Final Test Part I 1. If the pKa of aspirin is 6.4, what fraction of the drug would be ionized at pH 7.4? A.

60% B. 75% C. 80% D. 90% 2. How many grams of Aspirin should be used to prepare this prescription? Rx Aspirin 0.6% Water qs ad 60 ml A. 0.46 B. 0.36 C. 3.6 D. 46 3. Paget disease is characterized by a localized increase in bone resorption followed by an abnormal bone formation and results in a bone deformation and fracture, what is the treatment? A. Vitamin A B. Calcitonin C. Niacin D. Vitamin K 4. ACTH controls the secretion of adrenal cortical hormones, and ACTH secreted by: A. Posterior pituitary gland B. Anterior pituitary gland C. Thyroid gland D. Parathyroid gland 5. Which of the following dilate the pupil A. Pilocarpine B. Neostigmine C. Atropine D. Timolol 6. How many grams milliliters of a 0.9% aqueous solution can be made from 30.0 gram of sodium chloride? A. 2222 B. 3333 C. 30 D. 50 E. 65

7. The platelets are originated from: A. Proerythroblasts B. Megakaryoblasts C. Lymphocytcs D. Monocytes 8. Vitamin A is a mixture of retinol, retinal, retinoic acid and used for the treatment of Acne vulgaris, which of following fraction is effective for this treatment? A. 13-trans retenoic acid (topically) and 13-cis retenoic acid (orally) B. Retinol C. Retinal D. AII of the above is correct 9. Deficiency of iron causes: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Microcytic anemia C. Sickle cell anemia D. Thalessemia 10. The precursor of vitamin A is: A. Beta carotene B. Ratinol C. Ratinal D. Retenoid 11. Vitamin K is necessary for formation of: A. Prothrombin B. Fibrinogen C. Fibrin D. Thrombin 12. Chromatographic methods used for separation and purification of mixture substances, planar chromatographic methods like paper chromatography, the function of the cellulose fibers . I. cellulose fibres have a weak affinity for the water in the solvent system. II. cellulose fibres have a weak affinity for the organic solvent in the solvent system. III. cellulose fibres have a strong atffinity for the water in the solvent system. A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 13. Vitamin E (tocopherol) is used occasionally as; A. Water soluble antioxidants B. Reducing agent C. Oil soluble antioxidants D. Additive

14. Acetyl coenzyme A is responsible for production of carbon units in: A. Fatty acid carbon chain B. Vitamin carbon synthesis C. Amino acids D. Proteins . 15. Gout is still the most prevalent purine disorder and has been known to mankind since ancient times, the end product of purine metabolism is; A. Glycine B. Uric acid C. Urea D. Thiamine 16. The heat labile factor in vitamine B complex is; A. Vitamin B1 B. Niacin C. Cobalt D. Peridoxin 17. Pharmacist provides insight into a drug benefit plan, and pharmacist should supply the drugs; A. Supply the drugs which cost more than set fee by the drug plan, can reduce maximum days of supply. B. Supply the drugs which has least cost than below set fee by the drug plan and comply with maximum days supply. C. Supply the drugs which has higher cost than below set fee by the drug plan and comply with maximum days supply. D. Supply the drugs with pharmacist discretion, do not worry with set fee by the drug plan 18. Uracil is present in: A. DNA molecule D. RNA molecule C. DNA and RNA D. mRNA 19. Hydrolysis of fixed oil gives; A. glycerol and fatty acids B. tertiary alcohol and fatty acids C. secondary alcohol and fatty acids D. amines and acids

20. The precursor of collagen is A. Vitamin E B. Vitamin K C. Vitamin C D. Vitamine D 21. Prothrombin is; A Blood protein B. Hormone C. Blood clotting protein D. Produced from thrombin 22. The short half life benzodiazepine A. Daizepam B. Triazolam C. Lorazepam D. Clorazepate

23. Which of the following metal present in body in largest quantities. A. Iron B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Zinc 24. The blood of a person contains 0.1 % alcohol. Describe the concentration of alcohol in parts per million: A. l 000 000 ppm B. 1 000 ppm C. 1 0 ppm D. 1 ppm 25. All the following activities meet the criteria for primary prevention except: A. tetanus vaccination for teenagers B. measles/mumps/rubella (MMR) vaccination for first time pregnant mothers C. flourification of water D. Pap smear screening E. Sex education 26. In given data, when the mean, median, and mode are the same, the distribution is called: A. Skewed distribution B. Symmetrical distribution C. Positively skew distribution D. Negatively skew distribution

27. When comparing standard deviation and standard mean error, standard mean error is always: A. Smaller than standard deviation. B. Larger than standard deviation C. Same as standard deviation D. This is variable 28. Five subjects given a single oral dose of a drug have the following elimination half live; 4,5,6, 6 and 9 hours. The mean half life is; A. 5.4 hours B.5.0 hours C.4.5 hours D. 6.0 hours 29. In a given data 6,5, 7, 9, 7, what is the median? A. 6 B. 7 C. 3 D. 9 30. Double blind A. The design of a study in which the investigator or the subject knows which medications (or placebo) the subject is given. B. The design of a study in which neither the investigator nor the subject knows which medications (or placebo) the subject is given. C. The design of a study in which the investigator knows but the subject does not know which medications (or placebo) the subject is given. D. The design of a study in which the investigator does not know but the subject knows which medications (or placebo) the subject is given. 31. Validity is: A. The extent to which the test measures what it was designed to measure. B. The ability of test to produce a true value for the measurements and true classification. C. Dependability of test results D. Consistency and reproducibility of test results. 32. Normal population 99% of values fall within A. one standard deviation B. two standard deviation C. three standard deviation D. Four standard deviation 33. Linear regression analysis A. Y = ax+b B. y = ax+b C. y = ax-b D. y = ax*b

34. In a study of the association between diethylstilbestrol (DES) and the development of vaginal cancer, the researcher reported correlation coefficient (r) of 0.91. What percent of dependable variable in this study? A. 82 % B.90% C.88% D. 78% 35. The value of r is +1 A. A negative or inverse correlation B. A positive or direct correlation C. No correlation D. Zero correlation 36. Type II error is: A. Probability of declaring no difference between observed value and the hyptothesized value of parameter. B. Probability of declaring 5% difference between observed value and the hyptothesized value of parameter C. Probability of declaring] % difference between observed value and the hyptothesized value of parameter D. Probability of declaring 2% difference between observed value and the hyptothesized value of parameter 37. Clinical trails of a drugs managed in randomization, define randomization: A. Specific criteria are used to assign any patient to particular group. B. No specific criteria are used to assign any patient to particular group. C. In clinical trial ensuring compliance with government regulations D. System or procedures designed to ensure that study is being performed 38. Normal oral dosage form is 99, the average deviation is: A. 2.5 B. 5 C. 2 D. 3 39. In epidemiological study design the prospective or cohort study require group of people, who are: A. difficult to perform and larger number of subjects than case control studies B. smokers and non smokers C. smokers with lung cancer patients D. either of the same age or share some common characteristics.

40. The five cases ages 20, 23, 24, 26 and 28, their standard deviation is, 5, what percent of coefficient of variance. A. 24 B. 21 C. 23 D. 28 41. This principle expresses the concept that pharmacist have a duty to be honest and trust worthy in their dealings with people: A. Principles of Ethics B. Code of Professional Conduct C. Principle of veracity D. Principle of honesty 42. Laplace's Law describes; A. How tension in the vessel wall increases with transmural pressure B. Local intravascular pressure depends on the distribution of vascular resistance. C. Elastic properties of blood vessels D. The arterial-distribution and the venous-collection systems 43. Carbon monoxide is a poisonous gas found in cigarette smoke. Smoking raises blood pressure, reduces the amount of oxygen in blood, because: I. Carbon monoxide can bind to hemoglobin, myoglobin and Cytochrome oxidase II. Carbon monoxide is toxic to immune system and kills WBC III. Carbon monoxide reacts with oxygen and reduces oxygen in blood A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 44. What is an aneurysm? A. Blood clot in arteries B. Bulging spot on arteries and veins is called aneurism C. Blood clot in veins D. Blood dilation causes aneurysm 45. What is embolus? A. Blood clot in arteries B. Thrombus that breaks off and circulates through the bloodstream is called an embolus C. Bulging spot on arteries and veins is called aneurism D. Blood dilation causes aneurysm

46. Dapsone and sulfoxone are used in; A. Tuberculosis B. Leprosy C. Antibacterials D. Antivirals 47. Diphtheria is caused by: A. Neisseria B. Shigella C. Vibrio D. Corynebacterium 48. Which of the following is/are viral infections: I. Warts II. Poliomyelitis III. Legionnaies' disease. A I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 49. Erythromycin I. is effective against gram-positive cocci. II. is a macrolide antibiotic. III. can increase gastrointestinal tract motility. A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above arc correct 50. Which of the following drugs could be the cause of black stools? I. Bismuth subsalicylate II. Cotrimoxazole III. Erythromycin A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct

51. Organisms commonly implicated in the cause of Travelers Diarrhea include: I. Bacteroides fragilis. II. Escherichia coli. III. Shigella sp. A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 52. Which of the following most common cause of community acquired pneumonia? A. H.influenza B. Legionella sp. C. Streptococcus D. E coli 53. Cinchonism is a side effect of: A. Chloroquin B. Mefloquin C. Quinine D. Primaquin 54. First line anti-tuberculosis drugs: A. lsoniazid+rifampin B. Etambutol+Pyrazinamide C.Ethionamide, Cycloserine, Clofaximine D. Isoniazid+Ethambutol 55. The most common cause of Encephalitis is: A. CMV B. HSV-1 C. Rubella D. Mumps 56. About difference between gram -ye and gram +ve bacteria which of the following statement are FALSE; A. Gram-ve species contain two phospholipid bilayer B. Gram +ve species contain single bilayer C. Gram -ye species contain techoic acid in membrane D. Gram -ye species contain Lipoprotein in outer membrane 57. Causative organism of PHARYNGITIS (soar throat) A. Viral infections like adenoviruses and bacteria eg Strep Pyogenes B. Streptococcus Pyogens C. Mycoplasma pneumonia D. S. pneumonia

58. The causative oraganisms of SINUSITIS: A. S. pneomonia (31%), H. influenza (21%), M. catarhalis (2%) B. S. pneumonia (40-50%), H. influenza (20-25%), M. catarhalis (10-15%) C. Rhinovirus, coronavirus, adenovirus, influenza D. None of the above 59. Karaya Gum Powder, when simply sprinkled on to the affected area of the skin, absorbs moisture and produces a drier surface for better pouch adhesion. As it contains no alcohol, it can be used on both sore and broken skin without stinging, this used mainly used on skin around A. Ostomy patients B. Ileostomy C. Colostomy D. All of the above 60. What is the treatment for OTITIS MEDIA? A. Amoxicillin 250 mg tid or Amoxicillin plus clavulanate 250 mg tid B. Penicillin V (300 mg), 6 tablets one hour before appointment and 5 tablets after. C. Erythromycin is the drug of choice D. Tetracyclins are alternate therapy. 61. Causative organism of bacterial CONJUNCTIVITIS: A. N gonorrhea, and S aureus B. P. aeruginosa, and S aureus C. Strep. pneumoniae, H. influenza,S. aureus D. S aureus 62. Conjunctivitis in the newborn (ophthalmia neonatorum) is/are due to: A. Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. N gonorrhea, and S. aureus C. Chlamydia trachomatis D. N gonorrhea 63. Drug of choice for the treatment of conjunctivitis in the newborn (ophthalmia neonatorum) is: A. Erythromycin, Ceftriaxone B. Tetracycline or Doxycycline C. Erythromycin or Azithromycin D. No antibiotics 64. What is true about Lyme disease A. Caused by Borrela burgdorferi B. Tick born infection C. Causes rash, arthralgia and neurological signs. D. All of the above are true

65. Which of the following is NOT related to food poisoning organism: A. Shigella B. Clostridulm perfringens C. E. coli D. Streptococci 66. Nosocomial (hospital) infections caused by: A. S. pneumonia B. S. aureus C. E. coli D. Salmonella 67. The most common cause of community acquired pneumonia; A. S. pneumonia B. S. aureus C. E. coli D. Salmonella 68. Drug that effective orally against gram -ve pneumonia A. Penicillin V B. Tetracyclin C. Ofloxacillin D. Erythromycin 69. Which of the following is beta - Iactamase sensitive and acid labile? A. Penicillin V . B. Penicillin G C. Amoxacillin D. Ampicillin 70. Which of the following is NOT a penicillinase resistant penicillins? A. Cloxacillin B. Dicloxacillin C. Methicillin D. Penicillin V 71. What is mechanism of action of antituberular Isoniazid A. Inhibition of peptidoglycan synthesis. B. Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis. C. Inhibition of peptidoglycan transpeptidation D. Bind to ergosterol 72. Regarding the use of ketoconazole and fluconazole, the following is / are true: A. Mechanism of action: block the synsthesis of ergosterol by inhibiting 14a-demethylase in the fungal cytochrome P450 complex B. Ketoconazole: used in chronic mucocotaneous candidates, ringworm, Tinea versicolor C. Ketoconazole side-effect: inhibited male (decreased), libido and potency, gynecomastia, decreased plasma testosterone levels, female menstrual problems,

hypertension, fluid retention, GI upset, hepatotoxicity. D. AIl of the above are correct 73. Most common cause of subacute endocarditis: A. S. pneumonia B. S. aureus C. E. coli D. S. viridans 74. What is correct about the treatment of Mycoplasmic pneumonia? I. Erythromycin is the drug of choice II. Tetracyclins are alternate therapy. III. Mycoplasma are resistant to penicillin due to absence of cell wall. A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 75. Peptic ulcer disease: A. Causes with infection of H. pylori B. Triple therapy: Clarithomycin, Metronidazole, Omeprazole C. Causes with infection of E. coli D. Only A and B are true 76. Treatment of Schistosomiasis: A. Thiabendazole B. Praziquantel C. Pyrantel pamoate D. Mebendazole 77. Erythromycin: A. It is the drug of choice in M. pneumoniae and Legiol1ella infection, in C. diphtheriae carriers, and in Bordetella pertusis (Gram +ve bacteria). B. Erythromycin has been considered the substitute of choice in group A streptococcal and pneumococcal infections when penicillin cannot be used. C. Erythromycin is not given IM because of severe pain; it may cause phlebitis D. All of the above are correct 78.Which of the following is NOT a macrolide antibiotic: A. Erythromycin B. Chloramphenical C. Clindamycin D. Azithromycin

79. The common cold is: A. A viral infection of the lining of the nose, sinuses, throat, and large airways B. Rhinoviruses are implicated more often than others. C. Colds caused by rhinoviruses occur more commonly in the spring and fall. D. Antihistamines help dry a runny nose, and cough syrups make coughing easier by thinning secretions or suppressing cough. E. All of the above are correct 80. Reye's syndrome. A. Side effect of ASA in children B. Side effect of acetaminophen in children C. Side effect of chloramphenical D. None of the above 81. What is/are correct about antibiotic regimen used in tooth extraction; A. Penicillin V (300 mg), 6 tablets one hour before appointment and 5 tablets 6 hour after tooth extraction B. Erythromycin is alternate therapy in tooth extraction. C. Cephalosporins D. Aminoglycosides 82. 0pthalmic solutions must be: A. Hypotonic B. Isotonic C. Hypertonic D. Osmotic 83. Dissolution rate increase by; I. lncrease particle size II. Decrease particle size III. Increase temperature A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 84. All of the following substance used as filler in tablet preparations EXCEPT: A. Lactose B. Starch C. Magnesium stearate D. CaPO4

85. Mechanism of action of transdermal patches is due to diffusion processes, what is the advantages of transdermal patches? I. To avoid drug from the first pass effect II. Prolong duration of action of drug III. Overcome pharmaceutical problems A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 86. Which of the following is water soluble antioxidant? A. tocopherol B. Sodium bisulfite C. Polyethylene glycol (PEG) D. Butylated hydroxyanisole (BHA) 87. Ascorbic acid is added to iron preparations due to: I. Enhance absorption. II. As a reducing agent to maintain the iron Fe+2 state III. Form suitable absorbable chelate with iron in Fe+3 state A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 88. Mesh size of filters used against microbial contamination: A. 0.22 m B. 0.22 mm C. 2.2 m D. 22 mm E. 2.2 mm 89. Vapor pressure I. It is the pressure or vapor above the boiling liquid II. Increase solute causes decrease of vapor pressure III. Increase of solute caused increase of vapor pressure A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct

90. Fluorinated hydrocarbons are restricted to be used as propellant gases in aerosols because: I. They have poor bronchial absorption II. They do not function as propellants III. They deplete ozone layer in atmosphere A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 91. Levigation: I. Reducing particle size of solids by the addition of a small amount of liquid II. Ointment base to make a paste which is then rubbed with a spatula against a tile. III. Grinding to small particle using mortar and pestle. A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 92. Which of the following is the synergist I. Ascorbic acid II. Sodium bisulfite III.Citric acid A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 93 .All of the following statements concerning the LYOPHILIZATION of a parenteral product are correct, EXCEPT: A. There is minimal loss of activity in heat labile materials. B. The liquid must be frozen to below the eutectic temperature. C. The solute usually forms an amorphous glass. D. The eutectic temperature is the freezing point of the drug solution. E. Water is removed from the frozen mixture by sublimation. 94. The dissolution rate of nitrofurantoin tablets would be decreased by: A. Micronizing the nitrofurantoin powder. B. decreasing viscosity of the dissolution medium. C. heating the dissolution medium. D. Mechanical agitation. E. Increasing the force of compression during tabulating.

95. Which of the following terms indicates a loss of moisture? A. Deliquescence B. Polymorphism C. Efflorescence D. Hygroscopicity 96. Calcium gluconate injection contains 0.1 g Ca(C6HllO7)2/mL of solution. If the NaCI equivalent of calcium gluconate is 0.16, the injection is: A. hypotonic. B. Iso-osmotic. C. Isotonic D. Hypertonic. E. Opisthotonic. 97. Water used for reconstitution of an additive for a large volume parenteral should be: A. sterile water. B. distilled water. C. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard). D. Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard). E. Sterile Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard). 98. Physicochemical factors affecting the rate and extent of percutaneous drug absorption include: I. the partition coefficient of the drug molecule. II. the presence of surfactants in the formulation III. the type of ointment base. A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 99. Compared to sublingual tablet, nitroglycerin ointment: A. Provides only local effect B. Is a more stable dosage form C. Provides more prolong effect. D. Is more rapidly absorbed E. Is more rapidly eliminated 100. Autoclaving is sterilization process of: A. Dry heat sterilization B. Steam Sterilization C. Filtration D. Gas sterilization 101. The passage of transdermal drugs through stratum cornium depends on: I. Partition coefficient II. Lipid solubility III.Diffusion

A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 102. Which reaction can ozone cause in the lungs A. Reduction B. Hydroxylation C. Oxidation D. Complexation E. Hydrolysis 103. Which of the following is the strongest antioxidant? A. alpha-tocopherol B. beta-tocopherol C. -tocopherol D. -tocopherol 104. The pH of buffer system can be calculated with A. Noyes-Whitney equation B. Henderson-Hasselbach equation C. Michalis-Menten equation D. Yonge Equation E. Stokes equation 105. How many milliliters of a 1 to 1600 solution can be made by dissolving 5.5 gram of sodium bi-carbonate solution in water. A .88000 B. 8000 C. 7200 D.9800 E. 7600 106. In gravimetric analysis, the purpose of carrying out a chemical reaction to form an insoluble derivatives which is filtered oil dried and weighed is: I. To ensure that certain potential impurities remain behind in solution. II. To ensure that the precipitant is in a higher form of purity. III. To ensure the specificity of the assay procedures A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct

107. Ninhydrin is used as spray reagent to identify: A. Sodium metal B. Vitamins C. Amino acids D. tertiaryamines 108. Which of the following statement is true? I. In TLC, organic phase is moving and silica gel is stationary. II. In TLC, organic phase is stationary and silica gel is moving III. In TLC, plate is stationary and organic phase is moving A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 109. HPLC resolute means: I. Resolution of one analyte from others in substance mixture II. Resolution of solvents III. Resolution of stationary phase A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 110. Mechanism of resolution of organic solvents in TLC depends on; I. Capillary action II. Silica gel III. TLC plate A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 111. Electrophoresis is used to separate: A. amino acids - proteins B. Amino acids-amino acids C. Protein-protein D. Enzyme - protein

112. Determination of iodine value depends on: I. Addition of iodine at the double bond of fatty acid II. It represents the number of g of iodine absorbed, under the prescribed conditions, by 100 g of the substance. III. It represents the number of mg of iodine required to neutralize the free acids A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 1l3. What is amphiprotic? A. That donates proton and accepts electron B. That donates a proton and accepts a proton C .That donates an electron D. That donates proton 114.Which of the following is not a amphiprotic solvent ? A. Ethanol B. Water C. Acetic acid D. Chloroform 115. Which of the following is not a reverse phase solvent used in HPLC? I. Water II. Buffer III. Hexanes A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 116. Pyconometer is used for: A. Measure the specific gravity of syrup B. Measuring the weight of the same volume of different liquids C. Measuring the atmospheric pressure D. Measuring the humidity

117. in thin layer chromatography I. Silica gel is stationary II. Organic phase is moving III. Moving phase moves by capillary action A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 118. In the titration of codeine phosphate and acetic acid, color changes due to: A. H3PO4 B. H2PO3 C. HCOOD. R3N 119. Red neck syndrome is side effect of: A. Penicillins B. Erythromycin C. Vancomycin D. Chloramphenical 120. An equilibrium hydrolytic reaction is: 1. The rate of forward reaction is equal to backward reaction II. No reaction III. The rate of forward reaction greater backward reaction A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 121. Metformin (Glucophage) side effect: A. Hyperglycemia B. Lactic acidosis C. Bleeding D. Ototoxicity 122. Perchloric acid is used with acetic acid in non aqueous titration's because: I. Perchloric acid is stronger acid than acetic acid. II. More acetate ions are formed III. Acetic ions act as strong base A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct

123. In gravimetric analysis, .pH is adjusted to: A. Avoid the precipitation of impurities B. Form insoluble hydroxides or hydrous oxides to precipitate. C. Achieve easily filterable precipitate D. Prevent coprecipitation 124. In non aqueous titration of halogen salts, mercuric acetate is used: I. It gives protonation in non aqueous titrations II. Dissolution (solubility) purposes III. Facilitate precipitation A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 125. Dimethyl formamide is used as solvent in the assay of: A. Levadopa B. Methyl dopa C. Sulfonamide D. Ampicillin 126. Mass spectroscopy results indicate I. Molecular formula II. Molecular weight III. Molecular ion peak A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 127.m/e ratio is obtained in: A. UV spectroscopy B. IR spectroscopy C. Mass spectroscopy D. Atomic absorption spectroscopy 128. Freely soluble means: A. Soluble 1 part in less than 1 B. Soluble 1 part in less than 10 C. Soluble 1 part in less than 30 D. Soluble 1 part in less than 30-100

129. At equilibrium: I. K2 is greater than K1 II. Kl is greater than K2 III. Kl = K2 A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 130. Sterilization for parenteral solutions following is very important: I. Sterile II. Pyrogen free III. Free of particle A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 131. How much lidocaine is present in a 1 : 1000, 30 ml solution of lidocaine? A. 30 mg B. 30 gm C. 30 g D. 3 gm 132. Which of the following plasma protein binds the widest range of drugs (50%)? A. Albumin B. Globulins C. 1-acid glycoprotein D. Lipoproteins 133. What is average turnover rate? A. 1 minimum and 10 maximum or more B. 3 minimum and 7 maximum or more C. 4 minimum and 6 maximum or more D. 6 minimum and 10 maximum or more 134. Amoxicillin in 5% dextrose degrades by first order rate constant is 0,026h, what is the shelf life t 90%? (t 90% = 0.105/ k; k = first order rate constant) A. 3.5 hours B. 8 hours C. 4 hours D. 16 hours E. 20 hours

135. In case of patient damages arisen due to pharmacist mistake: A. Patient has no right for complain B. Complain might lead to court action and court ask the licensing body to act. C. Patient damages compensation is to be paid out by the insurer. D. No action will be taken 136. What will be steady state plasma level if the volume of distribution Vd = 0.5 L and K = 0.16hr ? A. 12 mg/ml B. 12 g/ml C. 12 g/ml D. 12 g/L 137. During constant rate of intravenous infusion at steady state condition: A. Rate of elimination equals rate of infusion B. Rate of elimination greater than infusion C. Rate of elimination less than infusion D. Time to reach Css depends on half-life 138. Rate of elimination is decreased by: A. Decreased renal reabsorption B. Increased renal reabsorption C. Increased distribution D. Decreased distribution 139. The relative bioavailability of a drug product can be determined by; A. Comparing AUC's for IV and EV doses plasma drug concentration B. Comparing plasma concentration and total drug urinary excretion C. Comparing elimination and plasma concentration D. Fraction of the dose given that reaches systemic circulation. 140. The area under the serum concentration and time curve represents; A. The amount of drug absorbed B. The amount of drug eliminated C. The amount of drug cleared D. Bioavailability 141. The excretion of a weakly acidic drug will be more rapid in alkaline urine than in acidic urine because: A. The drug will exist primarily in the ionized form which cannot be easily reabsorbed B. The drug will exist primarily in the non-ionized form C. The drug exist in basic form D. The drug exist in acidic form

142. If a fixed dose of a drug that is eliminated by first order kinetics is administered at regular intervals, the time required to achieve a steady state plasma level depends only on the; A. Half life of the drug B. Volume of distribution C. Dose concentration D. Plasma protein binding 143. The volume of distribution (Vd) of drug is; A. The ratio between the amount of drug in body (Ab) and the concentration of the drug (C) measured in blood or plasma. B. The ratio between the amount of drug in body (dose given) and the clearance C. The ratio between the amount of drug in body (dose given) and the excretion. D. None of the above 144. Increase in plasma protein binding causes; I. Decrease in drug clearance II. Decrease in distribution III. Increase in distribution A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 145. Rate of reaction for first order kinetics is; A. dc/dt = Ko B. dc/dt = -Kc C. dt/dc = -Kc D. dt/dc = Ko 146. According to pharmacokinetic degradation of insulin occurs in the; A. liver B. kidneys C. stomach D. Plasma 147. If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 ml/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10 ml/min then one may assume that; I. The extensively metabolized II. Drug has tubular re-absorption III. Higher percent of plasma protein bound drug. A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct

148. Physicochemical factors affecting the rate and extent of percutaneous drug absorption include the; I. The partition coefficient of the drug molecule, II. The presence of surfactants in the formulation and III. Type of ointment base. A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 149. A drug replaced from protein binding undergoes: A. Metabolism B. Shows pharmacological effect C. Good renal clearance D. Decrease volume of distribution and increase plasma concentration E. Increase volume of distribution 150. The bioequalence parameters Cmax is effected by; A. Rate of absorption B. Extent of absorption C. Both rate and extent of absorption D. None of the above

Answers: 1. D 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. A 11. A 12. D 13. C 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. C 21. C 22. B 23. A 24. B 25. D 26. B 27. A 28. D 29. B 30. B 31. A 32. C 33. A 34. A 35. B 36. A 37. B 38. D 39. D 40. B 41. C 42. A 43. A 44. B

45. B 46. B 47. D 48. C 49. E 50. A 51. D 52. C 53. C 54. A 55. B 56. C 57. A 58. A 59. D 60. A 61. A 62. A 63. A 64. D 65. D 66. B 67. A 68. C 69. B 70. D 71. B 72. D 73. D 74. E 75. D 76. B 77. D 78. B 79. E 80. A 81. A 82. B 83. D 84. C 85. E 86. B 87. C 88. A 89. C 90. B

91. C 92. B 93. D 94. E 95. C 96. D 97. E 98. E 99. C 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136.

B B C A B A A C A A A A C B D B B E A C A B A B C C E C B B E A A C C B B

137. 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150.

A B B A A A A C B A A E B C