In This Issue

Regulars
Editorial 535
July 2009 Science and Technology 537
Year—12 Issue—137 Latest General Knowledge 539
Science Tips 543

Physics
Thermal Physics-II 545
Atomic Physics-VII 554
Typical Model Paper 558
Editor Typical Model Paper 565
MAHENDRA JAIN
Chemistry
Electrochemistry 571
Aromatic Compounds : A General Survey 581
Typical Model Paper 589
Typical Model Paper 593

Zoology
Chromosomal Aberrations 598
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Typical Model Paper 629
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Typical Model Paper 632
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Other Features
Assertion and Reason Type Questions 638
Edited, printed and published by Mahendra True or False 641
Jain for M/s. Pratiyogita Darpan, 2/11A,
Swadeshi Bima Nagar, AGRA–2 and Do You Know ? 645
printed by him at Pratiyogita Darpan
General Awareness 649
Printing Unit, 5 & 6, Bye pass Road, Agra.
Phone : 4053333, 2531101, 2530966 Mental Ability Test 651
Fax : (0562) 4031570, 4053330
E-mail : publisher@pdgroup.in
Correct Solution and Prize Winners of CSV Quiz No. 131 655
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C.S.V. / July/ 2009 / 533

 To Our Readers
Dear Readers,
It gives us great pleasure and a sense of satisfaction in presenting to you the
July issue of your favourite and frontline magazine ‘Competition Science Vision’.
By this time almost all PMTs are over and their results are declared. Those of you
who have not been successful and the freshers are now planning for the next pre-
medical examinations. If somehow not, start it soon with all seriousness. CSV has
also started giving text and other reading material from the beginning of the syllabus.
We again assure you that CSV is a unique magazine that meets all your
requirements. It is second to none in this field. It purposely avoids giving all
unnecessary material which is time-consuming and energy-wasting. Our vast
experience of pre-medical examinations has made this magazine totally examination–
oriented and covers almost all the major pre-medical tests held in the country.
This is our sincere advice that you must develop the habit of doing hardwork
because there is no alternative to it. Guidance of CSV will prove immensely useful.
Read CSV regularly and intelligently. It gives you the power to master
your career and shape your destiny.

With best wishes for your all-round success.

Sincerely yours,

Mahendra Jain
(Editor)

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C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 534

 For welfare and progress, a life
of discipline is very essential whether
it be an individual, a group, a society
or a nation. For that matter it may be
a case of the world.
It may be mentioned that for
want of a discipline, most of our
country men appear dejected, pulled
down or without any enthusiasm. They
seem to be having no goal of life.
It is a well known fact the three
factors—Family, atmosphere, edu-
cational system and political thinking
go to form the personality of persons.
In the family the individual learns
to live in discipline, to obey elders
and to lead a cooperative and tolerant
life. These things go a long way in
making the individual useful to the
society and the nation. Aristotle has
rightly said that “State is an enlarged
form of the family.” The present deve-
lopment of civilization owes much to
the good traditions and development
of the families from generation to
generation.
To draw out the best, specially
the latent powers of the child ought to
be the main function of an edu-
cational system. To make a perfect
man of an individual has also always,
been considered the chief aim of
education. The aim of the education
is the all round development of the
individual. This, like the family, goes a
long way in making the individual an
useful instrument in giving proper and
designed shape to the nation. The
present system of education, which
is the legacy of the British rule has
been only partially useful in this
respect. Although many people find
faults in the present system of
education yet we will say that the
present system has its own merits. In
case otherwise it should not have
produced big persons like Raja Ram
Mohan Roy, Swami Vivekanand,
Lokmanya Tilak, Mahatma Gandhi
and others. Looking at different
aspects of the role in the development
of the person and the state it may be
very easily said that discipline in
family and education life has a great
role to play in the formation of the
person, society and the nation.
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 535 / 1A
In the present set up of the
society, politics and political thinking
have acquired top priority. From the
personal life the national interests all
depend on politics. We can easily say
that the life of the nation has become
politically biased Herbert Spencer
had forseen the present conditions
when he wrote, “You may leave
politics, the politics will not leave
you.”
The multi party system in our
country has made confusion worse
confounded. The main reason is that
the party leaders have very little
sense of discipline, they have little
respect for the declared objects of the
party and are only running after
seeking pelf and power. The result is
that they are hardly making any social
or national progress and are fast
loosing values of life.
People are often heard to say
that the present politics has no place
for the intelligent or the intellectual.
They often are unpalatable meta-
phors for the political system. Be as it
may, the political life of the country
has failed to make any contribution
for discipline of the people at large.
We should pause a little to think
how far our family life, educational
system and political system have
been successful in disciplining people
and develop in them the human
quality. The answer may be dis-
appointing but we need not be
dejected. History tells us that there
were times when things had gone
worse—But people of firm deter-
mination led a life of strict discipline
and thus impacted their neighbour-
hood. In the modern times Mahatma
Gandhi has been a glaring example
of such people. He by his personal
example made many persons to lead
a disciplined life which ultimately
formed a big discipline party.
Education means drawing out of
all latent powers and all round deve-
lopment of faculties of the human
being. It means that certain rules and
regulations are to be followed where
proper education is concerned. This
is nothing but observing a certain
discipline. On the path of meditation
or spirituality, some discipline, namely
Raj Yoga, Dhyana Yoga, Bhakti Yoga
or Hath Yoga is to be followed. Where
development is concerned, discipline
plays a very important role.
They say that humanity has
become civilized through discipline.
We forget that the persons whom we
call natives or man of jungle also
follow certain rules of conduct and are
in a way leading a disciplined life. In
the community of abonimals, certain
rules of discipline and conduct are
followed. In short, where there is
human society, there is discipline,
because without it, no life is possible.
When there is no discipline, there
is confusion, disorder and ultimately
war, but in war also certain rules are
to be followed, the soldiers lead a
life of ‘do or die’ discipline and then
fight the war. In short, in both, dis-
order and peace, discipline is indis-
pensable. Therefore, let us remember
that discipline is the life blood of the
human society, without it, no life is
possible.
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 Rebirth of Hubble Space
Telescope
The Hubble space telescope, the
object of NASA’s fifth and the last
servicing mission, is a veritable time
machine that has revolutionalised
humankind’s vision and comprehen-
sion of the universe. Put into orbit at
an altitude of 600 km by the shuttle
Discovery on April 25, 1990, Hubble
has transmitted more than 7,50,000
spectacular images and streams of
data from the ends of the Universe,
opening a new era. But the Hubble
telescope, the fruit of a collaboration
between NASA and the European
Space Agency, had a troubled start
and did not become operational until
three years after its deployment.
Its lense in effect had to be fixed
because of a flaw in its shape, a sen-
sitive operation that was not carried
out until 1993 in the first shuttle-borne
service mission, which installed
corrective lenses. From that time o n
Hubble s p a c e telescope transmitted
stupefying images of supernovas,
gigantic explosions that marked the
death of a star and revealed
mysterious black holes in the centre
of virtually all galaxies.
precision as an estimated 13·7 billion
years. The universe’s acceleration
is the result of an unknown force
dubbed dark energy that consti-
tutes three-quarters of the Universe
and counterbalances the force of
gravity. The rest of the cosmos is
composed of five per cent visible
matter and about 20% shadow
matter or anti-matter.
Among the other discoveries,
credited to Hubble, figures the detec-
tion of the first organic molecule in
the atmosphere of a planet orbiting
another star and the fact that the
process of formation of planets and
solar systems is relatively common in
our galaxy, the Milky Way. Hubble
also has observed small proto-
galaxies that were emitting rays of
light when the Universe was less than
a billion years old, the farthest back in
time that a telescope has been able
to peer so far.
distant galaxies, map the large scale
structure of the Universe and study
the planet forming processes around
other stars.
The two new installed instruments
will enable Hubble to look out in time
as far as 500 to 600 million years
after the Universe’s birth with the big
bang.
Closer to home, Hubble has
observed radical changes in the
direction of Saturn’s winds and
revealed that Neptune has seasons.
Hubble has also examined mysterious
lightning flashes on Jupiter and taken
astonishing pictures of Mars.
New York-Sized Ice Shelf
Collapses in Antarctic
An area of ice shelf, almost the
size of New York City, broke into ice-
bergs in April 2009 after the collapse
of an ice-bridge widely blamed on
global warming.

Eye in the sky : A few of the stunning

Helping Hand : In this image taken from
NASA video, Hubble is captured by the
space shuttle Atlantis’ robotic arm as it
begins its mission to service the space
telescope.
Thanks to these observations,
delivered with 10 times clarity of the
most powerful telescopes on the
Earth, the astronomers have been
able to confirm that the Universe is
expanding at an accelerating rate and
to calculate its age with greater
images taken by the Hubble space tele-
scope over the years.
In space, Hubble was captured
by the space shuttle Atlantis’ robotic
arm as it began its mission to service
the space telescope. Two astronauts
Mike Massimino and Mike Good
emerged from the airlock of the
shuttle Atlantis and began work on
Space Telescope.
In addition to the partial revival of Warming Disaster (Top) A satellite
the Advanced Camera for surveys, image of the Wilkins Ice Shelf, taken on
they installed two new scientific instru- April 27, shows icebergs covering an
ments and a crucial science computer area of 700 sq km that have broken off.
as well as replaced gyroscopes and Professor Angelika Humbert, a
batteries to sustain the Observatory’s glaciologist of the University of
pointing and power systems. The Muenster (Germany) analysed the
overhauling prepared Hubble to European Space Agency Satellite
search for the oldest and the most images of the Shelf of Antarctic and

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 537

came to this conclusion. She (Prof.
Humbert) said about 700 sq km of
ice–bigger than Singapore or Bahrain
and almost of the size of New York
City–broke off the Wilkins and
shattered into a mass of icebergs.
She said 370 sq km of the ice
had cracked in recent days from the
Shelf, the latest of about 10 shelves
on the Antarctic Peninsula to retreat
in a trend linked by the U.N. Climate
Panel to global warming.
The new icebergs added to 330
sq km of ice that broke up earlier in
April 2009 with the shattering of an ice
bridge apparently pinning the Wilkins
in place between Charkot island and
the Antarctic Peninsula.
Nine other ice shelves have
receded or collapsed around the
Antarctic Peninsula during the past 50
years, often abruptly like the Larsen A
in 1995 or the Larsen B in 2002. The
trend is widely blamed on climate
change caused by heat-trapping
gases from burning fossil fuels.
is lead by Professor Brian Jackson of
the University of Arizona (U.S.A.).
In accordance with this research,
a star’s gravity can put a nearby
planet on a ‘fast track’ to spiralling
into the star and may also cause the
planet to lose much of its atmosphere.
More than 300 exoplanets have
been catalogued to date. Many are
situated close to the host stars. But
the closestin ones are commonly
found some 0·05 astronomical units
(AU) from their host stars. But, no
one is sure why the planets seem to
pile up there. Very close to a star, at
a boundary called the Roche limit,
planets are dismembered by the
star’s gravity. But the migration of
planets seems to stop there ? Some
models suggest gas and dust in the
disc around a star could drag the
planets inward.
Forthcoming Space
Telescopes to Peek into
Future
form from clouds of cosmic gas, dust
and debris. Scientists involved in the
twin missions hope that the data
gleaned from instruments on board
each space telescope will enable
them to fill in the remaining mysteries
of how the universe came into exis-
tence, how it evolved and how it is
likely to end—if indeed it ever will.
Flowers May Bloom on
Jupiter’s Icy Moon
Scientists have suggested that
spacecraft should hunt for signs of life
on Jupiter’s ice-covered moon,
Europa, since it would be detectable
there in the form of blooming flowers.
Life could be visible from orbiting
spacecraft, however, if it made a hole
in cracks in Europa’s shell that con-
nect the surface to the interior,
physicist and futurist, Professor
Freeman Dyson reported. Such life
might take the form of flowers that
focus sunlight on the interior of the
plant.

Most Distant Object in
the Universe Spotted
Astronomers have spotted the
most distant object in the universe,
which is self-destructing star that
exploded 13·1 billlion light years from
Earth. It detonated just 640 million
years after the big bang, around the
end of the cosmic ‘dark ages’, when
the first stars and galaxies were
lighting up space. The object is a
gamma-ray burst—the brightest type
of stellar explosion. Gamma-rays
bursts occur when massive spinning
stars collapse to form black holes and
spew out jets of gas at nearly the
speed of light.
Stars ‘Eat Up’ Planets
Cannibalism is rampant in our
universe. Stars ‘eat’ the exoplanets
that venture near them. The new
study has revealed that the
exoplanets are doomed to premature
deaths even before they could get
close to be ripped apart by the host
star’s gravity, a finding that may help
explain why few exoplanets are found
next to host stars. The research team
A couple of space telescopes, Europa flowers could be detect-
that are going to be launched very able through retro-reflection, an
shortly, will answer some of the optical effect that is seen in light
biggest questions of the universe. reflected from animals’ eyes.
Scientists hope that the probes will ●●●
answer questions such as how did we
get to, where we are now, and where
are we likely to end up.
Each telescope is designed to
probe the deepest reaches of space
to unravel the origins of matter, from
the earliest beginnings of the
universe, some 13·7 billion years ago
to the creation of the stars, galaxies
and planets. One of the telescopes (Useful for Various Competitive Exams.)
called, ‘Planck’, will study in
unprecedented detail of the ancient
‘fossilized’ radiation left over as a relic
of the big bang. The analysis could
help to explain how the universe
formed through a process of rapid
expansion in the first fractions of a
second after the big bang itself.
The other space telescope to be
launched is ‘Herschel’. It will concen-
trate on the invisible, infrared radiation By Code No. 1630
emitted by the star-forming regions of Dr. Alok Kumar Rs. 40/-
the galaxies on the hope of explaining
how stellar objects from stars like the
UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2
E-mail : publisher@upkar.in Website : www.upkar.in
Sun to planets such as Earth, can

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 538


AWARDS/HONOURS
Whitley Award—Wildlife bio-
logist M. D. Madhusudan has been
awarded the Whitley Award in recog-
nition of his work to reduce human-
wildlife conflict. He is the Director of
the Mysore-based Nature Conser-
vation Foundation. The award carries
a cash of £ 30,000.
Nikkei Asia Prize—Kiran
Mazumdar Shaw, Chairman and
Managing Director of ‘Biocon’ has
been awarded the Nikkei Asia Prize,
2009 for promoting regional growth in
Asia. Former winners of this award
are the Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan
Singh and Bangladesh’s Nobel
Laureate, Mohammad Yunus.
Elected FRCP—Neuropsychia-
trist E. S. Krishnamoorthy Professor of
the Institute of Neurological Sciences,
Chennai, has been elected a Fellow
of the Royal College of Physicians
(FRCP) for his contributions to the
advancement of neurology. This is
one of the most prestigious inter-
national honour for a physician.
BOOKS
Payment for Ecosystem Ser-
vices—Pushpam Kumar and Roldan
Muradian (The book consists of a
variety of issues dealing with the
evaluation of ecosystems and chal-
lenges to PES (Payment for Eco-
system Services).
Ancient to Modern—Ishita
Banerjee Dube and Saurabh Dube
(This enthology explores different
aspects of religion in the context of
identity and articulation of power).
Money, Finance and Political
Economy— Deena Khakhate (The
book is a collection of selected writ-
ings. The essays dealing directly with
the Indian experience in economic
and social development are largely
polemics justifying and defending the
reform process started in 1991. One
of them also deals with the decline
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 539 / 2
and fall of the Indian intellectuals in
post-independent India).
Democracy and Human Deve-
lopment in India— Naresh Gupta
(The author has touched upon the
constitutional setting, demographic
profile and different aspects of human
development and well-being).
DAYS
June 4—International Day of
Innocent Children Victims of Aggres-
sion
June 5—World Environment Day
June 25—U. N. Charter Signing
Day
June 26—International Day
against Drug Abuse and Illicit Traf-
ficking
June 27—World Diabetes Day
June 28—Poor’s Day
Prabhakaran—The curtains
came down on the 33-month-old-long
Eelam War as the Sri Lankan military
succeeded in decimating the military
capabilities of the LTTE resulting in
death of its all top brass including its
Roaring Tiger Silenced
Chief Velupillai Prabhakaran. He had
successfully transformed the Tigers
from an archetypal guerilla outfit into
a conventional army. This ultimately
proved to be his downfall. He was a
dogged fighter for a separate home-
land for Tamils in Sri Lanka.
The 54-year-old son of a govern-
ment officer, and a school dropout,
Prabhakaran pioneered suicide bom-
bing and cynide death for cadres
under attack in war for Tamil Eelam
that consumed more than 70,000
lives, including those of a score of
Sinhalese and Tamil leaders apart
from former Prime Minister of India,
Rajiv Gandhi.
Born on November 26, 1954 in
the northern coastal town of
Velvettithurai on the Jaffna peninsula,
Prabhakaran, the youngest of four
children, began attending political
meetings and practising martial arts
and soon became involved in the
Tamil protest movement.
He got married on October 1,
1984 in Tirupporur near Chennai and
had a daughter name Duwaraka and
two sons—Charles Anthony and
Balachandran. While Charles was
killed in battlefront, the whereabouts
of others are not known, but it is
widely speculated that they are not in
Sri Lanka.
Prakash Mehra—Noted film
producer-director, Prakash Mehra (69)
passed away on May 17 in Mumbai
due to pneumonia and multiple
organs failure. He is survived by three
sons. Noted films produced-directed
by him are—Zanjeer, Hera Pheri,
Khoon Paseena, Lawaris, Muquaddar
Ka Sikandar, Sharabi, Namak Halal.
Admiral S. M. Nanda—The
former Chief of the Naval Staff
Admiral Nanda passed away in New
Delhi on May 12, 2009. He was 94.
He took the charge as Navy Chief in
1970 and commanded the force
successfully during the 1971 India-
Pakistan war. Pakistan Navy was
crumbled and the Indian Navy had
complete control over the Bay of
Bengal and the Arabian sea.
Admiral S. M. Nanda was born in
Karachi and had joined Royal Indian
Navy in 1941.
 Wajed Mia—Nuclear scientist
and Bangladesh Prime Minister
Sheikh Hasina’s husband, Wajed Mia
(66), died of prolonged illness and
multiple complications in Dhaka on
May 9, 2009.

General Elections 2009—India

voted decisively for continuity and
stability in the general election to the
15th Lok Sabha, giving the Congress-
led United Progressive Alliance
(UPA) another five-year term in office.
People of India spoke and spoke with
great clarity. In contrast to 2004, the
UPA won close to 260 of the total 543
seats did not need the support of Left
Parties. The allies of Congress are—
Nationalist Congress Party, the All
India Trinamool Congress, the
Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam, the
National Conference, and the All
India Majlis-e-Ittehadul Muslimeen.
Now, Manmohan Singh is the first
Prime Minister since Indira Gandhi to
have two full terms. The triumph of the Congress was Judge of Supreme Court. He hails
actually an aggregation of specific from Madhya Pradesh and will have a
Parties and their Vote Share successes across different states. tenure of about four years.
The party retained its base in Andhra Balbir Singh Chauhan (New
Total Change Vote Pradesh, cut its losses in Madhya Judge, Appex Court )—President
Party seats from share Pradesh, recovered lost ground in Pratibha Patil cleared the appointment
2004 (%) West Bengal, Keral and Rajasthan of Justice Balbir Singh, Chief Justice
Congress 206 61 29·67 and combined well with its allies in of Orissa High Court, as the judge of
BJP 116 – 22 19·29 Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. the Supreme Court.
JD (U) 20 12 1·58 The BJP and Left parties are the Naveen Patnaik (CM, Orissa)—
CPM 16 – 27 5·52 big losers in the current general Biju Janta Dal President Naveen
CPI 4 –6 1·46 election. Patnaik was sworn-in as Chief
BSP 21 2 6·27 Minister of Orissa for the third conse-
AIADMK 9 9 1·79 cutive term. Twenty other legislators
DMK 18 2 1·91
were also sworn-in as the Ministers.
Patnaik’s Party won 103 seats in the
TC 19 17 3·43
Ashok Chawla (New Finance 147 member Assembly.
NCP 9 0 2·24
Secretary )—Economic Affairs Secre- Pawan Chamling (CM, Sikkim )—
SP 23 – 13 3·44
tary, Ashok Chawla, took over as the Pawan Chamling was sworn-in as
TDP 6 1 1·53 Chief Minister of Sikkim for a fourth
SS 11 –1 1·67
Union Finance Secretary, succeeding
Arun Ramanathan who retired. Mr. successive term, making him the
RLD 5 2 0·49 longest serving Chief Minister in the
SAD 4 –4 0·92
Chawla is an IAS officer of 1973
state. Eleven other Ministers were
NC 3 1 0·13
batch of Gujarat cadre. also sworn-in. Chamling’s Sikkim
RJD 4 – 20 1·31 P. K. Barbora ( New Vice Chief Democratic Front created history by
LJP 0 –4 0·48 of Air Staff )—Air Marshal P. K. winning in all 32 Assembly seats.
TRS 2 –3 0·63
Barbora has been appointed as the D. D. Lapang (CM, Meghalaya)—
new Vice Chief of Air Staff. He will A seven member Congress and
BJD 14 3 1·35 United Democratic Party coalition
assume the charge on June 1, 2009.
AGP 1 –1 0·45 Ministry, headed by D. D. Lapang,
Currently, he has been serving as the
INLD 0 0 0·33 Air Officer Commanding-in-Chief of was sworn-in at the Raj Bhavan
JD(S) 3 0 0·89 Shillong.
Western Air Command.
JMM 2 –3 0·43 Zuma (New President, S.A. )—
Deepak Verma (New Judge, Jacob Zuma, the indefatigable fighter
IUML 2 1 0·23 Supreme Court)—Justice Deepak against apartheid was sworn-in as
IND 9 2 4·16 Verma (61), Chief Justice of Rajas- liberated South Africa’s fourth Presi-
Others 16 –9 8·4 than, has been appointed as the dent.

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 540


Dr. Manmohan Singh—Presi-
dent Pratibha Patil administered the
oath of office and secrecy to Dr.
Manmohan Singh as the Prime
Minister of India alongwith his cabinet
colleagues in Rashtrapati Bhavan on
May 22, 2009. This is Dr. Singh’s
second successive term.
President Pratibha Patil is administer-
ing the oath of Office and Secrecy to
Dr. Singh
Prime Minister Manmohan Singh
was born on September 26, 1932, in
a village in the Punjab province of
undivided India. Dr. Singh completed
his Matriculation examinations from
the Punjab University in 1948. His
acadmic career took him from Punjab
to the University of Cambridge, UK,
where he earned a First Class
Honours degree in Economics in
1957. Dr. Singh followed this with a
D. Phil in Economics from Nuffield
College at Oxford University in 1962.
His book, ‘‘India’s Export Trends and
Prospects for Self-Sustained Growth’’
[Clarendon Press, Oxford, 1964] was
an early critique of India’s inward-
oriented trade policy.
In 1971, Dr. Singh joined the
Government of India as Economic
Advisor in the Commerce Ministry.
This was soon followed by his
appointment as Chief Economic
Advisor in the Ministry of Finance in
1972. Among the many Governmental
positions that Dr. Singh has occupied
are Secretary in the Ministry of
Finance; Deputy Chairman of the
Planning Commission; Governor of
the Reserve Bank of India; Advisor of
the Prime Minister; and Chairman of
the University Grants Commission.
In what was to become the
turning point in the economic history
of independent India, Dr. Singh spent
five years between 1991 and 1996 as
India’s Finance Minister. His role in
ushering in a comprehensive policy of
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 541
economic reforms is now recognized
worldwide. In the popular view of
those years in India, that period is
inextricably associated with Dr.
Singh.
Among the many awards and
honours conferred upon Dr. Singh in
his public career, the most prominent
are India’s second highest civilian
honour, the Padma Vibhushan (1987);
the Jawaharlal Nehru Birth Centenary
Award of the Indian Science Congress
(1995); the Asia Money Award for
Finance Minister of the Year (1993
and 1994); the Euro Money Award for
Finance Minister of the Year (1993),
the Adam Smith Prize of the Univer-
sity of Cambridge (1956), and the
Wright’s Prize for Distinguished
Performance at St. John’s College in
Cambridge (1955). Dr. Singh has also
been honoured by a number of other
associations including the Japanese
Nihon Keizai Shimbun.
Dr. Singh and his wife Mrs.
Gursharan Kaur have three daugh-
ters.
During the last 26 years, LTTE
rewrote many of the standards of
terrorism. The Sri Lankan armed
forces won a comprehensive victory
over the LTTE in a military campaign
that began in the eastern province in
August 2006. With its entire top
leadership and thousands of fighting
cadres are killed in action, its military
structure, assets and capabilities are
destroyed, its political organization
decimated, the LTTE no longer exists.
Belying conventional wisdom, Sri
Lanka has found a military solution to
what used to be regarded as an
intractable armed secessionist and
terrorist challenge. Over a quarter of
century, this war waged and claimed
tens of thousands of lives.
The images of terrified children,
women and men fleeing the tiny sliver
of coastal land in which they were
confined by the Tigers for use as
human shieled. Senior LTTE leaders
made a final hopeless stand for a lost
cause will continue to haunt the
memories of journalists and others
who witnessed these scenes.
As the years went by and
numerous proposals for a negotiated
political solution fell by wayside, the
one thing that remained constant was
the LTTE’s uncompromising seces-
sionism and militarism, and the rising
graph of its terrorist crimes, which
included the assassination of the
former Indian Prime Minister, Rajiv
Gandhi, Sri Lankan President
Premdasa, a Sri Lankan Defence
Minister, a Foreign Minister and
countless others.
Now, in the post Prabhakaran
era, the Sri Lankan Government
needs to address two big tasks—
rehabilitation of hundreds of thou-
sands of Tamils who have been
through a prolonged nightmare and
crafting an enduring political solution
based on far-going devolution of
power to the Tamils in their areas of
historical habitation. India, which has
excellent relations with its southern
neighbour, can make a constructive
difference by coming up with a
massive rehabilitation package for the
North and encouraging Colombo to
fast-track the political solution.
SPORTS
Cricket
IPL-2—The final of Indian
Premier League cricket match was
played in Johannesburg between
Deccan Chargers and Royal Challen-
gers, Bangalore on May 24, 2009 at
the Wanderers. Anil Kumble was the
‘Captain of Royal Challengers,
Bangalore’ while Adam Gilchrist was
the Captain of Deccan Chargers. A
fighting unbeaten half century by
Herschelle Gibbs (53 runs not out)
took Deccan Chargers 143 for six
wicket.
But then it appeared initially to be
an innings dominated by a bowler, leg
spinner Anil Kumble, who finished four
wicket for sixteen runs. Three of his
scalps were—Adam Gilchrist, A.
Symonds and Rohit Sharma. In a
brilliant play, Kumble picked himself
to bowl the first over after inviting
Chargers to bat. It was Captain versus
Captain when Kumble operated to the
in-form.
Finally, the Royal Challengers,
Bangalore could score only 137 runs
for 9 wickets and lost to Deccan
Chargers by six runs.
●●●
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 16. When a radioactive nucleus emits a β-particle, the
Physics neutron to proton ratio
➠ decreases
17. What is the dimensional formula of Hubble’s constant
1. What is the relation between v, ω and r (in vector
is
form) ?
➠ [M0 L0 T–1]
→ → →
➠ v = ω × r 18. In nuclear reactor what is the function of moderators ?
2. What does the plug marked infinity in a resistance ➠ To slow down fast fission neutrons
box have below it ? 19. What will be the force when dipoles are along the line
➠ only air gap joining their centres ?
3. What is the moment of inertia for elliptical lamina ? μ 6M M
➠ I = (1/4) Ma 2 (about minor axis) ➠ 4ππ0 · r14 2 (along r)
and I = (1/4) Mb 2 (about major axis) 20. What provides the centripetal force to enable an earth
4. How many protons and neutrons does an α-particle satellite to move in a circular orbital ?
possess ? ➠ The gravitational force of attraction between the
➠ Two protons and two neutrons
earth and the satellite
5. What is tractive force ?
➠ F = (P/v)
6. What is conserved in the case of a freely falling Chemistry
body ?
➠ sum of kinetic and potential energies
7. What is the pressure-temperature law ? 21. The esters of long chain fatty acids with long chain
➠ (P1/T1) = (P2/T2) alcohols are commercially known as
8. An astronomical telescope is made of two lenses of ➠ Waxes
powers 5 D and 20 D. Its magnifying power for nor-
22. The lines in the spectrum of hydrogen atom in the
mal vision is
visible region are termed as
➠4
➠ Balmer series
9. What is Poynting vector ?
23. Both mass and volume are extensive properties but
→ → → 1 → → → → the ratio of mass of a sample to its volume is an
➠ S= E × H= ( E × B) = c 2 ε0 ( E × B)
μ0 intensive property, known as
10. To which region does the electromagnetic radiation of ➠ Density
° 24. The idea of elliptical orbits was propounded by
wavelength of the order of 1 A belong ?
➠ Sommerfeld
➠ X-ray radiation
25. The scientist who first pointed out that an element is
11. What is ratio of the reflected intensity and incident any substance that cannot be decomposed into a
intensity ? simpler substance
2
I
(
n –n
➠ Ir = n 1 + n 2
i 1 2
) ➠ Robert Boyle’s
26. Certain materials like potassium emit electrons when
12. A 4 μF condenser is charged to 400 volt and then its irradiated with visible light. This is known as
plates are joined through a resistance. Heat produced ➠ Photoelectric effect
in the resistance is 27. The term isotope was introduced by
➠ 0·32 joule ➠ Frederick Soddy
13. What is polarization vector ? 28. High lattice energy of an ionic compound is favoured
→ → by
Q P
➠ (i) ⏐ P ⏐ = A , (ii) ⏐ P ⏐ = ε0 χ Ed ➠ Small inter-ionic distance and high
charge on ions
14. How will you connect three capacitors of 3 μF each 29. 1 mol of O is equal to 16·0 gm and 1 mol of O2 will be
so that the capacitance of the combination is 4·5 μF? equal to
➠ Two in series and then one in their parallel ➠ 32·0 gm
15. What is the trajectory of a charged particle when it is 30. The chemical compounds which exist over a range of
projected perpendicular to a magnetic field ? chemical composition are known as
➠ Circle in a plane perpendicular to the field ➠ Berthollide compounds

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 543

31. When neutron is outside the nucleus, it is unstable 48. Ridges or folds found in the lining of vertebrate
and it changes into a proton, and electron and ano- stomach is called
ther elementry particle, known as ➠ Rugae
➠ Neutrino 49. Where each restriction enzyme cleaves a molecule ?
32. The product of the net positive or negative charge ➠ At a particular nucleotide sequence
and distance between the two charged ends is known 50. A rod of bone or cartilage that forms the only ear
as ossicle in amphibians, birds and reptiles is called
➠ Dipole-moment ➠ Collumelar auris
33. When a neutron collides with a proton, a nucleus of
51. Where the spermatogenesis occurs ?
➠ Deuterium is formed
➠ Seminiferous tubules
34. Who discovered chlorine ?
➠ C. W. Scheele (1774) 52. In cerebrum, the roof of each paracoel is called
➠ Pallium
35. A cold glow given out by some substances is called
➠ Phosphorescence 53. Which hormone prevents dehydration of human
36. Entire mountain ranges in Italy consist of mineral body ?
dolomite. Chemically dolomite is ➠ ADH
➠ MgCO3·CaCO3 54. Part of coelom in mammals containing lungs and
37. The crystals that can detect ultrasound and produce lined by pleura is
ultrasound are known as ➠ Viscera
➠ Piezoelectric crystals 55. Which area of human brain is responsible for arousal
38. Fluoroapatite is commercially important as a source and wakefulness ?
of phosphate. The composition of fluoroapatite is ➠ Reticular formation
➠ [3{Ca3(PO4)2}·CaF2] 56. Large marine mammals well adapted for aquatic life
39. The SI unit of pressure is are collectively known as
➠ Pascal (Pa) [1 atm = 101,325 Pa = 101·325 kPa] ➠ Cetacea
40. Aluminium articles are often given decorative finish 57. Which ion is most concentrated outside a resting
by electrolysing dil. H2SO4 with the aluminium anode. potential ?
This process is known as ➠ Sodium
➠ Anodising 58. The endocrine part of pancreas consists of
➠ Islets of Langerhans
59. Which kind of cells transmit the sensory impulses in
Zoology human eye to optic nerve ?
➠ Ganglion cells
60. The cells from Graafian follicle that surround the ovu-
41. What is the name of the hormone that causes deposi-
lated mammalian egg are known as
tion of fat in breast and hips in female humans during
➠ Cumulus cells
puberty ?
➠ Estrogen
42. A group of coelomate metazoans in which the first Botany
embryonic opening is associated with the mouth is
➠ Protostome
43. Which ion must be present for binding of the cross 61. Who prepared an infectious extract from tobacco
bridges in muscles ? plants that were suffering from mosaic disease ?
➠ Calcium ➠ D. I. Ivanovsky
44. Most of the carbon dioxide is transported in the blood 62. When does chromosome number becomes halved ?
stream of humans is ➠ In meiosis during anaphase-I
➠ Bicarbonate ion 63. What type of lysine, an amino acid, is ?
45. What is called the form of enzymes that are encoded ➠ Basic amino acid
by different allelic genes ? 64. What food is used by fungal partner made by algal
➠ Allozymes partner in a lichen ?
46. A small calcareous granules found in the inner ear of ➠ Mannitol
many mammals, is 65. What refers to the number of death per unit time ?
➠ Otolith ➠ Mortality
47. Over production of which neurotransmitter has been 66. What is the major role of phosphorus in plant
associated with the mental disorder, called metabolism ?
schizophrenia ? ➠ To generate metabolic energy
➠ Dopamine (Continued on Page 612 )

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 544

Thermodynamics
Thermodynamics is that branch of physics in which
heat is converted into other forms of energy and other
forms of energy are converted into heat. This branch
deals the transformation of heat into mechanical work and
the inter-relationship between them.
P-V diagram or indicator diagram—A graph bet-
ween pressure (P) and volume (V) is known as P-V
diagram or indicator diagram.
Area under P-V diagram = Work done.
A

Thermodynamical Variables
Area = Work done by the
Thermodynamical variables are those parameters gas in path AB
which define the thermodynamical system completely. P
B
These are pressure (P), volume (V), temperature (T),
internal energy (U) and entropy (S). These are also called
thermodynamical coordinates.

Thermodynamical Equilibrium
V
A system is said to be in thermodynamical equili-
brium if the temperature of its various parts is the same Cyclic Process (or Closed Path)
and equal to that of surroundings. Cyclic process is that process in which the system
returns to its original state (P, V, T) after doing work or
External Work done (W) after work being done on it.
When a body is heated, it expands. This is opposed The work done on the system or work done by the
by external atmospheric pressure. The work done against system depends upon the area of cycle. If the cycle traced
external atmospheric pressure during expansion of a body in clockwise direction then the network is done by the gas
is called external work. and if the cycle is traced in anticlockwise direction the net
work is done on the gas.
∴ Work done = Force × displacement
= Pressure × area × displacement Conversion of units—Work is measured in joule or
erg and heat is measured in kilo calorie or calorie. In the
= Pressure × change in volume relation W = JH, J is conversion factor.
ΔW = P ΔV
or In C.G.S. system J = 4·2 × 107 erg/cal
ΔW = P (V2 – V1)
In M.K.S. system J = 4·2 × 103 joule/k cal
where,
= 4·2 joule/cal
V1 = Initial volume of gas, V2 = Final volume of gas
In F.P.S. system
(i) If V2 > V1, then ΔW = +ve, then work is done by
J = 778 foot-pound/B.Th.u.
the system
Example 1. When a body falls from a great height
(ii) If V2 < V1, then ΔW = –ve, then work is done on (e.g. , water in a waterfall), potential energy is finally
the system converted into heat energy. Here the temperature
(iii) If V 1 = V2 or V = constant, then ΔW = 0 increases slightly.
● If pressure is constant, then work done mgh = J × ms Δ t
W = P(V2 – V1) gh
∴ Δt =
● If pressure and volume both are variable then the Js
work done Example 2. When a bullet is fired at a target, kinetic
∫
V2 energy is converted into heat energy and the temperature
W= P dV
V1 increases too much.
= Area between P -V curve and volume axis Here 1
mv2 = J (ms Δt)
● If the system expands into vacuum (free expansion), If bullet does not melt 2
1
then and mv2 = J (ms Δt + m L)
2
ΔW = 0 If bullet melts

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 545

 Example 3. When a piece of ice (hail) falls from a In the figure
great height, if a part of it melts, then Ui = Internal energy of the gas in initial state (i )
mgh = J (m′ L ) Uf = Internal energy of the gas in final state (f )
m′ → Mass of ice melts Then change in internal energy
ΔU = Uf – Ui
m → Total mass of ice
ΔU does not depend upon the path chosen. Hence,
If whole of ice melts, then
internal energy is called unique function (but work done
mgh = J × mL by a gas depends upon the path chosen).
JL For a closed path—Change in internal energy
⇒ h = ≈ 34 km
g
ΔU = 0. Hence, U = Constant
Internal Energy (U) ΔW ≠ 0
Every substance is made of tiny particles, known as and ΔQ ≠ 0
molecules. The molecules of a substance possess kinetic
energy due to the translatory motion or temperature. First Law of Thermodynamics
Translational K.E. of molecules is proportional to absolute According to Clausius, “When some amount of heat
temperature. The molecules also possess potential is given to a system, then a part of it is used to do work
energy (Ep) due to their position, or inter-molecular force and remaining part is used to change internal energy of
of attraction. the system.”
The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of all Let Q be the amount of heat given to a system.
molecules of a system is called internal energy or
intrinsic energy of the system. Then ΔU = Uf – Ui ⇒ Change in internal energy of the
system.
● In a perfect gas or ideal gas, there is no force
between its molecules, hence their potential energy W (or P ΔV) = Work done by the system
is zero, they have only kinetic energy. Therefore, Then Q = ΔU + W
internal energy of a perfect gas is entirely in the form
of kinetic energy of its molecules. = ΔU + P ΔV)
● Since kinetic energy of molecules is proportional to Applications of first law of thermodynamics
temperature, therefore, internal energy of a perfect (a) For isothermal change (in case of perfect gas)—
gas depends only on temperature and not on its Since, temperature
pressure and volume. It is called Joule’s law. Thus,
for a perfect gas T = Constant
So, ΔU = 0
∂U ∂U
= 0, = 0 In this case Q = W
∂V ∂P
T T
(b) For adiabatic change—In this process heat is
∂U ∂U neither given to the system nor taken from it, i.e.,
≠ 0, ≠ 0
∂T ∂T exchange of heat
P V
● For isothermal change temperature T remains Q = 0
constant. Hence, U remains constant, i.e., ΔU = 0. In this case ΔU = – W
● In real gases, since there is a force of attraction So in adiabatic compression in the system since
between molecules of the gas, hence their potential W = –ve hence, ΔU = +ve i.e., there will be rise in internal
energy is not zero. Therefore, internal energy of a energy of the system or adiabatic compression always
real gas is in the form of kinetic energy and potential causes heating.
energy of its molecules. Hence, internal energy of a
real gas depends upon all pressure (P), volume (V) Similarly if there is expansion in the system (adiabatic
and temperature (T). expansion) since W = +ve, so ΔU = –ve. Hence, internal
energy or temperature of the gas falls or adiabatic
expansion causes cooling.
(c) For isochoric change—Since volume
V = Constant
Hence, ΔV = 0
or W = PΔV = 0
∴ Q = ΔU = m Cv Δt
Therefore, in isochoric change the heat supplied to
the system is used up in increasing internal energy of the
system.

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 546

 (d) For isobaric change—In this process Values of Specific Heats C p and Cv for Gases
P = Constant. (a) For monoatomic gases (e.g., He, Ne, Ar etc.)
Q = m Cp Δt 3
Cv = R ~– 3 cal/mole-K
ΔU = m Cv Δt 2
Here, Cp is specific heat of gas at constant pressure. 5
Cp = R ~
– 5 cal/mole-K
Therefore, in isobaric change the heat supplied to the 2
system is used partly in changing the volume and partly in Cp
γ = = 1·67
changing temperature. Cv
(e) For isolated system—An isolated system is one (b) Diatomic gases (e. g., H2, O2, N2 etc.)
which is completely cut off from the surroundings, 5
therefore, Q = 0, and there is no change in internal energy Cv = R
2
i.e., Δ U = 0 and hence, ΔW = 0. So system does not
≈ 5 cal/mol-K
perform any work.
7
(f) For cyclic process—For this process change in Cp = R
2
internal energy ΔU = 0.
= 7 cal/mole-K
Hence, Q = W Cp
i.e., whole of the heat supplied to the system is used γ = = 1·4
Cv
in doing work against external pressure.
(c) Polyatomic gases
Specific Heat of Gases Cv = 3 R = 6 cal/mole-K
Specific heat of a gas depends on the condition of Cp = 4R ~– 8 cal/mole-K
pressure and volume of the gas during its heating. Cp
γ = = 1·33
Accordingly specific heat of a gas may be anything from Cv
zero to infinity. ● For n moles of gas
In general two modes of heating a gas has been ΔU = n Cv ΔT
selected. They are (a) At constant pressure (b) At cons-
and ΔQ = n Cp ΔT
tant volume.
Accordingly there are two specific heats in case of ∴ ΔW = ΔQ – ΔU = n R ΔT
gases. Nature of Internal Energy
(i) Specific heat at constant pressure (Cp)
Every thermodynamic system has some internal
(ii) Specific heat at constant volume (Cv ) energy which is characteristic of its state. It consists of
Cp > Cv—In case of Cv , volume V = Constant kinetic energy due to molecular motion and potential
⇒ ΔV = 0 energy due to molecular attraction.
We know that monoatomic molecules undergo only
Hence, work done by gas W = P ΔV = 0 but in case of
translational motion, i.e., the centre of mass of the mole-
Cp, pressure P = constant. Therefore, when gas is heated
cule moves [fig. (a)]. Hence, these molecules have kinetic
its volume increases and some work (W = P ΔV) is done energy due to translational motion.
by the gas. Hence extra amount of heat should be given
to the gas to do this work. So Cp > Cv .
Cp – Cv = Extra work done
= P ΔV
= PV2 – PV1
= RT2 – RT1
= R (T + 1) – RT
= R Translational Motion Rotational Motion
(a) (b)
∴ Cp – C v = R
It is known as Mayer’s formula
For one gm mole gas
Cp – C v –~ 2 cal/mole-K Vibrational Motion
(c)
Molar Specific Heat Diatomic and polyatomic molecules undergo not only
It is equal to specific heat multiplied by the molecular the translational motion inside the substance; but also
weight M. rotate about the axis passing through the centre of mass
of the molecule [fig. (b)] and also vibrate relative to each
Thus, Cp = M × Cp
other [fig. (c)]. Thus, in diatomic and polyatomic molecules,
and Cv = M × Cv in addition to translational motion, there is also internal

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 547 / 3

rotational motion and vibrational motion. Hence, these ‘It is impossible to convert ‘all’ the heat extracted
molecules in addition to translational kinetic energy, have from a hot body into work’
rotational kinetic energy and vibrational kinetic energy According to a second statement :
also.
‘It is impossible to transfer heat from a cold body
Thus, the internal energy of a substance consists of :
to a hot body without expenditure of work by an
(i) The translational kinetic energy of molecules. external agency’.
(ii) The internal rotational and vibrational kinetic
As an illustration we take the case of a heat engine.
energies of molecules (if they are polyatomic).
Here the working substance takes heat Q 1 from the hot
(iii) The potential energy of the molecules due to
inter-atomic forces. body (source), converts a part of it
Hot Body
into work W and gives the rest Q 2 (Source)
Important Points to Note to a cold body (sink)
1. Ideal gases—In case of ideal gases there is no Q1
No engine has ever been
molecular attraction between the molecules. Hence, they
designed which may convert ‘all’
have no potential energy. Thus, the internal energy of an
ideal gas is only the kinetic energy of its molecules.
the heat Q taken from the source ⎯⎯→W
into work W without giving any
2. Real gases—In real compressed gases the heat to the sink. For obtaining
molecules come closer and so exert appreciable force on Q2
continuous work a sink is
one another. Hence, potential energy also adds to their necessary. In other words, all the
internal energy. Since, potential energy is negative, it heat taken from a body cannot be Cold Body
follows that internal energy of a compressed gas is less (Sink)
converted into work.
than its internal energy in rarefied state at the same
temperature. ● A refrigerator is a heat engine running in the reverse
direction. In it, the working substance (a gas) takes
3. Liquids—Molecules in liquids are very close to
in heat from a cold body and gives out to the hotter
one another exert stronger forces and possess sufficient
body (external atmosphere). For doing this it uses
potential energy. But their translation motion is very
electrical energy. No refrigerator has yet been
limited in comparison to gas molecules. Since potential
designed which may transfer heat from a cold body to
energy is negative, the internal energy of the liquids is
a hot body without using an external source of
very small compared to the internal energy of the gas at
energy. It implies that it is impossible for a self-acting
the same temperature.
machine, unaided by any external agency, to transfer
4. Solids—In solids molecules are fixed in definite heat from a cold body to a hot body.
positions in a lattice. These molecules vibrate to and fro
about these positions but can not leave these positions Efficiency of Heat Engine
permanently. These vibrations are called lattice vibrations. Amount of heat converted into mechanical work
In solids the potential energy of molecules is very large. η =
Amount of heat taken from the source
Since this is negative, the internal energy of solids is less Q1 – Q2
than that of liquids. =
Q1
5. Translational K. E. of molecules—According to Q2
the kinetic theory, the translational kinetic energy of the = 1–
Q1
molecules (and not the whole internal energy of the
substance) is directly proportional to the absolute Carnot engine (Reversible cycle)
temperature of the substance. Hence the temperature of For a reversible cycle
the substance rises on increasing the translational kinetic Q1 T1
energy of its molecules. =
Q2 T2
Second Law of Thermodynamics T2
∴ η = 1–
The first law of thermodynamics states the equi- T1
valence heat and mechanical work when one is Refrigerator The efficiency of rever-
completely converted into the other. It simply tells that sible thermodynamic cycle
when ever work is obtained an equivalent amount of heat Hot Body (Carnot cycle) depends not on
T1 K the nature of the gas, but only
is used up, or vice-versa. It does not say anything either
about the limitation in the conversion of heat into work or on the temperature range
Q1 between which it operates.
about the condition necessary for such a conversion.
Carnot’s theorem—No
The quest for deciding these points led to the Mechanical engine can be more efficient
formulation of Second Law of Thermodynamics. This ←⎯⎯ work than a reversible engine
law is generalisation of certain experiences and working between the same
observations and is concerned with the direction in which W = Q1 – Q2 temperatures.
energy transfers take place. This law has been stated in Q2
W = Amount of mechani-
various forms but all the statements are equivalent. Below Cold Body
cal work given from outside
are given two simple forms of this law. According to one T2 K which changes into amount
statement : (Q1 – Q2) of heat.

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 548

 At a Glance Relation between β and η

Efficiency of Engines T2 1
β = =
Steam engine—ηs = 17% (Max.) T1 – T 2 T1
–1
Petrol engine—ηp = 44% (Max.) T2

Diesel engine—ηd = 55% (Max.) T2

and η = 1–
Thus, ηd > η p > η s T1
Electric engine T2
or = 1–η
η = 90% (Max.) T1

The coefficient of performance of the refrigerator. T1 1

or =
Q2 Q2 T2 1–η
β = =
W Q1 – Q2 1
For a reversible cycle ∴ β =
1
Q1 T1 –1
= 1–η
Q2 T2
T2 1–η
∴ β = β =
T1 – T 2 η

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
01. The volume of a gas expands by 05. A bullet moving with a uniform 09. If the amount of heat given to a
0·25 m3 at constant pressure of velocity v stops suddenly after system be 35 joule and the
103 Nm –2. The work done is hitting the target and the whole amount of work done by the
equal to— mass melts. If the mass of the system be – 15 joule, then the
(A) 2·5 erg (B) 250 joule bullet be m, specific heat S, initial change in the internal energy of
(C) 250 watt (D) 250 newton temperature 25°C, melting point the system is—
475°C and latent heat L. Then— (A) – 50 joule (B) 20 joule
02. An ideal monoatomic gas is
(A) m L = m S (475 – 25) + 1/2 (C) 30 joule (D) 50 joule
taken round the cycle ABCDA as
shown in the P-V diagram. The mv2/J 10. A gas expands from 50 litre
work done during the cycle is— (B) m S (475 – 25) + m L = 1/2 volume to 250 litre at 105 N/m 2
mv 2/J atm pressure. Calculate the work
↑ (2P, V) (2P, 2V) (C) mS (475 – 25) + m L = 2J/mv2 done by the gas—
P A B (D) mS (475 – 25) = m L + 2J/mv2 (A) 2 × 107 J (B) 2 × 104 J
(C) 2 cal (D) Zero
06. A waterfall is 84 m high. Assum-
ing that half of the kinetic energy 11. The kinetic energy of gas mole-
D C of the falling water gets converted cules will be half the value at
into heat, the rise in temperature room temperature (27°C), when
(P, V) (P, 2V)
of water is— temperature becomes—
V→ (A) 0·098°C (B) 0·98°C (A) 327°C (B) 123°C
(A) PV (B) 2 PV (C) – 123°C (D) – 27°C
(C) 9·8°C (D) 0·0098°C
1 12. The average energy associated
(C) PV (D) Zero 07. 1 gm coal gives 2 kilo cal of heat
2 per molecule for a gas whose
effectively on burning. The coal
03. 1 gm water at 100°C becomes molecules have n degrees of
costs 14 paise per kg. The cost to
freedom is—
1671 c.c. steam at 100°C and at produce 1 kWh electrical energy
1 nk T
1 atmosphere pressure when is— (A) nk T (B)
2 N
540 cal heat is supplied. The (A) 60 paise (B) 6 paise 1 nk T 3
external work done is nearly— (C) (D) k T
(C) 1 paisa (D) 100 paise 2 N 2
(A) 2268 J (B) Zero
08. During the adiabatic expansion 13. The efficiency of Carnot engine
(C) 169 J (D) 2100 J
of 2 mole of a gas, the internal working between the source at
04. If 10 moles of oxygen gas is energy of the gas is found to absolute temperature T1 and sink
heated at constant volume from decrease by 2 joule. The work at absolute temperature T2 is—
20°C to 40°C. The change in done during the process on the T2 T1
internal energy of the gas is— (A) (B) 1 –
gas will be equal to— T1 T2
(A) 1400 cal (B) 1000 cal (A) 1 joule (B) – 1 joule T2 T1
(C) 1 – (D) –1
(C) 400 cal (D) 1000 kilo cal (C) 2 joule (D) – 2 joule T1 T2

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 549

14. A Carnot engine is working bet-
ween temperature 527°C and
27°C. Its efficiency will be—
(A) 62·5% (B) 37·5%
(C) 50% (D) 25%
15. Theoretically the efficiency of
Carnot engine is 100%, when the
temperature of the sink is—
(A) 0°C (B) 0K
(C) 0°F (D) 0°R
16. By opening the door of a refrige-
rator which is inside the room—
(A) The room can be cooled to a
certain degree
(B) Room can be cooled to the
temperature of the refrige-
rator
(C) Ultimately room is slightly
warmed
(D) The room is neither cooled
or warmed
17. One gram of ice, when melts,
requires 336 joule of heat. The
increase in internal energy will
be—
(A) Equal to 336 J
(B) More than 336 J
(C) Less than 336 J
(D) Equal to zero
18. A perfect gas is contained in a
cylinder kept in vacuum. The
cylinder suddenly bursts. The
temperature of the gas—
(A) Becomes 0 K
(B) Remains unchanged
(C) Becomes more than before
(D) Becomes less than before
19. A perfect gas is heated in an
isothermal way. The heat will be
used to—
(A) Do external work
(B) Increase temperature
(C) Increase internal energy
(D) Decrease internal energy
20. In which process will the change
in internal energy be equal to the
work done ?
(A) Isothermal process
(B) Adiabatic process
(C) Isochoric process
(D) Isobaric process
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 550
21. Work done in an adiabatic
change for a perfect gas depends
only on—
(A) Change in volume
(B) Change in pressure
(C) Change in temperature
(D) Change in heat content
22. An ideal Carnot engine whose
efficiency is 40% receives heat at
500 K, If the efficiency is to be
50%, the intake temperature for
the same exhaust temperature
is—
(A) 900 K (B) 800 K
(C) 700 K (D) 600 K
23. A given mass of a gas expands
from the state A to the state B by
three paths 1, 2 and 3 as shown
in figure. If W1, W2 and W 3
respectively be the work done by
the gas along the three paths
then—
A 3
P
⎯⎯→
2 (A) 0·7
1
B
⎯⎯→ V
(A) W1 > W2 > W3
(B) W1 < W2 < W3
(C) W1 = W2 = W3
(D) W1 < W2 and W 1 > W3
24. The specific heat of hydrogen
gas at constant pressure is
Cp = 3·4 × 103 calorie/kg°C and
at constant volume is C v = 2·4 ×
103 calorie/kg°C. If one kilogram
hydrogen gas is heated from
10°C to 20°C at constant pres-
sure the external work done on
the gas to maintain it at constant
pressure is—
(A) 103 calorie
(B) 5 × 103 calorie
(C) 104 calorie
(D) 105 calorie
25. The differential form of first law of
thermodynamics is—
(A) d Q = d U – d W
(B) d Q + d U = d W
(C) d Q = d U + d W
(D) d Q + d U + d W = 0
26. Which of the following is not
thermodynamic function ?
(A) Enthalpy
(B) Work done
(C) Gibbs energy
(D) Internal energy
27. An ideal heat engine exhausting
heat at 77°C is to have a 30%
efficiency. It must take heat at—
(A) 127°C (B) 327°C
(C) 227°C (D) 673°C
28. A Carnot’s engine first works
between 200°C and 0°C and
then between 0°C and – 200°C.
The ratio of its efficiencies in
these two cases is—
(A) 1·000 (B) 0·722
(C) 0·577 (D) 0·340
29. In a Carnot’s engine, the tempe-
rature of the source is found to
be 727°C and that of sink to be
27°C. The approximate effi-
ciency of the engine is—
(B) 0·9
(C) 0·4 (D) 1
30. A Carnot’s engine takes 300
calorie of heat at 500 K and
rejects 150 calorie of heat to the
sink. The temperature of the sink
is—
(A) 1000 K (B) 750 K
(C) 250 K (D) 125 K
31. A lead bullet of mass 21 gm hits
a hard target with a velocity 200
m/s. The total amount of heat
produced would be—
(A) 100 cal (B) 1000 cal
(C) 500 cal (D) 2000 cal
32. A gas is compressed at a cons-
tant pressure of 50 N/m2 from
volume of 10 m3 to a volume of
4 m3. Energy of 100 J is then
added to the gas by heating. Its
internal energy is—
(A) Increased by 400 J
(B) Increased by 200 J
(C) Increased by 100 J
(D) Decreased by 200 J
33. In a thermodynamic process the
pressure of a fixed mass of the
gas is changed in such a manner
that the gas releases 20 J of heat
and 8 J of work is done on the
 gas. If the initial energy of the
gas was 30 J, then the final
internal energy will be—
(A) 2 J (B) 42 J
(C) 18 J (D) 58 J
34. Find the change in internal
energy of the system when a
system absorbs 2 kilo-calorie of
heat and at the same time does
500 joule of work—
(A) 7900 J (B) 8200 J
(C) 5600 J (D) 6400 J
35. The efficiency of a Carnot’s
engine working between steam
point and ice point is—
40. A Carnot’s engine operates with
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
a source at 500 k and sink at
375 k. The engine takes in 600 k
cal of heat in one cycle. The heat
rejected to the sink per cycle is—
(A) 250 k cal (B) 350 k cal
(C) 480 k cal (D) 550 k cal
41. The P-V diagram shows the
thermodynamic behaviour of an
ideal gas. The work done in the
complete cycle ABCDA is—
A B
12
10
8
P (105 N/m2)

(A) 16·8% (B) 26·81% 6

(C) 36·8% (D) 46·8% 4

D C
36. The coefficient of performance of 2
a refrigerator working between
1 2 3 4 5 6
– 10°C and 20°C is—
V (litre)
(A) 8·77 (B) 6·77 (A) 6000 J
(C) 7·77 (D) 10·77 (B) 5000 J, done by the gas
37. From what minimum height a (C) 5000 J, done on the gas
block of ice has to be dropped in (D) 6 × 106 J done by the gas
order that it may melt completely
on hitting the ground ? (L is the 42. The figure shows the changes in
latent heat of ice and J is joules a thermodynamical system as it
constant) goes from A → B → C → A. It is
given that
(A) mgh (B) mgh /J
UA = 0, UB = 30 J and heat given
(C) JL/g (D) J/Lg
to the system in the process
38. A Carnot’s engine takes in 3000 B → C is 50 J.
k cal of heat from a reservoir at
C
627°C and it gives it to a sink at 90
27°C. The work done by the
engine is—
(N/m2)

60
(A) 4·2 × 106 J
Pressure P

(B) 8·4 × 106 J

30 B
(C) 16·8 × 106 J A

(D) Zero D E
0
39. An ideal heat engine working 1 2 3
between temperature T1 and T 2 Volume V (m3)
has efficiency η. If both the tem- Which of the following inference
peratures are raised by 100 K from it is not correct ?
each, the new efficiency of the (A) Internal energy of the system
heat engine will be— in state C is 80 J
(A) Equal to η (B) Heat given to the system in
(B) Greater than η process A → B is 90 J
(C) Heat taken out from the
(C) Less than η
system in process C → A is
(D) Greater or less than η de- – 200 J
pending upon the nature of (D) Work done in complete cycle
working substances ABCA is 120 J

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 551

Thermal Radiation
Heat travelling by the process of radiation is called
radiant heat or thermal radiation. When heat is propagated
by radiation, no material medium is necessary for the
transmission and if there is any medium it is not necessary
that it should first get itself heated (as in case of conduc-
tion and convection) before it could assist the propagation
of thermal radiation. Thermal radiation has following pro-
perties :
(1) Thermal radiation travels through empty space with
the velocity of light.
(2) Thermal radiation exhibits properties of light. The only
difference is that its average wavelength is greater
than that of visible light. Therefore, the thermal radia-
tion is called infrared radiation.
At a Glance
Some Definitions
Total energy density—The total energy density of radia-
tions at any point is the total radiant energy per unit volume
around that point for all the wavelengths taken together. It is
generally expressed by u, its unit is joule m – 3.
Spectral energy density—The spectral energy density
for a particular wavelength is the energy per unit volume per
unit range of wavelength. This is denoted by uλ.
Total emissive power—The total emissive power of a
body is the radiant energy emitted per unit time per unit surface
area of the body for all wavelengths taken together. It is
denoted by E.
Spectral emissive power—The spectral emissive power
of a body at a particular wavelength is the radiant energy
emitted per unit time per unit surface area of the body within a
unit wavelength range. It is denoted by E λ.
Absorptive power—The absorptive power of a body at a
particular temperature and for a particular wavelength is
defined as the ratio of the radiant energy absorbed per unit
surface area per unit time to the total energy incident on the
same area of the body in unit time within a unit wavelength
range. It is denoted by aλ.
From these definitions
∞ ∞
u =
∫ 0
uλd λ and E =
∫ E dλ
0
λ Stefan’s law states that the rate of emission of radiant
Black Body and Black Body Radiation
A perfectly black-body is one which absorbs all the
heat radiations, of whatever wavelength, incident on it. It
neither reflects nor transmits any of the incident radiation
and, therefore, appears black whatever be the colour of
incident radiation.
Let a black-body be placed in an isothermal enclosure.
The body will emit the full radiation of the enclosure after it
is in thermal equilibrium with the enclosure. These radia-
tions are independent of the nature of the substance.
Clearly the radiation from an isothermal enclosure is
identical with that from a black-body at the same tem-
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 554
perature. Hence, the heat-radiations in an isothermal
enclosure are termed as black-body radiation.
In practice no substance possesses strictly the pro-
perties of a black-body. Lamp-black and the platinum black
are the nearest approach to a black-body. However, the
bodies showing close approximation to a perfectly black-
body have been constructed e.g., Ferry’s black body and
Wien’s black-body.
Kirchhoff’s Law
It states that the ratio of the emissive power to the
absorptive power for a given wavelength at a given tem-
perature is the same for all bodies and is equal to the
emissive power of a perfectly black-body at that tempera-
ture. Expressed in symbols, it is
eλ
= Eλ
aλ
Pressure of Radiation
The radiation possesses the properties of light. Like
light it exerts a small but definite pressure on the surface
on which it is incident.
For normal incidence on the surface, the pressure of
radiation is equal to the energy density, i.e.
I
p = u=
c
The density of radiation u is simply the amount of
radiation contained in unit volume and is, therefore, equal
to I/ c where I is the intensity of radiation and c is the
velocity of light.
For diffuse radiation
1
Pressure = × Energy density
3
1 1 I
p = u =
3 3 c
Stefan-Boltzmann Law
energy by unit area of a perfectly black-body is directly
proportional to the fourth power of its absolute tempera-
ture. In symbols
E = σT4
where σ is a constant and is called Stefan’s constant. The
unit of σ is Jm– 2 s – 1K– 4 or Wm– 2 K– 4.
The law in the above form refers to the emission only
and not to the net loss of heat by the body after exchange
with the surroundings. The law can be extended to repre-
sent the net loss of heat and may be enunciated as
follows :
A black-body at absolute temperature T surrounded
by another black-body at absolute temperature T 0 not only
loses an amount of energy σT4 but also gains σT04, thus, = e σ (4T′3) ΔT
the amount of heat lost by the former per unit time is given ∝ ΔT
by
The rate of cooling of a body depends upon the
E = σ (T4 – T 04)
energy radiated by it. Hence, rate of cooling of a body is
The law is known as Stefan-Boltzmann’s law as proportional to the mean temperature difference between
Boltzmann deduced it thermodynamically in 1884 and
the body and its surroundings.
showed that the law strictly applies to emission from a
perfectly black-body. Thus, Newton’s law is only a special case of Stefan’s
law for small temperature differences.
Newton’s Law of Cooling
Spectral Distribution of Black Body Radiation
It states that the rate of loss of heat from a body is
proportional to the mean excess temperature of the body A perfectly black-body is a full radiator, i.e., it emits
over the temperature of its surroundings provided that the radiation of all possible wavelengths. Lummer and
temperature excess is small, i.e. Pringsheim studied the spectral
T3 > T2 > T1
Rate of loss heat from the body ∝ Mean temp. difference distribution of energy (i.e., energy
distribution among different wave- Eλ T3
Consider a hot body of mass m, specific heat s and at
lengths) in the radiation of a black
temperature θ1. Its temperature falls from θ 1 to θ2 in a
body at different temperatures. T2
time-interval t, when the temperature of surroundings is θ0. Spectral distribution curves so T1
Then obtained are shown in the figure. λ
(θ 1 – θ 2) These curves have the same general shape for all
Rate of loss of heat from the body = ms
t temperatures and give the following information regarding
During cooling, average temperature of the body the characteristics of black body radiation :
θ 1 + θ2 (i) At a given temperature T, with increase in wave-
θ= , so the average temperature-difference bet- length λ, the energy Eλ first increases, reaches a maxi-
2
ween the body and its surroundings is (θ – θ0). According mum and then decreases. It means that for a given tem-
to Newton’s law, we have perature, the radiant energy emitted by a black-body is
maximum for a particular wavelength.
(θ 1 – θ 2)
ms ∝ (θ – θ0) (ii) As the temperature increases, the peak of the
t
curve shifts towards shorter wavelength side, i.e., the
(θ 1 – θ 2)
or ms = k (θ – θ0) maximum value of E λ is obtained at smaller value of λ.
t
where k is a proportionality constant. Wien in 1896 established the following relation bet-
ween temperature T and wavelength λm corresponding to
Derivation of Newton’s Law from Stefan’s Law maximum emission.
Consider that a hot body at temperature T is
surrounded by a medium at temperature T′. According to λm T = constant = b (suppose)
Stefan’s law the net rate of loss of heat by the body is This is called Wien’s displacement law.
e σ (T4 – T′4) The constant b is called Wien’s constant and has the value
where e is emissive power of the body. 0·2896 cm K or 0·2896 × 10– 2 mK
Further suppose that temperature T of the body is (iii) As the temperature rises, the area enclosed by the
only slightly higher than the temperature T′ of its curve goes on increasing. This area represents total energy
surroundings both at E (for all wavelengths) emitted by a black body at that
T – T′ = ΔT temperature. The areas enclosed by different curves, when
or T = (T ′ + ΔT) measured, are found to be proportional to the fourth power
of corresponding absolute temperatures. Thus
so the rate of loss of heat is
ΔT E ∝ T4
[ ( ) ]
4
e σ [(T′ + ΔT)4 – T′4] = e σ T′ 4 1+ – T′4
T′ This is Stefan’s law.
Since ΔT is very small compared to T′, hence (iv) Wien also proved that at a temperature T, the
maximum emitted energy (Eλ)m corresponding to wave-
ΔT 4 ΔT
(1+
T′ ) = 1+4
T′
length λ is proportional to the fifth power of that tempera-
ture (T5). Thus
by the binomial theorem neglecting higher powers of ΔT/T′
(Eλ)m ∝ T5
∴ Rate of loss of heat This shows that on raising temperature, the maximum
ΔT
= eσ [ (
T′ 4 1+4
T′ ) ]
– T′4 energy (Eλ)m emitted corresponding to wavelength λ
increases very rapidly.

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 555

 SOME TYPICAL SOLVED EXAMPLES

Example 1. A black-body radiates heat energy at a

rate 1·45 × 10 3 Js– 1 m – 2 at a temperature of 127°° C. At
what temperature will it radiate heat at the rate of
1·17 × 105 Js – 1 m – 2 ?

Example 3. Estimate the temperatures at which a

Solution :
body would appear red and blue. The corresponding
wavelengths of maximum emission are λ = 7500 A °
m
and 5000 A° respectively.
(Given : Wien’s constant b = 0·3 cm-K)
Solution

Example 2. At what temperature a perfectly black-

body of area 104 m2 would radiate energy at the rate of
90·72 Wm – 2 ? (Given : σ = 5·67 × 10– 8 Wm– 2 K– 4)
Solution

1. A hot body will radiate heat most
rapidly its surface is—
(A) White and polished
(B) White and rough
(C) Black and polished
(D) Black and rough
2. The best black-body is—
(A) A metal coated with a black
dye
(B) A lamp of charcoal heated to
a high temperature
(C) A glass surface coated with
coal-tar
(D) A hollow enclosure black-
ened inside and having a
small hole
3. The colour of a star indicates
its—
(A) Weight (B) Size
(C) Distance (D) Temperature
4. Three stars A, B and C appear
green, red and blue respectively.
The star having minimum tem-
perature is—
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) All are at the same tempera-
ture
5. Two sphere A and B of the same
material having radii 1m and 4m
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
are at temperatures 4000 K and
2000 K. Which will emit more
energy per second ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) Equal for both
(D) None of these
6. Choose the wrong statement—
(A) Black surface is a better
absorber of radiation than a
white one
(B) Rough surface is a better
radiator than a smooth
surface
(C) Highly polished surface is a
very good radiator
(D) Black surface is a better
radiator than a white one
7. A polished plate with a rough
black spot is heated to a high
temperature and taken in a dark
room. Then—
(A) Spot will appear brighter than
the plate
(B) Spot will appear darker than
the plate
(C) Both will appear equally
bright
(D) Neither the spot, nor the
plate will be visible
8. The temperature of a piece of
metal is raised from 27°C to 84°C.
The rate at which the metal
radiates energy nearly increases
to—
(A) Two times
(B) Four times
(C) Eight times
(D) Sixteen times
9. Which of the following is roughly
the rate of solar energy (in kW)
falling per m2 surface area of the
earth ?
(A) 1 (B) 100
(C) 0·1 (D) 0·0001
10. Sun and moon emit maximum
°
radiation for wavelengths 5000 A
and 15μ respectively. Taking tem-
perature of the sun to be 6000 K,
find the temperature of the
moon—
(A) 250 K (B) 200 K
(C) 300 K (D) None of these
11. A solid sphere and a hollow
sphere of same material and
same external radii are heated to
the same temperature and left to
cool in the same environment.
Which statement about their cool-
ing is correct ?
(A) Solid sphere cools faster
(B) Hollow sphere cools faster

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 556

 (C) Both spheres cool at the
same rate
(D) Nothing can be said as more
information is required
12. The temperature of an incandes- ●●●
cent body is increased and a
graph between temperature T and
λm, wavelength corresponding to
maximum emission is drawn.
Which of the following is the
correct graph ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

13. A body cools in 7 minute from

60°C to 40°C. What will be the
temperature after next 7 minute ?
The temperature of surround-
ings is 10°C. Assume that the
Newton’s law of cooling holds
throughout the process—
(A) 21°C (B) 35°C
(C) 28°C (D) 42°C

14. A steel block heated to 100°C is

left to cool. The curve showing the
correct cooling behaviour is—
●●●
C
Temperature

B UPKAR’S
A

Time
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) None of these
15. The intensity of radiation emitted
by sun has its maximum value at
a wavelength 510 nm and that
emitted by the North star has the
maximum value at 350 nm. If
these stars behave like black
bodies, the ratio of the surface By : Dr. Lal & Jain
temperature the Sun and the
North star is— Code No. 1512 Price : 155/-
(A) 1·46 (B) 0·69 Main Features
(C) 1·21 (D) 0·83
❖ General Knowledge
❖ Physics/Electronics
ANSWERS WITH HINTS ❖ Mathematics
HINDI EDITION Code 1206 Rs. 160/-

Upkar Prakashan, AGRA-2

● E-mail : publisher@upkar.in
● Website : www.upkar.in

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 557

Model Paper for Various Medical Entrance Examinations (C) The potential energy gained
by the object when it is on
the top of the plane is 2700

PHYSICS joule
(D) None of these
10. Crystalline state of matter means
the following—
1. A radioactive particle has a (C) Potential difference can be
expressed in watts per (A) A representative unit is peri-
proper half-life 2 × 10–6 sec. If it
ampere odically repeated in all
is travelling with a speed of 0·9 dimensions in the matter
C, then the lab distance covered (D) None of these
(B) A large number of different
by the beam of such particles 6. The count rate from 100 cm3 of a
3 representative units are
before th of them decay is radioactive liquid is C. Some of spread out in all directions in
4 this liquid is now discarded. The
about— the matter
count rate of the remaining liquid
(C) An array of basis points
(A) 11 × 102 m (B) 25 × 102 m is found to be
C
after three half- spread out inside the mate-
10
(C) 4·5 × 102 m (D) 5·2 × 102 m lives. The volume of the remain-
rial
ing liquid, in cm3, is— (D) Smallest size grains, each
2. A long straight conductor, carry-
having a single represen-
ing a current I, is (A) 20 (B) 40
tative unit, are arranged
bent to form an (C) 60 (D) 80 periodically in the crystal
almost complete
7. A rock solidified sometime in the
circular loop of 11. 30 joule of heat flows into a
past contained no lead (Pb206 )
radius r. The mag- system. The system in turn does
but did contain some U238 . The
netic field at the 50 joule of work. The internal
centre of the loop half-life of U 235 is 4·5 × 109 energy of the system has—
has magnitude— years and other decays in the
(A) Remained constant
series have much lower half-
μ0
(A)
2 ( )
1–
1
π
lives. At present the ratio of Pb
atoms to U atoms is 7 : 1. The
(B) Increased by 80 joule
(C) Decreased by 80 joule
μ0I age of the rock roughly is— (D) Decreased by 20 joule
(B) (1 + π) (A) 7 × 4·5 × 109 years
r
12. The focal lengths of the objective
μ0I (B) log 7 × 4·5 × 10 9 years
(C)
2r ( )
1–
1
π (C) 13·5 × 109 years
and the eyepiece of a telescope
are 50 cm and 5 cm respectively.
If the telescope is focussed for
μ0I (D) 9 × 109 years
(D)
2r ( )
1+
1
π 8. Assuming that 200 MeV of
distinct vision on a scale distant
2 m from its objective, then its
energy is released per fission of magnifying power will be—
3. A particle is moving with uniform
acceleration along a straight line uranium atom, find the number of (A) – 2 (B) – 4
ABC, where AB = BC. The fission per second required to (C) + 8 (D) – 8
average velocity of the particle release 1 kilowatt power—
13. Symbols having their usual
from A to B is 10 m/s and from B (A) 8 × 1012 (B) 10 × 1013 meaning, which of the following
to C is 15 m/s. The average
velocity for the whole journey (C) 15 × 1010 (D) 3·125 × 1013 does not represent energy ?
from A to C is— (A) ms / t (B) Q2R/ t
9. An inclined plane 5 m long has
(A) 12·5 m/s (B) 12 m/s 1
one end on the ground and the (C) ms2/ t 2 (D) mgh
2
(C) 13 m/s (D) 13·5 m/s other end on a platform 3 m high.
A man weighing 650 N wishes to 14. Velocity of electromagnetic
4. The penetrating powers of α, β waves in a medium depends
push a 900 N object up this
and γ radiations in decreasing upon—
plane. The force of friction is 100
order, are— (A) Thermal properties of the
N. Which of the following
(A) γ, α, β (B) γ, β, α conclusions from it is wrong ? medium
(C) α, β, γ (D) β, γ, α (A) The minimum force he must (B) Mechanical and electrical
exert is 640 N properties of the medium
5. Choose the incorrect statement— (C) Electrical and magnetic
(B) The minimum force required
(A) Forces always exist in pairs to hold the object on the properties of the medium
(B) Gases have only two speci- plane without letting it slide (D) Mechanical and magnetic
fic heats is 440 N properties of the medium

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 558

15. A tuning fork vibrating gently pro-
duces a note C. Another tuning
fork produces the note C′, an
octave higher in pitch than C and
slightly louder than C. The speed
of the wave produced by the
second fork, as compared with
that produced by the first fork
is—
(A) 8 times as great
(B) 4 times as great
(C) 2 times as great
(D) The same
16. The distance between the first
and the sixth minima in the
diffraction pattern of a single slit
is 0·5 mm. The screen is 0·5 m
away from the slit. If the
wavelength of light used is 5000
° this process is—
A, then the slit width will be—
(A) 5 mm (B) 2·5 mm
(C) 1·25 mm (D) 1·0 mm
17. In sound frequency determines
pitch. In light frequency deter-
mines—
(A) Speed
(B) Amplitude
(C) State of polarisation
(D) Colour
18. Suppose you are sitting in sun
1 clean capillary tube of silver is
for 2 hours. The area of your
2
body exposed normally to sun
rays is 1·3 m2. The intensity of
sun rays is 1·1 kW/m 2. If your
body completely absorbs the sun
rays then the momentum
transferred to your body will be—
(in kg-m /s)
(A) 0·043 (B) 0·037
(C) 0·61 (D) 0·91
19. Consider the following figure.
When switch S is closed, the
current through R2 is—
R2
R1
• •
20. The ratio of frequencies of
two forks is 1 : 2. The phase
difference between two per-
pendicular sound waves emitted
by them is zero. The shape of
Lissajous figure obtained will
be a—
(A) Circle (B) Ellipse
(C) Straight line (D) Figure of 8
21. Two parallel slits 2·0 × 10 –4 m
apart are illuminated by parallel
rays of monochromatic light of
wavelength 6·0 × 10– 7 m. The
interference pattern is formed on
a screen 2·0 metre from the slits.
Distance on the screen from
central maximum to first bright
fringe is—
(A) 6·0 × 10–3 m
(B) 6·0 × 10–2 m
(C) 6·0 × 10–1 m (C) P/ n
(D) None of these
22. If the velocity of sound in
hydrogen is 1500 m, then its
velocity in a mixture of three
parts of oxygen and two parts of
hydrogen by volume will be—
(A) 385·7 m/s (B) 474·4 m/s
(C) 536·3 m/s (D) 676·9 m/s
23. Meniscus of pure water when a
dipped in water, will be—
(A) Concave with ascent of
water
(B) Convex with depression of
water
(C) Plane with neither ascent
nor depression of water
(D) None of these
24. 56 tuning forks are arranged
such that each fork produces 4
beats per second with its
preceding fork. The frequency of
the last fork is three times that of
first. The frequency of the first
fork will be—
(A) 220 Hz (B) 110 Hz
(C) 330 Hz (D) 440 Hz
ing from zero to maximum value
and the peak value will be—
(A) 2 × 10–2 sec, 14·14 amp
(B) 1 × 10–2 sec, 7·07 amp
(C) 5 × 10–3 sec, 7·07 amp
(D) 5 × 10–3 sec, 14·14 amp
27. For crown glass-air the critical
angle is 41° 3 0 ′ what is the
limiting angle of the prism of
crown glass after which no
transmission of light through it is
possible ?
(A) 41°30′ (B) 83°
(C) 90° (D) None of these
28. A gas undergoes a process in
which its pressure and volume V
are related as VPn = constant.
The bulk modulus for the gas in
1/n
(A) nP (B) P
(D) Pn
29. A certain capacitor consists of
two plates in air placed parallel
to each other but not touching.
The capacitor is connected
briefly to a D.C. generator so
that the difference in potential
between the two plates becomes
12000 V. The capacitance of the
capacitor is 1 μF.
Which statement about the capa-
citor is incorrect ?
(A) The charge on its either
plate is 1·2 × 10–8 coulomb
(B) The energy stored on its
plates is 7·2 × 10–5 joules
(C) When a thin uncharged glass
plate is slipped between the
two metal plates without
touching them the charge on
plates does not change but
the potential difference bet-
ween the plates decreases
somewhat
(D) None of these
30. A capacitor of capacitance C is
connected to two voltmeters A
A

• R3 25. Pressure × area × distance re-

S presents— B
C
120V (A) Energy (B) Power
• ~• (C) Momentum (D) Impulse
F
26. The r.m.s. value of an A.C. of 50 S
(A) 1·5 A (B) 3 A Hz is 10 amp. The time taken by and B. A is ideal, having infinite
(C) 4·5 A (D) 6A the alternating current in reach- resistance, while B has resis-

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 559

 tance R. The capacitor is
charged and then the switch S is
closed. The readings of A and B
will be equal—
(A) At all times
(B) After time RC
(C) After time RC log 2
(D) Only after a very long time
31. A point source of light is placed
at the focus of a concave lens.
Which will be the correct state-
ment for the refracted light ?
(A) It will become parallel to the
principal axis
(B) It will converge to a point on
the principal axis
(C) It will diverge and appear to
come from a point on the
principal axis
(D) None of these
32. A U-tube containing a liquid
moves with a horizontal accele-
ration a along a direction joining
the two vertical limbs. The sepa-
ration between these limbs is d.
The difference in their liquid
levels is—
ad 2da
(A) (B)
g g
(C)
da
2g
(D) d tan ()
a
g
33. When water cools from 7 °C to
1°C—
(A) It contracts only
(B) It expands only
(C) It first contracts and then
expands
(D) It first expands and then
contracts
34. P is a point at a distance r from
the centre of a solid sphere of
radius a. The gravitational poten-
tial at P is V. If V is plotted as a
function of r, which is the correct
curve ?
(A)
(B)
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 560
(C)
(D)
35. Three wires of same length and
cross-sectional area are connec-
ted in series to a battery. The
wires are made of copper, silver
and nichrome respectively.
Pick out the correct statement.
The potential difference across
the copper wire is—
(A) The same as across the
silver and the nichrome
wires
(B) Greater than across the
silver or the nichrome wire
(C) Greater than across the
silver wire but less than that
across the nichrome wire
(D) Less than that across the
silver or the nichrome wire.
36. One end of a long metallic wire
of length L is tied to the ceiling.
The other end is tied to a mass-
less spring of spring constant k.
A mass m hangs freely from the
free end of the spring. The area
of cross-section and the Young’s
modulus of the wire are A and Y
respectively. If the mass is
slightly pulled down and relea-
sed, it will oscillate with a time
period T equal to—
m in the figure. At what height will
(A) 2π
k the body be detached from the
m (YA + k L)
(B) 2π
YAk
mYA
(C) 2π
kL
mL
(D) 2π
YA
37. A battery of e.m.f. 2·50 V and
internal resistance 2·00 Ω causes
a steady current of 0·4 A to flow
for 15 minutes through an
electric bulb. Which of the
following statement is wrong ?
(A) Total energy provided by the
battery is 900 J
(B) Energy dissipated in the
battery is 288 J
(C) Energy dissipated in the
bulb is 612 J
(D) None of these
38. A simple pendulum of length l
has a bob of mass m and swings
with an angular amplitude φ.
The tension in the thread is T.
At a certain time, the string
makes an angle θ with the verti-
(
cal θ <– )
φ —
(A) T = mg cos θ, for all values
of θ
(B) T = mg cos θ, only for θ = φ
(C) T = 2 mg, for
θ = cos–1
1
3 [
(2 cos φ + 1) ]
(D) T will be smaller for smaller
values of θ
39. The rate of decay of atoms in a
radioactive sample is propor-
tional to—
(A) The half-life period
(B) The number of undecayed
atoms
(C) The number of decayed
atoms
(D) The mass (nucleon) number
of atoms
40. A small body of mass m slides
without friction from the top of a
hemisphere of radius R as shown
surface of the hemisphere ?
R R
(A) h = (B) h =
3 4
R 2R
(C) h = (D) h =
5 5
41. If L and R represent inductance
and resistance respectively, then
L
the dimensions of will be—
R
(A) [M0L0T–1] (B) [M0LT]
(C) [M0L0T] (D) None of these
42. A planet of mass m is moving in
an elliptical orbit with the sun at
its focus. The perihelion and the
aphelion distances and r and
R respectively. Find the period
of revolution of the planet consi-
dering Kepler’s laws of planetary
motion—
(R + r)G
(A) T = 2π
Ms
π (R + r)3 M s
(B) T =
2 G
(R + r)
(C) T = 2π
2GMs
(R + r)3
(D) T = π
2GMs
43. On investigation of light from
three different stars A, B and C it
was found that in the spectrum of
A, the intensity of red colour is
maximum, in B the intensity of
blue colour is maximum, and in C
the intensity of yellow colour is
maximum. From this observa-
tion—
(A) The temperature of A is
maximum, of B is minimum
and of C is intermediate
(B) The temperature of A is
maximum, of C is minimum
and of B is intermediate
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 561
(C) The temperature of B is frequency (υ) of incident radia-
maximum, of A is minimum tion as shown in the graph—
and of C is intermediate
(D) The temperature of C is
(A) EK (B) EK
maximum, of B is minimum
and of A is intermediate O υ O υ
44. The escape velocity on the
(C) (D)
surface of the earth is 11·2 km/s. EK EK
A small body is projected out
O υ O υ
with thrice this speed. What will
be the speed of the body far 48. A block of weight W = 4 kgf lies
away from the earth ? Radius of on a plane of length l = 50 cm.
earth = 6400 km, g = 9·8 m/s2 ? inclined at an angle α= 30° with
(A) 66·33 km/s (B) 31·66 km/s the horizontal. With what force
should the block be pressed
(C) 36·61 m/s (D) 61·63 km/s against the surface in order
to keep it in equilibrium. The
45. When arsenic is added as an
coefficient of friction μ between
impurity to germanium crystal,
the resulting material is— the block and the plane is 0·5—
(A) 5·4 kgf (B) 0·54 kgf
(A) N-type semiconductor (C) 4·5 kgf (D) 0·054 kgf
(B) P-type semiconductor 49. Two waves having a phase
(C) An ordinary conductor difference of 60° will have a path
(D) None of these difference of—
λ λ
46. Find out the dimensions of ther- (A) (B)
2 3
mal resistance— λ
(A) M–2 L –1 T–3 θ–1 (C) (D) 2λ
6
(B) ML–2 T3 θ 50. The gravitational potential energy
of a 2 kg body on earth's surface
(C) M–2 L –1 T3 θ will be—
(D) M–1 L –2 T3 θ1 (A) –1·25 joule
(B) –1·25 × 108 joule
47. Maximum kinetic energy (EK ) of (C) 0·25 joule
photoelectrons varies with the (D) 12·5 joule
ANSWERS WITH HINTS

Model Paper for Various Medical Entrance Examinations
PHYSICS
1. Two blocks of mass 6 kg and 4 kg
are placed in contact with a fric-
tionless horizontal surface as
shown in figure. If a push of 5N is
applied on the heavier mass, the
force on the lighter mass will be—
6 kg
4 kg
5N
(A) 5N (B) 4N
(C) 2N (D) None of these
2. A 130 m long train is moving
towards west with a speed of 10
m/s. A bird flying towards east
with a speed of 3 m/s crosses the
train. The time taken by the bird
to cross the train will be—
(A) 16 sec (B) 12 sec
(C) 10 sec (D) 8 sec
3. A solid ball of density half that of
water falls from a height of 20 m
and then enters water. To what
depth will it go in the water ?
(Take g = 10 ms– 2)
(A) 5m (B) 10m
10. A stone tied to one end of a
(C) 20m (D) 40m
4. The mass of ship is 2 × 10 7 kg.
On applying a force of 25 × 10 5
N, it is displaced through 25 m.
After the displacement, the speed
acquired by the ship will be—
(A) 12·5 m/s (B) 5 m/s
(C) 3·7 m/s (D) 2·5 m/s
11. Out of the following the only
5. A ball collides elastically with
another ball of the same mass.
The collision is oblique and
initially one of the balls was at
rest. After the collision the two
balls move with same speeds.
What will be the angle between
the velocities of the balls after
collision ?
(A) 30° (B) 45°
(C) 60° (D) 90°
6. If the coefficient of friction of a
plane inclined at 45° is 0·5. Then
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 565
12. The moment of inertia of a body
about a given axis is 1·2 kg m2.
To produce rotational K.E. of
1500 J an angular acceleration of
25 rad/sec2 must be applied
about that axis for—
(A) 10 sec (B) 8 sec
acceleration of a body sliding (C) 2 sec (D) 4 sec
freely on it will be— 13. Identify the pair which has diffe-
9·8 9·8 rent dimensions ?
(A) m/s2 (B) m/s2
2 2 2 (A) Planck’s constant and angu-
lar momentum
(C) 9·8 m/s 2 (D) 4·8 m/s 2
(B) Impulse and linear momen-
7. The radius of gyration of a body tum
is independent of—
(C) Angular momentum and fre-
(A) Mass of the body
quency
(B) Nature of distribution of mass
(D) Angular velocity and fre-
(C) Axis of rotation
quency
(D) None of the above
8. A moving body of mass m and 1
14. Mass of the moon is times
velocity 3 km/hr collides with a 81
1
body at rest and of mass 2m and that of earth and its radius is
4
then sticks to it. Now the
the radius of earth and the
combined mass starts to move,
escape velocity at the surface of
then the combined velocity will
the earth is 11·2 km/sec. What is
be—
the escape velocity from the sur-
(A) 4 km/hr (B) 3 km/hr
face of moon ?
(C) 2 km/hr (D) 1 km/hr
(A) 2·5 km/s (B) 5 km/s
9. Which of the following is inde-
(C) 1·25 km/s (D) 0·25 km/s
pendent of the mass of the
earth ? 15. The ratio of the relative rise in
(A) Orbital velocity pressure for adiabatic compres-
(B) Escape velocity sion to that for isothermal com-
(C) Gravitational intensity pression is—
(D) None of the above 1
(A) (B) γ
γ
spring 50 cm long is whirled in a 1
(C) 1 – γ (D)
horizontal circle with a constant 1–γ
speed. If the stone makes 10
revolutions in 20 second. The 16. In a thermodynamics process
magnitude of acceleration of pressure of a fixed mass of a gas
stone will be— is changed in such a manner that
(A) 990 cm/s 2 (B) 860 cm/s 2 the gas molecule give out 30
(C) 720 cm/s 2 (D) 493 cm/s 2 joule of heat and 10 joule of work
is done on the gas. If the initial
internal energy of the gas was 40
correct statement about satellites
joule, then the final internal
is—
energy will be—
(A) A satellite can not move in a
stable orbit in a plane pass- (A) – 20 J (B) 20 J
ing through the earth’s centre (C) 80 J (D) 3 J
(B) Geo-stationary satellites are
17. Most probable velocity (vmp) of
launched in the equatorial
the molecules of a gas is the
plane
velocity with which maximum
(C) We can use just one geo-
number of molecules of the gas
stationary satellite for global
move. Which of the following
communication
relations is correct ?
(D) The speed of satellite
(A) v mp = vrms
increases with an increase in ⎯
the radius of its orbit (B) v mp = v
 2 and potential difference of 3000 30. Two copper wires are of same
(C) v mp = v V. Distance between the point length but one of them is twice as
3 rms
charge and A is— thick as the other. Then the
2 ⎯ (A) 24 m (B) 16 m resistance of the two wires are in
(D) v mp = v
3 the ratio of—
(C) 12 m (D) 6 m
18. A black body is heated from 25. Determine the velocity of the (A) 1 : 16 (B) 1 : 8
27°C to 927°C the ratio of radia- source (vs ) when the frequency (C) 1 : 4 (D) 1 : 2
tions emitted will be— appears to be double the actual 31. Consider the various combina-
(A) 1 : 256 (B) 1 : 64 frequency to a stationary tions of resistance R, inductance
(C) 1 : 16 (D) 1 : 4 observer ? L and capacitance C as :
v
19. Two blocks of ice when pressed (A) v s = v (B) v s = (1) R C (2) LC
2
together join to form one block of 3v 3 LC R
ice because— (C) v s = (D) v s = v (3) (4)
2 4 R L
(A) Of the heat produced during where v is the velocity of sound. Of these combinations, those
pressing
26. In the given network capacitance having dimensions of time are—
(B) Melting point of ice
decreases with increase in C2 = 10 μF, C1 = 5 μF and C3 = 4 (A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3
pressure μF. The resultant capacitance (C) 1, 2 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) Melting point of ice increases between P and Q will be— 32. A particle having charge 100
with increase in pressure P times that of an electron is
(D) Of loss of heat during press- revolving in a circular path of
ing C1 C2
radius 0·8 m with one rotation
20. If the equation of motion of a per second. Magnetic field pro-
simple harmonic progressive duced at centre of particle is—
C3
wave is y = 0·3 sin (314t – (A) 10– 17 μ0 (B) 10– 11 μ0
1·57 x ), where t , x and y are in Q (C) 10– 7 μ0 (D) 10– 3 μ0
second, metre and cm respec-
(A) 4·7 μF (B) 1·2 μF 33. Two independent LASER sources
tively. Then the velocity of the
wave will be— (C) 3·2 μF (D) 2·2 μF have the same wavelength but
different intensities. In the region
(A) 400 m/s (B) 300 m/s 27. A light source is located at P1 as of overlap of these two beams,
(C) 200 m/s (D) 100 m/s shown in the figure. All sides of the interference—
the polygon are equal. The illumi-
21. Which of the following does not (A) Will not occur as LASERS do
nance at P2 is E0. What will be
affect the reverberation time ? not have spatial spread
the illuminance at P 3 ?
(A) Size of the auditorium (B) Will not occur as two sources
(B) Frequency of sound P1
are independent
(C) Nature of walls
(C) Will not occur as their inten-
(D) Area of walls, ceiling and
sities are different
floor
(D) Will occur
22. A prism has a refracting angle
34. A straight conductor of length 4m
60°. A ray of given monochroma-
P2 P3 moves at a speed of 10 m/s.
tic light suffers minimum devia-
When the conductor makes an
tion of 30° in passing through 3 3 E0
(A) E0 (B) angle of 30° with the direction of
prism. The refractive index of 8 8 magnetic field of induction of 0·1
the material of prism is—
3 3 Wb per m2 , then induced emf
(A) 1·414 (B) 1·3056 (C) E (D) E
8 0 8 0 is—
(C) 0·7849 (D) 2·425
28. A galvanometer can be changed (A) 8V (B) 4V
23. When a polaroid is rotated the into ammeter by connecting— (C) 1V (D) 2V
intensity of light varies but never (A) High resistance in parallel
reduces to zero. It shows that the (B) High resistance in series 35. In Rutherford’s α-scattering
incident light is— (C) Low resistance in parallel experiment, the ratio of the
(A) Unpolarised (D) Low resistance in series number of α-particles scattered
(B) Completely plane polarised 29. Dimensions of self inductance through 60° and 120° is—
(C) Partially plane polarised are— (A) 1 (B) 4
(D) None of the above (A) [MLT– 2A– 2] (C) 9 (D) 16
24. From a point charge, there is a (B) [ML2T– 1A– 2]
36. Two coils have mutual induc-
fixed point A. At A, there is an (C) [ML2T– 2A– 2] tance 0·005 H. The current
electric field of 500 volt/metre (D) [ML2T– 2A– 1] changes in the first coil according

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 566

 to equation I = I0 sin ωt where I0
= 10 amp and ω = 100 π rad/sec.
The maximum value of emf in the
second coil is—
(A) 12π (B) 8π
(C) 5π (D) 2π
37. Below are given the lists of impu-
rities that may be added to obtain
p-type crystal.
1. Antimony, Bismuth
2. Boron, Aluminium
3. Indium, Gallinium
4. Nitrogen, Phosphorus
Which of them can be used in
actual practice ?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 4 and 1
38. In the inductive circuit given in
the figure, the currents rises after
the switch is closed. At the
instant when the current is 15
mA, then potential difference
across the inductor will be—
4000 Ω 12 mH
240 V
(A) Zero (B) 240 V
(C) 180 V (D) 60 V
39. A p-n junction diode when for-
ward biased has a drop of 0·5 V
which is assumed to be indepen-
dent of current. The current in
excess of 10 mA through the
diode damages it due to Joule
heating. If we want to use a 1·5 V
battery to forward bias the diode,
what should be the value of the
resistor used in series with the
diode so that the maximum
current does not exceed 5 mA ?
(A) 2Ω (B) 2 × 102 Ω
(C) 2 × 103 Ω (D) None of these
40. What will be the amount of
energy absorbed when an elec-
tron jumps from first orbit to
second orbits ?
(The value of energy in nth
orbit of H-atom is expressed as
13·6
En = – 2 eV)
n
(A) 3·4 eV (B) – 6·6 eV
(C) – 8·1 eV (D) 10·2 eV
41. Which is a wrong statement about
the properties of a photon ?
(A) Its rest mass is zero
(B) It travels everywhere with
speed c
(C) It has non-zero K.E.
(D) None of these
42. A radioactive element has half
life of 3·6 days. In what time will
it be left 1/32nd undecayed ?
(A) 4 days (B) 12 days
(C) 18 days (D) 24 days
43. The equivalent resistance bet-
ween A and B is—
C
R
R R
R D R (C) Boron
R 49. A hydrogen atom goes from the
A B
(A) R (B) R/2
(C) 5R (D) 6R
44. A chain reaction in fission of
uranium is possible, because—
(A) Two intermediate sized
nuclear fragments are for-
med
(B) Three neutrons are given
out in each fission
(C) Fragments in fission are
radioactive
(D) Large amount of energy is
released
45. A coil of resistance 20 Ω and
inductance 0·5 H is applied to a
D.C. voltage of 200 V. The rate
L
of change of current at t = after
R
the switch is closed is—
(A) 400 A s– 1 (B) 147·6 A s – 1
(C) 200 A s– 1 (D) None of these
46. Penetrating power is minimum
for—
(A) X-rays (B) γ-rays
(C) β-rays (D) α-rays
47. Two bubbles are blown into
spherical shape of unequal sizes
and are connected through a
narrow tube as shown in figure—
A B
(A) The smaller bubble becomes
bigger
(B) The bigger bubble becomes
smaller
(C) There is no change in their
sizes
(D) The smaller bubble becomes
smaller and the bigger
becomes bigger
48. In a p type semiconductor ger-
manium is doped with—
(A) Gallium (B) Aluminium
(D) All of these
ground state to the first excited
state. In such a case—
(A) Both KE and PE increase
(B) Both KE and PE decrease
(C) KE increases and PE
decreases
(D) KE decreases and PE
increases
50. The velocity of all radiowaves in
free space is 3 × 108 m/s. The
frequency of a radiowave of
wavelength 150 m is—
(A) 20 kHz (B) 2 kHz
(C) 2 MHz (D) 1 MHz

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 567

Introduction κ) = conductance × cell con-
specific conductivity (κ
● Electrochemistry is the chemistry of electrochemical stant.
reactions. ● Equivalent conductivity (Λ Λeq)—This is the conducti-
● Electrochemical reactions are of two types—one in vity of a solution at dilution V when one gram equi-
which electricity is produced as a result of chemical valent of an electrolyte is present in V cm 3 of solution.
reaction. For examples cells and batteries and the Hence
other in which chemical change takes place due to the 1000 1000
passage of electricity. For example electrolysis of Λeq = κ × V = κ × =κ×
Ceq Normality
salts.
● Electrochemical reaction in which current is produced Here Ceq is the concentration in gram equivalents per
as a result of chemical reaction is spontaneous and litre. The unit of equivalent conductivity is ohm–1 cm 2
the system can do work. For example it can run a eq–1 or S cm2 eq –1.
motor. Chemical change, which is caused as a result ● Molar conductivity Λ m—This is the conductivity of a
of passage of electrical current, has to be forced to solution when one mole of an electrolyte is present in
occur and work is done on them. V cm3 of the solution
Conductance and Conductivity 1000 1000
Λm = κ × V = κ × =κ×
Cm Molarity
● Electrolytic solutions as well as metallic conductors
show resistance to the passage of current. Both of where V is the volume of solution in cm3 containing
these obey Ohm’s law. According to this law, the one mole of an electrolyte and Cm is molar concen-
current ‘I’ flowing through a solution of resistance R, is tration (mole L–1). The unit of molar conductivity is
related to the potential difference V by ohm –1 cm2 mol–1 or S cm2 mol–1.
V ● Example—A 0·05 M NaOH solution has resistance of
R =
I 31·6 Ω in a conductivity cell at 298 K. If the cell cons-
● The reciprocal of resistance is called electrical con-
tant is 0·367 cm–1, the molar conductivity of the
ductance. The unit of electrical conductance is the solution is :
Siemens, S, i.e., 1S = Ω–1 or mho
Solution :
1
Electrical conductance = Cell constant
R = conductivity (κ)
R
● If ‘l ’ is the length of conductor and ‘a ’ is area of cross
l l 0·367 cm–1
section then R ∝ or R = ρ where ρ is called speci- ∴ κ =
a a 31·6 Ω
fic resistance or only resistivity. = 0·0116 Ω–1 cm–1
● Specific conductivity (κ κ)—It is also called simply ∴ Molar conductivity
conductivity. It is reciprocal of specific resistance,
0·0116 Ω–1 cm–1
κ =
1 Λm =
0·05 mol L–1
ρ
l 0·0116 Ω–1 cm–1
Resistance (R) ∝ =
a 0·05 mol × (1000 cm3)–1
l (1 litre = 1000 cm3)
or R = ρ
a = 232 Ω–1 cm2 mol–1
Ra
and hence ρ = or 232 S cm2 mol–1.
l
● Effect of dilution on conductivity—The specific con-
∴ κ =
1
=
l
ρ Ra R
=
1
()l
a
ductivity decreases while equivalent and molar con-
ductivities increase with increase in dilution.
● Variation of molar conductivity with concentra-
( 1
R
= Conductance ) tion—For strong electrolytes it is given by Debye-
Huckel-Onsager equation.
When l = 1 cm and a = 1 cm2,
then the conductance
Λm = Λ∞
m–b c
()
1
R
3
is the conductivity of 1 cm of the conductor and
where ‘b ’ is a constant depending on nature of solvent
this is known as specific conductivity (κ). The unit of κ and temperature and ‘c ’ is molar concentration. Λ∞m is
is ohm–1 cm–1 or Ω–1 cm–1. For a particular cell l/a is molar conductivity at infinite dilution. Thus
constant and is known as cell constant and hence Λm = Λ∞ m where c tends to be zero

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 571

● Kohlrausch’s law—The molar conductivity of an elec- Left : Anode :
trolyte at infinite dilution can be expressed as the sum Zn (s) → Zn 2+ –
(aq) + 2e (Oxidation)
of the ionic conductivities of cations and anions each
Right : Cathode :
multiplied by the number of ions present in one
formula unit of the electrolyte Cu 2+
(aq) + 2e → Cu (s)
– (Reduction)
Λ∞ ∞ ∞
m = x × Λ cation + y × Λanion Overall reaction
(for electrolyte A x By type) Zn (s) + Cu2+ 2+
(aq) → Cu (s) + Zn(aq)
Some important applications of Kohlrausch’s law are ● Conventionally in representing a cell, the cathode is
underlined as
written on the right hand side and anode on left hand
(i) Calculation of molar conductivity at infinite dilution side. For example :
for weak electrolytes
Cu (s) | Cu2+ || Ag+(aq) + Ag(s)
Λ∞ ∞ ∞
CH3COOH = ΛCH3COONa + ΛHCl – ΛNaCl
∞
where copper is anode and silver is the cathode.
Example :
Electrode Potential and EMF of a Galvanic Cell—
Given Λ∞
m (HCl) = 426 Ω–1 cm2 mol–1 When a metal strip M is dipped in the solution of its
Λ∞
m (NaCl) = 126 Ω–1 cm2 mol–1 own ions Mn+, either of the following possibilities can
Λ∞
m (CH3COONa) = 91 Ω cm mol
–1 2 –1 occur :
(i) A metal ion, M n+ may collide with electrode, gain
Calculate Λ∞
m for acetic acid. ‘n ’ electrons and converted into metal atom, M
Solution : (ion is reduced).
Λ∞ ∞ ∞
m (CH3COOH) = Λm (CH3COO–) + Λ m (H+) (ii) A metal atom of the electrode, M may lose ‘n ’
∞ ∞ electrons to the electrode and enter the solution as
= [Λm (CH3COO–) + Λ m(Na ) ]
+
Mn + (metal is oxidised).
– [Λ∞ ∞ ∞
m (Na+) + Λm (Cl–)] + [Λ m (H+) + Λ∞
m (Cl–)] ● If the tendency of the metal to get oxidised is specially
= [(91) – (126) + (426)] Ω–1 cm2 mol–1 high, there may be slight increase in number of ions,
= 391 Ω–1 cm2 mol–1 Mn + in solution and a slight increase in number of
electrons at the electrode. The electrode, therefore,
(ii) Calculation of degree of dissociation, α i.e., develops a small negative potential with respect to the
Molar conductivity at concentration c solution.
α =
Molar conductivity at infinite dilution ● The electrode equilibrium is represented as :
Λcm Oxidation
= M(s) Mn+ + ne –
Λ∞
m Reduction
(iii) Calculation of solubility of sparingly soluble salt. If this situation is established for two different metals
As the solution is saturated but infinitely dilute, (say Cu and Zn) and if electrical contact is established
i.e ., Λ m = Λ∞
m, and molarity = solubility. Hence between two metal electrodes and two solutions, an
from electric current will flow.
κ × 1000 ● The electrons pass from Zn to Cu electrode. Zn has
Λm = , we get solubility (mole L–1) more negative potential than Cu. Zn has greater ten-
Molarity
κ × 1000 dency for oxidation than Cu. In other words, Cu2+ ions
Moles L –1 = have greater tendency for reduction than Zn2+ ions.
Λ∞m Thus, the electrode at which oxidation occurs is anode
Electrochemical Cell or Galvanic Cell or Voltaic and at which reduction takes place is cathode.
Cell
● It is a device used to convert chemical energy pro-
duced in a redox reaction into electrical energy. A
redox reaction consists of two half reactions called
oxidation half reaction and reduction half reaction.
The combination of two half reactions constitutes an
electrochemical cell.
● When a Zn rod is dipped in ZnSO4 solution and a Cu
rod in CuSO4 solution and Zn and Cu rods (elec-
trodes) are connected through a voltmeter and two
solutions through salt bridge, we find a potential
difference. The cell formed is galvanic or voltaic cell.
Zn (s) | Zn2+ 2+
(aq) || Cu(aq) | Cu(s)
Anode (–) Cathode (+)
(Left hand) (Right hand)
Oxidation and reduction reactions at these electrodes
are as : Fig. : A simple voltaic cell (Daniell cell)

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 572

● Standard electrode potential—We cannot measure ● The cell potential,
single electrode potential, instead this can be done by Ecell = Eright – Eleft
measuring electrode potential with respect to refe- RT
rence electrode. For this purpose hydrogen electrode ∴ Ecell = E°Cu2+ | Cu + ln [Cu2+] – E°Zn2+ | Zn
2F
is selected as reference electrode and is assigned an
RT
arbitrary value of zero at all temps. + ln [Zn2+]
nF
2H + (C = 1 mol L–1) + 2e – → H2(g); 1 atm., E° = 0·000 V RT [Cu2+]
E cell = E°Cu2+ | Cu – E°Zn2+ | Zn + ln
2F [Zn2+]
Key Points ● Now E°cell = E°Cu2+ | Cu – E°Zn2+ | Zn
● Standard electrode potentials of electrodes are always
associated with reduction process occurring at electrodes. (E°cell is cell potential in standard state, i.e.,
Thus it is the tendency for reduction to occur. Thus, they 1M solution at 298 K)
are actually reduction potentials.
RT [Cu2+]
● The electrodes with positive reduction potential show ∴ Ecell = E°cell + ln
2F [Zn2+]
greater tendency for reduction than that of hydrogen mole-
cule. Negative reduction potentials indicate lesser ten- 0·0592 [Cu2+]
dency for reduction. E cell = E °cell + log
2 [Zn2+]
● The most positive electrode potential is that of fluorine,
which is, therefore, easily reduced Above equation may also be written as :
F2(g) + 2 e – → 2F –(aq) ; E° = + 2·87 V
0·0592 [Zn2+]
● For expressing tendency for oxidation, we write reverse of E cell = E °cell – log
2 [Cu2+]
the equation representing reduction and change the sign of
standard electrode potential. For example :
Equilibrium Constant from Nernst Equation
2F –(aq) → F2(g) + 2 e – ; E°oxi. = – 2·87 V
–
● Fluoride ion (F ) is most difficult to oxidise of all the species ● When there is no longer any potential difference bet-
listed in electrochemical series. ween two electrodes, the reaction attains equilibrium.
● The most negative potential is that of lithium ion (Li+ ), Zn (s) + Cu2+
(aq) Zn 2+
(aq) + Cu (s)
which is, therefore, the least easily reduced in whole of
electrochemical series. Since the conc. of Zn2+ and Cu2+ will be equilibrium
● All the ionic species participating in electrode reaction are [Zn2+]
concentration and Kc for this equilibrium will be
present in aqueous solution at the unit molar concentration. [Cu2+]
● The cell potential, and EMF of the cell will be zero.
Ecell = Electrodes potential of right electrode ● The Nernst equation at equilibrium can be represented
– Electrode potential of left electrode as :
= Eright – Eleft 2·303 RT [Zn2+]
O = E°cell – log 2+]
nF [Cu
Nernst Equation for Electrode and Cell Poten-
2·303 RT
tials = E°cell – log Kc
nF
● Electrode potential for the electrode reaction
2·303 RT
Mn(aq)
+
+ ne – → M(s) or E°cell = log Kc
nF
relative to hydrogen electrode is given by simple form
0·0592 V
of the Nernst equation as : E°cell = log Kc (at 298 K)
RT n
EMn+/M(s) = E°Mn+/M(s) + ln [Mn+]
nF
Here E°Mn+/M is the standard electrode potential for a (E°cell ) (n )
or log Kc =
1M solution of metal ion (Mn +) at 298 K, which is 0·0592 V
determined by using standard hydrogen electrode, n is ● Example—Calculate the equilibrium constant (K c ) for
number of electrons indicated in the balanced equa-
the reaction
tion and F is Faraday constant (96500 C mol–1). R is
the gas constant (8·31 JK–1 mol–1). Cu (s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Cu 2+ °
(aq) + 2 Ag (s) ; Ecell = 0·46 V

In Daniell Cell 0·0592 V

Solution : E°cell = log Kc
n
● Left Zn(s) | Zn2+
(aq) || Cu2+
(aq) | Cu(s) Right.
The electrode potential of right hand electrode (half E°cell × n
log K c =
cell) is as 0·0592 V
RT
ECu2+ | Cu(s) = E°Cu2+ | Cu(s) + ln [Cu2+(aq)] =
(0·46 V) (2)
= 15·6
2F 0·0592 V
and that of left hand is written as :
[Cu2+]
EZn2+(aq) | Zn(s) = E°Zn2+(aq) | Zn(s) +
RT
ln [Zn2+ ∴ Kc = = 4 × 1015
2F (aq)] [Ag +] 2

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 573

Electrochemical Cell and Free Energy
● For a reaction occurring in an electrochemical cell
whose electrodes differ in potential by E cell , the work
done when amount of charge n F is transferred is given
by – n FE, so
ΔG = – n F Ecell and ΔG° = – n F E°cell
● If we know the value of standard free energy (ΔG°), we
can calculate the equilibrium constant by equation as
ΔG° = – RT ln Kc
● In case of Daniell cell K c = 2 × 1037 which shows that
very little of Cu2+ will be in solution at equilibrium.
Electrolysis
● The process of decomposition of an electrolyte by
passage of electricity through its aqueous solution or
molten (fused) state. The apparatus used is called
electrolytic cell.
● The electrode which is connected to positive terminal
of battery is called anode and the negative ions of
electrolyte which move towards it are called anions.
The electrode which is connected to negative terminal
of battery is called cathode and the positive ions which
move towards it are called cations.
● Faraday’s first law of electrolysis—It states that the
weight of ions deposited on an electrode is directly
proportional to the quantity of electricity passed
W ∝ Q or W = ZQ = Z × I × t
Here Q is quantity of electricity in coulombs, I is
current in amperes, t is time in seconds for which
current is passed and Z is electrochemical equiva-
lent of material deposited on the electrode
1 coulomb = 1 ampere current passed for 1 sec.
When Q = 1 coulomb then W = Z
Hence electrochemical equivalent of a substance is
the amount of substance deposited by 1 coulomb of
electricity.
Key Points
● One faraday is the quantity of charge carried by one
mole of electrons and hence
1F = (1·6023 × 10–19 coulomb) × (6·023 × 1023)
~ 2 SO 2–
– 96500 C
● The charge on n moles of electrons (Q) is given by
Q = nF
● In the reaction Mn+ + ne – → M, n faradays of electri-
city will deposit 1 mol of M.
● One faraday of electricity always deposits one gram
equivalent of the substance and one coulomb will depo-
sit = Eq. wt./96500 gram of the substance.
● Electrochemical equivalent of a substance
Eq. wt. of substance
= 96‚500
● Faraday’s second law of electrolysis—When same
quantity of electricity is passed through the solutions of
different electrolytes, the weights of ions deposited are
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 574
directly proportional to their chemical equivalents.
For example :
Wt. of Cu deposited Eq. wt. of Cu
=
Wt. of Ag deposited Eq. wt. of Ag
Electrolysis and Criteria for Product Formation
● In case there is possibility of formation of more than
one products at the electrodes or there is a competi-
tion between liberation of ions at electrodes, then the
product formed depends upon their respective elec-
trode potentials.
● At the cathode—Reduction occurs at cathode. For the
different competing reduction processes, the one with
higher reduction potential will preferably take place.
For example, during the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl
solution, there is possibility of following reduction
processes at cathode.
Reduction of Na+ ions :
Na +aq + e – → Na (s); E°red. = – 2·71 V
Reduction of H2O molecules :
H2O(l) + e – → 1
H2(g) + OH–aq; E°red. = – 0·41 V
2
The reduction of H 2O will preferably take place at the
cathode because E°red. of H2 O is higher. Hence pro-
duct at cathode is H 2 gas instead of Na (s).
Now let as compare, the E °red. of copper and H 2O
Cu 2+
(aq) + 2e → Cu (s);
– E°red. = 0·34 V
H2O(l) + e – → 1
H2(g) + OH–(aq); E°red. = – 0·41 V
2
Thus during electrolysis of aqueous CuSO4 solution,
reduction of Cu2+ will take place at cathode in prefe-
rence of H2O molecules and Cu(s) will be deposited at
cathode instead of liberation of H 2.
● At the anode—Oxidation occurs at the anode. For
different competing oxidation processes, the one with
higher oxidation potential (or lower reduction potential)
with preferably occur. For electrolysis of aqueous
CuSO 4 solution, the competing oxidation processes at
anode are as :
Oxidation of SO2–
4 ions
4(aq) → S2O8
2– + 2e –
E°oxi. = – 2·01 V or E °red. = 2·01 V
Oxidation of H2O molecules
H2O(l) → 1
O2(g) + 2H+(aq) + 2e –
2
E°oxi. = – 1·23 V or E °red. = 1·23 V
As the oxidation potential of H2O is higher (or reduc-
tion potential is lower), the product formed at anode
will be O2 gas instead of S2O82– ions.
If the electrolysis of CuSO4(aq) is carried out using
copper electrodes, then the process occurring at
anode will be oxidation of copper atoms of electrode to
Cu 2+ ions, instead of oxidation of H2O because oxida-
tion potential of Cu is higher than that of H2O
 Cu (s) → Cu 2+
(aq) + 2e
– Corrosion
E°oxi. = – 0·34 V or E°red. = 0·34 V
1 undesirable compounds (usually oxides) by reaction of
H2O(l) → O 2 + 2H+(aq) + 2e –
2 moisture and other gases present in atmosphere. In
E°oxi. = – 1·23 V or E°red. = 1·23 V
Thus, in this case copper from anode will go on dis-
solving as Cu2+ ions, while Cu2+ ions from solution will
go on depositing at cathode as Cu atoms.
Key Points
● In some cases unexpected results are obtained due to
overvoltage. For example, let us consider oxidation
potentials of Cl– ions and H2O
1
H2O(l) → 2 O2(g) + 2H+(aq) + 2 e –; E°oxi. = – 1·23 V
1 leaving behind electrons which are pushed to cathodic
Cl –(aq) → 2 Cl2(g) + e –; E °oxi. = – 1·36 V
Although the oxidation potential of H2O is more than that
of H 2O, yet during electrolysis of concentrated solution
of NaCl, Cl 2 gas is liberated at anode and H2 gas at
cathode.
● Overvoltage—Oxidation of H 2O is relatively slow pro-
cess and hence extra potential is required. This extra
voltage required for oxidation of H2 O is called over-
voltage. Due to this overvoltage, the oxidation of Cl–
ions occurs at anode in preference to H 2O.
● Electrolysis of CuSO4(aq) at platinum electrode
Reaction at anode :
1
H2O(l) → 2 O2 + 2H+(aq) + 2 e –
Reaction at cathode :
Cu2+
(aq) + 2 e → Cu(s)
–
● The process of slow conversion of metals into their
case of iron, the rust is iron(III) oxide (hydrated), i.e.,
Fe 2O3. x H2O. It is caused by moisture, CO2 and O 2 of
the air.
● Electrochemical theory of rusting—Impure iron sur-
face behaves as small electrochemical cell in pre-
sence of moisture containing dissolved O2 or CO2. In
these miniature corrosion cells, pure iron acts as
anode and impure surface as cathode. Moisture hav-
ing dissolved O 2 or CO2 is electrolytic solution.
● Following electrochemical changes take place :
At anode—Oxidation of Fe atoms take place to Fe2+,
area.
Fe → Fe2+ –
(aq) + 2e ; E°oxi. = – 0·44 V
At cathode—The electrons are picked up by H+ ions
which are produced either from H2O or from H2CO3.
2H +(aq) + 2e – → 2H
The net reduction process at cathodic area is
2H +(aq) + 21 O 2 + 2e – → H2O; E°red. = 1·23 V
The net reaction of the corrosion cell can be expressed
as :
Fe + 1
2
O 2 + 2H+ → Fe 2+ + H2O; E°cell = 1·67 V
2Fe 2+ + 21 O 2 + (2 + x) H 2O → Fe2O3. x H2O + 4H+
Rust

Thus O 2 is liberated at anode and Cu is deposited at

cathode.

Difference between Galvanic and Electrolytic

Cells

Galvanic Cell Electrolytic Cell

1. In galvanic cell, electrical 1. In electrolytic cell, elec-

energy is produced.
2. In galvanic cell, reaction 2. In electrolytic cell, reac-
taking place is sponta-
neous.
3. The two half cells are set
up in different containers
and are connected
through salt bridge or
porous partition.
4. In galvanic cell, anode is
negative and cathode is
positive.
5. The electrons move from
anode to cathode in
external circuit.
trical energy is consu-
med.
tion taking place is non-
spontaneous.
3. Both the electrodes are
placed in the solution or
molten electrolyte in the
same container.
4. In electrolytic cell, the
anode is positive and
cathode is negative.
5. The electrons are suppl-
ied by the external
source. They enter
through cathode and
come out through
anode.
Fig. : Rusting of iron.
Prevention of Corrosion
● Barrier protection—A barrier film is introduced bet-
ween metal and atmosphere by
(i) Painting the surface (ii) Coating the surface with a
thin film of oil or grease (iii) Electroplating with non-
corrosive metals such as Ni, Cr, Cu etc.
● Galvanization—In this process the surface of Fe is
covered with Zn. This active metal loses electrons in
preference to iron. However, the covering layer gets
consumed in due time, but so long it is present even
the nearby uncovered surface of Fe does not get
rusted. Scratches in protective layer are not much
harmful.
Galvanized iron sheets maintain their shine due to the
formation of protective layer of basic zinc carbonate

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 575

 [ZnCO3.Zn(OH)2] due to the action of moisture, O2 and
CO2 of atmosphere.
● Cathodic protection—This is a sacrificial protection.
Exposed surface of iron is protected by connecting to
some more active metal such as magnesium, alumi-
nium, zinc etc. The more active metal acts as anode
and loses electrons in preference to iron. The iron
surface then acts as cathode.
Underground water pipes or tanks made of iron are
protected by connecting them to more easily oxidis-
able metals.
2e – PbSO4(s) + 2 H2O(l) → PbO2(s) + SO42–(aq)
⎯⎯⎯←⎯⎯⎯
⏐ ⏐
⏐
Iron tank Mg
or pipe Cathode
Anode
O2 + 2H2O + 4e – → 4 OH– Mg(s) → Mg2+ + 2 e –
Some Commercial Cells or Batteries
● Primary cells—They become dead over a period of
time and chemical reaction stops. They cannot be
recharged or used again. The most familiar primary
cells are as :
Dry cell—Anode is of Zn container while cathode is
graphite rod surrounded by MnO2 and carbon. The
space between electrodes is filled with a paste of
NH4Cl and ZnCl 2. The reactions at electrodes are as :
Cathode : MnO2 + NH4+ + e – → MnO(OH) + NH3
Anode : Zn → Zn 2+ + 2e –
Dry cell does not have long life as NH4Cl which is
acidic, corrodes the zinc container even if cell is
not in use. The potential of cell lies in the range 1·25 V
to 1·5 V.
Mercury cell—It is a miniature cell which finds use
these days to supply energy for watches, movie
cameras, hearing aids and other compact devices.
Anode is Zn–Hg amalgam and cathode is paste of
Hg(II) oxide and carbon. Electrolyte is moist paste of
KOH—ZnO. The cell reaction is :
Anode :
Zn + 2 OH– → ZnO (s) + H2O(l) + 2e –
Amalgam
Cathode :
HgO (s) + H2O(l) + 2e – → Hg (l) + 2 OH–
Net reaction :
Hg(Zn) + HgO(s) → ZnO (s) + Hg(l)
Operating voltage is ≈ 1·3 V. Such cell keeps cons-
tancy in its potential throughout the life.
● Secondary cell—This type of cell can be recharged
by passing current and can be used again and again.
Examples are Lead storage battery, nickel-cad-
mium storage cell etc.
Lead storage battery—It consists of a number of
voltaic cells connected in series. In each cell anode is
spongy lead and cathode is a grid of lead packed with
PbO2. The electrolyte is H2SO4 (38% by mass). The
cell reaction is as :
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 576
Anode : Pb + SO42– → PbSO4 + 2e –
Cathode :
PbO2 + SO42– + 4H+ + 2e – → PbSO4 + 2 H2O
Net reaction :
Pb + PbO2 + 4H+ + 2SO42– → 2PbSO4 + 2 H2O
Recharging—During recharging the cell behaves as
electrolytic cell.
Cathode : PbSO4(s) + 2e – → Pb(s) + SO42–(aq)
Anode :
+ 4H+(aq) + 2e –
Net reaction :
2 PbSO 4(s) + 2 H2O(l) → Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 4H +(aq)
+ 2SO2–4(aq)
Such an operation is possible because PbSO 4 formed
during discharge is solid, sticks to electrodes. There-
fore, it is in position to gain or lose electrons. In 12 volt
battery there are six cells.
Nickel-Cadmium storage battery—Cadmium is
anode and a grid containing Ni(IV) oxide is cathode.
Electrodes are immersed in KOH solution.
Anode :
Cd (s) + 2OH–(aq) → Cd (OH)2(s) + 2e –
Cathode :
NiO2(s) + 2H2O(l) + 2e – → Ni (OH)2(s) + 2 OH–(aq)
Net reaction :
Cd (s) + NiO2(s) + 2 H2O(l) → Cd (OH)2(s) + Ni (OH)2(s)
This cell is also called niclad cell and has voltage
1·4V. This cell involves no gaseous products, the pro-
ducts formed adhere to electrodes and can be recove-
red by charging process. This cell is becoming more
popular these days and finds use in electronic
watches and calculators.
Fuel Cells
● In recent years, scientists have designed the cells
which convert chemical energy of a fuel directly into
electrical energy. Such cells are called fuel cells.
These are voltaic cells in which, the fuel such as H2,
CO, CH4, C3H8 etc. are used to generate electricity
without involving thermal device like boilers, turbine
etc.
● The conventional method to convert chemical energy
to electrical energy involves combustion of a fuel to
liberate heat. The heat energy is used to generate
steam for spinning the turbines which are coupled to
electrical generators. This process is nearly only 40%
efficient.
● Fuel cells are designed in such a way that the mate-
rials to be oxidised and reduced at electrodes are
stored out side the cell and are constantly supplied to
electrodes.
● One of the most successful fuel cells which uses the
reaction of H2 and O2 is known as H2—O2 fuel cell.
This cell consists of porous carbon electrodes which
 are impregnated with catalyst (Pt, Ag or CoO). H 2 and ● The cell runs continuously as long as the gases H2 and
O2 are bubbled through electrodes into electrolyte O2 are supplied at the temperature 525 K and 50 atm.
which is the aqueous solution of NaOH or KOH. The pressure.
electrode reactions are as :
● Some advantages of fuel cells—(i) Pollution free
Anode : [H2(g) + 2 OH–(aq) → 2 H2O(l) + 2e –] × 2
working (ii) High efficiency (70–75% efficient) (iii) Con-
Cathode :
tinuous source of energy etc.
O2(g) + 2 H2O(l) + 4e – → 4 OH–(aq)
H2/O 2 cell has been used for generating electrical
Net reaction : 2H 2(g) + O2(g) → 2 H2O(l) power in the Appollo space programme.

Points to Remember
● Salt bridge—U-shaped tube containing concentrated solu- applied across the electrodes. This minimum voltage is
tion of an inert electrolyte like KCl, KNO 3 or K2SO4 or a solidi- known as discharge potential of that ion.
fied solution of such electrolytes in agar-agar and gelatin. Cell constant
● Conductivity = Resistance = Cell constant × Conductance
Salt bridge completes the inner circuit by flow of ions and
κ × 1000
maintains electrical neutrality in the solution of the half cells. Λeq) =
● Equivalent conductivity (Λ (N = Normality)
N
● EMF of cell—If it has positive value for a cell, the redox κ × 1000
reaction in the cell is spontaneous, otherwise not. Λmol) =
● Molar conductivity (Λ (M = Molarity)
M
● Standard free energy change (Δ ΔG°°)—The relation is ● Anode—In a cell it is electrode at which oxidation takes place
– ΔG° = n FE°cell, where ‘n ’ is number of electrons involved and it is negative electrode in electrochemical cell and
and F is Faraday. positive electrode in electrolytic cell.
● Calomel electrode—Electrode of Hg 2Cl2 paste is used as ● Cathode—In a cell it is an electrode at which reduction takes
reference electrode in place of hydrogen electrode. Standard place. It is positive electrode in electrochemical cell and
reduction potential of this electrode depends on conc. of KCl negative in electrolytic cell.
used.
● Electrochemical series—Arrangement of all electrodes (ele-
● Concentration cell—The most common concentration cell is
ments) in the decreasing order of their standard reduction
the one in which both the electrodes are of the same type but
potentials. It is also known as activity series of elements.
the concentration of ions is different, e.g.
● Nernst equation
H2 | H+ (C 1) || H+ (C2) | H2
2·303 RT [M]
or Zn | Zn2+ (C 1) || Zn2+ (C 2) | Zn EMn+/M = E°Mn+/M – log
nF [Mn+]
The EMF of concentration cell at 298 K is given by 0·0592 [M]
= E°Mn+/M – log
0·0592 C n [Mn+]
E = log C2
n 1 0·0592
E°cell = log K c (Kc = Equilibrium constant)
● Edison storage cell—It is nickel-iron accumulator and cell n
reaction is as : ΔG° = – n F E°cell (ΔG° = Standard free energy change)
Fe + Ni2O3 → FeO + 2 NiO ● The ratio of specific conductivity to observed conductance is
● Standard cell—One whose EMF does not change with tem- called cell constant.
perature. The most common standard cell is Weston stan-
● The weight of a substance deposited by one coulomb of
dard cell.
electricity is known as electrochemical equivalent.
● Factors which enhance corrosion
● The electrochemical equivalent of an element is equal to
(i) Presence of impurity in metal (Pure metals do not Atomic weight of element
corrode) Valency of element × 96‚500
(ii) Presence of moisture ● MnO2 used in a dry cell acts as depolarizer.
(iii) Presence of electrolytes (saline water) ● The number of coulombs = No. of amperes × Time in seconds
● Discharge potential—For a particular ion to be deposited on No. of coulombs
No. of amperes = Time in seconds
the electrode, it requires minimum voltage that must be

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Which is wrong statement (C) Electrons flow around exter- tively. Which statement is
regarding a electrochemical (gal- nal circuit from cathode to correct ?
vanic) cell ? anode (A) Zn can reduce both Ag + and
(A) Oxidation takes place at (D) Ions carry the current inside Cu
anode the cell
(B) Cu 2+ can oxidise Ag and Zn
(B) When EMF of cell is posi- 2. The standard electrode poten-
(C) Ag+ can oxidise Zn and Cu
tive, cell reaction is sponta- tials of Ag, Zn and Cu are + 0·8,
neous – 0·76 and 0·34 volt respec- (D) Cu 2+ can oxidise Ag+ and Zn

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 577

 3. The unit of specific conductivity 12. E° for electrode reactions 19. From the given half reactions,
is— Zn = Zn 2+ + 2e – and Ag = Ag+ select the strongest reducing
(A) mho cm (B) ohm cm–1 + e – are + 0·76 V and – 0·77 V agent :
(C) mho (D) mho cm–1 respectively. The EMF of the Cl2(g) + 2e – → 2Cl –(aq) ;
cell is—
4. The minimum equivalent con- E° = + 1·36 V
ductance in fused state is shown (A) + 1·53 V (B) – 1·53 V
Br2(g) + 2e – → 2Br–(aq) ;
by— (C) – 0·01 V (D) + 0·01 V
(A) MgCl2 (B) BeCl 2 13. The resistance of a 0·1 N solu- E° = + 1·09 V
(C) CaCl2 (D) SrCl2 tion of acetic acid is 250 ohm, Sn2+ + 2e – → Sn(s) ;
when measured in a cell of cell E° = – 0·14 V
5. The unit of cell constant is— constant 1·15 cm–1. The equiva-
(A) ohm –1 cm–1 lent conductance in ohm–1 cm 2 (A) Cl– (B) Br –
(B) ohm cm equiv –1 of acetic acid is— (C) Sn (D) Sn2+
(C) cm (A) 2·3 (B) 46 20. The standard reduction poten-
(D) cm–1 (C) 9·2 (D) 18·4 tials for Fe 2+/Fe and Sn 2+/Sn
6. Zn can displace following ion electrodes are – 0·44 V and
14. The standard reduction poten-
– 0·14 V respectively. For the cell
from aqueous solution— tials at 298 K of Li +/Li, Ba2+/Ba,
reaction
(A) Cu 2+ (B) Ag+ Na +/Na and Mg2+/Mg are – 3·05,
(C) Fe 2+ (D) All of these – 2·73, – 2·71 and – 2·37 volt Fe 2+ + Sn → Fe + Sn2+
respectively. The strongest oxidi- the standard EMF of the cell
7. Which of the following metals will
sing agent is— is—
effect the concentration of ZnCl 2
(A) Ba2+ (B) Mg2+ (A) + 0·30 V (B) – 0·58 V
solution if solution is in contact +
with metal ? (C) Li (D) Na + (C) + 0·58 (D) – 0·30 V
(A) Au (B) Pb 15. The term conductivity stands
21. In the cell Zn | Zn2+ || Cu2+ | Cu,
(C) Ag (D) Al for—
the negative terminal of the cell
(A) Conductance is—
8. In the cell reaction
(B) Specific conductance
Cu (s) + 2 Ag+(aq) → Cu2+ (A) Cu (B) Cu 2+
(aq) (C) Molar conductance
+ 2 Ag(s) (C) Zn (D) Zn 2+
(D) Equivalent conductance
The reduction half reaction is— 22. Standard reduction potentials of
16. The standard reduction poten-
(A) Ag – e– → Ag+ four elements A, B, C and D are
tials at 298 K of half-reactions
same – 0·32, 0·00, same respec-
(B) Cu + 2e – → Cu 2– are as :
tively. The decreasing order of
(C) Ag+ + e – → Ag Zn 2+
(aq) + 2e
– → Zn (s) ; their reactivity is as—
E° = – 0·762 V (A) A > D > B > C
(D) Cu – 2 e – → Cu 2+
Cr3+
(aq) + 3e
– → Cr(s) ; (B) C > B > D > A
9. In which of the following cells,
E° = – 0·740 V (C) B > D > C > A
the chemical energy is directly
converted into electricity ? 2H +(aq) + 2e – → H2(g) ; (D) C > A > D > B
(A) Dry cell E° = 0·000 V 23. Which of the following will form a
(B) Concentration cell Fe 3+
(aq) + e
– → Fe 2+
(aq) ;
cell with highest voltage ?
(C) Fuel cell E° = 0·770 V (A) 1M Ag+, 1M Co 2+
(D) Lead storage battery (B) 2M Ag+, 2M Co 2+
The strongest reducing agent
10. Electrolytic conductance is direct is— (C) 0·1M Ag +, 2M Co 2+
measure of— (A) Zn (s) (B) Cr(s) (D) 2M Ag+, 0·1 M Co 2+
(A) Potential (C) H2(g) (D) Fe 2+
(aq) 24. E° for the cell
(B) Resistance 17. The normal Al electrode coupled Zn | Zn2+ || Cu2+ | Cu
(C) Concentration with normal hydrogen electrode is 1·10 V at 298 K. The equili-
(D) Dissociation gives an EMF of 1·66 V. The brium constant for the reaction
standard electrode potential of Al is—
11. When 0·01 M solution of an elec-
is—
trolyte has a resistance of 40 (A) 10– 37 (B) 1037
(A) + 1·66 V (B) – 1·66 V – 27
ohm in a cell having a cell cons- (C) 10 (D) 1027
tant 0·4 cm –1, the molar con- (C) – 0·83 V (D) + 0·83 V
25. The equilibrium constant (Kc ) for
ductance in ohm–1 cm2 mol–1 18. The reference calomel electrode
the reaction
is— is made from—
(A) 10 (B) 102 (A) ZnCl2 (B) CuSO 4 Cu (s) + 2 Ag+(aq) → Cu2+ + 2 Ag(s)
(C) 10 3 (D) 104 (C) Hg 2Cl2 (D) HgCl2 will be— (Given E°cell = 0·46 V)

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 578

 (A) Antilog of 12·2 33. What amount of Cl2 evolves, 40. The charge required to deposit
(B) Antilog of 15·6 when two amperes of current is 9·0 g of Al from Al3+ ion solution
passed for 30 minutes in is—
(C) Antilog of 1·5
aqueous solution of NaCl ? (A) 96,500 C (B) 9650 C
(D) Antilog of 2·5
(A) 33 g (B) 66 g (C) 32163 C (D) 3216·3 C
26. Standard EMF of Daniell cell is (C) 99 g (D) 1·32 g 41. The number of coulombs requ-
1·1 V. The maximum electrical
34. In a solution of CuSO4, 0·5 ired to produce 20·0 g of calcium
work obtained from the cell is— metal from molten CaCl2 is—
ampere of current is passed.
(A) 21·23 kJ (B) 212·3 kJ
How long will it take to deposit 2 (A) 1·93 × 105 (B) 1·35 × 105
(C) 17·54 kJ (D) 175·40 kJ gm of copper ? (C) 4·8 × 104 (D) 9·65 × 104
27. The standard EMF of the cell (A) 102 sec
42. A copper cup is deposited with
Zn | Zn2+ || Cu2+ | Cu is 1·1 V (B) 1020 sec silver by passing an electricity of
at 298 K. The EMF of the cell (C) 12157·4 sec 965 coulomb. The amount of Ag
reaction, when 0·1 M Cu2+ and (D) 1215·74 sec deposited is—
0·1 M Zn 2+ solutions are used at (A) 1·002 g (B) 107·87 g
298 K is— 35. The charge required to liberate
11·5 g of sodium from fused (C) 1·0787 g (D) 9·65 g
(A) 0·1 V (B) 1·1 V NaCl is— 43. When a lead storage battery is
(C) – 1·1 V (D) – 0·1 V (A) 1·0 faraday discharged—
28. What is the potential of half cell (B) 1·5 faraday (A) SO2 gas evolves
consisting of Zn electrode in 0·01 (B) PbSO4 is consumed
(C) 0·5 faraday
M ZnSO4 solution at 298 K ? (C) H2SO4 is consumed
(D) 9650 C
[E °oxi. = 0·763 V] (D) Lead (Pb) is formed
36. 3·5 faraday electricity is passed
(A) 8·221 V (B) 0·8221 V through a solution of AgNO3. 44. On electrolysing a dilute solution
(C) 0·5282 V (D) 9·282 V The number of gram equivalents of H2SO4 between Pt electrodes,
of silver deposited on the elec- the gas evolved at anode is—
29. The half cell reactions of the cell
used in hearing aids are as : trode will be— (A) SO2 (B) SO3
(A) 1·35 (B) 3·5 (C) O2 (D) H2
Zn → Zn2+ + 2e; E° = + 0·76 V
Ag2O + H2O + 2e – (C) 1·25 (D) 2·5 45. The electrolysis of a solution
results in formation of H2 at
→ 2 Ag + 2 OH– ; E° = 0·34 V 37. The electrochemical equivalent cathode and Cl 2 at anode. The
of silver is 0·001118 g. When an
E° for the cell will be— solution is—
electric current of 0·5 ampere is
(A) 0·42 V (B) 1·1 V (A) Dil. H2SO4
passed through and aqueous
(C) 0·84 V (D) 2·2 V solution of AgNO3 for 200 (B) Aqueous NaCl
seconds, the amount of Ag (C) Aqueous CuCl2
30. The EMF of the cell
deposited is— (D) Liquid of fused NaCl
Ni | Ni2+ || Cu2+ | Cu
(A) 0·1118 g (B) 1·118 g 46. When a strip of copper is placed
is 0·59 V. The standard reduc-
(C) 0·5590 g (D) 5·590 g in an aqueous solution of ferrous
tion potential of Cu electrode is
sulphate—
0·34 V. The standard potential of 38. On passing one faraday of elec-
Ni electrode would be— (A) Copper will be precipitated
tricity through the electrolytic (B) Iron will be precipitated
(A) – 0·25 V (B) 0·25 V cells containing Ag+, Ni2+ and
(C) Both Cu and Fe will dissolve
(C) 0·93 V (D) – 0·93 V Cr3+ ions solutions, the depo-
(D) No reaction will take place
sited Ag, Ni and Cr are—
31. By passing 0·1 faraday of elec-
Ag Ni Cr 47. In the process of electrolysis, the
tricity through fused NaCl, the
current through the electrolyte is
amount of chlorine liberated is— (A) 108 g 29·5 g 17·3 g carried by—
(A) 35·45 g (B) 70·9 g (B) 108 g 108 g 108 g (A) Electrons
(C) 3·545 g (D) 17·77 g (C) 29·5 g 29·5 g 29·5 g (B) Cations
32. The charge required for reduc- (D) 17·3 g 17·3 g 17·3 g (C) Anions
tion of one mole of Cr2O72– ions (D) Anions and cations
to Cr3+, will be— 39. What weight of Cu will be depo-
sited by passing two faradays of 48. The standard reduction potential
(A) 96500 C
electricity through Cu2+ ion solu- (E°red.) for the half reactions are
(B) 2 × 96500 C tion ? as :
(C) 6 × 96500 C (A) 2·0 g (B) 31·75 g Zn → Zn2+ + 2e – ; E° = 0·76 V
(D) 3 × 96500 C (C) 63·0 g (D) 127·0 g Fe → Fe2+ + 2e – ; E° = 0·41 V

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 579 / 5

 The EMF of cell reaction (A) Equilibrium constant (A) 22·4 litre (B) 11·2 litre
Fe 2+ + Zn → Zn2+ + Fe (B) Chemical equivalent (C) 5·6 litre (D) 4 litre
is— (C) Electrochemical equivalent 64. The number of moles of Al 3+
(A) – 0·35 V (B) 0·35 V (D) Cell constant reduced to Al by passage of 1
(C) 1·17 V (D) – 1·17 V 57. The quantity of electricity expres- faraday of electricity is—
49. Given standard electrode poten- sed in coulombs involved in the (A) 1 (B) 2
tials (E°)— passage of electric current of 1 (C) 3 (D) 0·33
ampere for one minute is equal
Fe 2+ + 2e – → Fe; E° = – 0·44 V 65. If 2·303 RT/F = 0·0592 and acti-
to—
Fe3+ + 3e → Fe; E° = – 0·036 vity of solids is constant, the
1
(A) 1 (B) EMF of cell
The standard electrode potential 60
Zn | Zn2+ 2+
(C1) || Cu(C2) | Cu
(E°) for (C) 60 (D) 96500
will be—
Fe 3+ + e – → Fe2+ 58. If the cell reaction, M + e – → M– C2
will be— has a large negative reduction (A) E = E° – 0·0592 log
C1
(A) + 0·772 V (B) + 0·404 V potential, it follows that— C1
(C) – 0·404 V (D) – 0·476 V (A) M is readily reduced (B) E = E° – 0·0592 log
C2
50. The number of faradays required (B) M is readily oxidised
0·0592 C1
to deposit one mole atoms of a (C) M– is readily reduced (C) E = E° – log
2 C2
metal, when a solution of its ions (D) M– is readily oxidised
M2+ is electrolysed, is— 0·0592 C2
59. During the charging of lead (D) E = E° – log
(A) 1 (B) 2 2 C1
storage battery, the reaction
1
(C) (D) 96500 occurring at cathode is as—
2 ANSWERS WITH HINT
(A) Pb → Pb2+ + 2e –
51. In order to produce 160 g of oxy-
gen, the number of moles of (B) Pb2+ + 2e – → Pb
water required to be electrolysed (C) Pb2+ + SO42– → PbSO4
is—
(D) PbSO4 + H2O → PbO2
(A) 2·5 (B) 5
(C) 10 (D) 20 + 4H+ + SO42– + 2e –
52. If a salt bridge is removed from a 60. The specific conductance of
electrochemical cell, the vol- 0·1 M HNO3 is 6·3 × 10–2 ohm –1
tage— cm–1. The molar conductance of
(A) Increases rapidly this solution is—
(B) Drops to zero (A) 6300 ohm–1 cm2
(C) Increases slowly (B) 630 ohm–1 cm2
(D) Does not change
(C) 315 ohm–1 cm2
53. One faraday of electricity may
(D) 100 ohm–1 cm2
liberate one gram atom of metal
from the solution of— 61. The overall chemical reaction
(A) AlCl3 (B) CuSO 4 that occurs in a Daniell cell is—
(C) BaCl 2 (D) NaCl (A) Oxidation (B) Reduction
54. When electric current is passed (C) Redox (D) Precipitation
through acidulated water, 112 ml
of H 2 at STP is collected at 62. The electrochemical equivalent
cathode in 965 sec. The current of a material (element) is equal
passed in ampere is— to—
(A) 0·1 (B) 0·5 Atomic wt. × Valency
(C) 1·0 (D) 2·0 (A)
96‚500
55. The decreasing order of stan- Atomic wt. × 96‚500
dard electrode potentials of K, (B)
Valency
Ca and Li is as—
Atomic weight
(A) Ca > K > Li (C)
(B) Li < K < Ca Valency × 96‚500
(C) Li < Ca < K Valency × 96‚500
(D)
(D) Ca < Li < K Atomic weight
56. In the Faraday law of electrolysis 63. The volume of oxygen at STP,
w = z×i×t obtained by electrolysis of 18 g
‘z ’ stands for— of H 2O will be— ●●●

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 580

Introduction ● According to Kekule structure, there should be two
● The word ‘aromatic’ is derived from Greek word ortho-disubstitution products as :
‘aroma’ means fragrant odour. They are supposed to X X
be derived from fragrant natural compounds. | |
● There are four main kinds of aromatic compounds : C C
(i) Benzenoids containing one benzene ring. Y—C C—H H—C C—Y
(ii) Polynuclear benzenoids containing two or more | and |
|| ||
fused benzene rings. H—C C—H H—C C—H
(iii) Non-benzenoids containing planar cyclic carbon C C
rings other than benzene. | |
(iv) Those heterocyclic compounds whose properties H H
resemble benzene. ● Experimentally only one ortho-disubstitution product is
Aromatic Hydrocarbons obtained. To explain this anomaly Kekule suggested
● Benzene is the typical compound of this class. The that positions of double bonds are not fixed as repre-
sented by following dynamic structures :
other derivatives of benzene having hydrogen and
carbon only are also known as aromatic hydrocarbons H H
or arenes. | |
C1 C1
● Several aromatic hydrocarbons are benzene, naph- 2 2
thalene, toluene, styrene, biphenyl and anthracene. H—C C—H ⎯⎯→ H—C 6 C—H
6
| || ←⎯⎯ || |
● Aromatic hydrocarbons may be represented by a
H—C C—H H—C 5 C—H
general formula, C nH2n – 6y, where y is the number of 5 3 3
rings. When y = 1 and n = 6, the formula is C6H6, i.e., C4 C
| |4
benzene. H H
Benzene Thus 1, 2 and 1, 6 disubstituted products are in rapid
● Benzene (phene) was discovered by Faraday in 1825 dynamic equilibrium and it is rather impossible to sepa-
and its ring structure was established by Kekule in rate them.
1865. ● The Kekule hypothesis of dynamic structures could
● Cyclic structure—In presence of Ni catalyst and at explain the actual existence of only three disubstitution
200°C, hydrogenation of benzene gives a cyclic com- products.
pound, cyclohexane and hence benzene must have X X X
cyclic structure. | | |
1
H2
C C1 C1
2 2 2
| H—C C—Y H—C 6 C—H H—C 6 C—H
6
C | || | || | ||
H—C
5 C—H H—C5 C—Y H—C5 C—H
Ni H2—C C—H 2 3
C6H6 + 3H2 ⎯⎯→ | | C C4
3
C4
3
200°C |4
H2—C C—H 2 | |
H H Y
C 1, 2-disubstitution 1, 3-disubstitution 1, 4-disubstitution
| (Ortho) (Meta) (Para)
H2
● Ozonolysis data of Levine and Cole supported the
Cyclohexane; ΔH = – 209 kJ mol– 1
● Kekule structure of benzene—Following structure of dynamic structure of benzene.
benzene was proposed by Kekule : CH3 CH3
| |
H
| C C
C H—C C—CH 3 H—C C—CH 3
| || || |
H—C C—H H—C H—C
| || C —H C—H
H—C C—H C C
| |
C H H
|
H ⏐O ⏐O
Kekule’s structure ↓ 3 ↓ 3

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 581

 ⎧⎪ H–C=O O=C—CH3 ⎫⎪⎧⎪H– C=O C H 3– C =O⎫
⎪
⎨⎪2 | + | ⎬⎪⎨⎪ | + 2 | ⎬⎪
⎩ H– C=O O=C—CH ⎭⎩H– C=O
3 H– C =O⎭
Glyoxal Dimethyl Glyoxal Methyl
glyoxal glyoxal
They carried out the ozonolysis of ortho xylene (1, 2-
dimethyl benzene) and obtained glyoxal, methyl glyoxal
and dimethyl glyoxal in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1 respec-
tively.
Formation of products in above mentioned ratio is only
possible when position of double bonds oscillates bet-
ween 1, 2 and 1, 6 positions.
Limitations of Kekule structure—The structure pro-
posed by Kekule was unable to explain following facts :
(i) Resistance of double bonds in benzene for addi-
tion reactions.
(ii) Ease of substitution reactions.
(iii) Unusual stability of benzene ring.
The exceptionally stable nature of benzene ring is
established by following experimental observations :
➟ Heat of hydrogenation of benzene—Each carbon-
carbon double bond contributes nearly 121 kJ mol –1
towards the overall heat of hydrogenation of an un-
saturated compound. Thus according to Kekule struc-
ture, the heat of hydrogenation of benzene should be
about 3 × 121 = 363 kJ mol – 1.
Actual heat of hydrogenation is about 209 kJ mol–1
which is less than the calculated value by 154 kJ
mol– 1. It means that benzene molecule is actually
more stable that predicted by Kekule.
➟ Heat of combustion of benzene—Experimental
value is – 3301·6 kJ mol– 1. The calculated value for
Kekule structure is about – 3446·8 kJ mol– 1. Thus
actual benzene molecule is more stable than the
structure proposed by Kekule by 145·2 kJ mol – 1.
➟ Bond length in benzene—We know that carbon-
carbon double bond (C == C) is 134 pm long and
carbon-carbon single bond (C—C) is 154 pm. In
benzene all the six carbon-carbon bonds are equal,
i.e., 139 pm which is intermediate between single and
double bonds. This further shows extra stability of
benzene molecule.
Explanation of anomalous behaviour of ben-
zene—According to resonance theory, benzene is sup-
posed to be resonance hybrid of following two Kekule
structures :
←→
(I) (II)
The structures (I) and (II) are identical and they contribute
highly to the hybrid structure. Thus high stability of
benzene is attributed to the resonance.
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 582
Key Points
● Stability—The resonance hybrid is always more stable
than any of the resonance structures of a molecule. Thus
actual benzene structure (hybrid) is more stable than either
of two Kekule structures (I) and (II) by an amount 154 kJ
mol– 1 (resonance energy), a value comparable to that
obtained under heat of hydrogenation data.
● Isomer number—In resonance hybrid, all carbon-carbon
bonds are identical with respect of bond distance and bond
energy and hence positions 1, 2 and 1, 6 are equivalent.
Therefore, only three disubstitution products actually exist.
● Chemical reactivity—In aromatic substitution reactions of
benzene, the tendency is to preserve the resonance-sta-
bilized ring system, despite apparent presence of carbon-
carbon double bonds.
This is, therefore, a logical explanation that benzene does
not undergo addition reaction, for aromatic ring system will
be destroyed by such reactions.
Orbital structure of benzene—X-ray and electron
diffraction of benzene show that benzene is a flat hexagon
with six carbon atoms lying in the same plane having
bond angle (C—C—C—) of 120°.
➟ Each carbon atom in benzene is in sp 2 hybridized
state. Each carbon has three sp 2 orbitals inclined at
an angle of 120° and an unhybridised pz orbital is
located perpendicular to plane of sp 2 hybrid orbitals.
H H
σ σ
σ
σ σ
σ σ
H H
σ
σ
σ
σ σ
H H
➟ The unhybridised pz orbital of each carbon atom can
overlap in two ways :
(i) The pz orbital on each carbon atom can overlap in
two ways. In one way, the pz orbitals of C 1 and C 2,
C3 and C4; C5 and C 6 can overlap resulting in
three π bonds as :
1 π 2 1 2
6 3 ≡ 6 3
π π
4
5 5 4
(ii) In another way, the pz orbitals of C 2 and C3; C4
and C5; C6 and C1 can overlap resulting in three π
bonds as :
 ● Many theories have been put forth to explain aroma-
1 1 2
2 ticity and some important ones are discussed below :
➟ Sextet theory—According to Robinson sextet
3 ≡ 6 3
theory, a completely conjugated cyclic system con-
taining 6π electrons is aromatic. This theory could
6 explain the aromaticity of benzene and its deriva-
5 4 5 4 tives, but could not explain the aromaticity of com-
pounds containing 2, 10, 14, 18 …… π electrons.
● The pz orbital of any carbon atom can overlap with ➟ Huckel rules—These rules were proposed by a
either of two adjacent pz orbitals of adjacent carbon
German physicist Eric Huckel in 1931. Main points
atoms as they are equidistant. Since the structure of are as :
benzene is cyclic and planar, all the six p z orbitals
overlap equally and continually to form two continuous (i) The molecule or ion must be flat or nearly so.
rings, one lying above and other below the plane of six (ii) Molecule must have cyclic cloud of delocalised
carbon atoms. π-electrons above and below the plane of
H H molecule.

C C
(iii) π-electron cloud should envelop all the carbon
atoms of the cyclic system.
H C C H
(iv) The total number of π-electrons in an aromatic
C C molecule must be (4n + 2), where n is an
integer, i.e., n = 0, 1, 2 … etc. According to
H H Huckel rules, the number of π electrons will be
● The six electrons of six p z orbitals cover all the six 2 when (n = 0), 6 when (n = 1), 10 when
carbon atoms and are said to be delocalized. This (n = 2), 14 when (n = 3) and 18 if (n = 4) etc.
delocalization of π electrons results in more stability of Applications of Huckel Rules
benzene molecule.
● Representation of benzene molecule (i) Monocyclic systems—Non-benzenoid systems :
H H –
H H + ••
1·39A°
C C

1·09A° Cyclopropenyl cation Cyclopropenyl anion

H C C H or
(Planar 2π electrons aromatic) (Planar 4π electrons
120 ° not aromatic)
120 ° C C –
H + H
••
H 120 ° H
Actually the circle inside the ring shows the cloud of pi
Cyclopentadienyl Cyclopentadienyl
(π) electrons. cation, 4π electrons anion, 6π electrons
(Not aromatic) (Aromatic)
Concept of Aromatic Character (Aromaticity) H H
H H
● Benzene and other organic compounds which
resemble benzene in their chemical behaviour exhibit
properties quite different from those of aliphatic and
alicylic compounds, are called aromatic compounds. Cyclopropene Cycloheptatriene
(Non-planar 2π electrons) non-planar-6π electrons
● Following are some common characteristics of aroma- (Not aromatic) (Not aromatic)
tic compounds : H H –
+ ••
➟ Their molecular formulae may show high degree of
unsaturation, but still they are quite resistance to
addition and oxidation reactions generally shown
by aliphatic unsaturated compounds. Instead, they Cycloheptatrienyl Cycloheptatrienyl
behave like saturated compounds and prefer to cation planar 6π electrons anion-planar 8π electrons
(Aromatic) (Not aromatic)
undergo substitution reactions.
–
➟ The aromatic molecules have high stability as ••
shown by their heat of hydration and heat of com- –
bustion. ••
Cyclooctatetraene Cyclooctatetraene
➟ Their molecules are cyclic and have flat structures 8π electrons dianion, 10π electrons
as shown by X-ray diffraction. (Not aromatic) (Aromatic)

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 583

(ii) Polycyclic compounds ● Cycloheptatrienyl anion is antiaromatic when planar.
But this adopts a non-planar geometry and hence
becomes as stable as acyclic conjugate polyene,
heptatriene.
Thus non-planar cycloheptatrienyl anion is non-aro-
Naphthalene Anthracene Phenanthrene matic.
10π electrons 14π electrons 14π electrons
(Aromatic) (Aromatic) (Aromatic) Annulenes
(iii) Heterocyclic compounds ● Conjugated monocyclic polyenes containing even
number of carbon atoms, CnHn in which n ≥ 10, are
•• •• •• usually called annulenes.
N O S N
•• •• •• ● Annulenes were prepared by Sondheimer to test the
Pyrrole Furan Thiophene Pyridine Huckel rule (4n + 2).
(Planar 6π electrons (6π electrons (6π electrons (6π electrons
Aromatic) Aromatic) Aromatic) Aromatic) ● The annulenes where n = 12, 14, 16, 18, 20, 24 and
30, were investigated. Of these only [14], [18] and [30]
Antiaromatic Compounds
annulenes are (4n + 2)π electron molecules whereas
● The term antiaromaticity was introduced by Breslow in
rest are (4n) π molecules.
1967. Any monocyclic completely conjugated polyene
is said to be antiaromatic if it is less stable than corres-
ponding acyclic polyene. H
H H H
● Cyclobutadiene is the best known example of an anti- H H H H
aromatic compound as it is less stable than the corres-
ponding acyclic 1, 3-butadiene by about 83·6 kJ mol– 1. [10] Annulene [10]-Annulene [14]-annulene
In fact cyclobutadiene is so unstable that even at 195 Planar-10π electrons non-planar Planar : 14π-electrons
K, it undergoes Alder cycloaddition reaction to give Aromatic 10π electrons Aromatic
Not aromatic
dimer.
Azulene
195 K
+ ⎯⎯→ ● Intensely blue solid, m.p. 99°C.
Butadiene Cyclobutadiene dimer
● There are two Kekule structures of azulene containing
● In view of Huckel rule, monocyclic planar, completely
10π electrons (n = 2). Five membered ring has five and
conjugated polyenes containing 4 n π electrons are
seven membered has seven π-electrons (2π electrons
destabilised systems and hence are antiaromatic.
are common to both rings)
Some other examples of antiaromatic species are as :
H
– H + ←→ ←→ +
••
Azulene

Cyclopropenyl anion Cyclopentadienyl Key Points

4π-electrons cation 4π-electrons
● The central C atom in allene CH2 —
—C—
— CH 2 is s p hybri-
(Antiaromatic) (Antiaromatic)
H – dised. The pair of hydrogen atoms on each C atom lies
•• perpendicular to plane of the molecule. Thus, this molecule
is non-planar.
● Both pyridine (C5H5N) and pyrrole have lone pair of elec-
Cycloheptatrienyl Planar cyclooctatetraene trons on N-atom but pyrrole is not basic, as its lone pair is
anion 8π-electrons 8π-electrons contributed towards aromatic sextet formation and hence
(Antiaromatic) (Antiaromatic) not available for protonation. In pyridine, the lone pair over
Non-Aromatic Compounds N atom is not contributed to sextet and hence available for
● A monocyclic completely conjugated polyene is said to protonation.
be non-aromatic if its stability is comparable to the ● Pyrene with 16π-electrons does not conform to Huckel
corresponding acyclic polyene. rule. However, it is a typical benzenoid aromatic com-
● Cyclooctatetraene is non-aromatic since it adopts a pound. Actually only 14π-electrons (peripheral) contribute
non-planar (tub-shaped) geometry whose stability is to delocalization and hence aromatic.
comparable to acyclic octatetraene. Thus cyclo-
tetraene behaves like a typical alkene and hence non-
aromatic.

Pyrene (16π-electrons)
Cyclooctatetraene (Non-planar 8π-electrons, non-aromatic)

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 584

● Azulene behaves as an aromatic compounds in chemi- Name of fraction Temp. range Main constituents
cal reactions. To account for its high dipole moment, it (i) Light oil 80°–170°C Benzene, toluene,
is assumed that one electron is transferred from seven xylene etc.
membered ring to five membered ring. Both the rings (ii) Middle oil 170°–230°C Phenol, naphthalene
now have sextet of π-electrons. etc.
(iii) Heavy oil 230°–270°C Some phenol and
Source of Aromatic Compounds (creosote oil) naphthalene and
mainly cresols
● Coal tar, a by-product of destructive distillation of coal, (iv) Anthracene 270°–360°C Anthracene
is by far an important source of aromatic compounds. oil (green oil)
Petroleum is another source. (v) Pitch Left as residue 92–94% carbon
● When bituminous coal is heated in iron retort (1000– Purification and redistillation of light oil gives following
1400°C) in absence of air (destructive distillation), coal fractions :
gas, coal tar etc. are produced along with non-volatile Fraction Temp. range Main constituents and
residue of coke. This process is also known as carbo- their uses
nization of coal. (i) 90% upto 110°C Benzene (70%), Toluene
● Following is the flow-sheet of destructive distillation of Benzol (24%) and rest Xylenes
coal : (ii) 50% 110°–240°C Benzene (46%), Toluene
Benzol (50%) and Xylene (4%)
Coal
(iii) Solvent 240°–260°C Mainly consists of xylenes,
naphtha mesitylenes and cumene.
↓ ↓ Used as solvent for resins,
Hot-volatile products Solid residue
of coke rubber and paints.
cooled and washed
with water 65–70% of wt. of coal used
Note : 90% benzol means that when 100 ml of this
↓ ↓ fraction is redistilled 90 ml distils below 100°C
Insoluble gases Condensed liquid and this is main source of benzene. Similarly
(Coal gas) 17% on standing 50% benzol means that when 100 ml of this
↓ ↓ fraction is distilled, 50 ml distils below 100°C
Aqueous light layer Heavy viscous layer and this is main source of toluene.
(Ammoniacal liquor) (Coal tar) ● Pitch—It contains 92–94% carbon. The pitch is used
8–10% 4-5%
in black paints, varnishes for metal and wood work. It
● Coal tar—In addition to carbon, it contains a number is also used in making roads and as a binder in roof
of naturally occurring neutral, acidic and basic com- making.
pounds. It is an important raw material for certain ● Pitch is originally very hard and it is made soft by
dyes, explosives, perfumes, medicines and photo pumping creosote (dead oil) in still containing pitch.
goods. The oil from which anthracene, phenol and naphtha-
➟ Neutral substances—These include hydro- lene have been removed is known as creosote oil or
carbons of aromatic series such as benzene, dead oil.
toluene, naphthalene, anthracene, phenanthrene Petroleum as a source of aromatic compounds—
etc. It contains as high as 40% aromatic compounds.
➟ Basic substances—Pyridine, quinoline and their ● A variety of aromatic compounds are extracted from
homologues. gasoline fraction of petroleum distillation.
● During world war I, toluene, a strategic material
➟ Acidic substances—Plain acidic substances required for TNT was obtained from Borneo petroleum.
are phenol (carbolic acid), cresols etc.
● The presence of alkyl benzenes, naphthalene and α
➟ Main fractions of fractional distillation of coal tar and β methyl naphthalenes have been confirmed in
are as : kerosene oil fraction of petroleum.
● Following are important fractions of petroleum :

Size range of
Fraction Temp. range Uses
molecules
(i) Gas C1—C5 – 160° — 30°C Gaseous fuels (LPG)
(ii) Straight run gasoline C5—C12 30° — 200°C Motor fuels, solvent in dry cleaning
(iii) Kerosene fuel oil C12 —C18 200° — 400°C Diesel fuel, furnace fuel, cracking
(iv) Lubricants C16 —C20 350°C and up Lubricants, petroleum jelly, grease etc.
(v) Paraffins C20 and up Low melting solids Candles, matches, boot polish, wax, paper etc.
(vi) Asphalt C36 and up Gummy residues Surfacing roads

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 585

● Techniques are developed whereby aliphatic hydro- ➟ High temperature cracking—It consists on heating
carbons present in petroleum can be converted into petroleum hydrocarbons at 600–700°C in presence of
aromatic compounds. metallic oxides as catalysts. It is believed that high
➟ Hydroforming or catalytic reforming—This molecular weight aliphatic hydrocarbons are first
change is carried out at high temperature (540– decomposed to low molecular weight olefins and
550°C) and high pressure (10–20 atm.) in pre- diolefins which in a manner similar to Diel’s-Alder
sence of catalysts. reaction form cyclic compounds that are subsequently
Cr O /Al O converted to aromatic compounds
n-hexane ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
2 3 2 3
Benzene + 4H2
CH 2
Cr O /Al O
n-heptane ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
2 3 2 3
Toluene + 4H2
CH CH2 Catalyst
Cr2O3/Al2O3 | + || ⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯→
n-octane ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ o-xylene + 4H2 CH CH2 600–700°C – 2H2

Cr O /Al O CH 2 Ethylene Cyclohexene Benzene

n-octane ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
2 3 2 3
Ethyl benzene + 3H2
Butadiene
CH2—CH2 In cracked petroleum, benzene, toluene, xylenes,
AlCl 3/HCl
| CH—CH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Benzene + 3H2 naphthalene etc. are obtained. These aromatic hydro-
CH2—CH2 carbons are used as fuels with high octane-rating and
Methyl cyclopentane as petrochemicals.

Points to Remember

● Following are some structures of benzene proposed by diffe- ● Benzene (Phene) was first isolated by Faraday from cylinders
rent scientist of compressed illuminating gas obtained from pyrolysis of
whale oil. In 1845 benzene was found in coal tar by Hof-
→↓← mann. Benzene was first synthesized by Berthelot by pass-
→ ←
↑ ing acetylene through red hot iron tube.
Claus Dewar’s parabond Armstrong ● Coal tar is the chief source of aromatic compounds. The high
diagonal formula structure and Baeyer’s centric temperature (1000–1400°C) carbonization of bituminous coal
structure
results in coal tar containing over 200 aromatic compounds.
● The low temperature carbonisation (1000°C) gives smokeless
coke required for metallurgical operation. The coal tar obtai-
ned in this process contains high quantity of aliphatic hydro-
carbons.
Ladenburg Kekule’s Thiele’s formula
Prism structure structure of partial valencies ● The gasoline obtained by cracking always contains olefins,
branched chain aliphatic hydrocarbons and aromatic hydro-
● Aromatic compounds have highest octane number, decreas- carbons which have high octane numbers. This is the reason
ing order of octane number is as : that it is a better fuel than straight run gasoline.
Aromatic compounds > Cycloalkanes > Olefins ● Some fractions of gasoline are dark coloured and have offen-
> Branched chain alkane > Straight chain alkanes sive odour due to presence of certain sulphur compounds
● Octane number of gasoline can be increased by (i) cracking such as mercaptans, and are known as sour gasolines.
(ii) adding gasoline additives (TEL) (iii) alkylation (iv) isomeri- ● In order to avoid lead pollution, now-a-days, unleaded petrol
sation, (v) reforming (cyclization, aromatization etc.) (vi) (which does not contain TEL) is used. Unleaded petrol con-
adding aromatic hydrocarbons, i.e., BTX (benzene, toluene, tains higher percentage of chain alkanes, alkenes and aroma-
tic hydrocarbons.
xylenes).
● Aromatic compounds have low percentage of hydrogen and ● During cracking following changes occur :
high percentage of carbon as compared with corresponding (i) Breaking of C—C and C—H bonds resulting in lower
aliphatic compounds. hydrocarbons.
● Aromatic compounds on account of having high carbon con- (ii) Straight chain alkanes are converted into branched
tent, burn with smoky or sooty flame while aliphatic com- chain alkanes.
pounds burn with non-smoky flame. (iii) Saturated hydrocarbons are converted into unsaturated
● Aromatic compounds give many characteristic reactions such ones.
as Friedel-Crafts reaction, Perkin reaction and diazo reaction. (iv) Cyclisation of alkanes to aromatic compounds.
Aliphatic compounds do not give these reactions. ● Fischer-Tropsch process to prepare synthetic petrol is as :
● The resonance energy of benzene molecule is 150·62 kJ 473 K‚ 1–10 atm.
CO + H2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Mixture of hydrocarbons + H 2O
(36·0 k cal) mol – 1. 1423 Co or Ni
● Each carbon in benzene molecule is sp 2 hybridised. Thus, in Synthetic gas

all there are six C—C, σ bonds and six C—H, σ bonds which ● Bergius process—It involves hydrogenation of coal.
all lie in one plane and the angle between any two adjacent 748 K‚ 200–250 atm.
C + H2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Mixture of hydrocarbons
C—C, σ bond is 120°. Iron oxide

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 586

 OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Maximum number of organic (C) Hexagonal planar 18. Pyridine is—
compounds, is obtained from— (D) Hexahedral (A) Aromatic compound and a
(A) Natural gas 10. Benzene moelcule contains— primary base
(B) Petroleum (A) Three sp 3 and three sp 2 (B) A heterocyclic compound
(C) Coal tar hybridised carbon atoms and a primary base
(D) Animal charcoal (B) Three sp 2 and three sp (C) Aromatic compound and a
2. Aromatic compounds cannot hybridised carbon atoms tertiary base
have— (C) All the six sp hybridised (D) Aromatic amino compound
(A) Aroma carbon atoms
19. Carbon atoms in benzene are
(B) Planar geometry (D) All the six sp 2 hybridised
inclined at angle of—
(C) Unsaturation carbon atoms
(A) 60° (B) 109° 28′
(D) Tetrahedral configuration 11. Petroleum is the main source
of— (C) 120° (D) 180°
3. Benzene was discovered by—
(A) Aliphatic hydrocarbons 20. Which of the following com-
(A) Dalton
(B) Aromatic hydrocarbons pounds burns with sooty flame ?
(B) Kekule
(C) Inorganic matters (A) C6H6
(C) Faraday
(D) All of these
(D) None of these (B) CH4
12. LPG contains— (C) CH3COC2H5
4. Which of the following is the
(A) Benzene (B) Butane
most stable compound ? (D) None of these
(C) Hexene (D) None of these
(A) Cyclohexene 21. Gasoline is—
(B) Cyclohexane 13. Benzene is obtained by fractional
(A) C3H8 to C6H14
(C) Benzene distillation of—
(A) Light oil (B) C7H16 to C10H22
(D) Cyclohexadiene
(B) Middle oil (C) C7H24 to C14H34
5. Benzene is not as reactive as (D) C17H36 to C21H50
(C) Heavy oil
hexatriene because—
(D) Anthracene oil 22. Octane number of a fuel is in-
(A) Three double bonds are
trapped in ring 14. Coal is the valuable source of— creased by—
(B) Benzene is non-polar (A) Sulphur compounds (A) Alkylation
(C) Benzene has delocalised 6π (B) Aliphatic compounds (B) Isomerisation
electrons (C) Aromatic compounds (C) Reforming
(D) Benzene is unsaturated (D) Alicyclic compounds (D) All of these
molecule
15. Addition of BTX increases the 23. The process of reforming in-
6. Which of the following is an aro- octane number of gasoline. BTX volves—
matic species ? stands for—
(A) Cyclisation
(A) Butane, TEL and Xylene
(A) (B) (B) Isomerisation
(B) Butene, TEL and Xylenol
H H ⊕ (C) Aromatization
.. (C) Benzene, TEL and Xylene
(C) (D) (D) All of these
(D) Benzene, Toluene and
Xylene 24. Coke is obtained by heating coal
7. Which of the following formulae
16. The approximate amount of ben- in—
represents monocyclic arene ?
(A) Cn H2n + 6 (B) CnH2n – 6 zene in 90% benzol is— (A) Presence of air
(C) Cn H2n + 4 (D) Cn H2n – 4 (A) 90% (B) 70% (B) Absence of air
(C) 65% (D) 50% (C) Restricted supply of air
8. Catalytic hydrogenation of ben-
zene gives— 17. The number of π-electrons in (D) Presence of catalyst
(A) Xylene –
H 25. Which of the following fractions
(B) Toluene •• of coal tar distillation contains
H H naphthelene ?
(C) Cyclohexane
(D) Benzoic acid H H (A) Light oil
9. The structure of benzene is— is— (B) Middle oil
(A) Trigonal planar (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) Heavy oil
(B) Hexagonal non-planar (C) 2 (D) 8 (D) Both (B) and (C)

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 587

26. The ratio between σ and π bonds 34. Which is not an aromatic spe- 41. Which of the following will be
in benzene is— cies ? aromatic ?
(A) 2 (B) 4 OH
(A) – (B) ⊕ (A) (B)
(C) 6 (D) 8
27. Cyclopentadienyl anion is aroma-
(C) ⊕ (D) ⊕
tic due to the presence of— O
(A) 4π electrons
35. Which is an aromatic compound ? (C) (D)
(B) 6π electrons H5C6 C6H
(A) (B)
(C) 10π electrons
O O 42. Centric formula of benzene was
(D) 12π electrons proposed by—
28. An aromatic compound or spe- (C) (D) (A) Kekule
cies must have— N (B) Ladenburg
|
(A) Open chain structure H (C) Armstrong and Baeyer
(B) Closed ring structure (D) Dewar
36. In which of the following reso-
(C) Delocalised electrons nance does not lead to stability ? 43. The number of π electrons in
(D) Both (B) and (C) H ⊕ naphthalene is—
(A) (A) 3 (B) 6
29. According to Huckel, monocyclic
compounds will show aromaticity (C) 10 (D) 12
H
(B) ..
when— 44. Which of the following is the
(A) It contains 4π electrons stable form of cyclohexatriene ?
(B) It contain 2n + 4π electrons (C) (A) Boat form
(B) Chair form
(C) It contains 4 n + 2π electrons
(D) CH2 —
— CH—CH —
— CH2 (C) Planar form
(D) It contains 4π + 2π electrons
37. Which of the following aromatic (D) Half chair form
30. The purest form of coal is— compounds does not have fused 45. Six carbon atoms of benzene are
(A) Peat benzene rings ? of—
(B) Anthracite (A) Naphthalene (A) Three types
(C) Lignite (B) Anthracene (B) Two types
(D) Bituminous (C) Diphenyl (C) One type
31. Which of the following has the (D) Phenanthrene (D) Six types
maximum number of resonating 38. Which of the following is not an 46. Aromatic molecules generally
structures ? aromatic compounds ? have—
(A) Benzene (A) [10] annulene planar (A) (4n + 2)π electrons
(B) Naphthalene (B) [10] annulene non-planar (B) Cyclic structure
(C) Anthracene
(C) [14] annulene planar (C) Planar structure
(D) Phenanthrene
(D) Azulene (D) All are correct
32. Which of the following com- 47. Which is non-aromatic in nature ?
39. Which one is the antiaromatic
pounds is not aromatic ?
among the following ? (A) Furan (B) Thiophene
(A) Cyclobutadiene (C) Piperdine (D) Pyrrole
(A) (B)
(B) Cyclopentadienyl cation 48. Which is known as gasohol ?
– (C) Cycloheptatrienyl anion
H H H (A) Gasoline and diesel
(D) All of these (B) Gasoline and alcohol
(C) (D) 40. Which one of the following com- (C) Gasoline and LPG
+ pounds does not conform to (D) None of these
H Huckel rule and even then is
49. Which of the following can be
33. The number of bonding π-mole- aromatic ?
(A) Phenanthrene obtained from coal tar ?
cular orbitals in benzene mole-
cule is— (B) Pyridine (A) Dyes (B) Drugs
(A) One (B) Two (C) Pyrene (C) Perfumes (D) All of these
(C) Three (D) Six (D) Pyrrole (Continued on Page 605 )

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 588

 17. For a reversible reaction, the rate
Model Paper for Various Medical Entrance Examinations
constant for the forward and back-
ward reactions are 2·38 × 10– 4
and 8·15 × 10– 5 respectively. The
CHEMISTRY equilibrium constant for the reac-
tion is—
(A) 0·342 (B) 2·92
1. A1 g of an element gives A2 g of 8. Distribution law was given by— (C) 0·292 (D) 3·42
its chloride. The equivalent mass (A) Ostwald (B) Nernst
18. Lyophilic colloids are stable due
of the element is— (C) Henry (D) Van’t Hoff
to—
A1 9. The vapour pressure of a dilute
(A) × 35·5 (A) Large size of the particles
A2 – A1 solution of glucose is 750 mm of
Hg at 373 K. The mole fraction of (B) Small size of the particles
A2
(B) × 35·5 solute is— (C) No charge on particles
A2 – A1
1 1 (D) Dispersion layer on the parti-
A2 – A1 (A) (B)
(C) × 35·5 10 76 cles
A1 1 1
(C) (D) 19. The pH of a solution is 2. Its pH
A2 – A1 7·6 35
(D) × 35·5 is to be changed to 4. The [H+] of
A2 10. Which is not a Lewis acid ?
original solution has to be—
(A) FeCl3 (B) AlCl3
2. The weight of 112 ml of oxygen (A) Halved
at NTP is— (C) SnCl 4 (D) AlCl3.6H2O
(B) Doubled
(A) 0·64 gm (B) 0·96 gm 11. Which of the following has maxi-
mum flocculation value ? (C) Increased 100 times
(C) 0·32 gm (D) 0·16 gm
(A) [Fe (CN)6] 4– (B) PO43– (D) Decreased 100 times
3. The wave number which corre- (C) Cl– (D) SO42–
sponds to electromagnetic radia- 20. The concentration units indepen-
tions of wavelength 600 nm is 12. Which of the following is an dent of temperature is—
equal to— intensive property ? (A) Molarity (B) Molality
(A) 1·6 × 104 cm–1 (A) Density (B) Volume
(C) Normality (D) Formality
(C) Mass (D) Energy
(B) 0·16 × 104 cm–1 21. Which substance is serving as a
13. H2 (g) + 21 O 2 (g) → H2O(g) ; ΔH = x
(C) 16 × 104 cm–1 reducing agent in the following
H2 (g) + 21 O 2 (g) → H2O(l); ΔH = y reaction ?
(D) 160 × 104 cm–1
Heat of vaporisation of water— Cr2O72– + 14 H+ + 3Ni
4. The densities of two gases are in
the ratio of 1 : 16. The ratio of
(A) x + y (B) – (x + y ) → 2 Cr3+ + 7 H2O + 3 Ni2+
(C) x – y (D) y – x (A) H2O (B) Ni
their rate of diffusion is—
(A) 16 : 1 (B) 1 : 4 14. On dissolving NH4Cl to water the (C) H+ (D) Cr2O72–
solution becomes cold. This is
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 16
due to— 22. Which of the following is not a
235
5. The isotope 92
U decays in a (A) Exothermic colligative property ?
number of steps to an isotope of (B) Endothermic (A) Depression in freezing point
207 Pb. The groups of particles (C) Supercooling
82 (B) Osmotic pressure
emitted in this process will be— (D) None of these
(C) Elevation of boiling point
(A) 8α, 1β (B) 4α, 7β 15. The unit of rate constant obeying
(D) Increase in freezing point
the rate expression r = k [A][B]2/3
(C) 3α, 7β (D) 7α, 4β is— 23. The emf of the cell involving the
6. Which is not correct ? (A) mole– 2/3 litre2/3 time– 1 following reaction
(A) n = 2, l = 0, m = – 1 (B) mole– 5/3 litre5/3 time– 1 2 Ag + + H2 → 2Ag + 2H+
(B) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0 (C) mole2/3 litre– 2/3 time– 1
is 0·80 volts. The standard oxida-
(C) n = 3, l = 1, m = – 1 (D) mole5/3 litre– 5/3 time– 1 tion potential of silver electrode
(D) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0 16. The resistance of 1N solution of is—
acetic acid is 250 ohm, when (A) – 0·80 V (B) 0·80 V
7. The root mean square velocity of measured in a cell of cell cons-
an ideal gas at constant pressure (C) 0·40 V (D) – 0·40 V
tant 1·15 cm– 1. The equivalent
varies with density as— conductivity in ohm–1 cm equiv–1 24. The reagent used to estimate I 2
(A) d 2 (B) d 1N acetic acid is— volumetrically is—
1 (A) 3·8 (B) 4·6 (A) KMnO 4 (B) Hypo
(C) (D) d (C) 9·2 (D) 12·6 (C) K2Cr2O7 (D) None of these
d

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 589

25. The transition elements have a 32. The compound that does not pro- 40. White lead is—
characteristic electronic configu- duce blue colour in Lassaigne’s (A) PbSO4 . PbO
ration which can be represented test is— (B) PbCO 3 . PbO
as— (A) Urea (B) Hydrazine (C) PbCO 3
(A) (n – 2) s 2p 6d 1 – 10 (n – 1) (C) Aniline (D) Glycine (D) Pb(OH)2 . 2 PbCO 3
s 2p 6 ns 2 41. Both ethylene and acetylene can
2 6 1 – 10 33. Lead dissolves most readily in—
(B) (n – 2) s p d (n – 1) be prepared in one step from—
s 2p 6d 1 or 2 ns 1 (A) Acetic acid
(A) CH3CH2OH
(C) (n – 1) s 2p 6d 10 ns 2 np 6 (B) Sulphuric acid (B) CH3CH2Br
nd 1 – 10 (C) Nitric acid (C) BrCH2CH2Br
2
(D) (n – 1) s p d6 1 – 10 ns 1 or 2 (D) Hydrochloric acid (D) CH3COOH
26. Conversion of ethyl alcohol into 34. Salol is an— 42. At 400 K sodium phenoxide
acetaldehyde is an example of— (A) Antipyretic (B) Analgesics reacts with CO2 to produce—
(A) Hydrolysis (A) Catechol
(C) Antiseptic (D) Antibiotic
(B) Oxidation (B) Sodium salicylate
(C) Reduction 35. Mixture used in Holmes’s signal (C) Benzoic acid
(D) Molecular rearrangement is— (D) Salicylaldehyde
27. In NO3– ion number of bond pairs (A) CaCl2 and Ca 3P2
43. Which of the following is widely
and lone pairs of electrons on (B) CaC2 and CaCl2 used as an inhalative anaes-
nitrogen atom are— (C) CaC2 and Ca 3P2 thetic agent these days ?
(A) 2, 2 (B) 3, 1 (D) CaC2 and Ca 3N2 (A) CHCl3
(C) 1, 3 (D) 4, 0 (B) (C2H5)2O
28. C2H5NH2 and C6H5NH2 can be 36. The basic unit not present in (C) CF3CHCl Br
DNA is— (D) CF3CH Br2
best distinguished by—
(A) NaOH (A) Uracil (B) Adenine
44. The water soluble compound is—
(B) β-naphthol (C) Cytosine (D) Guanine (A) AgI (B) AgF
(C) CHCl3 /KOH 37. Which statement is not correct (C) AgCl (D) AgBr
(D) Heisenberg’s reagent when a mixture of NaCl and 45. An unknown alkyl halide (X)
29. In the commercial electrochemi- K2Cr2O7 is gently warmed with
reacts with alcoholic KOH to
cal process for aluminium extrac- conc. H 2SO4 ? produce a hydrocarbon C 4H8.
tion electrolyte used is— (A) A deep red vapour is evolved Ozonolysis of the hydrocarbon
(A) Al (OH)3 in NaOH solution (B) The vapour when passed offers one mole of propionalde-
(B) An aqueous solution of Al 2 into NaOH solution gives a hyde and one mole of formalde-
(SO4)3 yellow solution of Na 2CrO4 hyde. Suggest which organic
(C) A molten mixture of Al 2O3 structure among the following is
(C) Chlorine gas is evolved
and Na3AlF6 the correct structure of the above
(D) Chromyl chloride is formed alkyl halide ?
(D) A molten mixture of Al 2O3
and Al (OH)3 38. Transition elements do not (A) CH3 (CH2)3Br
show— (B) CH3CHBr CHBr CH3
30. The reaction in which primary
amine is not formed— (A) Paramagnetism (C) CH3CH2CHBr CH3
LiAlH4 (D) Br (CH2)4 Br
(A) CH3NC ⎯⎯⎯→ (B) Colour
LiAlH4 (C) Fixed valency 46. No evolution of oxygen takes
(B) CH3CONH2 ⎯⎯⎯→ place by the reaction of ozone
LiAlH (D) All the above
(C) CH3CN ⎯⎯⎯→
4 with—
KOH/Br 39. The stability of the compounds (A) PbS (B) H2O2
(D) CH3CONH2 ⎯⎯⎯→
2
(C) SO3 (D) KI
31. If NaOH is added to an aqueous 47. Propene, CH3CH = CH2 can be
solution of Zn2+ ions, a white pre-
(I) (II) converted into 1-propanol by oxi-
cipitate appears and on adding
dation. Indicate which set of
excess of NaOH the precipitate
reagents among the following is
dissolves. In the solution zinc
ideal to effect the above conver-
exists in the—
sion ?
(A) Anionic part (III) (IV)
(A) KMnO 4
(B) Cationic part (A) (IV) > (III) > (I) > (II) (B) Osmium tetroxide (OsO4/
(C) Both in anionic and cationic (B) (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV) CH2Cl2)
part (C) (II) > (III) > (I) > (IV) (C) B2H6 and alk. H2O2
(D) Colloidal form (D) (IV) > (I) > (III) > (II) (D) O3/Zn

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 590

48. P4O10 on treatment with water
produce—
(A) Hypophosphoric acid
(B) Hypophosphorous acid
(C) Ortho phosphorous acid
(D) Ortho phosphoric acid
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 591
49. Oxymercuration-demercuration 50. The abundantly found noble gas
reaction of 1-methyl cyclohexene in atmosphere is—
gives—
(A) cis-2-methyl cyclohexanol (A) Kr
(B) trans-2-methyl cyclohexanol (B) Xe
(C) 1-methyl cyclohexanol
(C) He
(D) Mixture of cis- and trans-2-
methyl cyclohexanol (D) Ar
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
 14. The enthalpies of formation of
Model Paper for Various Medical Entrance Examinations
N2O and NO are 82 and 90 kJ
mol– 1 respectively. The enthalpy

CHEMISTRY of reaction
2N 2O + O2 → 4NO
would be—
(A) – 16 kJ (B) 196 kJ
1. The separation energy of the (C) Kc = [CO2] [H2O] (C) 8 kJ (D) 88 kJ
electron present in shell n = 3 is (D) Kc = PCO2 × PH2O 15. pH of a buffer solution containing
1·51 eV. What is the energy in 1×10–6 M MCl and 1×10–5 M
the first excited state ? 8. How many protons will be added M(OH) will be— [pK b of M(OH)
(A) – 1·51 eV (B) – 3·4 eV to left to balance the process
= 7·0 and Kw = 10–14]
(C) + 1·51 eV (D) – 13·6 eV MnO4– → Mn2+
(A) 6·0 (B) 7·0
2. The nomenclature of ICl is iodine (A) Zero (B) Eight (C) 7·5 (D) 8·0
monochloride because— (C) Five (D) Two
16. What is the total K.E. of 0·5
(A) Size of I > Size of Cl
9. If the cation of ammonium cya- mole of nitrogen gas at 27°C
(B) Atomic number of I nide is replaced by metal cation (in J) ?
> Atomic number of Cl (configuration 2, 8) then the for- (A) 1870·5 J (B) 1570·5 J
(C) E. N. of I < E. N. of Cl mula to evaluate H + concentra-
(C) 1470·5 J (D) None of these
(D) E. A. of I < E. A. of Cl tion of aqueous solution will be—
17. Which will have highest b.p. ?
3. Total number of moles of elec-
trons in one mole of K2Cr2O7 will
(A) [ ]
KwC 1/2
Kb
(B)
KwC 1/2
Ka [ ] (A) 1% glucose (B) 1% sucrose
(C) 1% NaCl (D) 1% CaCl2
be—
(A) 142
(C) 140
(B) 86
(D) 100
(C) [ ]
KwKa
C
1/2
(D) [K w(KaKb)]–1/2 18. The catalyst used in the hydro-
genation of oil is—
10. The surface tension of water, (A) V2O5 (B) Fe
4. At 300°C the value of Kp is 4 for benzene, toluene and acetone at (C) Pt (D) Ni
the reaction 20°C are 72·8, 28·9, 28·4 and 19. Heat of combustion of carbon is
N2O3 NO + NO2 23·7 dynes/cm. In which case 96 k cal. When some quantity of
At the same temperature and 5 there will be strongest inter- carbon is burnt in oxygen 48 k cal
atm pressure the degree of dis- molecular attraction ? heat is liberated. What volume of
sociation would be— (A) Benzene (B) Water O2 at S.T.P. reacted with this
2 1 carbon ?
(A) (B) (C) Toluene (D) Acetone
3 2 (A) 48 litre (B) 22·4 litre
1 4 11. Anhydrous HCl is a/an— (C) 1 litre (D) 11·2 litre
(C) (D)
3 9 (A) Acid
Size of anion 20. The specific conductance of a
5. If y = , then y will (B) Base normal solution of KCl at 25°C is
Size of cation
show the maximum value for the (C) Salt 0·002765 mho cm–1. If the
compound— (D) Covalent compound resistance of a cell containing
(A) RbI (B) LiI this solution is 400 ohm. What is
12. In order to coagulate As2S3 sol cell constant ?
(C) RbF (D) LiF
the order of coagulating power of (A) 1·106 (B) 2·106
6. pKa + pKb = 14 is valid for the cations is— (C) 3·106 (D) 4·106
following pair—
(A) Al3+ > Na+ > Mg2+ 21. A catalyst in a reaction changes
(A) HCl, NaOH
(B) Na + > Mg2+ > Al3+ which of the following ?
(B) CH3COOH, C2H5NH2
(C) Mg2+ > Na+ > Al3+ (A) Equilibrium constant
(C) CH3COOH, CH3COO– (B) Rate constant
(D) CH3COOH, NaOH (D) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+
(C) Entropy
7. Kc for the reaction 13. 2 KMnO4 + 5H2S + 6H+ ⎯→ (D) Nature of reactants
2 NaHCO3(s) 2Mn 2+ + 2K+ + 5S + 8H2O 22. Which one of the following has
Na 2CO3 (s) + CO2 (g) + H2O(g) In the above reaction, how many the magic number of protons and
electrons would be involved in neutrons ?
is— (A) 178O (B) 27 Al
[Na2CO3] the oxidation of 1 mole of reduc- 13
(A) Kc = 17 40
[NaHCO3] 2 tant ? (C) 8
F (D) 20
Ca
[Na2CO3] [CO2] [H2O] (A) 2 (B) 5 23. The ratio of U238 and Ra226
(B) Kc =
[NaHCO3] 2 (C) 10 (D) 1 atoms in natural uranium will be—

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 593

 [T0·5 for U238 = 4·49 × 10 9 years 33. Sodium metal is obtained by— 42. A primary amine is formed when
and T0·5 for Ra226 = 1622 years] (A) Reduction of NaCl by hydro- Grignard reagent reacts with the
(A) 2·768 × 1012 gen following compound—
(B) 0·2768 × 106 (B) Electrolysis of aqueous (A) Ammonia
(C) 2·768 × 106 solution of NaCl (B) Methylamine
(D) 2·768 × 109 (C) Electrolysis of fused NaCl (C) Chloramine
(D) Reduction of NaCl with Pb (D) Acetonitrile
24. Recovery of silver from complex at high temperature
Na [Ag (CN)2] is done by— 43. The species obtained by the
(A) Au (B) Zn 34. Which of the following compound removal of proton from methane
(C) Cl– ion (D) Hg is used as moderator in nuclear is isosteric and isoelectronic
reactor ? with—
25. 20 carat gold contains the gold—
(A) Ordinary water (A) H2O (B) NH3
(A) 20·5% (B) 83·4%
(C) 90% (D) 20% (B) Heavy water (C) CH4 (D) CH3

26. The metal used in photoelectric (C) Active hydrogen 44. The representation of William-
cell is— (D) Ortho hydrogen son’s ether synthesis is—
(A) Ca (B) Al 35. Which of the following reaction is (A) R—OH + H—OR
Al O
(C) Cs (D) Li different from the other three ? ⎯⎯⎯→
2 3
R2O + H2O
250°C
27. When copper is exposed to air (A) 2Hg + O3 → Hg2O + O2
(B) R—OH + H—OR
for a long time it develops a coat- (B) Ag2O + O3 → 2Ag + 2O2 H SO
ing of— ⎯⎯⎯→
2 4
R2O + H2O
(C) 3SO2 + O3 → 3SO3 140°C
(A) Cu 2O
(C) R–ONa + RBr
(B) CuCO3 (D) NaNO2 + O3 → NaNO3 + O2
(C) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 → ROR + NaBr
(D) Cu(OH)2 36. A blood red colour in Las-
saigne’s test by the addition of (D) 2 RCl + Ag2O → R–O–R
28. Which of the following compound ferric chloride shows the pre- + 2 AgCl
gives red colouration with potas- sence of— — CH2
45. Chlorohydroxylation of CH 2 —
sium thiocyanate ? (A) S (B) N + S
(A) Potassium ferricyanide gives—
(C) N (D) Halogen
(B) Potassium ferrocyanide (A) Cyanohydrin
37. Which one of the following can- (B) Chlorohydrin
(C) Potassium trioxalato ferrate
not be considered as pseudo-
(III) (C) Both (A) and (B)
halide ?
(D) Iron alum (D) None of the above
(A) CN– (B) SCN–
29. How many coordination sites are (C) OCN– (D) BF 4– 46. Hydrogenolysis of methyl for-
there in ethylene diamine ? mate yields—
38. Under the IUPAC system ethy-
(A) 1 (B) 2 (A) Methanol
lene glycol will be named as—
(C) 3 (D) None of these (B) Methanal
(A) Ethane-1, 2-diol
30. An excess of AgNO3 is added to (B) 1-hydroxy-2-ethanol (C) Dimethyl ether
100 ml of 0·01 M solution of (C) 1, 2 dihydroxy ethane (D) None of these
dichloro tetra aqua chromium(III) (D) 2-hydroxy-1-ethanol
chloride. The number of moles of 47. Which of the following compound
AgCl precipitated would be— 39. Most stable carbanion is— does not give a ketone on hydra-
(A) 0·001 (B) 0·002 tion ?
(A) CH3 (B) CH3 CH2 —
(C) 0·003 (D) 0·01 (A) CH3—C — — C—CH3
31. An oxide of formula M2O3 gives (C) (CH3)3 C (D) (CH3)2 CH (B) CH —
—
— C—CH3
yellow colour in alkaline medium
40. When Zn-Hg | HCl is used as (C) CH3—CH— C —
—
— CH
but changes to green colouration
reductant, it would not be possi- |
in acid medium. M in M 2O3
ble to prepare which alkane ? CH3
should be— —
(A) Propane — CH
(D) HC —
(A) Mn (B) Ni (B) Isopentane
(C) Cr (D) Cu NaNO
(C) Neopentane 48. φ–CH2NH2 ⎯⎯⎯→
2
A.
32. Which gives maximum number of HCl
(D) Neohexane
ions due to ionisation ? The product A is—
(A) Pt Cl4.6 NH3 41. Number of two branched alkanes (A) Phenyl nitromethane
(B) Pt Cl4.5 NH3 for C6H14 will be— (B) Benzyl chloride
(C) Pt Cl4.4 NH3 (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) Benzyl alcohol
(D) Equal (C) 3 (D) 4 (D) Benzyl nitrile

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 594

 O O (B) CH3 — C — O — O —C —CH3
49. CH3CH2OH ⎯⎯→ A ⎯⎯→ B 50. Natural rubber is the polymer
|| || of—
When the anhydride of B reacts O O
with A the compound of the (C) CH3 — C — O — CH — CH3 (A) Neoprene
|| | |
following structure is formed— O O COCH3 (B) Isoprene
(A) CH3 — C — O — CH—CH3 (D) CH3 — CH—C — O — CH3 (C) Chloroprene
|| | | ||
O CH3 CH3 O (D) 1, 3-butadiene

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 595

Introduction
● Chromosomal aberration is a change in the normal
karyotype of chromosomes involving an alteration
either in chromosome number (heteroploidy) or in
chromosome structure.
● Alteration in chromosome number may involve loss or
gain of entire sets of chromosomes (aneuploidy).
● Aneuploidy results from failure of proper separation of
chromosomes or chromatids at meiosis or mitosis. It
occurs spontaneously, but with increased frequency
after mutagen exposure, such as X-rays.
● Structural changes within and between chromosomes
result from damage to the DNA, leading to breakages
across the chromatid or chromosome threads.
● Structural changes can be classified into infra and
interchromosomal events and depending on the unit of
breakage and exchange into chromatid type and chro-
mosome type aberration.
Euploidy and Aneuploidy
● Each species has a characteristic number of chromo-
somes. An altered chromosome number drastically
affects the phenotype because a chromosome con-
sists of so many genes. Thus each species has a fixed
chromosomal complement called its karyotype.
● The fixed number of chromosomes may, however, be
disturbed due to irregularities in the process of gamete
formation and fertilization. Any change in the number
of chromosomes is called a chromosomal aberration or
anomaly. These changes can be classified into two
general categories : Euploidy and Aneuploidy.
Euploidy (Extra chromosome sets)
● Sometimes an error in meiosis produces a sperm or
egg cell that has an extra complete set of chromo-
somes.
● The change of chromosome number in euploidy
always amounts to multiples of complete haploid sets.
That is why also called polyploidy.
● Most human polyploids die as embryos or foetus.
● Polyploidy is of two types : Autopolyploidy and
Allopolyploidy.
Autopolyploidy :
● Autopolyploidy in classical cases, is a polyploid (com-
monly a tetraploid) in which all the chromosomes are
derived from the same species, frequently the same
individual.
● It is thus an intraspecific polyploidy.
● The autotriploid is sterile because of the chromosomes
of its third set have no homologue to pair within
meiosis. It can be propagated asexually. Seedless
melon is autotriploid.
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 598
● Seedless grapes and bananas are autopolyploids.
● Autopolyploidy is rare in nature. It is induced by tem-
perature variation, radiation and chemicals such as
colchicine and granosan.
Allopolyploidy :
● Allopolyploidy is typically a tetraploid organism derived
by chromosome doublin from a hybrid between diploid
species whose chromosomes have diverged so much
that little or no synapsis occurs between them at
meiosis, so that only bivalents are formed, common
example is New World Cottons.
● Allopolyploidy is thus interspecific polyploidy.
● Allopolyploids may back-cross with one or other
diploid parent stock, hence allotetraploids, which are
generally themselves fully fertile and behave in effects
as new reproductively isolated species.
● Nevertheless, as a result of their greater fertility,
classical allopolyploids have been more significant in
evolution. Many new plant species have arisen this
way. Cultivated wheat (Triticum aestivum) is an allo-
hexaploid.
Aneuploidy
● An aneuploid has a missing or extra chromosome.
Aneuploidy symptoms depend upon which chromo-
some is affected.
● Extra genetic material is apparently less dangerous
than missing material. That is why children born with
the abnormal number of chromosomes have an extra
one (called trisomy) rather than a missing one (called
monosomy). Trisomies and monosomies are named
according to the affected chromosome number.
Key Concepts
Abnormal numbers of chromosomes cause a variety
of problems. Polyploids have whole extra sets of chromo-
somes, while aneuploids have a single missing (mono-
somic) or extra (trisomic) chromosome. Meiotic nondis-
junction leads to aneuploidy. Mitotic nondisjunction pro-
duces chromosomal mosaics. Trisomics are more likely to
survive than monosomics and sex chromosome aneu-
ploidy is less severe than autosomal aneuploidy. Down
syndrome (trisomy 21) is the most common human aneu-
ploid. Sex chromosome aneuploids in humans include
Turner syndrome (XO). Klinefelter syndrome (XXY), triplo-
X females and XYY males (Jacobs syndrome).
Nondisjunction Causes Abnormalities
● Gamete formation in humans involves meiosis. When
members of a homologous chromosome pair fail to
separate during meiosis I, called nondisjunction.
● Nondisjunction can also occur during meiosis II, if
daughter chromosomes fail to separate and instead go
into the same daughter cells.
● When the abnormal gametes are fertilized by normal
gametes, a monosomy (2n – 1) or a trisomy (2n + 1)
can result.
● Due to nondisjunction, gametes possess chromo-
somes in greater or lesser number than the normal
haploid number of the genome. When such gametes
participate in fertilization, the resultant offsprings con-
tain aberrant chromosomal complements and exhibit
phenotype variations. Such phenotypes are called
syndromes.
● In humans, when an aberrant gamete fuses with its
opposite at fertilization, the resulting zygote has either
45 or 47 chromosomes, instead of usual 47.

Aneuploids Surviving Birth

Chromosome Constitution Syndrome Incidence Phenotype

Trisomy 21 Down 1/770 Mental retardation

Abnormal pattern of palm creases
Flat face
Sparse, straight hair
Short stature
High risk of—
cardiac anomalies
leukemia
cataracts
digestive blockages
Alzheimer disease
Trisomy 13 Patau 1/15000 Mental and physical retardation
Skull and facial abnormalities
Defects in all organ systems
Cleft lip
Large, triangular nose
Extra digits
Trisomy 18 Edward 1/4000–8000 Mental and physical retardation
Skull and facial abnormalities
Defects in all organ systems
Excess muscle tone
Trisomy 22 — Very few reported Multiple defects
Large ears and nose
Narrow face
Small jaw
Excess muscle tone
Monosomy 21 — Very few reported Mental and physical retardation
Skull, jaw and facial abnormalities
XO Turner 1/2500–10000 females No sexual maturity
Short stature
Webbed neck
Wide-spaced nipples
Narrow aorta
Pigmented moles
Malformed elbows
XXY Klinefelter 1/500–2000 males No secondary sexual characteristics
Breast swelling
Long arms and legs
Large hands and feet
No sperm
XXX Triplo-X 1/1000–2000 Tall and thin
Menstrual irregularity
Slightly lower IQ
XYY Jacob 1/1000 males Tall
Acne
Possible speech and reading difficulties

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 599

● The most common autosomal trisomy seen among
humans is trisomy 21 (Down’s syndrome).
● Individuals with trisomy 13 (Patau’s syndrome) and
trisomy 18 (Edward’s syndrome) have an average life
span of less than one year.
● Nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes in humans
also occurs. Four common, but abnormal chromoso-
mal types are XO, XXX and XYY. The symbol O
means that a sex chromosome is missing.
Some Important Human Syndromes
● Down’s syndrome is the most common trisomy 21.
21st pair of autosomes in this syndrome has an
additional chromosome, i.e., there are three homolo-
gous chromosomes, instead of two at this number and
the karyotype is indicated by 2X + 1 = 47. Thus a
Down’s syndrome illustrates autosomal aneuploidy.
● After Down’s syndrome, the two most frequently seen
autosomal aneuploid are trisomy 13 (Patau’s syn-
drome) and trisomy 18 (Edward’s syndrome).
● Sex chromosome abnormalities are often due to non-
disjunction of these chromosomes during meiosis.
(a) Nondisjunction in oogenesis can create oocytes with abnormal numbers of sex chromosomes.
Therefore, the gametes contain abnormal number of
sex chromosomes.
● When gametes resulting from nondisjunction are invol-
ved in a fertilization, the zygote contains an abnormal
number of chromosomes. When this happens, the
zygote may live but develops abnormality and the
individual shows a group of symptoms termed a
syndrome.
● The metafemale syndrome (XXX) occurs when an
XX gamete combines at fertilization with an X gamete.
Metafemales are female but are often sterile and may
have a reduced mental capacity.
● Turner’s syndrome (XO) patients lack Barr body.
When an X gamete combines with a gamete lacking X
or Y chromosome, Turner’s syndrome (XO) results.
These syndromes inherit a single X chromosome
instead of two sex chromosomes.
● The individual of this syndrome is female but sterile
and is usually short in stature and has some mental
impairment.
● Turner’s syndrome is the only aneuploid condition that
is more prevalent among offsprings of older mothers.

x x

Meiosis l (abnormal) Meiosis l (normal)

First polar First polar
body body

x x x

Meiosis ll Meiosis ll Meiosis ll Meiosis ll

(abnormal) (abnormal) (abnormal) (normal)

Abnormal Normal

X X X X X X X X X

Ovum with four Ovum with two Ovum with no Ovum with no Ovum with two Ovum with one
copies of a copies of a copies of a copies of a copies of a copy of a
chromosome chromosome chromosome chromosome chromosome chromosome
(b) Fertilization after a nondisjunction gives rise to abnormal numbers of sex chromosomes.

X X X

X X X X

XO XXY XXX Note: The syndromes can also result from

nondisjunction during spermatogenesis.

Turner's Klinefelter's Metafemale

syndrome syndrome syndrome
Fig. : Nondisjunction is a failure in chromosome separation during meiosis.

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 600

● Klinefelter’s syndromes (XXY) are trisomics for sex
chromosomes (2X + 1). When an XX gamete
combines with a Y gamete or an XY gamete combines
with an X gamete, the resulting condition is called
Klinefelter’s syndrome (XXY). The affected individual is
male, but he is usually tall, has underdeveloped
genitalia and enlarged breasts.
● XXY syndrome males result from a nondisjunction in
spermatogenesis that produces YY sperm and fertilize
a normal oocyte.
● Similarly, persons having XYY sex chromosomes
(super males) are also known (Jacob’s syndrome).
These are tall, less intelligence, very aggressive and
prone to violence.
● When an extra X chromosome is present in either a
male or a female, it is inactivated and produces a Barr
body. For example, a metafemale has two Barr bodies
in each diploid cell and a Klinefelter’s syndrome male
has one. This inactivation may explain why embryos
with extra X chromosomes survive development. Extra
Y chromosome are not usually harmful to the embryo,
because the Y chromosome carries few genes.
● Triplo-X syndrome is caused when a female is born
with an extra X chromosome in each cell. The only
symptoms seem to be the tallness, menstrual irregula-
rities and a normal rank IQ that is nevertheless lower
than that of other family members.
● A deletion from chromosome 5 causes the condition
called Cri du chat. The most striking features include
a small head with widely spaced eyes, severe mental
impairment and a mewing cry that sounds like that of a
distressed kitten. This disorder is rare.
Key Concepts
Abnormal chromosome rearrangements cause gene
deletions and duplications. In a nonreciprocal translo-
cation, a piece of one chromosome breaks off and atta-
ches to another chromosome. In a reciprocal transloca-
tion, two chromosomes exchange parts. If a translocation
leads to a deletion or duplication, the affected individual
will exhibit symptoms. Gene duplications and deletions
also occur in isochromosomes and ring chromosomes and
when crossovers occur within chromosomal inversions. In
fragile X syndrome, an expanding gene destabilizes the X
chromosome, causing mental impairment and charac-
teristic facial features.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Down’s syndrome is due to— (C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Nondisjunction of chromo- (D) None of the above (D) None of the above
some
(B) Sex-linked inheritance 6. Children having Patau’s syn-
drome have—
ANSWERS
(C) Linkage of genes
(D) Single gene difference (A) Trisomy 13
2. XO chromosomal abnormality in (B) Trisomy 18
(C) Trisomy 21 ●●●
human beings causes—
(A) Klinefelter’s syndrome (D) Monosomy 18
(B) Turner’s syndrome
7. Children having Edward’s syn- UPKAR’S
(C) Down’s syndrome
drome have—
(D) None of these
(A) Trisomy 13
3. Down’s syndrome in humans is
(B) Trisomy 18
caused by—
(A) Sex chromosome aneu- (C) Monosomy 13
ploidy (D) Monosomy 18
(B) Polyploidy
Major P. N. Joshi (Retd.)

8. Super males having XYY sex

Rs. 125/-

(C) Autosomal aneuploidy chromosomes show—

(D) Point mutation
(A) Klinefelter’s syndrome
4. Autopolyploidy arised by (B) Down’s syndrome
increase in the number of
By

(C) Jacob’s syndrome

chromosome sets of the same
Code 916

species is called— (D) Turner’s syndrome

(A) Interspecific polyploidy
(B) Intraspecific polyploidy
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
5. Allopolyploidy develops in a
hybrid between two species by a
doubling of chromosome sets is
called—
10. Ring chromosome can cause—
(A) Interspecific polyploidy
(B) Intraspecific polyploidy
9. Persons having monosomic sex
chromosome (XO) are suffering
from—
(A) Down’s syndrome
(B) Turner’s syndrome It Includes
❖ Intelligence Tests ❖ Psycho-
(C) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(D) Patau’s syndrome logical Tests ❖ GTO’s Tests
❖ The Interviews Techniques
❖ Pilot’s Aptitude Tests
(A) Cat eye syndrome
(B) Cri du chat syndrome UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA–2

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 601

Introduction
● Sounds are produced when molecules in the air are
made to vibrate. For example, clapping of hands or
blowing a horn produces pressure changes that alter-
nately compress and decomposes the air.
● A series of these pressure changes, called sound
waves, are transmitted through the air in a fashion
similar to the movement of ripples across a still pond.
● Sound waves cause sensitive structures of the ear to
vibrate, and those vibrations are converted to nerve
impulses by the receptors in the ear.
● Each ear has three parts : the outer ear, middle ear
and inner ear. The outer ear and middle ear are
designed to transfer sound waves from environment
to the inner ear.
● The inner ear has two functions. It receives sound
waves and converts them into electrical impulses. It
also maintains body balance.
Structures for Detecting Sound
● The outer ear consists of a fleshy structure called the
pinna. From the pinna, a narrow canal called the
auditory canal and extends inward.
● The pinna and auditory canal direct sound waves to
the tympanic membrane or eardrum, which is a
partition between the outer ear and the middle ear.
Middle Inner
External ear
ear ear Cranial nerve
Impulse to the brain
Bone
Pinna
Fig. : Structures of the external ear, middle ear and inner ear
● The sound waves cause the eardrum to vibrate and
those vibrations are transferred to the middle ear.
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 602
● The middle ear is an air-filled chamber situated within
the temporal bone of the skull. Attached to the ear-
drum and spanning the chamber of the middle ear
are three tiny bones that are attached other : ham-
mer (malleus), the anvil (incus) and the stirrup
(stapes).
● By their movement, these bones transmit mechanical
vibrations from the eardrum to a small oval-shaped
membrane of the inner ear called the oval window.
● The chamber of the middle ear is connected to the
upper pharynx by the eustachian tube. Movement of
air into and out of the eustachian tube permits the
equalization of air pressure on either side of the ear-
drum during changes in altitude. If this is not done,
unequal air pressure cause the eardrum to bulge,
disorting sound. The ‘popping’ of our ears during
rapid altitude changes is due to this equalization of air
pressure.
● The inner ear structure associated with hearing is the
cochlea, which is located within the temporal bone.
The cochlea consists of three fluid-filled canals arran-
ged in a spiral : the vestibular canal, tympanic canal
and cochlear duct.
● The vestibular canal and the tympanic canal are
continuous with each other in the upper cochlea or
apex. Their fluid content receives the mechanical
Semicircular canals :
Organ of balance
Vestibule : Cochlea :
Organ of hearing
Organ of balance
Eardrum
Stirrup Eustachian
Auditory Hammer Anvil tube
canal
vibrations from the oval window and transmits them
along the length of the canals to a thin membrane
 called the round window. The round window bulges in
synchrony with the oval window to relieve pressure in
the cochlea.
● The cochlear duct is a separate fluid-filled compart-
ment between the other two canals. Within the coch-
lear duct is the organ of corti, whose highly specia-
lized structures convert vibrations into nerve impul-
ses.
● At the base, the basilar membrane is narrow and
rather stiff. Toward the tip, it becomes wider and
more flexible.
● Different sound frequencies or pitches cause different
sections of the basilar membrane to vibrate and sti-
mulate hair cells. As a result, impulses are produced
that travel to an area of the brain where they are
interpreted as a sound with a particular pitch.
Cochlea

2 Vibration of eardrum
causes hammer, anvil
and stirrup to move
back and forth.

1 Sound waves travel

along auditory canal
and cause eardrum Hammer Cochlear duct with
to vibrate. organ of Corti
2 Anvil
Tympanic canal
Stirrup
Oval window Vestibular canal

4
Auditory canal 3
5
1

5 The pressure waves push

on the cochlear duct. This
Eardrum causes the sensory struct-
ures within the organ of
Round 4 Movement of oval Corti to move and a sen-
window window produces sory impulse is produced.
pressure waves
within fluid of vesti-
3 Movement of stirrup bular and tympanic
causes oval window canals.
to move.

Fig. : Summary of how sound wave vibrations affect the organ of Corti. The cochlea has been partially uncoiled.

● The basilar membrane of the cochlear duct supports Perception of Loudness

specialized sensory cells called hair cells. These cells ● Human ears can detect the intensity or loudness of
have modified microvilli that project into the fluid of sound.
the cochlear duct. ● Loudness is measured in decibels (db). The louder
● Extending above and just touching the microvilli is a the sound, the larger vibrations are transmitted to the
structure called the tectorial membrane. When vibra- hair cells in the organ of Corti.
tions cause the basilar membrane to move up and
down, the microvilli are compressed against the tec- Decibel Levels Associated with Common
torial membrane, bending the microvilli and causing Sounds
an impulse in the hair cell. Possible hear- Type of sound Decibels
● Cranial nerve VIII conducts the impulses to the brain ing damage
for interpretation. Harmful to Jet take-off 150
hearing Shotgun blast 140
Perception of Pitch Jackhammer 120
● Pitch refers to the frequency or number of sound Possible hearing Live rock band 110
vibrations occurring in 1 second. The greater the fre- loss Car horn nearby 100
quency, the higher the pitch of the sound and vice- Power mower 100
versa. No hearing Vacuum cleaner 70
loss Normal conversation 60
● Human ears are designed to distinguish frequencies
from 20 to 20000 vibrations per second. This is often Country quiet 50
described in hertz (Hz) units where 1 Hz is equal to 1 Watch ticking 20
vibration per second (20000 vibrations per second Leaves rustling 10
equals 20000 Hz). Absolute silence 0
● The basilar membrane progressively changes in ● As more hair cells are excited, more sensory neurons
width and flexibility from the base to the lip of the transmit impulses to the brain, which interprets them
cochlear duct. as loudness.

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 603

● Long unprotected exposure to sounds above 8 db ● Dynamic balance—The sensory apparatus for dyna-
can permanently damage or destroy hair cells and mic balance is located in three bony fluid-filled cham-
result in deafness. bers of the inner ear called the semicircular canals.
● These canals detect rotational or angular position
Equilibrium and Balance
changes of the head when the body is moving. The
● The semicircular canals and the vestibule of the inner three canals are oriented at right angles to one ano-
ear regulate sense of balance. The semicircular ther in three different planes.
canals tell us when the head is rotating and help us ● At the base of each canal is a mass of sensory hair
maintain the position of the head in response to
cells with elongated microvilli projecting into a jellylike
sudden movement.
material.
● The enlarged bases of the semicircular canals, the
● Rotational or angular movements cause the fluid in
ampullae, are lined with small, ciliated hair cells. The
the semicircular canals to move. This movement
semicircular canals are perpendicular to each other
pushes on the jellylike mass, bending microvilli and
and the fluid that fills them swishes back and fourth in
producing an impulse. Cranial nerve VIII conducts the
response to a person’s movements.
impulses to the brain, where signals from all three
● This fluid motion bends the cilia on the hair cells in semicircular canals are integrated.
the ampullae, which in turn stimulates those cells to ● Impulses from the brain to the skeletal muscles per-
generate action potentials in a nearby cranial nerve.
mit corrective actions to maintain or adjust body posi-
The brain interprets these impulses as rotational
tion and balance.
movements of the body.
● Information from the vestibule tells the position of the Disorders of the Ear
head with respect to gravity. In addition, it senses ● Otitis Media is a more common problem among
changes in velocity when travelling in a straight line. children than adults because a child’s eustachian
● The vestibule functions in a similar way to the semi- tubes are shorter and more horizontally positioned.
circular canals. It contains two pouches, the utricle ● The condition occurs when infectious bacteria migrate
and the saccule, which are filled with jelly-like fluid from the throat, up the eustachian tube and into the
and lined with ciliated hair cells. middle ear chamber. As a result of the infection, large
● Granules of calcium carbonate, called otoliths, float amounts of fluid and pus accumulate in the chamber,
on the fluid. The granules in the utricle move in res- causing the eardrum to bulge outward. This is painful
ponse to vertical body movements. and is interpreted as an earache.
● The motion of the granules bends the cilia on the hair ● Prolonged infections can damage the middle ear-
cells. When the cilia are bent in one direction, the rate bones, resulting in hearing impairment.
of sensory impulses to the brain increases. ● Conduction deafness—Damage to the eardrum or
● A shift in the opposite direction inhibits the sensory middle ear bones results in conduction deafness. As
neuron. The brain interprets this information as a a result sound vibrations are not effectively conduc-
change in velocity. ted to the inner ear. For example, arthritis of the
● Motion sickness is a disturbance of the inner ear’s middle ear bones may impair their operation.
sensation of balance.
Hearing Impairment
● There two types of balance (also called equilibrium) :
static and dynamic. Problem Cause Result
● Static balance—The sensory apparatus for static Conductive Impaired transmis- Inability to clearly
balance is found in two fluid filled chambers of the deafness sion of sound hear all pitches
through middle ear of sound
inner ear called the utricle and saccule. They detect
due to infection,
the position of the head with respect to gravity when earwax buildup,
the body is stationary; they also detect linear move- damaged eardrum
ments (acceleration and deceleration) such as those Sensory (neural) Inability to gene- Inability to hear
experienced in a moving vehicle. deafness rate action poten- some pitches.
● The utricle and saccule contain thousands of sensory tials in the coch-
hair cells with elongated microvilli that project into a lea, blocked com-
jellylike material. Resting on the upper surface of the munication bet-
jellylike material are many tiny crystals called ween cochlea and
otoliths. brain, or brain’s
inability to interpret
● When the head is tilted, the weight of the otoliths
sensory
causes the jellylike mass to shift position, bending the messages.
microvilli and causing an impulse. Tinnitus Damaged hair cells Ringing in the
● The impulse is transmitted along cranial nerve VIII to in inner ear due to ears.
the brain, where the signals are interpreted. During ear infection, brain
acceleration and deceleration, the gelatinous masses tumor, earwax
move, initiating impulses that permit the brain to buildup, or loud
sense the changes in speed. noise.

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 604

● Damage to the hair cell receptors within the cochlea
of the inner ear results nerve deafness. Cochlea hair
cells can be permanently damaged from prolonged
exposure to noises 80 db or above. Since destroyed
hair cells are not replaced, continued losses even-
tually lead to hearing impairment.
● Hearing loss also occurs due to life span changes
when the eardrum and the middle ear bones decline
in their ability to conduct mechanical vibration to the
inner ear. The eardrum becomes less rigid, while the
ear bones become more rigid. Within the cochlea,
hair cells and sensory neurons can be damaged,
reducing the impulses that reach the brain.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following loudness
causes permanent deafness ?
(A) Above 80 decibels
(B) Above 60 decibels
(C) Above 40 decibels
(D) All the above
2. The sensory apparatus for static
balance in humans is located
in—
(A) Utricle
(B) Saccule
(C) Semicircular canals
(D) Both (A) and (B)
3. The sensory apparatus of dyna-
mic balance in humans is located
in—
(A) Semicircular canals
(B) Utricle
(C) Saccule
(D) All the above
4. The receptor cells for both hear-
ing and balance are—
(A) Mechanoreceptors
(B) Chemoreceptors
(C) Thermoreceptors
(D) None of these
5. Sound is amplified by the—
(A) Pinna
(B) Tympanic membrane
(C) Malleus, incus and stapes
(D) Round window
(C) Surface proteins are altered
by a change in pH
(D) Sodium-potassium pumps
become deactivated
8. The structures in human that pro-
vide balance are located in the—
(A) Outer ear
(B) Middle ear
(C) Inner ear
(D) Eustachian tube
9. Receptor cells for balance and
equilibrium in mammals are
the—
(A) Malleus, incus and stapes
(B) Hair cells
(C) Statoliths
(D) Horizontal cells
10. Otoliths are made of—
(A) Calcium carbonate
(B) Phosphates
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
ANSWERS
●●●
(Continued from Page 588 )
50. The major component of LPG
is—
(A) Benzene (B) Butane
(C) Toluene (D) Methane
53. The gas which gives benzene on
passing through red hot iron tube
is—
(A) Acetylene
(B) Ethylene
(C) Toluene
(D) None of these
54. Which of the following fraction of
coal tar distillation mainly con-
tains phenol ?
(A) Green oil (B) Heavy oil
(C) Light oil (D) Middle oil
55. Petroleum is the mixture of—
(A) Aromatic hydrocarbons with
small amount of aliphatic
compounds
(B) Aliphatic compounds with
small amount of aromatic
compounds
(C) Equal amount of aliphatic
and aromatic compounds
(D) Alcohols and fatty acids
ANSWERS
●●●

6. The part of ear where sound is 51. The middle fraction of coal-tar
transduced is the— distillation contains—
(A) Tympanic membrane (A) Xylene
(B) Benzene
(B) Malleus, incus and stapes
(C) Naphthalene
(C) Semicircular canals
(D) Anthracene
(D) Cochlea
52. The major constituent of light oil Useful for Various Competitive Exams.
7. The sensory receptors that res- fraction is— By : Dr. Lal, Mishra & Kumar
pond to sound develop receptor (A) Phenol Code No. 1624 Rs. 250/-
potentials when their—
(B) Benzene UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2
(A) Hairs are bent (C) Toluene E-mail : publisher@upkar.in
Website : www.upkar.in
(B) Pigments absorb pressure (D) Naphthalene

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 605

Introduction
● The function of the respiratory system can be divided
into three processes : breathing, external respiration
and internal respiration.
● Breathing moves air into and out of the lungs and
requires the coordinated activities of muscles and the
nervous system.
● External respiration occurs in the lungs and involves
gas exchange between the inhaled air and the blood.
● Internal respiration takes place throughout the body
and involves the exchange of O2 and CO2 between
the blood and the body cells. Both external and
internal respiration require the operation of circulatory
system.
Lungs, Alveoli and Gas Exchange
● Two lungs consist of supportive tissues surrounding
the bronchi, the bronchioles, the terminal sacs and
their blood vessels.
● The lungs are positioned on either side of the heart
and occupy much of the space in the thoracic cavity.
● Each lung is enclosed by two layers of epithelial
membranes called pleural membranes or pleura.
One of these membranes is attached directly to the
lung, while the other lines the thoracic cavity. These
two membranes are separated by a narrow space,
called the pleural cavity.
● Fluid secreted by the pleura coats the membranes,
reducing friction, as the lungs inflate and deflate
during breathing.
● An inflammation of the pleural membranes called
pleurisy, may reduce fluid secretion, increase friction
and cause localized adhesions of the pleura.
● Each lung is divided into lobes. The right lung has
three lobes and the left lung has two. Each lobe is
further subdivided into smaller sections with their own
bronchi, bronchioles and blood vessels.
● These lobes are rather independent, permitting sur-
gical removal of portions of lungs without disrupting
the function of the entire region.
● While bronchi and bronchioles convey gases to and
from the lungs, they do not directly take part in the
actual exchange of O 2 and CO 2. This essential func-
tion is performed by tiny terminal sacs called alveolar
sacs.
● Each microscopic alveolar sac consists of a cluster of
cup-shaped bulges called alveoli.
● The wall of each alveolus consists of epithelium that
is only one cell thick. This epithelium is surrounded
by capillaries from pulmonary circulation. It is here, at
the junction of the capillaries and the alveoli, that gas
exchange takes place.
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 606
Surfactant
● Certain epithelial cells in each alveolus are specia-
lized to secrete a substance called surfactant.
● Surfactant is a lipoprotein molecule that coats the
inner surface of the alveoli and reduces the surface
tension in each alveolus.
● Surface tension results from the attraction between
the water molecules that coat the interior of alveoli.
Without surfactant, the tension between the water
molecules would be great enough to collapse the
alveoli, preventing effective gas exchange.
● In addition to these specialized secretory cells, the
alveoli also have macrophages that roam around and
engulf inhaled foreign debris such as dust, bacteria
and pollutants.
Breathing
● Air moves between the atmosphere and the lungs in
response to pressure gradients. Air moves in when
the air pressure in the lungs is lower than the pressure
outside the body and it moves out when the pressure
in the lungs is greater than the atmospheric pressure.
● The anatomy of the thoracic cavity explains the
generation of the pressure changes, responsible for
pulmonary ventilation.
● The thoracic cavity is formed by the ribs, the sternum,
the thoracic vertebrae and their attached muscles.
● The intercostal muscles are located between ribs
and the diaphragm is a broad sheet of muscle posi-
tioned so that it separates the thoracic cavity from the
abdominal cavity.
● When the muscles (intercostal) of the rib cage and
diaphragm contract, the size of the thoracic cavity
increases and air draws into the lungs. This process
is called inspiration or inhalation. When the muscles
of the rib cage and diaphragm relax, the thoracic
cavity decreases in size, causing expiration or exha-
lation.
Lung Volumes and Vital Capacity
● Normal quiet inhaling and exhaling is about 12 to 15
times per minute. This is called respiration rate.
● The volume of air entering and leaving the respiratory
system with each breath is called tidal volume. On
an average, the tidal volume equals about 500
millilitres of air in and out with each breath.
● However, only about 350 ml of this air reaches the
alveoli and participates in O2 and CO2 exchange. The
remaining 150 ml remains in the airway and is known
as the dead air volume, since it does not participate
in gas exchange.
 Changes in Composition of Inspired and Expired Air
Inspired Alveolar Expired
O2 20·95 13·80 16·40 Oxygen diffuses from Alveoli into blood : expired air has an increased pro-
portion of oxygen due to additional oxygen added from the anatomical dead
space.
CO2 0·04 5·50 4·00 Carbon dioxide concentration in alveoli is high because CO 2 diffuses from
blood : the apparent fall in CO2 concentration in expired air is due to dilution
in the anatomical dead space.
N2 79·01 80·70 79·60 The apparent increase in the concentration of nitrogen, a metabolically inert
144424443 gas, is due to a relative decrease in the proportion of oxygen rather than an
absolute increase in nitrogen.
H2O(g) Variable Saturated The moisture lining the alveoli evaporates into the alveolar air and is then
144243 expired unless the animal has anatomical adaptations to prevent this (e.g.,
the extensive nasal hairs in desert rats).
Temp. Atmospheric Body Heat lost from the blood in the pulmonary circulation raises the temperature
of the alveolar air.

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 607

 Inhalation
(Atmospheric
Rib cage moves pressure
up and out 760 mm Hg)
Diaphragm
down
Pleural Lungs
membrane expand
(Lung pressure
759 mm Hg)
Diaphragm contracted
Pressure in lungs decreases :
air comes rushing in.
Fig. : Inspiration Vs. Expiration
● When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles are
contracted further, much more air can be inhaled.
The additional volume of air inhaled in about 3100 ml
and is known as the inspiratory reserve volume.
● Even after exhaling strenuously, some air remains in
the lungs, this is called the residual volume.
● The total volume of air an individual can move in and
out in one breath is called the vital capacity. It is the
sum of tidal volume inspiratory reserve volume and
expiratory reserve volume and equals about 4800 ml
of air (500 ml + 3100 ml + 1200 ml).
● Vital capacity is measured by an instrument called
Spirometer. These measurements are useful in
diagnosis respiratory disease such as lung cancer
and emphysema.
Gas Exchange
● Although the respiratory organs move O 2 and CO2
into and out of the lungs, it is the circulatory system
that transports these gases to all the tissues of the
body.
● In the lungs, the exchange of gases takes place
between the air in the alveoli and blood in the
capillaries around the alveoli. In this exchange the
blood takes up O2 from the alveolar air and release
CO2 into it.
● The PO2 (Partial Pressure of Oxygen) of the alveolar
air is 100 mm Hg and the PO2 of blood in alveolar
capillaries is 40 mm Hg. Due to a PO 2 difference of
60 mm Hg between the alveolar air and blood,
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 608
Exhalation
(Atmospheric
Rib cage moves pressure
down and in 760 mm Hg)
Diaphragm
up
Lungs
recoil
(Lung pressure
761 mm Hg)
Diaphragm relaxed
Pressure in lungs increases :
air is pushed out.
oxygen diffuses rapidly from the alveolar air into the
blood of alveolar capillaries, raising the PO2 to blood
of about 95 mm Hg.
● The PCO2 (Partial Pressure of Carbon dioxide) of
blood reaching the alveolar capillaries is 46 mm Hg.
Therefore, carbon dioxide diffuses from the blood of
alveolar capillaries into the alveolar air till the PCO2 of
blood falls to 40 mm Hg.
● The exchange of gases in the alveoli, raises the PO 2
of blood and lowers its PCO2, is the external respira-
tion. The oxygenated blood returns from the lungs by
pulmonary veins to the left atrium of heart. The heart
supplies the oxygenated blood to the body tissues.
● In the tissues, exchange of gases occurs between the
blood and the tissue cells. This exchange occurs via
tissue fluid that bathes the tissue cells.
● The blood reaching the tissue capillaries has PO2 of
95 mm Hg and PCO2 of 40 mm Hg. The tissue cells
constantly use oxygen in oxidation that produces
carbon dioxide. They have PO2 of 20 mm Hg only and
PCO 2 of 52 mm Hg.
● Because of PO2 and PCO2 differences between
blood and tissue cells, oxygen separates from oxy-
haemoglobin and diffuses from the blood into the
tissue fluid and then into the tissue cells; and carbon
dioxide diffuses from the tissue cells into the tissue
fluid and then into the blood in tissue capillaries.
Gases mostly diffuse through the tissue fluid.
● Exchange of gases in the tissues that lowers the PO 2
of the blood and raises its PCO 2 is called internal
 respiration. The deoxygenated blood by this respira-
tion returns to the right atrium of the heart, which
sends it to the lungs for reoxygenation.
Transport of O2 in the Blood
● Oxygen is transported by the blood in two ways :
dissolved in plasma and attached to haemoglobin
(Hb) in red blood cells. Because O2 is not very
soluble in water, only about 2 per cent of the trans-
ported O2 is carried by the blood plasma in dissolved
state. The rest of the O2 in the blood (about 98
per cent) is transported by haemoglobin.
● Each haemoglobin molecule is composed of four
protein chains and has a nonprotein iron-containing
heme group which can form a weak bond with an O 2
molecule. This permits each haemoglobin molecule
(Hb) to combine with four O2 molecules, forming oxy-
haemoglobin (HbO 2).
Hb + O2
Haemoglobin Oxygen
● The reaction between haemoglobin and O2 is rever-
sible. This means that O2 combines with haemoglobin
undersome conditions but detaches under other con-
ditions.
● The partial pressure of O2 is one condition that
determines whether O2 attaches to or detaches from
haemoglobin.
● In oxygen-rich environments (high partial pressure),
more O2 and haemoglobin molecules combine to form
more oxyhaemoglobin. In oxygen-poor environments
(low partial pressure), less oxyhaemoglobin forms.
As haemoglobin passes through the capillaries of tissues where
the partial pressure of O2 is lower (PO2 = 40 mm Hg), it becomes
75% saturated with O2. In other words, 25% of haemoglobin's
O2 has detached and diffused from the blood to the tissues.
Haemoglobin is nearly 100% saturated at the
partial pressure of O2 in the alveoli and arterial
blood (PO2 = 100 mm Hg). The haemoglobin
in our red blood cells therefore, cannot carry
much more O2 after oxygenation in the lungs.
100
Percent of haemoglobin saturated with O2
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
PO2 in tissues
(at rest)
10
0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80
Partial pressure of O2 (PO2)
Fig. : The oxygen-dissociation curve showing the
relationship between the partial pressure of
oxygen and oxyhaemoglobin formation.
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 609
This explains why O2 combines with haemoglobin in
the lungs, where there is a higher partial pressure of
O2 and why O2 detaches from haemoglobin in the
tissues, where the partial pressure of O 2 is lower.
This relationship between the partial pressure of O 2
and HbO2 formation is presented in graphic form in
the Oxygen-dissociation curve.
Transport of CO 2 in the Blood
● The operation of cellular metabolism continuously
produces the waste product CO2, which must be
eliminated from the body. After its production, this
small molecule diffuses from the cell and enters the
bloodstream. In the blood it is transported in three
ways : dissolved in plasma, combined with haemo-
globin, and as bicarbonate ions.
1. A small amount of CO2 (about 10 per cent) dis-
solves in the plasma. The remainder (about 90
per cent) diffuses into red blood cells. It is in the
HbO2 red blood cells that the next two reactions take
Oxyhaemoglobin place.
2. About 25 per cent of the CO2 entering red blood
cells combines with the protein portion of the
haemoglobin molecule :
Hb + CO2 HbCO 2
Haemoglobin Carbon dioxide
The haemoglobin molecule can carry O 2 and CO2
at the same time because these two gas mole-
cules bind at different sites on the haemoglobin
molecule : O 2 with heme and CO2 with globin.
3. The remaining molecules of CO 2 (about 65
per cent) that enter the red blood cells react with
water (H2O) in a reaction catalyzed by the enzyme
Carbonic anhydrase. This reaction rapidly forms
carbonic acid (H2CO3) :
Carbonic
CO 2 + H 2O H2CO3
anhydrase
Carbon dioxide Water Carbonic acid
Once carbonic acid forms, it quickly breaks apart
into a hydrogen ion (H+ ) and a carbonate ion
(HCO3–) :
HCO3 H+ + HCO3–
Carbonic Hydrogen Bicarbonate
acid ion ion
● The bicarbonate ions diffuse out of the red blood
cells, enter the plasma and combine with sodium ions
in the blood to form sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3)
● The hydrogen ions (H+) combine with haemoglobin
and thus remain in the red blood cell, where they
have an additional role to play.
PO2 in lungs
and arterial
● The attachment of H + with haemoglobin weakens the
blood bond between haemoglobin and O2, causing more O2
to be released. This benefits body cells, for as more
CO2 is produced by metabolically active tissues,
90 100 110
more O2 will be released for cellular respiration.
● Carbon dioxide is eliminated from the blood as it
passes through the pulmonary capillaries surrounding
the alveoli. The chemical reactions are reversible and
so when carbon dioxide-rich blood (high PCO 2)
 passes next to the alveoli (low PCO2), the chemical
reactions reverse themselves and CO 2 is released.
Carbon dioxide then diffuses into the alveolar space
and is exhaled.
Facts to Know
Bohr effect : The phenomenon whereby the affinity of the
respiratory pigment of the blood (Haemoglobin in vertebrates)
for oxygen is reduced as the level of carbon dioxide is increa-
sed. This facilitates gaseous exchange, because more oxy-
gen is released in the tissues where the amount of carbon
dioxide is rising due to metabolic activity. At the same time,
more oxygen is taken up at the lungs, where the amount of
carbon dioxide is low. Thus Bohr effect promotes O2
transport.
Haldane effect : Haldane effect results from the simple
fact that oxyhaemoglobin behaves as strong acid. This in
turn, displaces CO2 from blood. Due to increased acidity, the
haemoglobin loses its capacity to combine with CO2. Hence,
all carbaminohaemoglobin dissociates to release its CO2.
The highly acidic oxyhaemoglobin releases an excess of H+
which bind with bicarbonate ions (HCO3–), forming carbonic
acid. The latter soon dissociates into H2O and CO2. Thus
Haldane effect is important in promoting CO2 transport.
Breathing at High Altitudes
● The human respiratory system functions best at the
21% oxygen concentration near sea level. At high
elevations, the percentage of oxygen in the air falls
gradually, so that at an elevation of almost 10000 feet
above sea level an individual inhales less oxygen
with each breath.
● Mountain climbers and high altitude excercisers
experience varying degree of altitude sickness.
The Effect of High Altitude
Condition Altitude Symptoms
Acute 5,900 ft Headache, weakness, nausea,
mountain (1,800 m) poor sleep, shortness of breath.
sickness
High-altitude 9,000 ft Severe shortness of breath,
pulmonary (2,700 m) cough, gurgle in chest, stupor,
edema weakness; person can drown in
accumulated fluid in lungs.
Cerebral 13,000 ft Brain swells, causing severe
edema (4,000 m) headache, vomiting, loss of co-
ordination, hallucinations coma
and death.
Control of Breathing
● Breathing depends on the actions of the diaphragm
and the intercostal muscles. The rhythmic contraction
and relaxation of these muscles is maintained and
regulated by nerve impulses from the brain.
Nervous Control of Rhythmic Breathing
● Breathing is controlled from the region of the brain
stem called medulla oblongata. Within the medulla
oblongata is a group unique nerve cells called res-
piratory centre.
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 610
● These cells are special because they can automa-
tically generate electrical nerve impulses at 2-second
intervals. These impulses establish the rhythms for
breathing. Nerves conduct the impulses to the dia-
phragm and intercostal muscles, which contract and
inhalation occurs. When the respiratory centre
resumes its activity, impulses are generated again
and the cycle of contraction relaxation starts again.
● The medulla oblongata is not the only area of the
brain involved with breathing. The medulla is connec-
ted to another region of the brain stem called the
pons. Nerve impulses from the pons are transmitted
to the respiratory centre, where they fine-tune the
breathing rhythm without connection from the pons,
breathing would occur in groups.
Regulating the Rate and Depth of Breathing
● Although the rate and depth of breathing are con-
trolled by the respiratory centre, they are regulated by
factors associated with the changing demands of the
body. The most important of these factors is the
concentration of three familiar substances : CO2, H+
and O 2.
Regulation by CO2 and H+
● The levels of CO 2 and H+ are the most important
regulators of the rate and depth of breathing.
● Regulation is accompanied by a group of specialized
nerve cells on the surface of the medulla oblongata
called chemical receptor. These cells monitor increase
in CO2 in the arterial blood. As CO2 increases, some
of the molecules diffuse from the blood into fluid that
surrounds the brain. As CO2 increases in this fluid,
there is a corresponding increase in H+ because of
the reaction :
CO2 + H2O → H2CO3 → H+ + HCO3
● The chemical receptor cells on the surface of the
medulla respond to the H + that is produced when
CO2 reacts with water, they do not respond directly to
CO2. As H+ levels rise, the chemical receptor cells
become activated and send nerve impulses to the
respiratory centre in the medulla. After this stimu-
lation, the respiratory centre increases the frequency
of impulses to the diaphragm and intercostal muscles
and the rate and depth of breathing increase.
● As the rate and depth of breathing increase, more
CO2 is exhaled, lowering the level of CO2 in the
arterial blood. With less CO2 in the blood, CO2
diffuses out of the fluid surrounding the brain and H+
levels drop.
● With a decrease in H +, the chemical receptor cells in
the medulla are no longer stimulated and the respi-
ratory centre quiets down. This control mechanism
maintains homeostasis during both, rest and activity.
Regulation by O 2
● The rate and depth of breathing are also regulated by
the concentration of O2 in the blood. Receptors in the
carotid arteries and aorta monitor the O2 level of
arterial blood.
● Normally, the partial pressure of O2 (PO2) in arterial
blood is about 100 mm Hg. However, these O 2
receptors become activated only when the partial
pressure of O2 drops below 60 mm Hg, and this
rarely happens. This means that under conditions of
normal health and activity, O2 regulation of breathing
is not as important as regulation by CO2 and H+ .
Extremely low levels of arterial O2 are rare but do
occur. For example, low blood PO2 levels can occur
at high altitudes where there is little atmospheric O 2.
● Upon activation, the O2 receptors in the carotid
arteries and aorta send nerve impulses to the res-
piratory centre in the medulla, which increases the
rate of impulses to the diaphragm and intercostal
muscles. With faster breathing, more O2 is made
available to the blood, helping to maintain homeo-
stasis.
Concious Control of Breathing
● To a limited extent, humans can alter breathing
voluntarily through concious decision making. Volun-
tary control of breathing permits to do such things as
talk, sing and hold breath.
● Voluntary control is overridden by involuntary controls
that respond to the increases in CO 2 and H +.
Emphysema
Healthy alveoli
Tumor
Pulmonary
tuberculosis
Bloody mucus
Fig. : The effects of selected respiratory disorders on the lungs.
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 611
Diseases and Disorders
● Pneumonia is an inflammation of the alveoli which
causes them to secrets and fill with excess fluid. As a
result, the exchange of O2 and CO2 is greatly inhi-
bited.
● Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by the bacterium
Mycobacterium tuberculosis . The bacteria are usually
inhaled with contaminated airborne droplets coughed
or sneezed by an infected person. The bacteria enter
the lungs, slowly destroy tissue and damage blood
vessels. Bleeding from these damaged vessels pro-
duces bloody mucus (sputum), a symptom of TB.
● A simple skin test called the tuberculin test can be
used to determine whether one has been exposed to
the bacterium.
● Asthma is a condition that periodically and severely
reduces airflow, causing breathing difficulties, whee-
zing and coughing. Asthma attacks can occur without
warning and can last from minutes to hours. During
an attach, contractions of the smooth muscles encir-
cling the smaller bronchi and bronchioles reduce
airflow to the alveoli.
Damaged alveoli fuse,
reducing surface area for
gas exchange.
Lung cancer
Uncontrolled cell growth
obstructs airway.
Pneumonia
Infectious agents or irrita-
ting chemicals cause
fluid secretion, reducing
gas exchange.
Fluid
Bacteria destroy tissue and bood
vessels, producing bloody mucus
and reducing gas exchange.
● Emphysema is a condition in which the epithelium of disease increases among those who are heavy
the alveoli becomes damaged and the alveoli fuse smokers, live or work in areas with air pollution or
into flattened shallow chambers. The result is a suffer from chronic asthma.
substantial reduction in the surface area for gas
● Lung cancer most often originates in the bronchial
exchange. Some degree of emphysema is common
in the lungs of older persons and may be part of the epithelium. This disease kills more people than does
normal aging process. However, the severity of the any other disease.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Breathing rate is controlled by a (C) Expulsion of dust with mucus 71. Where does meiosis occur in
part of the brain called the— (D) Breathing Chlamydomonas ?
(A) Thalamus ➠ In the zygote
8. The exchange of gases in the
(B) Hypothalamus 72. What is the effect of increase in
alveoli of lungs takes place by—
(C) Medulla oblongata temperature in the process of
(A) Osmosis diffusion ?
(D) Cerebellum (B) Simple diffusion ➠ Rate of diffusion increases
2. The breathing centre in the brain (C) Passive transport 73. What do you say the portions of
responds to changes in the— (D) Active transport DNA that do not bind to m -RNA ?
(A) Oxygen concentration of the
9. The amount of air normally in-
➠ Introns
blood 74. What refers to the number of
spired and expired is called—
(B) Carbon dioxide concentra- deaths per unit time ?
(A) Complemental air
tion of the blood ➠ Mortality
(B) Supplemental air
(C) Glucose in the mitochondria 75. Which type of mutation involves
(C) Tidal volume a change in nucleotide and
(D) Acetyl coenzyme A in the
mitochondria (D) Residual volume ultimately a change in a specific
10. Rate and depth of respiration codon ?
3. In lungs, the inspired air ultima- ➠ Point mutation
tely reaches to— shall increase when—
(A) Oxygen concentration in- 76. What does a photosystem con-
(A) Alveoli tain ?
creases
(B) Bronchi ➠Pigments, a reaction centre
(B) Bicarbonate concentration
(C) Bronchioles and an electron acceptor
decreases
77. What is respiration after glyco-
(D) Epiglottis (C) Carbon dioxide concentra- lysis called ?
4. The trachea is strengthened by— tion increases ➠ Fermentation
(D) None of these 78. Who defined cell as “an inte-
(A) Bony rings
(B) Complete cartilaginous rings grated and continuously changing
ANSWERS system” ?
(C) Incomplete cartilaginous ➠ Wilson and Morrison
rings 79. What are plants with jointed stem
(D) Muscular glottis ●●● and hollow internodes called ?
5. The ventillation movement of the ➠ Culms
(Continued from Page 544 )
lungs are governed by— 80. Who first of all discovered the
67. What is called a cell that will lethal gene ?
(A) Diaphragm
undergo meiosis to form ➠ Cuenot
(B) Intercostal muscles gametes ? ●●●
(C) Muscular wall of lungs ➠ Gametocyte
(D) Both (A) and (B) 68. Who tested the Watson and
6. Inflammation of the outer cover- Crick theory of DNA replication ?
ing of lungs is called— ➠ Meselson and Stahl
(A) Pleurisy 69. What we call a gene that masks
(B) Asphyxia or prevents the expression of
another ?
(C) Hypoxia
➠ Epistatic
(D) Emphysema
70. When does the non-cyclic elec-
7. The cilia of trachial lining are tron pathway of the light-depen-
useful in— dent reactions begin ?
(A) Inspiration ➠ When solar energy enters
(B) Expiration photosystem-II (PS-II)

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 612

 15. During respiration, failure of
Model Paper for Various Medical Entrance Examinations
ventilation leads to—
(A) Decreased oxygen tension

ZOOLOGY (B) Decreased carbon dioxide

tension
(C) Carbonate tension
(D) Bicarbonate tension
1. When two mutations in the same 8. Ammonites are the fossil remains 16. A male who suffers from sex-
cistron give rise to different of a group of— linked trait is—
phenotypes in the cis and trans (A) Mites (A) Heterozygous
conditions respectively, called— (B) Aphrodites (B) Homozygous
(A) Pseudoalleles (C) Bony fishes
(C) Polygenic
(B) Pseudogene (D) Cephalopod molluscs
(D) None of these
(C) Pseudogamy 9. Ecotone is characterised by—
(D) None of the above 17. The association of Sea Anemone
(A) Terrestrial ecosystem and Hermit Crab is an example
2. Which of these lipids do not have (B) Transitional zone between of—
fatty acids ? two diverse communities (A) Mutualism
(A) Cholesterol (C) Zone of transition between (B) Commensalism
(B) Steroid water and land
(C) Parasitism
(D) Forest ecosystem
(C) Phospholipids (D) None of the above
(D) Both (A) and (B) 10. German measles is caused by—
(A) Rubella virus 18. Passive absorption of minerals
3. Deiters’ cells are supporting cells depend on—
(B) Varicella virus
in— (C) Papilloma virus (A) Temperature
(A) Organ of corti (D) None of these (B) Temperature and metabolic
(B) Neuroglia cells inhibitor
11. Process of urea formation in
(C) Both (A) and (B) humans is also known as— (C) Metabolic inhibitor
(D) None of these (A) Hans Krebs cycle (D) Humidity
(B) Nitrogen cycle
4. Within scrotal sac, testes is 19. If the human blood pH changes
(C) Transamination below 7·0 or rises above 7·8,
supported from posterior scrotal
(D) All the above which of the following will not
wall by means of small cord of
fibromuscular mesodermal tissue 12. A typical human chromosome function properly ?
called— contains— (A) Heart (B) Nerves
(A) Mesovarium (A) 60 per cent protein and 40 (C) Pancreas (D) Spleen
per cent DNA by weight
(B) Gubernaculum 20. Cytochrome is—
(B) 60 per cent DNA and 40 per
(C) Trabeculae cent protein by weight (A) Metallo–Flavo protein
(D) None of these (C) 30 per cent DNA and 70 per (B) Iron-containing porphyrin
cent protein by weight pigment
5. The statistical and quantitative
study of human populations is (D) 50 per cent protein and 50
(C) Glycoprotein
called— per cent DNA by weight
(D) Lipid
(A) Demography 13. Bedbugs can survive during long
time starvation because— 21. Which of these protects the
(B) Kalology changes in basal cell DNA from
(A) It stores glycogen
(C) Mastology (B) It converts uric acid to amino ultraviolet wavelengths of sun-
(D) Nephiology acid and thus it can use its light to avoid skin cancer ?
excretory materials (A) Melanocytes
6. Which of the following is an
(C) Its life span is very long (B) Keratinocytes
example of hybrid vigour or
heterosis ? (D) It can minimise its require- (C) Both (A) and (B)
ments (D) None of these
(A) Horse (B) Mule
(C) Donkey (D) Neoplina 14. Which of the following mitotic
22. Nucleoli is mainly formed of—
stages provides the best oppor-
7. Colles’ fracture is associated tunity for preparing human karyo- (A) Chromatin
with— type ? (B) RNA
(A) Humerus (B) Radius (A) Anaphase (B) Metaphase (C) RNA, DNA and protein
(C) Ulna (D) Femur (C) Prophase (D) Telophase (D) None of these

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 613

23. Alcohol consumption on a very (C) Death of the cell 41. Owls move freely during night,
cold day produces— (D) Mutation because they have—
(A) Glycosuria (A) Only cones in their retina
33. Salmon fishes are group of
(B) Hypothermia fishes that belong to— (B) Only rods in their retina
(C) Hypoxia (A) Cod fishes (C) Adjustable pupil
(D) None of the above (B) Trout (D) None of these
24. The protein coat of virus is (C) Cartilaginous fishes 42. The hind pair of wings of mos-
called— (D) None of the above quitoes are represented by—
(A) Viroid (B) Capsomere (A) Pulvilli (B) Scutella
34. SAT-chromosome separated
(C) Capsid (D) Plasmid (C) Halteres (D) None of these
from rest of the chromosome
25. Which of the following glands by— 43. Which of the following is least
appear and function after puberty (A) Centromere dangerous form of skin cancer ?
in humans ? (B) Spindle fibre (A) Basal-cell carcinoma
(A) Eccrine (B) Holocrine (C) Secondary constriction (B) Teratocarcinoma
(D) Both (B) and (C) (C) Sarcomas
(C) Apocrine (D) Merocrine
(D) Myelomas
26. Bohr effect is related with— 35. Which of the following undergoes
spermiogenesis ? 44. Cheilosis disorder is caused by
(A) Reduced oxygen level in
(A) Primary spermatocytes the deficiency of—
blood
(B) Reduced CO2 level in blood (B) Spermatids (A) Calciferol (B) Tocopherol
(C) Secondary spermatocytes (C) Riboflavin (D) Thiamin
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these (D) Spermatogonia 45. Which of these is included in the
category of irregular bone ?
27. Perineal or inguinal scent glands 36. Mitochondria present in muscle
(A) Sternum
found in the skin around genital fibres was previously known as—
organs and anus of rabbit, are (B) Scapula
(A) Sarcosome
modified— (C) Femur
(B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(A) Apocrine glands (D) Zygomatic bone
(C) Sarcoplasm
(B) Eccrine glands 46. Recessive genes in both parents
(D) None of these
(C) Merocrine glands are responsible for—
(D) Holocrine glands 37. When a population is small, there (A) Congenital diseases
is a greater chance of— (B) Communicable diseases
28. Glycosidic bond is broken during
digestion of— (A) Gene flow (C) Non-communicable disea-
(A) Protein (B) Starch (B) Genetic drift ses
(C) Lipid (D) All of these (C) Natural selection (D) Deficiency diseases

29. For energy, the earth is— (D) Mutations 47. Excretion of hypertonic urine in
humans is associated with—
(A) Closed system 38. The outer covering of cartilage is
known as— (A) Glomerular capsule
(B) Open system
(B) Proximal convolute tubule
(C) Open as well as closed (A) Periosteum
system (C) Loop of nephron
(B) Perichondrium
(D) Neither open nor closed (D) Distal convoluted tubule
(C) Endosteum
system 48. Which of the following hormone
(D) Peritoneum
stimulates metabolism and
30. Homonids originated during—
39. The continued occurrence of growth ?
(A) Pliocene (B) Palaeocene sickle-cell disease with malaria is (A) Thyrotropin
(C) Miocene (D) Oligocene due to— (B) Somatotropin
31. Which of the following is not a (A) Continuous mutation (C) Gonadotropin
vertebrate ? (B) Gene flow between popula- (D) Prolactin
(A) Shark tions
49. Movement of a flying moth to-
(B) Platypus (C) Fitness of the heterozygote wards a light is called—
(C) Branchiostoma (D) Disruptive selection (A) Taxis (B) Kinesis
(D) Lamprey 40. Which of these form tusks in (C) Reflex (D) Orientation
32. Crossing over of chromosomes Walrus ? 50. Archipallium is associated with—
during meiosis leads to— (A) Upper canines (A) Cerebellum
(A) Loss of chromosomes (B) Lower canines (B) Cerebrum
(B) Production of new gene- (C) Upper incisors (C) Medulla oblongata
recombination (D) Lower incisors (D) Spinal cord

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 614

Model Paper for Various Medical Entrance Examinations 17. Meissner’s plexus are found in—
(A) Submucosa of intestine
(B) Skin
ZOOLOGY (C) Kidneys
(D) Liver
18. Unit membrane consists of—
1. Mulbery silk produced by an 9. Which of these first enter lacteals (A) Lipid + Sugar + Lipid
insect, is the product of— of the villi and then pass into (B) Protein + Lipid + Protein
(A) Salivary glands of the adult blood vessels in the shoulder (C) Lipid + Protein + Lipid
(B) Salivary glands of the larva area ?
(D) None of these
(C) Cuticle of the larva (A) Amino acids
19. Which of these inhibit luteinizing
(D) Cuticle of the adult (B) Vitamin C
hormone secretion ?
(C) Glucose
2. The rate of energy at consumer (A) Inhibin
(D) Cholesterol
level is called— (B) Thyrotropin
(A) Secondary productivity 10. Four daughter cells formed after (C) Luteotropin
meiosis are—
(B) Primary productivity (D) None of these
(A) Genetically similar
(C) Gross productivity 20. Initiation codon is—
(B) Genetically different
(D) Net productivity (A) UAG (B) AUG
(C) Anucleate
3. Convulsive and hallucinogenic (D) Multinucleate (C) UGA (D) UAA
ergotism is caused by—
11. Pott’s disease is associated 21. The mammalian liver in its histo-
(A) Virus (B) Bacteria with— logical structure is characterized
(C) Fungus (D) None of these (A) Vertebrae (B) Spleen by the presence of—
4. The study of the actions of drugs (C) Skull (D) Gall bladder (A) Glisson’s capsules and
is known as— 12. Shape of chromosome is deter- Kupffer cells
(A) Pharmacognosy mined by— (B) Glisson’s capsules and
(B) Pharmacology (A) Telomere leucocytes
(C) Both (A) and (B) (B) Centromere (C) Kupffer cells and leucocytes
(D) None of these (C) Chromomere (D) Glandular cells and leuco-
(D) Centrosome cytes
5. The property of a cell which can
give many cell phenotypes of the 13. Courtship behaviour is a form 22. Rate and depth of respiration will
organism to which it belongs, is of— increase when—
called— (A) Taxis (A) Oxygen concentration
(A) Totipotency (B) Kinesis increases
(B) Pluripotency (C) Fixed action pattern (B) Bicarbonate concentration
(D) Imprinting decreases
(C) Parthenogenesis
(D) Parasexuality 14. Oligopeptide hormone secreted (C) Carbondioxide concentration
by pars nervosa of pituitary gland increases
6. The main function of lysosome of mammals is—
is— (D) None of these
(A) Pitocin (B) Oxytocin
(A) Intracellular digestion 23. Bradycardia is caused when—
(C) Vasopressin (D) Melanin
(B) Extracellular digestion
15. Gerdy’s fibres are— (A) Heart beats exceed more
(C) Both (A) and (B) than 100 per minute
(D) None of these (A) Ligament of palm
(B) Ligament of ankle (B) Heart beats reduced to more
7. In an upright pyramid of biomass, than 80 per minute
(C) Ligament of neck
the herbivores generally occupy
(D) Ligament of face (C) Both (A) and (B)
the position—
(A) First (B) Second (D) None of these
16. The direction of DNA replication
(C) Third (D) Fourth is— 24. Synaptic fatigue is due to—
8. Functioning of structural genes is (A) From 5′ end towards 3′ end (A) Exhaustion of neurotrans-
controlled by— (B) From 3′ and towards 5′ end mitter
(A) Operator (C) Amino terminus to carboxy (B) Release of more acetylcho-
(B) Promotor terminus line
(C) Ligase (D) Carboxy terminus to amino (C) Release of more adrenaline
(D) Regulatory gene terminus (D) None of these

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 616

25. Cretinism disorder in childhood is 33. Biometric genetics deals with— (C) Dextromanual
caused due to lack of— (A) The biochemical explana- (D) Dextrophobia
(A) Thyroxine tions of various genetical 42. Functional pineal eye is found
(B) Vitamin D phenomena in—
(C) Growth hormone (B) The effect of environment on (A) Cyclops
(D) Calcitonin genetic set of organisms (B) Crabs
(C) The inheritance of quantita- (C) Sphenodon
26. Broca’s area in human brain tive trait
controls— (D) None of these
(D) All of these
(A) Movement of tongue 43. The cyclic period of sexual acti-
34. Which of the following is not a vity in nonhuman female mam-
(B) Movement of vocal cords form of endocytosis ? mals, is called—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Phagocytosis (A) Luteinization
(D) None of these (B) Monocytosis (B) Menstruation
(C) Estrus
27. Which of the following is not (C) Pinocytosis
(D) Oogenesis
correct about energy ? (D) All of these
44. Cell apoptosis is—
(A) Energy can be transformed 35. In second degree burn cases, the (A) Cell division
from one form to another involvement is of— (B) Dinomitosis
(B) Energy cannot be destroyed (A) Only epidermis (C) Cell disintegration
(C) Energy can be recycled (B) Epidermis and dermis (D) Cell differentiation
(D) None of these (C) Hypodermis 45. Which of the following contains
(D) Epidermis, dermis and hypo- grey crescent ?
28. Brain death of a patient is
dermis (A) Brain of frog
assumed by—
36. Endotoxins are formed by— (B) Brain of rabbit
(A) Lack of response to stimuli
(C) Fertilized egg of frog
(B) Absence of all reflexes (A) Gram-negative bacteria
(D) None of these
(B) Gram-positive bacteria
(C) Isoelectric electroencepha- 46. Organs of Bojanus in Unio is
logram (C) Host cells
associated with—
(D) All the above (D) All the above
(A) Excretory system
37. Which part of the human brain (B) Reproductive system
29. When a natural living predator is
integrates the autonomic nervous (C) Digestive system
applied to control a pest, this pro-
system with sympathetic and (D) Nervous system
cess is called—
parasympathetic control ?
(A) Genetic engineering 47. Tularemia is related with—
(A) Cerebrum
(B) Biological control (A) Deer fly fever
(B) Hypothalamus (B) Rabbit fever
(C) Natural control (C) Medulla oblongata (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Artificial control (D) None of these (D) None of these
30. Nucleus pulposus is found in— 38. The cells that secrete enamel of 48. Which of these forms a barrier to
(A) Skull tooth is— fertilization between different
(B) Pelvic girdle (A) Dentoblast (B) Odontoblast species ?
(A) Zona pellucida
(C) Pectoral girdle (C) Ameloblast (D) Osteoblast
(B) Corona radiata
(D) Intervertebral disks 39. Most interacting populations (C) Both (A) and (B)
31. ‘Infantile amourotic idiocy’ is are— (D) None of these
caused due to— (A) Mutualistic (B) Symbiotic 49. Humans possess—
(A) A recessive allele (C) Coevolved (D) Parasitic (A) Double circuit heart
(B) A dominant allele in homo- 40. Czermak’s spaces are found in— (B) Pulmonary heart
zygous condition (A) Vertebral column (C) Systemic heart
(C) Both (A) and (B) (B) Tooth (D) All the above
(D) None of these (C) Synovial joints 50. Once the Graafian follicle
releases the egg, its remanent
32. The fight-or-flight response is (D) Sternum forms the—
developed by hormones of the— 41. The anomaly of heart being (A) Corpus callosum
(A) Hypothalamus present on the right side of (B) Corpus luteum
(B) Adrenal medulla human body, is called— (C) Corpus quadrigeminum
(C) Adrenal cortex (A) Dextrocardia (D) Endometrium
(D) None of these (B) Dextrocularity (Continued on Page 625 )

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 617

Introduction
Early centres of civilization developed their own plant-
derived stimulating beverages, both fermented and non-
fermented. The stimulants found in non-alcoholic drinks
include caffeine (as found in coffee), which was deve-
loped in Abyssinia and Arabia; tea developed in South-
east Asia. Fermented alcoholic beverages also precede
history; although certainly much older, wine is first
recorded before 4000 B.C. Mead, fermented from honey,
and palm wine, as well as the fermented juice of other
fruits, are also very ancient alcoholic drinks.
Alcoholic Beverages
Alcoholic beverages are potable beverages obtained
by distilling alcohol-containing liquid and further treating
the distillate to obtain a beverage of specific character.
Alcoholic beverages are of two distinct categories : (i) the
fermented beverages (where the alcohol is formed by
the fermentation of sugar, and (ii) the distilled beverages
(which are obtained by distillation of some alcoholic
liquor).
Following are the important fermented alcoholic and
distilled beverages :
Wine
A large part of the world’s wine is made in the coun-
tries located near the mediterranean sea. It is the product
made by the normal alcoholic fermentation of the juice of
ripe grapes (Vitis vinifera). Relatively small amounts of
wine are also made from apple (Malus pumilo), orange
(Citrus sinensis) , black berries, strawberries and peaches.
The alcoholic content varies from 7 to 16%.
Liqueurs
Liqueurs (also called cordails) are alcoholic beve-
rages prepared by combining a spirit, usually brandy, with
certain flavouring reagent and sugar. In fruit liqueurs, the
colour and flavour are obtained by an infusion process
using the specified fruit and spirit. Sugar is added after the
extraction is complete. Plant liqueurs are made by mace-
ration of plant leaves, roots, or leaves with spirit and then
distilling the product. Sugar and colouring matter are
added after distillation.
Whiskies
Whiskies (spirits) are made by distilling fermented
grain mashes and aging the distillate in charred oak con-
tainers.
Irish whisky is made from malt, unmalted barley and
other grains such as wheat (Triticum aestivum), Oat
(Avena sativa) , Maize (Zea mays) and Rye (Secale
cereale ).
Scotch whisky is prepared primarily from barley
(Hordeum vulgare). The barley is converted to malt by
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 618
allowing it to sprout after which it is dried in a kiln over a
peat fire. The malt absorbs some of the smoke aroma
which is carried over later with the spirit distilled from it.
The drying and roasting of the malt is responsible for the
flavour of the whisky. After the malt is made into a mash,
it is fermented, distilled and aged in oak casts. A scotch
blended whisky may contain a certain percentage of grain
whisky besides malt whisky.
Blended whiskies are differentiated from straight
whiskies by a certain content of neutral spirits.
Beer
The commercial production of beer involves two dis-
tinct process—malting and brewing.
The malting for beer is done for the conversion of
starch present in barley grains into sugar through the
agency of an enzyme, diastase. The subsequent process
is brewing during which yeast is added to bring about the
fermentation of sugar that increases the alcoholic content.
Beer contains 3% to 8% alcohol.
Brandies
Brandies are spirits obtained form the distillation of
wine or a fermented fruit juice, usually after aging of the
wine in wooden casks.
Cognac is a brandy distilled from wines made of
grapes in Cognac region of France. Armagnac is a brandy
made in the south-east of Bordeaux. Both these types of
brandies are aged for many years in oak before bottling.
Spanish brandies are usually distilled from sherry
wines, while in Europe pot stills are most common.
Apple brandy, also known as applejack, is distilled
from completely distilled apple juice and aged in oak
barrels for 5 to 10 years. Other fruits from which brandy is
made include black and wild cherries, plums (Prunus
domestica) , and apricots. When stone fruits are used,
some of the stones are broken or crushed and a small
amount of oil is distilled over with the spirit, giving the
brandy a more or less pronounced bitter almond flavour.
They contain about 65% to 75% alcohol.
Gins
Gins consist essentially of a pure grade of alcohol
which has been flavoured with an extract of the juniper
berry as the chief flavouring agent. The flavour may be
imported by distillation of herbs (distilled gin) or by the
addition of essential oils (a compounded gin). There are
two types of gins—English gin and Dutch gin.
The English, or London dry, gin is made from pure
neutral spirits which are distilled in presence of juniper
berries and small amount of another ingredients such as
coriander (Coriandrum sativum) seeds, cardamom seed,
orange peel, Cassia bark and fennel (Foeniculum vulgare).
 Dutch gin is made of malt. It contains more fuel alco-
hols and other volatile substance (congenerics) besides
ethyl alcohol than does English gin.
Plants Used for Flavouring Alcoholic
Beverages
● Pimpinella anisum (Anise) of Apiaceae—Its fruits are used
for flavouring the liqueur (Anisette) and in other beve-
rages, cakes and sweets.
● Artemisia absinthium (of Asteraceae)—It is used for
making liqueur and vermounth wine.
● Humulus lapulus (of Cannabinaceae)—The part used for
brewing (beer) is the female cone.
● Galipea officinalis (of Rutaceae)—The bark is used to
flavour drink.
● Juniperus communis (of Cupressaceae)—The berries are
used for flavouring gin, liqueurs and cordails.
Rum
The alcoholic distillate from fermented sugarcane
juice or molasses is known as rum. The middle fraction of
distillation, known as aguardiente, is used for making
rum. The aguardiente is aged in uncharred oak barrels; it
is then decolourized, filtered and supplied with some cara-
mel to give it the proper colour. A natural fermentation of
the molasses by various species of yeast also contributes
to the flavour of this alcoholic beverage. Rum contains
about 40% alcohol. Arak is a rum that comes from the
island of Java.
Vodka
Alcoholic beverage ‘Vodka’ is originally produced in
Russia but not popular in many countries. Vodka is
usually made from wheat (Triticum aestivum) . It is highly
rectified during distillation and thus it is a very pure neutral
spirit without a pronounced taste.
Aperitifs
These alcoholic preparations are used as appetizers
and tonics. Vermouth, the best known aperitif, is a light
bitter wine slightly sweetened and flavoured with an infu-
sion of bitter and aromatic herbs.
Plant Juices as Beverages
Palm wine—It is the fresh juice obtained by tapping the
base of the immature inflorescence of oil palm. Firstly tapped,
undiluted and child palm wine is a very common drink in the
tropics.
Palm wine is also prepared from :
● Cocos nucifera (Coconut)
● Borassus flabellifer (Palmyra palm)
● Phoenix dactylifera (Date palm)
Some other plants yield fermented juices which are
used as beverage :
● Anacardium occidentale (Cashewnut)
● Saccharum officinarum (Sugarcane)
● Musa sapientum (Banana)
● Monihot esculenta (Cassava)
● Ananas comosus (Pineapple)
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 619
Pulque and Tequila
Pulque and Tequila are alcoholic beverages of Mexi-
can origin. A sweet sap obtained from agave is collected
and fermented by natural process and is then called
pulque. The distilled pulque is known as tequila.
Non-alcoholic Beverages
The most important non-alcoholic beverages are tea,
coffee and cocoa (Coca). Among them tea is the queen of
non-alcoholic beverages.
Tea
The tea (Camellia sinensis or Thea sinensis) plant is
considered to be a native of Assam and the adjoining
areas of Upper Myanmar (new name of Burma), some
regard it to be a native of Southern Yunnan and Upper
Indo-China.
The tea plant is an evergreen perennial shrub or a
small tree of the Theaceae family. It grows best in warm
climate where the rainfall averages 90–200 inches. Tea
leaves contain Caffeine, various tannins, flavonoids (acts
as an antioxidant), aromatic substances attributed to an
essential oil, and other materials of a minor nature includ-
ing proteins, gums and sugars. The tannins provide the
astringency, while the caffeine stimulating property.
Basic Classes of Tea
Commercially tea may be divided into three basic
classes as follows :
(1) Black tea—It is most important commercially in
the world. There are four principal operations in the pre-
paration of black tea—withering, rolling, fermenting and
firing (or drying).
(a) Withering—About 75% of the weight of fresh
leaf consists of water. The leaf is spread thinly
over withering racks, arranged one above the
other horizontally, and allowed to remain there
for 12 to 16 hours to lose its excessive moisture.
The leaves become soft and flaccid like soft
leather and are ready for rolling.
(b) Rolling—This operation imparts the characteris-
tic twist to leaf, breaks the leaf cells, exposes the
juice to the air for fermentation to set in. After the
second or third roll, all the tea leaves still more or
less green and quite flaccid are shifted to the
fermenting room.
(c) Fermentation—During fermentation, the tannin
in tea is partly oxidized and the leaf changes
colour and turns bright coppery-red. The period
of fermentation generally extends from 3 to 4
hours. As a rule, the shorter the fermentation the
more pungent the liquor and longer the
fermentation the softer the liquor and deeper the
colour.
(d) Firing or drying—The essential function of this
process is to arrest further oxidation of the leaf
and to remove all moisture except a small
 amount of roughly 3 to 5%. Drying process
remove only three-fourth of the total moisture of
the fermented tea leaves.
(2) Green tea—This type of tea is most prevalent in
Japan and China. The chief difference between green and
black varieties of tea is in the fermentation—green tea
being completely unfermented. The leaf meant for the
manufacture of green tea is generally plucked without
stalk.
(3) Oolong tea—It is described as a cross between
black and green tea. The fresh leaf is slightly withered
before panning; during the process a light ferment is
allowed to develop, the leaf is then rolled and fired. Its
colour is slightly changed and the resultant tea is of
greenish-brown colour.
Coffee
The botanical name of coffee is Coffea arabica and
Coffea robusta. It belongs to family Rubiaceae. Arabica
coffee is a shrub or small tree of the genes Coffea and a
native of Abyssinia. There are 59 species, but only four
are of commercial importance. Nine-tenths of the world
supply of coffee is obtained from the Arabian species.
Coffee is strictly a tropical crop requiring a modera-
tely cool climate that is moist but not wet. The fruit, called
a cherry, is a small spherical drupe containing two seeds
(coffee beans). In the wet method the cherries are picked
up by hand, then pulled and allowed to ferment and thus
membranes are removed.
Commercially, coffee is the most important caffeine-
containing beverage plant in the world. Coffee beverage
is prepared by extraction of roasted and ground coffee
with hot water. Green beans are packed and transported
in hemp bags. On arrival at the roasting plant, beans from
many sources are blended to achieve a particular flavour.
Roasting is the most important operation in the coffee
processing because it develops the flavour. Roasted and
ground vacuum-packed coffee maintains freshness for
atleast two years. In batch roasters, energy at relatively
low temperature, 480–540°C, develops fine flavour and a
uniform brown colour in about 10 to 12 minutes.
Instant or soluble coffee manufacturing utilizes
about 20% of the green beans imported. Coffee extract is
made by passing water at temperatures upto 177°C
through coarsely ground coffee in a series of extracting
columns. The extract also can be frozen and then freeze-
dried in a low temperature vacuum system by sublimation
from the ice crystal structure to remove most of the water.
Cola
Its botanical name is Cola acuminata and C. nitida. It
is a tree of the sterculia family (Steruculiaceae). It is a
native of tropical Africa.
The seeds of cola are used for beverage purposes.
The drink is prepared by powdering the cola nuts (seeds).
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 620
When needed the powder is boiled in water for 15–20
minutes. Cola contains about 2% caffeine. It is quite
refreshing. The cola seeds are useful in various soft
drinks. Cola nuts have a caffein content twice that of
coffee.
Cocoa
Cocoa (Theobroma cacao), which belongs to family
sterculiaceae, is a small tree and native of tropical
America, but now cultivated along the Malabar coast,
Nilgiri and pulney hills. The flowers and fruits are short
peduncled and born directly on the trunk and large
branches.
Cocoa is a nutritious beverage. The seeds contain
less than 1% of an alkaloid, threobromine, with a few
traces of caffeine. The mature pods are carefully cut off.
The pulp and seeds are taken out, cured and usually
fermented. During the process of fermentation, beans
become brownish-red in colour, lose their bitter taste, and
develops an aroma, then washed and dried.
Varieties and Characteristics of Cocoa
● The most important varieties of cocoa cultivation are
Criollo and Forastero.
● Criollo type is supposed to be finest beans for flavouring
purposes.
● In the Criollo type the fruit is soft, skinned, with a rough
surface and pointed end.
● The seeds in Criollo type are plump, pale in colour and
white within.
● Forastero type is of hybrid origin. They possess thick-
shelled pods with seeds of a pale to deep-purple colour.
● Most of the commercial crop is obtained from Forastero
type.
Important Alkaloid of Non-alcoholic Beverages
Caffeine—The chemical formula of caffeine is
C8H10O2N4.H2O. Caffeine is an alkaloid, formerly synthe-
sized by methylation of threobromine isolated from
cacao, but now recovered from the solvents used in the
manufacture of decaffeinated coffee. It occurs naturally in
tea, coffee and cacao. Caffeine crystallizes into long,
white, needle like crystals that slowly lose their water of
hydration to give a white solid that melts at about 235°C.
Caffeine has an intensely bitter taste. It is present in
cocoa, coffee and tea in very small amount, not exceeding
2 per cent.
Cocaine—The chemical formula of cocaine is
C17H21O4N. Cocaine is a principal alkaloid of coca leaves,
a typical anesthetic and stimulant and popular illicit drug.
Cocaine enjoys the status of a wonder drug and panacea.
Now-a-days, it is used as a typical anesthetic in the eyes,
mouth, nose and throat. Cocaine increases heart rate and
blood pressure and causes feelings of alertness and
euphoria.
(Continued on Page 634 )
Distribution ● Typically the cell envelop consists of two parts—
● Cyanobacteria, commonly known as blue-green sheath and inner investment or cell wall.
algae, are placed in class Cyanophyceae or Myxo- ● The cyanophycean cell possesses a surface layer of
phyceae of division cyanophyta under Prokaryota. gelatinous sheath which is a constant feature, although
● Cyanobacteria enjoy a wide range of distribution in all it varies in thickness.
kinds of habitats, from the tropics of the polar regions, ● Internal to the extracellular mucilage sheath but sepa-
including marine and fresh water to the tops of the rated from it by a zone of less electron density is a wall
mountains. layer called the inner investment. Under electron
● Certain cyanobacteria are thermophilic because they microscope, it is seen to consist of four layers—L1, L2,
grow in hot springs. L3 and L4—as suggested by Allen in 1968.
● Cyanobacteria can grow as mats on the surface of
bare soil as primary colonizers. Four Layers of Inner Investment
● Some cyanobacteria grow in symbiosis with other ● Layer L1—It is the innermost layer of cell wall. It lies next
organisms. For examples, they may occur as algal to the plasma membrane and is visible as a clear electron-
symbionts of lichens, some live within the plant bodies transparent space. It varies in thickness ranging from 3
of certain liverworts, water ferns, cycads and angio- nm—10 nm.
sperms where they fix nitrogen.
● Layer L2—It is a thin, electron-dense mucopolymer layer
● Cyanobacteria have also been associated with certain which lies next to layer L1. It contains muramic acid and
protozoa, where they are called cyanellae. mucopeptide. Besides these there are also alamine, glu-
● A notable example of marine blue-green algae is Tri- tamic acid, diaminopimelic acid and glucosamine.
chodesmium erythrueum in which the red pigment pre- ● Layer L3—It is also an electron-transparent space varying
dominates. from about 3 nm to 10 nm in thickness.
Cell Structure ● Layer L4—It is outermost layer of cell wall. It is thin, elec-
● Cyanobacterial (blue-green algae) cell is an example tron-dense and has a wrinkled appearance. Often it is
of typical prokaryotic cell, it lacks all the mem- undulating or even convoluted. This layer is about the size
brane bound cell organelles characteristics of euka- of a unit membrane.
ryotic cell.
● It has no discrete or well-defined nucleus, mitochon- Protoplast
dria, dictyosomes, chromatophores and endoplasmic ● Cyanophycean protoplast shows internal differentia-
reticulum. tion. Under light microscope the protoplast appears to
● Pyrenoids, nucleoli and true vacuoles are also absent. possess two regions—a peripheral region (chromo-
● The flagella are entirely lacking (even the reproductive plasm) and a colourless central region (centroplasm
cells are non-flagellated). or central body).
Cell Wall ● The centroplasm contains chromatin or genetic mate-
● Under light microscope the cyanophycean cell is seen rial. The older cytologists consider this region to be
to consist of a cell envelope enclosing the tiny proto- equivalent to a primitive (incipient) nucleus as it
plast. lacked both the nuclear membrane and nucleoli.
● The electron microscopic study reveals the presence
Pseudovacuole
of lamellar system in the protoplast. These lamellae
Ribosomes
Pseudovacuole are known as thylakoids. These are not enclosed in
α Granule
Plasma
Membrane Structured membrane-bounded group to form chloroplasts;
granule
Meta- instead, they lie free in the cytoplasm, in some species
chromatin B-Granule
Thylakoid
more or less restricted to the periphery.
Sheath
Centro- Polyhedral ● Each thylakoid is elongated, flattened sac-like struc-
plasm body
Cell Wall Nucleoplasm ture possessing small granules resembling ribosomes.
Plasma
A Chromoplasm Membrane ● The photosynthetic apparatus is contained within thyla-
(Homogeneous) LI
Cyanophycin L II Cell Wall
koids.
Sheath L III ● The protoplast is normally devoid of true vacuoles,
B L IV
except in old cells.
Fig. : (A-B) Cyanophyceae. Cell structure (A) Cell of a
● In some planktonic species such as Anabaena and
filamentous cyanobacteria (blue-green alga)
seen with light microscopes; (B) unicellular Polycystis, chromoplasm contains clusters of gas con-
blue-green alga seen with electron microscope. taining cavities known as pseudovacuoles.

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 621

Nucleus
● Cyanobacteria (blue-green algae) lack a discrete nuc-
leus.
● Fine fibrils of DNA are a feature of nuclear material.
These are either distributed throughout the cell or
concentrated in the central portion.
● The term ‘chromatin apparatus’ is generally used for
the nuclear material of the cyanobacteria.
● Electron microscopic study has shown that the chro-
matin nuclear material, also designated as DNA-
plasm, constituted of the fibrils of DNA may occur as a
single accumulation of nuclear material or organised
into a reticular structure or individual rod-like nuclear
elements.
● The DNA fibrils are not associated with basic proteins
(histones) so that no organised chromosomes are
found. They commonly appear as reticulum.
● RNA is diffusedly distributed in the nucleoplasm.
Pigments
● Cyanobacteria contains chlorophyll-a and a number
of other pigments such as β-carotene, phycobilins
and xanthophylls. The best known phycobilins are
blue C-phycocyanin and red C-phycoerythrin. These
two pigments are unique to cyanophytes (not found in
any other algal groups).
● Besides the above pigments, the other pigments pre-
sent in cyanobacterial cell are myxoxanthin, myxo-
xanthophyll, zeaxanthin, flavacin, oscilloxanthin,
alphanizophyll and antheraxanthin.
Granules
● Besides the pseudovacuoles and thylakoids various
kinds of granules are reported in protoplast.
● Alpha granules are less dense and usually elongated
and are found in abundance between the thylakoids.
● β-granules are spherical and frequently occur bet-
ween the lamellae near the cross walls.
● The structured granules are large dense granules
which usually occur near the cross walls. Drews and
Niklowitz (1961-62) considered them to be mito-
chondrial equivalents.
● Ribosomes, which are tiny dense granules, occur
scattered between the thylakoids and throughout the
cytoplasmic matrix but are more abundant in the
central area around the nucleoplasm.
Photosynthetic Apparatus and Storage Food
● Within the plasma membrane embedded in the peri-
pheral region of the cytoplasm are present elongated,
flattened closed sac or disc-like structures called thy-
lakoids or lamellae which function as photosynthetic
apparatus.
● In cyanobacteria, photosynthesis occurs in the same
manner as in other chlorophyllous plants.
● The storage food is cyanophycean starch, probably
amylopectin portion of starch and proteins.
Plant Body Organisation
● Cyanobacteria show diversity in structures, such as
they may be unicellular, colonial to filamentous bran-
ched.
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 622
● The cells are spherical to avoid and are similar in
structure in being surrounded by a gelatinous sheath
probably represent the most primitive types.
● The single isolated cell with no polarity is the simplest
condition, although by cell division the individuals
remain combined to form palmelloid (e.g., Anabaena).
● The simplest filamentous forms are made up of a long
series of cells placed one upon the other to form a
trichome which may be straight or spirally coiled (e.g.,
Spirulina).
● The trichomes often secrete mucilaginous materials of
varying consistency which may be homogenous or
lamelloid or striated. The trichome with its enclosing
sheath is termed as filament.
● The most advanced forms have a heterotrichous con-
dition of habit.
● The threads of many of the filamentous forms show
the presence of heterocysts; when occur singly they
are either terminal (e.g. , Gloeotrichia) or intercalary
(e.g., Nostoc) in position.
● A filament, besides heterocysts, can also bear a struc-
ture much larger than the vegetative cells with appre-
ciably thick wall enclosing accumulated food reserves
in the form of cyanophycean granules. Such a thick-
walled structure is known as akinete.
Structure of Heterocyst
● The heterocysts differ markedly from the vegetative
cells and occur between them along the length of the
trichome at some regular intervals.
● The heterocyst envelope is markedly thicker than that
of the vegetative cell, and is divisible into two parts—
(i) the outer comparable to the sheath and (ii) inner to
the cell wall or inner investment. The outer part is diffe-
rentiated into three layers—(i) outer fibrous layer,
(ii) middle homogenous layer and (iii) inner laminated
layer.
● At the junction between the heterocyst and the vegeta-
tive cell there is a deep constriction. The constricted
region has a pore for communication with the adjacent
cells. The intercalary heterocyst thus has two pores
(e.g., Nostoc), one at each pole, whereas the terminal
heterocyst has a single pore towards the trichome
(e.g., Gleotrichia and Rivularia).
● In a mature heterocyst the pore channel is plugged
with a polar nodule.
● The plug material consists of highly refractive, electron
transparent, shiny granules called the polar granules.
Outer Layer
Plasma Membrane
Fibrous Layer
L-1 Plasmodesmata
Inner L-2
Layer L-3 Polar Nodule
L-4
Laminated
Thylakoid Homogeneous Layer Layer
Fig. : Diagrammatic representation of a longitudinal
section of heterocyst showing ultrastructure
(Based on Long and Fay).
Functions of Heterocyst Asexual Reproduction
Various workers/scientists suggested various different It occurs by the following methods—
functions of heterocysts as follows— (i) By Cell Division or Fission
● Heterocysts are store house of reserve food material ● Cell division leads to multiplication of species in the
(Fritsch, 1904). unicellular cyanobacteria. It is preceded by changes or
division of the nuclear material.
● Heterocysts are vestigial reproductive structures ● Division of nuclear material precedes cell division. This
(Geitler, 1921). is followed by cytokinesis (the division of cytoplasm)
● Heterocysts act as stimulator for growth and cell divi- and separation of the resultant two daughter proto-
plasts (e.g., Gloeocapsa alpicola).
sion (Fritsch, 1951). Nucleoplasm
● Heterocysts are locus for filament breakage
(Shestakov, 1970).
● Heterocysts are sites for nitrogen fixation. Because of
their role in nitrogen fixation, the heterocysts are consi- A
dered ecologically and agriculturally important in tro- B
pical rice fields.
● Heterocysts play important role in sporulation. Some
workers, in fact, observed gradual depletion of the con- Layer 4
Septum Initial Layer 3
tents of heterocysts during sporulation. The akinetes, Layer 2 Cell Wall
Layer 1 Sheath Photosynthetic Lamellae
the so-called spores of heterocystous blue-green algae
are formed only adjacent to the heterocysts.

Reproduction
● Cyanobacteria lack sexual reproduction; no sex organs C D
and no motile reproductive bodies have been obser-
ved.
● Cyanobacteria lack true sexuality but a kind of para-
sexual phenomenon designated as genetic recombina- Septum Formation Plasma Membrane
Completed Sheath
tion has been demonstrated in Anacystis nidulans
(Kumar, 1962) by gene transfer and gene recombina-
tion through blue-green algal virus.
● Genetic recombination has also been reported in
Cylindrospermum majus and Anabaena doliolum. E
Fig. : (A–E) Stages in cell division. Fission in Gloeo-
Nitrogen Fixation by Cyanobacteria capsa alpicola.
(ii) By Fragmentation
About 50 species of cyanobacteria are known to be
● Under favourable conditions of growth, propagation by
active nitrogen fixers. They are independent of other com-
fragmentation commonly occurs in both nonfilamen-
bined nitrogen sources. The nitrogen fixed by cyano- tous colony and filamentous forms of cyanobacteria.
bacteria (blue-green algae) can be assimilated by them-
selves as by other organisms. Three types of cyanobac-
teria can fix nitrogen—(i) the filamentous heterocystous
species, (ii) certain nonheterocystous filamentous spe-
cies (e.g., Plectonema boryanum) and (iii) certain unicel- 1 A 2
lular (nonheterocystous) species. Sheath
In filamentous heterocystous cyanobacteria the site Separation Discs
of nitrogen fixation is heterocyst. But microaerophilic
nitrogen fixation may go on in the vegetative cells. Subs-
tantial amount of soluble nitrogenous compounds are
liberated from healthy cells of nitrogen-fixing cyanobac- B
Heterocyst Hormogones
teria either into the culture medium or in their natural
habitats. Besides, when the cyanobacteria die, their nitro-
genous material decay from ammonia which may then be
transformed into nitrates by nitrifying bacteria thus enrich-
ing the fertility of the habitat. The nitrogen-fixing enzyme
complex nitrogenase is oxygen-sensitive, so that the
highest rate of nitrogen fixation occurs under reduced
oxygen tension. Because of their role in nitrogen fixation, C
the heterocysts are considered ecologically and agricultu- Hormogonia
Fig. : (A–C)–(A) Fragmentation, (B-C) Hormogonia for-
rally important in tropical rice fields. mation.

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 623

● After reaching a certain size, the nonfilamentous
colony splits into small parts (e.g., Macrocystis). Each
part is called a fragment which by repeated cell divi-
sions grows into a new colony.
(iii) By Hormogonia
● It is a specialized process of vegetative propagation of
cyanobacteria. Trichomes of filamentous genera regu-
larly multiply by breaking of their trichomes with the
sheath into short fragments of one to many living cells
known as hormogonia, which settle down and grow
into new filaments by cell division.
● The hormogonia are delimited in two ways viz., (i) by
the formation of intercalary heterocyst and (ii) by the
development of intercalary biconcave separation
disc or necridia at intervals along the trichomes.
● The hormogones may be two to several cells long.
Typically any portion of the trichome may get abstric-
ted as a hormogonium (e.g., Nostoc and Oscillatoria ).
(iv) By Hormospores
● Hormospores are sometimes also known as hormo-
cysts or pseudohormogonia.
● Bozi and Fremi (1930) observed that short segments
of living cells at the tips of trichomes become invested
by a thick, lamellated and pigmented sheath. Such
multicellular spore-like structures function as perennat-
ing bodies called hormospores.
● According to Desikachary (1916), hormospores ger-
minate in situ.
(v) By Akinete Formation
● Akinetes are specialized thick-walled resistant cells
formed generally in some heterocystous cyanobac-
teria.
Cyanophycin Granule Additional Wall Layer
Dense Fibrillar Layer
Sheath
Thylakoid
L-4
L-3
Inner Layer Plasma Membrane
L-2
L-1
Fig. : Cylindrospermum. Diagrammatic representation
of the structure of akinete as revealed under the
electron microscope (Based on Miller and Lang).
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 624
● Frequently they are developed singly next to a hetero-
cyst at the base of a trichome (e.g., Gloeotrichia).
● In certain cases they occur singly and are intercalary in
positions without any relation to the heterocyst. In still
others they occur in short chains (e.g. , Anabaena
cylindrica).
● Miller and Lang (1967) studied the akinete formation
and its germination in Cylindrospermum. According to
them, cell enlargement is the initial step towards the
differentiation of the vegetative cell into an akinete.
● Under suitable conditions of temperature and moisture,
through the pore, the germling emerges to form a new
individual.
Vegetative
Cells
Germinating
Akinete
A B C D E
Fig. : (A–E) Germination of Akinete. (A) Germination of
akinete in Anabaena sphaerica ; (B–D) Akinete of
Anabaena showing stages in germination;
(E) Calothrix fusca germination of akinete in situ.
(vi) By Exospores and Endospores
● In some epiphytic forms, or as in Chamaesiphon , deli-
cate cell wall ruptures apically exposing the protoplast
from which spherical spores are abstricted succes-
sively from its tip, these are called exospores. They
may germinate when already attached to the parent
protoplast giving rise to new individuals.
Endospores
Exospores
B
A C
Hormospore
D
Fig. : (A–D) Showing various types of spores; (A) Dermo-
carpa sp. with endospores (After Bomet and Thuret);
(B) Stichosiphon sensibaricus with endospores;
(C) Chamaesiphon sp. with exospores, (D) Westilela
lanosa showing hormospore formation.
● In a number of genera, especially in certain unicellular
members (e.g., Dermocarpa pacifica and Stichosi-
phon), small spores, known as endospores, are for-
med endogenously within a cell. They are formed by
successive divisions of the protoplast along three
planes.
(vii) By Nannocytes
● In certain non-filamentous cyanobacteria ( e.g., Mycro-
cystis), the cell contents divide repeatedly without any
cell enlargement. The successive divisions follow
closely one upon the other. A large number of
daughter cells, which are called nannocytes, are
produced in each parent cell. Each nannocyte germi-
nate in situ to give rise to new typical colony.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following spore(s) 8. Pseudovacuoles are present in—
is/are concerned with asexual (A) Anabaena
reproduction in cyanobacteria ? (B) Polycistis
(A) Exospores (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Endospores (D) None of the above
(C) Hormospores 9. Which of the following pigments
(D) All of the above of cyanobacteria is water-solu-
2. Cyanobacteria are— ble ?
(A) Photoautotrophs (A) Phycobilins
(B) Chemoautotrophs (B) Carotenoids
(C) Chemoheterotrophs (C) Chlorophyll
(D) Photoheterotrophs (D) All of the above

3. In cyanobacteria the cell area 10. Incipient nucleus is found in—

around the nucleoid is termed (A) Gymnosperms of high alti-
as— tude
(A) Centroplasm (B) Pteridophytes
(B) Centrosome (C) Angiosperms
(C) Chromoplasm (D) Cyanobacteria
(D) Nucleoplasm ANSWERS
4. The glyding bacteria that aggre-
gate to form spore-releasing fruit-
ing bodies under harsh condi-
tions are— ●●●
(A) Chlamydias (Continued from Page 617 )
(B) Actinomycetes
(C) Myxobacteria ANSWERS WITH HINTS
(D) All of the above
5. Which of the following members
of cyanobacteria is/are of colo-
nial form ?
(A) Aphanocapsa
(B) Aphanothece
(C) Gloeothece
(D) All of the above
6. Heterocysts of Nostoc are spe-
cialized for—
(A) Nitrogen fixation
(B) Photorespiration and photo-
synthesis
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
7. Polar nodule is generally present
in—
(A) Akinete
(B) Heterocyst
(C) Photosynthetic apparatus
(D) Cyanophycean cell wall ●●●

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 625

Genetic Code
The central dogma of molecular biology indicates that
the sequence of nucleotides in DNA and in RNA directs
the order of amino acids in a polypeptide. It appears that
there must be a code for each of the 20 amino acids
found in protein. But can four nucleotides provide enough
combination to code for 20 amino acids. If each code
word, called a codon, were made up of two bases, such
as AG, there would be only 16 codons which are not
enough to code for twenty amino acids. But if each codon
were made up of three bases, such as AGC, there would
be 64 codons (more than enough to code for 20 different
amino acids.
In 1960s it was proved by experimental evidence that
the genetic code is a triplet code and each codon,
therefore, consisting of three nucleotides.
Groundwork for Cracking the Genetic Code
M. Nirenberg and J. H. Matthaei (1961) performed
an experiment that laid the groundwork for cracking gene-
tic code. First, they found a cellular enzyme that could be
used to construct a synthetic RNA, and then they found
that the synthetic polymer could be translated in a cell-
free system. Their first synthetic RNA was composed only
of the amino acid phenylalanine. Therefore, the codon for
phenylalanine was known to be UUU. Latter, a cell-free
system was developed by Nirenberg and Philip Leder
in which only three nucleotides at a time were trans-
lated; in that way it was possible to assign an amino acid
to each of the RNA codons as shown in the following
figure :

Second Base
First Base Third Base
U C A G
UUU UCU UAU UGU
phenylalanine serine tyrosine cysteine U
UUC UCC UAC UGC
U phenylalanine serine tyrosine cysteine C
UUA UCA UAA UGA
leucine serine stop stop A
UUG UCG UAG UGG
leucine serine stop tryptophan G
CUU CCU CAU CGU
leucine proline histidine arginine U
CUC CCC CAC CGC
leucine proline histidine arginine C
C CUA CCA CAA CGA
leucine proline glutamine arginine A
CUG CCG CAG CGG
leucine proline glutamine arginine G
AUU ACU AAU AGU
isoleucine threonine asparagine serine U
AUC ACC AAC AGC
isoleucine threonine asparagine serine C
A AUA ACA AAA AGA
isoleucine threonine lysine arginine A
AUG (start) ACG AAG AGG
methionine threonine lysine arginine G
GUU GCU GAU GGU
valine alanine aspartate glycine U
GUC GCC GAC GGC
valine alanine aspartate glycine C
G GUA GCA GAA GGA
valine alanine glutamate glycine A
GUG GCG GAG GGG
valine alanine glutamate glycine G
Figure : Messenger RNA codons. Notice that in this chart, each of the codons (blue squares) is composed of three letters
representing the first base, second base and third base. For example, find the blue square where C for the first
base and A for the second base intersect. You will see that U, C, A, or G can be the third base. The three bases
CAU and CAC are codons for the histidine; the three bases CAA and CAG are codons for glutamine.

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 626

Important Property of Genetic Code
(1) The code is triplet—The genetic code is a triplet
code. Three adjacent bases, termed a codon, specify
one amino acid. The first, second and third bases repre-
sent 5′ to 3′ direction.
(2) The code is nonoverlapping—There is experi-
mental proof that code is nonoverlapping, that is, the
adjacent codons donot overlap, no base of a given triplet
shares the code of the adjacent triplet. The sequence
CCUCGA is read only as CCU and CGA and not as CCU,
CUC, UCA and CGA.
(3) The code is commaless—The genetic code is
commaless. There are no ‘punctuation marks’ (gaps) bet-
ween the coding triplets. After the one amino acid is
coded, the second amino acid will be automatically coded
by the next three bases.
(4) The code is universal—The same triplet code for
the same amino acids in all organisms. (A few triplets
code in mitochondrial DNA and some ancient bacteria
differ from the universal code).
(5) The code is degenerate—A given amino acid
may be coded by more than one codon.
(6) The code is non-ambiguous—While the amino
acid can be coded by more than one codon (degenerate
code as described above), the same codon shall not code
for two or more different amino acids (non-ambiguous).
(7) The code has start and stop signals—There is
only one start signal (AUG) but three stop signals (UAA,
UAG and UGA).
The triplet genetic code is made up of 64 three-base
code words called codons. Except for the stop codons, all
the codons code for amino acids.
Protein Synthesis
Central Dogma
● The central dogma of molecular biology explains the
manner in which genes are expressed, that is, pro-
duce a product.
The above diagram indicates that DNA not only serves
as a template for its own replication, it is also a tem-
plate for RNA formation.
● Crick, regarding the relationship of protein synthesis,
proposed the ‘central dogma’.
● DNA, as genetic material, controls the sole biometa-
bolic activity of cell or organism. This concept is known
as central dogma.
● The biosynthesis of protein is under the direct control
of DNA or genetic RNA where DNA is absent, for exa-
mple, in T.M.V.
● DNA while undergoes self-replication also controls the
synthesis of all kinds of non-genetic RNA and RNA
controls the synthesis of protein.
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 627
● The flow of information is unidirectional, i.e., from
DNA information is transported to RNA ( i.e., m -RNA)
and from RNA to protein.
Mechanism of Protein Synthesis
1. Transcription
● The process by which an m -RNA copy is made of a
portion of DNA is called transcription, which involves
the following steps :
(i) Promotor (P)
● Start signals from DNA are called promotors (P).
● Promotors have an ATP rich region some ten bases
before m RNA with the common sequence TATATAG.
● In addition to this region, enzyme also recognises a
DNA region located 35 bases before the start of m-
RNA called I-site (initiation site).
(ii) Binding to the Promotors (P) Site
● RNA polymerase recognises P-site with the help of a
protein factor called CAP-factor.
● The sigma factor of RNA polymerase recognises the
CAP-factor and help in opening of DNA duplex at its P-
site.
(iii) RNA Chain Initiation and Elongation
● Since 5’ end of many RNA has either PPPA or PPPG,
either ATP or GTP is probably bound by the enzyme at
P-site and becomes the initial 5’ terminal nucleotide
residue.
● The open or melted complex now initiates transcription
at I-site (adjacent to the P-site) in presence of nucleo-
side triphosphate.
● During elongation, RNA polymerase copies DNA
sequence accurately progressing at the speed of 30
nucleotides per second.
● Elongation of RNA nucleotide proceeds only in 5’ to 3’
direction.
(iv) RNA Chain Termination
● Termination of RNA molecule occurs when the energy
arrives at the stop signal on DNA.
● A termination factor, called rho factor, causes the
release of the transcribed RNA molecules.
● The termination signal recognised by RNA polymerase
on DNA is a GC rich region.
Many RNA polymerase molecules can be working to
produce m -RNA transcripts at the same time.
2. Translation
● The process by which an m-RNA transcript determines
the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide is called
translation. It involves the following steps :
(i) Activation of Amino Acid
● Amino acid is activated by the reaction with ATP in the
presence of specific enzyme aminoacyl synthetase
and Mg2+. In this process, amino acid adenylate is
formed and pyrophosphate (PP) is released.
● The amino acid is attached always at CCA end of
s-RNA.
(ii) Transfer of Amino Acid to t-RNA
● t -RNA reacts with citidine triphosphate (CTP) and ATP
before amino acid is transferred to it. AMP and amino-
acyl synthetase enzyme are released.
(iii) Initiation of Polypeptide Synthesis
● In the cytoplasm the ribosome is dissociated into two
subunits (30S and 40S subunits in prokaryotes and
40S and 60S subunits in eukaryotes).
● The 30S subunit attaches at the 5’ end of m -RNA
carrying AUG codon. This attachment is carried out in
the presence of protein factor (F3).
● The t -RNA carrying methionine t-met-t RNA binds
with 30S-m RNA complex. At this stage 50S of pro-
karyotic ribosome associates with 30S subunit and
forms 70S ribosome in presence of protein factor (F 2).
(iv) Elongation and Termination of Polypeptide Chain
Elongation of polypeptide chain involves the following
3 steps—
● Binding of AA-t RNA (aminoacyl complex) at the A-site
of ribosome.
● Formation of polypeptide bond.
● Translocation of peptidyl- t RNA from A- to P-site.
Termination of polypeptide chain involves the follow-
ing events—
● Polypeptide chain is released by the hydrolytic splitting
of the last polypeptide t -RNA ester linkage and ribo-
some is dissociated from m-RNA.
● Termination is brought about by UAA, UAG and UGA
(nonsense codons).

t-RNA Transfers Amino Acids

t-RNA molecules transfer amino acids to the ribo-
some. There is atleast one t-RNA molecule for each of
the twenty amino acids found in proteins. The amino acid
binds to one end of the molecule where there is a ACC
sequence. The other end of the molecule contains an
anticodon, a group of three bases that is complementary
to a specific codon of m -RNA. For example, a t-RNA that
has the anticodon GAA binds to the codon CUU and
carries the amino acid leucine. Because the anticodons of
t -RNA molecules bind to the codons of an m -RNA
molecule, the amino acids become sequenced in a poly-
Fig. : Several ribosomes (polysome) move along a
peptide according to the information provided by a gene.
m -RNA molecule at one time. They function
In other words, t-RNA molecules translate one language
independently of one another; therefore, seve-
(nucleic acids) into another language (protein).
ral polypeptides can be made at the same time.

1. If the sequence of bases in DNA
is TAGC, then the sequence of
bases in m -RNA will be—
(A) TAGC
(B) ATCG
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) AUCG
2. The term ‘central dogma’ was
coined by—
(A) Khorana (B) Crick
(C) Baltimore (D) Takhtazan
3. The shape of polypeptide is—
(A) Important to its function
(B) Dependent upon the pri-
mary structure
(C) Maintained by bonding bet-
ween parts of the polypep-
tide
(D) All of the above
4. Which one of the following ini-
tiates transcription of m-RNA on
DNA template ?
(A) t -RNA
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
(B) Sigma factor 8. The genetic code has been
(C) Both (A) and (B) worked out largely through the
effort of—
(D) Core enzyme
(A) Nirenberg
5. The codons which do not code (B) Mathaei
for amino acids code for— (C) Khorana
(A) Sugars (D) All of the above
(B) Start and stop signals
9. Several ribosomes are often
(C) Nonsense codons attached to and translating the
(D) Phosphate same m -RNA. The entire com-
plex is called—
6. Transcription requires—
(A) Polysome
(A) Ribonucleoside triphos-
phate (B) Anticodon
(C) Codon
(B) DNA template
(D) Cloverleaf
(C) RNA polymerase enzyme
10. Each ribosome contains—
(D) All of the above
(A) P-site
7. Who proposed the signal hypo- (B) A-site
thesis for selective translocation
(C) Both (A) and (B)
of m-RNA ?
(D) None of the above
(A) Kornberg and his associa-
tes ANSWERS
(B) Munago and Grunberg
(C) Blobel and Dobberstein
(D) Watson and Crick ●●●

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 628

 Column B
Model Paper for Various Medical Entrance Examinations
1. Senescence retardation in
detached leaves

BOTANY 2.
3.
Removal of red-drop
Inhibition of glycolysis by
oxygen
4. Inhibition of photosynthesis
1. Match Column A (Underground (C) Fusarium udum—Wilt of Ca- by oxygen
modifications of stem) with janus cajan (Arhar) (a) (b) (c) (d)
Column B (Different examples) (D) Tolyposporium penicillariae (A) 4 2 1 3
then select the correct answer —Smut of Bajra (B) 4 3 1 2
from the options given below—
7. The instrument ‘potometer’ is (C) 4 3 2 1
Column A Column B (D) 4 2 3 1
used to measure the—
(a) Rhizome 1. Onion (A) Ascent of sap 13. Periderm consists of—
(b) Stem tuber 2. Saffron (B) Transpiration (A) Phellogen
(c) Tunicated bulb 3. Turmeric (C) Respiratory quotient (B) Phellem
(d) Corn 4. Potato (D) Photosynthesis (C) Phelloderm
(a) (b) (c) (d) 8. Meiosis and mitosis differ from (D) All of the above
(A) 3 1 4 2 each other because in meiosis— 14. Dichogamy refers to—
(B) 3 4 1 2 (A) Number of chromosomes (A) Male sterility
(C) 4 3 1 2 get halved (B) Female sterility
(B) The four daughter nuclei for- (C) Male and female sex organs
(D) 2 3 1 4
med are not similar to paren- maturing at same times
2. Which one of the following state- tal one (D) Female and Male sex organs
ments is not correct regarding (C) Homologous chromosomes maturing at different times
Ulothrix ? pairs are exchanged parts 15. Of the 64 codons, how many
(A) It is commonly found in stag- (D) All of the above code for amino acids ?
nant alkaline water 9. Chitin is present in the cell wall (A) 20 (B) 61
(B) The plant body is filamen- of— (C) 29 (D) 4
tous (unbranched) (A) Green alga 16. Match Column A (Terms) with
(C) Isogamous type of sexual (B) Fungus Column B (Definition) then select
reproduction is found (C) Bacterium the correct answer from the
(D) Yeast and all green plants options given below :
(D) Usually 1-3 pyrenoids are
found in chloroplast 10. A model for the regulation of pro- Column A
tein synthesis after their studies (Terms)
3. The value of osmotic pressure of
pure water is— on the inducible system for the (a) Epipetalous
(A) 100 (B) 37 synthesis of β-galactosidase (b) Gynandrous
(C) 4 (D) 0 enzyme in E. coli was proposed (c) Polyadelphous
by— (d) Polyandrous
4. The pathogen of root rot of bean (A) Beadle and Tatum
is— Column B
(B) Jolly and Dixon
(A) Puccinia (Definition)
(C) Jacob and Monod
1. Stamens adhering to the
(B) Claviceps (D) Strasburger and Schmidt carpel
(C) Erysiphe 11. A virus that can reproduce without 2. Stamens united in many
(D) None of the above killing its host is called a— bundles
5. Ligulate strap-like corolla found in (A) Temperate virus 3. Stamens born on the petals
(B) Virion or corolla tube
sunflower is—
(C) Lytic virus 4. Androecium consisting of
(A) Ray florets free stamens
(B) Spikelets (D) All of the above
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) Immature florets 12. Match column ‘A’ with column ‘B’ (A) 1 4 3 2
(D) Disc florets and select the correct answer (B) 1 3 2 4
using the codes given below : (C) 3 1 4 2
6. Which of the following is not
Column A (D) 3 1 2 4
correctly matched ?
(A) Pythium debaryanum—Dam- (a) Warburg effect 17. Fungi in the division Oomycota
ping off of seedlings (b) Pasteur effect are known as—
(B) Fusarium oxysporum—Root (c) Emerson effect (A) Club fungi (B) Cup fungi
knot disease of potato (d) Richmond-Lang effect (C) Egg fungi (D) Sac fungi

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 629

18. Which of the following is a natu- 26. Which of the following is not a 35. The age of a twig can be deter-
ral opening other than stomata water soluble vitamin ? mined by counting its—
on the surface of plant through (A) Tocopherol (A) Nodes
which gaseous exchange may (B) Niacin (B) Internodes
take place ?
(C) Folic acid (C) Bud scale scars
(A) Hydathode
(D) Ascorbic acid (D) Lenticels
(B) Lenticel
(C) Pore 27. A moss plant is attached to its 36. Which of the following statements
substratum by elongated cells is/are correct regarding yeasts ?
(D) Transfusion tissue
called— (A) Yeasts are unicellular orga-
19. Dicotyledonous leaf possessing (A) Roots (B) Prothallus nisms
parallel venation belongs to the (C) Rhizoids (D) Protonema (B) Yeasts reproduce asexually
genus— either by mitosis or by budd-
(A) Pisum 28. FAD is derived from—
ing
(B) Lathyrus (A) Thiamin (B) Riboflavin
(C) Sacromyces cerevisiae is
(C) Calophyllum (C) Pyridoxine (D) Folic acid representative of budding
(D) All of the above 29. The greatest contributor of elec- yeasts
trons to the electron transport (D) All of the above
20. The Indian turpentine oil is obtai-
system is—
ned from— 37. Dionea , an isectivorous plant, is
(A) Glycolysis commonly known as—
(A) Pinus longifolia
(B) Transition reaction (A) Venus-fly trap
(B) Myristica fragrans
(C) Oxygen (B) Butterwort
(C) Syzygium aromaticum
(D) Krebs cycle (C) Pitcher plant
(D) Michelia champaca
30. Exalbuminous seeds are found (D) Bladderwort
21. Which of the following plants is
in—
commonly known as ‘spike 38. If a small leaf-like structure is
moss’ ? (A) Ricinus communis
present on the pedicel of flower
(A) Dryopteris (B) Cicer arietinum in between the bract and calyx of
(B) Selaginella (C) Tamarindus indica flower, it is called—
(C) Funaria (D) Both (B) and (C) (A) Thalamus (B) Carpophore
(D) None of the above 31. Which group of plant has vascular (C) Bracteole (D) Perianth
tissue, produces spores, but no
22. The edible part of peach is— 39. The glyding bacteria that aggre-
seeds ?
(A) Epicarp gate to form spore-releasing fruit-
(A) Angiosperms ing bodies under harsh conditions
(B) Endocarp
(B) Gymnosperms are—
(C) Epicarp and mesocarp
(C) Bryophyta (A) Zygomycetes
(D) Endosperm
(D) Pteridophyta (B) Chlamydiales
23. Which of the following ripe fruits 32. Plants with jointed stem and
explode suddenly when touched ? (C) Myxobacteria
hollow internodes are termed
(A) Oxalis corniculata (D) Actinomycetes
as—
(B) Impatiens balsamina (A) Scape (B) Lianas 40. Lichens are pioneers of vegeta-
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Culms (D) Offset tion in a—
(D) Mangifera indica (A) Holosere (B) Psammosere
33. Which of the following enzymes is
24. Plant movements that are not used to seal the foreign piece of (C) Hydrosere (D) Lithosere
oriented towards stimuli are DNA into the vector ? 41. Which of the following is/are
called— (A) DNA polymerase monosaccharide(s) ?
(A) Nastic movements (B) Oxidoreductase (A) Glucose
(B) Gravitotropism (C) DNA ligase (B) Fructose
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Endonuclease (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above (D) Sucrose
34. First few leaves on a stem,
25. The Indian Savanna grass different from other leaves, are 42. Which of the following is domi-
includes— called— nant in fern ?
(A) Sehima (A) Cataphylls (A) Gametophyte
(B) Dichanthum (B) Hypsophylls (B) Sporophyte
(C) Phragmites (C) Sporophylls (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) All of the above (D) Prophylls (D) None of the above

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 630

43. Genetic information in a DNA (C) Double-stranded nucleic
molecule is coded in the— acids with one DNA strand
(A) Base pairings (D) All of the above
(B) Sequence of nucleotides
(C) The turning pattern of the ANSWERS WITH HINTS
helix
(D) Proportion of each base
present
44. In flowering plant life cycle, each
microsporocyte undergoes meio-
sis to produce four haploid cells
called—
(A) Megaspores
(B) Microspores
(C) Megagametophyte
(D) All of the above
45. Forest trees do not survive well
without special fungi that form
associations, known as mycor-
rhyzae, with the higher plants—
(A) Stem (B) Root
(C) Leaf (D) Veinlets of leaf
46. The citric acid released in Krebs
cycle is—
(A) 4-carbon compound
(B) 6-carbon compound
(C) 3-carbon compound
(D) 5-carbon compound
47. The unwanted sound dumped
into the atmosphere leading to
health hazards, is known as—
(A) Decibel
(B) Sound recorder
(C) Sound pollution
(D) Nondisjunction
48. Which of the following statements
is/are correct ?
(A) Corolla is the second axillary
whorl composed of petals
(B) Petals may sometimes be
green or have some dull
colour like the sepals
(C) Petals are usually smooth
but sometimes the surface
may be hairy
(D) All of the above
49. The cambium of higher plants
during periodic or seasonal
activity forms—
(A) Protoderm (B) Periderm
(C) Annual ring (D) Pericycle
50. Which of the following can be
denatured ?
(A) Double-stranded nucleic
acids with two RNA strands
(B) Double-stranded nucleic
acids with one RNA strand ●●●

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 631

 15. The surrounding membrane of a
Model Paper for Various Medical Entrance Examinations
cell vacuole is called—
(A) Cell membrane

BOTANY (B) Tonoplast

(C) Plasmodesmata
(D) Nucleolus

1. Match Column A (Different pro- 6. In angiosperms, usually meiosis 16. A class of glycoproteins with anti-
tective devices in plants) with occurs in— viral activities is called—
Column B (Examples of Plants) (A) Spore mother cell (A) Antigen (B) Antibody
then select the correct answer (B) Endosperm (C) Interferon (D) Intron
from the options given below— (C) Both (A) and (B) 17. Twenty third pair of chromosomes
Column A (D) Meristems in man is known as—
(a) Dense covering hair (A) Autosome (B) Heterosome
7. Study of fungus is called—
(b) Thorn (C) Isotype (D) Biotype
(A) Phycology (B) Mycology
(c) Sticky glandular hair
(C) Malacology (D) Palynology 18. The basic idea of evolution is—
(d) Stinging hair
8. Growth rings are practically (A) Special creation
Column B
absent in— (B) Cosmic creation
1. Argemone mexicana
(A) Xylem (C) Descent with modification
2. Calotropis procera
(B) Phloem (D) Spontaneous generation
3. Girardiana
4. Boerhaavia (C) Both (A) and (B) 19. The common species which are
(D) None of the above more abundant and contain more
(a) (b) (c) (d)
biomass are considered to be—
(A) 2 1 3 4 9. In Clematis, the petiole is—
(A) Dominant
(B) 2 4 1 3 (A) Tendrillar
(B) Recessive
(C) 2 3 1 4 (B) Swollen and spongy
(C) Benthic
(D) 2 1 4 3 (C) Spiny
(D) None of the above
2. Alcoholic distillate obtained from (D) None of the above
20. An interaction between nonallelic
fermented sugar is known as— 10. Xenia indicates the effect of
genes in which an allele at one
(A) Rum (B) Gin pollen on—
locus prevents expression of an
(C) Alcohol (D) Vodka (A) Nucellus allele at another locus, but not
3. A stack of chlorophyll-containing (B) Somatic tissue vice-versa, is called—
thylakoids in a chloroplast is (C) Embryo (A) Modification
known as— (D) Endosperm (B) Collaboration
(A) Cytosol
11. The type of fruit in banana is— (C) Epistasis
(B) Granum
(A) Sorosis (B) Amphisarca (D) Complementation
(C) Stroma
(C) Berry (D) Capsule
(D) Electromagnetic spectrum 21. The rib meristem is also called—
12. The chief function of velamen (A) Plate meristem
4. Which of the following organisms
tissue is—
derives energy for nitrogen fixa- (B) Mass meristem
(A) Respiration
tion by performing photosynthe- (C) Both (A) and (B)
sis ? (B) Absorption of moisture
(C) Protection against insects (D) File meristem
(A) Bacillus (B) Anabaena
(D) None of the above 22. The distended condition of the
(C) Azotobacter (D) Rhizobium
13. In gymnosperms, the sporangia cell is termed as—
5. The biological definition of a formed on special leaflike struc- (A) Turgor
species depends on— tures is called— (B) Turgidity
(A) A reproductive isolation of (A) Indusia (B) Sporophylls (C) Turgescence
two groups of organisms (C) Sori (D) Calyptrogen (D) All of the above
(B) Differences in adaptations of
two groups of organisms 14. Permeable membrane allows the 23. Very high carbon/nitrogen ratio
diffusion of— causes—
(C) The geographical distribution
of two groups of organisms (A) Solute only (A) No flowering
(D) Anatomical and develop- (B) Ions only (B) No fruiting
mental differences between (C) Solvent only (C) Weak growth
groups of organisms (D) All of the above (D) All of the above

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 632

24. In Riccia, each antheridium deve-
lops from a single superficial cell
called—
(A) Primary antheridial cell
(B) Antheridial initial
(C) Androcyte
(D) Stalk cell
25. The mode of nutrition of bacteria
is usually—
(A) Chemoautotrophic
(B) Autotrophic and heterotro-
phic
(C) Photoautotrophic
(D) None of the above
26. Who among the following is popu-
larly known as ‘Father of Indian
Embryology’ ?
(A) J. C. Bose
(B) S. R. Kashyap
(C) P. Maheshwari
(D) M. S. Swaminathan
27. Xanthophyll is—
(A) Colourless pigment
(B) Red coloured pigment
(C) Green coloured pigment
(D) Yellow coloured pigment
28. Mechanical dispersal of seeds
and fruits is found in—
(A) Ozalis corniculata
(B) Entada gigas
(C) Impatiens balsamina
(D) All of the above
29. Chromosomes having almost
equal arms are known as—
(A) Telocentric (B) Metacentric
(C) Concentric (D) Acentric
30. The part of mushroom that is 41. Which type of water is usually
visible above the ground is—
(A) Zygospore (B) Basidiocarp
(C) Ascogonium (D) Ascocarp
31. Among elements in the proto-
plasm the highest percentage is
of—
(A) Oxygen (B) Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen (D) Carbon
32. Heterothallism was first dis-
covered by—
(A) Mehta (B) Kashyap
(C) Blakeslee (D) Alexopaulas 43. Which of the following is a sapro-
33. The endoskeleton of the cell is
made up of—
(A) Mitochondria and cell wall
(B) Cell wall
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 633
(C) Cytoplasm and nuclear pore 44. The osmotic quantity of a plant
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum cell includes—
(A) Osmotic pressure
34. Stacks of thylakoids, flattened
(B) Turgor pressure
membranous sacs or discs in
(C) Suction pressure
chloroplasts are known as—
(A) Vacuole (B) Tonoplast (D) All of the above
(C) Stroma (D) Grana 45. During water cycle, water falls on
35. Soil conservation includes— land enters the—
(A) Soil aeration (A) Aquifers
(B) Soil erosion (B) Ground water
(C) Soil protection (C) Surface water
(D) Soil fertilizers (D) All of the above
36. Milk is an example of— 46. Hydathodes are present at the tip
(A) Suspension (B) Emulsion of leaves of—
(C) Gel (D) Lather (A) Propaeolum
(B) Colocasia
37. Plant which yields latex similar to
para-rubber plant is— (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Parthenium argenatum (D) None of the above
(B) Carica papaya 47. An aquatic fern used as biofer-
(C) Thesium alpinum tilizer is—
(D) Both (B) and (C) (A) Salvia
38. Dry climate typically occurs at— (B) Azolla
(A) 90° latitude (B) 60° latitude (C) Marsilea
(C) 45° latitude (D) 30° latitude (D) None of the above
39. A liquid wax is obtained from— 48. The protein part of an enzyme is
(A) Guayule called—
(B) Jojoba (A) Holoenzyme
(C) Leucena (B) Apoenzyme
(D) None of the above (C) Isoenzyme
40. In a transverse section (T. S.) of (D) Prosthetic enzyme
Dryopteris rhizome (stem)
49. A polymer involves in—
appears to be irregular due to—
(A) Methylation
(A) Root hairs
(B) Hydrolysis
(B) Leaf bases
(C) Hydration
(C) Rhizoids
(D) None of the above (D) Condensation reaction
50. d GTP stands for—
used by the plants ? (A) Deoxyadenosine 5′-triphos-
(A) Capillary phate
(B) Hygroscopic
(B) Diacyl guanosine tripple
(C) Gravitational phosphate
(D) Rainwater and acid rain
(C) Deoxyadenosine 5′-tetra-
42. Ulothrix, an alga, belongs to monophosphate
class—
(D) None of the above
(A) Phaeophyceae
(B) Chlorophyceae
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
(C) Rhodophyceae
(D) Bacillariophyceae
phytic angiosperm ?
(A) Cascutta
(B) Neottia
(C) Eucalyptus
(D) Both (A) and (C)
 (Continued from Page 620 )
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Soft drinks such as colas contain
the significant quantity of—
(A) Renin
(B) Nicotine
(C) Caffeine
(D) None of the above
2. The alcoholic distillate from fer-
mented sugar is known as—
(A) Alcohol (B) Gin
(C) Vodka (D) Rum
3. The chief flavouring agents for
gins are—
●●● (A) Juniper berries
(B) Rye
(Continued from Page 564 )
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
4. The chemical formula of caffeine
is—
(A) C7H10O2N4.H2O
(B) C8H10O2N4.H2O
(C) C8H8O4N4.1/2 H2O
(D) C7H14O2N4.H2O
5. Which of the following is regar-
ded as a cross between black
and green tea ?
(A) Oolong tea
(B) Orange pekoe
(C) Leg-cut tea
(D) All of the above
6. Liqueurs are alcoholic beve-
rages prepared by combining—
(A) Plaque and glucose
(B) Spirit and certain flavouring
reagent
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
7. The unwashed coffee is known
as—
(A) Perchment coffee
(B) Plantation coffee
(C) Cherry coffee
(D) All of the above
8. Distilled pulque is called—
(A) Whisky (B) Brandy
(C) Rum (D) Tequila
9. What is the chemical formula of
nicotine ?
(A) C10H4N2 (B) C10H16N2
(C) C6H5NO2 (D) C6H10O12NO
ANSWERS

●●● ●●●

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 634

 allele at another locus, but not
Model Paper for Various Medical Entrance Examinations vice-versa, is called—
(A) Epistasis

BOTANY (B) Collaboration

(C) Pleiotrophy
(D) Complementation

7. ‘Apple scab’ disease is caused 15. A plant completing its life cycle
1. Match Column A (Placentation in
by— before the onset of dry conditions
plants) with Column B (Different
is said to be—
examples of plants or flowers) (A) Claviceps purpurea
then select the correct answer (A) Short day plant
(B) Citrus canker
from the options given below— (B) Long day plant
(C) Venturia inequalis
Column A Column B (C) Hydrophytes
(D) Plasmophora viticola
(a) Marginal 1. Papaw (D) Drought escaping
8. The plants of warm habitat which
(b) Axile 2. Lily 16. The earth, like other planets,
require high degree of heat
(c) Parietal 3. Pea throughout the year are kept formed from—
(d) Superficial 4. Water-lily under— (A) Collisions of meteors
(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) Sciophytes (B) Aggregates of uranium
(A) 3 2 1 4 (B) Thermophytes (C) Division of pre-existing
(B) 3 4 1 2 (C) Megatherms planets
(C) 3 1 2 4 (D) Halophytes (D) Clouds of gas and dust
(D) 3 1 4 2 17. Monocot leaves grow by—
9. Which of the following chromo-
2. The diploid number of chromo- somes are typically banded ? (A) Lateral meristem
somes— (A) B-chromosomes (B) Apical meristem
(A) Varies according to the parti- (B) Allosomes (C) Dermatogen
cular organism (C) Lampbrush chromosomes (D) Intercalary meristem
(B) Is the 2 n number (D) Polytene chromosomes 18. Plants with jointed stem and
(C) Was in the parent cell and is hollow internodes are known as—
in the two daughter cells 10. Epiblast present in certain mono-
cot embryo represents— (A) Culms
following mitosis
(A) Rudimentary leaves (B) Twinner
(D) All of the above are correct
(B) Scutellum (C) Scape
3. Transpiration occurs from— (D) Tendril climber
(C) Secondary cotyledon
(A) Roots (D) Mesocotyl 19. Endemic plants are those which
(B) Stems are—
11. What precentage is attributed by
(C) Leaves the t RNA of the total RNA in the (A) Restricted to a certain area
(D) All aerial parts of plants cell ? (B) Cosmopolitan in distribution
(A) 10–15% (B) 90–95% (C) Gregarious in habit
4. Anticodons are present on— (D) Found in arctic and antarctic
(C) 2–5% (D) 50–60%
(A) m RNA region densely
(B) t RNA 12. In Pteris, the archegonia are
20. The enzymes which are always
present near—
(C) r RNA present in the organism in cons-
(A) Anterior notch on upper sur- tant amounts regardless of their
(D) All of the above
face metabolic state are called—
5. Plankton in river or sea water (B) Posterior notch on lower sur- (A) Inductive enzymes
contains about— face (B) Constitutive enzymes
(A) 0·04 ppm DDT (C) Anterior notch on lower sur- (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) 7·5 ppm DDT face (D) Induced enzymes
(C) 0·75 ppm DDT (D) All of the above are correct
21. Genetic changes that take place
(D) 500 ppm DDT 13. Nucleolus is the site for the syn- during extended periods of tissue
6. The disease ‘Chlamydiosis’ is thesis of— culture process are termed—
caused by— (A) DNA (B) r RNA (A) Hybrid vigour
(A) A fungus (C) t RNA (D) m RNA (B) Somaclonal variation
(B) A bacterium 14. An interaction between nonallelic (C) Restriction fragment length
(C) A virus genes in which an allele at one polymorphism (RFLP)
(D) Nutrient deficiency locus prevents expression of an (D) Southern blotting

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 635

22. Annual rings are the number of—
(A) Internodes arranged on the
stem
(B) Rings of vascular bundles in
a monocot stem
(C) Layers of secondary xylem in
stem
(D) Both (B) and (C)
23. Which of the following is not a
homopolysaccharide ?
(A) Chitin
(B) Glycogen
(C) Gamma globulin
(D) Dextran
24. Pressure potential that increases
due to the process of osmosis is
often called—
(A) Turgor pressure
(B) Suction pressure
(C) Diffusion pressure deficit
(D) All of the above
25. Lomentum fruit type is found in—
(A) Psidium (B) Castor
(C) Apple (D) Tamarindus
26. A natural foodweb—
(A) Contains several trophic
levels
(B) Contains only one trophic
level
(C) Is usually unstable
(D) Contains only grazing food
chains
27. Galapagos islands are associa-
ted with the name of—
(A) Lamarck (B) Wallace
(C) Darwin (D) Linnaeus
28. An exergonic reaction is a/an—
(A) Oxidation reaction
(B) Anaerobic reaction
(C) Uphill reaction requiring input
of energy
(D) Spontaneous reaction in
which energy is released
29. Petrification is associated with—
(A) Replacement
(B) Mineralization
(C) Premineralization
(D) All of the above
30. In flowering plants, the mega-
sporophyte and microsporo-
phyte—
(A) Both produce pollen grains
(B) Both divide mitotically
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 636
(C) Both divide meiotically
(D) Produce pollen grains and
embryo sacs, respectively
31. Within the mitochondrion, the
proton gradient develops across
the—
(A) Inner membrane
(B) Outer membrane
(C) Matrix
(D) None of the above
32. The protoplasm is—
(A) Emulsion
(B) Suspension
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Colloidal complex
33. Which one of the following is an
example of biofertilizer ?
(A) Rhizobium
(B) Yeast
(C) Escherichia coli
(D) Chlamydomonas
34. The free energy in breaking down
of glucose into CO2 and H 2O is—
(A) Negative and endergonic
(B) Positive and endergonic
(C) Negative and exergonic
(D) Positive and exergonic
35. Sterols are not fats but solid
alcohols and included in lipids
because they form—
(A) Cholesterol
(B) Fats and fatty acids
(C) Ester and fatty acids
(D) Triglycerides
36. The transfer of minerals from top
soil to sub-soil through soil-water
is called—
(A) Leaching
(B) Percolation
(C) Conduction
(D) Transpiration
37. What is called a class of glyco-
proteins with antiviral activities ?
(A) Negative feedback
(B) Action potential
(C) Interferon
(D) Sigma factor
38. Gel electrophoresis—
(A) Measures the charge and
size of proteins and DNA
fragments
(B) Indicates whether viruses are
infectious
(C) Measures the size of plas-
mids
(D) All of the above are correct
39. The food reserves of most of the
yellow-green algae are—
(A) Fat (B) Starch
(C) Glycogen (D) Cellulose
40. Which of the following groups is
considered to contain true fungus
like protists ?
(A) Euglena
(B) Plasmodium
(C) Hypochytrids
(D) True slime molds
41. Which of the following is a small,
self-replicating circle of extra
DNA ?
(A) Autosome (B) Heterosome
(C) Oogamous (D) Plasmid
42. A test-cross distinguishes bet-
ween—
(A) A homozygous dominant and
the heterozygous form
(B) Two heterozygous forms
(C) A homozygous recessive and
a heterozygous form
(D) Two homozygous forms
43. A source of protons for the proton
gradient within a chloroplast is—
(A) Water
(B) Chlorophyll
(C) Phospholipids within the
thylakoid membranes
(D) CH2O
44. Which of the following provides
just right amount of energy for
biochemical reactions ?
(A) Visible light
(B) Ultraviolet radiation
(C) Infrared
(D) None of the above
45. In the lytic cycle of a bacterio-
phage, the host DNA is—
(A) Digested
(B) Replicated
(C) Turned on by removal of
protein coat
(D) Turned off by a protein coat
46. Various ribosomes move along
the same m RNA at a time which
are collectively called—
(A) Nucleotides
(B) Nucleosides
(C) Polysomes
(D) Polytene
47. Bryophytes acquire most of their
water through—
(A) True roots
(B) Underground cuplike struc-
tures called gemmae
(C) Above ground structures
(D) Mycorrhyzae
48. The dissolution or disintegration
of a cell is known as—
(A) Denaturation
(B) Cytogenesis ●●●
(C) Decimal reduction
(D) Cytolysis
49. Lycopods, horsetail and ferns
dominated the land during—
(A) Permian period
(B) Silurian period
(C) Cretaceous period
(D) Carboniferous period
50. Which of the following types of
selection favours the intermediate
phenotype ?
(A) Disruptive selection
(B) Stabilizing selection
(C) Directional selection
(D) Both (B) and (C)

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

●●●
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Upkar’s Physics 160/- 95/- Upkar’s Combined
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C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 637

 In each of the following ques- 5. Assertion (A) : Heating engi- Reason (R) : In photoelectric
tions, a statement of Assertion (A) neers use U-values, rather than equation
is given and a corresponding state- k -values while calculating heat 1
E = hν0 + mv 2
ment of Reason (R) is given just losses through walls, windows 2
below it. Of the statements, mark and roofs. 1
mv 2 is only the maximum K.E.
the correct answer as— Reason (R) : The U-value of a 2
(A) If both A and R are true single brick wall is 1·7 W m–2 K–1. of the photoelectron.
and R is the correct expla- (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
nation of A
(B) If both A and R are true but 6. Assertion (A) : In an adiabatic CHEMISTRY
R is not the correct expla- process, change in internal energy
nation of A of a gas is equal to the work done 11. Assertion (A) : All types of
on/by the gas in the process. electromagnetic radiations travel
(C) If A is true but R is false
Reason (R) : This is because the through space with same velocity.
(D) If both A and R are false Reason (R) : Different types of
temperature of the gas remains
(E) If A is false but R is true radiations have different wave-
constant in an adiabatic process.
length and, therefore, different
PHYSICS (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
frequencies.
7. Assertion (A) : When some (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
1. Assertion (A) : A metal has
metals are cooled towards abso- 12. Assertion (A) : The charge asso-
resistance and gets often heated
lute zero, a transition temperature ciated with one gram-ion of N3–
by flow of current.
is reached at which the resis-
Reason (R) : When free elec- ions is equal to 3 × 96500
tance suddenly falls to zero.
trons drift through a metal, they coulomb.
Reason (R) : Some specially Reason (R) : The charge asso-
make occasional collisions with
developed metal compounds ciated with one gram-equivalent
the lattice. These collisions are
have transition temperature of an ion is always 96500
inelastic and transfer energy to
above 100 K. coulomb.
the lattice as internal energy.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
8. Assertion (A) : The quantity L/R 13. Assertion (A) : The mass
2. Assertion (A) : Steel is more possesses dimension of time. number of an element is always
elastic than rubber. equal to atomic mass of that
Reason (R) : To reduce the rate
Reason (R) : Under a given element.
of increase of current through a
deforming force steel is deformed Reason (R) : Total number of
less than rubber. solenoid, we should increase the
protons and neutron is always
time constant (L/R).
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) same for all atoms of an element.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
3. Assertion (A) : The conduction
properties of a semiconductor can 9. Assertion (A) : According to 14. Assertion (A) : Sixty eight gram
be kept unchanged by doping it Lenz’s law, if an induced current (68 g) of hydrogen peroxide give
with tiny amount of impurities. flows, its direction is always such 22400 mL of oxygen at STP.
that it opposes the change in flux Reason (R) : One gram-molecule
Reason (R) : A diode can be
which produced it. of an oxy-compound always gives
made by doping a piece of silicon
22400 mL of oxygen at STP after
so that a current in one direction Reason (R) : Lenz’s law follows decomposition.
increases its resistance while a the law of conservation of energy.
current in the opposite direction (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Energy must be transferred to
decreases it. produce an induced current. 15. Assertion (A) :
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) CH2 —
— CH—CH — — CH2 is less
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
stable as compared to
4. Assertion (A) : The relative velo- 10. Assertion (A) : In photoelectric CH2 —— C—CH — — CH2
city of two photons travelling in equation |
opposite directions is equal to the CH3
1
velocity of light. E = hν 0 + mv 2
2 Reason (R) : More substituted
Reason (R) : The rest mass of 1 conjugated diene is more stable
photon is zero. mv 2 is the K.E. of all the photo- than less substituted diene.
2
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) electrons ejected. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 638

16. Assertion (A) : When a neutrali- 22. Assertion (A) : Restriction 29. Assertion (A) : The driving force
zation reaction between an acid enzymes are necessary for the for passive absorption is non-
and a base is complete, the tem- preparation of recombinant DNA metabolic in origin.
perature does not change on (r DNA). Reason (R) : The driving force
further addition of acid or base. Reason (R) : Because restriction for active absorption is energy
Reason (R) : The reaction bet- enzymes are not used to cleave derived from metabolic proce-
ween H + and OH – ions stops and plasmid DNA. sses.
temperature attains highest value (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
at this point.
23. Assertion (A) : Positive feed- 30. Assertion (A) : Diarrhea is a con-
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) back occurs during childbirth as dition in which there is frequent
17. Assertion (A) : o-nitrophenol has the pressure of the infants head defecation of liquid feces.
a higher boiling point than p-nitro- against the exit from the womb Reason (R) : Diarrhea occurs
phenol. stimulates stretch-sensitive rece- when the colon becomes irritated.
ptors. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Reason (R) : Intramolecular
Reason (R) : Positive feedback
hydrogen bonding occurs in o -
nitrophenol.
systems are relatively rare in the BOTANY
human body.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 31. Assertion (A) : Most leaves con-
18. Assertion (A) : When potassium 24. Assertion (A) : Baro receptor is sist of a flattened blade and a
iodide solution is added to an the receptor for the hydrostatic supporting, stalklike petiole.
aqueous solution of copper pressure caused by blood. Reason (R) : Leaves may be
sulphate, a white precipitate is arranged in different patterns on
Reason (R) : Receptors of atrium
formed. stems, which minimises sun
stimulate the cardio-acceleratory
Reason (R) : The iodide ion pre- centre, helping regulate blood exposure.
sent in final product of reaction pressure. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
between copper sulphate and KI (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 32. Assertion (A) : With the increase
is responsible for formation of
25. Assertion (A) : Sebaceous in relative humidity of atmosphere,
white precipitate.
glands provide water resistance, the rate of transpiration
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) lubrication and antibacterial decreases.
19. Assertion (A) : Both cyclopro- action. Reason (R) : If the atmospheric
pane and propene undergo addi- Reason (R) : These glands sec- air is humid it will reduce the
tion reactions readily. rete oily sebum to coat hair shaft diffusion of water vapour from
and epidermis. intercellular spaces of leaf to the
Reason (R) : Cyclopropane and
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) outer atmosphere.
propene are isomers of each
other. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
26. Assertion (A) : The target cells of
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) a hormone always have special 33. Assertion (A) : The antibiotic
receptors to which the hormone ‘Penicillin’ inhibits bacterial multi-
20. Assertion (A) : Phenol is acidic in
binds. plication.
nature but it does not liberate
carbondioxide on reacting with Reason (R) : The part of the Reason (R) : Penicillin checks
sodium bicarbonate. brain with the greatest influence RNA synthesis.
Reason (R) : Phenol is the over the endocrine system is (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
stronger acid than carbonic acid hypothalamus.
34. Assertion (A) : Presence of
and hence it displaces carbonic (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) cystoliths is characteristic of
acid from NaHCO3. families like Utricaceae.
27. Assertion (A) : Regulation and
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) coordination of salivary glands Reason (R) : A cell containing a
are accomplished by the autono- cystolith is known as lithocyst.
ZOOLOGY mic division of nervous system. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Reason (R) : Hormones do not
21. Assertion (A) : Metabolic disor- 35. Assertion (A) : An organism’s
participate in this process.
ders result from a failure to appearance does not always
chemically process raw materials (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) reveal its alleles.
or waste products. 28. Assertion (A) : Leucosolenia Reason (R) : The genotype des-
Reason (R) : They are often belong to phylum coelenterata. cribes the organism’s alleles,
caused by a defective protein, Reason (R) : The colony of Leu- while the phenotype describes
perhaps a defective enzyme, cosolenia is whitish or yellowish in the outward expression of an
receptor, or hormone. colour. allele combination.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 639

36. Assertion (A) : Flowers are com- movement of daughter chromo- Reason (R) : Storage leaves are
plete in sub-class Monochlamy- somes at anaphase during cell floral leaves that protect develop-
deae. division. ing flowers.
Reason (R) : In this sub-class (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
flowers usually possess only one
whorl of perianth, which is sepa- 38. Assertion (A) : All the various 40. Assertion (A) : Speciation is the
loid. genes of a population make up its formation of one or more new
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) gene pool. species from an existing species.
Reason (R) : The Hardy-Wein-
37. Assertion (A) : A motor mole- Reason (R) : Speciation can take
berg equilibrium is a constancy
cule of kinetochore accounts for place in two modes based on the
of gene pool.
the movement of daughter chro- geographical relationships of a
mosomes during anaphase of (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
new species to its ancestral
cell division. 39. Assertion (A) : Tendrils of plants species.
Reason (R) : Dyenin found in such as cacti are leaves modified
kinetochore accounts for the to protect the plant. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 640

 14. Equal masses of helium and oxygen gases are given
Physics equal quantities of heat. There will be a greater rise in
the temperature of helium as compared to that of
1. A line of force in an electric field is the path traced by oxygen.
a unit positive charge, free to move in that field. —T/F
—T/F 15. In order to hit a target, a man should point his rifle in
2. Taking the radius of the earth as 6400 km, its capaci- the same direction as the target.
tance should be 711 μF. —T/F
—T/F
3. In a Young’s double slit experiment, performed with a Chemistry
source of white light, only black and white fringes are
observed. 16. All amino acids form zwitter ions at all pH values and
—T/F they have nearly same isoelectric points.

4. A current flows in a conductor only when there is an —T/F

electric field within the conductor. 17. The acid strength of alcohols decreases in the order
—T/F R
| R
5. Across any length segment of a current path in an R—C—OH > CHOH > R—CH2OH
electric circuit, there must be a potential difference. | R
—T/F R
6. The product of magnetic susceptibility and absolute —T/F
temperature for a paramagnetic substance is a cons- 18. Benzaldehyde is condensed with aniline in presence
tant. of anhydrous zinc chloride, to give a Schiffs base.
—T/F —T/F
7. An electric line of force in the x-y plane is given by the 19. Benzaldehyde on treatment with concentrated solution
equation x 2 + y 2 = 1. A particle with unit positive of NaOH undergoes a disproportionation reaction.
charge, initially at rest at the point x = 1, y = 0, in the —T/F
x -y plane, will move along the circular line of force.
20. The specific optical rotation of freshly prepared solu-
—T/F tion of glucose decreases slowly and finally becomes
8. A substance gives yellow fluorescence when white constant.
light is incident in it. It gives no fluorescence when red —T/F
light or infrared rays are incident on it.
21. At lower concentration of electrolytes, the aggregation
—T/F of sol particles is known as flocculation which can be
9. All points on the same horizontal must lie in the same reversed on shaking.
plane. —T/F
—T/F 22. The maximum number of electrons which can be
10. The whole charge of a conductor cannot be trans- placed in an orbital with angular quantum number, 2
ferred to another isolated conductor. will be ten.
—T/F —T/F
11. A ring of radius ‘R’ carries a uniformly distributed 23. For the equilibrium H2O (l) H2O(g) at 1 atm pres-
charge + Q. A point charge – q is placed on the axis
sure and 25°C, the standard free energy change is
of the ring at a distance 2R from the centre of the ring
and released from rest. The particle executes a equal to zero.
S.H.M. along the axis of the ring. —T/F
—T/F 24. Aniline on direct nitration with a mixture of concen-
12. The root-mean square speeds of the molecules of trated HNO3 and concentrated H 2SO4 gives ortho and
different ideal gases at the same temperature are the para nitroaniline.
same. —T/F
—T/F 25. Chlorobenzene of reacting with KCN easily give
13. Snow is better heat insulator than ice. aromatic nitrile.
—T/F —T/F

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 641

26. The normal density of a gas is equal to the product of 44. Pulse rate is equivalent to heart rate.
vapour density of gas and normal density of hydrogen. —T/F
—T/F 45. The haemoglobin of the foetus has a greater affinity
27. Element A combine with B to give AB and with C to for O2 than does adult haemoglobin.
give A2C, the formula of the compound formed by B —T/F
and C will be B2C.
—T/F
Botany
28. Carbon monoxide (CO) is a neutral oxide and hence it
can be easily dried over concentrated sulphuric acid.
46. The corn is really a solid very much condensed
—T/F vertical rootstock with a large apical bud.
29. The pair of oxides of copper having formulae CuO and
—T/F
Cu 2O illustrates the law of multiple proportions.
47. Sub-metacentric chromosome has unequal arms and
—T/F
assume L or J-shaped.
30. When excess ethyl alcohol is heated with concen-
trated sulphuric acid one mole of water is eliminated —T/F
per mole of alcohol. 48. Agranal chloroplast bears bundle sheath in sugarcane
—T/F leaves.
—T/F
Zoology 49. Fruitfly having four pairs of chromosomes will have
four linkage groups.
31. Parts of nervous system that regulates digestion is —T/F
peripheral nervous system.
50. Leaves must synthesize amino acids before they can
—T/F make any proteins.
32. Analogous organs explain ‘Divergent evolution’.
—T/F
—T/F
51. Rhizophora is a viviparous mangrove plant.
33. The ridges and lines of finger tips forming finger prints
are produced by epidermis. —T/F
—T/F 52. In leaves, branched and non-articulated laticifers are
34. Descent with modification is the central theme of not found.
evolution. —T/F
—T/F 53. Biological oxygen demand is the amount of oxygen
35. Lymphatic capillaries remove excess fluids from required for biological oxidation by microbes in any
tissues. unit volume of water.
—T/F —T/F
36. Duct of Botallo is vascular connection between aortic 54. In Allium, the megaspore mother cell divides only
arch IV and aortic arch VI. once giving rise to two haploid cells one of which
—T/F develops a bisporic embryo sac.
37. Exocytosis transport materials out of cells. —T/F
—T/F 55. Materials of biological origin that are applied com-
38. Skull of humans is monocondylic. monly to maintain and improve soil fertility are known
—T/F as biofertilizers.
39. Eccrine glands secrete sweat and apocrine glands —T/F
secrete oils. 56. Xylem transport usually organic nutrients from the
—T/F leaves to the roots.
40. Haversian system or osteon are anatomical unit of —T/F
compact bone.
57. Nucleoli are chiefly formed by chromatin.
—T/F
—T/F
41. Mucous cells of small intestine release enzymes
disaccharidase and peptidase. 58. The trace element which causes the ‘black necrosis’
of stem due to the deficiency of boron.
—T/F
42. Part of nervous system that regulates digestion is —T/F
peripheral nervous system. 59. The causal organism of ‘black rust of wheat’ is
—T/F Puccinia graminis , a fungus.
43. Protein catabolism breaks down cellular protein mole- —T/F
cules into their individual amino acids which can be 60. Actual amounts of trace elements range from as little
used as a source of energy during dieting or starva- as 2-3 parts in 100 million parts upto 10–100 parts in
tion. 100 million.
—T/F —T/F

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 642

 Physics
Q. What is the unit cell of a
crystal ?
☞

Q. A thin wheel can stay upright

Q. Why are neutrons better
Q. What is Presbyopia ? particles than protons or α -parti-
☞ cles for bombarding atomic nuclei ?
☞
on its rim for a considerable length
of time when rolled with a con-
siderable velocity, while it falls
from its upright position at the
slightest disturbance, when sta-
tionary. Explain.
☞

Q. Why is it that only Lyman

series is found in the absorption
spectrum of hydrogen atom ? Q. Mountain roads rarely go
Q. What are fluorescence, straight up the slope but wind up
phosphorescence and calores- ☞
slowly. Why ?
cence ? ☞
☞

Chemistry
Q. What the candles are made
up of ?
Q. The magnitude of the resul- ☞
Q. What are the laws of fric-
tant of two equal vectors may be
tion ?
equal to the magnitude of each of
☞
them. Explain.
☞

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 645

 Q. What is the quick vinegar
process ?
☞

Q. What are essential oils ?

☞

Q. Why is the dipole moment of

CHCl3 is less than that of CH Cl ?
☞

Q. The reaction which is known Q. What are the important uses

as chemical volcano reaction. of liquid crystals ?
☞ ☞

Q. Why is the boiling point of

H2O (100°° C) much higher than that
of HF (–83°° C), even though both
form hydrogen bonds and have
similar molecular weights ?
Q. What is the induced radio- ☞
activity ?
☞

Q. What is the Olestra ?

☞

Q. What is hydrogenolysis of
oils and fats ?
☞ Q. How is gas density calcu-
lated from ideal gas equation ?
☞
Q. What do you mean by per
cent yield of a product of a certain
reaction ?
☞

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 646

 Zoology
Q. What are autoimmune
diseases ?
☞

Q. What are Mnemonic devices ?

☞

Q. What is staph food poison-

ing ?
☞

Botany
Q. What is Persian melon ?
What important elements does it
Q. What are Introns and contain ?
Exons ? ☞
☞

Q. What is enthalpy and free

energy ?
☞
Q. What is cellobiose ? What is
its chemical constituent ?
☞

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 647

 (Continued from Page 640 )

Q. What is Eumycota ? What

are its characteristics ?
☞
Q. What do you mean by micro-
bial biofilms ?
☞

Q. What is raffinose ? Where is

it synthesized in plant ?
☞

Q. How does t-RNA transfer

amino acid during protein synthe-
sis ?
☞

●●●

Just
Released

Q. What do you mean by inter-

vening nontranscribed sequences
in eukaryotic genes ?
☞
By : Dr. Vijay Agarwal
Translated by : Nidhi Sahni
Code No. 1647 Price : Rs. 90/-
HINDI EDITION
Code No. 215 Rs. 110/-
UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2
● E-mail : publisher@upkar.in ● Website : www.upkar.in
●●●

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 648

 1. The winner of the Sony Ericsson
Open is—
(A) Serena Williams
(B) Venus Williams
(C) Victoria Azarenka
(D) Dinara Safin
2. Recently earthquake struck—
(A) France
(B) Germany
(C) The Netherlands
(D) Italy
3. India recently won cricket Test
series against—
(A) Australia
(B) New Zealand
(C) England
(D) None of the above
4. India has recently launched its
biggest ever auction of—
(A) Public Sector undertakings
(B) Gold and properties
(C) Oil and gas blocks
(D) None of the above
5. The winner of Azlan Shah Hockey
Tournament is—
(A) Argentina (B) India
(C) Chile (D) Pakistan
6. Chandrayaan-1 has sent back
recently—
(A) Three full earth images of
earth
(B) First full earth image
(C) Two full earth images
(D) None of the above
7. Who among the following was
recently disqualified from the
Australian Grand Prix ?
(A) Lewis Hamilton
(B) Felipe Massa
(C) Casey Stoner
(D) None of the above
8. G-20 summit was recently held
in—
(A) Johannesburg
(B) Manila
(C) New York
(D) London
9. The number of Jobless people
may grow in 2009 by more than—
(A) Ten crore
(B) Six crore
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 649
(C) Five crore 18. The winner of Qatar Motor GP
(D) Seven crore is—
(A) Casey Stoner
10. India has been ranked…………in
networked readiness index. (B) Lewis Hamilton
(C) Felipe Massa
(A) 54th (B) 53rd
(D) Fernando Alonso
(C) 55th (D) 52nd
19. The award which is an equal to
11. The winner of Malaysian Grand Nobel Prize in Architecture is—
Prix is—
(A) Pulitzer Prize
(A) Lewis Hamilton
(B) Abel Prize
(B) Jenson Button
(C) Pritzker Prize
(C) Felipe Massa
(D) None of the above
(D) None of the above
20. The winner of Indian Open
12. Who has won the ATP Tour’s Badminton Championship is—
Stefan Edbers sportsmanship
(A) Muhammad Hafiz Hashim
award for a record fifth consecu-
(B) Taufik Hidayat
tive year ?
(C) Choong Tan Fook
(A) Rafael Nadal
(D) Lee Wan Wah
(B) Roger Federer
(C) Mahesh Bhupati 21. The top golf player currently is—
(D) None of the above (A) Tiger Woods
(B) Phil Mickelson
13. Goce is a—
(C) Sergio Garcia
(A) Satellite by EU
(D) Geoff Ogilvy
(B) China’s future moon mission
(C) Japanese Space Mission 22. The Internet marked on March
(D) None of the above 13, 2009 its—
(A) 30th anniversary
14. LOHAFEX is a/an—
(B) 25th anniversary
(A) Antarctic Expedition
(B) Artificial brain (C) 20th anniversary
(D) 40th anniversary
(C) Chinese Lunar Mission
23. According to a recent UN report
(D) None of the above
Indian Economy for 2009 may
15. The first person to travel to
space is— grow at the rate of—
(A) 6% (B) 7%
(A) Anna Bligh
(C) 8% (D) 10%
(B) Mardy Fish
24. Pi Hongyan has recently won the
(C) Charles Simonji
women’s title of—
(D) None of the above
(A) Indian Open Tennis Cham-
16. India on April 15, 2009 test-fired
pionship
a nuclear version of nuclear cap-
able— (B) Indian Open Badminton
Championship
(A) Akash Missile
(C) Indian Volleyball Cham-
(B) Prithvi-II Ballistic Missile
pionship
(C) Naag Missile
(D) None of the above
(D) Trishul Missile
25. Michelle Bachelet is the President
17. The Coveted Ramnath Goenka of—
Excellence in Journalism Awards (A) Argentina (B) Peru
have been conferred on— (C) Chile (D) Bolivia
(A) 30 Journalists 26. How many countries are there in
(B) 29 Journalists G-20 grouping ?
(C) 25 Journalists (A) 20 (B) 25
(D) 40 Journalists (C) 22 (D) 23
27. The 5th World Water Forum was 37. During recession World Billion-
recently held in— aires Club has lost—
(A) Istanbul (B) London (A) $ 2 trillion (B) $ 3 trillion
(C) New York (D) Cairo (C) $ 4 trillion (D) $ 5 trillion
28. The Indian state where 40% girls 38. Who is presently the richest/
marry before 18 is— wealthiest person of the world ?
(A) Chhattisgarh (A) Warren Buffet
(B) Uttar Pradesh (B) Lawrence Ellison
(C) William Gates III
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Mukesh Ambani
(D) Rajasthan
39. The Chameli Devi Jain Award
29. JEM stands for— has jointly been shared by—
(A) Justice for Equality and (A) Shabana Azmi and Vineeta
Movement Deshmukh
(B) Justice and Equality Move- (B) Shabana Azmi and Nirupam
ment Subramanian
(C) Justice and Equality Mass (C) Nirupam Subramanian and
Movement Vineeta Deshmukh
(D) Justice and Envy Movement (D) None of the above
30. The prestigious Abel Prize has
40. Who among the following three is
been bagged by—
not the finalist of Times Maga-
(A) K. Sri Nath Reddy
zine most influential people of
(B) H. Sudarshan
2009 ?
(C) Sivathanu Pillai
(A) Laxmi Mittal
(D) Mikhail Gromov
(B) Sonia Gandhi
31. DRDO successfully tested an
(C) Ratan Tata
interceptor missile from the
Wheeler island off the Orissa (D) Mukesh Ambani
Coast for—
(A) The third time ANSWERS WITH HINTS
(B) The fourth time
(C) The second time
(D) The fifth time
32. “Bold Endeavours—How our
Government Built America, and
Why it Must Rebuild Now” is a
book written by—
(A) Joseph Stylitz
(B) Lind J. Bilms
(C) Felix Rohatyn
(D) None of the above
33. World No-Tabocco Day is
observed on—
(A) 31 May (B) 28 May
(C) 26 May (D) 20 May
34. The winner of Deodhar Trophy
is—
(A) East Zone (B) West Zone
(C) North Zone (D) South Zone
35. 17th Senior National Women’s
Football Championship has been
won by—
(A) Meghalaya (B) Manipur
(C) Tripura (D) Mizoram
36. The best ranked golf player of
India is—
(A) Jyoti Randhawa
(B) Jeev Milkha Singh
(C) Arjun Atwal
(D) S.S.P. Chourasia ●●●

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 650

 Directions—(Q. 1–3) Following 6. If the positions of the first and the 10. 639δ8$
questions are based on the infor- second digits of each of the (A) JAIBFV (B) XAIBFX
mation given below— numbers are interchanged, which (C) VAIBFJ (D) JAIBFJ
(i) ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is mother of the following will be the third
(E) None of these
of Q’. digit of the second highest num-
ber ? 11. %8562δ
(ii) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is sister of
Q’. (A) 3 (B) 7 (A) WFEJMB (B) XFEJMX
(iii) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is brother (C) 9 (D) 5 (C) BFEJMW (D) BFEJMB
of Q’. (E) 8 (E) None of these
(iv) ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is father of Directions—(Q. 7–12) In each 12. 94%★$7
Q’. question below is given a group of (A) IWPRVU (B) IPWQVU
1. Which of the following means ‘M digits/symbols followed by four com- (C) UPWQVI (D) IPWVQU
is nephew of N’ ? binations of letters (A), (B), (C) and
(E) None of these
(A) M + R – N (D). You have to find out which of the
(B) N ÷ T – M + J four combinations correctly repre- Directions—(Q. 13–17) Study
(C) N ÷ T – M ÷ J sents the group of digits/symbols the following information carefully and
(D) N + T × M ÷ J based on the following coding system answer the questions given below—
(E) None of these and mark the number of that combi- B, D, F, H, K, W, M and T are
2. Which of the following means ‘R nation as your answer. If none of the sitting around a circle facing at the
is paternal grandfather of T’ ? combinations correctly represents the centre. F is third to the left of D who is
(A) T ÷ K – M – R group of digits/symbols, mark (E) i.e., second to the left of H. B is fourth to
(B) R × M + T + D ‘None of these’ as your answer. the right of H. K is third to the right of
(C) R – M – T ÷ D Digit/Symbol : M who is not an immediate neighbour
(D) R – M × T ÷ D 8@1 3 © 9 % 5★7#6 $ 42δ of F. T is not an immediate neighbour
(E) None of these of B or D.
Letter Code :
13. Who is to the immediate right of
3. How is K related to D in the FHRADIWEQUTJV P M B
T?
expression : D ÷ F – T + K ? Conditions : (A) K
(A) Nephew (i) If the first unit in the group is (B) F
(B) Niece a symbol and the last unit is (C) H
(C) Nephew or Niece an odd digit, the codes are
(D) Data inadequate
(D) Data inadequate to be interchanged.
(E) None of these
(E) None of these (ii) If the first unit in the group is
an even digit and the last 14. Who is second to the left of B ?
Directions—(Q. 4–6) These
questions are based on the five three- unit is a symbol, both are to (A) T
digit numbers given below— be coded as ‘X’. (B) K
813 967 429 295 648 (iii) If both the first and the last (C) D
4. If the positions of the first and the units of the group are (D) Data inadequate
third digits in each of the numbers symbols, both are to be (E) None of these
are interchanged, which of the coded as the code for the 15. Who is sitting between D and B ?
following will be the middle digit first unit. (A) T (B) F
of the lowest number ? 7. 5★679# (C) M (D) W
(A) 1 (B) 6 (A) TQJUIE (B) XQJUIX (E) Data inadequate
(C) 2 (D) 9 (C) TQJUIT (D) EQJUIT 16. Who is third to the left of H ?
(E) 6 (E) None of these (A) W
5. If the positions of the second and 8. @195%8 (B) F
the third digits in each of the (A) HRIEWF (B) XRIEWX (C) B
numbers are interchanged, which (C) HRIFWH (D) FROEWH (D) Data inadequate
of the following will be the sum of
(E) None of these (E) None of these
the three digits of the highest
number ? 9. ©3%249 17. What is T’s position with respect
(A) 12 (B) 22 (A) XAWMPX (B) DAWMPI to W ?
(C) 15 (D) 16 (C) IAWMPD (D) IWMAPD (A) Third to the right
(E) 18 (E) None of these (B) Third to the left

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 651

 (C) Second to the left 25. If only each of the consonants in 30. The first and third digits of each
(D) Second to the right the word GROUNDS is changed number are interchanged. After
(E) None of these to the next letter in the English this arrangement which one in
alphabet, which of the following the following will be the second
18. How many such pairs of letters will be the third letter from the smallest number ?
are there in the word REFORM right end ? (A) 857 (B) 391
each of which has as many letters
(A) O (B) U (C) 482 (D) 576
between them in the word as in
(E) 214
the English alphabet ? (C) S (D) V
(A) None (B) One 31. As ‘Bright’ is related to ‘Dim’, in
(E) None of these
the same way high is related to—
(C) Two (D) Three
26. What should come next in the (A) low (B) sky
(E) More than three
following letter series ? (C) field (D) pit
19. Four of the following five are alike (E) None of these
AACACEACEGACEGI
in a certain way and so form a
ACEGI 32. Four of the following five are
group. Which is the one that
alike in a certain way and so
does not belong to that group ? (A) J (B) K
form a group. Which is the one
(A) 19 (B) 35 (C) A (D) L that does not belong to that
(C) 15 (D) 21 (E) None of these group ?
(E) 27 (A) Mars (B) Jupiter
27. Mohan walked 20 metre towards
20. In a certain code BOARD is (C) Earth (D) Uranus
North, took a left turn and
written as ‘53798’ and TRAIN is (E) Moon
walked 10 metre, then he took a
written as ‘29714’. How is BAIT 33. In a certain code ‘BOND’ is
right turn and walked 20 metre,
written in that code ? written as ‘APME’. How is
again he took a right turn and
(A) 5714 (B) 5412 ‘MALE’ written in that code ?
walked 10 metre. How far is he
(A) NZMD (B) LBKF
(C) 5712 (D) 5912 now from the starting point ?
(C) NBMF (D) NBKE
(E) None of these (A) 20 metre (E) None of these
21. How many such digits are there (B) 30 metre 34. How many such pairs of digits
in the number 84315269 each of are there in the number
which is as far away from the (C) 40 metre
‘54386179’ each of which has as
beginning of the number as when (D) Cannot be determined many digits between them in the
the digits are rearranged in (E) None of these number as in the number after
ascending order ? arranging in descending order ?
Directions—(Q. 28–30) Follow-
(A) None (B) One (A) One (B) Two
ing questions are based on the five
(C) Two (D) Three three digit numbers given below— (C) Three (D) Four
(E) More than three 857 391 482 576 214 (E) More than four
22. Four of the following five are alike 35. Four of the following five are
28. If the positions of the first and the
in a certain way and so form a alike in a certain way and so
third digits in each number are
group. Which is the one that does form a group. Which is the one
interchanged, which of the follow- that does not belong to that
not belong to that group ?
ing will be the highest number group ?
(A) Fluorine (B) Methane after the rearrangement ? (A) BD (B) KM
(C) Hydrogen (D) Chlorine
(A) 857 (B) 391 (C) HK (D) PR
(E) Nitrogen (E) TV
(C) 482 (D) 576
23. How many meaningful English
(E) 214
words can be made with the
letters ODME using each letter 29. If ‘1’ is added to the first digit in
only once in each word ? each number and ‘1’ is sub-
(A) None (B) One tracted from the middle digit in
(C) Two (D) Three each number and five new
(E) More than three numbers are obtained, which of
the following will be the middle
24. ‘BE’ is related to ‘FI’ and ‘LO’ is
digit of the second highest
related to ‘PS’ in the same way
as ‘RU’ is related to— number ?
(A) VY (B) WZ (A) 6 (B) 7
(C) VZ (D) VX (C) 8 (D) 4
(E) None of these (E) 0

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 652

 According to the rules of the CSV
Quiz, all entry forms were examined.
As a result, the following participants
have qualified for various prizes. CSV
sends them greetings and good
wishes for their bright future. It also
places on record its appreciation for
their inquisitive nature and expresses
obligation for their co-operation.

PRIZE WINNERS
First Prize
Vijay Kumar
New Medicare
L. B. Palace, Kadam Kuan, Patna
Bihar–800 003
Second Prize
Rahul Kumar Singh
S/o Shobha Sinha
Nooranibagh Colony–5A,
P.O.–Gulzarbagh, Patna
Bihar–800 007
Third Prize
Ravi Jaiswal
C/o Gaurav Jaiswal
Room No. 88, A. N. Jha Hostel,
University of Allahabad, Allahabad
U.P.–211 002

●●●

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 655

 1. Two infinitely long linear charges, 7. The alkene reacts with one mole- 14. In amphibians, courtship beha-
having 1 C/m charge each, are cule of hydrogen to give a com- viour helps individuals—
kept parallel at 1 m apart. Force pound which contains only one (A) Locate breeding sites
per unit length by one linear asymmetrical carbon atom. The
(B) Identify potential mutes
charge on the other will be— structure of alkene is—
100 1 CH3 CH3 (C) Prepare individuals for repro-
(A) N (B) N duction
πε0 4πε0 | |
(A) C3H7 — CH—C == CH2 (D) All of the above
λ2 1
(C) (D) N H 15. Which of the following animals
2πε0 2πε0 |
is/are induced ovulator(s) ?
2. For what value of R in the given (B) CH3—C == CH2
C2H5 (A) Rabbits
circuit will the current passing
through 4Ω resistance be zero ? | (B) Ferrets
(C) CH3—C == CH2 (C) Mink
(D) CH3—CH == CH—CH3 (D) All of the above
4Ω
2Ω R 8. In the acid catalyzed dehydration 16. In plants evergreen forests—
of alcohols to olefins the inter-
6V (A) Sporophyte organisms pro-
mediate species involved is—
duce spores
(A) A free radical
10V 4V
(B) Spore becomes the sporo-
(B) A carbanion
phyte generation
(A) 1·5 Ω (B) 1 Ω (C) A carbonium
(C) Gamete becomes the game-
(D) None of the above tophyte generation
(C) 0·5 Ω (D) 2 Ω
9. Which of the following carbonates (D) Both (B) and (C) are correct
3. A sinusoidal voltage V = 200 2 is most stable ?
sin (100t) volt is applied to a 1 μF (A) CaCO3 (B) BaCO 3 17. The fact about seed plants is/
capacitor through an a.c. are—
(C) BeCO 3 (D) MgCO3
ammeter. The reading of the (A) Complex vascular tissue
ammeter will be— 10. Silver mirror test can be used to
(B) Pollen grains replace swim-
distinguish the following pair—
(A) 1 mA (B) 10 mA ming sperms
(A) Alcohol and phenol
(C) 20 mA (D) 40 mA (C) Retention of megagameto-
(B) Phenol and acid
4. Human ear can hear a sound of phyte within the ovule
(C) Aldehyde and acid
wavelength— (D) Ketone and acid (D) All of the above are correct
°
(A) 5000 A (B) 5000 μ 11. The first step in nuclear pre- 18. The thermal algae can survive in
mRNA splicing involves cleavage a hot water spring at about—
(C) 5000 mm (D) 5000 cm
at the— (A) 40°C (B) 100°C
5. The refractive index of air is (A) 5′ intron splice site
1·0003. The thickness of air (C) 50°C (D) 70°C
column which can accommodate (B) 3′ intron splice site
19. The physical barrier to avoid self-
one wave of wavelength 6000 A° (C) Both 5′ and 3′ intron splice
pollination between stamens and
more than in vacuum is— sites
pistils is—
(A) 2 m (B) 2 cm (D) 5′ exon splice site
(A) Dichogamy (B) Dicliny
(C) 2 mm (D) 0·2 m 12. Characteristics of phylum Platy- (C) Herkogamy (D) Heterostyly
helminthes include—
6. The percentage of atoms in a
(A) Triploblastic 20. The process of gene manipulation
natural sample of the pure
may play an important role in—
element represented by a parti- (B) Acoelomate
cular isotope is called the iso- (C) Gut absent in Cestoidea (A) Pharmacognosy
tope’s— (D) All of the above (B) Agriculture
(A) Atomic weight (C) Gene mutation and hybridi-
13. Which of the following is not a
(B) General solidification member of class Bivalvia ? zation
(C) Avogadro’s number (A) Loligo (B) Mytilus (D) All of the above
(D) None of the above (C) Venus (D) Anodonta ●●●

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 656

 Rules for taking part in Quiz Contest
of Competition Science Vision

1. All students or those appearing in competitive

examinations can take part in this contest.
2. Candidates taking part in quiz contest will necessarily
have to send their entries by a fixed date. Entries are
to be sent by ordinary post. Please mark your
envelope 'Quiz–Competition Science Vision' on
the top left hand side.
3. Answers given only on the form of the magazine will Solution to Quiz No. 134
be admissible.
4. In the form there are four squares against each Competition Science Vision
question number. Contestants should put a cross (×)
in the square for the answer they think is correct. Last date for sending 28th July, 2009
Giving more than one answer to a question will
disqualify it. Name Mr./Miss/Mrs. ...........................….........................
5. Contestants should essentially write the number of
questions they have solved. Full Address ...................................…..........................
6. Marks will be deducted for wrong answers. .............................................................…………………
7. The candidate sending the maximum number of ............................................................…………………
correct answers will be given Rs. 600 as first prize.
Next two candidates after that will get Rs. 400 and State .......................Pin Code No.
Rs. 300 as second and third prize respectively. If
there are more than one candidate eligible for a
prize, the amount will be equally distributed among Age.................. Academic Qualification........................
them.
Competition examination for which preparing
8. The decision of the editor will be final and binding in
all cases, and will not be a matter for consideration ....................................................................................
of any court. I have read and understood the rules of quiz con-
test of Competition Science Vision issued by Pratiyogita
Darpan and agree to abide by them.
...................................
(Signature)

RESULT
No. of questions attempted..........................................
No. of correct answers.................................................
No. of wrong answers...................................................
Marks obtained.............................................................

ANSWER FORM
Q. No. A B C D Q. No. A B C D
1. 11.
2. 12.
3. 13.
4. 14.
5. 15.
6. 16.
7. 17.
8. 18.
9. 19.
10. 20.

C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 657