24.

Apoptosis is suggestive of :
A. Liquefaction degeneration
B. Coagulation necrosis
C. Neo – angiogenesis
D. Epithelial dysplasia
24.C. Neo – angiogenesis

25. Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by :

A. Acanthosis
B. Acantholysis
C. Auspitz’s sign
D. Wickham’s striae
25. B. Acantholysis

26. During phagocytosis, the metabolic process called respiratory burst involves the
activation of :
A. Oxidase
B. Hydrolase
C. Peroxidase
D. Dehydrogenase
26.A. Oxidase

45. In jaundice, when there is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is most likely due to:
A. Hepatitis
B. Cirrhosis
C. Obstruction of bile canaliculi
D. Increased breakdown of red cells
45. D. Increased breakdown of red cells

46. A simple bacteria test for mutagenic carcinogens is:

A. Ames test
B. Redex test
C. Bacteriophage
D. Gene splicing
46. A. Ames test

47. Barr body is found in the following phase of the cell cycle:
A. Interphase B. Metaphase
C. GI phase D. Telophase
47. A. Interphase

48. Differential expression of same gene depending on parent of origin is referred to as:
A. Genomic imprinting
B. Mosaicism
C. Anticipation
D. Nonpenetrance
48. A. Genomic imprinting

49. All of the following statements are true regarding reversible cell injury, except:
A. Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matrix
B. Diminished generation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
C. Formation of blebs in the plasma membrane
D. Detachment of ribosomes from the granular endoplasmic reticulum
49. A. Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matrix

50. All of the following vascular changes are observed in acute inflammation, except:
A. Vasodilation
B. Stasis of blood
C. Increased vascular permeability
D. Decreased hydrostatic pressure
50. D. Decreased hydrostatic pressure

51. Hyperplasia with regard to tissue growth refers to:

A. An increase in the number of cells
B. An increase in the size of cells
C. Cellular maturation
D. Cellular differentiation from stem cells
51. A. An increase in the number of cells

52. Heme is converted to bilirubin mainly in:

A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Bone marrow
52. C. Spleen

52. A 37-year-old multipara construction labourer has a blood picture showing

hypochromic anisocytosis. This is most likely indicative of:
A. Iron deficiency
B. Folic deficiency
C. Malnutrition
D. Combine Fe and folic acid deficiency
52. A. Iron deficiency

53. The most abundant glycoprotein present in basement membrane is:

A. Laminin B. Fibronectin
C. Collagen type 4
D. Heparan sulfate
53. A. Laminin

54. ‘Eggshell’ calcification of hair lymph nodes is most often due to:
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Silicosis
C. Asbestosis
D. Beryllosis
54. B. Silicosis

56. Following injury, which tissue restores funtional capacity by hypertrophy?

A. Liver
B. Adrenal cortex
C. Cardiac muscle
D. Peripheral nerve
56. C. Cardiac muscle

57. In chronic, ganulomatous inflammation, which of the following process is most

likely to predominate?
A. Exudation
B. Congestion
C. Transduction
D. Proliferation
57. D. Proliferation

58. Increased functional demand on the heart produces increased size of the
myocardium by:
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Calcification
D. Fatty infiltration
58. B. Hypertrophy

37. In granuloma, epithelial and giant cells are derived from:

A. T cells
B. B cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Monocyte
37. D. Monocyte

62. Which of the following conditions gives a starry sky appearance?

A. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
B. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
C. Burkitt’s lymphoma
D. Leukemia
62. C. Burkitt’s lymphoma

63. Which of the following is the most serious and life-threatening blood
dyscrasia caused with a drug?
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Hemolytic anemia
63. A. Aplastic anemia

1. Which one of the following is the cause of dilacerations?

A. Trauma to the tooth germ during root development
B. Abnormal displacement of tooth germ during root development
C. Abnormal proliferation of enamel epithelium during tooth development
D. Abnormal displacement of ameloblasts during tooth formation
1. A. Trauma to the tooth germ during root development

2. The most common site of occurrence of lateral periodontal cyst is:

A. Between the mandibular cuspid and first premolar
B. Maxillary tuberosity area
C. Between the maxillary premolars
D. Mandibular third molar area
2. A. Between the mandibular cuspid and first premolar

3. In Taurodontism, the teeth exhibit:

A. Elongated, large pulp chambers and short roots
B. Elongated, small pulp chambers and short roots
C. Elongated, small pulp chambers and large roots
D. Short, small pulp chambers and large roots
3. A. Elongated, large pulp chambers and short roots

4. Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by:

A. Acanthosis
B. Acantholysis
C. Auspitz’s sign
D. Wickham’s straiae
4. B. Acantholysis

5. Which of the following is not responsible for endogenous staining of teeth during
development?
A. Tetracycline
B. Rh incompatibility
C. Neonatal liver disease
D. Vitamin C deficiency
5. D. Vitamin C deficiency

6. Which of the following factors in the Stephan’s curve is related to the caries
incidence and sugar intake?
A. Physical form of sugar
B. Frequency of sugar intake
C. pH of plaque
D. Quantity of sugar intake
6. C. pH of plaque

7. Blue sclera is characteristic of:

A. Amelogenesis imperfecta
B. Tetracycline hypoplasia
C. Fluorosis
D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
7. D. Osteogenesis imperfecta

8. Bence Jones protein found in the urine may be suggestive of:

A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Hodgkins disease
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Christian’s syndrome
8. C. Multiple myeloma

9. The syndrome which is associated with predisposition to the development of

carcinoma of oral mucosa membrane is:
A. Gardner’s syndrome
B. Osler-Rendu-Weber syndrome
C. Sturge-Weber syndrome
D. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
9. D. Plummer-Vinson syndrome

10. Which of the following is a tumor of odontogenic epithelium with duct-like

structures and well encapsulated lesion that prevents need for block resection:
A. Adenomatoid odonotgenic tumor
B. Pindborg tumor
C. Odontogenic myxoma
D. Ameloblastic fibroma
10. A. Adenomatoid odonotgenic tumor

11. Dens in dente is most commonly seen in:

A. Premolars
B. Paramolars
C. Lateral incisors
D. Maxillary canine
11. C. Lateral incisors

12. Taurodontism is usually seen in:

A. Mesiodens B. Incisor with talon cusp
C. Mandibular first molar
D. Maxillary premolars
12. C. Mandibular first molar
13. The following statements about thyroglossal cyst are true, except:
A. Frequent cause of anterior midline neck masses in the first decade of life
B. The cyst is located within 2 cm of the midline
C. Incision and drainage is the treatment of choice
D. The swelling moves upwards on protusion of tongue
13. C. Incision and drainage is the treatment of choice

14. The important microorganism for dentinal caries is:

A. Actinomyosis actinobacillus
B. Borrelia vincentii
C. Streptococcus mutans
D. Streptococcus viridans
14. C. Streptococcus mutans

15. The microorganism causing smooth surface dental caries is:

A. Streptococcus viridans
B. Streptococcus mutans
C. Streptococcus salivarius
D. Lactobacillus
15. B. Streptococcus mutans

16. Acinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the:
A. Parotid salivary gland
B. Minor salivary glands
C. Submandibular salivary gland
D. Sublingual salivary gland
16. A. Parotid salivary gland

17. Mixed tumors of the salivary glands are:

A. Most common in submandibular gland
B. Usually malignant
C. Most common in parotid gland
D. Associated with calculi
17. C. Most common in parotid gland

18. A specimen for a biopsy should be taken from:

A. Necrotic area B. Subdermal layer
C. Border of an ulcerated area
D. Centre of an ulcerated area
18. C. Border of an ulcerated area

19. Which one of the following is oral precancer?

A. Oral hairy leukoplakia
B. White sponge nevus
C. Hairy B cell leukemia
D. Speckled leukoplakia
19. D. Speckled leukoplakia

20. In TNM classification T3 stands for tumor size:

A. > 2 cm
B. > 4 cm
C. < 4 cm
D. > 4 cm with invasion of adjacent structure
20. A. > 2 cm

21. Brown tumors are seen in:

A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Pigmented villonodular synovitis
C. Osteomalacia
D. Neurofibromatosis
21. A. Hyperparathyroidism

37. Leukocute Alkaline Phosphatase (LAP) is elevated in-

A. Pernicious anemia B. Sickle cell anmia
C. Polycythemia vera
D. Plummer Vinson syndrome
37.C. Polycythemia vera

38. A diagnosis of chronic hepatitis is made if liver disease is present for a minimum of –
A. 3 weeks B. 6 weeks
C. 6 months D. 3 months
38.C. 6 months

39. Which type of collagen fibres demonstrate ‘Chicken Wire’ configuration-

A. Type-I
B. Type-II
C. Type- III
D. Type-IV
39. D. Type-IV

40. Caseation necrosis is suggestive of-

A. Tuberculosis B. Sarcoidosis
C. Leprosy
D. Mid line lethal granuloma
40. A. Tuberculosis

46. Most common site of tuberculous lesions in the oral cavity is-
A. Buccal mucosa
B. Lips
C. Tongue
D. Palate
46. C. Tongue

47. The region of myocardium most prone for infarction is-

A. Right ventricular epicardial region
B. Left ventricular epicardial region
C. Right ventricular sub-endocardial region
D. Left ventricular sub-endocardial region
47. D. Left ventricular sub-endocardial region

48. Heart failure cells are seen in-

A. CVC lung
B. CVC liver
C. CVC spleen
D. Infarction of heart
48. A. CVC lung

49. White infarcts occur in-

A. Ovary
B. Lung
C. Intestine
D. Heart
49. D. Heart

74. One of the following is an autosomal recessive disorder-

A. Neurofibromatosis
B. Haemophilia
C. Thalassemia
D. Polyposis of the colon
74. C. Thalassemia

75. Among pre-malignant oral lesions-

A. Leukoplakia should be proved by biopsy
B. Leukoplakia does not disappear even after cessation of smoking
C. Erythroplakia has a higher risk for malignancy than leukoplakia
D. OSMF is seen in all parts of the world
75. C. Erythroplakia has a higher risk for malignancy than leukoplakia

76. Bohn’s nodules are-

A. Cystic swellings in neonates
B. Cysts associated with soft palate
C. Cysts of gingiva in growing children
D. Warts on tongue
76. A. Cystic swellings in neonates

77. The tissue of which lesion has been described as resembling a ‘blood soaked sponge
with large pores’-
A. Cavernous haemangioma
B. Capillary haemangioma
C. Aneurysmal bone cyst
D. Eruption haematoma
77. C. Aneurysmal bone cyst

78. The periapical lesion that would most likely contain bacteria within the lesion is-
A. Periapical abscess
B. Periapical cyst
C. Periapical granuloma
D. Condensing osteitis
78. A. Periapical abscess

79. Dentinal union of two embryologically developing teeth is referred to as-

A. Gemination
B. Twinning
C. Concresence
D. Fusion
79. D. Fusion

80. Which of the following is not true about primary HSV infections-
A. Primarily affects the anterior portion of the mouth
B. Causes acute gingivitis
C. Occurs as an epidemic
D. Shows prodromal symptoms
80. C. Occurs as an epidemic

81. Psorolane Ultra Violet A (PUVA) therapy is advised in-

A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Apthous ulcers
C. Carcinoma in situ
D. ANUG
81. A. Pemphigus vulgaris

82. Dentigerous cyst is associated with the following-

A. Impacted 3rd molar
B. Impacted supernumerary tooth
C. Odontome
D. All of the above
82. D. All of the above

83. Treacher Collins syndrome is-

A. Maxillofacial dysostosis
B. Mandibulofacial dysostosis
C. Maxillomandibulofacial dysostosis
D. Condylar dysostosis
83. B. Mandibulofacial dysostosis

84. Port wine stain is a characteristic feature of-

A. Peutz Jegher’s syndrome
B. Sturge Weber syndrome
C. Albright’s syndrome
D. Lymphangioma
84. B. Sturge Weber syndrome

85. Common cariogenic bacteria is-

A. Streptococcus sanguis
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus mutans
D. Streptococcus salivarius
85. C. Streptococcus mutans

86. Which histopathological type of OKC is common, more aggressive, and has greater
tendency for recurrence-
A. Orthokeratinised
B. Parakeratinised
C. Non-keratinised
D. All of the above
86. B. Parakeratinised

87. Multinucleated giant cell and perivascular cuffing are features seen in-
A. Giant cell granuloma
B. Cherubism
C. Tuberculosis
D. Giant cell tumour
87. B. Cherubism

88. Early invading bacteria in carious lesions are called-

A. Microcosm
B. Pioneer bacteria
C. Advancing bacteria
D. Anaerobic bacteria
88. B. Pioneer bacteria

89. Herpangina is caused by-

A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Coxsackie virus
C. Measles virus
D. Varicella zoster virus
89. B. Coxsackie virus
90. ‘Xerostomia’ is seen in all of the following except in-
A. Anticholinergic drugs
B. Dehydration
C. Sjogren’s syndrome
D. Oral sepsis
90. D. Oral sepsis

91. Loss of tooth surface because of chemo mechanical action is known as-
A. Abrasion B. Erosion
C. Abfraction D. Attrition
91. B. Erosion

92. Chocolate coloured fluid is seen in the cystic space of-

A. Dentigerous cyst
B. Odontogenic Keratocyst
C. Unicystic aneloblastoma
D. Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum
92. D. Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum

93. Of the following conditions, the one which is not considered to be premalignant is-
A. Syphilitic glossitis
B. Erosive lichen planus
C. Leukoedema
D. Leukoplakia
93. C. Leukoedema

94. Rushton bodies are seen commonly in-

A. Mucocoeles
B. Radicular cyst
C. Lichen planus
D. Lupus erythematosus
94. B. Radicular cyst

95. Break Up Time (BUT) test is done in-

A. Sjogren’s syndrome
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Myasthenia gravis
95. A. Sjogren’s syndrome

96. The commonest intraosseous salivary gland neoplasm is-

A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Monomorphic adenoma
C. Acinic cell carcinoma
D. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
96. D. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

97. ‘Lock jaw’ indicates-

A. Ankylosis
B. Spasm of masseter muscle
C. Inflammatory trismus
D. Fracture of condyle
97. B. Spasm of masseter muscle

98. Blood-borne seeding of bacteria into an area of previously damaged or irritated pulp
with a resultant inflammation is known as-
A. Bacterial endocarditis
B. Anachoretic pulpitis
C. Choronic hyperplastic pulpitis
D. Ulcerative pulpitis
98. B. Anachoretic pulpitis

99. Albers-Schonberg disease is-

A. Osteomyelitis
B. Osteopetrosis
C. Osteoporosis
D. Osteomalacia
99. B. Osteopetrosis

100. The cells which give the starry sky appearance in Burkitt’s Lymphoma are-
A. Lymphocytes
B. Plasma cells
C. Macrophages
D. Eosinophils
100. C. Macrophages

101. Sequestrum means-

A. Is necrosed bone, separated from its surrounding
B. Is a broken tooth piece
C. Is new bone formed in osteomyelitis
D. Is necrosed tooth
101. A. Is necrosed bone, separated from its surrounding

36. The term poikilokaryosis means-

A. Division of both nucleus and cytoplasm
B. Division of nucleus without division of cytoplasm
C. Division of cytoplasm
D. Fading of the nuclei
36. B. Division of nucleus without division of cytoplasm