PESIT

DESIGN OF MACHINE ELEMENTS - I

Subject Code: AU46
Faculty: RSS No. of Hours: 52

B.E Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

 % of Portions
Class Chapter Title / covered
Topics to be covered
# Reference Literature Reference Cumulativ
chapter e
Chapter : 1 Materials and their properties,
Introduction Design considerations, codes,
1-6 T1: page 13 – 35 standards, stress- strain diagram,
T2: page 44 – 74 Definitions – stress, strain, shear
10% 10 %
R1: page 3 – 29 stress, biaxial and triaxial loads,
R2: page 13-15, 70 – Stress tensor, Principal stress
72
Chapter : 2 Static loads – Types of loads and
Design for static problems, Theories of failure and
strength problems. Members under
7 – 14 T1: page 182 – 212 combined loads, Stress
T2: page 103 – 107 concentration – explanation and
R1: page 13 – 53 examples, Reduction of stress 15% 25%
R2: page 67 – 92 concentration, Determination of
stress concentration factor,
combined stress concentration
factor, Problems
Chapter : 3 Introduction, S-N diagram, low
Design for fatigue cycle fatigue, high cycle fatigue,
strength Endurance limit. Modifying factors
15– 20 T1: page 227 – 275 – size effect, surface effect, stress
T2: page 114 – 125 concentration effects; Fluctuating
R2: page 117 – 156 stresses, Fatigue strength under 10% 35%
fluctuating stresses, Goodman and
Soderberg relationship; stresses
due to combined loading,
cumulative fatigue damaged.
Chapter : 4 Derivation of instantaneous stress
Impact Loading due to axial, bending and torsion
21 – 25 T1: page loading, effect of inertia.
T2: page 5% 40%
T3: page
R1: page
R2: page
Chapter : 5 Torsion of shafts, design for
Design of Shafts strength and rigidity, with steady
T1: page 565 – 576 loading, ASME and BIS codes for
26 – 31 T2: page 465 – 473 design of transmission shafting, 20% 60%
R1: page 465 – 481 shafts under fluctuating and
R2: page 234 – 246 combined loads design of rigid
flange coupling and bushed pin
type flexible coupling.
Chapter : 6 Key types, Stresses in Keys, Pins
Fasteners and Retainers. Threaded Fasteners
T1: page 301 – 317 – Stresses, Effects of initial
32 – 40 T2: page 493 – 498 tension, effect of compression, 15% 75%
R1: page 269 – 340 effect of fatigue loading, impact
R2: page 247 – 255 loading, shear loading and
eccentric loading.
 Chapter : 7 Mechanics of power screw,
Power Screws stresses in power screws,
41 – 48 T1: page 291 – 300 Efficiency and self locking.
T2: page 266 – 273 15% 90%
R1: page 441 – 450
R2: page 163 – 185
Chapter : 8 Cotter and knuckle joints, Riveted
Mechanical joints: Joints – Types, rivet materials,
T1: page 336 – 352 Failures of Riveted joints,
49 – 52 T2: page 171 – 227 Efficiency, Boiler Joints, Tank and 10% 100%
R1: page 213 – 256 Structural Joints, riveted brackets.
R2: page 213 – 229 Welded joints – Types, strength of
butt and fillet welds, Eccentrically
loaded welds.

Text Books:
T1: Mechanical Engg. Design by Joseph. E Shigley & Charles R MirchKe. Tata 6th Ed
2003. Mc Graw Hill Edition 2001
T2: Design of Machine Elements by C.S.Sharma and Kamlesh Purohit, PHI 2003.

Reference Books:
R1: Machine Design by Maleev & Hartman, CBS Publishers & Distribution, New Delhi
R2: Design of Machine Elements – V.B.Bhandari,. Tata McGraw Hill Pub. New Delhi
R3: Theory and Problems of Machine Design by Hall Holowenko, (Schaum series)
R4: Machine Design by Robert L Norton, Pearson Education Asia, 2001
R5: Design of Machine Elements by M.F.Spotts, PHI 2003.
R6: Machine Design by Paul H- Black, D.E.Adams McGraw Hill, 2001

Design Data Hand Books:

Design Data Hand Book – K.Lingaiah, McGraw Hill, 2nd Ed, 2003
1. Design Data Hand Book – K.Mahadevan & Balaveera Reddy, CBS Publication
2. Machine Design Data Hand Book by H.G.Patil, Shri Shashi Prakashan, Belgaum
 QUESTION BANK
Chapter – 1 Introduction
1. Explain the term ‘factor of safety’. (5)
2. Discuss the factors influencing selection of an appropriate material for a machine
element.
(8)
3. Discuss the factors influencing selection of appropriate value for the factor of safety
(8)
4. * List the factors which govern the selection of a material for a machine component
(3)
5. *Define Standardization. State the standards used in machine design. (3)

Chapter – 2 Design for Static Strength

1. Determine the maximum normal stress and maximum shear stress at section A. A for
the crank shown in figure.1. A load of 10KN is applied at the center of the crank pin.
Neglect the effect of transverse shear.
(10)
2. Explain the influence of stress concentration in the design of machine elements.
(5)
3. Determine the critical stress in the machine component shown in the figure 2.
(7)
4. A weight of 1 KN is dropped from a height of 50 mm at the free end of a cantilever
beam of effective length 300 mm. Determine the cross section of the cantilever beam
of square cross – section if the allowable stress in the material of the beam is limited
to 80MPa. (8)
5. A flat bar shown in figure 3 is subjected to an axial load of F equal to 50KN.
Assuming that the stress in the bar is limited to 200N/mm2. Determine the thickness
of flat bar. (12)
6. A round steel bar having σy = 800 MPa is subjected to the loads producing the
calculated stresses of P/A = 70MPa, TR/Jp = 200 MPa, My/J = 300 MPa and
4V/3A = 170MPa.
(i) Determine the safety factor with respect to initial yielding according to maximum
shear stress theory and maximum distortion energy theory
(ii) Draw the sketch showing the location of maximum normal stress and maximum
shear stress planes.
(12)
7. Explain the maximum normal stress, maximum shear stress and von Mises theory of
failures.
(09)
8. A wall bracket as shown in figure 5 is subjected to a pull of 5KN at 60o to the vertical.
The cross section of the bracket is rectangular having b = 3t. Determine the
dimensions ‘b’ and ‘t’, if the tensile stress in the material of the bracket is limited 30
MPa. (11)
9. Write full note on stress concentration factor.
(05)
10. A C–Clamp carries a load P=20000N. The cross-section (Figure 6) of the clamp
at x-x is rectangular having width equal to twice thickness. Assuming that the clamp
is made of steel casting with an allowable stress of 120 MPa, find its dimensions. Also
determine the stress at section zz.
(6)
11. A stepped shaft has maximum diameter 45 mm and minimum diameter 30 mm. The
fillet radius is 6 mm. If the shaft is subjected to an axial load of 10KN, find the
maximum stress induced, taking stress concentration into account.
(8)
12. *A machine part is statically loaded and has yield strength of 350 MPa. For the
following stresses calculate the factor of safety using the following theories of failure:
(i) Maximum normal stress theory.
(ii) Maximum shear stress theory
(iii) Von mires theory
(a) σ1 = -70MPa, σ2 = 0MPa
(b) σ1 = 70MPa, σ2 = -70MPa
(c) σ1 = 70MPa, σ2 = 70MPa
13. A tension member shown in figure 7, supports an axial load P. It is necessary to
replace this member by one having a 15 mm hole as shown. Determine the thickness
t and radius r at the fillet of the second member, so that the maximum stress will not
exceed that of the first member.
(10)
14. Find the value of the max. Stress on the fillet if the stress concentration factor for the
filleted flat bar in tension is 1.8 and D/d is 1.2 as shown in figure 8. Determine the
factor of safety if it is made of steel having yield strength of 320N/mm2.
(10)
15. A rod of circular cross section is to sustain a torsional moment of 300 KNm and a
bending moment of 200 KNm. Selecting a suitable material and assuming an
appropriate value for the factor of safety, determine the diameter of the rod as per
the following theories of failure:
(i) Maximum shear stress theory for failure.
(ii) Von Mises or distortion energy theory for failure.
(iii) Total energy theory for failure.
(15)
16. Figure 9 shows a crank shaft loaded by a force Fy = 1500N
(i) Draw separate free body forces, bending moments and turning moments that
act on the crank and on the shaft. Label the directions of the co ordinates axis
on these diagrams.
(ii) Compute the maximum torsional stress and the maximum principal stress in the
crank at a section 80mm from the pin-end.
(iii) Locate the stress element on the top surface of the shaft at A and find the
principal stresses and the maximum shear stress at the same point.
(15)
17. Obtain the magnitude of normal and shear stresses at the extreme fibers on the
cross section AA of a clamp loaded as shown in figure 11
(12)
18. Determine the diameters of a round rod to sustain a combined torsional load of 1500
Nm and a bending moment of 100 Nm by the following theories of failure. Material
selected for the rod has a value of 300 MPa and 180 MPa for the normal stress and
shear stress at yield respectively. Take a value of 2.50 for the factor of safety.
(i) Maximum shear stress theory
(ii) Octa hedral shearing stress theory
(12)
19. Explain six theories of failure.
(8)
20. Determine normal stresses at the extreme fibers on the cross section AA of a C-
clamp loaded as shown in figure 12.
(12)
21. Explain the following theories of failure
(i) Maximum principle stress theory for failure
(ii) Maximum shear stress theory for failure
(iii) Octahedral shear stress theory for failure
(9)
22. A round rod of diameter 30.0 mm is to sustain an axial compressive load of 20 kN
and a twisting moment of 150 Nm. The rod is made of carbon steel C40. Determine
factors of safety as per following theories of failure
 (i) Maximum principal strain theory for failure
(ii) Maximum Elastic energy theory for failure
(iii) Distortion energy theory for failure
(12)
23. * A rectangular plate 15mm thick made of brittle material is shown in fig below.
Calculate the stresses at each of three holes.
(8)

3Ø 5Ø
10 Ø
Chapter – 3 Design for fatigue strength

1. A shaft can transmit power of 20 KW at 1000 RPM. The actual torque transmitted by
shaft is ± 60% of the mean torque calculated. Shaft is also subjected to a variable
bending moment of 500 N-m to 1000 N-m. The maximum bending moment occurs at
the same instant as that of maximum torque. Determine the diameter of the shaft
required selecting suitable material. Take factor of safety 2, size factor = 0.85, and
surface factor = 0.8. (14)
2. A stepped shaft shown in figure 13 is subjected to the transverse load. The shaft is
made of steel with ultimate tensile strength of 400 MPa. The shaft is machined.
Determine diameter of shaft based on the factor of safety of 2.
(14)
3. Determine maximum stress induced in the following cases taking stress
concentration in case
(i) A rectangular plate under an axial load of 10KN. (figure 14)
(3)
(ii) The circular shaft with a step under transverse load of 10KN as
shown (figure 15)
(3)
(iii) The shaft under a twisting moment of 50Nm. (figure16)
(3)
4. Explain the significance of Goodman’s line and soderberg line in design of members
subjected to reversal of stresses.
(8)
5. A steel member of circular cross section is subjected to a torsional stress that varies
from 0 to 35 MPa and at the same time it is subjected to an axial stress that varies
from 14 MPa to 28 MPa. Neglecting stress concentration and column effect determine
(i) the maximum equivalent shear stress.
(ii) the design factor of safety based upon yield in shear. The material has an
endurance limit = 260 MPa and a yield strength = 480 MPa.
The size factor may be taken as UNITY and the surface has a mirror polish.
(12)
6. A stepped shaft with its diameter reduced from ‘1.2 d’ to ‘d’ has a fillet radius of
0.1d. Determine the diameters of the shaft and the radius of fillet to transmit a
power of 60 KW at a rated of 1000 RPM limiting the maximum shear stress induced
to 65MPa. (7)

7. A shaft of circular cross section is subjected to a turning moment that fluctuates

between 800 KNm and 600 KNm and also a bending moment that fluctuates between
+ 500 KNm and – 300KNm. The material selected for the shaft has a shear stress
value of 100 MPa at endurance limit and a shear stress value of 120 MPa of the yield
limit. Determine the diameter of the solid circular shaft taking a value of 2.50 for the
factor of safety. Surface factor, size factor and load factor can be taken as 0.90, 0.85
and 1.0 respectively. Shear stress concentration factor is 1.80 and the notch
sensitivity is 0.95.

8. A cantilever beam of rectangular cross section has a span of 800 mm. The
rectangular cross section of the beam has a depth of 200 mm. The free end of the
beam is subjected to a transverse load that fluctuates between 8 KN down to 5KN
up. Selecting carbon steel C 30 as material for the beam and selecting a value of
2.50 for the factor of safety, determine the width of rectangular cross section.
Surface factor and size factor are respectively 0.95 and 0.90. Stress concentration
factor is given to be 1.65 (14)

9. A round rod of diameter 1.2d is reduced to a diameter d with a fillet radius of 0.1d.
This stepped rod is to sustain a twisting moment that fluctuates between +2.5KNm
and +1.5KNm together with a bending moment that fluctuates between +1KNm
 and –1.0KNm. The rod is made of carbon steel C40. Determine a suitable value for
d. (14)

10.*A cantilever beam of circular cross-section is subjected to an alternating stress at a

point on the outer fiber in the plane of the support that varies from 21 MPa
(compression) to 28 MPa (tension). At the same time there is an alternative stress
due to axial loading that varies from 14 MPa (compression) to 28 MPa (tension).
The material has an ultimate strength of 412 MPa, yield strength of 309 MPa.
Assume that actual stress concentration factor =1, size correction factor = 0.85,
and surface correction factor = 0.9. Determine

i) the equivalent normal stress due to axial loading

ii) the equivalent normal stress due to bending and
iii) the total equivalent normal stress due to axial loading and bending
(12)

Chapter – 4 Impact Loading

1. Explain the influence of stress raiser on impact strength

(06)
2. A 5 Kg block is dropped from a height of 200 mm on to a beam shown in figure 4.
The material has an allowable yield stress of 50 MPa. Determine the dimensions of
the rectangular section, whose depth is 1.5 times of the width. Take E= 70MPa.
(14)
3. A weight of 1400 N is dropped on to a collar at the lower end of a vertical steel shaft
of 3m long and 25 mm. diameter, calculate the height of drop if the maximum
instantaneous stress produced is not to exceed 120 MPa. Take E = 2.1 x 105 MPa.
(5)
4. Derive an expression for shock/impact factor.
(5)
5. A cantilever beam of span 800.0 mm has a rectangular cross section of depth
200.0m. The free end of the beam is subjected to a transverse load of 1KN, dropped
onto it from a height of 40.0 mm. selecting a suitable material and assuming an
appropriate value for the factor of safety, determine the width of the rectangular
cross section. (8)
6. Find the maximum stress due to impact in the bolt and in the beam shown in figure
10. Assume the same material, namely steel, for both the members.

Chapter – 5 Design of Shafts

1. A horizontal piece of commercial shafting is supported by two bearing 1.5 m apart. A

keyed gear 20o involute and 200 mm in diameter is located 400 mm to the left of
right bearing and is driven by a gear directly behind it. A 600 mm diameter pulley is
keyed to the shaft 600mm to the right of left bearing and drives a pulley with a
horizontal belt directly behind it. The tension ratio of the belt is 3:1, with the slack
side on top. The driver transmits 50KW at 350 RPM, Kb= Kt = 1.5.
a) Draw the moment diagram
b) Calculate the diameter of the solid shaft required
c) Calculate the torsional deflection in degrees
(20)
2. Design a bush type flexible coupling to connect motor and centrifugal pump shafts.
Motor transmits 10 KW at 1440 RPM. Allowable stress in shear for shaft, key and
bolts are 40 MPa. Allowable bearing pressure for rubber bush is 0.3 MPa. Check for
stresses. (12)
3.
Three identical pulleys of 500 mm diameter and weighing 500 N each are mounted
on a line shaft supported on two bearings 4000 mm apart. The pulley A is mounted
at 300 mm to the right of left bearing and receives 30KW at 200RPM from a pulley
vertically below it. The pulley B is mounted 1000 mm to the right of left bearing and
 delivers 6KW to a pulley through a belt drive inclined backward at 45o to the vertical.
The remaining power is taken out through another pulley C which is mounted at 3000
mm to the right of left bearing and drives a planning machine the drive being 30o to
the front of the vertical. The angle of lap for all pulleys may be taken as 180o and the
coefficient of friction is 0.3. The working stress in shear for the shaft material is
80N/mm2. Determine the diameter of the shaft.(20)

4. Design a bushed pin type flexible coupling to transmit 90 KW at 1440 RPM for
connecting two shafts of diameter 60 mm. Assume bearing pressure on the bushes
as 0.35N/mm2, allowable shear stress in the material of the pins as 45 N/mm2 and
allowable bending stress in the material of the pin is 80 N/mm2.
(14)
5. Write a brief note on materials and heat treatments used for the shaft.
(06)
6. A 1.2 m hollow shaft is subjected to bending moment 900N-m and turning moment
600 N-m. The shaft is also subjected to an end thrust 1.2KN. Taking di/do = 0.7 and
material of the shaft to be cold rolled steel, determine the inner and outer diameters
of the shaft. Consider heavy shock condition.
7. A 250mm diameter solid shaft is used to drive the propeller of a marine vessel. It is
necessary to reduce the weight of the shaft by 70%, what would be the dimensions
of a hollow shaft made of the same material as the solid shaft.
(5)
8. A shaft is mounted between bearings located 9.5 m apart the transmits 10000 KW at
90 rev/min. The shaft weighs 66000N has an outside diameter of 450 mm and inside
diameter of 300 mm. Determine the stress induced in shaft and the angular
deflection between bearing. Do not neglect the weight of the shaft.
(10)
9. Design a cast Iron flange coupling (protected type) to connect two shafts and
transmits a torque a 5000 Nm. The following permissible stresses may be used.
Permissible shear stress for shaft, bolt and key material = 50 MPa. Permissible shear
stress for CI = 16MPa.
10. Compare the weight, strength and stiffness of a hollow shaft of the same external
diameter as that of solid shaft. The inside dia. of the hollow shaft being half the
external diameter. Both the shafts have the same material and length.
(10)
11. A line shaft is to transmit 600 KW at 500RPM. The allowable shear stress for the
material of the shaft is 42N/mm2 (42MPa). If the shaft carries a central load of 900N
and is simply supported between bearing 3 meter apart, determine the diameter of
the shaft. The maximum tensile or compressive stress in not exceed 50 MPa.
(10)
12. A shaft is required to transmit 1 MW power at 240RPM. The shaft must not twist
more that 1o on a length of 15 diameters. If the modulus of rigidity for the material
of the shaft is 80 KN/mm2, find the diameter of the shaft and the shear stress
induced.

13. Design a cast iron protective flange coupling to connect two shafts in order to
transmit 7.5 KW at 720 RPM. the following permissible stresses may be used
permissible shear stress for shaft, bolt and key material = 33MPa. Crushing stress for
bolt and key material = 60 MPa. Shear stress for cast iron = 15MPa.

14. The shaft of uniform diameter as shown in figure 17 carries belt pulleys at A and B
with vertical belts. It is supported in bearings at C and D. the shaft transmits 10 KW
at 400 rpm. The tension on the tight side of belt A is 2000 N, and that on the slack
side of belt B is 900N. Pulley A weighs 200 N and pulley B 400 N. Estimate suitable
diameter for the shaft, adopting a working shear stress of 45 MPa.

15. State the advantages of hollow shafts over solid shafts in transmission of power
(5)
16. A 60 cm pulley A receives 15 KW at 500 RPM from below at angle of 45o as shown in
the figure 18. A gear C with 450 mm pitch circle diameter delivers 30% of the power
horizontally to the right gear D with pitch circle diameter of 300 mm delivers the
remaining power downward to the left at an angle of 30o below the horizontal. Both
the gears have 20o involute teeth. Assuming working stress in shear 40 MN/m2 and in
tension at 80 MN/m2 and in tension as 80 MN/m2 for the shaft material. Design the
shaft of uniform diameter. The ratio of tensions in the belt is 2.
(20)
17. Design a protected type CI flange coupling for a steel shaft transmitting 15 KW at
1200 RPM. take the maximum torque to be 20% more than the full-load torque.
Draw to scale the coupling designed giving all important dimensions.
(20)
18. A power transmission shaft is supported on two bearings 2000.0 mm apart. The
shaft receives a power of 40KW through a belt drive situated, at a distance of 600.0
mm to the right of the left bearing. The weight & diameter of the pulley are
respectively 800N and 400.0mm. The belt moves towards the observer below the
horizontal, inclined at 60o to it. The ratio of the belt tensions is 3.0. The power is
transmitted out of the shaft through a gear drive located on the shaft at a distance of
500.0 mm to the left of the right bearing. The weight and pitch diameter of the gear
mounted on the shaft are respectively 600N and 300.0 mm. The gear which receives
from this gear is located exactly behind. The teeth are of involute profile with a
pressure angle of 20o. Determine the diameter of the solid circular shaft selecting
carbon steel C40 as material & assuming a value of 2.50 for the factor of safety.
(20)

19. Design a protected type of CI flange coupling to connect two shafts of the same
diameters and transmit 150 KW at 100 RPM. Select suitable materials and factors of
safety. Assume 25% over load.
(14)
20. A power transmission shaft 1200.0 mm long receives power of 25 KW through a belt
drive located at its right extreme end. The shaft is supported at two points A and B.
While A is at the left extreme end, B is at a distance of 300mm from the right
extreme end. The pulley on the shaft has a diameter of 500mm and weighs 800N.
The belt on the pulley moves below towards the observer making an angle of 30o
with the vertical. The power is taken out through a gear drive located at distance of
400mm form the left support. The gear mounted on the shaft has a pitch diameter of
250mm and weighs 500 N. The other gear which receives power form this gear is
placed just above this gear. The pressure angle is 20o. The shaft operates at 750
RPM. Selecting a suitable material and assuming an appropriate value for the factor
of safety, determine the diameter of the solid circular shaft.
21. A power transmission shaft 1800 mm long is supported at two points A and B.
Whereas A is at a distance of 300mm from the left extreme end of the shaft, B is at
the right extreme end. A power of 50 kW is received at 500 RPM through a gear drive
located at the left extreme end of the shaft. The gear mounted on the shaft here has
a pitch diameter of 300mm and weighs 700N. The driver gear is located exactly
behind. A power of 30KW is given out through a belt drive located at a distance of
600mm from the left support. The pulley mounted on the shaft has a diameter of 400
mm and weighs 1000N. The belt is directed towards the observer below the
horizontal and inclined at 45o to it. The ratio of belt tensions is 3. the remaining
power is given out through a gear drive located at a distance of 400 mm from the
right support. The driver gear has a pitch diameter of 200 mm and weighs 500N. The
driven gear is located exactly above. Selecting appropriate material and assuming a
suitable value for the factor of safety determine the diameter of a solid shaft for the
purpose.
22. Design a rigid flanged coupling to transmit a power of 40 kW at a rated speed of
100RPM

(10)
Chapter – 6 Fasteners
1. Determine load capacity of the riveted joint loaded as shown in figure 19, if the shear
stress of the material of the rivet is 100 N/ mm2.
(12)
2. A 100mm shaft rotating at 100 RPM transmit 300 hp power is taken off through a
gear whose hub is 200 mm long. The key is made of steel having an ultimate
shearing stress of 350N/ mm2. Using a factor of safety of 5, determine the width of
key required. (6)
3. A bolt in a steel structure is subjected to a tensile load of 9 KN. The initial tightening
load on the bolt is 5 KN. Determine the size of the bolt taking allowable stress for the
bolt material to be 80 MPa.
(08)
4. A flanged bearing is fastened to a frame by means of four bolts spaced equally on
400mm bolt circle as shown in figure 20. The diameter of the flange is 500 mm and a
load of 200 KN acts at a distance of 250 mm from the frame. If the tensile stress in
the bolt is not to exceed 63 MPa. Determine the bolt size.
(12)
5. Select a rectangular parallel key for transmitting a power of 50 KW at a rated speed
of 500 RPM to mount a hub of length 60mm on a solid circular shaft of
diameter 50 mm. (6)
6. Figure 21 shows the cylindrical head of a pressure vessel using 10 bolts and a
confined gasket. The static pressure in the cylinder is 6N/mm2. Select the size of the
metric bolts for a factor of safety of 3.
7. For the system shown in figure 22 find the maximum stress in the weld. Find the size
of the bolt.
(20)
8. Determine the power capacity ratio of the two system: one a 24 mm diameter shaft
with a 48 x 6 x 6 mm key and another a 24 mm diameter shaft with a 6 mm dia pin.
The stress concentration for the key way in the shaft is 1.3, and that for the pinned
shaft is 1.75. Assume only torsional load and the same material for all parts.
(12)
 Chapter – 7 Power screws
1. A split nut used with a lead screw is propelled at a speed of 5 m/min, against a load
of 20KN, along the spindle of a square thread (single start), having nominal diameter
of 30 mm and a pitch of 6 mm. The axial thrust is absorbed by a collar of 100mm
outside diameter and 70 mm inside diameter. Assuming suitable coefficient of
friction, determine :
(i) Power required to drive
(ii) height of the bronze nut required
if allowable bearing pressure is 17MPa.
(10)
2. The following data applies to a C clamp shown in Figure 23. The screw has
trapezoidal metric thread.
Pitch – 1.75mm, Outer dia. of screw – 12mm, Root Dia. – 9.853
Coefficient of thread friction – 0.12
Coefficient of collar friction – 0.25
Friction circle radius of collar – 6mm
Maximum thrust on the screw – 4 KN
Determine:
(i) Length of handling if the operator exerts a force of 80N at the end of the handle
(ii) Maximum shear stress induced in the body of the screw and where does it exist.
(iii) Bearing pressure on threads.
(14)
3. A machine weighing 20KN is to be raised by a single start square threaded 50mm
diameter, 8mm pitch screw jack at a maximum speed of 600m/min. If the coefficient
of friction between the threads is 0.2, determine the power required to lift the
machine. The thrust collar of the screw has inside diameter of 30mm and out side
diameter of 60mm. The coefficient of collar friction is 0.1. (10)
4. A 15KN screw jack with a maximum extension of 150 mm has double square threads.
Using an allowable compressive stress of 80N/mm2 and bearing pressure on the
threads 17.5 MPa Find:
(ii) Size of screw
(iii) Height of nut
(10)
5. A shaft straightner is designed to exert a load of 25 KN. It utilizes a square threaded
screw having outside diameter of 75mm and pitch of 6 mm determine the force
required to operate the handwheel of 300 mm diameter if the coefficient of friction
for threads is 0.12. Also determine efficiency of straightner.
(8)
6. What are power screws? State their applications.
(4)

7. Design the following parts of 20 KN screw jack selecting suitable materials and
assuming appropriate values for the factors of safety, for a travel of 200mm
(iv) Screw rod
(v) Nut
(vi) The hand lever
8. A turn buckle is used to tighten a wire rope. The threads are single right and left
hand square in section. The outside diameter of the screw is 38mm and the pitch is
8.5 mm. The coefficient of friction between the screws and nuts is 0.15. what is the
maximum shear stress induced in the screw of the turn buckle if the rope is to be
tightened to a tension of 8 KN.
9. Select thread proportions for the screw rod of a screw press to sustain an axial
compressive load of 40 KN for an unsupported length of 350.0mm. select an
appropriate material and assume a suitable value for the factor of safety.
(10)
10. A weight of 500KW is raised at a speed of 6m/min by two screw rods with square
threads of 50 x 8 cut on them. The two screw rods are driven through bevel gear
drives by a motor. Determine:
 (i) The torque required to raise the load
(4)
(ii) The speed of rotation of the screw rod assuming the threads are of double
start
(2)
(iii) The maximum stresses induced on the cross section of the screw rod
(4)
(iv) The efficiency of screw drive
(3)
(v) The length of nuts for the purpose of supporting the load
(vi) check for overhaul
(2)
11.Design a turnbuckle to take an axial load of 100KN. The material of which the turn
buckle is to be made has a design normal stress of 165 N/mm2 and design shear
stress of 100N/mm2.
(08)

Chapter – 8 Mechanical Joints

1. Design the longitudinal joint for a boiler for a steam pressure of 2 MPa. Diameter of
the boiler is 1 m. Select a double riveted butt joint with a required efficiency of 75%.
Take the following allowable stresses. σt = 80 MPa, τ = 60MPa, σc = 120 MPa.
(10)
2. An eccentrically loaded bracket welded to its support is loaded as shown in figure 24.
Determine the size of the weld required. (10)
3. A steel bracket is welded to a structure and loaded as shown in figure 25. Calculate
the size of the weld, taking the permissible stress in the weld to be 84 N/mm2.
(12)
4. Design a sleeve type of cotter joint to connect two tie rods subjected to an axial pull
of 60KN. The allowable stress of C – 30 material used for rods and cotters are
σt = 65 N/mm2, σc = 75 N/mm2 and τ = 35 N/mm2. Cast steel material used for the
sleeve has the allowable stresses σt = 70 N/mm2 and τ = 45 N/mm2

5. Design the longitudinal and circumferential joints for a boiler whose diameter in 2
meters and is subjected to a pressure of 1 MPa. The longitudinal joint is a triple
riveted butt joint with an efficiency of about 85% and the circumferential joint is a
double riveted lap joint with an efficiency of about 70%. The pitch in the outer rows
of the rivets is to be double that in the inner rows and the width of the cover plates is
unequal. The allowable stresses are σt = 70MPa, τ shear stress = 50MPa crushing
stress σc = 120MPa. Assume that the resistance of the rivets in double shear is 1.875
times that of single shear. (20)
6. A bracket as shown in figure 26 carries a load of 40000N. Calculate the size of weld,
if the allowable shear is not exceed 80MPa.
(10)
7. Two lengths of mild steel flat tie bars 200 mm x 10mm are to be connected by a
double riveted double cover butt joint using 24 mm diameter rivets. Design the joint,
if the allowable working stresses are 112 MPa in tension, 84 MPa in shear and
200MPa in crushing.
8. Sketch and explain the types of riveted joint failure.
(8)
9. A knuckle joint is required for a rod which has to withstand a tensile load of 100 KN.
Find the diameters of the rod and the pin. safe working stress both in tension and
shear are 80 MPa and 60 MPa respectively. Suggest the suitable dimensions for the
entire joint.
10. Design and draw a fully dimensioned neat sketch in two view of a double riveted butt
joint with double cover plates for the longitudinal seam of a boiler 1.5m in diameter
when working pressure is 1 MPa. Use the following data:
 Allowable stress in tension for steel plate = 80MPa
Allowable stress in shear for rivets = 60 MPa
Allowable stress in crushing for rivets = 120 MPa.
(12)
11. Find the difference in the diameters to be allowed for shrinkage when a compound
cylinder 200 mm external diameter, 100 mm internal diameter and 150 mm diameter
at the junction of the two tubes has a radial pressure of 31 MPa at the junction. Take
E = 2.1 x 105 MPa and Poisson’s ratio = 0.25.
(10)

12. A triple-rivetted butt-joint with equal cover plates is used to connect two plates 16
mm thick. Design the joint if the allowable crushing stress for rivet and plates is
60 MN/m2. Find the joint efficiency. Allowable shear stress for rivets: 45 MN/m2.
Draw to scale two views of the designed joint giving all dimensions.
(10)

13. A bracket supporting a load is welded to a stanchion by four fillet welds of 6mm size
as shown in the figure 28. What is the maximum value of P if the normal stress on
the throat section is not to exceed 98 MN/m2?
(10)
14. Design a triple riveted butt joint with unequal widths of cover plates to join two
plates of thickness 10mm. The extreme row of rivets, which are in single shear, have
a pitch which is twice the pitch of rivets in the inner rows. The allowable stresses are
as follows:
Tensile stress of the material of the plates = 80 MPa
Shear stress of the material of the rivets = 60 MPa
Crushing stress of the material of the rivets = 120MPa
Sketch the joint. Also determine the various strengths & efficiencies of the joint.
(10)
15. Design a knuckle joint to transmit an axial load of 120 KN. The allowable stress for
the material of the joint are as follows: σt = 120 MPa and τ = 80 MPa
(10)
16. Design a cotter joint to sustain an axial load of 80 KN. Material selected for the joint
has the following mechanical properties.
Normal stress at yield = 300 MPa
Shear stress at yield = 150 MPa
Allowable bearing pressure = 40 MPa
(12)
17. Design a longitudinal butt joint with equal widths of cover plates for a pressure vessel
of diameter 1200.0 mm subjected to an internal pressure of 0.90 MPa. A joint
efficiency of 75% can be assumed at this stage. For practical reasons the pitch of
rivets is to be restricted a value not less than 3 d and not more than 3.5 d where d is
the diameter of the rivets. Material selected for the main plate and rivets has the
following safe values:
Design normal stress for material of the main plate = 120 MPa
Design shear stress of the material of the rivet = 80 MPa
Design Crushing stress of the material of the rivet = 160 MPa
Sketch the joint and determine the various efficiencies.
(14)

18. Design a socket and spigot type of cotter joint to sustain an axial load of 100kN. The
material selected for the joint has the following design stresses. σt = 120 MPa, σc =
160 MPa and pb = 60 MPa (10)
19. Design a triple riveted butt joint to join two plates of thickness 10 mm. The pitch of
rivets in the extreme rows, which are in single shear, is twice the pitch of rivets in
the inner rows which are in double shear. The design stresses of the materials of the
main plate and the rivets are as follows:
 for plate material in tension σt = 12MPa
for rivet material in compression σc = 160 MPa
for rivet material in shear τ = 80 MPa
Draw neat sketches of the joint in two views.
(10)

20. Suggest a suitable weld size for a welded joint loaded as shown in figure- 29
(10)

ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS – IV – MAT41

Subject Code : MAT 41 No. of Periods : 65
Chapter Referenc Cumulat
Peri
title Topics to be covered e ive
ods
Chapter
COMPLEX VARIABLES
1 Chapter 1 Introduction
2. Complex Definition of Limit, continuity, differentiability
Analysis and problems
3. Analytical functions and problems
4. T1,Pg#592, Cauchy-Riemann equations in Cartesian form
5. 623 Cauchy-Riemann equations in Polar form
6. Problems 21 21
7. R1,Pg#651 Consequences on C-R equations 32.3% 32.3%
8. Problems
9. Conformal transformations: z2, ez and z + a2 / z
10. Bilinear transformations
11. Problems
12. Complex integration: Line integral
13. Problems
14. Cauchy’s theorem – corollaries
15. Cauchy’s integral formula
16. Problems
17. Taylor’s series and examples
18. Laurent’s series and examples
19. Singularities, poles
20. Calculation of Residues and problems
21. Residue theorem and examples.
SPECIAL FUNCTIONS
22. Chapter 2 Series Solution of Bessel’s Differential equation
23. Special Problems
24. Functions Recurrence relations
25. Generating function
26. Problems 14
27. T1, Orthogonality Property and examples 21.5%
28. Pg#500 Bessel’s integral formula and examples
29. R1, Series Solution of Legendre’s differential 35
pg#194 equation 53.8%
30. Problems
31. Generating functions ,
32. Rodrigue’s formula
33. Recurrence relations
34. Problems
35. Orthogonality Property and problems
STATISTICS AND PROBABILITY
36. Chapter 3 Curve fitting by the method of Least squares
37. Statistics Problems
38. and Correlation and problems
39. Probability Regression
40. Probability, conditional probability 12 47
41. Problems 18.5% 72.3%
42. T1, Baye’s rule and problems
43. Pg#733,78 Discrete and continuous random variables
44. 0 PDF and CDF
45. R1, Binomial distribution and problems
Pg#1049
46. Poison distribution, Exponential distribution and
R2,59,85,1
problems
19,177,245
47. Normal distribution and problems
SAMPLING DISTRIBUTION
48. Chapter 4 Sampling, Sampling distribution, Standard error
49. Sampling Type-I and Type-II errors and problems
50. distributio Testing of hypothesis for means large samples 07 54
51. n Testing of hypothesis for means small samples 10.8% 83.1%
52. Level of Significance and problems
53. T1,Pg#822 Confidence limits for means Large and Small
, samples
54. R1,Pg#110 Student’s t-distribution.
4

JOINT PROBABILITY DISTRIBUTION AND

Chapter 5 MARKOV CHAINS
55. Joint Concept of Joint Probability and Joint distribution
56. Probability Discrete and independent random variables
57. Distributio Expectation and variance
58. n& Problems
59. Markov Introduction to Markov Chains
60. Chains Probability vectors and problems 11 65
61. R2,Pg#224 Stochastic Matrices and problems 16.9% 100%
62. 282 Fixed points and regular Stochastic Matrices
63. Higher transition probabilities
64 Stationary distribution of regular Markov chains
65 Absorbing states

Literature

Book Type Code Title & Author Edition Publisher Year

Text Book T1 Higher Engineering 38th Khanna 2004

Mathematics;
B.S. Grewal
Reference R1 Advanced Engineering 8th Wiley 2001
Books Mathematics; Erwin
Kreyszig
R2 Schaum’s Outlines 2nd McGraw- 2000
:Probability Hill
 QUESTION BANK
COMPLEX ANALYSIS (20 marks)
Analytic Functions:
1. Show that the function f ( z ) = z is continuous at every point but not differentiable at
any point.
2. Show that the function f (z ) =| z |2 is continuous at every point but is not differentiable
at any point other than origin.
3. The necessary sufficient condition for the function f(z)= u + iv to be analytic is
∂u ∂v ∂v ∂u
= , =−
∂x ∂y ∂x ∂y
4. If f (z) is analytic on an open set S and f ′(z ) = 0 for all z ∈ S show that f (z) is
constant.
5. Show that an analytic function with constant real part is constant.
6. Show that an analytic function with constant modulus is constant.
7. If f (z ) = u + iv is analytic and ψ is any differential function of x and y prove that
2
⎛ ∂ψ ⎞ ⎛ ∂ψ ⎞
2
⎧⎪⎛ ∂ψ ⎞ 2 ⎛ ∂ψ ⎞ 2 ⎫⎪
⎜ ⎟ + ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ = ⎨⎜ ⎟ +⎜ ⎟ ⎬ | f ′(z ) |
2
⎝ ∂x ⎠ ⎝ ∂y ⎠ ⎪⎩⎝ ∂u ⎠ ⎝ ∂v ⎠ ⎪⎭
8. If f (z ) = u + iv is an analytic function, prove the following
⎛ ∂2 ∂2 ⎞
(a) ⎜⎜ 2 + 2 ⎟⎟ | f (z ) |2 = 4 | f ′(z ) |2
⎝ ∂x ∂y ⎠
2 2
⎛ ∂ ⎞ ⎛ ∂ ⎞
(b) ⎜ | f (z ) | ⎟ + ⎜⎜ | f (z ) | ⎟⎟ =| f ′(z ) |2
⎝ ∂x ⎠ ⎝ ∂y ⎠
⎛ ∂ 2
∂ ⎞
2
(c) ⎜⎜ 2 + 2 ⎟⎟ log | f (z ) |= 0
⎝ ∂x ∂y ⎠
(d) If f (z ) = u + iv is analytic and φ is any differentiable function of x and y, prove that
2
⎛ ∂φ ⎞ ⎛ ∂φ ⎞
2
⎧⎪⎛ ∂φ ⎞ 2 ⎛ ∂φ ⎞ 2 ⎫⎪
⎜ ⎟ + ⎜ ⎟ = ⎨⎜ ⎟ + ⎜ ⎟ ⎬ | f ′(z ) |
⎜ ⎟ 2
∂
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
x ∂y ∂
⎪⎩⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ ⎪⎭
u ∂v

(e) If f (z ) = u + iv is analytic, show that ∇ 2 | f (z ) |2 =| f ′(z ) |2

∂2F ∂2F ∂2F
9. Prove that + 2 =4 Here F=F(x, y) z= x+ iy, z = x − iy
∂x 2
∂y ∂z∂z
10. If f(z) = u +iv is analytic u and v satisfy Laplace’s equation, show that
∂ 2u ∂ 2u ∂ 2v ∂v 2
+ =0 + = 0 i.e ., u & v are harmonic functions.
∂x 2 ∂y 2 ∂x 2
∂y
2

11. If f(z) = u + iv is analytic then the families of curves u= c1 and v= c2 here c1& c2
are constant are orthogonal.
12. Show that an analytic function constant modulus is constant.
13. Find the analytic function f(z)=u + iv, given
(a) u =2x(1-y)
(b) u = ex (x cosy – y siny)
(c) x sinx cushy – ycosx sinhy
(d) v=exsiny
sinxsiny
(e) v=
cos2x + cosh2y
x
(f) u + v = 2
x + y2
 PESIT
−y
cos x + sin x − e
(g) u − v =
2 cos x − e y − e − y
∂u 1 ∂v ∂v 1 ∂u
14. If z = reiθ and f (z ) = u (r , θ ) + iv(r , θ ) prove that = ; =−
∂r r ∂θ ∂r r ∂θ

15. f (z ) = u (r , θ ) + iv(r , θ ) is analytic function, show that u and v satisfy the function

∂ 2ϕ 1 ∂ϕ 1 ∂ 2ϕ
(a) + + =0
∂r 2 r ∂r r 2 ∂θ 2
∂ 2u 1 ∂u 1 ∂ 2u
(b) + + =0
∂r 2 r ∂r r 2 ∂θ 2
∂ 2 v 1 ∂v 1 ∂ 2 v
(c) + + =0
∂r 2 r ∂r r 2 ∂θ 2
16. Find the analytic function f (z ) = u + iv, given
cos 2θ
(a) u = r 2 cos 2θ − 4 sin θ (b) u = ,r ≠ 0
r2

Complex Integration
1. Prove that ∫ f (z )dz = ∫ (udx − vdy ) + i ∫ (udy + vdx )
c c c

2. Prove that ∫ f (z )dz = 0

c
3. If c1,c2,c3…..cn are ‘n’ non overlapping simple closed curves within C and f(z) is analytic
on these curves in the region bounded by them then prove that

∫ f (z )dz = ∫ f (z )dz + ∫ f (z )dz + ..... + ∫ f (z )dz

c c1 c2 cn

4. Verify the Cauchy’s theorem for the function f (z ) = 3 z 2 + iz − 4 with c as the square
having vertices at 1 ± i , -1 ± i
5. If f(z) is analytic within and on a simple closed curve c in the complex plane and a is
f (z )
any point c then prove that f (a ) = ∫
1
dz
2πi z − a
c
6. If f(z) is analytic within and on a simple closed curve C and a is any point within C then
f (z )
f n (a ) = ∫
n!
dz
2πi (z − a )n +1
c
z +1
7. Evaluate ∫
c
z2
dz, where C is a simple closed contour enclosing the origin.

ez
8. Evaluate ∫z
c
3
dz where C is the circle |z|=1

z2 +1
9. Evaluate ∫
c
z2 −1
dz , where C is a circle of unit radius with center at (i) z= 1

(ii) z=-1
1
10. Obtain the Taylor’s and Laurent’s series for the function f(z)= for (a)|Z|<1
(1 + z )(z + 2)
2

11. (b) 1<|z|<2 (c) |z|>2

z2
12. Obtain Laurent’s expansion for f (z ) = in the region (a) 1<|z|<3 (b) |z-
(z − 1)(z − 3)
1|<2.

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

 PESIT
13. If C is a simple closed curve and f(z) is analytic within and on simple closed curve c
except at finite points a1,a2,a3…..an inside c then prove that

∫ f (z )dz = 2πi(R + R
c
1 2 + R3 + ......Rn ) here R1 , R2 , R3 ....Rn are residues of f(z) at a1,a2,a3,……an

3z − 4
14. Evaluate ∫ z(z − 1)(z − 2) dz
c
where C: |z|=3/2

2z + z
2
15. ∫
c
z2 −1
dz, where (i) C: |z|=2 (ii) C: |z-1|=1

16. Show that the transformation w = z2 transforms the circle | z-a | = c to a cardioid or a
limacon.
17. Find the bilinear transformation that transforms the points z1 = 1, z2 = i, z3 = -1 onto
the points w1 = 2, w2 = i, w3 = -2. Find the fixed points of the transformation.

18. Find the images of (i) x-y = 1 (ii) x2 – y2 = 1 under the transformation w = z2.

BESSELS FUNCTIONS: (10 marks)

1. Find the series solution of Bessel's differential equation.

2. Show that y = c1 Jn(kx ) + c2 J-n (kx) is the solution of x2 y2 + xy1 + (k2 x2 - n2)y =0.
3. Verify that y = xn Jn(x) is the solution of x y2 +(1-2n)y1 + xy =0.
2 2
4. Show that (a) J ½ (x) = Sinx (b) J -½ (x) = Cosx.
πx πx
5. Show that 2n J n(x) = x [J n-1 (x) + J n + 1 (x) ]
6. Show that J n'(x) = x [J n-1 (x) - J n + 1 (x) ]

7. Show that
d n
dx
[ ]
x J n (x) = xn J n-1 (x) .

8. Show that
d −n
dx
[ ]
x J n (x) = x-n J n+1 (x) .

2
9. Show that (a) J 3/2 (x) = {(Sinx )/x - cosx }
πx
2
(b) J --3/2 (x) = {(Cosx)/x +sinx}
πx
10. Show that
d
dx
[ ]
x J n ( x) J n−1 ( x). = x[ J2 n (x) .- J2 n-1 (x)]

11. Show that cos (x sinθ) = J0(x) +2ΣJ2n(x)cos 2nθ

12. Show that sin (x sinθ) = 2ΣJ2n-1(x)sin (2n-1)θ

∫
1
13. Prove that J n(x) = cos(nθ − x sinθ )dθ
π
14. State and prove orthogonal property of Bessel's functions.
∞

∫
1
15. Show that e −ax J 0 (bx)dx =
0 a + b2
2

16. Prove that J − n (x ) = (− 1)n J n (x ), where n is a positive integer.

LEGENDRE POLYNOMIALS: (10 marks)

1. Find the series solution of Legendre's differential function.

2. Show that (a)Pn (1) = 1 (b)Pn (-x) = (-1) n Pn (x) . Hence deduce that Pn (-1) = (-1)n
3. 2 3 4
Express 3 - x + 2x + 2x + x in terms of Legendre’s polynomials.
4. By using Rodrigue’s formula verify that Pn (x) satisfies Legendre’s differential equation.

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

 PESIT
π
x ± x 2 − 1 cosθ ⎤dθ
1 ⎡
5. Show that Pn (x) =
π ⎢⎣∫
0
⎥⎦

6. Show that [ (2n+ 1) x Pn (x)] = (n+1) Pn+1 (x) + n Pn-1 (x)

7. Show that Pn (x) = xP'n (x) - P'n-1 (x)
8. Show that Pn (x) = P'n+1 (x) - 2x P'n (x) + P'n-1 (x)
1
2n (n + 1)
9. Show that ∫ x .Pn + 1 (x).Pn − 1 (x) dx = (2n − 1)(2n + 1)(2n + 3)
2

−1
1

∫ x .Pn (x).Pn − 1 (x) dx = (4n

2n
10. Show that
−1
2
− 1)
1

∫ x .Pn (x).P' n (x) dx = (2n − 1)

2n
11. Show that
−1

12. Prove that Pn (x ) =

2 n! dx
1
n
dn
n
(x − 1)
2 n

13. Express x 3 + 3x 2 − 4 x + 5 in terms of Lagendre’s Polynomials.

14. Prove that P ' n ( x ) = xP ' n −1 ( x ) + nPn −1 ( x )

STATISTICS: (10 marks)

1. Fit the straight line of the form y= a + bx to the given data
x: 0 5 10 15 20 25
y: 12
15 17 22 24 30
2. Fit a parabola y = ax 2 + bx + c to the following data.
x: 20 40 60 80 100 120
y: 5.5 9.1 14.9 22.8 33.3 46.0
3. Fit a curve of the form y=axb for the data
x: 1 2 3 4 5 6
y: 2.98 4.26 5.21 6.1 6.8 7.5

4. The following table gives the marks obtained by a student in two subjects in ten tests.
Find the coefficient of correlation.
Sub A : 77 54 27 52 14 35 90 25 56 60
Sub B: 35 58 60 40 50 40 35 56 34 42
5. Show that there is a perfect correlation between x & y .
x: 10 12 14 16 18 20
y: 20 25 30 35 40 45
6. A computer while calculating the correlation coefficient bet x & y from 25 pairs of
observations got the following constants n = 25, Σ x = 125, Σ x2 = 650, Σ y = 100,
Σy2 = 460& Σ xy = 508. Later it was discovered it had copied down the pairs (8, 12) &
(6, 8) as (6, 14) & (8, 6) respectively. Obtain the correct value of the correlation
coefficient.
7. If θ is the angle between two regression lines show that
1- r2 σ x σ y
tan θ = and explain the significance when r = 0.
r σ x2 + σ y2
8. Find the lines of regression for the following data:
x: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
y; 10 12 16 28 25 36 41 49 40
50
9. If the mean of x is 65, mean of y is 67, σx = 7. 5, σx = 3.5 & r = 0.8 find the value of x
corresponding to y= 75 & y corresponding to x = 70.

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

 PESIT
10. The two regression lines are x = 4y + 5 & 16y = x + 64 find the mean values of x, y
& r.
11. In a partially destroyed laboratory record of correlation data only the following results
are legible. variance of y is 16, regression equations are y = x + 5, 16x = 9y - 94,
find the variance of x.
12. Fit a straight line to the data:
(a) x: 0 1 2 3 4
y: 1 1.8 3.3 4.5 6.3

(b) x: 1 2 3 4 5
y: 14 13 9 5 2
13. Fit a second degree parabola of the form y = ax2 + bx + c for the data:
x: 1 2 3 4 5
y: 1.8 5.1 8.9 14.1 19.8 . Estimate y for x = 2.5.
14. Fit an exponential curve of the form y = abx, for the following data:
x: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
y: 87 97 113 129 202 195 193. Estimate y for x = 8.

PROBABILITY: (10 marks)

1. Define a sample space and probability of an event.. When are two events said to be
(a) mutually exclusive (b) mutually independent.
2. If A & B are events P(A) = ½, P(B) = 1/3, P(A∩B) = 1/4,
find (a) P(A/B) (b) P(B/A) (c) P(A∪B) (d) P(Ac)
3. An experiment succeeds twice as often as it fails. Find the chance that in the next 6
trials there will be at least 4 successes.
4. A class consists of 6 girls & 10 boys If a committee of 3 is chosen at random find the
probability that (a) exactly 2 boys are selected (b) at least 1 boy is selected (c) exactly
2 girls are selected.
5. A certain problem in mathematics is given to 4 students for solving. The probabilities of
solving the problem individually are ½, 1/3, ¼, & 1/5 respectively. Find the probability
that (a) the problem is solved (b) the problem is solved exactly by one of them.
6. The chance that a doctor will diagnose a disease correctly is 60%. The chance that a
patient will die after correct diagnosis is 40% and the chance of death after wrong
diagnosis is 70%. If a patient dies what is the chance that his disease was not diagnosed
correctly.
7. Find the probability that a leap year selected at random will contain 53 Fridays.
8. Four cards are drawn from a pack of 52 cards without replacement. Find the probability
that (a) they are all of different suits (b) no 2 cards are of equal value.
9. State & prove Baye's theorem.
10. Define (a) a random variable (b) Discrete and continuous random variable
11. Define probability mass function and probability distribution function for a discrete
random variable.
12. Define Geometrical distribution, uniform distribution, Exponential distribution.
13. 3 machines A, B & C manufacture 40%, 50% & 10% of the total production of a factory
respectively. The percentage of defective items produced by A, B & C are 2, 4, & 1.5
respectively. An item is chosen at random & is found to be defective. Find the probability
that it was a product of C.
4
14. There are 3 bags which contains 1 white, 2red & 3 green, 2 white, 3 red & 1 green and
3 white, 1 red & 2 green marbles respectively. 2 marbles are drawn from a bag chosen
at random and they are found to be 1 white & 1 red. Find the probability that the balls
came from the second bag.
15. Obtain the mean and variance for the following distributions: Binomial, Poisson,
Exponential and Normal.
16. The probability of a man hitting a target is 1/3.
(a) If he fires 5 times what is the probability of hitting a target at least twice.
(b) How many times must he fire so that the probability of hitting a target
B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information
 PESIT
at least once is more than 90%.
17. A cricket team has probability 2/3 of winning whenever it plays. If it plays 4 games, find
the probability that it wins (i) 2 games (ii) at least one game.
18. A group of 20 airplanes are sent on an operational flight. The chance that an aero plane
fails to return from the flight is 5 %. Find the probability that (a) one plane does not
return (b) at the most 5 planes do not return.
19. The probability that an individual suffers a bad reaction from a certain injection is 0.001.
Determine the probability that out of 2000 individuals (a) exactly 3 (b) more than 2
individuals will suffer a bad reaction.
20. Given that 2% of the fuses manufactured by a firm are defective, find the probability
that a box containing 200 fuses has (a) at least 1 defective fuse (b) at most 3 defective
fuses.
21. If the probability that a target is destroyed on any one shot is 0.5. What is the
probability that it will be destroyed in the 6th shot only and not before.
22. If the probability of the birth of a child with a defective heart in a certain city is 0.01.
What is the probability that the 8th child born is the first one to have a defective heart?
23. On a certain city transport route, buses ply every 30 minutes between 6 a.m. & 10 p.m.
If a person reaches a bus stop on this route at a random time during this period, what is
the probability that he will have to wait for at least 20 minutes?
24. The duration of time that an overhead tank will serve without refilling is found to follow
an exponential distribution with mean 10 days. Find the probability that (i) it needs
filling within 8 days & (ii) it will serve for more than 10 days.
25. Find the mean & S.D of a normal distribution of marks in an examination where 44% of
candidates obtained below 55 & 6% above 80 and rest between 55 & 80.
26. The mean marks of 1000 students is 34.4 & S.D 16.5.Assuming that the marks are
normally distributed find the no. of students obtaining marks (i) bet 30 & 60 (ii) bet 70
& 80.(iii) below 20 (iv)above 80.
27. A quality control engineer inspects a random sample of 3 batteries from each lot of 24
car batteries that is ready to be shipped. If such a lot contains 6 batteries with slight
defects, what are the probabilities that an inspectors sample will contain
(i) none of the batteries with defects (ii) only one of the batteries with defects
(iii) at least 2 of the batteries with defects.
28. Among 300 employees of a company 240 are union members while the others are not.
If 8 employees are chosen by lot to serve on a committee, find the probability that 5 of
them will be union members.
29. Find E(x) & V(x) for the following probability distribution:
x: 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
p: 0.05 0.12 0.20 0.24 0.17 0.14 0.008
30. A distributor makes a profit of $20 on an item. If it is shipped from the factory in perfect
condition and arrives on time but it is reduced by $2 if it does not arrive on time & $12
regardless of whether it arrives on time if it is not shipped from the factory in perfect
condition. If 70% of such items are shipped in perfect condition and arrive on time, 10%
are shipped in perfect condition but do not arrive on time and 20% are not shipped in
perfect condition what is the distributors expected profit per item.
31. If a dealers profit in units of $1000 on a new automobile can be looked upon as a
⎧2(1 − x), 0 < x < 1
random variable X having the density function f(x) = ⎨ Find the
⎩0 , elsewhere
average profit per automobile and also E(X2).

32. Show that (i) E(c) = c (ii) E (aX + b) = a E(X) + b (iii)V(X) = E(X2) - E(X)2 .
(iv) V(c) = 0 (v) V (aX + b) =a2 V(X).
33. The distribution of 2 independent random variables X & Y are given below:
X 0 1 Y 1 2 3
P(X) 0.2 0.8 P(Y) 0.1 0.4 0.5
Find the joint probability distribution of X & Y.

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34.The following table gives the joint probability distribution of 2 random variables
X &Y
X/Y -1 0 1
-1 0 0.2 0

0 0.1 0.2 0.1

1 0.1 0.2 0.1

Find the conditional probability of X given Y = 0.

35. The joint distribution of two random variables X and Y is given by the following table.

X /Y -4 2 7
1 1/8 1/4 1/8
5 ¼ 1/8 1/8
Determine (i) the marginal distributions of X and Y. (ii) E (X) and E(Y) (iii) are X and Y
independent random variables?

Sampling Distribution: (20 marks)

1. A Sample of 5 measurements of the diameter of a sphere was recorded as 6.33, 6.37,
6.36, 6.32, 6.37mm. Find unbiased and efficient estimates of (i) the population
mean (ii) the population variance.
2. For the frequency distribution given below find the unbiased and efficient estimates for
the mean and variance
Xi 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68
fi 02 00 15 29 25 12 10 04 03

3. The sample mean of a population was recorded as 184.67 with a probable error of
0.236. Find the 99.74% confidence limits for the true (population) mean.
4. The S.D of life time of 200 electric bulbs was computed to be 80 hours. Find (i) 95%&
(ii) 99% confidence limits for the S.D of all such bulbs.
5. How large a sample should one take in order to be (i) 99% & (ii) 99.74 % confident that
a population S.D will not differ from a sample S.D by more than 2%.
6. A die is thrown 9000 times and a draw of 3 or 4 observed 3240 times. Show that a die
cannot be regarded as an unbiased one. Also find the limits between which the
probability of throw of 3 or 4 lies at 99.74% level of confidence
7. A mean of a sample of size 900 is 3.4.Can the sample be reasonably as a true random
sample for a large population with means 3.25 and S.D 1.61
8. Ten screws are chosen at random from a population and their lengths are found as (in
mms) 63,63,66,67,68,69,70,70,71,71. On the basis of this information can we say that
the mean length in the population is 66mm at 95%confidence level?
9. Find 99% confidence limits for the correlation coefficient, which is computed to be 0.60
from a sample of size 28

TESTING OF HYPOTHESIS:
1. An electrical firm manufactures light bulbs that have a length of life that is
approximately normally distributed with a mean of 500 hours and a S.D of 40
hours. Test the hypothesis Ho: μ ≠ 800 of a random sample of 30 bulbs has an
average life of 788 hours. Use 5 % level of significance.
2. Test the hypothesis that the average content of containers of a particular lubricant
is 10 liters if the contents of the random sample of 10 containers are 10.2, 9.7,
10.1, 10.3, 10.1, 9.8, 9.9, 10.4, 10.3 & Use 0.01 level of significance and assume
that the distribution of contents is normal.

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3. A random sample of size n1 = 2.5 taken from a normal population with a S.D σ1 =
5.2 has a mean x1 = 81. A second random sample of size n2 = 36 taken from a
different normal population with a S.D σ2 = 3.4 has mean x2 = 76 . Test the
hypothesis that μ1 = μ2 against the alternative μ1 > μ2 at 5% level of significance.
4. A large automobile manufacturing company is trying to decide whether to purchase
brand A or B tyres for its new models. To help arrive at a decision, an experiment is
conducted using 12 of each brand. The tyres are run until they wear out. The
results are
Brand A : x1 = 37,900kms, s1 = 5100kms
Brand B : x 2 = 39,800kms, s 2 = 5900kms .
Test the hypothesis at the 0.05 level of significance that there is no difference in the 2
brands of tyres. Assume the population to be approximately normally distributed.
5. Explain the following a) Tests of Hypothesis b) Type I and Type II errors find
mean and variance of the Chi square distributions.

JOINT PROBABILITY AND MARKOVCHAINS (20 marks)

⎡1 − x x ⎤
1. Show that the vector (y, x) is a fixed point of the stochastic matrix P= ⎢ ⎥
⎣ y 1 − y⎦
⎡1 / 2 1 / 4 1 / 4⎤
2. Find the unique fixed probability vector of the regular stochastic matrix ⎢⎢1 / 2 0 1 / 2⎥⎥
⎢⎣ 0 1 0 ⎥⎦
⎡ 1 o ⎤ (0 )
3. If P= ⎢ ⎥ is the transition matrix with initial probability distribution p = (1 / 3,2 / 3) .
⎣1 / 2 1 / 2 ⎦
Define and compute.(a) p (3)21 (b) p (3) (c) p (3)2
4. A salesman’s territory consists of three cities A, B &C. He never sells in the same city on
consecutive days. If he sells in a city A, the next day he sells in city B. However if he
sells in either B or C then the next day he is twice as likely to sell it in city A or in other
city. Show that in the long run he sells 40% of the time in the city A, 45% of the time in
city B and 15% of the time in the city C
5. A software engineer goes to his workplace everyday by motorbike or by car. He never
goes by bike on 2 consecutive days but if he goes by car on a day then he is
equally likely to go by car or by bike the next day. Find the transition probability matrix
for the chain mode of transport he uses. If car is used on the first day of a week find the
probability that after 4 day s (i) bike is used (ii) car is used.

6. A gambler’s luck follows a pattern. If he wins a game, the probability of winning the next
game is 0.6. However if he loses a game, the probability of losing the next game is 0.7.
There is an even chance that he wins the first game. If so,
(a) Find the transition matrix M of the Markov process.
(b) Find the probability that he wins the second game.
(c) Find the probability that he wins the third game.
(d) Find out how often, in the long run, he wins.

Define stochastic matrix. Find the unique fixed probability vector for the regular stochastic
⎡0 3 1 ⎤
⎢ 4 4⎥
matrix ⎢ 1 1 0⎥
⎢ 2 2 ⎥
⎢⎣ 0 1 0⎥
⎦

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APPLIED THERMODYNAMICS – ME 43
(2 hours / week for both IV ‘A’ and IV ‘B’ sections)

Faculty :Dr.T.R.Seetharam

Lecture Topics To be Covered %

Coverage
of
syllabus
1–2 Review of Basic Thermodynamics – Applications of I &
II law for closed and open systems, Important property relations for
ideal gases, properties of pure substances ; Use of tables & charts Nil

3–6 Gas Power Cycles: Introduction; Air – standard cycles for IC engines –
analysis of Carnot,Otto,Diesel & Dual- combustion cycles ; 08

7- 11 Gas Turbine Cycles – Simple Brayton cycle, modified

Brayton cycle for improvement in work output & thermal
Efficiency, deviations of practical cycles from ideal cycle 08

12 – 17 Vapour Power cycles- Carnot vapour power cycle and its limitations;
Simple Rankine cycle; effects of pressure & temperature on performance
of Rankine cycles; modifications of simple Rankine cycle to increase
net work output & thermal efficiency – Reheat cycle, Regenerative cycle,
types of feed water heaters used in regenerative cycles;
Reheat-Regenerative cycle; practical vapour power cycles .
12

18 - 20 Refrigeration – Definition of Refrigeration, refrigerated space, refrigerant

Refrigeration cycle, refrigeration effect; units of refrigeration effect – Ton
of refrigeration; COP ; Carnot refrigerator – analysis and its limitations;
Air refrigeration plant – Bell-Coleman / Reversed Brayton cycle; practical
air refrigeration cycles
06

21 - 23 Vapour compression refrigeration cycle – analysis, effects of sub-cooling

and superheating on the performance ; desirable properties of refrigerants
for vapour compression cycle; steam jet refrigeration
06

24 - 25 Psychometrics – Thermodynamics of air-water vapour mixture – definitions

Of moist air, dry air, specific humidity, relative humidity, dries – bulb and wet –
bulb and dew point temperatures; adiabatic saturation temperature, saturated
unsaturated air, enthalpy of moist air, construction and use of psychometric
chart
04
26 - 28 Thermodynamic analysis of psychometric processes like heating, cooling
Heating & humidification, cooling and de-humidification, adiabatic mixing
Air streams, summer and winter air conditioning
08

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ME 43: Applied Thermodynamics

Tutorial 1: Problems on Gas Power Cycles

A. Problems on Carnot Cycle

1.1. A Carnot power cycle using air as the working
emperature limits of 900 K and 300 K. The pressure
(i) pressure and temperature at salient points of the
rejected per unit mass of air, (iii) net work output
mean effective pressure.
substance, works between the
limits are 60 bar and 1 bar. Find
cycle, (ii) heat supplied and heat
and thermal efficiency, and (iii)

1.2. The maximum pressure and temperature in a Carnot cycle is limited to 20 bar and 400
C. The volumetric ratio of isentropic compression is 6 and the volumetric ratio of
isothermal expansion is 1.5. The volume of air at the beginning of isothermal
expansion is 0.1 m3. Find (i) the minimum temperature in the cycle, (ii) Thermal
efficxiency of the cycle, (iii) power output form the cycle if the number of cycles per
minute is 200.

1.3. In an air standard Carnot cycle heat is transferred to the working fluid at 1110 k and
heat is rejected at 273 K. The heat transfer to the working fluid is 105 kJ / kg. The
minimum pressure in the cycle is 1 bar. Determine (i) the thermal efficiency and (ii)
the m e p.

1.4. A Carnot engine converts 1/6 of the heat input into work. When the temperature of the
sink is reduced by 70 C, the efficiency of the cycle is doubled. Determine the
temperature of the source and the sink.

B. Problems on Otto Cycle

1.5. In an air standard Otto cycle the maximum and minimum temperatures are 1400 C and
15 C respectively. The heat supplied is 800 kJ / kg. Calculate the compression ratio
and the thermal efficiency. Also calculate the ratio of maximum pressure to the
minimum pressure in the cycle.

1.6. In an engine working on Otto cycle, the clearance volume is 50 cm3, while the stroke
volume is 350 cm3. If the temperature at the commencement of the compression
process is 27 C and the maximum temperature in the cycle is 1000 C determine (i) the
compression ratio, (ii) cycle efficiency, (iii) net work output per unit mass of air and
(iv) mep.

1.7. From the p-v diagram of an engine working on Otto cycle, it is found that the pressure
inside the cylinder after 1/8th of the compression stroke is completed is 1.4 bar. After
5/8th of the compression stroke is completed, the pressure was found to be 3.5 bar.
The maximum temperature in the cycle is limited to 1000 C. Determine (i) the
compression ratio,(ii) air standard efficiency, (iii) net work output per unit mass of air,
(iv) mep, (v) compression ratio corresponding to maximum work output, (vi)
maximum work output and (vii) thermal efficiency corresponding to maximum work
output. Assume that the minimum temperature in the cycle to be 27 C.

1.8. An engine working on Otto cycle has a volume of 0.5 m3 , a temperature of 27 C and a
pressure of 1 bar at the beginning of the compression process. At the end of the
compression process the pressure is 10 bar. Heat added is 200 kJ /kg. Determine (i)
percent clearance, (ii) air standard efficiency, (iii) MEP, (iv) power developed by the
engine if there are 200 cycles per minute.

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1.9. Derive an expression for the air standard efficiency of a cycle similar to Otto cycle
except that the compression process is isothermal, in terms of the compression ratio,
maximum cycle temperature ratio and the ratio of specific heats.

1.10. The compression curve in an Otto cycle may be approximated by the equation pV1.35 =
constant. The expansion curve is isentropic. The maximum temperature in the cycle is
1000 K. If the temperature of air at entry to the engine is 27 C, find the thermal
efficiency and the relative efficiency based on the air standard Otto cycle. The
compression ratio is 7.5. Assume the specific heats of air to be constant and γ = 1.4.

Tutorial 2 : Gas Power Cycles (continued)

C. Problems on Diesel Cycles

2.1. The compression ratio of an air standard diesel cycle is 14 and the cut-off ratio is
2.2. At the beginning of the cycle the pressure and temperature of air are 0.98 bar and 300
K respectively. Find (i) pressure and temperatures at salient point of the cycle, (ii) the
net work output per unit mass of air, (iii) thermal efficiency, (iv)MEP, and (iv) specific
air consumption in kg/kWh.

2.2. An air standard diesel cycle has a compression ratio of 18 and the heat transfer to the
working fluid is 1800 kJ/kg. At the beginning of the compression process the pressure
and temperatures are 1 bar and 300 K respectively. Determine (i) air standard
efficiency, and (ii) MEP

2.3. An oil engine works on a diesel cycle with compression ratio of 20. Heat addition takes
place up to 10 % of the stroke. Initial pressure and temperature of air are 1 bar and
27 C. Assume that the compression process is according to the law pv1.32 = constant
and the expansion process is according to the law pv1.30 = constant. The bore and
stroke of the engine are 16 cm and 20 cm respectively. Find (i) the pressure and
temperature at salient points of the cycle, (ii)MEP, (iii) thermal efficiency, (iv) relative
efficiency

2.4. In a diesel cycle, the pressures at two points on the compression curve are 1.7 bar and
13.4 bar, respectively, corresponding to positions where 3/10th and 9/10th of the
stroke have been executed. Find the compression ratio if the compression and
expansion indices are 1.38 and 1.3 respectively. If the cut-off ratio is 1.8, determine
the cycle efficiency and the relative efficiency based on the air standard cycle.

2.5. In an air standard diesel cycle, air is compressed isentropically from 26 C and 105 kPa
to 3.7 kPa. The entropy change during heat rejection is − 0.6939 kJ/(kg – K).
Determine (i) heat supplied per kg of air, (ii) thermal efficiency, (iii) maximum
temperature in the cycle, and (iv) temperature at the start of the heat rejection.

D. Problems on Dual Combustion cycles

2.6. The compression and expansion ratio of an oil engine working on a dual cycle is 9 and
5 respectively. The initial pressure and temperature are 1 bar and 30 C. The heat
added at constant pressure is twice that at constant volume. The cyclider bore is 250
mm and the stroke is 400 mm. Determine (i) thermal efficiency and (ii) MEP

2.7. The maximum and the compression pressures in a dual cycle are 64 bar and 32 bar
respectively. The compression curve is polytropic with index n = 1.35. The pressure in
the cycle after 1/3rd of the compression stroke is completed is 1.65 bar. If 60 % of the
energy addition occurs at constant volume while 40 % occurs at constant pressure,
find

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(i) the compression ratio, (ii) the suction pressure, (iii) work output from the cycle if
the expansion index is 1.34, and (iv) thermal efficiency.

2.8. A diesel engine works between the temperatures of 1250 C and 25 C. The energy
addition during combustion is 550 kJ /kg. A dual combustion cycle operates between
the same temperature limits, and has the same total energy addition as for diesel
cycle except that this energy is equally divided between the constant volume and
constant pressure processes. Compare the efficiencies of the two cycles. Hence show
using T-s diagram that the diesel cycle is more efficient than the dual cycle under the
same maximum and minimum temperatures as well as the same amount of heat
addition.

2.9. In a dual cycle, two thirds of the total energy added occurs at constant volume.. If the
compression ratio is 15, and the maximum pressure in the cycle is 53 bar,
compute(i)the temperatures at the salient points of the cycle, and (ii) thermal
efficiency. Assume standard conditions of air at the start of the compression process.

2.10. The compression ratio for an engine working on dual cycle is 7. The cylinder diameter
is 25 cm and the stroke is 30 cm. The air at the start of the compression is at 101 kPa
and 20 0C. At the end of the constant volume process, the pressure is 5600 kPa. If
heat is added at constant pressure during 3 percent of the stroke, compute (i) the net
work output from the cycle, (ii) the thermal efficiency, (iii) the amount of heat added,
and (iv) the mean effective pressure

Tutorial 3: Gas Power Cycles (Gas Turbine Cycles)

3.1. An air standard Brayton cycle has air enter the compressor at 27 C and 100 kPa. The
pressure ratio is 10 and the maximum allowable temperature is 1350 K. Determine (i)
pressure and temperature at salient points of the cycle, (ii) compressor and turbine
work per unit mass of air, (iii) net work output and work ratio, (iv) thermal efficiency
and specific air consumption in kg/(kWh).

3.2.The pressure ratio of an open gas turbine cycle is 6.The compressor inlet conditions are
1 bar and 15 0C. The maximum temperature in the cycle is 800 0C. The compressor
efficiency is 85 %, the turbine efficiency is 90 % and the combustion efficiency is 95 %.
There is a pressure drop of 2 % of the inlet pressure in the combustion chamber. The
calorific value of the fuel used is 42,000 kJ/kg.Assuming that cp and γ remains same
throughout the cycle and equal to those values for air determine (i) Net work output
per unit mass of air, (ii) Air-fuel ratio, (iii) thermal efficiency of the plant, (iv) specific
fuel combustion in kg / kWh, and (v) power output form the plant for a mass flow rate
of air of 1.0 kg / s.

3.3. The isentropic discharge temperature for the air flowing out of a compressor is 195 0C
while the actual temperature is 240 0C. The conditions of air at compressor inlet are 1
bar and 17 0C. If the air-fuel ratio in the combustion chamber is 75:1 and net power
output is 650 kW, compute (i) the isentropic efficiencies of the compressor and turbine
and (ii) the overall cycle efficiency. Assume that the plant consumes 5.2 kg/min of fuel
supplied and the calorific value of the fuel used is 42,000 kJ/kg.Also assume that for air
cp = 1.005 kJ/kg – K and γ = 1.4 and cp = 1.148 kJ/kg – K and γ = 1.333 for products
of combustion.

3.4. Determine the thermal efficiency of a gas turbine cycle having two stages of
compression and two stages of expansion. The overall pressure ratio of the cycle is 4.
Air enters both the stages of compression at 15 0C and enters both the stages of
turbine at 900 0C. If an ideal regenerator is incorporated in the cycle to heat the air
coming out of the second stage compressor, what would be the improvement in the
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thermal efficiency of the cycle. What would be the net work output and cycle efficiency
if the compressor and expansion stages have efficiencies of 80 % each and the
regenerator effectiveness is 75 %

3.5. Determine the specific work output, specific fuel consumption and cycle efficiency for a
gas turbine power plant using a regenerator having the following specifications.

Compressor pressure ratio 4.0

Turbine inlet temperature 1100 K
Isentropic efficiency of compressor 0.85
Isentropic efficiency of turbine 0.87
Mechanical transmission efficiency 0.99
Combustion efficiency 0.98
Heat exchanger effectiveness 0.80
Pressure losses :-
(i) Combustion chamber 2 % of compressor delivery
pressure
(ii) Heat exchanger air side loss 3 % of compressor delivery
pressure
(iii) Heat exchanger gas side loss 0.04 bar

3.6. An ideal gas turbine power plant operates with ‘m’ number of stages of compression
and ‘n’ number of stages of exp[ansion. The maximum temperature permitted in the
plant is Tmax. Pressure ratios in all the compressor stages are equal and expansion
ratios in all the turbine stages are equal. The intercoolig between the compressor
stages is perfect and the working fluid is reheated to Tmax in between the stages of
expansion.If ‘t’ represents the maximum cycle temperature ratio in the cycle show that

t = (r a) (m+n)/mn

where r = ratio of maximum pressure to minimum pressure in the plant and

a = (γ – 1) / γ.

3.7. A Brayton cycle works between 1 bar, 300 K and 5 bar, 1250 k. There are two stages
of compression with perfect intercooling and two stages of expansion. The work output
from the first stage turbine is used to drive the two compressors. The air from the first
stage turbine is reheated back to 1250 K and then expanded in the second stage.
Calculate the power output from the plant and the cycle efficiency. What would be the
power output and cycle efficiency if an ideal regenerator is incorporated in the cycle?

3.8.In a gas turbine unit with two-stage compression and two-stage expansion, the gas
temperature at the entry to both the turbines is the same. The intercooler in between
the two stages of compression has an effectiveness of 83 %. The maximum and
minimum temperatures in the cycle are 25 C and 1000 C. The low and high pressure
limits are 1.02 bar and 7 bar. Assuming that the intermediate pressure between the
two stages of compression is same as that at the exit of the first stage expansion and
equal to the geometric mean of the high and low pressures of the unit, calculate (i) the
air fuel ratio if the calorific value of the fuel used is 38650 kJ/kg, (ii)power output for
an air flow rate of 1 kg/s. Assume that a regenerator with an effectiveness of o.80 is
incorporated in the cycle. The pressure drop through the regenerator and first
combustion chamber is 0.1 bar, while the pressure drop through the second
combustion chamber is 0.05 bar. The exhaust pressure of the second turbine is 1.15
bar. The pressure drop through the intercooler is negligible. Assume the compressor
efficiency is 0.84 for both trhe stages and turbine efficiency is 0.89 for both the stages.

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3.9. In a closed cycle gas turbine plant, the compressor inlet and exit conditions are 5 bar
and 32.5 bar respectively. After passing through a regenerator with an effectiveness of
0.83, the air is heated in a nuclear reactor to 945 K. The pressure drop in the
regenerator and the reactor reduces the air pressure at the turbine inlet to 31.5.bar.
After expansion to 5.25 bar in the turbine with an efficiency of 0.88, the air passes
through the regenerator and a cooler, before being ready to enter the compressor (
efficiency = 0.80) again at 20 C. Calculate (a) the cycle thermal efficiency, (b) the
turbine and compressor power, and (c) the heat transfer at the reactor and the net air
flow rate if the net power output from the plant is 650 kW.

3.10. The schematic diagram of a gas turbine power plant is shown in Fig. P1.30.The states
of the flowing gas at various points along the circuit are numbered. The following are
the data referring to these states.

1 CC1
3 6
2
C1 C2 T1 T2
4
5 9
7 8
Inter cooler
10
CC2
Regenerator

Fig. P 4.4 : Figure for problem P1.30

T1 = 20 C; Pressure ratio for each compressor = 3.5; Compressor efficiencies = 0.84;

Intercooler effectiveness = 0.95; pressure ratio across the intercooler = 0.96;
pressure ratio across the regenerator = p5 / p4 = 0.95; regenerator effectiveness =
0.85; enthalpy of combustion of fuel = − 42,000 kJ/kg; combustion efficiency = 0.98;
pressure ratio across the combustion chamber = p6 / p5 = 0.97; T6 = 1110 K; T8 =
1050 K; turbine efficiencies = 0.88. Pressure drop for gases leaving the turbine and
flowing back through the regenerator = p10 / p9 = 0.97; pressure drop across intake =
p1 / p∞ = p∞ / p10 = 0.98.
Calculate (a) T2,T3,T4,T5,T7 and T9, (b) the total work required to drive the
compressors and hence the output of turbine T1, (c) the air fuel ratios at the two
combustion chambers,(d) the net work output from the plant, (e) the overall cycle
thermal efficiency, and (f) the specific power output from the plant in kW/(kg – s) of
air flow through the compressor.

Tutorial 4 : Vapour Power Cycles

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4.1. A simple Rankine cycle dry saturated steam at 20 bar enters the turbine and the
condenser pressure is 1 bar. Determine (i) the pump work, (ii) the turbine work, (iii)
the net work out put, (iv) the thermal efficiency, (v) quality of steam entering the
condenser and (vi) steam rate in kg/kWh. What would be the corresponding values
when the condenser pressure is decreased to 0.1 bar other things being the same.

4.2. Steam conditions at the boiler exit are 10 bar and 300 C. In the pipe line between the
boiler exit and turbine inlet, there is an energy loss of 42 kJ/kg and a drop in pressure
of 0.2 bar. The steam expands in the turbine to a pressure of 0.09 bar at the turbine
exit, the efficiency of the turbine being 0.86. Find the stream conditions at the turbine
inlet, the actual enthalpy drop across the turbine and the final condition at discharge
from the turbine.

4.3. In a reheat cycle, the boiler exit conditions are 25 bar and 300 C. the exit pressure of
steam at the end of the first turbine is 5 bar. The steam is reheated to 300 C before it
is expanded in the second turbine to 0.05 bar. Assumiing the high and low pressure
turbines to have efficiencies of 0.87 and 0.85 respectively, determine (i) the thermal
energy input in the reheater, (ii) the overall thermal efficiency of the cycle, (iii) specific
steam consumption in kg/kWh, and (iv) net power output from the cycle for a mass
flow rate of 1.0 kg/s.

4.4. Steam at 50 bar and 350 C expands to 12 bar in a high pressure stage and is dry
saturated at the stage exit. This is now reheated to 280 C without any pressure drop.
The reheated steam expands in an intermediate stage and again emerges as dry
saturated steam at a lower pressure, to be reheated a second time to 280 C. Finally,
the steam expands in a low pressure turbine to 0.05 bar. Assuming the work output is
the same for the high and intermediate stages, and the efficiencies of the high and low
pressure stages are equal, find: (i) efficiency of the high pressure stage, (ii) pressure
of steam at exit of the intermediate stage, (iii) total power output from the three
stages for a mass flow rate of 1.0 kg/s, (iv) condition of steam entering the condenser,
and (v) thermal efficiency of the cycle

4.5. Determine the improvement in thermal efficiency which will result if one stage of
regenerative feed heating is added to a simple Rankine cycle which has the boiler exit
condition of 14 bar and 300 C and a condenser pressure of 0.08 bar. Steam for feed
heating is to be extracted at 2.0 bar.

4.6. In a reheat – regenerative steam power plant cycle, the HP turbine receives steam at
20 bar and 300 0C. After expansion to 7 bar, the steam is reheated to 300 0C and then
it expands in an intermediate stage to 1 bar. A fraction of the steam is now extracted
for feed water heating, while the remaining steam expands in a LP turbine to a final
pressure of 35 mm of mercury. If the efficiencies of high, intermediate and low
pressure stages are respectively 0.90, 0.88, and 0.87, determine the overall cycle
efficiency of the plant.

4.7. Steam expands in a turbine from 30 bar, 360 0C to a condenser pressure of 0.04 bar.
The isentropic efficiency is 0.82 and the steam condition at any point in the turbine
may be assumed to be on a straight line joining the initial and final states, drawn on an
h – s chart. During expansion steam is bled at two stages where the pressures are 5
bar and 0.7 bar respectively. The heaters are of closed type, the condensed steam
from the high pressure heater is being led to the steam space of the low pressure
heater through a steam trap.The condensed steam from the low pressure heater is fed
to the intake of the feed pump through a drain cooler. Assuming the feed water in each
heater to be heated to the saturation temperature corresponding to the bled steam
pressure for that heater and that the temperature of the condensate from the heaters
at the exit of the drain cooler is 30.2 0C, find the overall thermal efficiency of the plant
and the specific steam consumption..
B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information
 PESIT

4.8. In a two-stage regenerative feed heating system, the steam conditions at the turbine
inlet and exit are 20 bar, 320 0C and 0.08 bar. The low pressure feed water heater
receives steam at 0.9 bar and heats the feed water from 33.5 0C to 89.5 0C. The
condensed steam is cascaded back into the condenser through a steam trap.For the
high pressure heater, steam is extracted at 4 bar and heats the water from 89.5 0C to
140 0C. Its condensate is pumped by a drain pump into the boiler feed line. Find the
mass flow rates of steam to each feed water heater per kg of steam generated in the
boiler. If the total steam generation is 18,000 kg/h, find the power output of the plant
in kW. Assume the turbine efficiency to be 0.82 and the condition of steam at any
point in the turbine to be on a straight line on the h – s diagram connecting the steam
states at inlet and exit. Draw a schematic for the system and indicate all the salient
points on the Mollier diagram. Also determine the overall cycle efficiency of the plant
and specific steam consumption.

4.9. An ideal Rankine cycle with regenerative heating operates between the pressure limits
of 10 MPa and 40 kPa. Temperature of steam at turbine inlet is 500 0C. There are two
open feed water heaters. On the basis of optimum design, determine (i) the pump work
to turbine work, (ii) the ratio of heat rejection to heat addition, (iii) the mass of steam
bled out for each feed water heater per unit mass of steam generated in the boiler, and
(iv) cycle thermal efficiency.

Tutorial 5 : Refrigeration Cycles

A. Problems on Air Refrigeration cycles

5.1. A reversed Carnot cycle is used for heating and cooling. The work supplied is 10 kW. If
the COP is 3.5 for cooling determine (a) the ratio of maximum temperature to minimum
temperature in the cycle , (b) refrigeration effect in tons and (c) COP if the cycle is
used as a heat pump.

5.2. An ideal air refrigeration cycle has the following specifications:

Pressure of air at compressor inlet = 101 kPa;

Pressure of air at turbine inlet = 404 kPa;
Temperature of air at compressor inlet = −6 C;
Temperature of air at turbine inlet = 27 C;
Determine (i) The COP of the cycle, (ii) Power required to produce 1 ton of
refrigeration, and (iii) air circulation rate per ton of refrigeration.

5.3 In an air refrigerating machine, the compressor takes in air at 1 bar and 10 C. After
compression to 5.5 bar, the air is cooled to 30 C before expanding it back to 1 bar.
Assuming ideal conditions, determine (i) refrigeration effect per unit mass of
air,(ii)heat rejected by air per unit mass in the intercooler, and (ii) COP of the cycle, In
an actual plant using the above cycle, the air flow rate is 1700 kg / h and the relative
COP of the actual plant is 0.65. Determine the power required for the actual plant for
the same refrigeration effect

5.4:- An air refrigeration system is to be designed according to the following specifications:

Pressure of air at compressor inlet = 101 kPa;
Pressure of air at compressor exit = 404 kPa;
Temperature of air at compressor inlet = − 6 C;
Temperature of air at turbine inlet = 27 C;
Isentropic efficiency of compressor = 85 %;
Isentropic efficiency of turbine = 85 %;
Relative pressure drop in each heat exchanger = 3 %
B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information
 PESIT
Capacity of the plant = 1 ton
Determine (a) COP of the cycle, (ii) Power required in kW, and (iii) air circulation rate

5.5:-An air refrigerator unit uses a reciprocating compressor and a reciprocating expander.
5 kg / min of air at 30 C (ambient temperature is 25 C) and 4.8 bar expand behind a
piston to 1 bar. The expansion is according to the law pv1.35= constant. After
expansion, the air enters a cold chamber where its temperature rises to 0 C and the it
is compressed back to 4.8 bar according to the law pv1.28 = constant. Determine (a)
the power required to drive the unit if the mechanical efficiencies of the expander and
the compressor are both equal to 85 %, (b) capacity of the refrigerator in tons, (c)
energy rejected by air to the ambient during the cooling process at 4.8 bar and (d) the
actual COP of the plant.

5.6:-In an ideal air refrigeration cycle, air after compression in the compressor is first
cooled in an intercooler and then passed through a regenerative heat exchanger. It is
then expanded in a turbine and after expansion the air flows through the regenerative
heat exchanger where it exchanges heat with the air coming from the intercooler.
Then the cold air is passed through the cold chamber before it enters the
compressor.(a) Draw the schematic layout of the plant.(b) obtain an expression for
the COP of the cycle in terms of the pressure ratio of the compressor and the
temperature ratio of the compressor inlet temperature to the turbine inlet
temperature.

5.7 :- An air refrigeration unit takes in air from a cold chamber at 5 C and compresses it
from 1 bar to 6.5 bar. The index of compression is 1.25. The compressed air is cooled
to a temperature which is 10 C above the ambient temperature of 30 C before being
expanded isentropically in an expander. Neglecting the clearance volume of the
compressor and expander find the COP and the amount of air circulation per minute if
2000 kg of ice at 0 C is to be formed per day from water at 25 C. What will be the
tonnage of the unit?

B. Problems on Vapour Compression Refrigeration Cycles

5.8:-In a vapour compression refrigeration system using ammonia, the evaporator

temperature is − 15 0C and the condensation temperature is 30 0C. The vapour before
entering the compressor is just dry and saturated. If there is no sub-cooling of the
refrigerant after condensation, compute (i) the COP of the unit, (ii) the ideal power
required to produce 1 ton of ice at 00C per day from water at 27 0C and (iii) the actual
power required if the actual COP of the unit is 50 % of that of the Carnot COP working
between the same evaporator and condensation temperature.

5.9:- Repeat part (i) and (ii) of the above problem if the refrigerant after condensation is
found to be subcooled by 6 0C. Assume that the compression in the compressor occurs
polytropically with a compression index of 1.14.

5.9:-In a refrigerator using ammonia as the refrigerant, the condensation and the
evaporator temperatures are 330C and − 12 0C respectively. The vapour entering the
condenser is 60 0C and the compressor piston sweeps a volume of 400 lit/minute. If
the liquid emerging from the condenser is sub-cooled by 4 0C compute (i) the
isentropic efficiency of the compressor, (ii) the mass flow rate of ammonia, assuming
the clearance volume to be zero, (iii) the refrigeration effect in tons and (iv) the COP

5.10. An ideal vapour compression refrigerator uses a sub-cooling cum superheating heat
exchanger where the refrigerant vapour coming from the evaporator in dry saturated
state is superheated by 10 0C by absorbing heat from the saturated liquid refrigerant
coming from the condenser.The evaporator operates at − 30 0C and the condenser
pressure is 1.4 MPa. There is a cooling requirement of 50 tons. If the refrigerant is R-
B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information
 PESIT
12, determine (i) the mass flow rate of the refrigerant, (ii) the COP, (iii) the degree of
subcooling, (iv) the power required to drive the compressor.

Tutorial 6 : Air Conditioning

6.1. Moist air at 40 0C,101.325 kPa, and a relative humidity of 60% initially is cooled at a
constant mixture pressure to 20 0C. Determine:
(a) The final relative humidity.
(b) Change in specific humidity.

6.2. The pressure and temperature in a room are 101.325 kPa and 25 0C. If the relative
humidity is 40% determine:
(a) Saturation pressure of water vapour at the dry bulb temperature.
(b) The dew point temperature.
© Specific humidity.
(d) Degree of saturation.

6.3. Moist air is at a temperature of 21 0C under a total pressure of 736mm of Hg. The dew
point temperature is 15 0C. Find:
(a) Partial pressure of water vapour.
(b) Relative humidity.
© Specific humidity.
(d) Enthalpy of air per kg of dry air.
(e) Specific volume of air per kg of dry air.

6.4. Calculate:
(a) Relative humidity.
(b) Humidity Ratio.
© Dew point temperature.
(d) Density.
(e) Enthalpy of atmospheric air.
When the DBT is 35 0C, WBT is 23 0C and the barometer reads 750mm of Hg.

6.5. A sample of air has DBT of 35 0C and 25 0C respectively. The barometer reads 760mm
of Hg. Calculate:
(a) Humidity ratio, Relative humidity and Enthalpy of the sample.
(b) Humidity ratio, Relative humidity and Enthalpy if the air were adiabatically
saturated. The use of steam tables only is permitted.

6.6. Find the heat transfer rate required to warm 40 m3/min of air at 32 0C and 90 % RH to
50 0C.
6.7. Air at 15 0C and 80%RH is conditioned to 25 0C and 50%RH. Determine the amount
of water added per kg of dry air. Assuming the make up water is added at 15 0C
determine the heat supplied during the process.

6.8. Warm air is to be cooled by an adiabatic humidification process. At the beginning of the
process, the air is at 45 0C and 30%RH. The final temperature is 30 0C . Determine:
(a) The amount of water added to the air.
(b) The final relative humidity.
Solve the problem using steam tables only and compare the answers with those
obtained using psychrometric chart.
Assume the total pressure of air to be 101.325 kPa.

6.9. Air is to be conditioned from a DBT of 40 0C and a RH of 50% to a final DBT of 200C
and a final RH of 40% by a dehumidification process followed by a reheat process.

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

 PESIT
Assume that the entire process is carried out at a constant pressure of 101.325 kPa.
Determine:
(a) The amount of water to be removed from air.
(b) The temperature of air leaving the dehumidifier.
(c) Refrigeration in tons for an air flow rate of 0.47 m3/s and heating required in kW.

6.10.A Stream of air at atmospheric pressure, 20˚ C and 30% RH, flows at a rate of 15
m3/min and mixes adiabatically with another stream of air at 35˚ C and 80% RH at
20 m3/min. For the mixed stream calculate:
(a) Specific Humidity.
(b)Temperature.
(c) Relative Humidity.
(d) Specific Volume.

6.11. Atmospheric air at 12˚ C and 25 % RH is to be conditioned to a humidity ratio

of 0.005 kg of water vapor / kg of dry air as it enters an insulated room
with a flow rate of 60 m3 / min. Assuming that the humidifying water is at 12˚ C.
Determine RH, the Temperature of the conditioned air and heat transfer per rate for
the following humidifying process.
(a) Constant Dry Bulb Temperature (b) Constant Relative Humidity (c) Adiabatic
evaporative process.

6.12. The appended figure shows the air condition in a central air conditioning plant,
provided with a refrigeration circuit. It is meant to supply conditioned air at 20˚ C
Dry bulb temperature and 66% RH. The return air is 300 kg / min. While the make
up air is 20 kg / min taken from atmosphere. Find:
(a) The heat transfer at the cooling coil.
(b) The amount of the humidification per hour.
(c ) The heating coil capacity and
(d) The COP of the refrigeration from unit.

6.13. 39.6 m3/min of a mixture of recirculated room air and outdoor air enters a cooling coil
at 31 0C DBT and 18.5 0C WBT. The effective surface temperature of the coil is 4.4 0C. The
surface area of the coil is designed so as to give 12.5 kW of refrigeration with the given
entering state of air. Determine the dry and wet bulb temperatures of air leaving the coil
and the coil bypass factor.

FLUID MECHANICS – ME 45
Faculty : V. Krishna / Ramachandra L.

% of portions covered
Chapter title/
Class # Topic to be Covered Reference Cumulativ
Reference Literature
Chapter e
Chapter : 1.0 Introduction to fluid mechanics,
properties of fluids properites of fluids - Mass density,
1-2 T1: Page : 3-17 12% 12%
specific volume, specific weight,
T2 : Page : 13- 36 specific gravity.
R1 : Page : 1-31
3 Surface tension, capillarity

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

 PESIT
R4 : Page : 9-36 Bulk Modulus, Compressibility,
4-5 R5 : Page : 1-29 Viscosity and Newton's law of
R8 : Page : 1-25 viscosity, Numerical Problems.
Classification of fluids & regimes of
6
flow
Pressure variation in a static fluid,
7-8
Pascal's law of pressure.
manometers: Simple and Differential
9-10 Chapter : 2.0 U tube manometers, Numerical
fluid statics Problems
T1:Page # : 23-61 Hydrostatic forces and location of
T2:Page # : 142-144 hydrostatic forces on submerged
11-12 & Page # : 59-77 plane surfaces and curved surfaces, 16% 28%
R1:Page # : 31-134 Numerical problems.
R4:Page # : 43-85
R5:Page # : 104-138 Buoyancy and floatation, Metacentre,
R8:Page # : 51-80 Stability of floating bodies,
13-14 Determination of metacentric height
by experimental and analytical
methods, Numercial problems

Fluids flow concepts, Lines of flow -

15-16 path line, Stream line, Streak line,
Chapter # : 3.0
Stream tube
Fluid kinematics
T1:Page# : 320-334 Continuity equation in cartesian co-
17-19
T2:Page# : 204-218 ordinates. Types of fluid flow.
12% 40%
R1:Page# : 139-182 Stream function for 2D flow, velocity
R4:Page# : 104-141 potential function for 2D flow,
20-21 R5:Page# : 31-57 Relationship between stream function
R8:Page# : 36-44 and velocity potential function. Flow
net. Numerical problems
Chapter # : 4.0
Dimensional analysis
T1:Page # : 156-173
T2:Page # : 138- Dimensions of physical quantites,
22-23 301 R1:Page Dimensional homogenity, Buckingham 8% 48%
# : 502-549 pi theorem, Numerical problems.
R4:Page # : 464-478
R5:Page # : 230-258
R8:Page # : 245-281

Raleigh's method, Important

24-25
dimensionless numbers, Similitude.

Chapter # : 5.0
Fliud Dyanmics
Introduction-Forces acting on a fluid
26-27 T1:Page # : 85-110 mass, General energy and Momentum
T2:Page # : 250-276 equation, Euler's equation of motion
R1:Page # : 233-240 along stream line. 12% 60%
R4:Page # : 171-189
Page # : 212- 220
R5:Page # : 76-92 Bernoulli's Priniciple - Derivation from
28-29 R8:Page # : 132- fundamentals, Euler's equation and
172 Bernoulli's equation for real fluids.

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

 PESIT
Chapter # : 6.0
Fluid flow
measurements
Application of Bernoulli's equation,
T1:Page # : 337-
Pitot tube, Orifice meter,
30-33 357 T2:Page 8% 68%
venturimeter, V-notch, Numerical
# : 602-623
problems.
R1:Page # : 241-260
R4:Page : 223- 246
R5:Page # :155 -171

Chapter # : 7.0 Viscous flow, Reynolds number,

34-35 Laminar and Viscous critical Reynolds number, laminar flow
Flow through pipes - Hagen - Poisuille's
equation
T1:Page # : 410-417
8% 76%
T2:Page # : 443-449
R1:Page # :420-450 Laminar flow between parallel
36-38 R4:Page # : 318-416 stationary plates, Numerical problems
R5:Page # : 362-378
R8:Page # : 598-602

Chapter # : 8.0 Friction loss in pipe flow - minor loss

39-40 Flow through pipes in pipe flow, Energy line & Hydraulic
gradient line. 8% 84%
T1:Page # : 182-199
41-42 T2:Page # : 391-417 Darcy's & Chezy's equation, numerical
R1:Page # :347-366 problems
Chapter # : 9.0
43-44 Flow past immersed Lift & Drag, skin friction & form drag.
bodies Boundary layer concept.
T1:Page # : 210-222
T2:Page # : 997-
1000 R1:Page 8% 92%
# :552-556 and Page Calculation of laminar boundary layers
45-46 # :591-624 thickness, displacement & momentum
R4:Page # : 347-377 thickness.
R5:Page # : 406 -
442

Chapter # : 10.0 Sonic velocity, Mach number,

47-48 Introduction to Isentropic flow, speed of sound wave.
compressible flow
T1:Page # : 262-271
8% 100%
R1:Page # : 636-642
R4:Page # : 442-460
49-50 R5:Page # : 535-552 Numerical problems.
R8:Page # : 511-570

Literature

Book Type Code Title and Author Edition

Text Book T1 Fliud Mechanics by Streeter 7th

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

 PESIT

T2 Fliud Mechanics and Hydraulics by Dr.

Jagadishlal
Reference
Book R1 A Text Book of fluid Mechanics and Hydralics
by Dr.R.K. Bansal
R2 Fluid Mechanics by Agarwal
R3 Fluid Mechanics by Binder

R4 Engineering Fluid Mechanics by K.L.Kumar

Engineering Fluid Mechanics by Dr.R.J.Garde

R5
and Dr.A.J.Mirajgaoker

Introduction to fluid Mechanics and Machinery

R6 2nd
by Som and Biwas

R7 Fluid Mechanics by John F.Douglas, Janul and 4th

M.Gasiosek and John.A.Swaffied
R8 Fluid Mechanics by White 5th

QUESTION BANK

Chapter I: Properties of Fluids

1. * Define a fluid. Distinguish between Real and Ideal fluids. (3)

2. * State Newton’s law of viscosity. Hence define Absolute viscosity, Give its SI unit?
(4)
3. A standard bearing 500 mm long and 151 mm in diameter encases a shaft of 150mm
outer dia. The oil film enclosed between the shaft and the bearing has a viscosity of
0.9 poise. What is the power lost in friction., if the shaft revolves at 240 rpm? Find
also the torque developed. (6)
4. * Define the following fluid properties giving their SI units.
(i) Pressure
(ii) Specific mass
(iii) Specific Weight
(iv) Relative density
(v) Kinematic Viscosity
(vi) Surface tension
(vii) Capillarity (2 marks each)
5. What do you understand by the term capillarity? (2)
Mention the fluids in which this fluid phenomenon is observed (2)
6. Derive an expression for the capillary rise. (6)
7. The dynamic viscosity of an oil used for lubrication between a shaft and sleeve is 6.0
poise. The shaft is of diameter 0.4 m. and rotates at 190 rpm. Calculate the power lost
in the bearing for a sleeve length of 90 mm. The thickness of the oil film is 1.5 mm.
(6)
8. A flat plate 0.1 m2 area is pulled at 400mm/s relative to another plate located at 0.15
mm from it, the fluid separating the two being water with μ = 1 centi-Poise. Find the
force and power required to maintain this velocity. (6)
9. Explain the terms Compressibility and Bulk Modulus of Elasticity. (2)
B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information
 PESIT
10. * Distinguish between Newtonian and Non-Newtonian Fluids. by means of a graph.
(4)
11. If the equation of velocity distribution of a fluid over a plate is given by v = 2y-y2 in
which ‘v’ is the velocity n m/s at a distance ‘y’ measured in meters above the plate,
what is the velocity gradient at the boundary and at 75 mm from it. Also determine the
shear stress at these points if the absolute viscosity, μ =8.6 poise. (6)
12. Prove that the relationship between surface tension and pressure inside a droplet in
excess of inside pressure is given by P=4 σ/d, where σ = Surface tension, d = dia of
droplet. ( 4)
13. The Kinematic viscosity and S.G. of a certain liquid are 5.58 Stokes and 2 respectively.
Calculate the absolute viscosity of the fluid in i) Ns/m2 ii)poise. (4)
14. * Explain how certain insects are able to walk on the surface of water. (4)
15. The surface tension of water drop let in contact with air at 200 . is 0.071 N / m. The
pressure inside the droplet of water is 0.0196 N / cm2. greater than the outside
pressure. Calculate the diameter of the droplet. (6)
16. A Capillary tube having an inside dia of 4mm is dipped in water at atmospheric
temperature of 200 C. Determine the height of water which will rise in the tube. Take
surface tension of water as 0.075 N / m and α = 600. What will be the % age increase
in the value of height if the dia of the glass tube is 2mm. (6)
17. * What are the characteristics of the fluid properties to which the following phenomena
are attributed?
(a) Rise of sap (liquid) in a tree.
(b) Spherical shape of drop a drop of a liquid.
(c) Rising of a ship as it sails fresh water to sea water.
(d) A needle heavier than water can float if it is placed lengthwise on the surface
of water.
18. *Differentiate between
(a) Density and relative Density
(b) Absolute viscosity and Kinematics Viscosity
(c) Absolute pressure and Gauge pressure
(d) Simple manometer and differential manometer.
19. *Give technical reason for
(a) Viscosity of liquids decreases on heating whereas viscosity of gases increases on
heating
(b) Water will wet clean glass but mercury will not.
20. * Determine the bulk modulus of elasticity of a liquid if the pressure of the liquid is
increased form 70N/ cm2 to 130n/cm2. The volume of the liquid decreases by 0.15%.

21. * Give technical reasons for the following :

(a) certain insects are able to walk on the surface of water.
(b) Viscosity of liquids decreses on heating whereas that of gases increases. (2)

21. * At a certain point in castor oil film, the shear stress in 0.2 N/m2 and the
velocity gradient is 0.216s-1. If the mass density is 959.42 kg/m3, find the
kinematic viscosity of the oil. (4)

22.* State Newton’s law of viscosity. A U-tube is made up of two capillaries

of bore 1mm and 2mm respectively. The tube is held vertically and is partially
filled with liquid of surface tension 0.05 N/m and zero contact angle. Calculate
the mass density of the liquid if the estimated difference in the level of two
menisci is 12.5mm. (2+6)

23.* A bubble of air is released at a depth of 1m in tank of water. If the diameter of

the bubble at the time of release is 0.2mm, calculate the gauge pressure inside
the bubble( Surface tension for the air water interface is 0.073 N/m). (4)

24.* With the help of a neat plot ( stress vs. rate of strain) show the characteristics
B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information
 PESIT
behaviour for the following materials.
(a) Elastic solid (b) Ideal fluid (c) Newtonian fluid (d) Ideal plastic (e) dilatant
Fluid (f) Pseudo plastic fluid. (6)

Chapter II: Fluid Statics

1. * (a) Distinguish between Pressure head and Pressure intensity

(b) Convert a Pressure head of 15m of water to
(i) m of oil of SG 0.75 (ii) m of Hg of SG 13.6 ( 2+ 4)

2. State and prove Pascal’s Law. Give its applications. (8)

3. * Define the terms Gauge Pressure, Vacuum Pressure and absolute Pressure. Indicate
their relative positions on a chart. (4)
4. The pressure of a fluid is recorded as 60mm of Hg vacuum. What is the absolute
pressure of that fluid in terms of the following units. (i)N/m2 (ii) m of H2O. (3)
5. Distinguish between a simple and differential manometer. Give examples. (3)
6. Two pressure points in a water pipe are connected to a manometer, which has the form
of an inverted ‘U’ tube. The space above the water in the two limbs of the manometer is
filled with toluene of SG 0.875. If the difference of levels of water columns in the two
limbs is equal to 0.12m. What is the corresponding difference of pressure in N/m2.
(6)
7. Show that the pressure at a point depends on the head of liquid above it in a static liquid
8. *Petrol of SG 0.8 flows upwards though a vertical pipe. A and B are two points in the
pipe, B being 300 mm higher than A. Connections are led from A and B to a ‘U’ tube
containing Hg. If the difference of pr. between A and B is 0.18 N/mm2. Find the reading
shown by the differential Hg gauge. (8)
9. Atmospheric pressure measured at a place showed 700 mm of Hg. What is the
atmospheric pr. intensity in N/m2 and in metres of H2o if the SG of Hg is 13.56. (4)
10. * Define the terms Total Pressure and Center of Pressure (2)
11. * Show that for a vertical Lamina immersed in a liquid, the center of Pressure always
lies below the centroid. (6)
12. * Derive an expression for hydrostatic force on an inclined submerged plane surface and
depth of centre of pressure. (6)
13. A trapezoidal plate having its parallel sides equal to 2a and a at distance H apart is
immersed vertically in a liquid with 2 a side uppermost and at a distance H below the
surface of the liquid. Find the thrust on the surface and the depth of center of pressure.
(6)
14. * Derive an expression for the total pressure and center of pressure for an inclined
surface immersed in a liquid. (4)
15. A flat angular ring of 30m ext. dia and 15 m int. dia is immersed in water such that its
top most edge is 1m below and the lower most edge is 2m below the free surface of
water obtain the location of center of pressure of the ring and the total pressure. (6)
16. A triangular gate which has a base of 1.5m and an altitude of 2m lies in a vertical plane.
The vertex of the gate is 1m below the surface of a tank which contains oil of SG 0.8.
Find the force exerted on the gate and the position of center of Pressure. (6)
17. * Define Metacentre and metacentric height . (2)
18. * With usual notations, Prove BM = I / V . (6)
19. A wooden cylinder of diameter “d” and length 2d floats in water with its axis vertical
.Is the equilibrium stable ? Locate the metacentre with reference to water surface.
Specific Gravity of Wood is 0.6 . (6)
20. * What are the conditions of equilibrium of a floating body .Explain with reference to
the metacentric height . (4)
21. * Explain with sketches the stability of a submerged body. (6)
22. *Explain the method of determining the metacentric height of a floating body
experimentally. (6)
23. A hollow cylinder of specific gravity 0.55 has an outer diameter of 0.6m and an inner
diameter of 0.3m and has its ends open. It is required to float in oil of specific gravity
B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information
 PESIT
0.84 Calculate the maximum height of the cylinder so that it shall be stable when
floating with its axis vertical .Find also the depth to which it will sink . (8)
24. Explain the terms buoyancy and centre of buoyancy . (3)
25. What is the significance of Metacentric height . (2)
26. A ship 60m long and 12m broad has a displaced water of 19620kN. A weight of 294.3kN
is moved across the deck through a distance of 6.5m .The ship is tilted through 5 . The
moment of inertia of ship at water surface is 75% moment of inertia of the
circumscribing rectangle. the centre of buoyancy is 2.75m below waterline. Find the
metacentric height and position of C.G of the ship . Take specific weight of sea-water as
10104N/m3 . (6)
27. *A wooden cylinder having a specific gravity of 0.6 is required to float in an oil of
specific gravity 0.8. If the diameter of the cylinder is ‘d’ and length ‘l’, show that ‘l’
cannot exceed 0.817d for the cylinder to float with its longitudinal axis vertical. (6)
28. A wooden cylinder of specific gravity 0.6 and diameter D and length L is required to
float in oil of specific gravity 0.9. Find the L / D ratio for the cylinder to float with its
longitudinal axis vertical. (8)
29. *Draw a rectangle parallelopied element of a fluid at rest, indicating the pressure on the
faces. For the element derive the hydrostatic equation in the form p=γ h, where ‘p’ is the
pressure intensity at a depth ‘h’ from a liquid surface of specific weight ‘γ’.
(10)
30. *Derive the criterion for stability of a floating body. (6)
31. *Determine the pressure difference Pa-Pb for the system shown below. (4)

Diameter
Diameter D

H1 ρ3=0.6
ρ1=.8 ρw

Diameter
D
H2

H1=0.2m
H2=0.05 ρw=1000kg/
m3

32.* Determine the minimum force F, required to keep the gate closed, in the
Figure below. The gate is a square of 0.5m side and hinged in the middle as
Shown. The centre of the gate is 1m below the water surface.

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

 PESIT

Gate ( 0.5*0.5

H
Hing

D
F

Wate

H=1m
D=0.5m

33.* calculate the horizontal and vertical forces, due to the gauge pressure of water
On the cylinder portion of the tank shown below. The radius of the cylinder,
R is 2m, the level of water in the tank, H is 5m and the width of the tank, W is
5m. The tank is open at the top. (8)

H=5m
W=5m
R=2m

W
R

Chapter III: Fluid Kinematics

1. * Distinguish between
i) Steady flow and unsteady flow ii) Uniform flow and non uniform flow iii)
Compressible and incompressible flow. iv) Laminar and turbulent flow. (8)
2. What do you understand by the term continuity equation. (4)
3. Explain in brief Lagrangian method and Eulerian method of studying fluid in motion.
4. * Define the following : (i) Path line (ii) Streak line
(iii) Stream line (iv) Stream tube (8)
5. * Obtain an expression for the continuity equation for a three dimensional flow. (6)
6. * Define the terms : 1)Velocity potential 2) Stream function (4)
7. Determine whether the continuity equation is satisfied by the following velocity
components for incompressible fluid: -
B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information
 PESIT
u = x3 - y3 - z2 x ; v =y3 - z3 ; w = -3 x2 z - 3 y2 z + z3/ 3. (4)
8. The velocity components in a two dimensional flow field for an incompressible fluid are
as follows : u = y3 / 3 + 2 x - x2 y and v = x y2 - 2 y - x3 /3. Obtain an expression
for the stream function. (6)
9. * What you mean by upper critical and Lower Critical Reynolds number. (4)
10. * Compare and contrast the following:
(a) Path line vs. streak line. (2)
(b) 1D vs. 3D flow. (2)
11.* The stream function for 2D incompressible flow is given by: ψ= xy3+x2y
(a) Find φ if it exists. (4)
(b) What is the equation of the steam line passing through (1,1). (2)
12.* Given V= (xy+2zt)I+(2y2+xyt)J+(12xy)k where x,y and z are in metres and t
in seconds, determine ax the x component of the acceleration of the fluid
particle at (1,1,1) at t=1s. (4)

Chapter IV: Dimensional Analysis

1. What is similitude. (3)

2. * Briefly explain [a] Geometric Similarity [b] Kinematic Similarity
[c] Dynamic Similarity (3)
3. Write a note on Model studies. (3)
4. * State Buckingham’s π theorem. (2)
5. The efficiency η of a fan depends on density, dynamic viscosity, angular velocity,
diameter of rotor & discharge. Express η in terms of dimensionless parameters. (6)
6. Define the following non-dimensional numbers. [i] Euler's Number [ii] Weber Number
7. The drop in pressure due to an obstruction in a pipe depends on the pipe diameter,
average velocity, mass density, Viscosity of fluid and the characteristic length of
obstruction. Express the pressure drop in terms of dimensionless parameters. (6)
8. Using Buckingham's π- theorem, show that the velocity through a circular orifice is
given by V = √ 2 g H X Φ 〈 D / H , μ / , μ / ς VH ® where H is head causing the
flow, D is the diameter of the orifice , μ is the viscosity , ς is the mass density and g is
the acceleration due to gravity. (8)
9. * The rate of discharge Q of a centrifugal pump is dependent upon density ρ of the fluid,
pump speed N (rpm), the diameter of the impeller D, the pressure P & the viscosity of
fluid μ. Derive an expression for Q by using Buckingham's π theorem.(10)
10. * By Buckingham’s π theorem, obtain an expression for the frictional torque T of a disc
of diameter D, rotating at speed N, in a fluid of viscosity μ and density ρ in a turbulent
flow. (8)
11. *Assuming that the rate of discharge Q of a hydraulic machine is dependent upon the
mass density ‘ρ’ and viscosity μ, show using Buckingham’s π theorem that it can be
represented by
Q= ND3 φ [9H/N2D2, ν/ND2]
H being the head and ν the kinematic viscosity of the fluid.
12.*The distance traveled by a golf ball in still air, L , is known to be a function of
the following:
L=ƒ (Vo,D,d,μ,ω,m)
Where,
Vo is the initial velocity of the ball; D is the diameter of the ball
‘d’ is the diameter of the dimples; ρ is the density of air
ω is the angular speed of the ball; μ is the viscosity of air and
m is the mass of the ball.
(a)using ρ, Vo and D as repeating variable find all the revelant π groups. (8)
(b) Experiments are to be conducted on a model ball that is twice as large as the
actual golf ball. For dynamic similarity find the ratio of the initial velocity of the model
to that of the actual ball. The fluid in both cases is air at STP. (2)

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

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Chapter V: Fluid dynamics

1. Name the different forces present in a fluid flow. For the Euler’s equation of motion,
which forces are taken into consideration?. (3)
2. Write Bernoulli’s equation of motion. Clearly explain the meaning of the terms in it.
(4)
3. A pipe of diameter 0.3m carries water at a velocity of 20m/s. The pressure at the points
A and B are given as 350KN/m2 and 300 KN/m2 respectively, while the datum head at
A and B are 25m and 28m. Find the loss of head between A and B.
(6)
4. * State and prove Bernoulli’s theorem making clearly the assumption’s made. (8)
5. * Derive Euler's equation along a streamline and reduce it to Bernoulli's equation. State
the assumptions made. (10)
6. Mention the devices that work on the above principle. (2)
7. A pipe line carrying oil of S.G 0.8 changes in diameter from 300mm at position A to
500mm diameter at position B which is 5m higher. If the pressures at A and B are
200KN/m2 and 152KN/m2 respectively and the discharge is 150l/s, determine the loss
of head and direction of flow. (8)
8.* A 0.25 diameter pipe carries an oil of SG 0.8 at the rate of 120 l/s and the
pressure at a point A is 19.62kN/m3. If the point A is 3.5m above the datum line,
calculate the total energy at point A in m of oil.
9.*Derive Bernoulli’s equation using an infinitesimal stream tube. Clearly state all the
assumptions made. (6)

Chapter VI: Fluid flow measurements

1. What is a venturimeter. (2)

2. Derive an expression for the discharge through a venturimeter. (4)
3. * Draw neat sketches of venturimeter and orifice meter labeling all the main parts.
Distinguish between venturimeter and orifice meter. (8)
4. * Explain with a neat sketch the working of pitot's tube with inverted U tube differential
manometer. Derive an expression for the velocity for the same pitot's tube.
(6)
5. A horizontal venturimeter with a inlet diameter 200mm and throat diameter 100mm is
used to measure the flow of water. The pressure at inlet is 150KN/m2 and vacuum
pressure at the throat is 400mm of Hg. Find the discharge of water through the meter.
Take Cd= 0.98. (6)
6. A 30 mm X 15 mm venturimeter is provided in a vertical pipeline carrying oil of S.G. 0.9.
The differential U-tube manometer shows a gauge deflection of 25 cm. Calculate the
discharge of the oil. Take Cd of venturimeter as 0.98. (8)
7. What do you understand by Vena-Contracta. (2)
8. Define the hydraulic co-efficients of an orifice. How are they related. (3)
9. In order to determine experimentally the co-efficients of contraction, velocity and
discharge for a 100mm dia sharp orifice in the side of a tank , the following data were
collected. Dia of jet at vena-contracta =78.42mm, H= 3.6m, Q=0.0385 m3/ s. Obtain
Cc, Cv and Cd. (6)
10. Obtain an expression for the coefficient of velocity for a sharp edged orifice located in
the side of a tank in terms of horizontal distance x, vertical distance y, traveled by the
jet and head H over the orifice . (6)
11. A jet of water issuing from a 25mm dia orifice in the side of a tank drops 0.48m in a
horizontal distance of 1.39m from vena-contracta. If it discharges 0.00131m3/s under a
head of 1.07m, determine Cc, Cv and Cd. (4)
12. Distinguish between orifices and notches. (2)
13. * Derive an expression for discharge over a V-notch. (4)
14. * Mention the advantages of V-notch over rectangular notch. (3)
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15. In an experiment on a 900 V-notch , the flow is collected in a vertical cylindrical tank
0.9m dia. It is found that the depth of water in the tank increases by 0.65m in 16.8s,
when the head over the notch is 0.2m. Determine the Cd of the notch. (4)
16. Find the depth and top width of a V-notch capable of discharging a maximum 0.7m3/s
and such that head the head shall be 75mm for a discharge of 5.6 litres
17. / s. It’s Cd is same as that of a similar (in material and sharpness of edges only) right
angled V-notch for which Q=1.407 H5/2. (6)
18. *Compare a Venturimeter and an orifice plate, based on the following points
(a) Cost and ease of manufacture
(b) Accuracy
(c) Energy loss
(d) Sensitivity ( output manometer deflection per unit flow rate) (4)
19.* Derive the head vs. discharge relation equation for a V notch. State all the
assumption made. (6)
20.*The inlet and throat diameters of a vertically mounted venturimeter are 300mm
and 100mm respectively. The throat is below the inlet at a distance of 100mm.
The mass density of the liquid is 900kg/m3. The pressure intensity at the inlet is
140 kPa while at the throat is 80kPa. Calculate the flow rate. Assume that 2%
of the differential head is lost between the inlet and the throat. (8)

Chapter-VII: Flow through pipes &

Chapter-VIII: Laminar & Viscous Flow

1. *Define Reynolds' Number. What is its physical significance? (4)

2. For the flow of fluid through a circular pipe show that the friction factor f = 16/Re.
(6)
3. Two reservoirs are connected by three pipes laid in parallel, their diameters being d, 2d
& 3d respectively and they are of the same length l. Assuming f to be the same for all
pipes, determine the discharge through each of the larger pipes if the smallest pipe is
discharging 1m3/s. (6)
4. * What are minor and major losses? Derive an expression to evaluate the loss of head
due to sudden contraction. (10)
5. Write the expressions for the loss of head due to the following in pipes: Entrance to the
pipe, sudden contraction, sudden expansion, Exit from the pipe, Pipe fittings. (5)
6. What is a compound pipe. Derive an expression for the equivalent size of a compound
pipe. (4)
7. Two reservoirs are connected by a pipe 2250m long and 0.225m in diameter the
difference in water levels being 7.5m. Determine the flow through the pipe in litres /
min if f = 0.03. Also find the % increase in the discharge if for the last 600m a second
pipe of the same diameter is laid alongside the first. (6)
8. Derive an expression for the loss of head due to friction for the laminar flow between
two parallel plates. (6)
9. A horizontal pipe 50mm diameter carrying glycerine has shear stress at the pipe
boundary as 196.s N/m2. Determine the pressure gradient, mean velocity and
Reynolds' number. (6)
10. * For turbulent flow through a pipe, derive Darcy’s equation for the head loss. (8)
11. Two reservoirs are connected by a pipe 2250m long and 0.225m in diameter the
difference in water levels being 7.5m. Determine the discharge through the pipe if f =
0.0075. (6)
12. Write short notes on Water hammer. (3)
13. * Distinguish between Laminar and Turbulent flow. (4)
14. * Explain the terms
(i) Critical Reynolds number
(ii) Critical velocity
(iii) Transition Zone (6)
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15.* Derive the Darcy Weisbach equation for the loss of head due to friction in a pipe
16.*What are hydraulic gradient and total energy lines.
17.*Water is supplied to a town having a population of 1 lakh from a reservoir 6 km
away from the town and it is stipulated that half of the daily supply of 150 litres
per head should be delivered in 8 hours. What should be the dia of the supply
pipe. The loss of head due to friction in the pipe line is 12m. Take Chezy’s
constant as 45. (8)
18.*In the Chezy equation V=C(RS)1/2, explain the physical meaning of the terms
C,R and S. (2)
19.*Derive the expression for the energy loss due to a sudden expansion in a pipe
from area A1 to area A2(>A1), in terms of the inlet dynamic pressure ½ ρV12
Clearly state all the assumption made. (6)
20.*Starting from an appropriate control volume derive the expression for the
velocity distribution for steady, laminar, fully developed flow of an incompressible fluid
in a circular pipe.
Further, show that the friction factor ƒ=2gDhf/LV2 is 64/Re for this flow. (10)
21.*For the system shown below qualitatively sketch the hydraulic and energy grade
lines. The value is kept half open and the entry loss into the pipe is negligible

smooth
Ho pipe Rough
pipe

Vexit

Value
kept half

Chapter X: Introduction to compressible flow &

Chapter IX: Flow past immersed bodies

1. Derive an expression for velocity of sound in a fluid in terms of bulk modulus.

(4)
2. A projectile travels in air of pressure 0.065 N/m2 and temperature - 70C. If the Mach
angle is 300C, find the velocity of projectile. K = 1.4, R = 287 J / Kg K. (4)
3. Find the velocity of bullet in standard air if the Mach angle is 30o. Take R = 287.14 J/ kg
o
K and k = 1.4 for air. Assume temperature of air as 15o C.
4. Water at 15o C flows between two parallel plates at a distance of 1.6 mm apart.
Determine the maximum velocity , the pressure loss per unit length, Shear stress at the
plates, if the average velocity is 0.2 m/s. The viscosity of water at 15o C is given as
0.01 poise. (8)
5. Define Mach No. What is its significance. (4)
6. Derive an expression for the compressible flow of a fluid for (i) Isothermal process (ii)
Adiabatic process. (8)
B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information
 PESIT
7. An aeroplane is flying at an altitude of 15 Km where the temperature is -500. The speed
of the plane corresponds to a Mach No.1.6. Assuming R = 1.4 and
R = 2875/ kg-K, determine the speed of the aeroplane. (6)
8. * Explain the effect of area variation on one dimensional compressible fluid flow. (6)
9. Define : Boundary layer thickness, Displacement thickness, Momentum thickness. (6)
10. Derive an expression for velocity of propagation of elastic wave in an isothermal
medium. (8)
11. * A jet fighter flying at Mach number 2.0 is observed directly over head at a height of 10
km. How much distance it would cover before the sonic boom is heard on the ground?
12. * Explain (i) Lift (ii) Drag (iii) Wake region (iv) Boundary layer separation (8)
13. Define [a] Drag [b] Lift [c] Drag Co-efficient [d] Lift Co-efficient
14. Define [a] Aero foil [b] Cord length [c] Angle of attack
15. *Distinguish between friction drag and pressure drag. (5)
16. *Sketch the nature of propagation of disturbance in compressible flow when Mach
number is more than one and hence define mach angle and mach cone. (6)
17.*Experiment were conducted in a wild tunnel with a wind speed of 50 km/hr on a
flat plate of size 2m long and 1m wide. The specific weight of air is 11.282 N/m3
The plate is kept at such an angle that the coefficient of lift and drag are 0.75
And 0.15 respectively. Determine:
(a) Lift force
(b) Drag force
(c) Resultant force
(d) Power excited by air stream on the plate.(10)
18.*A Supersonic plane travels at 1.8 Mach at an altitude of 20Km above the ground
How far ahead the plane will be when one hears the sonic boom on the
Ground? (8)
19.*The velocity distribution in a boundary-layer is given by:
u=U∝sin(π/2y/δ) 0≤y≤δ
u=U∝ y≥δ
(a) Determine the displacement and momentum thickness if δ=cm and
U∝=10m/s
(b) What would happen to the answer of part (a) above, if the shape of the
Velocity profile remains the same and δ remains at 1cm but U∝ is doubled.
20.*An aircraft is flying at a uniform speed of 1Km/s at a height of 2 Km. The
density and pressure at that altitude are 0.6kg/m3 respectively.
(a) How long after it flies directly overhead will the sonic boom be heard?
R for air is 287 J/kg/K and the ratio of specific heats, γ is 1.4. (6)
(b) Calculate the pressure felt at the nose of the aircraft, assuming that, in the
Reference frames of the planes, the air is isentropically brought to rest at the
Nose. (4)
21.*Distinguish between the following:
(a) form, drag and skin friction drag.
(b) Lift force and drag force
(c) The physical significance of displacement thickness and momentum thickness.(6)

* These questions have appeared in past VTU question paper

KINEMATICS OF MACHINE–ME 44
Faculty: Sunith Babu. L

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

 PESIT
Chapter Title /
% Of Portions
Class # Reference Topics to be covered
Covered
Literature
Chapter #: 1.0 Definition – Link or element, Paring of element
1.
Introduction with degrees of freedom, Grubler’s criterion
(without derivation), Kinematic chain, 4% 4%
T1: 1 - 19 Mechanism, Mobility of Mechanism, Inversion,
2.
R1: 3 – 14 Machine

3. Chapter #: 1.0
Kinematic Chain and Inversion:
Kinematic chain
Kinematic chain with three lower pairs, Four
4. and Inversion
bar chain,
T1: 20 - 30
5 Single slider crank chain & 8% 12 %
R1: 15 - 21
Double slider crank chain and
6. Their inversions

7.
Chapter #: 2.0 Mechanisms:
8. (I) Quick return mechanisms – Drag link
Mechanism mechanism, Whitworth mechanism and
9. Crank & slotted lever mechanism.
(II) Straight line motion mechanisms –
10. Peacellier’s mechanism and Roberts’s
13 % 25 %
T1: 22 - 30 mechanism.
11.
R1: 95 - 123 (III) Intermittent motion mechanisms – Geneva
mechanism and Ratchet & Pawl mechanism.
12.
(IV) Toggle mechanism, Pantograph, Hooke’s
joint and Ackerman steering mechanism
13.

14.

15. Chapter #: 3.0 Velocity and Acceleration Analysis of

Velocity and Mechanisms
16. Acceleration (Graphical Methods):
Analysis of Velocity and Acceleration Analysis by
17. Mechanisms
vector polygons –
Relative velocity and acceleration of 15 % 40 %
18.
particles in a common link,
19. T1: 31 - 52
Relative velocity and accelerations of
R1: 21 - 23 coincident particles on separate links,
20. Coriolis components of acceleration
21.

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 PESIT
22. Chapter #: 4.0
Velocity Definition,
Analysis by Kennedy’s Theorem
23.
Instantaneous Determination of velocity using
center method instantaneous center method 12
24. 52 %
Analysis of Velocity and Acceleration of single %
& Klein’s slider crank mechanism by using Klein’s
25. construction construction
T1: 53 - 73
26. R1: 24 – 71

27.
Velocity and Acceleration Analysis by
28. Chapter #: 5.0 Complex Numbers:
Velocity Analysis Analysis of
29. by Complex No A) Single slider crank mechanism by
And Loop Closure
Equation 1) Loop closure equations 8
60 %
2) Complex numbers %
R2: B) Four Bar mechanism
30.
1) Loop closure equations
2) Complex numbers

31.
32. Law of gearing,
Chapter #: 6.0
33. Involutometry,
Spur Gears
34. Definitions, Characteristics of involute action, 15
Path of Contact, Arc of Contact, Contact 75 %
35. %
ratio, Interference in involute gears, Methods
36. T1: 326 - 383 of avoiding interference, Back lash,
R1: 163 – 187 Comparison of involute and cycloidal teeth
37.
38.

39.
Simple gear trains,
40. Chapter #: 7.0 Compound gear trains for large speed
Gear Trains reduction,
41. Epicyclic gear trains,
Algebraic and tabular methods of finding 12
42. T1: 383 - 414 87 %
velocity ratio of epicyclic gear trains, Tooth %
R1: 201 - 221 load and torque
43.
Calculations in epicyclic gear trains.
Differential mechanism of an automobile
44.

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

 PESIT
45.

46. Types of followers,

Displacement,
47. Velocity and Acceleration time curves for
Chapter #: 8.0
cam profiles,
Cams
48. Disc cam with reciprocating follower
having knife edge,
T1: 195 - 238 13 % 100 %
49. Roller and flat faced follower, disc cam
R1: 124 - 162
with oscillating roller follower, Follower
50. motions including SHM, Uniform velocity,
Uniform acceleration & retardation and
51. cycloidal motion

52.

Learning Resources for the Subject

Prescribed Text Books:

Code Title Author(s) Publisher / Edition / Year

T1. Theory of Machines – S. S. Rattan Tata Mc Graw Hill / Eighteen / 1998

T2. Mechanism and machine J. S. Rao New Age / Second / 2003

Prescribed Reference Books:

R1. Kinematics of Machines A.S Ravindran Sudha Publication / Fourth / 2004

Guidelines for Quick Study* [ACTUAL EXAM PATTERN MAY VARY]

Chapters 1 and 2 are theory type hence maintain descriptive answers in the exams with neat
sketches
Chapters 3 and 8 are to be solved in the Drawing Sheets hence practice problems in

Drawing Sheet only

Chapters 4 5 6 7 mainly contains problems of 15 to 20 marks while theory only 5 marks

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

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QUESTION BANK

LINKAGES AND MECHANISMS:

1. Explain the following terms with examples

(i) Element (ii) Link (iii) Kinematic pair (iv) Mechanism (v) Inversion
(vi) Machine (vii) Mobility (viii) Degree of Freedom* (16)
2. Define a Kinematic pair. Explain the various types of Kinematic pairs. * (4)
3. Distinguish between complete, incomplete and successful constraint of the relative
motion between the two links (4)
4. Define the following (i) Lower pair (ii) Higher pair* (4)
5. Define Kinematic chain and how does it differ from a mechanism * (4)
6. Differentiate between (i) Machine and Mechanism (ii) Machine and structure*(8)
7. Define mobility of a mechanism and write the Grubler’s mobility equation for planar
mechanism* (4)
8. Write short notes on Kinematic chain with three lower pairs* (6)
9. Sketch and explain the following* (12)
(i) Four Bar Chain and its inversions
(ii) Single slider crank chain and its inversions
(iii) Double slider crank chain and its inversions
10. Explain the working of an Ellipse Trammel and show how is it useful in drawing an
ellipse (10)
11. Explain the construction of Oldham’s coupling and state for what purpose it is used*
(6)
12. Describe the following quick return mechanism* (10)
(i) Drag Link
(ii) Witworth
(iii) Crank and slotted lever mechanism
13. What are straight-line motion mechanisms? How are they classified* (6)
14. Describe Peacellier’s mechanism with a suitable sketch* (6)
15. Describe Roberts approximate straight line motion mechanism with suitable sketches*
(4)
16. What is a Pantograph and what are its uses? With neat sketches explain its working
principle * (6)
17. Describe toggle mechanism. What are its uses * (4)
19. State and prove the condition that must satisfy by the steering mechanism of a car in
order that the wheel may have pure rolling motion when rounding a curve? (10)
19. Write short notes on Ackermann steering gear * (6)
20. What is Hooke’s joint and what are its application* (4)
21. What is a double Hooke’s joint? (4)
22. State the condition to be satisfied in double Hooke’s joint in order to provide a
uniform velocity ratio (8)
23. What is intermittent mechanism? Explain the following intermittent motion
Mechanism (i) Geneva (ii) Ratchet* (6)
24. Two shafts are connected by a Hooke’s joint. The driving shaft rotates at a
uniform speed of 300 rpm and the angle between the shafts is 200. Find the
maximum and minimum speed of the driven shaft and its max. Acceleration.
c) Sketch & explain the working of a ratchet Mechanism
(10)
25. A Hooke’s joint connects two shafts whose axes are inclined at 1500. The
driving shaft rotates at a uniform speed of 120 rpm. The driven shaft operates
against a study torque of 150 Nm and carries a flywheel whose mass is 45 kg
and the radius of gyration is 140 mm. Find the maximum torque which will
B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information
 PESIT
be exerted by the driving shaft. At what value of ‘α‘ will the total fluctuation of
speed of the driven shaft be limited to 24 rpm (12)
26. Find the degree of freedom of the following mechanism shown in figure – 1 *
(4)
27. In a with worth quick return mechanism as shown in figure – 2, OP = 240mm,
OA = 150mm, AR = 165mm, RS = 430mm. If the crank OP rotates at an
angular velocity of 2.5 rad/sec & has an angular acceleration of 20 rad/sec2,
determine the acceleration of the slider, the angular acceleration of the link
AR, RS. (10)
VELOCITY AND ACCELERATION IN MECHANISMS:

1. a) Write a brief note an instantaneous center of rotation. (4)

b) A four bar chain ABCD as a fixed link AD = 1m. The driving rank AB = 0.3m. The
Follower link CD = 0.6 m and the connecting link BC = 1.2m. Find the velocity and
acceleration of point ‘P’ midway between B and C When the angle BAD =1350 and AB
rotates at a speed of 300 rpm. (16)
2. Derive analytical expressions for velocity and acceleration of the piston in a
reciprocating engine mechanism.
b) The crank of a reciprocating engine is 60mm long and connecting rod is 240 mm long.
The crank rotates at 400 rpm. Find the velocity and acceleration of both piston and the
angular velocity and angular acceleration of the connecting rod when the crank is 300
from IDC by Klein’s construction method. (10)
3. In a slider crank mechanism, the crank is 50mm long and the connecting rod is
150mm long. The crank is rotating at a speed of 10 rad/s and the crank is at 450 from
IDC. By kleins construction determine:
i) Velocity of piston ii) Acceleration of the piston iii) Angular acceleration of the
Connecting rod. (16)
4. A four bar chain mechanism ABCD is made up of 4 links pin jointed at ends. AD is fixed
link, which is 250 mm long. The links AB, BC & CD are 90mm, 180mm & 180mm long
respectively. The crank AB rotates at 100 rpm and an angular acceleration 100rad/sec2
at the instant when the crank AB makes an angle of 600 to the horizontal. Find the
angular velocities and angular accelerations of links BC & CD.
(10)
5. For the four bar mechanism shown in figure – 3, determine the acceleration of C and
angular acceleration of link 3 when crank 2, rotates at 20 radians per second. *
(08)
6. Determine the velocity and acceleration of the piston by “Kleins Construction” for a
steam engine for the following specification:
Stroke of piston = 600mm, Ratio of length o connecting rod to crank length = 5, speed
of the engine = 450rpm CW, position of the crank = 45 degree with IDC.
(10)
7. Derive analytically the expression for the velocity and the acceleration of the piston in
a reciprocating engine mechanism. (10)
8. The crank of a reciprocating engine is 90mm long and the connecting rod is 360mm
long. The crank rotates at 150rpm. Find the velocity and the acceleration of the piston
and angular velocity and angular acceleration of the connecting rod when the angle,
which the crank makes with the IDC, is 300. (10)
9. A link ABC of a mechanism shown in figure – 4 is in motion. At the instant shown, ‘A’
moves with 0.6 m/s in the direction shown and ‘B’ moves with a speed of 0.5 m/s/ find
the magnitude and direction of (i) Velocity of C and (ii) angular velocity of ABC. AB =
BC = AC = 0.5cm x-x is parallel to AB, a reference line (08)
10. The crank of a slider crank mechanism rotates CW at a constant speed of 300 rpm.
The crank is 150mm and the connecting rod is 600mm long. Determine (I) linear
velocity and acceleration of the mid point of the connecting rod (ii) Angular velocity
and acceleration of the connecting rod, at a crank angle of 450 from IDC position.
(15)
th
B.E. Mechanical 4 Semester Course Information
 PESIT
11. An oscillatory cylinder mechanism is shown in the figure 5. The crank O2B rotates at
300rpm (ccw). Determine the magnitude & direction of
I. Angular velocity of cylinder ii. Velocity of A3 a point on the system iii. Angular
acceleration of the cylinder. Also state whether the magnitude of angular velocity. Is
increasing or decreasing at the instant A3 & A4 are coincident points of piston &
cylinder respectively. O2B=150mm. O2O4=600mm. A3B=400mm. (15)
12. The crank of a slider crank mechanism is 480 mm long and rotates at 20 rad/sec in the
counter clockwise direction. It has a connecting rod of 160mm long, Determine the
following when the crank is at 60 degree from the inner dead center 1) Velocity of
slider 2) Angular velocity of connecting rod 3) The Position and velocity of a point P on
the connecting rod having at least absolute velocity. (15)
13. A pin jointed 4-bar mechanism ABCD is shown in figure - 6. LINK AB = 150mm, BC =
180 mm CD = 180 mm, and the fixed Link AD = 300 mm. Link AB makes 60 degree
with Link AD and rotates uniformly at 100 rpm. Locate all the instantaneous centers
and find the angular velocity of link BC and Linear velocity of link CD.(16)
14. Locate all the instantaneous centers for the toggle mechanism shown in figure –7
(4)
15. Determine the velocity of point K in the mechanism shown in figure –8 (6)
16. In the mechanism shown in figure – 9, crank rotates at 3000rpm. Find the acceleration
of the point c in magnitude, direction and sense. Find also the angular acceleration of
link 3. (10)
17. The crank 02A of the four bar mechanism shown in figure - 10 is rotating clockwise at
a constant speed of 100 rad/sec. For the phase, shown in figure, determine I) the
acceleration of the point c. II) the angular acceleration of link 3 and 4. (10)
18. A four bar chain ABCD has a fixed link AD = 1m. The driving rank AB = 0.3m. The
Follower link CD = 0.6 m and the connecting link BC = 1.2m. Find the velocity and
acceleration of point ‘P’ midway between B and C When the angle BAD =1350 and AB
rotates at a speed of 300 rpm. (10)
19. In a slider crank mechanism, the crank is 50mm long and the connecting rod is
150mm long. The crank is rotating at a speed of 10 rad/s and the crank is at 450 from
IDC. By kleins construction determine:
i) Velocity of piston ii) Acceleration of the piston iii) Angular acceleration of
the Connecting rod * (15)
20. A four bar chain mechanism ABCD is made up of 4 links pin jointed at ends. AD is fixed
link, which is 250 mm long. The links AB, BC & CD are 90mm, 180mm & 180mm long
respectively. The crank AB rotates at 100 rpm and an angular acceleration 100rad/sec2
at the instant when the crank AB makes an angle of 600 to the horizontal. Find the
angular velocities and angular accelerations of links BC & CD *
(20)
21. The crank of an engine is 20cm long and connecting rod length to crank radius is 4.
Determine the acceleration of the piston when the crank has turned through 45 Degree
from the inner dead center position and moving towards center at 240 rpm by the
following methods 1) complex algebra analysis 2) Klein’s construction and compare the
values and get the error % figure – 11 * (20)
22. For the four bar mechanism shown in figure – 12 determine the acceleration of C and
angular acceleration of link 3 when crank 2, rotates at 20 radians / sec* (10)
23. What is Coriolis component? Derive the expression for the same * (06)
24. The crank of a reciprocating engine is 60mm long and connecting rod is 240mm long.
The crank rotates at 400rpm. Find the velocity and acceleration of the piston and the
angular velocity and angular acceleration of the connecting rod, when the crank is 30
degrees from inner dead center, by KLEIN’S construction. * (12)
25. What is instantaneous center? Locate all the instantaneous center for a single slider
crank mechanism and show how velocity of slider is determined? (08)

Velocity and acceleration analysis by complex method:

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

 PESIT
1. In an internal combustion engine mechanism, the crank radius is 100mm and the
length of the connecting rod is 450 mm. the crank is rotating at 10 rad/sec, in (CCW)
direction. Determine the magnitude and direction of 1) Velocity of the piston 2) The
angular velocity of the connecting rod when crank is at 45 degree from the inner dead
center by complex algebra method verify the same by Klein’s construction.
(15)
2. In a 4 bar mechanism ABCD link, AB=300mm,BC=360mm,CD=360mm and the fixed
link AD=600mm. The angle of link AB with fixed is 60degree. The AB has an angular
velocity of 10rad/sec and angular acceleration of 30rad/sec2 both clock wise.
Determine the angular velocity and angular acceleration of link BC and CD by RAVEN’S
approach. * (20)

SPUR GEAR

1. What are toothed gears? State their uses* (4)

2. What are the advantages and disadvantages of gear drives (4)
3. How are gears classified* (4)
4. State and prove “Law of gearing”* (6)
5. What are the common curves used for tooth profile* (2)
6. Discuss the merits and demerits of involute curve and cycloidal curve for the
profile of gear tooth. (6)
7. What are the general Characteristics of spur gearing* (4)
8. Draw a neat sketch of spur gear and explain the various terms (6)
9. Define the following (i) Pitch circle diameter (ii) Circular Pitch (iii) Module
(iv) Addendum (v) Dedendum (vi) Pressure angle*
10. Define the following (i) Path of Contact (ii) Arc of Contact (iii) Contact Ratio*
(12)
11. Derive the formula for the length of arc of contact for two meshing spur Gears of
involute profile* (6)
12. Explain the phenomenon of interference. State the condition for no Interference
(4)
13. Describe the various methods of avoiding interference (4)
14. Derive an expression for minimum number of teeth necessary for a pinion to avoid
interference. (10)
15. Derive an expression for the length of path of contact for a pinion on rack (6)
16. What is Involutometry? Derive an expression for the tooth thickness at any point on
the involute, if the tooth thickness at some other point is known (10)
17. What is Backlash? Derive an expression for backlash if the center distance is pulled
apart at a distance Δc. (10)
18. Two equal spur gears of 48 teeth mesh together with pitch radii of 100 mm, and the
addendum is 4.25 mm. If the pressure angle is 200, calculate the length of action and
contact ratio. Sketch the different types of gear trains and explain briefly (20)
19. A pair of gears having 40 and 20 teeth are rotating in mesh the speed of smaller being
1800rpm. Determine the velocity of sliding between the gear teeth faces at the point of
engagement, at the pitch point, at the point of disengagement if the smaller gear is the
driver. Assume the gear teeth 200 involute form, addendum length is 5mm and the
module is 5mm (20)
20. The number of teeth on each of two equal spur gears is mesh each other are 40. The
teeth have 200 involute pressure angle and module is 5mm. If the arc of contact is
1.75 times the circular pitch. Find the addendum (10)
21. The following are the particulars of a single reduction spur gear the gear ratio is 10: 1
and the center distance is 275mm. The pinion transmits 375 KW at 1800 rpm. The
teeth's are of involute form with standard addendum of 1 module and pressure angle is
22.50. Normal tooth pressure is not to exceed 9810N/cm width. Find (I) the nearest

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

 PESIT
standard diameter pitch if no interference is to occur (ii) the number of teeth in each
wheel (iii) the width of pinion* (20)
22. A spur Pinion 100 mm in diameter has a torque of 200Nm applied to it. The spur gear
in mesh with it is 250 mm in dia. the pressure angle is 20 degree. Determine the
tangential force FT and the separating force FR. Show the forces action on the wheels
separately. * (5)
23. Two Gear wheels mesh externally and are to give a velocity ratio of 3. The teeth are of
involute form of module 6mm, and the standard addendum is one module. If the
pressure angle is 180 and the pinion rotates at 90 rpm. Find i) The minimum number
of teeth on each wheel to avoid interference. The length of path of contact iii) The
maximum velocity of sliding iv) number of pairs of teeth in contact* (16)
24. The following data refers to two mating involute gears of 200 pressure angle:
Number of teeth on pinion – 20
Module – 12mm
If the center distance between the gears is increased by 2mm, find the backlash
between the gears.
(15)
25. Two spur gears wheels have 24 and 30 teeth and a standard addendum of 1 module.
The pressure angle is 200. Calculate the path of contact and arc of contact. Derive the
expression used. * (15)
26. The following data refers to two mating involute gears of 200 pressure angle. Number
of teeth on the pinion is 20, gear ratio is 2, speed of the pinion is 250rpm, module
12mm. If the addendum on each wheel is such that the path of approach and the path
of recess on each side are half of the maximum permissible length. Find the maximum
velocity of sliding during approach and the recess and the length of arc of contact. *
(14)
27. A pair of gear has 16 teeth and 18 teeth, a module 12.5 mm an addendum 12.5mm
and a pressure angle 14.5 degrees. Prove that gears have interference. Determine the
minimum number of teeth and the velocity ratio to avoid interference. * (08)

GEAR TRAINS

1. What do you understand by gear trains (2)

2. Explain Train Value? How is it related to velocity ratio? * (4)
3. Name different types of Gear Trains and give examples (4)
4. Explain Simple, Compounded & Reverted gear trains * (6)
5. Explain Epicyclic gear trains (2)
6. Explain Bevel gear differential* (4)
7. Explain Spur gear differential (4)
8. Obtain the expression for the length of path of contact for two involute profile gears in
mesh (10)
9. In an epicyclic gear train of ‘ SUN & PLANET’ type the sun wheel has 15 teeth and is
fixed to the motor shaft rotating at 1500 rpm. The planet P; three in number has 45
teeth's gears with fixed annulus ‘A’ and rotates on a spindle cared by an arm which is
fixed to the output shaft. The planet ‘P’ also gears with the sun wheel ‘S’ Find the
speed of the output shaft, if the motor transmits 2Kw. Find the torque required to fit
the annulus. (20)
10. An internal wheel B with 80teeth is keyed to shaft F. A fixed internal wheel C with 82
teeth is concentric with B. A compound wheel DE gears with the two internal wheels: D
has 28 teeth and gears with C while E gears with B. The compound wheel revolves
freely on a pin, which projects from a disc keyed to a shaft A co-axial with F. If the
wheels have the same pitch and the shaft A makes 800rpm, What is the speed of the
shaft F. Sketch the arrangement. (15)
11. In a reverted epicyclic gear train the arm A carries two wheels B & C and a compound
wheel DE. The wheel C gears with wheel D. The number of teeth on wheel B, C&D are

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

 PESIT
75, 30 & 90 respectively. Find the speed and directions of the wheel C when wheel B is
fixed and the arm A makes 100rpm clockwise (15)
12. In a planetary gear system of sun and planet type, the sun wheel A has 20 teeth and
is fixed to the frame. The arms C with Planet gear wheel B with 40 teeth revolve about
the gear wheel A. When the arm rotates at 30rpm, determine the speed planet gear B
(10)
13. Figure – 13 shows an epicyclic gear train Wheel E is fixed and Wheel C and D are
integrally cast and mounted on the same pin. If arm A makes 1 revolution/ sec (CCW),
determine the speed and direction of the wheels B and F. (15)
14. In the gear train shown in figure – 14. The wheel C is fixed, the gear B is connected to
the input shaft, & the gear F is connected to the output shaft. The arm A, carrying the
compound wheels D & E, turns freely on the output shaft. If the input speed is
100rpm(ccw) when see from right. Determine the speed of output shaft. The No of
teeth on each gear is indicated in the fig. Find the output torque & the holding torque
to keep the wheel C fixed if the input power is 7.5kW* (20)
15. In the epicyclic gear train shown in figure - 15 A gear C, has teeth cut both internally
& externally. The gear C is free to rotate on an arm driven by shaft S1 & meshes
externally with the casing D & internally with pinion B.The gears have the following No.
Of teeth TB=24, TC=32 & 40, TD=48. Determine the vel. Ratio between S1 & S2 when
D is fixed S1 & D when D is fixed
(15)
16. In an epicyclic gear train shown in figure - 16 the internal wheels A, Fand the
compound wheels C, D rotate about the axis O. The wheels B and E rotate on a pin
fixed to the arm L. The wheels have same pitch and the number of teeth on B and E
are 18, C = 28, D = 26. If the arm L makes 150rpm clockwise, find the speed of F
when I) Wheel A is fixed and II) Wheel A makes 15rpm (CCW) by tabular column
method. (10)
17. In an epicycle gear train, the internal wheel A and B the compound wheel C and D
rotate independently about axis O. The wheel E and F rotate on pins fixed to the arm
G. E gears with A and C and F gears with B and D. All wheels have the same module
and the number of teeth are Tc = 28, Td = 26, Tf = 18,
i) Sketch the arrangement
ii) Find the number of teeth on A and B
iii) If the arm G makes 100rpm clock wise and A is fixed, find B speed
iv) If the arm G makes 100 rpm CW and wheel A makes 10rpm, CCW find
speed of B

CAMS

1. Give the classification of cams and follower* (4)

2. Discuss the types of follower displacement diagrams* (4)
3. Write short notes on cams and follower * (4)
4. Why a roller follower is preferred to that of Knife edge follower (4)
5. Explain w.r.t. Cams a) Base Circle b) Pitch circle 3) Pressure angle (6)
6. What are the different types of follower motions (4)
7. Derive an expression for velocity acceleration & displacement when the circular arc
cam is operating on an flat faced follower
(i) When the contact is on the circular flank
(ii) When the contact is on circular nose (10)
8. Derive an expression for velocity acceleration & displacement when the tangent cam is
operating on an radial translating roller follower When the contact is on straight flank
When the contact is on circular nose (4)
9. Draw the outline of a cam which will transmit motion to a roller follower in the
following manner I) the follower to move outwards through a distance of 65 mm
during 180 degree of cam rotation. ii) Follower to return to its initial position during
150 degree of cam rotation. iii) Follower to dwell for the remaining 30 degree of cam

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

 PESIT
rotation. The minimum radius of the cam is 30 mm & the displacement of the follower
is to take place with cycloidal motion both during outward & return strokes. The roller
diameter is 10mm & the follower axis is offset by 10mm from the axis of the shaft. *
(8)
10. Draw the profile of the cam to give the following motion to the follower—Follower to
move through 30mm. During 180oof cam rotation with cycloidal motion. Follower to
return with cycloidal motion during 180o of cam rotation. Base circle dia. of the cam is
30mm and the roller dia of the follower is 10mm.the axis of the roller is offset by 8mm
to the right. Determine the maximum velocity and acceleration of the follower during
the outstroke, when cam rotates at 2000rpm. * (8)
11. A disc cam is required to lift a flat-faced follower with U.A.R.M motion through 30 mm
in 1/3 rd revolution. Keep it fully raised through 1/6th revolution & to lower it with
S.H.M. in 1/3rd revolution and to dwell during rest of the revolution .The minimum
radius of the cam is 25 mm. Draw the cam profile & also determine the maximum
velocity & acceleration of the follower during and return strokes if the cam rotates at
200 rpm clockwise. * (20)
12. Draw the cam profile for the cam with reciprocating follower .The axis of the follower
passes through the axis of the cam. Details of the cam & the follower motion are the
following: Roller dia = 10mm, minimum radius of the cam = 22 mm, Total lift = 25
mm .The cam has to lift the follower with SHM during 180 degree of cam rotation, then
allows the follower to drop suddenly halfway & further return the follower with UARM
during the remaining 180 degree cam rotation. Calculate the maximum velocity &
acceleration of the follower during outstroke
(20)
13. A push rod operated by a cam is to rise and fall with SHM along an inclined path. The
least radius of the cam is 30 mm and push rod is fitted at its lower end with a roller 15
mm diameter. When in its lowest position, the roller center is above the cam axis. The
max. Displacement of the follower is 40 mm in a direction 30 degree to the right of the
vertical .The cam rotates at 100 rpm in a clockwise direction .The time of lift is 0.15
sec & the time of fall is 0.10 sec with a period of rest of 0.05 sec at the upper position,
draw the graphical cam profile. (20)
14. A knife edged follower for the fuel valve of a four stroke diesel engine has its center
line coincident with the vertical center line of the cam .It rises 25 mm with SHM during
600 of cam rotation, then dwells for 30 degree of cam rotation and finally descends
with UARM during 90 degree of cam rotation, the deceleration period being 1/2 the
acceleration period .The least radius of the cam is 30 mm. Draw the profile of the cam
to full size. (10)
15. It is required to set out the profile of a cam for the following data.
i) Follower to move outward through an angular displacement of 20 degree during 900
of cam rotation ii) Follower to dwell for 45 degree of cam rotation .iii) Follower to dwell
for the remaining period of the revolution of the cam .iv) Follower to return to its initial
position of zero displacement in 5 degree of cam rotation. * (20)
16. The distance between the pivot center and the roller follower center is 70mm. Roller
dia is 10mm, minimum radius of cam is 30mm .The location of the pivot is 70mm to
the left and 50mm above the axis of the cam. The motion of the follower is to take
place with SHM during outstroke and with UARM during return stroke, the acceleration
during outstroke of the follower, if the cam speed is 1200rpm. * (15)
17. A cam rotating clockwise at uniform speed of 300rpm operates a reciprocating follower
through a roller 10mm dia the follower motion is defined: (I) Follower to move
outwards during 1200 of the cam rotation with equal uniform acceleration and de-
acceleration. (ii) Follower to dwell in the lifted position for the next 300 of cam
rotation. (iii) Follower to return to its starting position during 1200 of cam rotation with
SHM. (iv) Follower to dwell for the rest of cam rotation* (15)
18. Draw the full size cam profile for a cam with roller of 25mm dia attached to the
follower to give a lift of 35mm. Axis of the follower is offset to right of cam axis by
18mm. Ascend of the follower takes place with SHM in 0.05sec follower by a period of
rest of 0.0125sec. The follower then descends with UARM during 0.125sec and the
B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information
 PESIT
remaining period rest at the minimum lifted position. The acceleration being 3/5 times
retardation. The cam rotates in CCW direction at a constant speed 240rpm and the
base radius is 50mm*(20)
19. A translating roller follower has lift of 4cm. The follower has a uniform acceleration and
retardation motion for both rise and return phases. How ever during the rise
acceleration is twice the retardation. And during return the duration of acceleration is
twice the duration of retardation. The angle of rotation of cam during rise and return is
1500 each. The duration of the dwell before and after the rise is 300. Draw the
displacement diagram of the follower. Do not draw the cam profile* (20)
20. A cam rotates at a uniform speed of 300 rpm clock wise and gives an oscillating
follower 75mm long, an angular displacement of 30 degree in each stroke. The
follower is fitted with a roller of 20mm diameter, which makes contact with the cam.
The outward and inward displacement of the follower each occupying 120 degree cam
rotation and there is no dwell in the lifted position. The follower moves through out by
SHM. The axis of fulcrum is 80mm from the axis of cam and the least distance of roller
axis from cam axis is 40mm* (20)
21. A roller follower is offset to the left by 1.2cm.the base circle radius of the cam is
3cm.the desired displacement of the follower Y for any cam rotation θ is listed in the
table given below. Layout the cam profile if the radius of roller follower is 1cm. The
cam rotates in clockwise direction. * (20)

Cam rotation 0 30 60 90 120 150 180 21 240 270 300 330

θo 0
Follower (cm) 0 0.25 0.92 1.87 2.83 3.50 3.75 3.5 2.83 1.87 0.92 0.25
Y displacement

22. Draw the full size cam profile for a cam with roller of 25mm diameter attached to the
follower to give a lift of 35mm. Axis of the follower is offset to right of cam axis is
18mm. Ascent of the follower takes place with SHM 0.05sec followed by a period of set
0.125sec. The Follower then descends with UARM during 0.125sec and the remaining
period as rest in the minimum lifted position, the acceleration being ¾ times
retardation. The cam rotates in CCW direction at a constant speed of 240rpm and the
base radius is 50mm (20)

* Questions appeared in VTU examinations

METROLOGY & MEASUREMENTS – IP42 B

Faculty: S.V.Satish/ Mukesh Patil
Class # Chapter title / Portions to be covered %
Reference Covered
Literature
PART-A
1–4 Standards of 1.1-Definition and objectives of metrology 8
Measurement: 1.2-Standards of length - international prototype meter
R1:34-40 1.3-Imperial standard yard, wave length standard
R2:311 1.4-Subdivision of standards
1.5-Line and end standards
1.6-Comparison
1.7-Transfer from line standard to end standard
1.8-Calibration of end bars (numericals)
1.9-Slip gauges
1.10-Wringing phenomena
1.11-Indian Standards (M-87, M-112)
B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information
 PESIT
1.12-Numerical problems on building of slip gauges
5 – 13 System of Limits, 2.1-Definition of tolerance 26
Fits, Tolerances 2.2-Specification in assembly
and gauging: 2.3-Principle of interchangeability and selective assembly
R1: 73-110 2.4-Limits of size
R2: 312-446 2.5-Indian standards
2.6-Concept of limits of size and tolerances
2.7-Compound tolerances
2.8-Accumulation of tolerances
2.9-Definition of fits
2.10-Types of fits and their designation (IS 919-1963)
2.11-Geometrical tolerance
2.12-Positional tolerances
2.13-Hole basis system and shaft basis system
2.14-Classification of gauges
2.15-Brief concept of design of gauges (Taylor’s principle)
2.16-Wear allowance on gauges
2.17-Types of gauges -Plain plug gauge, ring gauge, snap
gauge, limit gauge
2.18-Gauge materials
14 – 18 Comparators: 3.1-Introduction to comparator 38
R1 : 63-70 3.2-Characteristics and classification of comparators
R2: 447 - 519 3.3-Mechanical comparators
- Johnson mikrokator
- Sigma comparators
- Dial indicator
3.4-optical comparators-principles
3.5-Zeiss ultra optimeter
3.6-Electric and electronic comparators-principles
3.7-LVDT
3.8-pneumatic comparators
3.9-Back pressure gauges
3.10-Solex comparators
19 – 22 Angular 4.1-Bevel protractor 44
measurements 4.2-Sine principle, Sine bar, Sine center, Angle gauges
and (numericals on building of angles)
Interferometer 4.3-Clinometers
R1 : 111 – 127 4.4-Principle of Interferometry
R2 : 654 - 724 4.5-Autocollimeter
4.6-Optical flats
23 – 26 Screw thread and 5.1-Terminology of screw threads 52
Gear 5.2-Measurement of major diameter
measurement 5.3-Minor diameter
R1 : 174- 190 5.4-Pitch
R2 : 879 -1008 5.5-Angle and effective diameter of screw threads by 2-
wire & 3-wire methods
5.6-Best size wire
5.7-Tool makers microscope
5.8-Gear terminology
5.9-Use of gear tooth Vernier caliper
5.10-Use of gear tooth micrometer
PART-B
26 – 31 Measurements & 6.1-Definition and Significance of measurement 62
Measurement 6.2-Generalised measurement system
systems 6.3-Definition and concept of accuracy
R1: 268-270 6.4-Precision, sensitivity, calibration, threshold,

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

 PESIT
-hysteresis, repeatability linearity, loading effect
-System response, time delay
-Errors in measurements, classification of errors
32 – 35 Transducers 7.1-Transfer efficiency 70
R1:271-314 7.2-Primary and secondary transducers
7.3-Mechanical, Electrical, electronic transducer
7.4-Advantages of each type transducers
36 – 38 Intermediate 8.1-Mechanical systems 76
modifying devices 8.2-Inherent problems
R1: 315-326 8.3-Electrical intermediate modifying devices
8.4-Input circuitry
8.5-Ballast circuit
8.6-Electronic amplifiers and telemetry
39 – 40 Terminating 9.1-Mechanical 80
Devices 9.2-Cathode Ray Oscilloscope
9.3-Oscillographs
9.4-X-Y Plotters
41 – 43 Measurement of 10.1-Principle 86
force & torque 10.2-Analytical balance
R1:368-379 10.3-Platform balance
10.4-Proving ring
10.5-Torque measurement:
- Prony brake dynamometer
- Hydraulic dynamometer
44 – 46 Pressure 11.1-Principle 92
measurements 11.2-Use of elastic members
R1:380-418 11.3-Bridgeman gauge
11.4-Mcleod gauge
11.5-Pirani gauge
47 – 49 Temperature 12.1-Resistance thermometers 98
measurement 12.2-Thermocouple
R1:419-455 12.3-Laws of thermocouple
12.4-Materials used for construction of thermocouple
12.5-pyrometer
12.6-Optical pyrometer
50– 52 Strain 13.1-Strain gauge 100
measurement 13.2-Preparation and mounting of strain gauges
R1:275-312 13.3-Gauge factor
13.4-Methods of strain measurement

Text Books:
1. Mechanical Measurements - Beckwith ,Marangoni & Lienhard
2. Engineering Metrology- I.C.Gupta

Reference Books:
1. Mechanical Measurements – Holeman
2. Mechanical Measurements – Sirohi & Radhakrishna
3. Mechanical measurements-Doblin
4. Metrology for engineers-J.F.Galyer & C.R.Shotbolt
5. Industrial Instrumentation-Alsutko & Jerry.D.Faulk
6. Engineering Metrology - R.K.Jain

Scheme of examination:

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

 PESIT
Four questions to be set from Metrology – Part A
Four questions to be set from Measurements – Part B
Answer any five questions taking at least TWO questions from each part.

QUESTION BANK

PART-A

Chapter 1: Standards of Measurement

1. Define Metrology. Explain various standards of length.

2. What do you understand by line and end standards? Discuss their relative
characteristics.*
3. Enumerate the advantages of using wavelength standard as a basic unit to define
primary standards.*
4. Explain the NPL method of deriving end standards from line standards.*
5. What are Airy points? How do they differ from the points of minimum deflection.*

Chapter 2: System of Limits, Fits, Tolerances and Gauging

1. What is the difference between unilateral and bilateral tolerances? Why unilateral
tolerance is preferred over bilateral tolerance?*
2. Explain what is meant by:
i) Interchangeable part
ii) Universal interchangeability
iii) Local interchangeability*
3. Determine the type of fit, after deciding the fundamental deviations and tolerances in
the following:
Fit Ø 70H9e7, Diameter step (50-80)
Fundamental deviation for e shaft = -11D0.41
IT7=16i, IT9=40i
i=0.453√D+0.001D*
4. Calculate the dimensions of plug and ring gauges to control the production of 50mm
shaft and hole pair of H7d8.The following assumptions may be made.50mm falls in the
diameter step of 30-50mm.Upper deviation for “d”shaft is –16D0.44.
3
IT7=16i,IT8=25i, i=0.45 √D+0.001D *
5. Explain different types of fits.
6. Write neat sketches and explain 'go' and 'Nogo' gauges.
7. Briefly explain interchangeability.
8. Briefly explain selective assembly.
9. Explain Taylor's principle for 'go' and 'Nogo' gauges.
10. Differentiate between:
i) Tolerance and allowance
ii) Hole basis system and shaft basis system *
11. Explain Taylor’s principle for the design of limit gauges. *
12. Illustrate with examples:
i) Geometrical tolerance
ii) Dimensional tolerance
iii) Positional tolerance
13. A shaft-hole pair is designated as H7d8.The standard tolerance is given by
i=0.453√D+0.001D,where D=Diameter(mm)falling in the step 18-30mm.The
fundamental deviation for fit d is given by –16D0.44 Take wear allowance as 10% of the
gauge tolerance. Determine the shaft and hole dimensions, their tolerances, clearance,
interference and the class of fit. Sketch the fit and mark the dimensions clearly. *

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

 PESIT
Chapter 3: Comparators
1. What are the required characteristics of comparators?*
2. What are the advantages of electrical comparator over mechanical comparator?
3. Explain the working of Sigma comparator with neat sketches.
4. Explain the working of Jhonson's Microkrater with neat sketches.*
5. Explain the working of Brook level comparator with neat sketches.
6. Explain the working of Optical comparator with neat sketches.
7. What is the difference between a comparator and a measuring instrument? *

Chapter 4: Angular Measurements

1. Explain why it is preferred not to use a sine bar for generating angles larger than 45oif
high accuracy is desired.*
2. Explain how sine bars are used for measurement of angle. Show the arrangement of
gauges.
i)57o 34’9” ii)12o20’36” *
3. With a neat sketch explain Bevel protractor.
4. With a neat sketch explain Universal Protactor.
5. Give the significance of Clinometer in angular measurement.
6. Write neat sketch and explain the principle of working of Auto Collimeter.
7. How is setup of angular gauges different from simple gauges? Explain with an example.
8. Sketch and label the parts of a Vernier bevel protractor. *
9. Distinguish between:
i) Sine bar and sine center
ii) Angle gauges and slip gauges. *
10. Select the sizes of angle gauges required to build the following angles:
i)31deg29min24sec
ii)102deg8min42sec *

Chapter 5: Screw thread and Gear measurement

1. Give the procedure to measure major and pitch diameter using 3 wire method.
2. Distinguish between 2 wire and 3 wire methods of measuring and suggest the best
one.
3. What are the two corrections applied in the measurement of effective diameter by the
method of wires?*
4. Explain the working principle of Tool Makers Microscope.
5. Describe screw thread terminology with sketch.
6. Compare profile projector with tool makers microscope.
7. What are the various types of pitch errors on threads and explain the reasons for the
same. *
8. How do you find effective diameter of a screw thread using two-wire method. *
9. How do you measure the following in case of a spur gear:
i) Runout
ii) Tooth thickness
iii) Backlash *
10. Explain the terminology of a simple Spur gear
11. Describe a Gear Tooth Vernier caliper and show how this is used for checking gear. *
12. Explain how Gear Tooth Vernier is used for gear measurement.

PART-B

Chapter 6: Measurements and measurement systems

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

 PESIT
1. What do you mean by static calibration? Sketch the calibration curve of an instrument
and explain how it is obtained?*
2. Explain the following:
i) Zero drift and sensitivity drift
ii) Threshold, Resolution and Hysteresis*
3. What are the sources of errors in instruments? Explain*
4. What is a measurement?
5. Draw a block diagram of generalized measurement systems and explain the salient
features of each stage.
6. With the help of examples, distinguish between the two fundamental methods of
measurement.
7. State the three basic elements of a measuring system and give an example to each of
the basic elements.
8. Draw the displacement time characteristics for damped motion and explain the
importance of damping.
9. Draw a block diagram of a generalized measurement system and explain the salient
feature of each stage.
10. Distinguish between:
i) Digital and Analog measurement
ii) Direct reading and null balancing *
11. For Oscillating systems, show that, a more sensitive instrument oscillates more
slowly than a less sensitive instrument.
12. Draw a neat block diagram of measurement system employed for measuring
acceleration.
13. Explain the following: i) Accuracy ii) Sensitivity iii) Precision
14. Explain briefly the different types of errors encountered during measurement.
15. Write a brief note an treatment of multisampling data.
16. What are the requirements and objectives of measurement?
17. State and explain the various forms of input to the instrument.
18. Explain with an example the various stages of a generalized measurement system. *
19. Explain with sketches:
i) Hysteresis
ii) Threshold
iii) Repeatability
iv) Sensitivity drift *

Chapter 7: Transducers
1. Define the word Transducer. What do you understand by active and passive
transducers? Give examples.*
2. Explain the following with neat sketches:
i)Mutual inductance transducer
ii)Piezo electric transducer*
3. Explain any one type of elastic transducer with a neat sketch.*
4. Mention the advantages of electrical primary detector transducer elements over other
types.
5. Describe with a neat sketch the ionization transducer.
6. Define transfer efficiency.
7. Mention six mechanical elements used as detector transducers and indicate the
operations, which they perform.
8. Discuss the relative merits and demerits of mechanical and electrical transducers.
9. What are the parameters on which capacitive transducers are developed. Explain the
working of a pickup used for determining the level of liquid nitrogen with a neat sketch.
10. With a neat sketch explain the working of a transducer using electro kinetic
phenomenon and indicate its applications.
11. Explain the principle of working of a linear variable differential transducer with a neat
sketch and illustrate its characteristics.

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information

 PESIT
12. What are the relative merits and demerits of electrical transducers over mechanical
transducers?
13. Explain the principle of working of a piezoelectric transducer with a neat sketch.
14. What are primary and secondary transducers? Explain with examples.
15. Explain the working of a electronic transducer with a neat sketch.
16. What are active and passive transducers, give examples.
17. Explain the principle of variable resistance transducers with a neat sketch.
18. What are photoelectric transducers? Explain any one type with a neat sketch.
19. Explain the principle of variable inductance transducer with a neat sketch.
20. Distinguish between active and passive transducers. *
21. Explain with neat sketches the following:
i) Piezo electric transducer
ii) Ionization transducer *
11. Discuss briefly with sketches two types of elastic pressure transducers. *

Chapter 8: Intermediate modifying devices

1. Explain in brief inherent problems encountered in mechanical systems as intermediate
modifying devices.
2. Give the advantages of electrical modifying devices compared to mechanical ones.
3. Explain with a neat sketch ballast circuit.
4. Write short notes on:
i) Electronic amplifiers
ii) Telemetry

Chapter 9:Terminating Devices

1. With a neat sketch explain the construction and working of Cathode ray oscilloscope.
2. Write short notes on:
i) Oscillographs
ii) X-Y Plotters

Chapter 10: Measurement of force and torque

1. With the help of a neat sketch explain the working of a prony brake dynamometer.*
2. Explain with a neat sketch the analytical balance. *
3. Write a note on hydraulic dynamometer
4. How is electric dynamometer different from mechanical ones?
5. Explain with a neat sketch, the method of torque measurement of rotating shafts using
strain gauges. *

Chapter 11:Pressure measurements

1. Explain with sketches the proper orientation of strain gauges for measurement of (i)
Bending strain (ii) Torsional strain (iii) Axial strain.
2. How do you define high pressure range and low pressure range.
3. Explain with neat sketch the working of any one device used for measurement for high
pressure.
4. Explain with a neat sketch the working and application of a Bridgeman gauge.*
5. With neat sketches explain Mcleod and Pirani gauges.
6. With neat sketches, explain the working principle of :
i) Mcleod gauge
ii) Knuolsm gauge *

Chapter 12: Temperature measurement

1. What are pyrometers? Explain any one.
2. How resistance thermometer is used to measure temperature with advantages.
3. Explain the thermocouple way of measuring temperature.*
4. Differentiate between radiation and pressure thermometer.
5. With a neat sketch explain bi-metal strip thermometer. *
6. With a neat sketch explain resistance thermometer. *
B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information
 PESIT
7. What is temperature sensitivity? Explain how is it compensated. *

Chapter 13: Strain measurement

1. Explain with respect to strain gauges:
i) Cross sentivity
ii) Temperature compensation
iii) Positioning of gauges to measure torsional strain
2. Write a note on bonding materials of strain gauges. *
3. Write a note on thermocouple materials and some forms of thermocouple construction.
*
4. How do you calibrate the given strain gauge? *
5. Enumerate the necessary precautions to be taken while mounting a strain gauge on
a test piece. *

*Appeared in VTU exam papers

B.E. Mechanical 4th Semester Course Information