
C. thoracic curve
D. all have concave curves.
48. The body of the sternum articulates directly or indirectly with the .
A. cartilages of the second through tenth ribs
B. clavicle
C. floating ribs
D. thoracic vertebra
49. Abnormal elevation of the longitudinal arch often results from muscle deformities as may result from poliomyelitis. This
condition is called .
A. clawfoot.
B. kyphosis.
C. osteoporosis.
D. rickets.
51. The narrow, ridge-like projection along the superior aspect of the hip bone is the .
A. greater trochanter
B. iliac crest
C. medial epicondyle
D. radial tuberosity
57. Which bone of the foot articulates with both the tibia and the fibula?
A. calcaneus
B. middle cuneiform
C. navicular
D. talus
58. The female pelvis differs from that of the male in that the pelvis of the female has
A. a heart-shaped pelvic brim and deep false pelvis.
B. a large acetabulum and rounded obturator foramen.
C. a more vertical ilium.
D. larger pelvic inlet and shallow false pelvis.
62. The part of the scapula that forms the high point of the shoulder is the .
A. acromion
B. coracoid process
C. glenoid cavity
D. spine
63. The bony prominence on the posterior surface of the elbow is the .
A. medial condyle of the humerus
B. olecranon process of the ulna
C. radial tuberosity
D. trochlea of the humerus
64. When you sit, the part of the hip that touches the seat of the chair is the .
A. acetabulum
B. ilium
C. ischium
D. pubis
68. Which of the following form(s) the posterior portion of the hard palate?
A. ethmoid bone
B. maxillae
C. palatine bones
D. sphenoid bone
69. _____________are the two bones that form the only moveable join in the skull.
A. maxillae and mandible
B. temporal and mandible
C. occipital and atlas
D. occipital and axis
70. Which of the following is a characteristic exclusively of spongy bone, but NOT of compact bone?
A. composed of haversian systems
B. composed of trabeculae
C. contains lacunae
D. displays concentric lamellae when cut in cross-section
73. The longest, heaviest, and strongest bone of the human skeleton is the .
A. femur
B. humerus
C. sacrum
D. tibia
74. The lateral and medial condyles of the femur articulate with the .
A. acetabulum of the pelvic girdle
B. fibula
C. tibia
D. tibia and fibula respectively
75. The bony prominence on the lateral surface of the thigh near the hip joint is the .
A. acetabulum
B. crest of the ilium
C. greater trochanter of the femur
D. lateral condyle of the femur
76. __________is the bony prominence on the anterior surface of the tibia to which the patellar ligament attaches.
A. Medial malleolus of the tibia,
B. Lateral malleolus of the fibula,
C. Lesser trochanter.
D. Tibial tuberosity.
77. The lateral malleolus on the lateral surface of the ankle is part of the .
A. calcaneus
B. fibula
C. talus
D. tibia
80. Which of the following is a fracture in which the broken ends of the bone protrude through the skin?
A. complete
B. compound
C. partial
D. simple
81. All of the following bone markings are located at the proximal epiphysis of a bone except the:
A. condyles of tibia
B. head of femur
C. condyles of femur
D. greater trochanter
82. The bone does NOT articulate with any other bone.
YOUR ANSWER:
83. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, incorrectly positioned hands may fracture the
and drive it into internal organs.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is
xiphoid process
See 6.9: Thorax
84. _________is a tough sheath of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds and protects a long bone.
YOUR ANSWER:
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88. ___________is the process of bone formation which occurs directly on or within mesenchyme.
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89. The meninges of the brain are attached to the ethmoid bone at the .
YOUR ANSWER:
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91. The is the anterior joint that unites the hip bones.
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92. ____________is a small triangular bone located in front of the knee joint between the femur and the tibia.
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93. The single, plow-shaped bone that forms the lower part of the nasal septum is the
.
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94. The human skeleton is composed of ____ bones of which ____ are in the axial skeleton and ____ are in the appendicular skeleton.
YOUR ANSWER:
95. The spinal cord passes to and from the brain by passing through an opening in the skull known as the foramen ________.
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97. In adults, red bone marrow is found in the trabeculae of spongy bone tissue.
A. True
B. False
98. The secondary ossification centers in long bones are in the epiphyses.
A. True
B. False
100. Exercise that stresses bone causes bone resorption more so than bone deposition.
A. True
B. False
101. Once bones are formed, they are static and unchanging.
A. True
B. False
6. Which of the following types of joints is characterized by the absence of a joint cavity and the presence of fibrous connective tissue
connecting articulating bones?
A. symphysis)
B. synchondrosis
C. fibrous
D. synovial
8. Which of the following is stretched or torn in about 70% of all serious knee injuries?
A. anterior cruciate ligament
B. articular discs
C. prepatellar bursae
D. medial meniscus
10. Which term means forcible wrenching or twisting of a joint that stretches or tears ligaments but does not dislocate the bones?
A. sprain
B. strain
C. bursitis
D. arthralgia.
11. Which of the following special movements is the mandible NOT capable of performing?
A. depression
B. elevation
C. eversion
D. protraction
18. The movement of the head when you tilt it back to look at something above you is called
.
A. elevation
B. extension
C. hyperextension
D. rotation
20. When you bend the ankle to lift the toes toward the knee your ankle is .
A. dorsiflexed
B. everted
C. inverted
D. plantar flexed
21. Movement of a protracted part backward on a plane parallel to the ground is called
.
A. contraction
B. eversion
C. pronation
D. retraction
26. Damage to which of the following would cause a synovial joint to be more easily dislocated?
A. articular cartilage
B. articular fat pad
C. fibrous capsule
D. synovial membrane
28. Inversion, eversion, dorsiflexion, and plantar flexion are movements associated with which of the following?
A. feet
B. hands
C. lower leg
D. upper arms
29. The posterior cruciate ligament, patellar ligament, and prepatellar bursa are all parts of the _____ joint.
A. ankle
B. hip
C. knee
D. shoulder
30. Dislocation of the __________ is the most common upper limb dislocation in children.
A. humerus
B. radius
C. ulna
D. scaphoid bone
31. ___________ is the movement found at the joint between the atlas and axis that allows you to "just say no."
YOUR ANSWER:
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33. The pads of fibrocartilage found between the articular surfaces of some bones, such as the knee, are called articular discs or
.
YOUR ANSWER:
34. ____________is a procedure that permits access to the interior of a synovial joint such as the shoulder or hip so that structures can be
observed and surgery can be performed.
YOUR ANSWER:
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36. The saddle joint allows the greatest range of motion of any synovial joint.
A. True
B. False
37. Sutures are found only between the bones of the skull.
A. True
B. False
39. Flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction are types of angular movements.
A. True
B. False
40. To restore a body part to the anatomical position after it has been flexed involves hyperextension.
A. True
B. False
41. As shown in the figure, synovial membrane does cover over articular cartilages.
A. True
B. False
2. Specific regions on the surface of actin serve as active sites for the formation of cross-bridges with molecules of .
A. ATP
B. myosin
C. tropomyosin
D. troponin
5. Creatine phosphate
A. activates ATPase.
B. breaks down ATP.
C. supplies energy to break ATP into ADP.
D. supplies energy for synthesis of ATP.
6. The amount of oxygen needed in part to support the conversion of lactic acid to pyruvic acid is called the .
A. aerobic concentration
B. anaerobic concentration
C. oxygen debt
D. refractory quantity
10. In tetanus,
2+
A. Ca levels drop too low to sustain contractions.
B. muscles tire due to build up of ATP.
C. muscles undergo sustained contractions.
D. muscles wither away.
11. An increase in the number of motor units activated as the threshold stimulus increases is called .
A. peristalsis
B. recruitment
C. treppe
D. wave summation
15. Acetylcholine
A. breaks down acetylcholinesterase.
B. is made in synaptic vesicles.
C. is stored in synaptic vesicles.
D. stops nerves impulse transmission.
16. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events leading to muscle contraction?
2+
A. Acetylcholine is released, calcium (Ca ) ions diffuse into the sarcoplasm, the troponin-tropomyosin complex changes
shape, and cross bridges form between actin and myosin.
2+
B. Calcium (Ca ) ions are pumped through the sarcolemma, protein receptors are activated, pH of the sarcoplasm changes,
and ATP is produced.
2+
C. Calcium (Ca ) ions diffuse into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, cross bridges break, and cholinesterase is released.
2+
D. Cross-bridges form, calcium (Ca ) ions diffuse into the sarcoplasm, and troponin covers tropomyosin.
17. A muscle fascicle is surrounded by .
A. endomysium
B. epimysium
C. perimysium
D. sarcomysium
18. Muscle growth due to an increase in the size of existing fibers is called .
A. fusion extension
B. hyperplasia
C. hypertrophy
D. pericytosis
19. Which of the following molecules stores energy that is used to synthesize additional ATP molecules?
A. creatine phosphate
B. myosin
C. tropomyosin
D. troponin
21. Calcium (Ca2+) ions move from the cytoplasm of a skeletal muscle cell (sarcoplasm) into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, because of
the action of
A. acetylcholine receptors on the cell surface.
B. active transport pumps in the reticulum membrane.
C. ion diffusion channels in the membrane.
D. myosin binding sites.
24. Which of the following describes fast oxidative glycolytic (FOG) fibers of skeletal muscle tissue?
A. intermediate diameter, contains a large amount of myoglobin, generates ATP by both aerobic cellular respiration and
glycolysis
B. large diameter, contains a large amount of myoglobin, generates ATP mainly by aerobic cellular respiration
C. large diameter, contains a small amount of myoglobin, generates ATP mainly by glycolysis
D. small diameter, contains a small amount of myoglobin, generates ATP by both aerobic cellular respiration and
glycolysis
25. When examined under a microscope, in which type of muscle tissue are striations NOT apparent?
A. cardiac muscle
B. cardiac and smooth muscle
C. skeletal muscle
D. smooth muscle
26. Which muscle tissue is involuntary, slow in contracting, and able to regenerate considerably better than other types of muscle?
A. cardiac
B. skeletal
C. smooth
D. striated
27. A weakness of muscles caused by an abnormality at the neuromuscular junction that partially blocks contraction is known as
.
A. fibrillation
B. lumbago
C. muscular dystrophy
D. myasthenia gravis
28. Tendinitis of the tibialis anterior can result in a painful condition commonly known as
.
A. painful heel syndrome
B. pulled hamstring
C. shinsplints
D. stress fracture
30. A runner suffers a pulled hamstring. Which of the following muscles might be involved?
A. biceps femoris
B. rectus femoris
C. vastus lateralis
D. vastus medialis
32. Which of the following is true concerning the quadriceps femoris muscle?
A. All four heads function to flex the thigh.
B. All four muscles in this group function to extend the leg.
C. All of the muscles in this group originate on the femur.
D. It consists of four muscles located in the leg.
33. In order for skeletal muscles to cause movement of a bone they must
A. act as fixators.
B. be associated with an aponeurosis.
C. consist of long fibers.
D. cross at least one joint.
34. The rectus abdominis, external oblique, internal oblique, and transversus abdominis muscles all have one function in common.
What is it?
A. All are classified architecturally as parallel muscles.
B. All are on the posterior surface of the body.
C. All function to compress the abdomen.
D. They are the only muscles never to undergo tetanus.
39. Muscles that hold the scapula firmly in place while the forearm moves are called the
.
A. adductors
B. antagonists
C. fixators
D. prime movers
43. Which muscle is contracted when you open your eyes (elevate the upper eyelid)?
A. frontalis
B. levator palpebrae superioris
C. orbicularis oculi
D. orbicularis oris
44. Which muscle is attached to (inserts on) the corners of the mouth and is the "smiling muscle"?
A. buccinator
B. orbicularis oris
C. platysma
D. zygomaticus major
45. Which broad, flat muscle covers the mandible and the sides of the throat region?
A. frontalis
B. masseter
C. occipitalis
D. platysma
46. Which broad, flat muscle originates on the bone over the ears?
A. masseter
B. occipitalis
C. platysma
D. temporalis
47. A muscle originating on the sphenoid bone that moves the lower jaw is the .
A. lateral pterygoid
B. masseter
C. platysma
D. temporalis
51. The action of the sternocleidomastoid muscle is antagonistic to which of the following muscles.
A. digastric
B. erector spinae
C. masseter
D. temporal
52. The transversus abdominis muscle is located to the internal oblique muscle.
A. deep
B. lateral
C. medial
D. superficial
56. Which muscle of the pectoral girdle acts as an accessory muscle of inspiration?
A. levator scapulae
B. pectoralis minor
C. serratus anterior
D. trapezius
58. Which muscle of the pectoral girdle has the broadest origin?
A. levator scapulae
B. pectoralis minor
C. rhomboid major
D. trapezius
59. The latissimus dorsi and the pectoralis major muscles have their insertions on the
__.
A. cervical vertebrae
B. humerus
C. ribs
D. scapula
60. The strength and stability of the shoulder joint is provided by the
A. pectoralis minor muscle.
B. shape of the articulating bones and ligaments.
C. muscles and tendons of the rotator cuff.
D. latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major muscles
61. Which muscle that crosses the shoulder joint moves the arm in the greatest number of different directions?
A. deltoid
B. supraspinatus
C. subscapularis
D. teres major
62. The only muscle that originates on both the clavicle and the scapula is the .
A. deltoid
B. pectoralis major
C. supraspinatus
D. trapezius
64. The two heads of the biceps brachii muscle originate on the .
A. clavicle
B. humerus
C. scapula
D. sternum
66. Which muscles that extend the vertebral column run parallel with the vertical axis of the spine?
A. erector spinae
B. psoas major
C. rectus abdominis
D. sternocleidomastoid
67. Which of the muscle groups which extend the vertebral column is located most laterally?
A. iliocostalis
B. longissimus
C. psoas major
D. spinalis
68. The large muscle of the body that extends the thigh is the .
A. biceps brachii
B. gluteus maximus
C. latissimus dorsi
D. quadriceps femoris
69. Of the muscles that flex the thigh, the only one that originates on the vertebral column is the A) iliacus
A.
B. pectineus
C. psoas major
D. tensor fasciae latae
70. Which muscle originates on the ilium and inserts on the medial surface of the tibia?
A. gracilis
B. rectus femoris
C. sartorius
D. tensor fasciae latae
72. The medial compartment of the thigh contains muscles that the thigh.
A. abduct
B. adduct
C. extend
D. flex
77. The bone of the leg that is often damaged in a stress fracture is the .
A. femur
B. fibula
C. talus
D. tibia
79. Which of the following contains Ca2+-binding sites, which are important in initiating the contraction cycle?
A. actin subunits
B. myosin heads
C. tropomyosin
D. troponin
80. Receptors for acetylcholine (ACh) are located on which of the following?
A. external surface of T tubules
B. external surface of the sarcolemma
C. external surface of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. presynaptic membrane of the synaptic bulb
81. Which of the motor unit sizes listed below would allow for the greatest degree of skeletal muscle control?
A. 3 muscle fiber/motor neurons
B. 15 muscle fiber/motor neurons
C. 90 muscle fiber/motor neurons
D. 150 muscle fiber/motor neurons
82. Which of the following is the proper sequence of the structures, from 1 to 4, labeled in the illustration below?
84. Contractions of which of the following pairs of muscles flexes the cervical portion of the vertebral column?
A. erector spinae
B. infraspinatus
C. quadratus lumborum
D. sternocleidomastoid
85. Considering flexion of the forearm, which of the following terms describes the triceps brachii muscle?
A. agonist
B. antagonist
C. prime mover
D. synergist
86. The belly (contractile elements) of the extensor digitorum longus muscle lies entirely in the
.
A. anterior compartment of the leg
B. lateral compartment of the leg
C. plantar surface of the foot
D. posterior compartment of the leg
87. A very common muscle injury in individuals who run hard is to the .
A. gastrocnemius
B. hamstrings
C. quadriceps femoris
D. sartorius
88. Which is the following is not part of RICE therapy for sports injuries?
A. Rest
B. Ice
C. Compression
D. Extension
90. The iliotibial tract is a strong connective tissue structure located on the ________ aspect of the thigh.
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Medial
D. Laterial
YOUR ANSWER:
92. There is a slight delay between the application of the stimulus and the beginning of contraction called the .
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93. The fibers generate ATP mainly by aerobic cellular respiration and have a slow contraction cycle.
YOUR ANSWER:
94. ___________is the integrated system of bones, muscles, and joints functioning together.
YOUR ANSWER:
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96. A characteristic of cardiac muscle, , is the intrinsic rhythm of cardiac muscle fibers.
YOUR ANSWER:
97. The tunnel-like extensions of the sarcolemma which carry the muscle action potential deep into the muscle are called .
YOUR ANSWER:
98. The epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium extend beyond the muscle as a
.
YOUR ANSWER:
101. The four muscles and tendons of the rotator cuff provide stability to the shoulder. The muscles involved are the subscapularis,
the supraspinatus, the infraspinatus, and the teres major.
A. True
B. False
102. Muscular dystrophy refers to a group of inherited conditions in which muscles degenerate.
A. True
B. False
104. The flexors of the wrist, hand, and fingers originate on the humerus and form the anterior compartment of the forearm
A. True
B. False