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INDIAN INSTITUTE OF SCIENCE BANGALORE - 560012 ENTRANCE TEST FOR ADMISSIONS - 2010 Program : Integrated Ph.D Entrance Paper Biological Sciences Paper Code : BS Day & Date SUNDAY, 25™ APRIL 2010 Time 2.00 P.M. TO 5.00 P.M. 4. INTEGRATED Ph.D. BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES The following data refer to the hydrolysis of various tripeptides into their N- terminal amino acids and C-terminal dipeptides. A. L-Pro-Gly-Gly B. L-Leu-Gly-Gly C. L-Ala-Gly-Gly D. L-Ala-L-Ata-L-Ala Which substrate (A, B, C, or D) would be hydrolysed most rapidly in the early stages of reaction if a sample of enzyme was added to a mixture of all four substrates in equimolar concentration ? An enzyme with a Ky of 1.2 x 10“ M was assayed at an initial substrate concentration of 0.02 M. By 30 sec, 2.7 micro molesiliter of the product had been produced. How much product will be present at 3 min? 16.2 moles per litre 16.2 nano moles per litre 16.2 micromolar ~ 46. 2 pico moles per litre pomp According to the sequential model for allosteric proteins, which of the following statements is true for hemoglobin? A, Each of the four subunits in hemoglobin changes one at a time from the low affinity state to the high affinity state B. The alpha subunits followed by the beta subunits change from the low affinity to the high affinity state . C. The beta subunits followed by the alpha subunits change from the low affinity to the high affinity state D. Each of the four subunits in the hemoglobin tetramer is either in a low affinity state or a high affinity state The ‘iv axis of a reciprocal plot is labeled v": (nmoles per liter per min) x 102. The ‘/{s} axis is labeled [s} “": (M) 7 x 10%. The plot intersects the two axes at "2" and "-4" respectively. The Vmexand Km values are: A. 50 moles /L/ min; 2.5 X 10* M B. 50 micro moles /L/'min; 2.5 X 104 M C. 50 nano moles /L/ min; 2.5 X 10% M D. 50 pico moles /L/ min; 2.5 X 104 M Evolutionary homology is similarity due to common ancestry. Which of the {following characters are evolutionary homologies? A. wing of a bird and a bat B. beak of a vulture and an egle C. fin of a fish and a whale D. webbed feet of a duck and a frog Locus A in a diploid organism has two alleles At and A2, where A1 is dominant over A2. Additionally A2 is deleterious in the homozygous condition. Allele A2 takes a long time to get eliminated from the population because A. A1 is harbored in the heterozygotes B. A‘ is harbored in the homozygotes C. A2 is harbored in the heterozygotes: D. A2 is harbored in the homozygotes In a population of 100 diploid individuals, the frequency of neutral alleles A1 and A2 are 0.4 and 0.6 respectively. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and no change in population size, the frequency of heterozygotes after five generations is: A. 0.36 B. 0.32 Cc. 0.46 D. 0.48 Which of the following ions is a critical player in the event of neurotransmnitter release at synapses between neurons? » A. Nat B. K+ C. Catt D. Mg++ Myelination of axons results in ‘A. An increase in the frequency of firing of action potentials B. A decrease in the frequency of firing of action potentials C. A decrease in the velocity of conduction of action potentials D. An increase .in the velocity of conduction of action potentials . A songbird species produces specific alarm calls in the presence of aerial predators such as eagles. On hearing an alarm call, individual songbirds drop what they are doing and fly into trees. In an observational field study, the . 11, 12, 13, 14, number of eagle alarm calls produced in different contexts was recorded and the results are shown below: Behavioural context Number of eagle alarm calls observediday Presence of eagles 35 Absence of eagles, songbirds 70 foraging Absence of eagles, songbirds 0 not foragi ing - The above results may be construed as evidence for A. Mimicry B. Advertisement C. Deception D. Camouflage In angiosperm plants, the gametophyle phase is represented by A. The seed B. The anther C. The pollen tube D. The flower Wf the main determinant of human height was a one-locus, two-allele ‘system, the distribution of heights in the population would be . A. Normal poe B. Bimodal ’ C. Binomial D. Poisson Cheetahs in the Sérengeti population in Africa show very low ievels of heterozygosity. Which of the following processes is least likely to cause such a pattern? A. A founder effect B. A bottleneck event C. Frequent migration events between connected populations D. Frequent breeding events between close relatives Rapid climate change is predicted to expose organisms to new environmental Conditions. Which of the following combinations of life history tralls is most likely to help populations cope with novel environment conditions and thereby prevent population extinctions? 5 15. 16. 47. “18. A, Tong generation times and high intrinsic rates of increase B. long generation times and low intrinsic rates of increase C. short generation times and low intrinsic rates of increase D. short generation times and high intrinsic rates of increase The figure below shows the relationship between population growth rate and population size. Population Growth rate aN dt Slope =», intrinsic rate of increase Population size N Which of the following statements is TRUE for such a population? A. Per capita growth rate is greatest when population size is small. B. Per capita growth rate is greatest when population sizes are moderate. C. Per capita growth rate is constant D. Per capita growth rate is smallest when population size is targe Which of the following best represents the ordering of some major biomes of the planet according to decreasing net primary production (Highest to lowest)? A. Tropical rain forests, Mixed broad/needle leaf forests, Savennas, Tundra B. Savannas, Mixed broad/needle leaf forests, Tropical rain forests, Tundra C. Tropical rain forests, Mixed broad/needle leaf forests, Tundra, Savannas D. Tropical rain forests, Savannas, Mixed broad/needle leaf forests, Tundra DNA from which taxon would be the best to use to prove the connection between India and Seychelles Islands in the Indian Ocean in geological time A. Bats B. Birds C. Frogs D. Sharks The peppered moth (Bision betularia) is a classic example of. industrial melanism. Which of the following best describes industrial melanism in the peppered moth? 19. 20. 21 22. 23. A. The frequency of dark phenotypes decreased when airborne pollution during the industrial era which changed the bark color on trees. B. The frequency of dark phenotypes decreased throughout the species range when airborne pollution which changed the bark color on trees near industrial areas. ©. The frequency of dark phenotypes increased with the level of airbome pollution during the industrial era which changed the bark colour on trees. D. The frequency of dark phenotypes increased throughout the species range when airborne pollution during the industrial era which changed the bark colour on trees near industrial areas. Plants bend toward a light source as a result of A. the increased amount of food synthesized by their leaves B. an unequal auxin distribution in their stems C. the necessity of light for transpiration D. an inability to synthesize chemical regulators Light of which colour is least important to a green plant during photosynthetic activities? A. green B. yellow C. blue D. orange What percentages can be expected in the offspring of a cross between a female - carrier for colour blindness and a male with normal colour vision? A. 25% normal male, 25% colour blind males, 25% normal females, 25% carrier females B. 25% normal males, 25% colour blind males, 25% carrier females, 25% colour blind females C. 75% normal males, 25% carrier females D. 60% colour blind males, 50% colour blind females Which enzyme is the target of the cholesterol lowering drugs known as statins? A. DNA polymerase : B. Cathepsin C. RNA polymerase D. HMG-CoA synthase What is the main target of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)? A. 208 proteasomes B. Cyclooxygenase 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. C. DNA polymerase D. RNA polymerase Which cytokine is induced by T cells upon activation and acts as an autocrine growth factor? A. ILA BIL2 Cc. ILS D. #10 Filariasis is caused by A. Leishmania tropicana B. Entamoeba histolytica C. Wucheria bancrofti D. Toxoplasma gondii In which cells is expression of the IgE receptor seen during allergy? A. T lymphocytes B. B lymphocytes C. Mast cells D. Neutrophils From which layer ofthe mammalian embryo does the nervous system form? A. Ectoderm 8. Mesoderm C. Endoderm D. Choroid A salient principle of the neuronal network organization in the brain is that A. Neurites are fused together to form a continuous network B. Neurites are not continuous and communicate by contact. C. Neurons in a network may not have dendrites D. Axons are always myelinated Which of the following correctly describes nerve cells? ‘A. in comparison to copper wires, nerve cells are better conductors of electricity. B. Nerve cells are similar in their electrical conduction properties to copper wires. . 8 30. 34. 32. 33. 34. 35. C. Nerve cells are electron sinks: they absorb many electrons, but no electricity comes out of them, D. In comparison to copper wires, nerve cells are poorer conductors of electricity. During development of the nervous system: ‘A. The neurons of the central nervous system arise from the neural crest, and the neurons of the peripheral nervous system arise from the neural tube. B. The three vesicles that give rise to the brain are called the telencephalon, diencephalon, and the cerebrum. - ©. The cerebrospinal fluid distributes the neurons of the nervous system. D. The neurons of the central nervous system arise from the neural tube, and the neurons of the peripheral nervous system arise from the neural crest, What law best describes the upper limit to the conductance of an ion channel? A. Ohm's law B. Nemst’s law C. Faraday's iaw D. Newton's law lon channels in the cochlear hair cells produce an electrical signal in response to sound waves, Their ion channels work by: ‘A. Opening in response to a physical membrane deformation B.. Sensing sound directly €. Converting sound into an electromagnetic signal D. Increasing their voltage in response to sound ‘White matter of the brain is composed of: A. Glial cells B. Neurons C. Axons: D. Dendrites Bacteria known to be naturally competent for transformation by foreign DNA are A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Escherichia coil B. Yersinia pestis and Mycobacterium smegmatis C. Bacillus subtilis and Haemophilus influenzae D. Escherichia colf and Yersinia pestis During prokaryotic transcription A. DNA gyrase introduces negative supercoils and DNA Topoisomerase | removes negative supercoils 9 36. a. 38. 40. 41. B. Both DNA gyrase and DNA topoisomerase introduce negative supercoils C. DNA Topoisomerase | introduces negative supercoils and DNA gyrase removes negative supercoils D. Both DNA gyrase and’ DNA Topoisomerase I remove supercoils A recessive allele t is responsible for a condition called Dystonia. A man who has this condition has children with a woman who does not have this condition. ‘One of their four children has Dystonia. What are the possible genotypes of the man and woman? A. The father is Tt; the mother is TT. B. The father is tt; the mother is TT. C. Both parents are tt. D. The father is tt; the mother is Tt. Which of the following compounds would have the highest boiling point? A. CHsCH2CH2CHy B. CHsNH2 , CH3OH D. CHAF2 The presence of many genes on the same chromosome results in the violation of ‘A. Mende''s law of dominance B. Mendel's law of segregation . C. Mende''s law of independent assortment D. Darwin's theary of evolution The critical aspect of DNA that allows faithful copying of genetic information is A. its double helical structure B. complementarity of bases C. presence of the genetic code D. presence of an RNA intermediate The presence of a nonsense mutation in a gene can give rise to - A. ashorter polypeptide due to premature termination of translation B: a modified protein with completely different amino acids C. transcription goes beyond the normal 3’ end . D. translation goes beyond the normal C-terminal Evolution by natural selection means A. selection is responsible for the introduction of variations B. the processes of selection and generation of variations are independent C. selection is more significant than the variations D. variations are more significant than selection . 10 43. 45. 46. 47. The generation time for the bacterial strain A is 30 minutes and strain B is 60 minutes. if a culture containing an equal mixture of A and 8 is grown, after 10 hours, the culture will consist predominantly of A. Acells B. Bells C. An equal mixture of A and B D. Dead cells Replication of chromosomal DNA is A. continuous on both strands B, discontinuous on both strands C. continuous on one strand and discontinuous on the other strand D. random on both strands ‘Which of the following is not a monosaccharide? A. Glucose B. Lactose C. Fructose D. Mannose The Na* ion has ‘A. One electron less than the Na atom B. One proton more than the Na atom C. One proton and one neutron more than the Na atom D. One electron and one neutron less than the Na atom Which of the following is correct? Those with blood group AB ‘A. can donate to those with blood group A B. can donate to those with blood group B C. can donate to those with blood group O D. can receive from those with blood group O : . Chitin is a polymer of A. -GleNAci 1 ,4GicNAc- B. -Gal81,4Gal- C. -Galat,4Gal- D, —GleNAch1 ,3GIcNAc- uw 48 49. 51. 52. 53. The largest possible circle is inscribed in a square, The ratio-of the perimeter of the square and the circle is: Aan B. 4: 0/2 C. 4:1 D.4:% Let us consider m®?" and n°" where m and n are two integers with m > n, Which one of the following statements is true? A. m®9" jg greater than ni" B. m®9" is smaller than n%?™ C. m9" and n°" are equal D. No general statement can be made on the relative magnitude of m9" and oo Imagine 20 residues of a protein spans the membrane of a cell in an a-helical conformation. Given that there are 3.6 residues per turn of the helix and the pitch of the helix is 5.4A calculate the thickness of the transmembrane in A units. A. 15 8. 30 Cc. 45 D. 60 As 0 takes values very close to 1/2 what is the value of the function cos6/sin26? AO B. 0.5 c.1 D. indeterminate Identify the amino acid with the most hydrophobic side chain. A. Tyrosine B. Tryptophan C. Histidine D. Proline How many hydrogen bonds stabilize a 2000 long B-DNA when 30% of all the bases in the DNA are Guanine? A. 2300 B. 2700 C. 4600 D. 5400 12 54, “Which One of the following represents the plot between sin’0 (along X-axis) and cos’ (along Y-axis)? A 8. A [| |_____» c. D. 55. Identify the amino acid with more than one chiral centre. A. Isoleucine B. Valine C. Arginine D. Proline |. The most favourable conformation for glucose is A. Planar structure B. Half chair form . Chair form D. Boat form . A boy tides his bicycle from home to school and his cycle wheels are of the same diameter of 70 cm. He covers the total distance of 2.2 kilometers in 7 minutes. What is the approximate number of rotations made by one of the wheels of the bicycle? A. 500 B. 1000 . 2000 D. 4000 }. The maximum absorption for a protein molecule would be at A. 340 nm 8. 280nm C. 220m D. 190 nm B 59. 60. 61. 62. The diffusion coefficient for a molecule at infinite dilution in a non-interacting solvent depends upon A. The shape of the molecule. B. The viscosity and shape of the molecule. C. Viscosity, shape and temperature D, Independent of these parameters at infinite dilution Ata constant velocity, the wavelength corresponding to an electron is A. greater than that of a neutron B. jess than that of a neutron C. dependent on whether the electron is de-tocalized D. same as that of a neutron A sphere and a cylinder having the same mass and radius start from rest and roll down the same incline. Which of the following is true? ‘A. The sphere gets to the bottom first B. The cylinder gets to the bottom first €. The sphere and cylinder reach the bottom at the samie time D. The answer would depend upon the length of the cylinder ‘The most symmetrical arrangement would be in a A. Hexagonal system B. Orthorhombic system C. Cubic system D. Rombohedral system ‘Tissue which attaches skin to underlying muscles is called: A. Ligament B. Areolar tissue C. Adipose tissue D. Reticular fibres Which of the following animals belongs to the class Gastropoda ? A. Mussel B. Cuttlefish C. Clam D. Slugs 14 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. In a healthy individual almost 3 litres of fluid and some blood proteins diffuse out of the capillaries each day. The lost fluid is returned fo the circulatory system by A. Diffusion from the interstitial fluid in to the capillaries B. Active transport in the endothelial cells of the capillary wall. G. Absorption by the cells lining the intestine D. The lymphatic system If you mix equal volumes of two buffers at pH 6 and pH 8 of identical ionic strengths, what will be the resultant pH of the mixture? AT B. ~8.3 Cc. 6.3 D. ~14 The method to produce plants homozygous for all traits is A. Tissue culture B. Anther culture C. Embryo culture ‘D. Meristem culture Identify the correct statement A. Plants adapted to a cold environment have more unsaturated fatty acids in their cell membranes : B. Plants adapted to a hot environment have more saturated fatty acids in their cell membrane C. Plants adapted to cold & hot environments have more saturated fatty acids in their cell membranes D. Plants found at high altitudes are always tall Match the following p. Handicap principle 1. R.K. Pachauri g. Telomeres 2. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan . Structure of translational machinery 3. Elizabeth Blackburn s. Global warming & climate change 4, Amotz Zahavi A. pl, g-4,1-2, 8-3 B. p-3,q-4, 1-4, 8-2 C. p-4.q-3,1-2, 541 D. p-2, 0-4, 1-3, s+1 Bt brinjal is a genetically modified variety where ‘ 15 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. . A bacterial toxin gene has been introduced to make the plant more resistant to herbicides A bacterial gene has been introduced to make the fruit rich in protein . A gene has been introduced to make it more drought resistant . A bacterial toxin gene is introduced to make the plant more resistant to certain insect pests gon p> Ribosomes can be completely destroyed by which of the following treatments? A. Ribonuclease B. Trypsin and ribonuclease C. DNAse and ribouclease D. Chymotrypsin Which of the following mixtures would form two phases? A. Methanol and Water B. Formaldehyde and water C. Chloroform and water - D. Acetic acid and water Rank the following compounds in the order of decreasing oxidation state of the atom that undergoes a redox change: Potassium dichromate (KCr207) Potassium permanganate (KMnO.) Manganese dioxide (MnO2} Potassium chlorate (KCIO3) vrep q>p>s>r Pprgrs p>qrs>r S>r>p>q gom> What is the maximum number of proteins of size 333 or more amino acids that can be coded for by a double stranded 1000 base pair long DNA? pop> cone Which of the following viruses establishes latent infection in neuronal cells? A. Poliovirus B. Herpes Simplex virus C. Japanese encephalitis D. Dengue virus 16 . The genome of M13 bacteriophage consists of A. ssDNA B. ssRNA ‘ C. dsDNA D. dsRNA . Which of the following proteins is present in nails and hoofs? A. Collagen B. Elastin C. Gelatin D. Keratin ‘Which of the following chemical reagents cannot damage DNA? A. Ethyl methyl sulphate B. Nitrosoguanidine C. Ethyinitrosourea D. Sodium dodecyl sulphate . Which of the following reagents can be used to distinguish between DNA and RNA? ‘A. Congo Red B. Pyridine C. Methylene blue D. Sodium hydroxide — . Which of the following molecules can form a homopolymer? A. Bactoprenol phosphate B. N-acetyl glucosamine C. N-acetyl muramic acid D. Teichoic acid |. Okazaki fragments were prepared from an E. coli strain harboring pBR322 plasmid, These fragments were then hybridized to single stranded DNA molecules prepared by carefully separating the two strands of the E. colf chromosome and the plasmid. The Okazaki fragments would anneal to A. Both the strands of the chromosome and the plasmid B. Both the strands of the chromosome but only one strand of the plasmid G. One strand of the chromosome but both the strands of the plasmid D. One strand each of the chromosome and the plasmid 7 82. If an rRNA sample was degraded into its constituent nucleotides, the absorbance of this sample at 260 nm would A. decrease if the degradation was effected by alkaline digestion but increase if the same was treated with ribonuclease B. increase if the degradation was effected by alkaline digestion but decrease if the same was effected by a ribonuclease C. remains unaltered, irrespective of the method D. increase irrespective of the use of either chemical or enzymatic means 83. A plasmid of 2200 bp size was isolated from E. coli and found to have a linking number (Lx) of 190, The negative value of the writhe (W,) for this plasmid would A. be more if the DNA adopted an Aform structure than if it did a B-form structure . B. be less if the DNA adopted an A-form structure than if it did a B-form structure C. be independent of the A-form or the B-form structures of the DNA D. vary only if the DNA in the plasmid adopted a Z-form structure 84. The Shine-Dalgarno sequence found upstream to the initiation codon in eubacterial mRNAs facilitates binding to the A. 30S ribosomal subunit via the 16S rRNA B. 50S ribosomal subunit via the 23S rRNA. C. 30S ribosomal-subunit via the 5S rRNA. D. 50S ribosomal subunit via the 5S rRNA 85. The resolving power of the human eye with normal vision is about A. 1 metre B. 0.1 metres C. 1 millimetre D.'0.1 millimetres 86. Over a number of meiotic cycles, it is seen that genes A and B are always associated with each other. This means that they are likely to be . in.nuclear DNA in mitochondrial DNA . on the same chromosome ). on different sides of the centromere pop> 87. The cross between a mutant female mouse and @ normal male mouse gives tise to offspring that are all mutant; the reciprocal cross gives rise to offspring that are all normal. This means that the mutation is likely to be 13, 88. 89. 90. a1, 92. in the mitochondrial genome B. in the nuclear genome ¢. dominant D. recessive {f the average molecular weight of one amino acid is 110, the molecular weight of a peptide made up of 10 amino acids is expected to be A. 1100 B. 938 C. 876 D. 744 If the polar ice melts entirely because of globat warming, the rate at which the earth rotates around its own axis should slow down speed up vary cyclically remain unchanged coRp> Many organisms can synthesize all the 20 common amino acids, but humans cannot. The likely cause behind this is that ‘A. humans get all the amino acids they need from food B. humans need proteins, not amino acids C. humans are getting used to synthetic foods D. human evolution was preceded or accompanied by the inactivation of some genes Hydrogen and helium are the two most common elements in the universe, but they are missing from the earth’s atmosphere. This is believed to be because ‘A. The earth is not massive enough to retain them 8. They have been used up in chemical reactions C. They were absorbed by the outer crust D. The primitive earth was not hot enough Assume that an animal generates heat at a rate proportional to its volume and can radiate heat at a rate proportional to its body surface area. Which of these animals would be best at maintaining its body temperature in a cold climate? A. Mouse B. Rabbit 19 93. 94, 95. 97: 98. C. Fox D. Bear in a binary chemical reaction A + B -> C, the concentrations of both A and B are doubled. Then the rate at which C is formed will A. Quadruple 4 B. Triple C. Double D. Remain constant Compared to active transport, diffusion is more efficient over A. Short distances B. Short times C. Large distances D. Large times As the atomic number of an element increases, the orbital radius of a ground state electron A. Decreases B. Increases C. Stays the same D. Becomes impossible to measure ‘The Weber-Fechner law states that the magnitude of a perceived sensation increases as the logarithm of the stimulus intensity. Assume a background stimulus level of 1 unit. Suppose this is increased to 10 units (situation A) or to 100 units (situation B). Then the perceived sensation in situation B is stronger than the sensation perceived in situation A by a factor of Ad B. 2 c. 10 D. 100 Which one of the following is not optically active? A. mesotartaric acid B. dextro tartaric acid C. Levotartaric acid D. alanine Which one' of the following is not. an auto immune disease A. Systemic lupus erythromatosis 20 99, 100. B. Multiple sclerosis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Alzheimer's disease Present day pregnancy tests utilize immunoassays that can detect one of the following in the blood/urine within a few days after embryo transplantation A. Oxytocin B. Human chorionic gonadotropin C. Progesterone D. Follicle stimulating hormone Which protease is involved in programmed cell death? A. Chymotrypsin B. Calreticulin C. Caspase D. Cathepsin 2b INDIAN INSTITUTE OF SCIENCE BANGALORE - 560012 ENTRANCE: TEST FOR ADMISSIONS - 2010 Program : Integrated Ph.D Entrance Paper : Chemical Sciences Paper Code : CS Day & Date SUNDAY, 25" APRIL 2010 Time 2.00 P.M. TO 5.00 P.M. INSTRUCTIONS 1. This question paper consists of only multiple-choice questions. All questions carry one ‘mark each. . Answers are 1o be marked in the OMR sheet provided. For each question, darken the appropriate bubble to indicate your answer. Use only HB pencils for bubbling answers. Mark only one bubble per question. If you mark more than one bubble, the answer will be evaluated as incorrect. If you wish to change your answer, please erase the existing mark completely before marking the other bubble. 7. There will be NEGATIVE marking. NEGATIVE marking for cach wrong answer will be 1/3, 8, A PERIODIC TABLE has been provided in the last page’of this booklet. + 9. Listed below are some useful physical constants: pass 2 (A) Universal gas constant R = 831451 Jmol" K" 0.08206 L atm mol K" (B) Planck’s constant, h = 6626x1038 (C) Acceleration due to gravity g = 98ms* (D) Speed of light in vacuum e 2.998 x 10%°m s! ~(E) Avogadro’s number N = 6023 x 10” molt (F) Boltzmann constant - k= 1380x102 5Kt (G) Electron charge e 1,602 x 10°C (H) Electron mass me = 9.109% 107! Kg (D), Permittivity of the vacuum & = 8854x107 Fm" Q) Faraday constant F = 965x10°C mot! (K) | Calorie = 4184) (L) L atm = 160 Tor (M) lev = 1.6022 x 107° 5 L ‘Chemical Sciences In the van der Waals equation shown below, (P + WalV?\(V = nb) = RT which of the following gases has the highest vaiue for b? (A) CHa @®)Cck (€) CHCl (D)H:0 {f aqueous solutions of the following salts.were all prepared at the same molality, which. solution would you expect to have the lowest freezing point? (A) NaCl (B) NaxSO4 {C) CHCOONa {D) AI(NO})s 98 % of a compound dissolved in 25 mL of water gets extracted into 50 mL of ethyl acetate. The distribution coefficient of the compound between ethyl acetate and water is: (A) 24.5 (B) 49, (C) 98 @)2 ‘The method of initial rates is used to measure the rate law for the reaction given below: 2NO (g) + 2H2(g)——* No(g) + 2H,0(g) The following initial rates are determined. P, denotes the partial pressure of species A. Pyo(tom) Paz (torr) Initial rate (torr/s) 200 400 0.46 400 200 0.92 400 400 1.85 The rate equation for the above process is: (A) Rate =k Pro (B) Rate =k P’yo Pro (C) Rate =k Pyo Pip (D) Rate =k P’yo Pi 5. Which of the following molecules will exhibit a pure rotational spectrum? @ HCI a) CHy (i) PF; (A) Lonly (B) ILonly (C) Land I only (D) 11 only . Copper sulphate spontaneously erystallizes out of a supersaturated solution on standing, of upon addition of a seed crystal. For this process, which of the following thermodynamic relations applies? (A)45<0 and AH <0 (B)AS<0 and AG> 0, (C)AS> 0 and A> 0 (D)AS> O and AG<0 . For the reaction, Na(g) + 3HX(e) == 2NEL(g) AHP =-92 1d “Which of the following conditions is most effective in driving the equilibrium to the right? (A) High pressure and low temperature (B)High pressure and high temperature, (C) Low pressure and high temperature (D) Moderate pressure and the presence of a suitable catalyst |. A radioactive isotope of copper, Cu®, decays via the reaction shown below: “cu —> “Zn + 6 ‘The half-life of this reaction is 12.8 hours. Starting with 100 g of “Cu, how much “Zn will be produced in 51.2 hours? (A)87.58 (B)94.25 g (675g DBs 9. A system of C components at fixed temperature and pressure exists in equilibrium in P phases. The total number of intensive variables that characterizes the system is: (AycP +2 (B)CP (CP +2 @Mce+2 10. When i.0 kJ of energy is added to 5.0 L of an ideal gas, the gas expands against a ~~ constant extemal pressure of 1.0 bar to a final volume of 8.0 L.-The change in internal energy, AU, of the gas is: (you may assume that 1.0 L.bar = 0.1 kJ) (A)0.3 kd (B)O-7 ki (C10 kr (D)18 WT 11, Which-of the following characterizes the refationship between B, the volume thermal expansion coefficient of an isotropic solid, and a, its linear thermal expansion coefficient? (A)B=@ (OB=08 ()B=a"” 12. Which of the following is NOT a statement of the second law of thermodynamics ? (A)Heat cannot be completely converted to work in a cyelic process. (B)In any cyclic process heat cannot be transferred from a cold reservoir to a hot reservoir without doing work. . (C)In any spontaneous process, the entropy change is always positive. (D)in the neighbourhood of every Equilibrium state, there are some states that cannot berreached by any adiabatic process. 13. The constant volume molar heat capacity Cy of a solid is approximately given by the formula Cy= aT’, where a is a constant. What is the change in entropy of 7.8 g of Al ‘when itis heated at constant volume from 10 K to 20 K? (A) 700a (B) 70000 (23330 (D) 14000 14. The figure below shows the phase diagram of a simple one-component system. Which of the following statements about this system is NOT true? P| Pressure Ti. Temperature th (A)In state A of the system, none of the intensive variables can be varied independently. {B) At temperatures greater than Tp, no distinetion can be made between the liquid and vapour phases of the system. (C) At the fixed pressure Pp, an increase in temperature from T, to T: leads to sublimation of the solid. (D)At the fixed temperature Tp, a decrease in pressure from Pp to Pe leads to evaporation of the liquid. 15. A weak acid HA has a K, of 1.00 x 10°, If 0.100 moles of this acid is dissolved in | litre of water, the percentage of the acid dissociated at equilibrium is closest to: (A)0.100 % (B) 1.00% (©) 99.0% (D) 99.9% 16. One litre of a 1 molar solution of CuSO, is electrolyzed. After the passage of IF of electricity, the molarity of CuSOs in the solution will be: (A)0sM - (B)0.25M (C)0.1M (D)OM 17. Ifa plane in a cubic crystal intersects the a, b and c axes at 1, 2 and infinity, respectively, its Miller indices will be : (A) (12.0) (B) 210) (C) (12) D) (210) 18. The compressibility factor, Z, ofa gas is defined as the ratio of the molar volume of the gas to the molar volume of an ideal gas at the same temperature T and pressure P. In the figure below, Z is plotted as a function of P. Pam Which of the four curves A, B, C or D most likely represents the behavior of nitrogen? (AVA (B) B (Cc (@)D 19. A.0.01 M solution of HCI is placed in a cell whose cell constant is 0.4 om. The resistance of the solution is measured to be 97.2 Q. The molar conductivity of the HCL solution is therefore: (A) 411 1 em? molt (B) 0.00411 9 cm? mot (C) 0.411 2 cin? mol! (D) 4.11.0" cm? mot"! 20. The ratio of the diffusivity of gaseous methane to gaseous‘ sulphur dioxide is: (A) 05 @)2 C4 (0)0.25 21. A compound alloy of gold and copper crystallizes in a cubic lattice in which the gold atoms occupy the lattice points at the comers of the cube and the copper atoms occupy the centres of each of the cube faces. The formula of this compound is therefore: (A) AuCuy (B) AwCus © AusCu (D) AuzCus 22, A sample of hemoglobin was found to contain 0.4% of Fe by weight. If the hemoglobin molecule contains | atom of Fe, what is the molecular weight of hemoglobin? (A) cannot be estimated : (B) 14000 g/mol (C)1400 g/mol (D)140 g/mol 23. The wavelength of an electron accelerated through a potential of 100 KV is: (A)37A (B)3.7A (C) 0.037 A (p)0.37A * 24, Inthe energy level diagram shown below, 3 15cm" 10cm" what is the wave number of the transition from level 1 to level 3? 7 (A) 150 cm? a (B) 25 emt (©) 5m" (D)6 cmt 25. Of the following molecules, which has the highest vibrational frequency (D and T stand for deuterium and tritium, respectively)? (A) Fa () HD (C) BT (0) D2 26, Which of the following complexes shows a distorted octahedral geometry? (A)INIEO)6]* @B) ince," (©) [Fe(H20)cF* (D) [CuO 27. Which of the following compounds does not obey the EAN rule? (A)Mn(CO)10 (B)Ru(n®-CeHle)2 (C)Crin-Cofte)a (D)Fe(CO)s 28. Which of the following molecules or ions has a square planar structure? (A)CFa (B) XeFa (C)SeFs (D) BFS 29. Which of the following catalysis is used for hydroformylation reactions? (AYTICh + AIC {B) Pt on asbestos CORKCIPPA)s (D)CoxCO}s 30. In which of the following molecules/ions are the bonds not all of equal length? (A)SFs (B)SiF, (C)XeF, (D)BEs 34. Among the following substituted silanes, the one which gives rise to a cross-linked silicone polymer upon hydrolysis is: (A) RaSt (B) RIC (C) RsSiCh, (D)RsSICL 32. The amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be determined by its titration with KMnO, solution in the presence of H2SQy. But this method fails if the acid used in the titration is HCL. This is because HCL (A) furnishes additional H’ ions apart from those from oxalic acid (B) gets oxidized by oxalic acid to chlorine (C) oxidizes oxalic acid to COz (D) reduces permanganate to Mn” 33. Which of the following represents a set of isoelectronic ions? (A) Cr," Cal", S® (B) CT, K*, Ca”, Sc" © Na’, Li Mee, art (D)N*, FO, 34. The smallest cation among Na‘, Mg”, AP* and K* is: (A) Na’ @) Mg" (C) AL OK 35. For the 4f subshell, what is the most positive value that the magnetic quantum number, ‘my can take? (A) +7 (@®) +3 (C) +6 (D)o 36. The shape and geometry of IClr”are, respectively, (A) trigonal and trigonal planar (B) linear and trigonal bipyramidal (C) trigonal and trigonal bipyramidal (D) linear and trigonal planar 37. The number of Mo —Mo bonds in [(n’-CsHs)Mo(CO}zh™ is (A) zero (B) one (©) two (0) three 10 | 38. A Jahn-Teller distortion in [Ti(H,0).]** acts to (A) raise its symmetry (B) remove an electronic degeneracy (C) cause loss of an Ef,O ligand {D) promote a d electron to an antibonding molecular orbital 39. The Ziegler-Natta catalyst for the polymerization of ethylene or propylene consists of TiCh and (A) an aluminum alkyl {B) titanium acetylacetonate {C) cobaltocene {D) diborane 40. The reaction of [(n°-Cstls)Fe(CHs)(CO),] with PPh to give [(n?-CsHs)Fe(COCH,)(CO) (PPh;)] is an example of: {A) an oxidative addition (B) a reductive elimination (C) an insertion (D) an electron transfer 41. C2B, 2H, is an isoelectronic analogue of : (A) Bilt, @)B.He (BH ©) BH” 42. Which of the four oxides of chlorine is paramagnetic? (a) ClO; (8) CLO (C) CLO, {D) ChO6 43. Which of the following diatomic species would you expect to have the smallest bond order? (A)No* (B) Or (€)cO @) Nz u 44, Which of the following represents the order of variation of the maximum wavelength of absorption (Zina) of the complexes? (A) FeF > Fe(iz0), > Fe(CN)s (B) Fel > Fe(CN),> Fe(H,0). (C) Fe(CN),> Fek'g> Fe(H20) (D) Fe(CN)s > Fe(H:0)¢ > FeFs 45, How many geometrical isomers exist for the complex [Co(N#);Cls}? (A) six (B) four (two (D) onc 46. The spin only magnetic moment of Ks[Fe(CN).} is: (A) 1.73 BM (B) 4.9 BM (C)0BM (0)28BM 47. The products of the reaction of NCh with H;0 would be: {A)N(QH), and HCL {B) NH and HOCI (C)NELCl and 02 (D)N2O and HCI 48. The chemical composition of the brown ring formed during the qualitative test for the nitrate anion (A) [Fe(H20)(NO)s}S05 {B) [Fe(#.0)sNO;}80. {(C) [Fe(#20)sNO;]80. (D)[Fe(t0}NO}]SO, 49, The metal complex that is used in chemotherapy fof cancer is: (A)eis-[PUNH3)«Ch] (B) cis-[PXNHs):Ch} (C)cis-[PuNtH).Ch] (D) rrans-[Pt(NH)«Cl] 50. The correct order of hardness of the oxides CaO, BaO; MgO is: (A)Ca0> BaO> MgO (B)BaO>Ca0>MgO (C)MgO>Ca0>Ba0 (D)MgO>Ba0>Ca0 51. Methyl iodide and triethylamine will (A)retet faster in ethanol than in hexane (B) react faster in hexane than in ethanol (C) react at the same rates in hexane and ethanol (D)will not react in either solvent 52. The major product of the following reaction PPh ° CBee Zn is: ° on er : 1 " a wv (AL @u jm @yIv 53. The most suitable reagent for the following conversion, oa )-cHo — oa{ ct would be: (A) Ha, Pd-C, EtOH (B)Li, NH; (lig), NHC} (C)N2Hy, KOH, 1,2-dimethoxyethane (DLAI, BQO 13 54, The following bromide, a when heated with acetic acid will yield: 1H > & OAc 1 w tt v (AL (yn com DIV 55. The product of the following two-step reaction sequence, Pt 4, CeHeCO3H oan 2. aq. KOH would be: con on (AL (BIL (C) UL (D)IV 56. The correct JUPAC name of Ph-CHz-CH2-COOH is: (A) Styrene carboxylic acid (B) Phenethyl carboxylic acid (C) 2-Benzylacetic acid (D) 3-Phenylpropanoic acid 14 57. The major product of the reaction: OO he dy ay cD w (AL (B)IL (Out Dv 58, The following reaction sequence, 1. H,S04, NaNO2 Hie 2. Kia F 3. Na,S,03 will yield: Qo Qu Qe Qa ¥ 1 02 t " m wv AL (BU (UI (DIV 59. The products of ozonolysis (Os, HO) of vinyl chloride, CH,-CH-Cl, are: (A)HOCH,CH,Cl and H,C-CH(OH)CI (B) HCHO and CICH,OH (C)HCHO, CO and HCL (D)HCO2H, CO and HCL 15 60. The reaction sequence shown below, 0 HNOH | S0Ch | would yield Cote. Com Oe CON A 1 B a noe com co™ — core Co a 1. . ‘ io Be AL @)I (Cnt (D)IV 61. The compound A given below, oA will be formed by reaction of maleic anhydride with: (I @)n (Qu (Iv 16 62. The product formed when the dimethyl ester of adipic acid reacts with excess sodium in toluene, followed by acidification, i 9 OMe oH or 3 HOD A ~co.4 1 0 au ry COME wi (a) (cyt (IV 63. The product formed when styrene in CHCl; is mixed with aq, NaOH and tetra-butyl ammonium chloride, is: } PhCH CHy Cl wm me 1 a ‘ 0 m w . AL (B) IT (C)ut (DIV 64, When the compound shown below, ag. HCO.H Br CH, is reacted with aq. formic acid, the product formed would be: Con OF Onn Chee OH Hy Hs 2H CHy (AL (8) cou (WIV 7 ‘65. The basicities (pK) of the following series of compounds (I-IV), O 5 6 5 © Nog ‘ ' " i w will vary as: (A)IV > > b> I (BMT > E> tv >I (C)U> > > WV (IV > mM > >I 66. The major product of the following reaction, 1. Hg(OAc), THF, H,0 4. NaBH, / aq. NaOH would be: HO. ; - ; ; He 1 1 mm wv I ()l om (DyIV 67. The structures shown below, HOG (A) identical @) enantiomers (C) diastereomers (D) different conformations of the same compound 18 68, The reaction that produces (CHs)sC-OCH in highest yield is: (A) NaOcH, + (CH,,cc| ——~ H,SO, (8) (CH),COH + CH, “s H,S0, (0) (CH),CH + CHOH + (©) (CH),COK + cH 69. The following reaction, Fe, HCl, H Ore mee Neutralize with NaH would yield: = Om Ow On . (A) (8) rc) ” 70. The major product in the following reaction HO é Vs Ho H,S0, HgSO, would be: “ €S-coox + CH,COOH (8) 50; ° eOk 2 On \ 19 71. The structure of an optically active isomer of 2-methylcyclopentanol is shown below. ‘The absolute configuration of this isomer is: {A)IR, 2K (B) 1S, 28 (CIS, 2R (D)IR, 2S 72. How many mono nitro derivatives ean be obtained by the nitration of m-xylene? (AL (@B)2 (3 @)4 73. Zine dust is used as one of the reagents in which of the following reactions? {A)Gignard reaction (B) Catalytic hydrogenation (C)Acyloin condensation (D)Reformatsky reaction 74, Upon heating, the following labeled allyl phenyl ether, 9 reamsngesio: rt 20 75. Tyrosine, aspartic acid and lysine are examples, respectively, of: (A)acidic, basic and aromatic amino acids {B) basic, acidic and aromatic amino acids (C)aromatic, acidic and basic amino acids (D)basic, aromatic and acidic amino acids 76. A parallel plate capacitor carries a charge Q at a voltage of V. If an additional dielectric is introduced between the plates of the capacitor, then: (A)the charge will remain the same but the voltage will decrease (B) the charge will decrease but the voltage will remain the same (C)both voltage and charge will increase (D)both voltage and charge will decrease 77.A ball is projected with a speed of 10 mvs at an angle of 45° from a point on the ground. ‘The time in seconds after which its velocity becomes perpendicular to the velocity of projection is: (A) 05s @) 2s (CIN2s D)1s 78. If x= sin@ cos, y =r sin® sing and z= 1 cos®, then the value of x? + y*+ 2” is independent of: (A) and > (8) rand 0 (C) rand > ©): 79, [5x e™* dxis: (A) (5/2)e* ~ (5/4)e* + C (B)xc -(5/2)e*+C (C) (518)e"* — (3/2)e 5+ C (D)e™ -e% +E © 80. The unit vector in the diréction of a = 3i+2)+5k is: (A) (5/N38) i + (3/N38) j + (2/38) k. (B) (3/138) i + (238) j + G/N38) k (C) BA118) i + (228) j + 3/38) (D) GN3)i + @N2) j + GANS) k 21 81. The series: 1+ 4—5— +, can be summed to the value: 6 (A) 20/17 (B) 23/20 (C) 13/LL (D) 18/15, 82. Ify(x) is some function of x and y/(x) stands for 2, the solution of the differentiat equation: In{y(x)y‘(x)] = x, under the initial condition y(@) = 0, is given by: (A)y@) = (28-3) (B) yx) = 1-8? (Cy@) =F(e"-)) My) = Z~ 83. The value of d’/dx" (sin(ax)) is: (A) a" sin(ae + nn/2) (B) a" cos(ar+ nn/2) (©) a" sin(ax + nn) (D) a" cos(ax + nz) 84. If= 147 (where V-1) then the value of v9 is: (A) 2048014) (B) 4096«V/2(1 + i) (C) 4096(1 +2) (D) 2048%V2(1 +) 85. A man carrying weights in his outstretched hands stands at the centre of a circular platform that is rotating freely at constant angular velocity about its central axis. [fhe draws the weights inwards, towards his body while the platform is in motion, then: {A) the angular velocity of the system will increase (B) the angular velocity of the system will decrease {C) the angular momentum of the system will increase (D) the angular momentum of the system will decrease Urethazy 1 TIBELNCL eg ie ele es ren 22 86. A curve is specified by the parametric equations: x= cos(¢), y=sin(#) and 2=. The vector tangent to the curve at the point (1,0,27) i (Oasis jek M)a=j+k 87. Ina certain competition, each participant must start from the point A and reach the point B (the coordinates of these points with respect to the point O are shown below) by running to and touching both the walls OX and OY in any order. Y (100,200) {200,100} . ° % The shortest distance by which a participant can achieve this is: (A) 006 meters {B) 300J2 meters {C) 100V2 meters D) 200V5 meters 88.10 1x x Dslr tx xox 7 “Then D(@), where «= any one of the three cube roots of I (i.e. @ satisfies @ =1), is: (A) o-1 (B)0 Ca. Do? a3 89. A metal sphere of radius R has a charge Q. The electrostatic potential ata distance r from the centre of the sphere is denoted V(r). Then F(r)is given by: (A) V(r) = O14 6, 7) everywhere (B) V(r) = QUA a &, r) if the point is outside the sphere and V(r) = 0 inside the sphere. (C) V(r) = OMG a 4, r) ifthe point is outside the sphere and V(r) = QU(4 x &, R) if it is inside the sphere (D) V(r) = O°H4 m 65 r) if the point is outside the sphere and V(r) = 0 inside the sphere, 90. A fly (F) is sitting at a comer of room of dimensions 18 /rx12,fix12/t (see Figure below) at the point marked F. A lizard (L) is sitting at the diagonally opposite comer. . we ‘The minimum distance that the lizard has to cross (it cannot fly!) to reach the fly is: _ (A) 30ft (B) 65042) ft (C)24+-V468) fe - (D) 08+12V2 ) ft 91. A satellite is orbiting earth at a distance R from the centre of thé earth. If the acceleration due to carth’s gravity is g at that distance, then the orbital velocity is given as: (A) Yar (8) (208 (©) ¥g7R ©) forR 24 92. In the photoelectric effect, it is observed that the kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons is independent of: (A) work function of the metal (B) frequency of the incident radiation (C) intensity of the incident radiation (D) wavelength of the incident radiation 93, Pisa point ata distance r from the centre of a sphere of radius a. The gravitational potential at the point P is V(r). If 7() is plotted against, the resulting curve would be ziven by (see Figure below): 94, A wire of resistance 1022 is drawn to thrice its original length. The resistance of the drawn wire will be: (a)300 {B) 902 (C) 3.330 ©) 1.10 95. Unpolarized light passes through three polatizing filters. The axis of the second one is at an angle of +30° with respect to the first, and the axis of the third is at an angle +30° with respect to the sccond. The fraction of the original intensity that emerges from the third polatizer is: (A) 9732 (B) 3/8 (C) 2/9 Ds 96. In the figure below, O is the center of a circle of radius r. Consider the ratio: f = (area of the dark shaded region)((area of the light shaded region). As the angle ¢ approaches zero, the value of f approaches: (Ayo (B) Gr) ©u3 @) 2 97. From a group of 3 women and 4 men, the number of different commitices that can be formed consisting of | woman and 2 men is: (A) 18 @)9 1 . (D) 36 — 98. When a monocliromatic light beam enters a medium of refractive index 2, (A) its frequency is doubled (B) its frequency is halved (C) its speed is doubled (D) its speed is halved 99. An explosion blows a rock into three pieces. Two pieces go off at right angles to cach other with masses 2.0 kg and 4.0 kg, having velocities 6.0 m/s and 4.0 m/s, respectively. If the third piece fies with a velocity of 20.0 ms, it mass will be: (A) 0.5 kg (B) LO kg (C) 0.8 kg (D) LS kg 26 100. AU tube has a liquid in it. The total length of the liquid column inside it is /. ‘After the levels on the two arms have attained the same level, the, liquid surface on one of the levels is pushed down slightly and released. g denotes accelaration duc to gravity and p the density of the liquid. ‘The liquid will execute simple harmonic motion with a time period of: (A) 22g (8) 2 file (©) 24 fe (D) 2x fl/Qgp) 27 basalt} tl Dales Ee Oe] “Lanthanide sevie| **Retinide sories boskee INDIAN INSTITUTE OF SCIENCE BANGALORE - 560012 AW lely T FOR ADMISSIONS - 2010 Program : Integrated Ph.D Entrance Paper : Physical Sciences Paper Code PS Day & Date SUNDAY, 25% APRIL 2010 Time 2.00 P.M. TO 5.00 P.M. Integrated Ph.D. (Physical Sciences) General Instructions ‘This question paper consists only of multiple-choice questions. Answers are to be marked in the OMR sheet provided, For each question darken the appropriate bubble to indicate your answer. Use only HB pencils for bubbling answers. Mark only one’bubble per question. If you mark more than one bubble, the question will be evaluated as incorrect. If you wish to change your answer, please erase the existing mack completely before marking the other bubble. All 50 multiple-choice questions in this test should be answered. Each question carries TWO MARKS. For each of these questions, four answers are provided; of these only ONE is correct. N.B. There is negative marking: 1/2 mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. Some information that may be useful in answering this test is given below: ‘Acceleration due to gravity [9 =98 m/s Molar gas constant R= 8314 Jmol K Boltamann’s constant. kg = 1.38 x 10-7 J/K Planck's constant 626 x 10 Ts Speed of light im vacuum | e=3x 10" m/s Gravitational constant - 6.672 x 10-1 Nin?/kg’ ‘Mass of electron ‘Me = 9.1095 x 10-7 kg ‘Mass of proton ‘Mp = 1.6726 x 10-7 ke ‘Mass of neutron 6749 x 10-7" ke Coulomb constant Tarren) = 8.988 x 10° NaC Charge of electron e= 1602 x 10-0 Permittivity of vacuum €9 = 8.854 x 10-7 F/m Permeability of vacuum 4x10" Tin Energy conversion (eV to J) TeV =1602 x 10°F (am | aa ae Ce “oa a | ag) | “Ey” || na on | os | 5 |e |e ‘Rust | oover | ovzat | evear | scust | aera | srot aa | Sei | omsary | agar | cttapre | ag | Sny sa | “om! Far} “at” | po" | ha | tis eo | wo J 3 | so | ws | oo | oo SIN@NATA FHL JO WIaVL Oldorsad PHYSICAL SCIENCES 1. The series a) 12 , ® van © ws (0) v5 rey Consider the function (2) = at® — b2? +, a #0. The graph of this function (A) Never crosses the x-axis (B) Always crosses the x-axis at least once (CL Alvays crosses the x-axis 2 times {D) Always crosses the x-axis § times 3. Given the thrge matrices o1) 0 10 vn (fo)} ee (20) a=(0 4) 5 o40; ~ 030%, then (01, [o2, o]) + faa, [o2, o1]} + (02, lor, oll is (A) of+o2 +02 (B) oy +02 +08 (c) 9 {D) Identity , 4. The trace ofa 3x3 matrix is 1 and its determinant is 0. Which of the following has to be true? (A) One of the eigenvalues is 0 (B) One of the eigenvalues is 1 {C) Two of the eigenvalues are 0 (D) Two of the eigenvalues are zeal 5. The equation [2a ~ | = |x +3) for real « has (A) (B) (C) (D) ho solution one solution, two solutions three solutions . The sum $,(2) = cos.x + cos 2r-+ +++ + cosne is the same as (A) sin Dr 81 cog (At sing (HE De sin cos. (n+1)z © Ges sin? (n+l)e Dy agit . Por a> 1, is (Aye (B) et () a @) 1 . The motion of a particle moving in a line is described by the equation 2(é) = 6+4 (coswt-+ 3 (cos2ut—1)). Given that n is an integer, the maximum displacement occurs at A) (B) (c) (D) t= 2rmfur = (Bn 1)arfoo ta(n+h) ae t=(n+%)x/w 9. A heavy uniform rope of length L and mass per unit length 4 goes over a frictionless pulley of diameter R, and has two masses M and m attached to its two ends as shown. In terms of the distance z, the equilibrium position is given by Helge) (B) ; (« + a “ (©) Lf @ 5 10. A triangle of uniform mass density of base Z and. height h is shown below. ‘The centre of mass of the triangle lies, at this distance above the base: m § @ o ! o + u 12. 13, A straight rod of length @ is made of an unusual material having mass per unit length (z) = Afz|, where 2 is measured from the centre of the red. The moment of inertia about an axis perpendicular to the rod and passing through one end of the rod is given by “ “ ir @) ie © = om 3 A particle of mass m is located at a distance 2 along the axis of a uniform disk of mass Af and radius R. The gravitational force felt by the mass m is given by 2GMm z " (aedae-}) 2GMm z @ 28" (aca?) 2GM1 2 © 7 eam +m + ) 0 2" (exe) A pendulum consists of a point bob of mass M hanging by a massless string. ‘There is no friction anywhere in the system, For arbitrary angular displace- ‘ments 9 of the pendulum about the vertical, the time period of oscillation (A) is independent of M and.o (B) depends on M but not # (C) depends on 8 but not Mf {D) depends on both M and 4 14. An observer O is at the origin of an inertial frame of reference J and rotating with angular velocity w2 relative to it. A satellite of mass M is in a circular orbit of radius R about the origin with angular velocity —w as seen from I. ‘The total force M7 on the satellite in Q's rest frame is (A) Mure (B) . —Mu?RF (C) 4Mu* RF (D) -4Mu* RF 15, A large cylindrical container filled with water up to a height h rests on a table. Neglecting the effect of viscosity, at what height from the bottom of the container should a hole be made such that the resulting jet of water hits the surface of the table at the meximumh distance? oe (A) hive — (B) A/2 (C) hfVv3. — (DB) As . 16. A simple pendulum of length is suspended from a hook mounted on a slanted wall, The wall makes a small angle 9 with the vertical. The pendulum is displaced from the vertical by a small angle ($ > 8) and released. Assuming that the collision of the bob is elastic, the time period of oscillation is (A) anf (B) aft [rros-ao" | - © mf (D) aft [ria a 5 17. Consider two identical blocks of constant specific heat capacity, one of which is at temperature T; and the other at T. A reversible engine transfers heat. from the hotter block to the colder block until they reach the same temperature, which is A ynth - @ 2th Th. O ALE ©) & 18, A and B.are both classical ideal gases of diatomic molecules. The point-like atoms in A are bonded rigidly to form diatomic molecules while in B they are connected by bonds of finite stiffness. The ratio of the specific heat: per molecule at constant volume of gas A to gas B is (1 ® 9/7 ©) o/s ©) 9/4 os 19. 20. a1. NV molecules of an ideal gas are in a container of volume Va, If a molecule has the same probability of being at any point in the container, the probability of AM of them being in a smaller volume V in the container is (A) | M/N (8) a ue Ce a A mixture contains the same number of moles of two ideal gases ‘A and B, with adiabatic constants 7, and 7p respectively. ‘The adiabatic constant + of the mixture satisfies phy =BGhr+ a) (a) wasps a1) (CFF “IGG ©) skr- 3 (ger aa) A thermally insulated cubical box has two chambers of equal volume. Initially, one mole of a mono atomic ideal gas is placed in one of the chambers while the other chamber is kept empty. The gas slowly leaks through a small hole end eventually occupies the whole box. The change in entropy of the gas is given by. (A) R/In2 (B) RIn2 (C) zero (PD) 28 10 22. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is kept in a volume V and is at temper- ature T. If thee volume and temperature of the gas are repectively changed to V' and 7’, in such a way that the entropy of the gas is unchanged, then which of the following is true? (A) Wew, Tarp (B) W=8V¥, MaT/4 (C) Waav, Peer 0) Wsevp, rar 23. A thin convex lens L and concave mirror M with focal lengths 20cm and 15cm respectively are separated by a distance of 50cm along their axis as shown below! f=20em = f=15em 50cm An object is placed at a distance of 30cm before the lens. Thé location of the final image with respect to the mirror is (A) 6om | (8) em (C) 18m (D) 30cm 24, In a Michelson interferometer operating with monochromatic light of wave- length 2pm, the mitror positions are initially adjusted to get maximum inten- sity at the detector. A thin glass plate of refractive index 1.5 is then inserted: in the path of one of the interfering beams. If the detector intensity continues to be a maximum, the thickness of the plate is (neglecting reflections at the surfaces of the plate): (A) 65 um (B) 86 pm ~ (GC) 92pm (D) 133 um n 25, A very thick piece of glass with refractive index n has a convex surface with radius of curvature R. For paraxial light rays incident on this surface from vacuum, the glass acts like a lens with focal length f measured from the surface, where f is given by «a 2 (2-R (B) n (nk © n+l (n+ )R o 26. The LCR circuit shown below is driven by an ideal AC voltage source. We——oaa R t @ ct The angular frequency wp at which the voltage amplitude across the capacitor is a maximum is, w fe om Jis0-52) @ \Z (: - wey o (a2) 4 i 2. 28. An RC circuit is connected to a DC voltage source through a switch as shown below. 10kQ 2uF 10V 10KQS 10kQ ‘The switch is initially open and the capaci uncharged. At time t = 0, the switch is closed. The voltage across the capacitor at t = 30 ys is (A) 5mV (B) 75mV (©) 10mv (D) 20mv ‘The RC circuit shown below is driven by a continuous square wave. c Which of the following figures is a correct representation of the output wave- form actoss the resistor? RAY Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 4 (A) Figure 1 (B) Figure 2 (C) Figure 3 (D) Figure 4 13 29. In an experiment the voltage across a resistor is measured repeatedly and found to obey a Gaussian distribution with mean 5 V and standard deviation 1V. In any given measurement, if P, is the probability of obtaining 3 £0.1V and Pp the probability of obtaining 8 + 0.1 V, then (A) Pa Po=0 (B) Pa= Pu XO (C) Pa > Pe (D) Pac Ps 30. A point charge Q is brought without any acceleration from infinity to a distance d from an infinite plane conducting sheet. The work done on the charge is given by : ate® : ® AF © -2.& ©) aS 31, The electrostatic potential due to a uniformly charged circular dise is (A). the same at all points on the dise (B) is larger at the centre than at the edge (C) is larger at the edge than at the centre (D) has a maximum value at half the radius 4 1 32. A cube of side a has point charges -+Q located at each of its vertices except for the origin where the charge is —Q as shown below, *t 8 -Q e+Q “2 ya ‘The electric field at the center is: a) Wieattit a), @) yaaa) © weet +948) ©) eos? +9+2) 33. Two metallic cubes of side @ and 2a respectively are separated by a large distance D, (D > a). Initially, the smaller cube carries a charge Q while the larger one is uncharged. If a thin metallic wire is connected between the two cubes, the ratio of the charges on the smaller cube to the larger one will be: (A) oA . (B) 1/2 ©. 2% ©) 4/9 18 34, A metallic ring of area 1 ci® and resistance 102 is placed in a perpendicular time-varying magnetic field which has the following form: B(t) = 2e7°™ cos(2nt) where B is in ‘Tesla and t is in seconds. The net charge that flows past any point in the ring from ¢ = 0 to t= co is (A) lac (B)3n0 (C) 50 (D) — 20u0 35. Which of the following is NOT a solution of the Maxwell equations for the magnitude of the electric field (x,t) in free space? (w and k are constants) {A} Bx, t) = 09 4 eilteted (B) Bla, t) = ett 4. v2ertiotuh (CC) BGa,t)= er) 4 a @) Bie, 4 36. A patticle of charge q moves at @ constant, speed v paraillel to an infinite line charge of density A, maintaining a constant, distance d from the line charge. If = 1/\/1~ 0/2, then the magnitude of the force on the particle in the rest frame of the line charge is given by saa mets S © Aa Se (D) 16 37. 38. 39. 40. ‘An inertial frame © has a non-zero constant electric field £, and the magnetic field B is zero. An observer in a frame ©! is moving with a velocity # with respect to ©, and & and @ are not parallel to each other. If 1 denotes the perpendicular component with respect to the velocity of the frame, then in frame ©" the electric field £” and magnetic field Bt satisfy (A) B (B) (c) (D) BL =0 ‘A light source moves with constant speed along a line relative to an observer standing in its path. The observer measures the wavelength of the light to be 365 nm as the source approaches her and 1096 nm as it moves away from her. ‘The wavelength of the light in the test frame of its source is about (A) 596 nm (B) 632 nm (©) 730 nm (D) 836 nm . ° > Consider a beam of relativistic particles of kinetic energy Kat normal incidence upon a perfectly absorbing surface. The particle flux (number of particles per limit’ area per unit time) is J and each particle has rest. mass mo. The pressure on the surface is w) 2 ) JV K(K + moc?) se ©) I(K + mpc?) € o 2 [KK + Berg) e ‘An electron and a proton have kinetic energy 1keV each. The ratio of their de Broglie wavelengths is approximately (A) (B) 43 (c) 930 (D) 1860. iw 49. A particle p of mass 770 MeV/c? decays into two pions each of rest mass 140 50. MeV/c?. The momentum of each pion is about (A) 359 MeV/c (B) 455 MeV/c (C) 490 MeV/c (D) 630 MeV/c A neutron decays at rest in about 9 minutes. The nieximum kinetic energy of the electron is about (A) 780 eV (B)—780-keV (C) 780 MeV (D) 780 Gev * End of the question paper * INDIAN INSTITUTE OF SCIENCE BANGALORE - 560012 ENTRANCE TEST ADMISSIONS - 2010 Program : Integrated Ph.D Entrance Paper : Mathematical Sciences Paper Code : MS Day & Date SUNDAY, 25™ APRIL 2010 Time 2.00 P.M. TO 5.00 P.M. 4, Let P,Q and R be polynomials. Define * Q(z) ie R(x) Oe" S(2) = Pl) + If $(m) = 0 for all n € Z, then (a) R(x) is always divisible by 142%, (b) R(z) is always divisible by (1 +22), (c) R(z) is always divisible by (1+ 27), (4) P,Q and R must be identically zero. Let. y(z) be a solution to the ordinary differential equation @y dy Fa t AG + By=0 with constants A #0, B #0 and y(0) #0. Then (2) (2) is always bounded on R, (b) y(z) is always unbounded on R, (©) y(2) is bounded or unbounded on R depending on the value of ¥/(0), = (d) such a solution cannot exist. . Let f(t) = 2" +027 + bs? +on-+d be a polynomial with a,d,c and d real. If f'(z) has three distinct, real roots, then (a) there always exists a real constant & such that f(x) = k has exactly one real Toot, (b) there always exists a real constant & such that f(z) = i has three distinct real roots, . (©) f(z) = k has four distinct real roots for any real number k, (d) f(a) = & has two real and two complex roots for any real number k. 7, Let X and ¥ be non-empty sets and let Surfer X —Y and 1g2:¥ — X be mappings. If gz fae gi fi: X — X isa bijection, then (a) fa, fas, must be injective, (b) fo.gi.g2 must be injective, (c) fa.91 must be bijective, (d) fi must be injective and gz must be surjective. 8. A non-trivial binary relation R on a non-empty set X is called (i) symmetric if Ry implies yx. (72) anti-symmetric if xy and yz imply x = y, (#i) reflexive if rRx holds for all x in X, (fu) transitive if rRy and yRz imply 2Rz, (v) an equivalence relation if it is symmetric, reffexive and transitive. Moreover, 2 is called the equality relation if Ry holds if and only if x= y. Let p be a binary relation on a non-empty set X. If p is symmetric and anti- synmetric, then (a) pis the equality-relation, (b) pis an equivalence relation, (c) X has at most two elements, (4) p may not be reflexive. 9. Let L be a line in the plone passing through the point P = (4,3). Let Q and R be the points of intersection of L with the 2-axis and the y-axis respectively. Let the segment QA be in the first quadrant. If PQ: PR = 5:3, then the equation of Lis (a) 9x +204 = 96, (d) 324+ 5y = 27. 10. Let P(e) = 2442741. Then f', P(sinz) P'(sinz)de is fa) 0, ) (c) 7, {€) I/n. : 11. Consider F(a) = [zle™ and g(x) = ze. ‘Then the pait {f,9} is (a) linearly independent. on R, (b) linearly’ dependent on (—¢,¢) for some 0 < € <1, (c) linearly independent on (0, co), (4) linearly independent on (—00,0)- 12, Let f : (-1,1)— R be a function satisfying 1 git log lell < [f(@} < kelog atl for all #0. Then (a) f is nover differentiable at 2 = (b) f is always differontiable at x = 0, (0) Sis differentiable at x =0 if f(0 (d) |f| is always differentiable at x = 0. 0, 13. Let {n}nen be a sequence of real numbers converging to A # 0. Let mm = max{z,,A — aq}. Then the limit of the sequence {yn}nen is always fa) 0, (2) A, (©) max{A,0}, (@) + min{A,0} 14. Let 1 fe) = yasin3 (arp) The sequence (1,,} - for z > 0. Set (a) is a non-converging oscillatory sequence, {b) diverges to 00, (0) converges to Vai, (@) converges to 0. 15, Let the co-ordinates of the vertices of a plane triangle A be integers. If a is the area of the triangle A, then ) (a) @ must be an integer, (b) a? must be an integer, (c) a+ 1/2'must be an integer, (4) 2a must be an integer 16. Consider the second order ordinary differential equation dy fu + fe +oy=0 where b and ¢ are real constants. If yan is a solution, then (a) both & and are positive, (b) b is positive, but ¢ is negative, (c) bis negative, but eis pi (a) both & and ¢ are negative. 17. Let x and y be non-zero real numbers. Then the minimum value of biebls ot oe is «4/4, 1, (ce) 2, @4 18. Consider the set V = {(; — 22 + 3,01 + 2 — 2) (a) V isnot a vector subspace of R?, (b) V is a vector subspace of R? of dimension 0 , (c) V is a vector subspace of R? of dimension 1, () V=R2 + (24, 2,3) € R°}. Then 19. 20. 21. 22, The set'S = {(2,y) € R? : 2? + dy? + Gr -+ dy + 12 = 0} is (a) an infinite set, (b) a finite set with more than one clement, (©) a singleton, (d) the empty set. Suppose f is a twice differentiable function defined on the real line with continuous second derivative. If f satisfies f(z +1) = f(x) for all x € R, then [ " ap"a)ds is (@) £(0), (b) £Q), (©) £0), (@) 0. Let f be a continuous function from (0,4] to [3,9]. ‘Then (a) there must be an x such that f(z) = 4, (b) there must be an z sueh that 3/(c) = 22-46, (e) there must be an x such that 2f(c) = 3x +6, (@) there must be an x such that: f(z) If f isa differentiable function, define Given n € N and an n-times differentiable function f, define (D"f)(z) by succes- sively applying D for n times to the function f. Then De") at z =0 is : @) 1, (b) 0, (©) e, (@) & 23. Let A be a 5 x 5 matrix all of whose eigenvalues are zero. Then which of the following statements is always true? . @a (b) At (ce) A (a) A=0. 24. If 2? ~ 2azy + y” — 2br + 1 = 0 represents a pair of straight lines, then the locus of the point (2,5) is (a) acircle, (b) a straight tine, (0) a pair of straight lines, (@) a point. 25. Consider the real four-dimensional vector space of all linear transformations from RR? to R?. What is the dimension of the subspace of all those linear transformations that map the line y = x into itself? @) L (b) 2 (©) 3, (@) 4. 10 26. Let f :R + R be a differentiable function and f(z) = (0 for |x| > 10. Let ge) = Fe +k). ta Then (a) g is differentiable and g has infinitely many zeros. (b) 9 is continuous and not, differentiable, (c) 9 is differentiable and 9! has no zeros, (4) g'is differentiable and g/ has only finitely many zeros. 27. For a positive integer n, let Jy be the nxn identity matrix. Let G be the function on positive integers defined by G(n) = the number of nx n matrices J with real entries which satisfy J? + J, =0. Then (2) G(n) can never be zero, (b) Gn) = (0) G(n) =0 if and only if n'is odd, (@) Gis identically equal to zero. if and only if n is even, 28. Let g: R — (0,00) be an unbounded differentiable function and define ro(a) f(a)= f[ sin“(2t) dt. Ib ‘Then which of the following statements is true? (8) f" is always positive, (b) 7’ has exactly one zero, (c) J" has exactly two distinct zeros, (d) f' has more than two distinct zeros. W 29. The value of ff [x?|dx lies between (a) Land 1.5, (b) 1.5 and 2, () 2and 2.5, (d) 2.5 and 3. 30. Let A be the group of rational numbers under addition. Let M be the group of Positive rational numbers under multiplication. Then which of the following is true? (a) There are infinitely many isomorphisins between A and A. (b) There are only finitely many isomorphisms between A and M. (c) There is a unique isomorphism between A and M. (d) There is no isomorphism between A and AM. 31. Let C be the subset of the right half plane contained within the lines y = 2: and y= x. Let (21,41) and (22, y2) be two points in C. Let 2 = 21 + iy, and 22 =m +4iyp, Then (a) [21 + 20] > (1/V2)(laal + feal) always, (b) Jan + 22] < (2/¥2)(l21] + lal) always, (©) ler ~ 22] > (1/V2)( [zal + [2al) always, (@) J21 + 22] = 21] + [2a] always, 82. Let G = {a CR: a> 0,a # 1}, Then, under the binary operation axb = abe? the set G is . (a) @ commutative group, (b) a non-commutative group, (c) a semigroup but not @ group, (d) not a semigroup. 12 33, For each f in R, consider the straight lines tar—by+t = Oand ax-+tby-1=0. Let (w(t), u(t)) be their point of intersection. Then the locus of the point (u(t), (t)) is (a) a?u? + bu? = 1, {b) Bu? + a7u? = 1, © etRaN (@) u-v=o. 34. Let fi and fp be two real valued functions defined on the real line. Define two functions g and h by (2) = max{ f(z), fa(z)} and k(x) = min{fi(z), fole)} ‘Then a(n) + h(a) + 39(x)h(z) = file)’ + folz)? + 3falz)folz) holds for all 2 € R (a) always, (b} only if fiz) = fol) for all rin R, {c) only if fy-and fy are both positive functions or both negative functions, (d) only if at least one of the functions f, and fy is identically zero. 35. For each natural number n > 2, let Z, denote the additive group of integers modulo n, Suppose Za X Zin © Zinn. Then (a) m divides n ot n divides m, (be) m=n, (©) m+n=mn, (4) ged (m,n) = 1.

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