CQE Study Questions, Answers and Solutions

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PART I: QREVIEW STUDY QUESTIONS

Basic Quality Concepts 1
Basic Probability 7
Statistics 15
Statistical Inference 22
Sampling 25
Control Charts 29
Reliability 33
Regression and Correlation 35
Cost of Quality 37
Design of Experiments 41
Metrology and Calibration 44

QReview Answers 46

PART II: QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS

Basic Probability 53
Statistics 65
Sampling 81
Control Charts 87
Reliability 92
Cost of Quality 98


PART 1 - QREVIEW STUDY QUESTIONS

INTRODUCTION

The following questions include key concepts which are representative of the CQE
examination. Each question should be worked out as completely as possible before looking
at the solution. Some questions have been taken from previously published ASQ CQE
exams.

BASIC QUALITY CONCEPTS

1. Certification of a company to the ISO 9002 standard does not include which of the
following requirements?

a) Servicing
b) Design control
c) Contract review
d) Internal quality audits

2. A quality control program is considered to be

a) a collection of quality control procedures and guidelines.
b) a step by step list of all quality control check points.
c) a summary of company quality control policies.
d) a system of activities to provide quality of products and services.

3. The "quality function" of a company is best described as

a) the degree to which the company product conforms to a design or specification.
b) that collection of activities through which "fitness for use" is achieved.
c) the degree to which a class or category of product possesses satisfaction for
people generally.
d) All of the above.

4. In preparing a product quality policy for your company, you should do all of the following
except

a) specify the means by which quality performance is measured.
b) develop criteria for identifying risk situations and specify whose approval is
required when there are known risks.
c) include procedural matters and functional responsibilities.
d) state quality goals.

5. What natural phenomenon created the necessity to control product and process quality?
2 QReview Study Questions

a) Gravity
b) Variation
c) Human Error
d) Management

6. The three basic elements of a quality system are

a) Quality Management, Purchasing and Document Control
b) Quality Management, Quality Control and Quality Assurance
c) SPC, Inspection and Quality Assurance
d) Quality Control, Quality Costs and Control Charts

7. What are the two basic categories of quality?

a) Design and Conformance Quality
b) Good and Bad Quality
c) Defective and Non-Defective Quality
d) Attribute and Variable Quality

8. The Law of Large Numbers states that

a) individual occurrences are predictable and group occurrences are unpredictable.
b) group data always follows a normal pattern.
c) individual occurrences are unpredictable and group occurrences are predictable.
d) the standard deviation of group data will always be greater than ten.

9. Statistical quality control is best described as

a) keeping product characteristics within certain bounds.
b) calculating the mean and standard deviation.
c) the study of the characteristics of a product or process, with the help of numbers,
to make them behave the way we want them to behave.
d) the implementation of ISO 9000.

10. Which of the following is the most important element in Statistical Quality Control?

a) The Feedback Loop
b) Make Operation
c) Inspection
d) Quality of Incoming Material
11. When measurements are accurate and precise,

a) the data are distributed randomly throughout the entire range.
b) the data are clustered closely around the central value.
c) minimum variation will exist.

d) the data are normally distributed.

12. All of the following are included in a quality system except

a) document control.
b) corrective action.
c) management responsibility.
d) employee salaries.

13. Which of the following best describes a statistical distribution?

a) A model that shows how data are distributed over a range of measurements.
b) An Analysis of Variance table.
c) A sampling plan.
d) A graph that contains data plotted on a normal curve.

14. Which of the following are two types of data used in statistical quality control?

a) Design and Conformance Data
b) Precise and Accurate Data
c) Variables and Attributes Data
d) Mean and Variance Data

15. The primary reason for evaluating and maintaining surveillance over a supplier's quality
program is to

a) perform product inspection at source.
b) eliminate incoming inspection cost.
c) motivate suppliers to improve quality.
d) make sure the supplier's quality program is functioning effectively.

16. Which one of the following are ISO 9001 requirements?

a) Process Flow Chart
b) Quality Manual
c) Operations Manual
d) TQM Program

17. Which of the following does not generate product-quality characteristics?

a) Designer
b) Inspector
c) Machinist
d) Equipment engineer

18. Incoming material inspection is based most directly on

a) design requirements.
b) purchase order requirements.
c) manufacturing requirements.
d) customer use of the end product.

19. The acronym ISO means

a) International Standards Organization.
b) Internal Service Organization.
c) equal.
d) third party auditing organization.

20. Products should be subjected to tests which are designed to

a) demonstrate advertised performance.
b) demonstrate basic function at minimum testing cost.
c) approximate the conditions to be experienced in customer's application.
d) assure that specifications are met under laboratory conditions.

21. The advantage of a written procedure is

a) it provides flexibility in dealing with problems.
b) unusual conditions are handled better.
c) it is a perpetual coordination device.
d) coordination with other departments is not required.

22. In spite of the Quality Engineer's best efforts, situations may develop in which his
decision is overruled. The most appropriate action would be to

a) resign from the position based upon convictions.
b) report findings to an outside source such as a regulatory agency or the press.
c) document findings, report them to superiors and move on the next assignment.
d) discuss findings with co-workers in order to gain support, thereby forcing action.

23. If a test data does not support a Quality Engineer's expectations, the best thing to do is

a) adjust the data to support expectations if it is only slightly off.
b) draw the expected conclusion omitting the data not supporting it.
c) re-evaluate the expectations of the test based upon the data.
d) report the data and expected conclusion with no reference to one another.


24. In case of conflict between contract specifications and shop practice,

a) arbitration is necessary.
b) the customer is always right.
c) good judgment should be exercised.
d) contract specifications normally apply.

25. A quality audit program should begin with

a) a study of the quality documentation system.
b) an evaluation of the work being performed.
c) a report listing findings, the action taken and recommendations.
d) a charter of policy, objectives and procedures.

26. Auditors should report to someone who is independent from

a) the company being audited.
b) management.
c) the function being audited.
d) None of the above.

27. Analysis of data on all product returns is important because

a) failure rates change with length of product usage.
b) changes in design and in customer use are often well reflected.
c) immediate feedback and analysis of product performance becomes available.

28. All of the following are considerations when a total quality management (TQM) program
is implemented except

a) the use of statistical tools and techniques.
b) a program of continuous quality improvement.
c) the manager responsible for product quality.
d) total involvement from management to production associates.

29. According to Juran, all of the following are widespread errors in perception that have led
many managers astray except

a) the work force is mainly responsible for the company's quality problems.
b) workers could do quality work but they lack the motivation to do so.
c) quality will get top priority if upper management so decrees.
d) return on investment is everything.


30. An essential technique in making training programs effective is to

a) set group goals.
b) have training classes which teach skills and knowledge required.
c) feed back to the employee meaningful measures of his performance.
d) post results of performance before and after the training program.

31. An engineer has the job of providing a written plan of quality related tasks to his
manager, including a detailed timeline, for the following year. Which of the following
tools should be used?

a) Histogram
b) Flow Chart
c) Gantt Chart
d) Frequency Distribution
Basic Probability 7

BASIC PROBABILITY

32. The time it takes to answer a technical support line has a continuous uniform distribution
over an interval from 17 to 20 minutes. All of the following are true except

a) P(x = 18.5) = 1/2
b) P(x 20) = 1
c) P(17 x 18) = 1/3
d) P(x 17) = 1

33. For two events, A and B, which one of the following is a true probability
statement?

a) P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) if A and B are independent
b) P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) if A and B are mutually exclusive
c) P(A and B) = P(A) x P(B) if A and B are mutually exclusive
d) P(A or B) = P(A) x P(B) if A and B are independent

34. What is the probability of getting a head or a tail in 1 toss of a coin?

a) 1/16
b) 1/4
c) 1/2
d) 1

35. What is the probability of getting a head and a tail in 2 tosses of a fair coin? And, what is
the probability of getting a head and a tail, in that order, in 2 tosses of a fair coin?

a) 1/2, 1/2
b) 1/4, 1/4
c) 1/2, 1/4
d) 1/4, 1/2

36. A coin is tossed 10 times. The first 9 tosses come up heads. What is the probability that
the 10
th
toss will come up heads?

a) 1/512
b) 1/256
c) 1/32
d) 1/2

37. What is the probability of obtaining exactly 2 heads in 4 tosses of a fair coin?

a) 1/4
b) 3/8
c) 1/2
d) 1/6
38. What is the probability of getting a 3 when rolling a single die? ( A die is one of a pair of

dice)

a) 1/5
b) 3/5
c) 1/6
d) 1/3

39. What is the probability of getting an odd number when rolling a pair of dice? (Spots on
the two dice sum to odd number)

a) 1/4
b) 1/2
c) 1/3
d) 3/10

40. What is the probability of obtaining a sum of 7 when rolling a pair of dice?

a) 1/5
b) 3/5
c) 1/6
d) 1/3

Use the following information to answer questions 41, 42 and 43. The probability is 1/2 that
Bob will pass the CQE exam, 1/3 that Amy will pass and 3/4 that Jon will pass.

41. What is the probability that Bob, Amy and Jon will all pass the exam?

a) 1/8
b) 4/9
c) 4/11
d) 1/3

42. What is the probability that neither Bob, Amy nor Jon will pass the exam?

a) 1/9
b) 7/8
c) 1/12
d) 2/3

43. What is the probability that only one of the three will pass the exam?

a) 1/4
b) 1/3
c) 3/4
d) 3/8
44. Four people shoot at a target and the probability that each will hit the target is 1/2 (50%).
What is the probability that the target will be hit?
Basic Probability 9

a) 1/16
b) 15/16
c) 1/2
d) 1/4

45. A committee of 5 people is chosen at random from a room that contains 4 men and 6
women. What is the probability that the committee is composed of 2 men and 3 women?

a) 1/2
b) 10/21
c) 5/21
d) 1/3

46. A vendor is trying to sell you a box of 50 fuses that contains exactly 5 defective fuses.
You select 2 fuses from the box for testing. If both are good you will buy the entire box. If
one or both are defective, you will not buy the box. What is the probability that you will
buy the box?

a) .7533
b) .8082
c) .9769
d) .8531

47. What is the probability of winning the Super Lotto? (Winning = getting all 6 numbers out
of 47)

a) 1/10,737,573
b) 1/7,731,052,560
c) 1/3,457,296
d) 1/12,966,821

48. A box contains 12 connectors, 9 good and 3 defective. What is the probability of
obtaining exactly 2 good and 1 defective connector in drawing 3 parts from the box
without replacement?

a) .4219
b) .4909
c) .5022
d) .6915


49. A box contains 12 connectors, 9 good ones and 3 defective ones. What is the probability
of obtaining exactly 2 good and 1 defective connector in drawing 3 parts from the box
with replacement?

a) .4219
b) .4909
c) .5022
d) .6915

50. You have been asked to sample a lot of 300 units from a vendor whose past quality has
been about 2% defective. A sample of 40 pieces is drawn from the lot and you have
been told to reject the lot if you find two or more parts defective. What is the probability
of rejecting the lot?

a) 0.953
b) 0.809
c) 0.191
d) 0.047

Use the following information to answer questions 51 and 52. A company produces
capacitors by a process that normally yields 5% defective product. A sample of 4 capacitors
is selected.

51. What is the probability that all 4 capacitors are good?

a) .9790
b) .9213
c) .8617
d) .8145

52. What is the probability that all 4 capacitors are defective?

a) .1383
b) .1855
c) .0000258
d) .00000625

Use the following information to answer questions 53, 54, 55 and 56. A company makes ball
bearings that are found to be 10% defective in the long run. A sample of 10 bearings is
selected.

53. What is the probability that 0 bearings will be defective?

a) .3487
b) .3874
c) .4126
d) .1110
54. What is the probability of obtaining exactly 1 defective bearing?

a) .3487
b) .3874
c) .4126
d) .2574

55. What is the probability of obtaining exactly 3 defective bearings?

a) .0574
b) .4448
c) .7361
d) .1562

56. What is the probability of obtaining more than 1 defective bearing?

a) .3874
b) .4126
c) .2639
d) .2285

57. How many defective connectors would be expected in a sample of 200 parts if the
process averages 2% defective?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 7

58. What is the probability of obtaining exactly 2 defective connectors in a sample of 6 parts
if the process averages 2% defective?

a) .0135
b) .0055
c) .0009
d) .0001

59. All of the following are probabilistic events except

a) the number rolled in a game of dice.
b) the number of defects in a random sample.
c) the acceleration of an apple when it drops from a tree.
d) the number of games played in the world series.

Use the following information to answer problems 60, 61 and 62. A company produces
integrated circuits (chips) by a process that normally yields 2000 ppm defective product for

electrical test requirements (ppm = defective parts per million). A sample of 5 chips is
selected and tested.

60. What is the probability that all 5 chips are good?

a) .9900
b) .9603
c) .9213
d) .8563

61. What is the probability that 1 or more chips are defective?

a) .0051
b) .0009
c) .0269
d) .0100

62. What is the probability that more than 1 chip is defective?

a) .01931
b) .00510
c) .00008
d) .01000

Use the following information to answer problems 63, 64 and 65. A capability study was
made to determine the defective rate of 28AZ transistors. The study showed the rate to be
5000 ppm. Ten of the transistors were shipped to a customer.

63. What is the probability that the shipment contains no defective transistors?

a) .9511
b) .9066
c) .8512
d) .9213

64. What is the probability that the shipment contains exactly 1 defective transistor?

a) .0001
b) .0478
c) .1048
d) .1165

65. What is the probability that the shipment contains 2 or more defective transistors?

a) .0001

b) .0478
c) .0237
d) .0011

Use the following information to answer problems 66, 67 and 68. A circuit board operation
yields 2 defects per board on the average. A sample of 1 board is selected at random.

66. What is the probability of finding exactly 2 defects on the selected board?

a) .3522
b) .2706
c) .1550
d) .0295

67. What is the probability of finding less than 2 defects on the selected board?

a) .4060
b) .6352
c) .3522
d) .3849

68. What is the probability of finding more than 2 defects on the selected board?

a) .4060
b) .2706
c) .3522
d) .3235

Use the following information to answer problems 69, 70 and 71. In manufacturing material
for automobile seats it was found that each 100-foot roll contained, on average, 2 defects
(flaws). A sample of 1 roll is selected at random from the process.

69. What is the probability that the selected roll contains 0 defects?

a) .1353
b) .2707
c) .8647
d) .7293

70. What is the probability that the selected roll contains exactly 1 defect?

a) .1353
b) .7293

c) .8647
d) .2706

71. What is the probability that the selected roll contains more than 1 defect?

a) .3233
b) .5941
c) .7293
d) .8647

Use the following information to answer problems 72 and 73. A firm that makes T-shirt
decals has determined that their process yields, on average, 3 defects per day. Fifty decals
are inspected each day.

72. What is the probability of finding exactly 2 defective decals in any given day? (Assume
one defect per defective decal.)

a) .7361
b) .1494
c) .2240
d) .0746

73. What is the probability of buying a decal that contains more than 1 defect?

a) .0005
b) .0042
c) .0001
d) .0017

74. A parts dealer buys parts from a warehouse. Parts are made by either Company A or
Company B but are not identified as to which company produces them. One company
produces all parts in one shipment or lot. On the average, we know:

Company A produces 2.5% defective parts.
Company B produces 5.0% defective parts.

The warehouse states that 70% of parts will come from Company A and 30% from
Company B. If the dealer selects 4 parts at random from a lot and finds 1 defective part,
what is the probability that the lot was produced by Company A?

a) .4422
b) .5580
c) .6915
d) .3085
Sampling 15

STATISTICS

75. What is the expected value of the random variable x for the following data?

x f(x)
12 0.2
10 0.5
14 0.1
20 0.2

a) 13.6
b) 14.0
c) 12.8
d) 14.5

76. In the standard normal table, what value of z has 5% of the area in the tail beyond it?

a) 1.960
b) 1.645
c) 2.576
d) 1.282

77. Which distribution should be used to determine a confidence interval when is not
known and the sample size is 10?

a) z
b) t
c) F
d)
2

78. Which of the following methods should be used to test 6 population means for statistical
significance?

a) Chi Square Test
b) Analysis of Variance
c) F Test
d) Duncan's Multiple Range Test

79. A sample size of 120 is taken from a process and is represented graphically on a
histogram. What is the appropriate number of histogram cells to use?

a) 1 - 8
b) 9 - 20
c) 21 - 35
d) 120
80. Which of the following conditions makes it possible for a process to produce a large

number of defective units while it is in statistical control?

a) When the specification limits are not set correctly.
b) When the process capability is wider than the tolerance.
c) When unknown external forces affect the process.
d) When the sample size, from which the reject data is found, is too small.

81. For the normal probability distribution, which of the following is true about the
relationship among the median, mean and mode?

a) They are all equal to the same value.
b) The mean and mode have the same value but the median is different.
c) Each has a value different from the other two.
d) The mean and median are the same but the mode is different.

82. All of the following statistical techniques can be used to determine the effectiveness of a
supplier improvement program except

a) Pareto analysis.
b) x bar and R charts.
c) a PERT chart.
d) a flow chart.

83. A sample of n observations has a mean x and a standard deviation s > 0. If a single
observation, which equals the value of the sample mean x , is removed from the sample,
which of the following is true?

a) x and s both change
b) x and s remain the same
c) x remains the same but s increases
d) x remains the same but s decreases

84. The factory installed brake linings for a certain kind of car have a mean lifetime of 60,000
miles with a 6,000 mile standard deviation. A sample of 100 cars has been selected for
testing. What is the standard error of x ? (Assume that the finite population correction
may be ignored.)

a) 60 miles
b) 6000 miles
c) 600 miles
d) 6100 miles

Use the following information to answer problems 85 - 90. A sample of 7 rivets was taken
from a shipment of 1000 rivets and the length was measured. The following data are
Sampling 17

obtained:

Sample Number Length (inches)
1 3.1
2 3.1
3 3.2
4 3.7
5 3.6
6 3.7
7 3.1

85. What is the mean length of the rivets?

a) 3.20 inches
b) 3.36 inches
c) 4.00 inches
d) 3.65 inches

86. What is the standard deviation of the length of the rivets (estimate of population standard
deviation)?

a) 0.27 inches
b) 2.16 inches
c) 0.29 inches
d) 2.00 inches

Note: In the following 4 problems, the sample sizes are less than 30 and the t statistics
should be used to solve the problems. Analyses of this type usually involve sample sizes of
30 or greater. Handle the problems just as if the sample sizes were greater than 30 and use
the z statistics.

87. What percentage of rivets have lengths less than 2.80 inches?

a) 2.69%
b) 5.00%
c) 1.22%
d) 3.23%

88. What percentage of rivets have lengths greater than 3.65 inches?

a) 17.1%

b) 14.2%
c) 15.9%
d) 7.10%

89. What percentage of rivets have lengths between 3.1 inches and 3.9 inches?

a) 89.7%
b) 78.4%
c) 52.5%
d) 99.7%

90. In the shipment of 1000 rivets, how many good parts will we find if a good part is defined
as having a minimum of 3 inches and a maximum of 4 inches?

a) 999
b) 967
c) 912
d) 878

The following information is used to answer problems 91 - 95. Data are taken from a
manufacturing process that produces optical glass. The sample size is 5 parts and the
characteristic measured is the diameter of the plates.

Sample Number

Diameter (mm)

1

30

2

31

3

29

4

33

5

34

91. What is the mean diameter of the optical glass?

a) 31.4 mm
b) 29.0 mm
c) 31.0 mm
d) 34.0 mm

92. What is the standard deviation of the population?

a) 1.00 mm
b) 2.07 mm
Sampling 19

c) 2.22 mm
d) 1.22 mm

93. The specifications for the glass plates are 30.5 2 mm. What percentage of parts made
by this company will not meet specifications?

a) 32.5%
b) 5.00%
c) 35.0%
d) 37.9%

94. What percentage of parts will be less than 29.5 mm?

a) 17.9%
b) 7.21%
c) 15.9%
d) 24.3%

95. What percentage of parts will be greater than 33 mm?

a) 78.5%
b) 24.3%
c) 15.9%
d) 22.1%

96. The Zoglen Corporation markets a product, which is a blend of 3 ingredients (A, B, C). If
the individual tolerances for the weight of the 3 ingredients are as shown, what should
the tolerance be for the net weight of the product?

A: 40.5 2.236 grams, B: 30.4 2.000 grams, C: 18.1 1.732 grams

a) 89.0 2.443 grams
b) 89.0 3.464 grams
c) 89.0 5.968 grams
d) 89.0 4.732 grams

97. A random sample of size n is to be taken from a large population that has a standard
deviation of 1 inch. The sample size is determined so that there will be a 95% chance
that the sample average will be within 0.1 inch of the true mean. Which of the following
values is nearest to the required sample size?

a) 385

b) 200
c) 100
d) 40

98. All of the following conditions must be met for the process capability to be within the
specification limits except

a) C
pk
1.0
b) C
p
1.0
c) C
p
= C
pk

d) a stable process.

99. A value on the abscissa of the t distribution is 1.093. What is the area to the right of this
value if the sample size is 11?

a) 0.30
b) 0.15
c) 0.05
d) 0.10

100. The spread of individual observations from a normal process capability distribution may
be expressed numerically as

a) 6R /d
2

b) 2 x A
2
R
c) R/d
2

d) D
4
R

101. What percentage of data will normally fall within a process capability?

a) 99.00%
b) 99.73%
c) 1.00%
d) 0.27%

Use the following information to answer problems 102 - 105. A winding machine wraps wire
around a metal core to make small transformers. The design engineers have determined
that the nominal number of windings are to be 10,060 with a minimum of 10,025 and a
maximum of 10,095. A sample of 300 transformers was selected in a three month period
and the wire was unwrapped on each part to determine the number of windings. The results
were:

x = 10,052 windings and s = 10 windings
Sampling 21

102. What is the process capability?

a) 10020 - 10100
b) 10052 - 10020
c) 10022 - 10082
d) 10020 - 10060

103. Compute the value of C
p
?

a) 30.0
b) 10.0
c) 0.67
d) 1.17

pk
?

a) 0.90
b) 0.72
c) 3.22
d) 2.67

105. What is the expected percent defective?

a) 1.00%
b) 0.35%
c) 2.13%
d) 0.49%


STATISTICAL INFERENCE

106. Which of the following cannot be a null hypothesis?

a) The population means are equal.
b) p = 0.5
c) The sample means are equal.
d) The difference in the population means is 3.85.

107. In a sampling distribution which of the following represents the critical region?

a)
b)
c) 1 -
d) 1 -

108. In a hypothesis test which of the following represents the acceptance region?

a)
b)
c) 1 -
d) 1 -

109. The Chi Square distribution is

a) a distribution of averages.
b) a distribution of variances.
c) a distribution of standard deviations.
d) a distribution of frequencies.

110. Which of the following is a number derived from sample data that describes the data in
some useful way?

a) constant
b) statistic
c) parameter
d) critical value

111. A null hypothesis assumes that a process is producing no more than the maximum
allowable rate of defective items. What does the type II error conclude about the
process?

a) It is producing too many defectives when it actually isn't.
b) It is not producing too many defectives when it actually is.
c) It is not producing too many defectives when it is not.
d) It is producing too many defectives when it is.
Sampling 23

112. A quality engineer wants to determine whether or not there is any difference between
the means of the convolute paperboard cans supplied by two vendors, A and B. A
random sample of 100 cans is selected from the output of each vendor. The sample
from vendor A yielded a mean of 13.59 with a standard deviation of 5.94. The sample
from vendor B yielded a mean of 14.43 with a standard deviation of 5.61. Which of the
following would be a suitable null hypothesis?

a) u
A
= u
B

b) u
A
> u
B

c) u
A
< u
B

d) u
A
u
B

113. A chi square test for independence has a 4 x 3 contingency table and a calculated chi
square value of 11.5. At a .05 level of significance, which of the following are true about
the decision regarding the null hypothesis?

a) 7 df, accept H
o

b) 6 df, reject H
o

c) 6 df, accept H
o

d) 11 df, accept H
o

114. A supplier states that the average diameter of optical glass plates is 37.50 mm. The
specifications are 37.50 mm .40 mm. A shipment of 500 plates is received and a
sample of 10 plates is selected and the diameters of each are measured. The following
data are obtained:

37.42 mm 37.84 37.50 37.48 37.75
37.63 37.82 37.78 37.79 37.51

Does the entire population have an average diameter of 37.5 mm? Test at a level of
significance of .05.

a) t = +2.97, Reject H
o

b) t = +2.26, Accept H
o

c) t = -2.26, Accept H
o

d) t = +1.05, Accept H
o

115. Given: n = 40, p = .20 defects/unit

Could this sample have possibly come from a process whose process average is .14
defects/unit? Test at a level of significance of .01.

a) z = +1.75, Accept H
o

b) z = -.075, Reject H
o

c) z = +1.01, Accept H
o

d) z = +2.47, Reject H
o

116. A study of 26 families across a certain state indicated that the average family income

during 1989 was $33,400 with a Standard Deviation of $3680. Test the hypothesis that
the true average income in this state during 1989 was $32,000 against the alternative
that it was not $32,000. Test at a level of significance of .05.

a) t = +.900, Accept H
o

o

c) t = -2.95, Reject H
o

d) t = +3.16, Reject H
o

117. An inspection yields the following results:

n = 20, x = 10.5 lb., s = 1.2 lb.

Could this data have reasonably come from a process which usually has an average of
11.3 lb. or greater? Test at a level of significance of .01.

o

b) t = -1.67, Accept H
o

o

d) t = +2.10, Accept H
o

118. In a hypothesis test what determines whether the test is one tailed or two tailed?

a) Critical Region
b) Alternate Hypothesis
c) Null Hypothesis
d)

119. Pooled variance is best described as

a) the variance of a sample that has been pulled from a population.
b) the combination of variances of two or more samples.
c) the combination of variances from multiple samples with dependant means.
d) (n
1
- 1) s
1
2
+ (n
2
- 1)s
2
2
+ + (n
n
- 1)s
n
n

120. Goodness of Fit is best described as

a) how well two sample data standard deviations vary from each other.
b) a test to determine if two or more samples follow the same distribution.
c) a statistical tool for analyzing data using the
2
distribution.
d) the comparison of an observed sample distribution with a theoretical distribution.

Sampling 25

SAMPLING

121. The Dodge-Romig Tables are designed to minimize which parameter?

a) AOQL
b) AQL
c) ATI
d) AOQ

122. What are the two unique quantities that determine a single sampling attributes plan?

a) AQL and LTPD
b) Sample Size and Acceptance Number
c) AQL and Producers Risk
d) LTPD and Consumer's Risk

123. Characteristics for which 100% inspection may be practicable include all of the
following except

a) dimensions subject to measurements or go/no-go gaging.
b) performance characteristics subject to non-destructive testing.
c) characteristics observable by visual inspection.
d) ultimate physical properties (tensile strength, viscosity).

124. The term AQL as used in sampling inspection, means

a) that level of lot quality for which there is a large risk of rejecting the lot.
b) the Average Quality Limit.
c) the maximum percent defective that can be considered satisfactory as a process
average.
d) the quality level.

125. Which of the following best describes what an operating characteristic curve shows?

a) The probability of accepting lots of various quality levels by sampling methods.
b) The operating characteristics of a machine.
c) How to operate a machine for best quality results.
d) The probability that a lot contains a certain number of rejects.

126. In ANSI/ASQ Z1.4, the AQL is always determined at what P
a
on the OC curve?

a) 0.05
b) 0.10
c) 0.90
d) None of the above
127. Which of the following best describes what an average outgoing quality curve shows?

a) The producer's risk.
b) The outgoing quality level versus the incoming quality level.
c) The probability of accepting lots of various quality levels.
d) The consumer's risk.

Use the following information to answer problems 128 - 134. A sampling plan is needed
which will satisfy the following requirements:

Accept acceptable quality product almost all (90%) of the time.
Accept rejectable quality product almost none (12%) of the time.
Acceptable quality is defined as a process average of 1% defective.
Rejectable quality is defined as a process average of 7% defective.

128. What is the value of ?

a) 90%
b) 88%
c) 12%
d) 10%


a) 88%
b) 12%
c) 95%
d) 2.5%

130. What is the value of the AQL?

a) 3%
b) 99%
c) 1%
d) 97%

131. What is the value of the LTPD?

a) 7%
b) 10%
c) 1%
d) 5%

132. What is the sample size that will satisfy the requirements stated above?

a) 35
Sampling 27

b) 40
c) 45
d) 50

133. What is the acceptance number that will satisfy the requirements stated above?

a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) 23

134. What is the approximate value of the AOQL?

a) .0165
b) .2000
c) .1375
d) .9999

Use the following data to answer problems 135 - 137.
Given: AQL = .015 (1.5% defective), RQL = .050 (5.0% defective), = .05, = .10

135. What is the sample size of the sampling plan?

a) 30
b) 75
c) 140
d) 200

136. What is the acceptance number of the sampling plan?

a) 1
b) 3
c) 6
d) 9

137. What is the value of AOQL?

a) .2000
b) .0160
c) .0107
d) .0029
138. A sampling plan specifies a sample size of 50 and an acceptance number of 3. What is
the value of the AQL if = .05?

a) .0165
b) .0107

c) .1375
d) .0280

the approximate value of the AOQL?

a) .0280
b) .0107
c) .0370
d) .0490

140. All of the following are methods for checking product except

a) constant percentage sampling.
b) random spot checking.
c) no checking at all.
d) safeguard checking.

141. All of the following are characteristics of lot by lot single sampling except

a) a sample size is selected randomly from the lot.
b) if the number of defects in a sample exceed the acceptance number, the entire
lot is rejected.
c) rejected lots are immediately scrapped.
d) if the number of defects in a sample do not exceed the acceptance number, the
entire lot is accepted.

142. All of the following are characteristics of continuous sampling except

a) it is only used where product flow is discrete.
b) the clearing number must be specified.
c) the amount of product checked may vary.
d) the product is not able to be formed into lots.

143. The following parameters are required for sampling plan construction using the
Binomial Nomograph except

a) AQL.
b) RQL.
c) .
d) Sample size.
Control Charts 29

CONTROL CHARTS

144. The primary use of a control chart is to

a) detect assignable causes of variation in the process.
b) detect non-conforming product.
c) measure the performance of all quality characteristics of a process.
d) detect the presence of random variation in the process.

145. np charts are based on which distribution?

a) Poisson
b) Binomial
c) Shewhart
d) Exponential

146. c and u charts are based on which distribution?

a) Poisson
b) Binomial
c) Shewhart
d) Exponential

147. Why do x charts always follow a normal distribution?

a) Variance
b) The Law of Large Numbers
c) The Central Limit Theorem
d) The Addition Theorem

148. When used together for variables data, which of the following pair of quantities is the
most useful in preparing control charts?

a) AQL, p
b) P, n
c) x , R
d) R,

149. A process is in control at x = 100, R = 7.3 with n = 4. If the process level shifts to
101.5, with the same R, what is the probability that the next x point will fall outside
the old control limits?

a) .016
b) .029
c) .122
d) .360
150. A process is checked by inspection at random samples of 4 shafts after a polishing

operation, x and R charts are maintained. A person making a spot check picks out 2
shafts, measures them accurately, and plots the value of each on the x chart. Both
points fall just outside the control limits. He advises the department foreman to stop the
process. This decision indicates that

a) the process level is out of control.
b) both the level and dispersion are out of control.
c) the process level is out of control but not the dispersion.
d) the person is not using the chart correctly.

151. The hardness of rivets is normally distributed with u = 60.0 and standard deviation
= 1.2. What are the 3 sigma control limits for the x chart using samples of size 5?

a) 57.95, 62.15
b) 58.0, 62.0
c) 58.38, 61.62
d) 56.50, 63.5

152. A possible cause of a cycle pattern in a control chart include all of the following except

a) seasonal effects.
b) differences between suppliers.
c) different inspectors.
d) new supplier.

Use the following information to answer problems 153 - 158. The following data are obtained
from measuring the length of a metal bracket.

Sample #1 Sample #2 Sample #3 Sample #4
x = 1.51" x = 1.50" x = 1.52" x = 1.53"
R = .03" R = .02" R = .04" R = .03"
n = 5 n = 5 n = 5 n = 5

153. What are the values of x , UCL
x
and LCL
x
for an x chart?

a) 1.500", 1.517", 1.443"
b) 1.515", 1.532", 1.498"
c) 1.515", 1.491", 1.336"
d) 1.525", 1.532", 1.498"

154. What are the values of R, UCL
R
, LCL
R
for an R chart?

a) .020", .9970", .012"
b) .025", .0634", -.012"
c) .030", .0634", 0
d) .030", 0, -.062
155. What are the values of the sample size and number of samples?

Control Charts 31

a) 5, 5
b) 4, 5
c) 5, 4
d) 4, 4

156. What is the standard error?

a) .0012"
b) .0058"
c) .0632"
d) .0729"

157. What is the standard deviation of the individual data points?

a) .013"
b) .030"
c) .010"
d) 1.52"

158. What is the process capability for the individual data points?

a) 1.498" to 1.532"
b) 1.500" to 1.530"
c) 0.020" to 0.040"
d) 1.476" to 1.554"

Use the following information to answer questions (problems) 159 - 162. The following data
are the result of inspecting aircraft seat belt buckles.

Number of buckles in
the sample
Number of defective
buckles
50 2
60 3
40 1
50 2
55 0
55 1
50 0
60 1


159. What is the average percent defective ( p )?

a) .833
b) .024
c) .009
d) .997

160. What are the upper and lower control limits?

a) .087, -.024
b) .024, 0
c) 1.50, .013
d) .087, 0

161. What is the appropriate type of control chart for these data?

a) u chart
b) p chart
c) c chart
d) np chart

162. An additional sample of 75 buckles contains 4 defectives. Is this sample within the
control limits?

a) Yes, p = .053
b) Yes, p = .024
c) No, p = .053
d) No, p = .024

Reliability 33

RELIABILITY

163. A reliability data system usually implies collecting data on

a) process machine downtime.
b) product failures and operating time.
c) maintenance costs.
d) repair times.

164. Which of the following best describes the failure rate in the wear out phase of the
bathtub curve?

a) Constant
b) Random
c) Improves
d) Gets Worse

165. The greatest contribution of a reliability effort is made in the

a) design area.
b) manufacturing area.
c) shipping area.
d) field service area.

166. Reliability prediction is

a) the process of estimating performance.
b) the process of estimating the probability that a product will perform its intended
function for a stated time.
c) the process of telling "how you can get there from here."

167. Maintainability is

a) the probability of a system being restored to functional operation within a given
period of time.
b) performing adequate maintenance on a system.
c) probability of survival of a system for a given period of time.
d) maintaining a machine in satisfactory working condition.

168. A set of components has a MTBF of 1000 hours. What percentage will fail if the
components are tested for 500 hours?

a) 25%
b) 39%
c) 61%
d) 50%
169. What is the reliability of a system at 850 hours, if the average usage on the system was

400 hours for 1650 items and the total number of failures was 145? Assume an
exponential distribution.

a) 0%
b) 36%
c) 18%
d) 83%

Use the following information to answer problems 170, 171 and 172.

A
= .001,
B
= .002,
C
= .003,
D
= .0025, t = 100 hours

A
B
C
D

170. What is the reliability of the system?

a) .9302
b) .4000
c) .8805
d) .4403

171. What is the MTBF for components A, B, C and D respectively?

a) 500, 400, 333, 999
b) 1000, 750, 333, 500
c) 700, 500, 333, 500
d) 1000, 500, 333, 400

172. What is the probability that component C will fail before 100 hours.

a) .5184
b) .2592
c) .3460
d) .1296

173. The MTBF of a complex piece of repairable radar equipment is determined to be 950
hours. The equipment has been in continuous operation for 150 hours. What is the
probability that the equipment will continue to operate without failure for at least
another 375 hours?

a) 0.5754
b) 0.6376
c) 0.6739
d) 0.8521

REGRESSION AND CORRELATION

174. All of the following about multiple regression are true except

a) extrapolation beyond the region of observations can lead to erroneous
predictions.
b) that it always involves at least 3 variables.
c) that it involves one independent and two or more dependant variables.
d) that it may be linear in the coefficients.

175. All of the following statements are true about a correlation coefficient except

a) it is a mathematical measure of the degree of correlation.
b) negative correlation will result in a negative correlation coefficient.
c) a correlation coefficient of 0 indicates no correlation.
d) a correlation coefficient of 1 indicates a cause and effect relationship.

176. A study was conducted on the relationship between the speed of different cars and
their gasoline mileage. The correlation coefficient was found to be 0.35 from the study.
Later, it was discovered that there was a defect in the speedometers and they had all
been set 5 miles per hour too fast. The correlation coefficient was computed using the
correct scores. What is the new correlation coefficient?

a) 0.30
b) 0.35
c) 0.40
d) 0.45

Use the following information to answer problems 177 - 182.

Quality Training
(Costs per employee
per year)
Quality Cost Savings
per employee per
year

$500

$2700

800

3500

1000

4600

1200

7000

1400

9500

2000

11500

177. What is the intercept of the regression line?

a) 42.3
b) -100.7
c) -1027.4
d) 567.52

178. What is the slope of the regression line?

a) 6.52
b) 3.21
c) 24.4
d) 79.3

179. What is the correlation coefficient?

a) .52
b) .23
c) .48
d) .97

180. What is the formula for the regression line?

a) Y = 6.52 -1027.42x
b) Y = 79.3 + 42.3x
c) Y = -100.7 + 24.4x
d) Y = -1027.42 + 6.52x

181. What will the projected quality costs savings be when $1700 per employee is invested
in quality training?

a) $97,000.00
b) $10,056.58
c) $152,231.50
d) $212,520.63

182. If the cost savings were $8000 per employee, what are the probable training costs per
employee?

a) $1,000.00
b) $1,523.33
c) $1,384.57
d) $682.80

Cost of Quality 37

COST OF QUALITY

183. The basic objective of a quality cost program is to

a) identify the source of quality failures.
b) interface with the accounting department.
c) improve the profit of your company.
d) identify quality control department costs.

184. Analysis of quality costs consists of

a) reviewing manpower utilization against standards.
b) evaluating seasonal productivity.
c) establishing management tools to determine net worth.
d) examining each cost element in relation to other elements and the total.

185. In selecting a base for measuring quality costs, which of the following should be
considered?

a) Sensitivity to increases and decreases in production schedule.
b) Affects by seasonal product sales.
c) Sensitivity to material price fluctuations.

186. Which of the following quality cost indices is likely to have the greatest appeal to top
management as an indicator of relative cost?

a) Quality cost per unit of product
b) Quality cost per hour of direct production labor
c) Quality cost per unit of processing cost
d) Quality cost per unit of sales

187. If prevention costs are increased to pay for engineering work in quality control, and this
results in a reduction in the number of product defects, this yields a reduction in

a) appraisal costs.
b) quality costs.
c) failure costs.
d) manufacturing costs.


188. A process that sorts good product from defective product falls into which of the
following quality cost categories?

a) Prevention
b) Appraisal
c) Internal failure
d) External failure

189. Cost of calibrating test and inspection equipment would be included in

a) prevention costs.
b) appraisal costs.
c) failure costs.
d) material-procurement cost.

190. The cost of writing instructions and operating procedures for inspection and testing
should be charged to

b) appraisal costs.
c) internal failure costs.
d) external failure costs.

191. Failure costs include costs due to

a) quality control engineering.
b) inspection set-up for tests.
c) certification of special process suppliers.
d) supplier analysis of non-conforming hardware.

192. Which of the following is least likely to be reported as a failure related cost?

a) Sorting lots rejected by a sampling procedure.
b) Downtime caused by late delivery of a purchased part rejected by the supplier's
final inspection.
c) Repair of field failures.
d) Re-testing of a repaired product.

193. Which of the following activities is not normally charged as a preventive cost?

a) Quality Training
b) Design and Development of Quality Measurement Equipment
c) Quality Planning
d) Laboratory Acceptance Testing

Cost of Quality 39

194. In deciding whether sampling inspection of parts would be more economical than 100%
inspection, you need to determine all of the following except

a) cost of inspecting the parts.
b) cost of correcting defective parts.
c) cost of not finding defective parts.
d) cost of improving the production process.

195. Quality cost trend analysis is facilitated by comparing quality costs to

a) manufacturing costs over the same time period.
b) cash flow reports.
c) appropriate measurement bases.
d) QC department budget.

196. For a typical month, the 3D Manufacturing Company identified and reported the
following quality costs:

Inspection wages.. $2,000
Quality planning. $4,000
Source inspection.. $2,000
In-plant scrap and rework. $88,000
Final product test... $110,000
Retest and troubleshooting.. $39,000
Field warranty cost $205,000
Evaluation and processing of deviation requests $6,000

What is the total failure cost from this data?

a) $244,000
b) $261,000
c) $205,000
d) $332,000

197. Which of the following is a typical external failure cost?

a) Material Repair
b) Material Scrap
c) Customer Appraisal
d) Training


Use the following information to answer problems 198 - 201. A manufacturer produces an
electronic memory device. The following costs are incurred on a yearly basis.

Activity Cost
Research and Development $50,000
Manufacturing Engineering 40,000
Quality Engineering 5,000
Plant Facilities 60,000
Training 1,000
Direct Labor 80,000
Process Control (Labor) 5,000
Supervision 30,000
Materials 90,000
Inspection 13,000
Scrap Costs 21,000
Rework Costs 12,000

198. What are the annual Prevention costs?

a) $10,000
b) $6,000
c) $4,000
d) $18,000

199. What are the annual Appraisal costs?

a) $18,000
b) $22,000
c) $12,000
d) $33,000

200. What are the annual Failure costs?

a) $18,000
b) $66,000
c) $33,000
d) $27,000

201. What is the percentage of quality costs to total costs

a) 47%
b) 8%
c) 10%
d) 14%


DESIGN OF EXPERIMENTS

202. In performing an Analysis of Variance for a single factor experiment, a fundamental
assumption which is made is that the factor

a) means are equal.
b) means are unequal.
c) variances are equal.
d) variances are unequal.

203. To state that a model in an experimental design is fixed indicates that

a) the levels used for each factor are the only ones of interest.
b) the levels were chosen from a fixed population.
c) the equipment from which the data are collected must not be moved.
d) the factors under consideration are qualitative.

204. An experiment with two factors, in which all levels of one variable are run at each level
of the second variable, is called a

a) One-way experiment.
b) Latin square experiment.
c) factorial experiment.
d) fractional factorial experiment.

205. A two-way Analysis of Variance has r levels for the first variable and c levels for the
second variable with 2 observations per cell. The degrees of freedom for interaction is

a) 2(r x c)
b) (r - 1)(c - 1)
c) rc - 1
d) 2(r - 1)(c - 1)

206. An analysis of variance results in a calculated F value of F(10, 12) = 2.75. What is the
level of significance?

a) p < 0.01
b) p = .01
c) p = .05
d) p > .05

207. A 3
2
experiment means that we are considering


a) two levels of three factors.
b) two dependent variables and three independent variables.
c) two go/no-go variables and three continuous variables.
d) three levels of two factors.

208. Which of the following distributions is needed to evaluate the results of analysis of
variance (ANOVA)?

a) binomial distribution
b) Chi Square distribution
c) F distribution
d) Z distribution

209. The primary advantage of the Latin Square design compared to the factorial design, is
that

a) it requires less data.
b) it eliminates the need for interaction analysis.
c) it allows higher significance levels.
d) it does not require homogeneity of variance.

210. Consider the SS and MS columns of an Analysis of Variance table for a single factor
design. The appropriate ratio for testing the null hypothesis of no treatment effect is

a) SS treatments divided by SS residual.
b) MS treatments divided by MS residual.
c) SS treatments divided by MS residual.
d) MS treatments divided by SS residual.

211. A completely randomized design is best described as

a) a design in which the linear equation coefficients are sorted randomly.
b) a design in which each factor is selected randomly.
c) a design in which all treatments are assigned to the experimental units in a
completely random manner.
d) a design in which certain factors are randomly selected for analysis.

Use the following information to answer problems 212 - 216. The following factorial
experiment was conducted to determine the effect of study time and study material used on
test scores. The numbers in the box represent the test scores. You will need to construct the
ANOVA table to complete all of the questions.

Hours of Study
4 6
Study Material Used 1 60, 85 77, 92
2 55, 65 60, 80

212. How many factors are used in this experiment?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

213. How many levels are being examined for each factor?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

214. What is the sum of squares for the residual?

a) 675.0
b) 242.0
c) 364.5
d) 1283.5

215. Which factor has the greatest impact on the outcome?

a) Study Hours
b) Study Material Used
c) Interaction
d) Residual

216. Which of the following factors are significant?

a) Study Hours and Interaction
c) Interaction


METROLOGY AND CALIBRATION

217. The key to designing an effective calibration program is to balance

a) reliability and performance metrics.
b) cost and quality considerations.
c) test and result considerations.
d) cost and variance metrics.

218. Reliability metrics can be used to measure equipment

a) availability.
b) waste.
c) performance.
d) redundancies.

219. Which of the following terms is defined as the probability that measurement equipment
will be found to be in tolerance after a specified period of time?

a) Availability
b) Activism
c) Reproducibility
d) Reliability

220. Suppose a test procedure is performed in order to determine the value of a product
measurement. What is the order of equipment type, from lowest to highest accuracy, if
NIST traceability is to be achieved?

a) Working standards, ISO standards, transfer standards, reliability standards
b) Primary standards, ISO standards, transfer standards
c) Primary standards, transfer standards, working standards
d) Working standards, transfer standards, primary standards

221. Which procedures are performed on product and test equipment in order to determine
if predefined specifications have been met?

a) Inspection
b) Identification
c) Labeling
d) Traceability

222. Which of the following is used to qualify measurement instruments in reference to
national or internationally recognized standards?

a) Reliability
b) Traceability
c) Variability
d) Dependability

223. A measurement standard with a stated uncertainty of 0.1 V, 95% confidence level, is
used to test a device that has a nominal value of 100 V, and a tolerance of 10 V.
What is the TUR for this measurement?

a) 10
b) 100
c) 9.5
d) 95

224. A requirement of the ISO 9000 series standards is that all M&TE used for product
inspection

a) is calibrated at least annually.
b) meets Mil-Std 45662A requirements.
c) is identified and labeled appropriately.
d) has passed the null test.

225. What ISO 9001 element addresses equipment calibration?

a) 4.1
b) 4.5
c) 4.11
d) 4.17


QREVIEW ANSWERS

1. b 46. b 91. a 136. c 181. b
2. d 47. a 92. b 137. b 182. c
3. b 48. b 93. d 138. d 183. c
4. c 49. a 94. a 139. c 184. d
5. b 50. c 95. d 140. d 185. d
6. b 51. d 96. b 141. c 186. d
7. a 52. d 97. a 142. a 187. c
8. c 53. a 98. c 143. d 188. c
9. c 54. b 99. b 144. a 189. a
10. a 55. a 100. a 145. b 190. a
11. b 56. c 101. b 146. a 191. d
12. d 57. c 102. c 147. c 192. b
13. a 58. b 103. d 148. c 193. d
14. c 59. c 104. a 149. a 194. d
15. d 60. a 105. b 150. d 195. c
16. b 61. d 106. c 151. c 196. d
17. b 62. c 107. a 152. d 197. a
18. b 63. a 108. d 153. b 198. b
19. c 64. b 109. b 154. c 199. a
20. c 65. d 110. b 155. c 200. c
21. c 66. b 111. b 156. b 201. d
22. c 67. a 112. a 157. a 202. c
23. c 68. d 113. c 158. d 203. a
24. d 69. a 114. a 159. b 204. c
25. d 70. d 115. c 160. d 205. b
26. c 71. b 116. b 161. b 206. c
27. d 72. c 117. c 162. a 207. d
28. c 73. d 118. b 163. b 208. c
29. d 74. b 119. b 164. d 209. a
30. c 75. c 120. d 165. a 210. b
31. c 76. b 121. c 166. b 211. c
32. a 77. b 122. b 167. a 212. a
33. b 78. b 123. d 168. b 213. a
34. d 79. b 124. c 169. d 214. a
35. c 80. b 125. a 170. c 215. b
36. d 81. a 126. d 171. d 216. d
37. b 82. d 127. b 172. b 217. b
38. c 83. c 128. d 173. a 218. c
39. b 84. c 129. b 174. c 219. d
40. c 85. b 130. c 175. d 220. d
41. a 86. c 131. a 176. b 221. a
42. c 87. a 132. d 177. c 222. b
43. d 88. c 133. a 178. a 223. b
44. b 89. b 134. a 179. d 224. c
45. b 90. d 135. d 180. d 225. c


PART II - QREVIEW SOLUTIONS

BASIC QUALITY CONCEPTS

1. Certification of a company to the ISO 9002 standard does not include which of the
following requirements?

b) Design control

Servicing, design control, contract review and internal quality audits are all requirements
of ISO 9001. The only change in ISO 9002 is the elimination of design control. ISO
9002 is intended for organizations that do not design products.

2. A quality control program is considered to be

d) a system of activities to provide quality of products and services.

A quality control program is more than a set of procedures, step by step lists of check
points or summaries of policies and data. It includes all activities performed to ensure
that products and services meet quality requirements.

3. The "quality function" of a company is best described as

b) that collection of activities through which "fitness for use" is achieved.

The quality function of a company is a collection or system of activities to ensure quality.
Fitness for use is an outcome of all these activities.

4. In preparing a product quality policy for your company, you should do all of the following
except

c) include procedural matters and functional responsibilities.

Procedures are separate documents, but the quality policy may state that procedures
need to be included in the system. Functional responsibilities are also usually a
separate document but the quality policy may have a provision that they must exist.

5. What natural phenomenon created the necessity to control product and process quality?

b) Variation

It is because of variation that the science of quality control exists. All measurements
exhibit variation and this is why it is necessary to control product and process quality.

6. The three basic elements of a quality system are


b) Quality Management, Quality Control and Quality Assurance

Quality Management is the means of implementing and carrying out quality policy.
Quality Control monitors and improves the conformance of products, processes and
services. Quality Assurance takes action to assure that products or services will satisfy
the specified requirements.

7. What are the two basic categories of quality?

a) Design and Conformance Quality

Design quality defines the level of characteristics that go into the product. Conformance
quality measures how well the design intent is met.

8. The Law of Large Numbers states that

c) individual occurrences are unpredictable and group occurrences are predictable.

The number of marriages, births and deaths in the United States next year can be
predicted with some degree of accuracy, but exactly who will get married, who will be
born or who will die cannot be predicted. This concept can be applied to a manufacturing
process. A statistical study can determine that products from a certain process are on
average two percent defective, but in any sample, the specific parts that will be defective
cannot be predicted.

9. Statistical quality control is best described as

c) the study of the characteristics of a product or process, with the help of numbers,
to make them behave the way we want them to behave.

The word statistical means having to do with numbers, or more specifically, with drawing
conclusions from numbers. The word quality means much more than the goodness or
defectiveness of the product. It refers to the qualities or characteristics of the product or
process being studied. The word control means to keep something within boundaries or
to regulate it so that its outcome may be predicted with some degree of accuracy.


10. Which of the following is the most important element in Statistical Quality Control?

a) The Feedback Loop

In statistical process control, the feedback loop is between the process control function
and the device that regulates the process or the person responsible for adjustments.
Continuous feedback and the appropriate corrective action are what make statistical
quality and process control work to achieve the desired results.

11. When measurements are accurate and precise,

b) the data are clustered closely around the central value.

Accurate measurements fall within an acceptable range but are distributed randomly
within that range. Precise measurements have minimum variation, which means that
they are clustered close together. Accurate and precise measurements would then
imply that the data is clustered closely around the central value.

12. All of the following are included in a quality system except

d) employee salaries.

Document control, corrective action and management responsibility are all essential
parts of a quality system according to the ISO 9001/Q9001 quality systems standards.
Companies usually develop a specific policy for employee salaries.

13. Which of the following best describes a statistical distribution?

a) A model that shows how data are distributed over a range of measurements.

Because of variation between measurements of individual parts, data when plotted will
form a distribution. A distribution model describes how the data are dispersed. A plot of
the distribution will show a center value and the range of measurements.

14. Which of the following are two types of data used in statistical quality control?

c) Variables and Attributes Data

Data classified as good/bad, pass/fail, go/no-go, etc., are called attribute or discrete
data. When actual measurements are taken and recorded, the data are called variables
or continuous data.

15. The primary reason for evaluating and maintaining surveillance over a supplier's quality

program is to

d) make sure the supplier's quality program is functioning effectively.

Purchased parts have a significant impact on the quality of a final product. It is important
that supplier's have an effective quality program in place. An effective quality program
and specific product quality are closely related.

16. Which one of the following are ISO 9001 requirements?

b) Quality Manual

A quality manual will usually address the elements of the ISO standard. Specific quality
tools and instructions are not included as part of the ISO requirements.

17. Which of the following does not generate product-quality characteristics?

b) Inspector

A designer, machinist and equipment engineer all play a role in the manufacture of a
product and therefore have the ability to generate product-quality characteristics. An
inspector only examines a product and cannot alter it in any way.

18. Incoming material inspection is based most directly on

b) purchase order requirements.

In since incoming inspection is concerned with the quality of purchased products, the
requirements should be listed on the purchase order.

19. The acronym ISO means

c) equal.

The International Organization for Standardization is also known as ISO. ISO is not an
acronym for this organization but it is a Latin word which translates to equal.

20. Products should be subjected to tests which are designed to

c) approximate the conditions to be experienced in customer's application.

Products need to be tested in the environment where they are used. Various other types
of tests can be performed for prove in, but every condition varies to some degree and
the best way to prove a product is under actual working conditions.
21. The advantage of a written procedure is


c) it is a perpetual coordination device.

A written procedure allows everyone concerned to know exactly what is required. It may
always be referred to when coordinating activities. Unwritten procedures usually cause
confusion because of communication failure.

22. In spite of the Quality Engineer's best efforts, situations may develop in which his
decision is overruled. The most appropriate action would be to

c) document findings, report them to superiors and move on the next assignment.

Human conflict can be minimized but never eliminated. There may be times when
engineering decisions are overruled or employee suggestions not adopted. In these
cases, the findings should be documented for possible review at a later date, then the
engineer or employee can move on to the next assignment. In any conflict, whether it is
between management and employees, between management and unions, or between
employees, good judgement must be used.

23. If a test data does not support a Quality Engineer's expectations, the best thing to do is

c) re-evaluate the expectations of the test based upon the data.

Objective data that has been collected should never be altered or the analysis of the
data should never be modified to fit expectations. The expectations were just probably
not realizable for the application under test.

24. In case of conflict between contract specifications and shop practice,

d) contract specifications normally apply.

Contract specifications take precedence over all other practices. Any deviation from the
specifications must be negotiated with the customer.

25. A quality audit program should begin with

d) a charter of policy, objectives and procedures.

All quality programs must have clear policies, objectives and documented procedures.
Without these, the effort will be aimless.

26. Auditors should report to someone who is independent from

c) the function being audited.

It is good policy for auditors to not have a vested interest in the activity being audited.
For example, the fox guarding the chicken coop will usually result in fewer chickens.
27. Analysis of data on all product returns is important because


Analysis of data on all product returns is important because it may provide feedback as
to how a customer's specific application of the product may affect the product quality. It
will also help to determine failure rates based on the longevity of the product. Immediate
feedback and analysis may be obtained for the specific products returned as opposed to
collecting data over some specified time and generalizing product problems.

28. All of the following are considerations when a total quality management (TQM) program
is implemented except

c) the manager responsible for product quality.

No one person is responsible for product quality in a TQM program. TQM involves the
use of statistical techniques, continuous improvement and total involvement by all.

29. According to Juran, all of the following are widespread errors in perception that have led
many managers astray except

d) return on investment is everything.

Juran has listed many widespread errors in perception in his books (Juran on
Leadership for Quality, 1989), but does not include "return on investment is everything."
This statement may not necessarily lead managers astray.

30. An essential technique in making training programs effective is to

c) feedback to the employee meaningful measures of his performance.

Feedback lets an employee know whether the concepts learned from training have been
grasped. This helps the employee know where their strengths and weaknesses are. It
also can help the employee gain confidence in their abilities.

31. An engineer has the job of providing a written plan of quality related tasks to his
manager, including a detailed timeline, for the following year. Which of the following
tools should be used?

c) Gantt Chart

Gantt charts are typically horizontal bar charts, where each bar represents a task that
spans from the beginning time to the ending time. Histograms and frequency
distributions are analytical tools and a flow chart is typically used for relationship
modeling.

BASIC PROBABILITY

32. The time it takes to answer a technical support line has a continuous uniform distribution
over an interval from 17 to 20 minutes. All of the following are true except

a) P(x = 18.5) = 1/2

In a continuous distribution, the probability of exact point values cannot be calculated.
Probability statements must specify a range less than or greater than a point value.

33. For two events, A and B, which one of the following is a true probability
statement?

b) P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) if A and B are mutually exclusive

For any two events, P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A & B). For independent events
P(A & B) = P(A) x P(B) and for mutually exclusive events P(A & B) = 0 as
illustrated below.
A
A & B
B
A
B
Mutually Exclusive
Independent

34. What is the probability of getting a head or a tail in 1 toss of a coin?

d) 1

P(Head) or P(Tail) = P(H) + P(T) = 1/2 + 1/2 = 1

35. What is the probability of getting a head and a tail in 2 tosses of a fair coin? And, What is
the probability of getting a head and a tail, in that order, in 2 tosses of a fair coin?

c) 1/2, 1/4

P(Head & Tail in any order) = P(Head) & P(Tail) or P(Tail) & P(Head)
= P(Head) x P(Tail) + P(Tail) x P(Head)
= 1/2 x 1/2 + 1/2 x 1/2 = 1/4 + 1/4
= 1/2

P(Head & Tail in that order) = P(Head) & P(Tail)
= P(Head) x P(Tail)
= 1/2 x 1/2 = 1/4
36. A coin is tossed 10 times. The first 9 tosses come up heads. What is the probability that

the 10
th
toss will come up heads?

d) 1/2

All tosses are independent events. The probability of getting a head on the 10
th
toss is
the same as the probability of getting a head on any toss, which is 50%.

37. What is the probability of obtaining exactly 2 heads in 4 tosses of a fair coin?

b) 3/8

Possible events: Toss 1 Toss 2 Toss 3 Toss 4
H H H H
H H H T
H H T T
H T T T
T T T T
T T T H
T T H H
T H H H
H T H T
T H T H
H T T H
T H H T
H H T H
T T H T
H T H H
T H T T

The total number of events is 16 and the number of favorable events is 6, therefore
P(2 Heads in 4 tosses) = number of favorable events / total number of events
= 6/16 = 3/8

38. What is the probability of getting a 3 when rolling a single die? ( A die is one of a pair of
dice)

c) 1/6

A single die has 6 sides numbered 1 - 6, therefore
P(rolling a 3) = number of favorable events / total number of events = 1/6


39. What is the probability of getting an odd number when rolling a pair of dice? (Spots on
the two dice sum to odd number)

b) 1/2

Possible events: 1,1 1,2 1,3 1,4 1,5 1,6
2,1 2,2 2,3 2,4 2,5 2,6
3,1 3,2 3,3 3,4 3,5 3,6
4,1 4,2 4,3 4,4 4,5 4,6
5,1 5,2 5,3 5,4 5,5 5,6
6,1 6,2 6,3 6,4 6,5 6,6

P(odd number) = number of favorable events / total number of events
= 18/36 =

40. What is the probability of obtaining a sum of 7 when rolling a pair of dice?

c) 1/6

Possible events: 1,1 1,2 1,3 1,4 1,5 1,6
2,1 2,2 2,3 2,4 2,5 2,6
3,1 3,2 3,3 3,4 3,5 3,6
4,1 4,2 4,3 4,4 4,5 4,6
5,1 5,2 5,3 5,4 5,5 5,6
6,1 6,2 6,3 6,4 6,5 6,6

P(rolling a 7) = number of favorable events / total number of events
= 6/36 = 1/6

Use the following information to answer questions 41, 42 and 43. The probability is 1/2 that
Bob will pass the CQE exam, 1/3 that Amy will pass and 3/4 that Jon will pass.

41. What is the probability that Bob, Amy and Jon will all pass the exam?

a) 1/8

P(all will pass) = P(Bob will pass) x P(Amy will pass) x P(Jon will pass)
= 1/2 x 1/3 x 3/4
= 1/8


42. What is the probability that neither Bob, Amy nor Jon will pass the exam?

c) 1/12

P(none will pass) = [1 - P(Bob will pass)] x [1 - P(Amy will pass)] x [1 - P(Jon will pass)]
= (1 - 1/2) x (1 - 1/3) x (1 - 3/4)
= 1/2 x 2/3 x 1/4
= 1/12

43. What is the probability that only one of the three will pass the exam?

d) 3/8

P(only one will pass) = [P(Bob will pass) & P(Amy will fail) & P(Jon will fail)] or
[P(Bob will fail) & P(Amy will pass) & P(Jon will fail)] or
[P(Bob will fail) & P(Amy will fail) & P(Jon will pass)]
= [1/2 x (1 - 1/3) x (1 - 3/4)] +
[(1 - 1/2) x 1/3 x (1 - 3/4)] +
[(1 - 1/2) x (1 - 1/3) x 3/4]
= 2/24 + 1/24 + 6/24
= 3/8

44. Four people shoot at a target and the probability that each will hit the target is 1/2 (50%).
What is the probability that the target will be hit?

b) 15/16

The target can be hit 0 times, 1 time, 2 times, 3 times or 4 times, therefore
P(0) + P(1) + P(2) + P(3) + P(4) = 1
P(0) = 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2 = 1/16
P(hitting target) = P(1) + P(2) + P(3) + P(4)
= 1 - P(0) = 1 - 1/16
= 15/16

45. A committee of 5 people is chosen at random from a room that contains 4 men and 6
women. What is the probability that the committee is composed of 2 men and 3 women?

b) 10/21

Use the hypergeometric probability distribution:
P(2 men and 3 women) =
( )( )
4
2
6
3
10
5
6 20
252
120
252
10
21
4762
|
\
|
.
|
|
\
|
.
|
|
\
|
.
|
= = = =.

46. A vendor is trying to sell you a box of 50 fuses that contains exactly 5 defective fuses.
You select 2 fuses from the box for testing. If both are good you will buy the entire box. If
one or both are defective, you will not buy the box. What is the probability that you will

buy the box?

b) .8082

P(buying box) = P(selecting 2 good fuses) =
( )( )
45
2
5
0
50
2
990 1
1225
8082
|
\
|
.
|
|
\
|
.
|
|
\
|
.
|
= =.

47. What is the probability of winning the Super Lotto? (Winning = getting all 6 numbers out
of 47)

a) 1/10,737,573


P(winning) = 13 .000000093
10,737,573
(1)(1)
6
47
0
41
6
6
= = |
.
|
\
|
|
.
|
\
|
|
.
|
\
|

without replacement?

b) .4909


P(2 good and 1 defective) =
( )( )
9
2
3
1
12
3
36 3
220
108
220
27
55
4909
|
\
|
.
|
|
\
|
.
|
|
\
|
.
|
= = = =.

with replacement?

a) .4219

Use the Binomial probability distribution:

P(2 good and 1 defective) =
3
2
9
12
3
12
3 5625 25 4219
2 1
|
\
|
.
|
|
\
|
.
|
|
\
|
.
|
= = (. )(. ) .
50. You have been asked to sample a lot of 300 units from a vendor whose past quality has
been about 2% defective. A sample of 40 pieces is drawn from the lot and you have
been told to reject the lot if you find two or more parts defective. What is the probability
of rejecting the lot?

c) 0.191


P(rejecting lot) = P(2) + P(3) + + P(40) = 1 [P(0) + P(1)]
4457 . ) 98 (. ) 02 (.
0
40
) 0 ( P
40 0
=
|
|
.
|
\
|
=
3638 . ) 98 (. ) 02 (.
1
40
) 1 ( P
39 1
=
|
|
.
|
\
|
=
P(rejecting lot) = 1 [.4457 + .3638] = 1 - .8095 = 0.191

Use the following information to answer questions 51 and 52. A company produces
capacitors by a process that normally yields 5% defective product. A sample of 4 capacitors
is selected.

51. What is the probability that all 4 capacitors are good?

d) .8145

P(all 4 are good) =
( ) ( )
4
4
95 05 1 8145 1 8145
4 0 |
\
|
.
|
= = . . (. )( ) .

52. What is the probability that all 4 capacitors are defective?

d) .00000625

P(all 4 are defective) =
( ) ( )
4
4
05 95 1 00000625 1 00000625
4 0 |
\
|
.
|
= = . . (. )( ) .


Use the following information to answer questions 53, 54, 55 and 56. A company makes
ball bearings that are found to be 10% defective in the long run. A sample of 10 bearings is
selected.

53. What is the probability that 0 bearings will be defective?

a) .3487

P(0) =
( ) ( )
10
0
10 90 11 3487 3487
0 10 |
\
|
.
|
= = . . ( )(. ) .

54. What is the probability of obtaining exactly 1 defective bearing?

b) .3874

P(1) =
( ) ( )
10
1
10 90 10 10 3874 3874
1 9 |
\
|
.
|
= = . . (. )(. ) .

55. What is the probability of obtaining exactly 3 defective bearings?

a) .0574

P(3) =
( ) ( )
10
3
10 90 120 001 4783 0574
3 7 |
\
|
.
|
= = . . (. )(. ) .

56. What is the probability of obtaining more than 1 defective bearing?

c) .2639

P(more than 1 defective) = P(2) + P(3) + + P(10)
= 1 - [P(0) + P(1)]
= 1 - [.3487 + .3874]
= .2639

57. How many defective connectors would be expected in a sample of 200 parts if the
process averages 2% defective?

c) 4

The average number of defective parts is equal to the sample size multiplied by the
average percent defective. The average number of defective parts = 200 x .02 = 4.
58. What is the probability of obtaining exactly 2 defective connectors in a sample of 6 parts

if the process averages 2% defective?

b) .0055

Use the Binomial probability distribution and the average number of defective parts from
the previous problem:
P(2) =
( ) ( )
6
2
02 98 15 0004 9224 0055
2 4 |
\
|
.
|
= = . (. )(. ) .

59. All of the following are probabilistic events except

c) the acceleration of an apple when it drops from a tree.

The number rolled in a game of dice, the number of defects in a random sample, and the
number of games played in the world series are all probabilistic events because the
exact outcome is not predictable 100% of the time. The acceleration of an apple when it
drops from a tree is a deterministic event because it will always accelerate at the same
rate (9.81 m/s
2
).

Use the following information to answer problems 60, 61 and 62. A company produces
integrated circuits (chips) by a process that normally yields 2000 ppm defective product for
electrical test requirements (ppm = defective parts per million). A sample of 5 chips is
selected and tested.

60. What is the probability that all 5 chips are good?

a) .9900


defective rate = 2000 ppm = 2000/1,000,000 = .002

P(all 5 are good) = P(0 defective) =
( )( ) ( )
99 . = ) 99 )(. 1 ( 1 = 998 . 002 .
5 0 5
0

61. What is the probability that 1 or more chips are defective?

d) .0100

P(1 or more defective) = P(1) + P(2) + + P(5)
= 1 - P(0)
= 1 - .99
= .0100


62. What is the probability that more than 1 chip is defective?

c) .00008

P(more than 1 defective) = P(2) + P(3) + P(4) + P(5)
= 1 - [P(0) + P(1)]

Use the following information to answer problems 63, 64 and 65. A capability study was
made to determine the defective rate of 28AZ transistors. The study showed the rate to be
5000 ppm. Ten of the transistors were shipped to a customer.

63. What is the probability that the shipment contains no defective transistors?

a) .9511



P(0 defective) = ( )( ) ( ) 9511 . = ) 9511 )(. 1 ( 1 = 995 . 005 .
10 0 10
0

64. What is the probability that the shipment contains exactly 1 defective transistor?

b) .0478

P(1 defective) =
( ) ( )
10
1
005 995 10 005 9559 0478
1 9 |
\
|
.
|
= = . . (. )(. ) .

65. What is the probability that the shipment contains 2 or more defective transistors?

d) .0011

P(2 or more defective) = P(2) + P(3) + + P(10)
= 1 - [P(0) + P(1)]
= 1 - [.9511 + .0478] (from the previous two problems)
= .0011


Use the following information to answer problems 66, 67 and 68. A circuit board operation
yields 2 defects per board on the average. A sample of 1 board is selected at random.

66. What is the probability of finding exactly 2 defects on the selected board?

b) .2706

Use the Poisson probability distribution:
p = 2 defects/board, n = 1, np = 2
P(x = 2) =
e
= =
2 2
2
2
1353 4
2
2706
!
(. )( )
.

67. What is the probability of finding less than 2 defects on the selected board?

a) .4060

P(x < 2) = P(0) + P(1)

P(x < 2) =
e e

+ = + = + =
2 0 2 1
2
0
2
1
1353 1
1
1353 2
1
1353 2706 4059
! !
(. )( ) (. )( )
. . .

68. What is the probability of finding more than 2 defects on the selected board?

d) .3235

P(x > 2) = 1 - P(x < 3) = 1 - [P(0) + P(1) + P(2)]

P(x > 2) = 1
2
0
2
1
2
2
2 0 2 1 2 2
+ +

e e e
! ! !

= 1 - (.1353)(1)/1 - (.1353)(2)/1 - (.1353)(4)/2
= 1 - .1353 - .2706 - .2706
= .3235


Use the following information to answer problems 69, 70 and 71. In manufacturing material
for automobile seats it was found that each 100-foot roll contained 2 defects (flaws) on the
average. A sample of 1 roll is selected at random from the process.

69. What is the probability that the selected roll contains 0 defects?

a) .1353

P(x = 0) =
e
= =
2 0
2
0
1353 1
1
1353
!
(. )( )
.

70. What is the probability that the selected roll contains exactly 1 defect?

d) .2706

P(x = 1) =
e
= =
2 1
2
1
1353 2
1
2706
!
(. )( )
.

71. What is the probability that the selected roll contains more than 1 defect?

b) .5941

P(x > 1) = P(2) + P(1) + + P()
= 1 - [P(0) + P(1)]
= 1 - [.1353 + .2706]
= 1 - .4059
= .5941
Use the following information to answer problems 72 and 73. A firm that makes T-shirt
decals has determined that their process yields, on average, 3 defects per day. Fifty decals
are inspected each day.

72. What is the probability of finding exactly 2 defective decals in any given day? (Assume
one defect per defective decal.)

c) .2240

p = 3 defects/day, n = 1, np = 3
P(x = 2) =
e
= =
3 2
3
2
0498 9
2
2240
!
(. )( )
.

73. What is the probability of buying a decal that contains more than 1 defect?

d) .0017

p = 3/50 = .06, n = 1, np = .06
P(x > 1) = P(2) + P(1) + + P()
= 1 - [P(0) + P(1)]
= 1
06
0
06
1
06 0 06 1
+

e e
. .
.
!
.
!

= 1 - [(.9418)(1)/1 + (.9418)(.06)/1]
= 1 - .9983
= .0017

74. A parts dealer buys parts from a warehouse. Parts are made by either Company A or
Company B but are not identified as to which company produces them. One company
produces all parts in one shipment or lot. On the average, we know:

Company A produces 2.5% defective parts.
Company B produces 5.0% defective parts.

The warehouse states that 70% of parts will come from Company A and 30% from
Company B. If the dealer selects 4 parts at random from a lot and finds 1 defective part,
what is the probability that the lot was produced by Company A?

b) .5580

The question to be answered is What is the probability that the lot came from company
A given that the shipment contains one defective part or P(A/D)?

Use Bayes formulas for conditional probability:
P(A) = .70, P(B) = .30, D = defective part
P(D/A) =
4
1
025 975
1 3
|
\
|
.
|
(. ) (. ) = .0927, P(D/B) =
4
1
05 95
1 3
|
\
|
.
|
(. ) (. ) = .1715
P(D) = P(D/A)P(A) + P(D/B)P(B) = (.0927)(.70) +(.1715)(.30) = .0649 + .0514 = .1163
P(A & D) = P(D/A)P(A) = (.0927)(.07) = .0649
P(A/D) = P(A & D)/P(D) = .0649/.1163 = .5580
Statistics 65

STATISTICS

75. What is the expected value of the random variable x for the following data?

x f(x)
12 0.2
10 0.5
14 0.1
20 0.2

a) 12.8

The mean or expected value of x is u = E(X) =
x
) x ( xf .
E(x) = 12(0.2) + 10(0.5) + 14(0.1) + 20(0.2) = 12.8

76. In the standard normal table, what value of z has 5% of the area in the tail beyond it?

b) 1.645

The value that has 5% of the area to the right must have 95% of the area to the left.
Most normal tables provide the total area to the left of the z value, but in some cases the
table may show the area from the left of the z value to the midpoint of the normal curve
for positive z values. In the initial case, the z value that corresponds to an area of .9500
is the desired value. In the latter case, the z value that corresponds to an area of .4500
is the desired value.

77. Which distribution should be used to determine a confidence interval when is not
known and the sample size is 10?

b) t

When the population variance is estimated by S
2
, and the sample size is small, then S
2

will fluctuate considerably from sample to sample and the distribution of the random
variable will deviate from the normal distribution. The t distribution is derived from the
random variable containing the sample standard deviation and is used for small sample
sizes. The t distribution should be used for sample sizes of 30 or less.

78. Which of the following methods should be used to test 6 population means for statistical
significance?

b) Analysis of Variance

The Analysis of Variance or ANOVA is a widely used technique for dealing with more
than two populations. Analysis of Variance analyzes the total variation by dividing it into
meaningful components.
79. A sample size of 120 is taken from a process and is represented graphically on a

histogram. What is the appropriate number of histogram cells to use?

b) 9 - 20

Grouping data into cells condenses large amounts of data that can be hard to manage.
Typically, between 5 and 20 cells should be used choosing the number approximately
equal to the square root of the sample size. Also, the cells should be of uniform width
and the lower limit of the first cell should be just below the smallest data value.

80. Which of the following conditions makes it possible for a process to produce a large
number of defective units while it is in statistical control?

b) When the process capability is wider than the tolerance.

If the process capability is wider than the tolerance, a percentage of parts will be outside
of the specification limits. Any parts outside of the specification limits are considered to
be defective.

81. For the normal probability distribution, which of the following is true about the
relationship among the median, mean and mode?

a) They are all equal to the same value.

The normal probability distribution is symmetrical. If a distribution is symmetrical the
median, mean and mode are located at the same location.

82. All of the following statistical techniques can be used to determine the effectiveness of a
supplier improvement program except

d) a flow chart.

A flow chart is used to illustrate the order in which a sequence of events will occur and
therefore cannot supply any meaningful data for evaluating a supplier improvement
program. Pareto analysis and x bar and R charts are effective tools for evaluating a
program based on numerical data collected from the entity being evaluated. The
program evaluation and review technique (PERT) is also an effective tool for evaluating
a particular program, particularly in evaluating scheduling requirements.

83. A sample of n observations has a mean x and a standard deviation s > 0. If a single
observation, which equals the value of the sample mean x , is removed from the sample,
which of the following is true?

c) x remains the same but s increases

Removing an observation that is equal to the average does not change the average.
The standard deviation increases because the removed point helped to keep the
variation of the data from the mean to a minimum.
84. The factory installed brake linings for a certain kind of car has a mean lifetime of 60,000
miles with a 6,000 mile standard deviation. A sample of 100 cars has been selected for
Statistics 67

testing. What is the standard error of x ? (Assume that the finite population correction
may be ignored.)

c) 600 miles

The standard error (
x
) is the standard deviation for a distribution of averages.
miles 600
100
6000
n
s
x
= = =

Use the following information to answer problems 85 - 90. A sample of 7 rivets was taken
from a shipment of 1000 rivets and the length was measured. The following data are
obtained:

Sample Number

Length (inches)

1

3.1

2

3.1

3

3.2

4

3.7

5

3.6

6

3.7

7

3.1

85. What is the mean length of the rivets?

b) 3.36 inches

" .
.
n
x
x
i
36 3
7
5 23
= = =

86. What is the standard deviation of the length of the rivets (estimate of population standard
deviation)?

c) 0.29 inches

( )
" .
.
n
x x
s
i
29 0
6
76 1
1
2
= =
=

Note: In the following 4 problems, the sample sizes are less than 30 and the t statistics
should be used to solve the problems. Analyses of this type usually involve sample sizes of
30 or greater. Handle the problems just as if the sample sizes were greater than 30 and use

the z statistics.

87. What percentage of rivets have lengths less than 2.80 inches?

a) 2.69%

The percentage of rivets that are less than 2.80" is represented by area B. The area of B
can be found by obtaining the area that corresponds to the following z value from the
standard normal table.

z
x x
s
i
=

=

=

=
280 3 36
29
56
29
193
. .
.
.
.
.
3.36
z
x
B
2.80
-1.93 0
A

Area B = .0269, therefore 2.69% of the rivets have lengths less than 2.80".

88. What percentage of rivets have lengths greater than 3.65 inches?

c) 15.9%

The percentage of rivets that are greater than 3.65" is represented by area D. The area
of D can be found by subtracting the area to the left of D from the total area under the
curve. The area to the left D can be found by obtaining the area that corresponds to the
following z value from the standard normal table.

z
x x
s
i
=

=

= =
3 65 3 36
29
29
29
10
. .
.
.
.
.
3.36
z
x
D
3.65
1.0 0
C

The area to the left of D = .8413 and the area of D = 1 - .8413 = .1587, therefore 15.9%
of the rivets have lengths greater than 3.65".
89. What percentage of rivets have lengths between 3.1 inches and 3.9 inches?

b) 78.4%
Statistics 69

Area A plus area C represent the percentage of rivets that are between 3.1" and 3.9".
The area of A plus the area of C can be found by obtaining the areas that correspond to
the following two z values from the standard normal table and subtracting the first from
the second.
z
x x
s
i
1
31 3 36
29
90 =

=

=
. .
.
. z
x x
s
i
2
3 9 3 36
29
186 =

=

=
. .
.
.
3.36
z
x
D
3.9
+1.86 0
C A
B
3.1
-.90

Area B = .1841, area BAC = .9685 and area BAC - B = .9685 - .1841 = .7844, therefore
78.4% of the rivets have lengths between 3.1" and 3.9".

90. In the shipment of 1000 rivets, how many good parts will we find if a good part is defined
as having a minimum of 3 inches and a maximum of 4 inches?

d) 878

Area A plus area C represent the percentage of rivets that are between 3.0" and 4.0".
The area of A plus the area of C can be found by obtaining the areas that correspond to
the following two z values from the standard normal table and subtracting the first from
the second.
z
x x
s
i
1
3 0 3 36
29
124 =

=

=
. .
.
. z
x x
s
i
2
4 0 3 36
29
220 =

=

= +
. .
.
.
3.36
z
x
D
4.0
+2.20 0
C A
B
3.0
-1.24

Area B = .1076, area BAC = .9861 and area BAC - B = .9861 - .1076 = .8785, therefore
87.85% of the rivets in the shipment have lengths between 3.0" and 4.0" which equates
to 878 good parts. Remember, do not round up because you cannot have a partially
good part.
The following information is used to answer problems 91 - 95. Data are taken from a
manufacturing process that produces optical glass. The sample size is 5 parts and the
characteristic measured is the diameter of the plates.

Sample Number Diameter (mm)
1 30
2 31
3 29
4 33
5 34

91. What is the mean diameter of the optical glass?

a) 31.4 mm
x
x
n
mm
i
= = =
157
5
314
.
.

92. What is the standard deviation of the population?

b) 2.07 mm
( )
s
x x
n
mm
i
=

= =
2
1
8 29
4
207
.
.

93. The specifications for the glass plates are 30.5 2 mm. What percentage of parts made
by this company will not meet specifications?

d) 37.9%

Area B plus area D represent the percentage of parts that will not meet specification. To
find the area of B plus D, it is first necessary to obtain the areas that correspond to the
following two z values from the standard normal table.

z
x x
s
i
1
28 5 314
207
14 =

=

=
. .
.
. z
x x
s
i
2
325 314
207
53 =

=

= +
. .
.
.
31.4
z
x
D
32.5
+.53 0
C A
B
28.5
-1.4

Area B = .0808, area BAC = .7019, area D = 1 - BAC = 1 - .7019 = .2981 and area
B + D = .0808 + .2981 = .3789, therefore 37.9% will not meet specifications.
94. What percentage of parts will be less than 29.5 mm?

a) 17.9%
Statistics 71

The percentage of rivets that are less than 29.5 mm is represented by area B. The area
of B can be found by obtaining the area that corresponds to the following z value from
the standard normal table.

z
x x
s
i
=

=

=
29 5 314
207
92
. .
.
.
31.4
z
x
B
29.5
-.92 0
A

Area B = .1788, therefore 17.9% of the parts will be less than 29.5 mm.

95. What percentage of parts will be greater than 33 mm?

d) 22.1%

The percentage of parts that are greater than 33 mm is represented by area D. The
area of D can be found by subtracting the area to the left of D from the total area under
the curve. The area to the left D can be found by obtaining the area that corresponds to
the following z value from the standard normal table.

z
x x
s
i
=

=

= +
33 0 316
207
77
. .
.
.
31.4
z
x
D
33.0
.77 0
C

The area to the left of D = .7793 and the area of D = 1 - .7793 = .2207, therefore 22.1%
of the parts will be greater than 33 mm.

96. The Zoglen Corporation markets a product, which is a blend of 3 ingredients (A, B, C). If
the individual tolerances for the weight of the 3 ingredients are as shown, what should
the tolerance be for the net weight of the product?


A: 40.5 2.236 grams, B: 30.4 2.000 grams, C: 18.1 1.732 grams

b) 89.0 3.464 grams

nominal value = nominal A + nominal B + nominal C = 40.5 + 30.4 + 18.1 = 89.0
tolerance = T T T
A B C
2 2 2 2 2 2
2 236 20 1732 3 464 + + = + + = . . . .
This is known as the statistical method of relating tolerances. The net weight of most of
the products will fall within 89.0 3.464 grams.

97. A random sample of size n is to be taken from a large population that has a standard
deviation of 1 inch. The sample size is determined so that there will be a 95% chance
that the sample average will be within 0.1 inch of the true mean. Which of the following
values is nearest to the required sample size?

a) 385

The sample size is determined by using the formula for variables data. The z value
corresponding to 95% of the area under the normal curve is 1.96.
n
Zs
E
=
|
\
|
.
|
=
|
\
|
.
|
=
2 2
196 1
01
385
( . )( )
.

98. All of the following conditions must be met for the process capability to be within the
specification limits except

c) C
p
= C
pk

The value of C
p
is based on a ratio of the specification limits to the measured process
variability (6). A C
p
less than 1.0 (large variance) will yield a distribution that falls
outside of the specification limits. A value of C
pk
less than 1.0 will represent a shift of the
mean value of the data from the target value, which will cause some of the data to
possibly fall outside of a specification limit. A stable process implies that all the data will
fall within the specification limits. The process capability index and the process
performance index may equal each other and fall outside of the specification limits if they
are both less than 1.0.

99. A value on the abscissa of the t distribution is 1.093. What is the area to the right of this
value if the sample size is 11?

b) 0.15

1. Degrees of freedom = n-1 = 11-1=10
2. Assuming that the t-table provided by QReview is used, go to the left column find 10
df and then across to the table value of 1.093.
3. Read the probability value on the top row, p=.3. The probabilities represent areas.
4. Since the table is set up for two tails (see picture on top), the value must be divided
by 2. .3/2=.15

Statistics 73

100. The spread of individual observations from a normal process capability distribution may
be expressed numerically as

a) 6R/d
2

If only control chart information is available, the standard deviation may be calculated
by R/d
2
, where d
2
is a factor corresponding to the sample size. The process
capability is defined as 6, therefore the expression may be defined as 6 R/d
2
.

101. What percentage of data will normally fall within a process capability?

b) 99.73%

Process capability is defined as 6. The area under the normal curve from -3 to +3,
which is 6, is 99.73% of the total area.

Use the following information to answer problems 102 - 105. A winding machine wraps wire
around a metal core to make small transformers. The design engineers have determined
that the nominal number of windings is to be 10,060 with a minimum of 10,025 and a
maximum of 10,095. A sample of 300 transformers was selected in a three month period
and the wire was unwrapped on each part to determine the number of windings. The results
were:

x = 10,052 windings and s = 10 windings

102. What is the process capability?

c) 10022 - 10082

The process capability equals x 3 , where s is an estimate of . This formula will
yield a spread of 6 centered at the mean.
x + = + = 3 10 052 3 10 10082 , ( )
x = = 3 10 052 3 10 10022 , ( )

p
?

d) 1.17
C
USL LSL
p
=

=

= =
6
10095 10025
6 10
70
60
117
( )
.


pk
?

a) .90
C
x nearest spec it
pk
=

=

=
lim
( )
.
3
10052 10025
3 10
90

105. What is the expected percent defective?

b) 0.35%

The area outside of the specification limits is where defective product can be found.

z
x x
s
i
1
10025 10052
10
27 =

=

= .
z
x x
s
i
2
10095 10052
10
4 3 =

=

= + .
10052
z
x
Area 0
10082
+4.3 0
10095 10025
area = .0035
10022
-2.7


STATISTICAL INFERENCE

106. Which of the following cannot be a null hypothesis?

c) The sample means are equal.

A hypothesis is a statement or inference about a population concerning either
variables or attributes data. For example, sample means may be used in a hypothesis
test to determine if the data is representative of a population but not to determine if two
sample means are equal.

107. In a sampling distribution which of the following represents the critical region?

a)

The critical region of a sampling distribution is represented as , otherwise known as a
type I error. This is the area under the distribution curve where one will reject a true
null hypothesis.

108. In a hypothesis test which of the following represents the acceptance region?

d) 1 -

The acceptance region is denoted as 1 - or one minus the critical region. This can
also be termed as the area under the distribution curve where one would accept a true
null hypothesis.

109. The Chi Square distribution is

b) a distribution of variances.

The chi square distribution is a special case of the gamma distribution. The variance
of the chi square distribution is known as two times the number of degrees of freedom,
therefore the variance can be substituted back into the density function to give a
distribution of variances.

110. Which of the following is a number derived from sample data that describes the data in
some useful way?

b) statistic

Any function of the random variables constituting a random sample is called a statistic.

111. A null hypothesis assumes that a process is producing no more than the maximum
allowable rate of defective items. What does the type II error conclude about the
process?

b) It is not producing too many defectives when it actually is.

The type II error or is the acceptance of a false null hypothesis. If the null hypothesis
is false in this case then the process will actually be producing too many defectives
and the type II error will conclude that the process is acceptable.

112. A quality engineer wants to determine whether or not there is any difference between
the means of the convolute paperboard cans supplied by two vendors, A and B. A
random sample of 100 cans is selected from the output of each vendor. The sample
from vendor A yielded a mean of 13.59 with a standard deviation of 5.94. The sample
from vendor B yielded a mean of 14.43 with a standard deviation of 5.61. Which of the
following would be a suitable null hypothesis?

a) u
A
= u
B

The null hypothesis is the statement we are trying to prove or disprove and the
alternate hypothesis is the statement we will accept if the null hypothesis is not
accepted. Typically, if the null hypothesis is not accepted we will accept a range of
values as provided in the wrong answers to this question.

113. A chi square test for independence has a 4 x 3 contingency table and a calculated chi
square value of 11.5. At a .05 level of significance, which of the following are true about
the decision regarding the null hypothesis?

c) 6 df, accept H
o

The degrees of freedom for a contingency table are (r - 1)(c - 1), therefore
df = 3 x 2 = 6. From the chi square table ( = .05), the critical value is 12.59. The
calculated value of 11.5 falls within the acceptance region, therefore accept H
o
.

114. A supplier states that the average diameter of optical glass plates is 37.50 mm. The
specifications are 37.50 mm .40 mm. A shipment of 500 plates is received and a
sample of 10 plates is selected and the diameters of each are measured. The following
data are obtained:

37.42 mm 37.84 37.50 37.48 37.75
37.63 37.82 37.78 37.79 37.51

Does the entire population have an average diameter of 37.5 mm? Test at a level of
significance of .05.

o

The null and alternate hypotheses are H x
0
37 5 : . = and H x
1
37 5 : . = . The t statistic
must be computed to determine if it falls in the critical region of the t distribution. The
mean and standard deviation need to be computed to determine the t statistic.

t
x
s
n
=

=

= +
u 37 652 37 5
162
10
2967
. .
.
.
x
2.262
.025
0 -2.262 37.5
t
.025
2.967

The t statistic falls in the critical region, therefore reject H
o
in favor of H
1
.

115. Given: n = 40, p = .20 defects/unit

Could this sample have possibly come from a process whose process average is .14
defects/unit? Test at a level of significance of .01.

c) z = +1.01, Do not reject H
o

The null and alternate hypotheses are H
0
: p = .14 and H
1
: p > .14. The z statistic must
be computed to determine if it falls within the critical region. The critical z value, from
the normal curve table, is +2.325. The computation of the z statistic is as follows:
= = =
np
n
( )(. )
.
40 14
40
059
z
p p
=

=

= +
. .
.
.
20 14
059
101

z
x
2.325
P=.14
0
.01
1.01

The z statistic falls in the acceptance region, therefore do not reject H
o
.

116. A study of 26 families across a certain state indicated that the average family income
during 1989 was $33,400 with a Standard Deviation of $3680. Test the hypothesis that
the true average income in this state during 1989 was $32,000 against the alternative
that it was not $32,000. Test at a level of significance of .05.

o


0
: u = 32,000 and H
1
: u 32,000. The t
statistic must be computed to determine if it falls within the critical region. The critical t
values, from the student t table, are 2.060. The computation of the t statistic is as
follows:
t
x
n
=

=

= +
u
33 400 32 000
3 680
26
194
, ,
,
.
x
+2.060
.025
0 -2.060 32,000
t
.025
1.94

The t statistic falls in the acceptance region, therefore accept H
o
.

117. An inspection yields the following results:

n = 20, x = 10.5 lb., s = 1.2 lb.

Could this data have reasonably come from a process which usually has an average of
11.3 lb. or greater? Test at a level of significance of .01.

o

0
: u = 11.3 and H
1
: u < 11.3. The t statistic
must be computed to determine if it falls within the critical region. The critical t value,
from the student t table, is -2.539. The computation of the t statistic is as follows:
t
x
n
=

=

=
u
10 5 113
12
20
298
. .
.
.
x
.01
0 -2.539 11.3
t
-2.98

The t statistic falls in the critical region, therefore reject H
o
in favor of H
1
.
118. In a hypothesis test what determines whether the test is one tailed or two tailed?

b) Alternate Hypothesis

If the alternate hypothesis is written so that the population being tested is less than
(e.g. u < .90) or greater than (e.g. u > .90) some value then the test will be one tailed.

If it is stated so that the population is not equal to some value (e.g. u
A
u
B
) then the
test will be two tailed.

119. Pooled variance is best described as

b) the combination of variances of two or more samples.

The pooled variance is used when two or more samples are considered to be
independent. Independent is defined as when the individual data in one sample
cannot be related to or associated with the other in any meaningful manner.

120. Goodness of Fit is best described as

d) the comparison of an observed sample distribution with a theoretical distribution.

If some sample data are taken, one might want to know what distribution the data
follows. Tests for goodness of fit can be performed to determine if the data follows any
particular distribution.


Sampling 81

SAMPLING

121. The Dodge-Romig Tables are designed to minimize which parameter?

c) ATI

Dodge and Romig define ATI as Average Total Inspection. The sampling plans in the
Doge Romig tables attempt to minimize the ATI.

122. What are the two unique quantities that determine a single sampling attributes plan?

b) Sample Size and Acceptance Number

An OC curve that describes the sampling plan may be developed using the sample
size, acceptance number and various values of incoming quality.

123. Characteristics for which 100% inspection may be practicable include all of the
following except

d) ultimate physical properties (tensile strength, viscosity).

Typically, testing these types of properties can take a long time and are usually
unnecessary. They also usually require some type of destructive test. If destructive
testing is performed on 100% of the product then no product will ever be available for
use.

124. The term AQL as used in sampling inspection, means

c) the maximum percent defective that can be considered satisfactory as a process
average.

AQL is the acceptable quality level. If the incoming quality level is at or below the
AQL, the lots have a high probability of being accepted.

125. Which of the following best describes what an operating characteristic curve shows?

a) The probability of accepting lots of various quality levels by sampling methods.
0% 1% 2% 3% 4% 5% 6% 7%
0
0.1
0.2
0.3
0.4
0.5
0.6
0.7
0.8
0.9
1
p - Quality of lots submitted to inspection (AIQ)
Approximately two
times the AOQL
Rejectable
Quality Level (RQL)
P
r
o
b
a
b
i
l
i
t
y

o
f

A
c
c
e
p
t
a
n
c
e
The Producer's Risk ()
Acceptable Quality
Level (AQL)
The Consumers
Risk ()


126. In ANSI/ASQ Z1.4, the AQL is always determined at what P
a
on the OC curve?


The probability of acceptance is not set at a specific value. AQL's may have a different
P
a
depending on what sample code is chosen.

127. Which of the following best describes what an average outgoing quality curve shows?

b) The outgoing quality level versus the incoming quality level.

0
0.005
0.01
0.015
0.02
0.025
0.03
0 0.01 0.02 0.03 0.04 0.05 0.06 0.07 0.08 0.09 0.1 0.11 0.12
Average Incoming Quality (AIQ)
A
v
e
r
a
g
e
O
u
tg
o
in
g

Q
u
a
lity

(
A
O
Q
)
AOQL = .028

Use the following information to answer problems 128 - 134. A sampling plan is needed
which will satisfy the following requirements:

Accept acceptable quality product almost all (90%) of the time.
Accept rejectable quality product almost none (12%) of the time.
Acceptable quality is defined as a process average of 1% defective.
Rejectable quality is defined as a process average of 7% defective.


d) 10%

Alpha is known as the producer's risk or when acceptable quality product is rejected
and is 1 - .90.


b) 12%

Beta is known as the consumer's risk or when unacceptable quality product is
accepted and is given.

130. What is the value of the AQL?

c) 1%

AQL is defined as acceptable quality level and is given.
Sampling 83

131. What is the value of the LTPD?

a) 7%

The lot tolerance percent defective is the same as RQL expressed as percent
defective and is given.

132. What is the sample size that will satisfy the requirements stated above?

d) 50

See Binomial Nomograph below.

133. What is the acceptance number that will satisfy the requirements stated above?

a) 1


134. What is the approximate value of the AOQL?

a) .0165

The Binomial Nomograph may not be drawn to scale. AOQL .033 / 2 = .0165
The point where the lines meet is where the sample size and acceptance number can
be found.

.50
.90
.07
.01
.12
.033

Use the following data to answer problems 135 - 137.

Given: AQL = .015 (1.5% defective), RQL = .050 (5.0% defective), = .05, = .10

135. What is the sample size of the sampling plan?

d) 200


136. What is the acceptance number of the sampling plan?

c) 6


137. What is the value of AOQL?

b) .0160

The point where the lines meet is where the sample size and acceptance number can
be found.

.50
.95
.05
.015 .05
.032

the value of the AQL if = .05?

d) .0280

See the Binomial Nomograph on the following page.

the approximate value of the AOQL?
Sampling 85

c) .0370

The Nomograph must be constructed and the lines must drawn through the sample
size and acceptance number so that the AQL and AOQL can be obtained.

.50
.95
.0614
.028
n = 50
c = 3

140. All of the following are methods for checking product except

d) safeguard checking.

Checking product is a safegaurd but it is not a particular method for checking product.
Constant percentage sampling, spot checking and no checking at all are among the
many methods for checking product.

141. All of the following are characteristics of lot by lot single sampling except

c) rejected lots are immediately scrapped.

In lot by lot single sampling, rejected lots are usually screened 100% for the cause of
rejection. In some cases, the lot may be scrapped.

142. All of the following are characteristics of continuous sampling except

a) it is only used where product flow is discrete.

Continuous sampling is used where product flow is continuous and it is not feasible to
be formed into lots.

143. The following parameters are required for sampling plan construction using the
Binomial Nomograph except

d) Sample size.

The sample size and acceptance number are the two values that describe a sampling
plan and can be obtained by using the Binomial Nomograph. Input values include
AQL, RQL, and .


CONTROL CHARTS

144. The primary use of a control chart is to

a) detect assignable causes of variation in the process.

When assignable causes of variation are detected, changes in the inputs can be made
to bring the process back in control. Control charts also provide feedback to operators
and engineers to help reduce process variability.

145. np charts are based on which distribution?

b) Binomial

The p in np is a percentage. The Binomial distribution is used to calculate probabilities
associated with "percentages", therefore the np chart is based the Binomial
distribution.

146. c and u charts are based on which distribution?

a) Poisson

The c and u values are the number of defects in a sample. The Poisson distribution is
used to calculate probabilities associated with "defects." The Binomial cannot be used
to calculate the probability of a certain number of defects.

147. Why do x charts always follow a normal distribution?

c) The Central Limit Theorem

The central limit theorem states that the distribution of averages always tend to follow
a normal distribution even though the distribution of individual data values may be
skewed.

148. When used together for variables data, which of the following pair of quantities is the
most useful in preparing control charts?

c) x , R

These two statistics are derived from variable data, where x is the average of a
sample of measurements and R is the range or difference between the highest and
lowest value in the sample.

149. A process is in control at x = 100, R = 7.3 with n = 4. If the process level shifts to
Control Charts 87

101.5, with the same R, what is the probability that the next x point will fall outside the
old control limits?

a) .016

Original control limits:
UCL = x + A
2
R = 100 + (.729)(7.3) = 105.329
LCL = x - A
2
R = 100 - (.729)(7.3) = 94.671
Revised control limits:
UCL = x + A
2
R = 101.5 + .73(7.3) = 106.829
UCL = x - A
2
R = 101.5 - .73(7.3) = 96.171
x = 100
UCL = 105.329
LCL = 94.671
106.829
101.5
96.171
Probability of exceeding
old control limits = probability
xbar > 105.329.

Standard error = se = A
2
R/3 = 5.329/3 = 1.776
15 . 2
776 . 1
5 . 101 329 . 105
se
x x
Z
i
+ =
=

From the normal curve table,
P( x > 105.329) = P(Z > 2.15) = .5000 - .4842 = 0158 .016

150. A process is checked by inspection at random samples of 4 shafts after a polishing
operation, x and R charts are maintained. A person making a spot check picks out 2
shafts, measures them accurately, and plots the value of each on the x chart. Both
points fall just outside the control limits. He advises the department foreman to stop the
process. This decision indicates that

d) the person is not using the chart correctly.

The plotted points must be the average of the sample or x . Individual data points are
not to be plotted on a x chart.

151. The hardness of rivets is normally distributed with u = 60.0 and standard deviation
= 1.2. What are the 3 sigma control limits for the x chart using samples of size 5?

c) 58.38, 61.62

79 . 2 = ) 33 . 2 ( 2 . 1 = sd = R
2

UCL x A R
x
= + = + =
2
60 58 279 6162 . ( . ) .
LCL x A R
x
= = =
2
60 58 279 58 38 . ( . ) .

152. A possible cause of a cycle pattern in a control chart include all of the following except

d) new supplier.

A new supplier may cause a sudden shift in the pattern. The shift will appear exactly
when the new supplier's products are used.

Use the following information to answer problems 153 - 158. The following data are obtained
from measuring the length of a metal bracket.

Sample #1 Sample #2 Sample #3 Sample #4
x = 1.51" x = 1.50" x = 1.52" x = 1.53"
R = .03" R = .02" R = .04" R = .03"
n = 5 n = 5 n = 5 n = 5

153. What are the values of x , UCL
x
and LCL
x
for an x chart?

b) 1.515", 1.532", 1.498"

x =
+ + +
=
151 150 152 153
4
1515
. . . .
.

UCL x A R
LCL x A R
x
x
= + = + =
= = =
2
2
1515 0 58 0 03 1532
1515 0 58 0 03 1498
. . ( . ) .
. . ( . ) .

154. What are the values of R, UCL
R
, LCL
R
for an R chart?

c) .030", .0634", 0

R =
+ + +
=
0 03 0 02 0 04 0 03
4
0 03
. . . .
.
UCL D R
LCL D R
R
R
= = =
= = =
4
3
2114 0 03 0 063
0 0 03 0
. ( . ) .
( . )

155. What are the values of the sample size and number of samples?
c) 5, 4

Control Charts 89

Four samples were taken. Each sample consisted of 5 brackets, therefore the sample
size is 5.

156. What is the standard error?

b) .0058"

S dardError S E
A R
tan . .
( . )( . )
. = = = =
2
3
0 58 0 03
3
0058

157. What is the standard deviation of the individual data points?

a) .013"

S dardDeviation s
R
d
tan
.
.
. = = = =
2
030
2 326
013

158. What is the process capability for the individual data points?

d) 1.476" to 1.554"

The process capability = x + 3 where s is an estimate of .
x
x
+ = + =
= =
3 1515 3 013 1554
3 1515 3 013 1476
. (. ) .
. (. ) .


Use the following information to answer problems 159 - 162. The following data are the
result of inspecting aircraft seat belt buckles.

Number of buckles in
the sample
Number of defective
buckles
50 2
60 3
40 1
50 2
55 0
55 1
50 0
60 1

159. What is the average percent defective ( ) p ?

b) .024
p
number of defective buckles
total sample
= = =
10
420
024 .

160. What are the upper and lower control limits?

d) .087, 0
UCL p
p p
n
= +

= + = 3
1
024 3
024 9760
52 5
087
( )
.
(. )(. )
.
.
LCL p
p p
n
=

= = 3
1
024 3
024 9760
525
0
( )
.
(. )(. )
.

161. What is the appropriate type of control chart?

b) p chart

The points plotted are values of fraction defective or percent defective. These types of
data require the use of p charts.

162. An additional sample of 75 buckles contains 4 defectives. Is this sample point in
control?

a) Yes, p = .053

The new sample point (p = 4 / 75 = .053) value does not exceed the upper control limit,
therefore the sample point is in control.


RELIABILITY

163. A reliability data system usually implies collecting data on

b) product failures and operating time.

Reliability is defined as the probability of a device performing its intended function
under given operating conditions for a specified length of time. When collecting data,
product failures and operating time are the information required to perform a good
reliability analysis.

164. Which of the following best describes the failure rate in the wear out phase of the
bathtub curve?

d) Gets Worse

The bathtub curve has three phases: infant mortality, useful life and wear out.
Typically, if a product fails in its infant mortality phase it will never reach the customer.
As the product goes through its useful life phase it will begin and continue to wear out,
increasing its failure rate through time.

165. The greatest contribution of a reliability effort is made in the

a) design area.

A product will not become more reliable after it has been designed. Certain
characteristics must be designed into products to ensure the smallest probability of
failure. Various statistical techniques can be used to help determine designs that will
meet the required expectations.

166. Reliability prediction is

b) the process of estimating the probability that a product will perform its intended
function for a stated time.

Reliability prediction is the implementation of various statistical techniques to
determine the reliability of a product before the product actually fails.

167. Maintainability is

a) the probability of a system being restored to functional operation within a given
period of time.

One of the biggest problems with system failures is the downtime while a system is
being fixed. An important factor in designing a system is to minimize the time to
restore the system to functional operation.
168. A set of components has a MTBF of 1000 hours. What percentage will fail if the

components are tested for 500 hours?

b) 39%

= = =
1 1
1000
001
MTBF
.
Re .
(. )( )
liability e e
t
= = =
001 500
6065
probability of failure liability = = = 1 1 6065 3900 Re . .

169. What is the reliability of a system at 850 hours, if the average usage on the system was
400 hours for 1650 items and the total number of failures was 145? Assume an
exponential distribution.

d) 83%

failure rate = = =
145
400 1650
0002196
( )( )
.
reliability e e
t
= = =
(. )( )
.
0002196 850
8297 83%

Use the following information to answer problems 170, 171 and 172.

A
= .001,
B
= .002,
C
= .003,
D
= .0025, t = 100 hours

C A
B D

170. What is the reliability of the system?

c) .8805

R e e e
R e e e
R e e e
R e e e
R R xR x
R R xR x
R probability of failure
A
t
B
t
C
t
D
t
AC A C
AB B D
sys
A
B
C
D
= = = =
= = = =
= = = =
= = = =
= = =
= = =
= =

. ( ) .
. ( ) .
. ( ) .
. ( ) .
.
.
.
.
. . .
. . .
( ) [( .
001 100 10
002 100 20
003 100 30
0025 100 25
9048
8187
7408
7788
9048 7408 6703
8187 7788 6376
1 1 1 6093)( . )] . 1 6376 8805 =

171. What is the MTBF for components A, B, C and D respectively?


d) 1000, 500, 333, 400

MTBF
MTBF
MTBF
MTBF
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
= = =
= = =
= = =
= = =
1 1
001
1000
1 1
002
500
1 1
003
333 33
1 1
0025
400
.
.
.
.
.

172. What is the probability that component C will fail before 100 hours.

b) .2592

The probability that component C will work for at least 100 hours is
R e e
C
t
C
= = =
. ( )
.
003 100
7408
therefore, the probability that component C will fail before 100 hours is
1 - R
C
= 1 - .7408 = .2592 or 25.9%

173. The MTBF of a complex piece of repairable radar equipment is determined to be 950
hours. The equipment has been in continuous operation for 150 hours. What is the
probability that the equipment will continue to operate without failure for at least
another 375 hours?

a) 0.5754

= = =
1 1
950
0010526
MTBF
.
t hours = + = 150 375 525
R e e
t
= = =
(. )( )
.
0010526 525
5754


REGRESSION AND CORRELATION

174. All of the following about multiple regression are true except

c) that it involves one independent and two or more dependant variables.

Multiple regression implies that more than one independent variable is being used to
observe only one dependent variable.

175. All of the following statements are true about a correlation coefficient except

d) a correlation coefficient of 1 indicates a cause and effect relationship.

A correlation coefficient of 1 indicates perfect correlation, but it does not imply that the
independent variables are related, as to cause and effect, to the dependant variable.

176. A study was conducted on the relationship between the speed of different cars and
their gasoline mileage. The correlation coefficient was found to be 0.35 from the study.
Later, it was discovered that there was a defect in the speedometers and they had all
been set 5 miles per hour too fast. The correlation coefficient was computed using the
correct data. What is the new correlation coefficient?

b) 0.35

The correlation coefficient is a mathematical measure of the degree of correlation
between the different cars and their gas mileage. If all of the data is changed so that
the relative difference between the data does not change then the amount of
correlation between the cars will not change.

Use the following information to answer problems 177 - 182.

Quality Training
(Costs per employee
per year)
Quality Cost Savings
per employee per
year

$500

$2700

800

3500

1000

4600

1200

7000

1400

9500

2000

11500

177. What is the intercept of the regression line?


c) -1027.4

x x
2
Y xY
500 250,000 2,700 1,350,000
800 640,000 3,500 2,800,000
1,000 1,000,000 4,600 4,600,000
1,200 1,440,000 7,000 8,400,000
1,400 1,960,000 9,500 13,160,000
2,000 4,000,000 11,500 23,000,000
6,900 9,290,000 38,800 53,450,000

( )( ) ( )
( ) ( )
int ercept a
x xY Y x
x n x
= =

2
2
2

a
x
=

= =
6 900 53 450 000 38 800 9 290 000
6900 6 9 290 000
8 353 10
8130 000
1027 4
2
9
, ( , , ) , ( , , )
( , , )
.
, ,
.

178. What is the slope of the regression line?

a) 6.52

( )( )
( )
slope b
xY
x Y
n
x
x
n
= =
2
2

b =

= =
53 450 000
6 900 38 800
6
9 290 000
6900
6
8 830 000
1335 000
6 52
2
, ,
( , )( , )
, ,
, ,
, ,
.

179. What is the correlation coefficient?

d) .97

X ( ) x x

Y
( ) Y Y ( ) x x ( ) Y Y
500 -650 2,700 -3,766.67 2,448,335.50
800 -350 3,500 -2,966.67 1,038,334.50
1,000 -150 4,600 -1,866.67 280,000.50
1,200 50 7,000 533.33 26,666.50
1,400 250 9,500 3033.33 758,332.50
2,000 850 11,500 5033.33 4,278,330.50
6,900 38,800 8,829,999.50

( )( )
| |
R
n
x x Y Y
x Y
=

1

x Y
= = 475 22 319618 . , , .
( )
R = = =
1
6
8 830 000
475 22 319618
14716667
1518 887 8
97
, ,
( . )( , . )
, , .
, , .
.

180. What is the formula for the regression line?

d) Y = -1027.42 + 6.52x

The formula for the regression line is Y = a + bx.

181. What will the projected quality costs savings be when $1700 per employee is invested
in quality training?

b) $10,056.58

Y = projected quality cost savings
x = $1700
Y = -1027.42 + 6.52(1700)
Y = $10,056.58

182. If the cost savings were $8000 per employee, what are the probable training costs per
employee?

c) $1,384.57

Manipulating the regression equation to solve for x yields,
x = (1027.42 + Y) / 6.52
Y = cost savings per employee = $8,000
x = probable training costs per employee
x = (1027.42 + 8000) / 6.52 = $1,384.57

Cost of Quality 97

COST OF QUALITY

183. The basic objective of a quality cost program is to

c) improve the profit of your company.

A quality cost program can be used to formally evaluate the costs associated quality.
Having this financial control enables management to control these costs and identify
opportunities to reduce costs.

184. Analysis of quality costs consists of

d) examining each cost element in relation to other elements and the total.

Quality costs are broken down into different areas: prevention costs, appraisals costs,
internal failure costs and external failure costs. These areas are compared to one
another and to the total so that the relationship can be seen and a balance between
the costs can be obtained.

185. In selecting a base for measuring quality costs, which of the following should be
considered?


Sensitivity to increases and decreases in production schedules, affects by seasonal
product sales and sensitivity to material price fluctuations could result in dramatic
effects when comparing quality costs to a single base. For example, if sales triple
during the Christmas season then quality costs may be insignificant to the total costs.
Appropriate analysis is required to account for these fluctuations.

186. Which of the following quality cost indices is likely to have the greatest appeal to top
management as an indicator of relative cost?

d) Quality cost per unit of sales

Comparing quality costs directly to sales is the only true relative measure. Comparing
quality costs to revenue received from sales provides a good measure to determine if
the appropriate amount is being spent quality.

187. If prevention costs are increased to pay for engineering work in quality control, and this
results in a reduction in the number of product defects, this yields a reduction in

c) failure costs.

All costs associated with parts failing to meet quality standards or that cause
manufacturing loss are considered failure costs.

188. A process that sorts good product from defective product falls into which of the
following quality cost categories?

c) Internal failure

Any costs associated with defective products are considered failure costs. Any failure
costs discovered before the customer receives the product are considered internal
failure costs.

189. Cost of calibrating test and inspection equipment would be included in


Prevention costs are costs associated with designing, implementing and maintaining a
quality system. These are costs incurred to reduce other quality costs.

190. The cost of writing instructions and operating procedures for inspection and testing
should be charged to


Writing instructions and operating procedures are prevention costs because they may
significantly reduce problems and the costs associated with resolving the problems, if
properly adhered to.

191. Failure costs include costs due to

d) supplier analysis of non-conforming hardware.

The fact that the analysis was done on non-conforming hardware and not on the
hardware before it was known to be non-conforming constitutes this as a failure cost.

192. Which of the following is least likely to be reported as a failure related cost?

b) Downtime caused by late delivery of a purchased part rejected by the supplier's
final inspection.

Typically, this cost is overlooked because there is no direct method to obtain the cost
associated with the late delivery. Often times, other events can take place while
waiting for the part, therefore resulting in a smaller failure cost.

193. Which of the following activities is not normally charged as a preventive cost?

d) Laboratory Acceptance Testing

Laboratory acceptance testing is considered an appraisal cost because it is a cost
associated with ensuring that the product meets certain requirements or standards.
Cost of Quality 99

194. In deciding whether sampling inspection of parts would be more economical than 100%
inspection, you need to determine all of the following except

d) cost of improving the production process.

The cost of improving a production process may be of interest after inspection has
been completed and it has been determined that the process needs to be modified to
increase the quality of product.

195. Quality cost trend analysis is facilitated by comparing quality costs to

c) appropriate measurement bases.

A measurement base is developed using historical data. Measurement bases should
take into account various factors that could affect the quality costs such as seasonal
trends. This data can then be used to compare against future data.

196. For a typical month, the 3D Manufacturing Company identified and reported the
following quality costs:

Inspection wages.. $2,000
Quality planning. $4,000
Source inspection.. $2,000
In-plant scrap and rework. $88,000
Final product test... $110,000
Retest and troubleshooting.. $39,000
Field warranty cost $205,000
Evaluation and processing of deviation requests $6,000

What is the total failure cost from this data?

d) $332,000

Failure Costs
In-plant scrap and rework 88,000
Retest and troubleshooting 39,000
Field warranty cost 205,000
Total 332,000

197. Which of the following is a typical external failure cost?

a) Material Repair

This cost is primarily the value of time spent on the return and repair of goods that
have been in the customer's hands.

Use the following information to answer problems 198 - 201. A manufacturer produces an
electronic memory device. The following costs are incurred on a yearly basis.

Activity Cost
Research and Development $50,000
Manufacturing Engineering 40,000
Plant Facilities 60,000
Training 1,000
Direct Labor 80,000
Process Control (Labor) 5,000
Supervision 30,000
Materials 90,000
Inspection 13,000
Scrap Costs 21,000
Rework Costs 12,000

198. What are the annual Prevention costs?

b) $6,000
Prevention Costs
Training 1,000
Total 6,000

199. What are the annual Appraisal costs?

a) $18,000
Appraisal Costs
Process Control 5,000
Inspection 13,000
Total 18,000

200. What are the annual Failure costs?

c) $33,000
Failure Costs
Scrap 21,000
Rework 12,000
Total 33,000

201. What is the percentage of quality costs to total costs

d) 14%

Total costs = $407,000
Total quality costs = prevention costs + appraisal costs + failure costs
= 6,000 + 18,000 + 33,000 = $57,000
% of quality costs to total costs = 57,000 / 407,000 = .14 or 14%

DESIGN OF EXPERIMENTS

202. In performing an Analysis of Variance for a single factor experiment, a fundamental
assumption which is made is that the

c) variances are equal.

The model errors are assumed to be normally and independently distributed random
variables with mean zero and variance
2
. The variance
2
is also assumed constant
for all levels of the factor, which is necessary to test means.

203. To state that a model in an experimental design is fixed indicates that

a) the levels used for each factor are the only ones of interest.

The conclusions of the hypothesis test will only apply to the factor levels considered.
The conclusions cannot be extended to similar factor levels that were not considered.

204. An experiment with two factors, in which all levels of one variable are run at each level
of the second variable, is called a

c) factorial experiment.

Factorial experiments are used when several factors are of interest. More specifically,
in each complete trial or replicate of the experiment combinations of the levels of the
factors are investigated.

205. A two-way Analysis of Variance has r levels for the first variable and c levels for the
second variable with 2 observations per cell. The degrees of freedom for interaction is

b) (r - 1)(c - 1)

206. An analysis of variance results in a calculated F value of F(10, 12) = 2.75. What is the
level of significance?

c) p = .05

The F
.05
table will yield 2.75 for 10 degrees of freedom in the numerator and 12
degrees of freedom for the denominator.


207. A 3
2
experiment means that we are considering

d) three levels of two factors.

The X
y
notation is commonly used in experimental designs. The base (X) indicates the
number of levels. The exponent (y) indicates the number of factors.

208. Which of the following distributions is needed to evaluate the results of analysis of
variance (ANOVA)?

c) F distribution

The F distribution is a ratio of two independent chi square random variables. The chi
square distribution is a distribution of sample variances.

209. The primary advantage of the Latin Square design compared to the factorial design, is
that

a) it requires less data.

A Latin square is an experimental design in which each level of each is combined only
once with each level of two other factors or variables. Also, no interactions exist
between the variables.

210. Consider the SS and MS columns of an Analysis of Variance table for a single factor
design. The appropriate ratio for testing the null hypothesis of no treatment effect is

b) MS treatments divided by MS residual.

The MS residual estimates the variance of the experimental error. The MS treatments
will estimate
2
only if all factor level means are equal, but the value of MS treatments
will be greater than
2
if the factor level means are different. Dividing one by the other
will provide an F ratio that can be tested against a critical F value to determine if the
factor level means are different.

211. A completely randomized design is best described as

c) a design in which all treatments are assigned to the experimental units in a
completely random manner.

It is often necessary to design experiments so that variability arising from nuisance
variables can be controlled. This type of design helps to ensure the removal of this
undesired variation.


Use the following information to answer problems 212 - 216. The following factorial
experiment was conducted to determine the effect of study time and study material used on
test scores. The numbers in the box represent the test scores. You will need to construct the
ANOVA table to complete all of the questions.

Hours of Study
4 6
Study Material Used 1 60, 85 77, 92
2 55, 65 60, 80

212. How many factors are used in this experiment?

a) 2

The two factors are hours of study and study material used.

213. How many levels are being examined for each factor?

a) 2

The number of levels is the number of settings for being analyzed for each factor.

214. What is the sum of squares for the residual?

a) 675.0

A complete ANOVA table will be constructed to answer this problem and the following
problems.
( )
( )
( )
( )
CM
x
n
SS x CM
SS
columns
n
CM
SS
rows
n
CM
SS
cells
n
SS SS CM
SS SS SS
T
total
hours
col
material
rows
eraction
cells
hours eraction
residual total hours
= = =
= = =
= = + =
= = + =
=
=
+ + +
=
=

2
2
2
2
2 2
2
2 2
2
2 2 2 2
574
8
41184 5
42468 41184 5 1283 5
265
4
309
4
41184 5 242 0
314
4
260
4
41184 5 364 5
145 169 120 140
2
2420 364 5 41184 5 2 0
.
. .
. .
. .
. . . .
int int

= =
SS SS
material eraction int
. . . . . 1283 5 2420 364 5 20 675 0


Source SS df MS F F
critical

Hours 242.0 1 242.0 1.43 7.71
Material 364.5 1 364.5 2.16 7.71
Interaction 2.0 1 2.0 0.01 7.71
Residual 675.0 4 168.75

SS = Sum of Squares
df = Degrees of Freedom
MS = Mean Square = SS / df = Variance
F = F Ratio = MS
source
/ MS
residual

215. Which factor has the greatest impact on the outcome?


The computed F value of the study material used is the largest of any of the factors,
therefore it has the biggest impact on the outcome.

216. Which of the following factors are significant?


None of the computed F values are larger than the critical value of F, therefore none of
the factors are significant.


METROLOGY AND CALIBRATION

217. The key to designing an effective calibration program is to balance

b) cost and quality considerations.

The concept is to manufacture the highest quality product in the most efficient manner
possible. For example, a program which requires daily testing of highly accurate
electronic test equipment would probably not be necessary, would be very expensive
to implement and therefore would substantially increase production costs.

218. Reliability metrics can be used to measure equipment

c) performance.

Reliability metrics can be used to obtain levels of confidence in equipment
performance. These metrics are useful because they can provide a foundation for
implementing changes which balance cost and quality considerations.

219. Which of the following terms is defined as the probability that measurement equipment
will be found to be in tolerance after a specified period of time?

d) Reliability

If a certain class of equipment is tested every six months, and 95% of the units pass
the full verification test, then this class is said to be 95% reliable on a six month
interval.

220. Suppose a test procedure is performed in order to determine the value of a product
measurement. What is the order of equipment type, from lowest to highest accuracy, if
NIST traceability is to be achieved?

d) Working standards, transfer standards, primary standards

Working standards can be calibrated with more accurate transfer standards. Transfer
standards are then calibrated with primary standards of the highest known accuracy, i.
e. NIST standards. The reason for the use of transfer standards is to lower overall test
costs. It could be very expensive to have a complete inventory of working standards
periodically calibrated against a primary standard.

221. Which procedures are performed on product and test equipment in order to determine
if predefined specifications have been met?

a) Inspection

A "calibration" can consist of several components. The first step is the "inspection" or
verification portion of the procedure. An adjustment and retest may or may not be
necessary based upon the results of the initial inspection, which normally requires
compliance to predefined specifications.

222. Which of the following is used to qualify measurement instruments in reference to
national or internationally recognized standards?

b) Traceability

Traceability is the chain that ensures measurements have been made in relation to
recognized standards. This effort, which is an ISO standard requirement, is made in
order to promote consistency of measurement and therefore increase overall product
quality.

223. A measurement standard with a stated uncertainty of 0.1 V, 95% confidence level, is
used to test a device that has a nominal value of 100 V, and a tolerance of 10 V.
What is the TUR for this measurement?

b) 100

The TUR of 100 is the uncertainty (0.1 V) divided by the allowable tolerance (10 V).

TUR = 0.1 V /10 V = 100

The 95% confidence level reflects an industry consensus to express the uncertainty
portion (0.1 V) of the calculation at a 2 confidence level. The nominal value of 100 V
has no bearing on the calculation.

224. A requirement of the ISO 9000 series standards is that all M&TE used for product
inspection

c) is identified and labeled appropriately.

This requirement is made in order to ensure consistent adherence to your own
calibration system.

225. What ISO 9001 element addresses equipment calibration?

c) 4.11

This ISO element requires identifying inspection, measuring and test equipment. It also
requires establishing, documenting and maintaining calibration procedures and
records.

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