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INTRODUCTION TO CRITICAL REASONING - CONSTRUCTION OF AN ARGUMENT

Structure of an Argument A premise is a statement, fact or evidence, stated in the passage, which is presumed to be true in the context of the passage. Premises are explicitly stated. When a premise is not stated, or the author has taken it for granted, it becomes an assumption. A conclusion is an opinion or an assertion that the author wants to prove, using premises and assumptions. An inference is a logical certainty that can be derived from facts presented in the argument. Divide the argument given below into its constituent premises and conclusion. Premise 1: It is the teacher who is most crucial to the academic success of an average student. Premise 2: Administrators only provide external support to teachers and students. Conclusion: Teachers need to be paid at least as much as if not greater than administrators at all levels. Identify the assumption in the argument given below. Premise: The opposition candidate is the most experienced of all candidates contesting the election. Missing Premise/Assumption: Experience is the only pre-requisite for the job. Conclusion: The opposition candidate is the best person for the job Draw possible inferences from the statements given below. Premise 1: Orion Inc. experienced a 25% increase in the sales following a major innovation in product design. Premise 2: Despite this increase, pro!ts though have by fallen by 10%. Inference: Orion Inc.s costs have risen by 60%. If sales increase by 25% and costs also increase by 25% then pro"ts should increase by 25%. If sales increase by 25% and costs remain the same then pro"ts should increase by 50%. So, if sales increases the 25% and pro"ts remain the same, costs should have increased by 50%. Since, sales increased by 25% and pro"ts decreased by 10% costs should have increased by 60%.

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9 IMS-34-CT-CU-SC-O-BA-VA-5 PRACTICE EXERCISE 1. Premise 1: Alcohol advertising plays a crucial role in in causing teenagers to start or continue alcohol consumption. Premise 2 (Evidence) : In Malaysia , however, where there has been a ban on alcohol advertising since 1995, consumption of alcohol, is at least as prevalent among teenagers as it is in countries that do not ban such advertising Conclusion: Alcohol advertising cannot be the only factor that a#ects the prevalence of alcohol consumption among teenagers. Option (1) is incorrect as it cannot be said that alcohol advertising plays no role. Also there is no information about the level of consumption of alcohol in Malaysia post the ban. It is only said that the level is the same as in countries without the ban. Options (3) and (4) do not follow from the premises. Hence, (2). 2. Premise 1 (Evidence): Young adults these days heavily use social networking websites and instant messaging. Conclusion: Technology is threatening to make us less human. Assumption: Interactions made over websites and instant messaging arent as human as real, physical

interactions. The experts say that young adults have been using social networking websites and messaging to stay in touch. This they argue makes them less human. But if these means were as human as physical interactions their argument would fail. Hence, (1) is an important assumption made by the psychiatrists. (2) is wrong as the passage only talks about speci!c websites and not the whole internet. (3) is wrong as the thoughts of non-American psychiatrists aren't mentioned. (4) doesn't matter as the past views of these experts aren't related to the current argument. Hence, (1). 3. Premise 1 (Evidence): Sierra Inc., an automobile company , increased its turnover by 20% over the previous !nancial year. Premise 2 (Evidence) : During the same period its market share fell by 5 percentage points. Inference: The automobile market grew by more than 20%. Despite sales growing by 20%, market share fell by 5%. It means that the market grew at greater than 20%. (1)and (2) bring pro!ts into the picture which has nothing to do with market share. Option (4) is incorrect since the exact rate at which the market grew can be determined only by knowing the precise !gures and

Critical Reasoning - Question Types


OBJECTIVE To familiarize test-takers with the di!erent Critical Reasoning Question Types, other than Assumption, Inference & Conclusion Type. To enable the test-takers to apply di!erent strategies to solve each of the Question Types. To enable test-takers to identify fallacious reasoning that might appear as part of arguments. METHODOLOGY Take up each Question Type for discussion one at a time - give the student 2 min. to read and solve the question, discuss the Question Type and Strategy to solve it and demonstrate how to apply the strategy to the particular question. Take up each Concept Builder of Section II one at a time - ask the student to read the argument and identify the fallacy in the argument, explain the fallacy and how it appears in the questions. Section III, the Practice Exercise, can be solved as a single set or a few questions at a time , depending on your discretion. Critical Reasoning - Question Types Strengthen Questions Strategy Di!erentiate between options that are related to the argument and those that clearly strengthen or weaken the argument.

Reject options that are only related to the argument (neither strengthening nor weakening it) in general. Reject options that do not speci"cally strengthen the conclusion in the argument with additional evidence. Explanation: The argument is that social software can be used for business performance improvement. So to strengthen it, the option must show how social software can add to business performance improvement. Option (1) does not strengthen the argument since it says how social software should be used not how it is useful. Option(2) is incorrect since it talks about why its bene"ts are not known and not its bene"ts per se. Option (3) shows how employees can bene"t from using social software thus strengthening the argument. Option (4) indirectly casts doubts on social software instead of supporting it. Hence, (3). Weaken Questions Strategy Clearly identify the line of reasoning used, X causes Y or X will improve Y etc. Choose options that invalidate this line of reasoning. For example, If X then Y, is weakened by X but no Y and not Y but no X. Identify reasoning fallacies committed in the argument (discussed in the next section) Explanation: The argument says only usage of mobile phones causes attention de"cit, or Only X is Y, where X is mobile phone usage and Y is attention de"cit. Only X is Y does not mean All X is Y; (1) makes this mistake and tries to weaken it by showing Some X is not Y. Only X is Y means that All Y is X; to weaken this it should be shown that Some Y is not X; (2) does this. (3) and (4) are only indirectly related to the argument and do not weaken them in anyway. Hence, (2). Parallel Reasoning Questions Strategy Convert the whole argument into a simple one-line statement. For example, it is ok to do X since even if I do not do it someone else will do it. Try to "t each of the options into the one line statement that mirrors the logic of the paragraph. Reject options that do not "t into to the one-line statement. Explanation: The argument is of the following form: A cannot ask me not to do X in order to decrease Y, since A himself is responsible for causing Y. It can be seen that only (4) can "t into the form of reasoning the argument uses. Hence, (4).

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Explain/Resolve Questions Strategy

Clearly de"ne the two premises that are contradictory. For example, X is supposed to cause an increase in Y but it is causing a decrease in Y. Look for options that clearly o!er an explanation for the paradoxical relationship between the two premises. More often the correct option is related to the way X and Y have been de"ned or generally understood. Explanation: The paradox: CEOs (executives) say that talent is their top requirement; yet employees feel that the workplace environment is killing their talent. So the problem lies either in the CEOs interpretation of talent or the employees evaluation of the workplace environment. (1) best explains the paradox, CEOs focus on hiring talent but not on talent development, which is why employees feel that their talent is being killed. (2) diverts the issue by talking about pay and does address the talent paradox . (3) states that the Dilbert and The O!ce are exaggerations but that does not mean that the paradox does not exist. (4) makes a generalization about most employees; also the paradox is not that their superiors do not recognize their subordinates talent but that the workplace environment does not foster or harness it, which it is supposed to do if talent was a top priority. Hence, (1). Flawed Reasoning Strategy Look for the reasoning fallacies listed in the next section. Explanation: The argument makes the mistake of assuming that the people who purchase the product are the same people who use the product. Adults might be the main purchasers of ice-creams but the consumers can be their children at home; similarly men can be the main purchasers of diamonds but women will be the main users. (3) identi"es this #aw. The rest of the options do not precisely capture this #aw of reasoning. Hence, (3).

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3 IMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-8 Critical Reasoning - Fallacies A majority of Critical Reasoning questions fall into the Weaken category. All of these question types will involve arguments that are logically unsound because of their use of fallacious reasoning. The following are the common fallacies that will be part of faulty arguments or incorrect answer options. Correlation-Causation Studies have shown that women who were taking combined Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) also had a lower-than-average incidence of Coronary Heart Disease (CHD). Leading doctors now propose that HRT is protective against CHD.

An argument which concludes based on the simultaneous occurrence of two events X and Y, that X causes Y commits the fallacy of Correlation-Causation. Such line of reasoning ignores the fact that another factor Z could have caused X or the reverse causation can be true, Y causes X or there can be a common cause for both X and Y In other words, correlation does not imply causation. A typical question to such an argument would be: Which of the following would most seriously weaken the claim made above? Studies showed that women undertaking HRT were more likely to be from higher social class with better than average diet and exercise regimes. The use of HRT and decreased incidence of coronary heart disease were coincident e!ects of a common cause (i.e. the bene"ts associated with a higher socioeconomic status), rather than cause and e!ect as had been supposed. Post Ergo Propter Hoc The stock markets in the country crashed immediately after the results of the election were declared. It is evident that the markets are not in favour of the new government that the people have elected. This is the fallacy of after this therefore because of this. An argument which concludes, based on the consecutive occurrence of two events X and Y, that X causes Y commits the fallacy of Post Ergo Propter Hoc. The fallacy lies in concluding that since Y happened after X, X has caused Y. Such line of reasoning ignores the fact that another factor Z could have caused X A typical question to such an argument would be: Which of the following would most seriously weaken the claim made above? Stock markets across the world crashed because of the o$cial announcement by the worlds largest economy that it had gone into a recession.

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Hasty Generalization My uncle smoked all his life and never su"ered from a single stroke or lung disease ; he died at ninety when he got hit by a truck, so smoking is not as injurious as it is made out to be. Such arguments conclude things based on evidence that is not representative of the whole group. They are usually arguments that are tested on the Flawed Reasoning question type. Circular Reasoning Democracy, government elected by a majority vote, is the best form of government since a majority of people across the world have voted for democracy as their favoured form of governance. This is a fallacy where the argument uses the conclusion to prove itself. It usually appears as arguments that are tested on the Flawed Reasoning question type. Incorrect Comparison

It is safer to #y a plane than to drive a motorbike since there are fewer airplane accidents than motorbike accidents. Not comparing two similar things or using the wrong metric for measurement is another logical fallacy. In the given example, the correct metric to use is the percentage of airplane accidents visa-vis motorbike accidents. In the Flawed Reasoning question type discussed earlier, the argument equates purchasers with users. Ad Hominem His demands for raising the taxes do not make any economic sense; anyways he himself lives in a luxury house. This is a form of argument in which an argument tries to refute another argument by attacking the arguer rather than the argument itself.

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5 IMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-8 PRACTICE EXERCISE 1. RSM claims that it has a higher average salary than FBS. FBS says that more students of FBS(when compared to RSM) "nd jobs that cover their cost of tuition, which is equal to its average salary. The tuition cost is the same at both institutes. The argument says that one of the claims must be false. Since both colleges have the same cost tuition say X, and RSM has a higher average salary, say Y, then it cannot be that more FBS students get jobs that cover their cost of tuition. The #aw in the argument is that it ignores the fact that the higher average salary of RSM can be due to a few students getting disproportionately high salary and many students getting salaries well below the average. The average number of centuries in the Indian team will be very high because of Sachin Tendulkar, but it does not mean that most players number of centuries is close to the average. At the same time, many students of FBS may have gotten salaries that are close to the average salary, hence covering their cost of tuition. Only option (4) captures this. Option (3) brings in cost of living, which is not related to the argument. Option (2) brings in number of students, which does not resolve the paradox. Option (1) o!ers a generalization and does not make a speci"c point. Hence, (4). 2. The lower costs of organic farming are o!set by lower yields, the amount of produce per acre. Option (3) supports the claim that organic farming will be pro"table by providing evidence that many consumers are willing to pay a higher price for it. Option (1) does not support the pro"tability claim but only says that many countries are taking it up. Option (4) is irrelevant since organic farming does not use

pesticides. Option (2) is irrelevant to the pro"tability of organic farming. Hence, (3). 3. The question poses the following anomaly (a situation that violates a general rule or principle) : Unlike regular goods, for Veblen goods a price increase results in an increase in demand, even though the product remains the same. The option, which o!ers the best explanation for the anomaly outlined here is (2); it states that the main indicator of quality for consumers of Veblen goods is price: the higher the price, the better the quality. The rest of the options are related to Veblen goods but do not speci"cally o!er an explanation for the anomalous relationship between price and demand. 4. The plan of a certain municipality is to ban the sale of plastic goods for which paper substitutes exist since the latter are biodegradable and hence environmentally friendly. The key element is that the ban is only on the sale of plastic goods and not on the purchase and use of plastic goods. Option (3) states that since townspeople prefer plastic goods to paper goods, they are likely to buy them from neighbouring towns where they are available, which will defeat the entire purpose of the ban. Option (2) only says that the environmental bene"t of not using plastic goods was only visible after many years; this does not cast doubts on the e!ectiveness of the plan since it is environment friendly. Option (1) supports the plan. Option (4) does not relate to the e!ectiveness of the plan. Hence, (3).

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5. The argument is that starting "tness programs will reduce absentee rate since studies have shown that employees who exercise take fewer sick leaves. Option (2) weakens the argument since it shows that the employees who are frequently absent are the ones who are least likely to join a corporate "tness program ; if this is true then the introduction of "tness programs will not reduce absentee rate since only the employees who are already regular are likely to use the program. Options (1), (3) and (4) do not weaken the argument since they are not related to the absentee rate. The argument is solely about the absentee rate and not about productivity, duration of lunch hours or sleeping for short durations. Hence, (2). 6. The argument has the following structure: There is nothing called non-X; even acts which have nothing to do directly with X are indirectly related to it. There is nothing that is unsel"sh (sel"sh being something from which one derives some bene"t); even acts of philanthropy, where one helps others, give the donor mental satisfaction. So while the bene"t

might not be tangible, it still exists, making even philanthropy an unsel"sh act. The argument that most mirrors this is option (2): There is no apolitical act; even not having anything to with politics or abstaining from voting is a political act of expressing ones preference, since politics is about making a certain choice with respect to collective decision-making. All the rest of the options are not in the non-X format. Option (3) is close but incorrect since possessing "rearms is directly related to using or not using "rearms, unlike philanthropy or abstaining from the political process. Hence, (2). 7. The argument takes the correlation between two events, not socializing and depression and concludes that the former causes the latter, committing the error of correlation-causation, which is generally weakened by showing a di!erent cause, common cause or reverse causation. Option (1) is incorrect since the fact that some extroverts also su!er from depression does not weaken the evidence that introverts are more likely to be depressed; the argument does not say that only introverts are depressed. It only says that they are more likely to be depressed. Option (2) indirectly supports the argument. Option (3) just says that anti-depressants increase energy levels thus stimulating outdoor activity; it does not say that lack of extraversion causes depression. Option (4) shows reverse causation, thus directly weakening the argument; it is depression which triggers introverted behaviour and not the other way round. Hence, (4). 8. The discrepancy in the argument is with respect to a particular companys stock price not falling with a fall in pro"ts, which is usually the case. The correct option should provide the reason for this discrepancy. Since there is no information about the stock price of its competitors, option (1) does not shed light on the reason for the discrepancy. By the general principle, the companys stock price should have fallen the least with respect to its competitors. Options (3) and (4) are related to the general state of the automobile industry as such and do not provide the reason for the discrepancy. Option (2) states that the companys long-term prospects are good and the decrease in pro"ts is not due to a fall in sales but due to additional investment. Thus, stock prices in this particular case do not re#ect the state of the company based on its pro"ts but on its long-term pro"ts. Hence, (2). 9. The argument is that to achieve X , Y is the best method. The #aw should point out that Y may not be the best method. Options (3) and (4) weaken the argument that X is necessary, which is not the argument in the "rst place. Option (1) does not weaken the argument that a meritocracy with monetary rewards will ensure those who are not contributing to contribute.

The argument is based on the premise that only a meritocracy, where the best and most hardworking minds are rewarded, will ensure that each person contributes his/her best to society. The #aw is that it assumes that the only reward or motivation that the best and most hardworking minds seek is monetary. Option (2) best states this. Hence, (2). 10. The argument is about corporations o!ering non-traditional schedules to their employees. It cites reasons why managers have traditionally been reluctant to embrace a #exible work hour policy: worry about a fall in productivity and a lack of trust. Option (2) best supports the idea by proving the concerns to be misplaced; it shows that productivity and morale go up. Option (3) is incorrect since the argument is not that all employees should be given #exible timing. Options (1) and (4) make a statement relevant to how to o!er #exible schedules and not whether it is a good option. Hence, (2). 11. Option (1) is incorrect since the argument does not use the two terms interchangeably. Options (2) and (4) are incorrect since the argument is only about the skills that the GD tests with respect to a career in management and not about how long they last or whether they can be developed later. Option (3) identi"es the #aw by pointing out the assumption that the format of a GD brings out the exact interpersonal and communication skills required for a career in management. Hence, (3). 12. The argument predicts the overall sales for the year based on the sales of the "rst half of the year; it assumes that the sales are uniformly distributed across the year. Option (4) weakens the argument by showing that sales are skewed towards the last quarter of the year and thus the sales of the "rst half cannot be used as an indicator of the sales of the second half of the year. Options (1) and (2) do not weaken the conclusion since they give no indication about the sales for the rest of the year. Option (3) strengthens the conclusion. Hence, (4) 13. Option (1) best supports the argument that the higher grades are due to lax grading and not better academic ability because the students at private schools did not outscore students at public schools on the SAT. Options (2) and (4) do not support the claim that grading was lax. Option (3), while suggesting that foreign-born graduate students are considered better than local students, does not still support the claim that grading at private schools is lax; foreign students can be better than local students despite the latters deservedly high grades. Hence, (1). 14. The argument is that by getting fast-food restaurants to divulge nutritional information people will start making healthier choices since they will have information about the food they are eating. Option (2)

best weakens the plan since it shows that people will not change their eating patterns for the better, once they know the nutritional content of the food. Option (1) does not weaken the plan since it does not mention anything about peoples eating choices with respect to the nutrimental value of the food; it only talks about taste and convenience. Option (3) is related to the context but not to the argument and does not weaken it. Option (4) makes a general observation relevant to the context but does not weaken the claim that providing nutritional information will make people make healthier choices. Hence, (2).

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15. The argument commits the fallacy of Incorrect Comparison. Based on the number of calls received at the help-line, the argument is that Xenons service is inferior to Kelvins. The reliability is best indicated by the failure rate, failures as a percentage of total number of consumers, and not the number of failures. Option (2) shows that Xenons failure rate is lower: if Kelvins customers are x, then Xenon has 3x customers; if Kelvin has y people calling the help-line then Xenon has 2y. The failure rate of Xenon is 2y/ 3x, which is less than the failure rate of Kelvin, y/x. Option (1) does not weaken the argument since the fact that the calls are twice as long at Kelvin does not weaken the argument that Xenons service is less reliable. Option (4) is incorrect since Xenons helpline being more publicized does not mean that more people call Xenon since customers of Kelvin would have its help-line numbers. Option (3), just provides information about the number of calls but does not counter the argument. Hence, (2).

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VA 9 IN GRAMMAR, VOCABULARY & USAGE 4 Errors of Tenses


SECTION TITLE DURATION
I Vocabulary & Usage - 1 20 min. II Errors of Tenses 70 min. III Vocabulary & Usage - 2 30 min. Objective To reinforce concepts pertaining to basics of Verb- Tense learnt in school. To improve the comfort level of the students with respect to the application of these concepts. To improve vocabulary through vocabulary-based questions types. Methodology

Two sections on Vocabulary & Usage (one at the beginning of the class and the other at the end) have been introduced to make vocab-building a parallel exercise while learning grammatical concepts. The vocabulary exercises use the same format of questions that appear in the CAT and other competitive tests, thereby making the exercise more relevant during the preparatory stage. Therefore, all the questions given in Section I and Section IV should be discussed in class. The !ow of the class is not one of a concept explanation followed by questions on the concepts. Rather, the concepts are discussed through exercises in the Concept Builders. The Practice Exercise reinforces the concepts in the format of the question types used in various tests. The instructor should give some time to the students to "rst solve the questions and then discuss the explanatory answers where the relevant concepts have been elaborated.

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SECTION I: VOCABULARY & USAGE - 1


1. Ceremonial is to do with a literal ceremony. Ceremonious describes formal behaviour, which has nothing to do with an actual ceremony. Here, we should use ceremonial. Childish and child-like are sometimes similar but child-like is used to describe a#able qualities while childish is used in a negative way. Here we should use childish. A quiet, reserved person is demure. To demur is to refuse. Hence, we should use demur. Classic describes things that are outstanding examples of their kind. Classical refers to ancient art. Here we should use classic. The correct sequence is AABA. Hence, (2). 2. To bate is to moderate. To bait is to lure. Hence we should use baited. To depreciate something is to actually make it worse, whereas to deprecate something is simply to speak or think of it in a manner that demonstrates ones low opinion of it. When actual value is considered, we should use depreciate. When something is alluded to it is referred to. When something is hard to "nd, it is elusive. Here, we should use eluded. Here the connotation is that of every other and this can only be replaced by alternate and not alternative, which means a choice between two or more things. The correct sequence is ABAA. Hence, (4). 3. Apposite means appropriate to the situation; opposite means on the other side. In this case, correct word is apposite.

Enormity and enormousness are at times interchangeable but enormity is usually used to describe negative situations. Since marvel is mentioned here, we have to use enormousness. Complacent means satis"ed, whereas complaisant means obliging. Here we should use complaisant. An altar is that platform at the front of a church or in a temple; to alter something is to change it. So, we should use alter here. Hence the correct sequence is ABBA . Hence, (3). 4. Archaic means old or ancient, while arcane means mysterious. Here, we should use archaic. Rout means comprehensive defeat; route means way to reach one point from another. In this situation, rout is the correct word. Practice is the noun form and practise is the verb form; so in this case the latter should be used. Farther refers to physical distance, while further means in addition to. Hence we should use further. Hence, the correct sequence is AABB. Hence, (1). 5. Liable and likely can be used interchangeably but liable has negative connotations. Here, we should use liable. To be fearful is to be afraid. To be fearsome is to cause fear in others. Here, we should use fearsome. Pour is transferring a liquid and pore is be absorbed in the reading or study of something. In this case pored is appropriate. When we take over a post, we assume it. Hence, the correct sequence is ABBA. Hence, (4).

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6. Sentence (4) should read, 'Di$cult situations brought out the best in him, meaning, he thrives in di$cult situations and they suit him. Hence, (4). 7. Sentence (4) should read, 'I don't want our private problems to carry over into our professional life'. Hence, (4). 8. The correct idiomatic expression is turn in for the night, which means to going to bed. Hence, (2). 9. In (1), there is an incorrect expression. The correct phrase is do well by which means treat generously. Hence, (1). 10. In (4), the correct word would be shout. One cries out in pain or when one is frightened. Hence, (4).

SECTION II: ERRORS OF TENSES


Qs. 1 to 8: All the sentences show di#erent use of the Present Tense. Sentence1 describes a regular activity or a habitual action; so the appropriate tense form to be used here is the Simple Present Tense.

Sentence 2 is a recollection of the speakers perception in his/her youth, i.e., a past event, but the blank should be "lled with the present form of the verb because general truths and proverbs are expressed in the present tense because of their applicability even in the current scenario. Sentence 3 introduces a quotation and in such cases the Simple Present Tense is used most widely. When a future event is part of a "xed programme or a schedule, we use the Simple Present Tense in place of the Future Tense. So, sentences 4 and 5 should have the Simple Present Tense. Exclamatory sentences that begin with here and there express what is actually taking place in the present. Therefore, in case of such expressions, the Simple Present Tense is used, as in sentence 6. In clauses expressing a condition, the Simple Present Tense is used in place of the Simple Future Tense. So, in sentence 7, are would be appropriate. In sentences describing events happening right now, the Simple Present Tense is the correct option; hence needs is correct in sentence 8. Qs. 9 to 17: There are certain verbs, which are not used, in the continuous form. Verbs of perception like hear, see, smell, etc are not used in the continuous form. So, in sentence 9, heard would be the correct word. Verbs of appearing, such as appear, seem, look, etc, are not used in the continuous form. Hence, sentence 10 requires the simple present form, i.e., looks. Verbs of emotion, such as like, love, hate, prefer, want, etc. are not used in the continuous form. Thus, sentence 11 should read Nowadays, I hate and sentence 12 should read Though I wanted. Verbs of thinking, such as, think, suppose, understand, imagine, mean, etc are not used in the continuous form. So, sentence 13 would require often imagine in the blank and in sentence 14 does not understand would be correct. Verbs indicative of possession, such as, have, possess, own, belong to, etc are not used in the continuous form. So, possess would be correct for the blank in sentence 15.

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3 IMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-9 In sentence 16, the correct expression would be thinking of. Think, when used in the sense of considering the idea of doing something, is used in the continuous form. The continuous tense form is not used to denote universal truth. Therefore, the appropriate word for the blank in sentence 17 is causes. Qs. 18 to 22: In all these sentences, the Present Continuous Tense should be used. When we refer to an action that is going on at the time of speaking (as in sentence 18), the appropriate tense

form is the present continuous tense. Sentence 19 states a temporary action that may not be actually be happening at this point of time but that is going to continue in the present. So, am reading should be used in this sentence. We use the Present Continuous Tense in case of an action that is arranged and is going to take place in the near future. Sentence 20 is an example of such a context. For habitual action we normally use the Simple Present Tense; but when we need to refer to a regular action, which is like an obstinate habit, an incorrigible action, we use the Present Continuous Tense with an adverb like constantly, always, etc. When to have is used in the sense of to eat, the continuous form having is valid. In sentence 22 having should be used. Qs. 23 to 29: The Present Perfect Tense should be used in all these sentences. In order to refer to completed activities in the immediate past, the Present Perfect Tense is preferred, as in sentence 23. Sentences 24 and 25 indicate a past action whose time frame is not de"ned; it might have some e#ect on the present too. In such cases, the Present Perfect Tense is used. The Present Perfect tense is also used to denote an action that began at some time in the past and is continuing up to the present moment. Sentences 26 and 27 are such examples. Sentence 28 indicates that she has "nally achieved the unattainable; hence she can now be satis"ed. In such cases where a past event is described but its e#ect in the present is more important than the action itself, the Present Perfect tense is used. The Present Perfect Tense is not used with words denoting the past time. So, in sentence 29, updated should be used. Qs. 30 and 31: The Present Perfect Continuous Tense is used for an action, which began at some time in the past and is still continuing. In sentence 30, the stealing of money, which started in the past, is still continuing. The same is the case with the project work that is still going on. Qs. 32 to 34: The Simple Past Tense is used to indicate an action that occurred in the past as in sentences 32 and 33. The Simple Past Tense is also used to refer to past habits as in sentence 34. Qs. 35 to 37: In these sentences the Past Continuous Tense should be used. This tense form is used to denote an action going on at some time in the past, as in sentences 35 and 36. Sometimes, in the same sentence, the Past

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Continuous and the Simple Past Tense can be used when the reference is to a new action that happened in the middle of a longer action. The Simple Past tense is used for the shorter or the new action. In sentence 37, our meeting him is the new action and his shooting is the longer action. So, the blank should be "lled with was still shooting. Qs. 38 and 39: In these sentences, the Past Perfect Tense should be used. The Past Perfect Tense is used in cases where two actions, both in the past, need to be mentioned. For the "rst completed action, the Past perfect Tense, i.e., had + past participle. In sentence 38, his committing suicide happened before being saved from the death sentence. So, the correct sentence should read: He was saved from the death sentence but he had already committed suicide. In sentence 39, had done would be appropriate because the rest of the sentence is in past tense. Qs. 40 and 41: In these sentences we are referring to actions that began before a certain point in the past and continued up to that time (which is also in the past). So, in sentence 40, the correct phrase would be had been trying and in sentence 41 had already been teaching. Qs. 42 and 43: The sentences indicate events that are yet to take place. Therefore, we should use the Simple Future Tense. In sentence 42, will meet is appropriate. In sentence 43 also a future event is being referred to. Sometimes the Present Continuous Tense (am going) can be used to describe a future event. Qs. 44 and 45: The Future Tense itself represents an action that is yet to take place. The Future Continuous Tense is used to represent an action that is expected to go on at some time in the future. So, in sentence 44, the correct phrase would be will be doing. Sentence 45 represents an action that would be in progress over a period to time in future and will end at some point of time in future. So, in sentence 45, the Future Perfect Continuous Tense should be used, i.e., shall have been working. Q.46: This sentence is an example of Future Perfect tense which indicates the completion of an action by a certain time in the future. So, will have left would be correct here. Qs. 47 and 48: If the main clause is in the past tense, the subordinate clause is also denoted by the past or past perfect tense. So, in sentence 47, was would be correct. If there is a distinct di#erence in the time frame of two actions in a sentence, they can be denoted by a di#erent tense. So, in sentence 48, is would be appropriate. Qs. 49 and 50:

Sentence 49 describes two events that are going to take place in the future, one preceding the other. Normally in such scenarios the future perfect tense is used. But the future perfect tense is not used in clauses beginning with time expressions such as when, before, unless, etc.

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5 IMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-9 We require the future perfect tense in sentence 50 because it states two events that will take place in the future she will learn French before moving to Paris. Therefore, the former action that will be completed in future should be stated using the future perfect tense, i.e., Will she have learnt. PRACTICE EXERCISE 1. In B, the verb associate should be in the past tense in keeping with the rest of the sentence. Similarly in C, seem should also be in the past. In E, the noun e#ort is missing an article. Therefore only A and D are correct. Hence, (5). 2. The excerpt talks of an incident in the past, so various forms of the past tense should be used consistently. Jims behaviour with his employers happened in the past; but the excerpt states a future action in the past. So, in part B too we should have the future perfect tense form, i.e., he would throw up. In part C, the present continuous tense is not correct as the rest of the passage uses the simple past tense. So, The reasons he gave to his employers would be correct. In E, the present tense is inconsistent with the rest of the excerpt and should be changed to the past form. Parts A and D are correct. Hence, (4). 3. There is a tense error in part C. Ever since implies the action was completed in the recent past but its e#ect is continuing in the present moment. Therefore, the e#ect of the action should be stated in the present perfect tense. C should read: scientists have wondered whether the process still. The past perfect tense in part D is uncalled for because here we are not dealing with two past actions, one completed before the other. In fact, the context implies that the action has completed only in the immediate past. Thus, There has been no biological change would be correct. Parts A, B and E are correct. Hence, (3). 4. Part A does not state any regular a#air with respect to the city of Chernobyl, therefore, the simple present tense is incorrect. Here an action that was completed before a certain moment in the past is being referred to. So, had been should be used in place of is. The prepositions since implies from a point of time in the past till present and the appropriate tense to go with it is the present perfect tense,

hence, have thinned would be correct here. Part E states an occurrence that happens every year, so the appropriate tense form would be simple present tense and not the simple past tense (prayed). Parts B and C are correct. Hence, (2). 5. In part B, the past perfect tense is incorrect because the sentence talks of an event happening in the present day. So, had been should be replaced by are. In part C the present continuous tense form is incorrect as the entire sentence is in simple present form. So, are told would be correct here. Verbs of emotion like love, hate, prefer, etc are not used in the continuous form. So, Many appear to prefer would be correct. Parts A and E are correct. Hence, (3). 6. The sentence states a scenario in the present. Therefore, all the verbs should be in the simple present tense. So, the simple past tense relapsed in B is incorrect. All the other parts are correct. Hence, (1).

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7. The event described in parts A and B is not restricted to a particular time frame. It states a general occurrence, hence had not been should be replaced by are not in part B. In part D there is a tense mismatch while stating two events both of which occurred in the same time frame. So, D should read ever arose, animals were engaged. Parts A, C and E are correct. Hence, (4). 8. The past perfect tense in part B is incorrect because the earlier part of the sentence is in future perfect tense. A past perfect tense is used when two events, both of which occurred in the past, are to be referred to. So, B should read what other people said. C should be in the past continuous tense as the incident happened in the past (what they said); so, was shocking would be correct. The correct future perfect tense format is: will/would have + past participle. In part E, have is missing before dared. Only A and D are correct. Hence, (3). 9. Verbs of thinking like suppose, think, believe etc are not used in the continuous form. So, supposing is incorrect in part A. We need the continuous form (making) in part B to make it parallel to are diminishing. The present continuous tense is preferred in this context because the action referred to here has not stopped at any point of time. The future perfect tense in E is incorrect because the sentence mentions an occurrence in the past. So, came along should be used in place of would have come along. Hence, (3). 10. Since the sentence talks of how copyright laws were originally perceived, the context is one of past

event. So, part A should be in the past tense and not in the present perfect tense. Since the change in perception as e#ected by the recent corporate culture started at sometime in the past and is still continuing, the appropriate tense form in part D would be present perfect tense and not simple past tense. Parts B, C and E are correct. Hence, (1). SECTION III: VOCABULARY & USAGE - 2 1. Torch means to set on "re and douse means to put out or extinguish. Thus, they form an antonymous pair (A-C). Append means to add to the end of something; conclude means to bring to an end and devise means to plan or design. Hence, (4). 2. Hyperbole means an obvious or intentional exaggeration. Its opposite is understatement, which means intentionally representing something as less that it is, thus B-E. Arson is a criminal o#ence; explanation is to make something intelligible and hibernation means to spend winter in a dormant condition. Hence, (2). 3. Complacent means self-satis"ed; so contented, which means pleased, is its synonym (A-D). Alternating means occurring by turns; portentous means of great signi"cance and taciturn means inclined to silence. Hence, (1). 4. Apposite means appropriate or relevant. Pertinent also means relevant; so the BC pair. Novel means new and unusual; obstinate means refusing to yield or obey and dexterous means skillful in physical movements. Hence, (2). 5. Trenchant means distinct or clear, whereas ambiguous means lacking clarity. Hence, these two words (A-E) share an antonymous relation. Austere means very simple; acrid means harsh in smell or taste and veridical means truthful. Hence, (1).

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7 IMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-9 6. Adjure means to command earnestly, thus A-C. Retract means to draw back; incriminate means to accuse somebody of a crime or fault and derive means to obtain or deduce. Hence, (3). 7. Prudence means being careful or judicious. So, caution is its synonym (B-E). Vitality means physical or mental strength; extent means the range of something and modesty means decency. Hence, (2). 8. Uncouth means crude or unre"ned. Its antonym is suave, which means courteous (AC). Agile means moving with ease and arrogant means vain and rude. Hence, (1). 9. Sedentary means abiding in one place. Mobile is opposite to it, so C-D pair. Voracious means very hungry; deviant means di#ering from norms of society and terse means brief or short. Hence, (2).

10. Melancholic means causing gloom or sadness and its opposite is exhilarating, which means stimulating. So, the A-D pair. Speculative means contemplative; meditative means deeply thoughtful and symbolic means pertaining to something. Hence, (1). 11. Courteous, considerate and civil are all positive words and convey something polite and decent. Such a question would not make one feel nervous. But a brusque or a blunt and rude question would obviously make one uncomfortable. One can react to such a question by squinting horribly. Hence, (2). 12. Virulence has a negative connotation and means violent hostility. So, neither melodious nor harmonious can be used with it. E#ortless does not "t the "rst blank because the sentence implies that it was di$cult to avoid the bell. So, di$cult would be an appropriate word for the "rst blanks. Impudent meaning arrogant or bold goes well with the word virulent. Hence, (3). 13. The connector though indicates that the word for the "rst blank should be opposite in idea to the word di#erent. So, di#erently is negated. Carelessly would also be a mis"t as indicated by the second sentence: the interchange of the words is not a casual a#air. Between evaluation and opinion the latter "ts the second blank better because evaluation implies assessment, whereas the sentence speaks of how one regards oneself or thinks of oneself. So, synonymously and opinion are the correct words. Hence, (3). 14. The sentence implies that the Leader rejected all the claims of the opponents in a smart and clever way. So, ingeniously is appropriate for the "rst blank. Ingenuously means artlessly or in an innocent manner and is a mis"t contextually. Incredible means unbelievable whereas incredulous means unbelieving or skeptical. So, incredible can "t the second blank. Hence, (1). 15. A culture of stamina does not make any sense; so (2) is negated. A culture of sympathy may not necessarily allow scope for diversity to spread or prosper. Resilience refers to !exibility or elasticity and may not promote diversity. Moreover, brandish is mainly used in the context of weapons. So, tolerance and !ourish are the appropriate words. A culture of tolerance, which means being open-minded or liberal, can give a lot of scope to diversity to !ourish. Hence, (4). 16. Spurious means not genuine, hence it cannot be used in the context. An objective person may not necessarily be one who can be trusted. Moreover, o$ciate, which means to perform the duties of an o$ce does not "t the context. Between honest and adorable, the former is a better option as it goes with the subsequent idea of trusting someone. Validate also "ts the second blank perfectly as it means

substantiate or con"rm. Hence, (2). 17. Neither discrediting nor discouraging "t in the context. If companies give rewards to improve the performance of employees, they would expect the latter to do the work well and not that the employees have to look for, as conveyed by seeking, a genuine interest in doing the work well. In fact, the sentence

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does not make any sense. If we use the words given in option (4), the sentence becomes coherent. Companies that withhold rewards thinking the employees would work better actually a#ect the performance of the employees instead of encouraging or promoting (as conveyed by fostering) a genuine motivation for the work. Hence, (4). 18. Treatment and prevention are far fetched and do not go with the context. Facilitated cannot "t the second blank because the latter part of the sentence implies that signs of maladjustment are easily discernible. So, identi"cation and complicated are the correct words. Hence, (3). 19. Garrulous and digni"ed do not make any sense in the context of language; they are mainly used to describe personal traits. So, options (2) and (4) are ruled out. Between (1) and (3), the set of words in the former "ts better because the expression habitual land does not make any sense. Moreover, the excerpt implies that half of the worlds languages are dying along with the cultures. In this sense, moribund "ts better. Decadence means to fall into a state of moral degradation. Hence, (1). 20. From the excerpt it can be gathered that Whitehead used vodka to drive away his night terrors. Therefore, trigger is incorrect here. If ones body becomes vulnerable to something, one would avoid that instead of consuming it more. So, (4) can be eliminated. Both sedative and sopori"c are almost similar in meaning, but in the given context immune is more apt that accustomed. Hence, (2).

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9 IMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-9

VA AT1 IN VERBAL ASSESSMENT TEST 1


Questions: 1-7 1. Premise (Evidence): Compared with youngsters of non-smoking parents, preschoolers exposed to secondhand smoke had a 21% greater chance of hypertension, de!ned as blood-pressure values in the top 15% of their group. Premise: High-blood pressure in childhood can carry over into adulthood. Conclusion: Protecting youngsters from passive smoke exposure may, therefore, have longterm health

bene!ts. All options except (2) do not follow from the premises. Hence, (2). 2. Premise: Art does not exist as a separate entity creating works for public consumption. Instead it is part of every society and is nurtured, created and appreciated by that society as a whole. Premise: If the art created by a particular society is, say, not of a high standard, it is not because of the incompetence of artists but because the people of that society. Conclusion: do not strongly wish for a higher standard in their arts. The argument is predicated on the premise that it is society as a whole that is responsible for art. So if art is not a high standard then it is society as a whole that is responsible. Options (1) and (2) are not supported by the information in the premises. Option (3) runs counter to the information in the premises. Hence, (4). 3. Premise (Fact): New investment laws protect the interests of the small investor and insure his investments are paid out even if they have been made in a company involved in scam. Missing Premise (Assumption): Small investors are able to distinguish the clean companies from the dirty ones and can identify which companies are likely to go bankrupt. Premise: Earlier people used to think twice about a company and its functioning policies before investing. Conclusion: This law will change all that and give rise to a new breed of indi"erent investor and make it easier for dirty as well as ine#cient companies to raise money. This will encourage blind investing in companies liable to go bankrupt. An assumption is that which if untrue invalidates the conclusion. If small investors are incapable of identifying which companies are likely to go bankrupt, then even if they spend time analysing a company and its functioning policies, they will not be able to choose the right company. So unless option (3) is true the conclusion will not hold. Even if the rest of the options are untrue the conclusion will still hold. Hence, (3).

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1 IMS-34-CT-CU-SC-O-BA-VA-ATI 4. Premise: In a 2007 study of Fijians girls, those with TVs who were exposed to Western images of beauty were 60% more likely to have disordered eating habits. Premise: Even those without TVs admitted to dieting to change their body shape; they were responding to in$uences !ltered to them through their TV-watching friends. Inference: The Western images shown on TV are of a body type that is thinner than the body type of Fijian girls. The e"ect of being exposed to Western images of beauty were eating disorders and dieting. From this it can

be inferred that the images were of a body type that were thinner than Fijian girls, resulting in the latter resorting to dieting. Option (1) is incorrect since there is no information about a typical Western diet vis-a-vis typical Fijian diet, the only information available is of Western images on TV and not Western diet as a whole. Options (2) and (3) similarly cannot be deduced from the information given. Hence, (4). 5. Premise: Any combination of overwork and stress inevitably leads to insomnia. Premise: Managers at AlphaCorp, Inc., all su"er from stress; a majority of the managers work well over 65 hours per week. Premise: AlphaCorp gives regular bonuses only to employees who work more than 45 hours per week. Conclusion: Most of the managers at AlphaCorp who receive regular bonuses have insomnia. Option (1) is incorrect as there is no information about other companies work conditions. Option (2) is incorrect since there is no information about other workers vis-a-vis managers. Option (3) re-states the de!nition of overwork and is not a deduction. Option (4) is a logical deduction from the conditions expressed in the premises, stress and overwork lead to insomnia. All managers are under stress and all those who get a bonuses work more than 45 hours. Hence, (4). 6. Premise: A man-eating tiger that is not hungry has no reason to attack human beings. Missing Premise (Assumption): Man-eating tigers do not attack human beings without a reason. Conclusion: Selected settlements threatened by man-eating tigers can be protected by leaving food in the forest for for the tigers The missing premise is the fact that man-eating tigers attack human beings only for food and and not without a reason. If this is false then the plan is bound to fail. Hence, (1). 7. Premise: Although Combi$am has been proven to eliminate moderate fever associated with some illnesses, many doctors no longer routinely recommend its use for this purpose. Premise: A moderate fever stimulates the activity of the body's disease-!ghting white blood cells and also inhibits the growth of many strains of disease-causing bacteria. Conclusion: Combi$am can prolong a patient's illness by eliminating moderate fever helpful in !ghting some diseases. Option (3) is incorrect since Combi$am controls fever and not the growth of the white blood cells, so if the illness is not accompanied by fever then Combi$am will not cause any harm. Option (1) is irrelevant to the premises. Option (4) makes a generalization between illnesses and white blood cells which cannot be supported by the passage. Option (2) concludes the argument by establishing a relationship between the two premises. Hence, (2).

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8. (Source: CAT 2007) In part A, there is a missing article: in a recession is the correct expression. In C, the correct idiomatic expression is out of a slump. In D, a temporary stimuli is incorrect because stimuli is a plural noun and the inde!nite article cannot precede a plural noun. In E, there is an incorrect word form: a"ect is the verb form, whereas in the given sentence we require a noun. Thus, the correct word in E would be e"ect. Only part B is correct. Hence, (5). 9. (Source: CAT 2008) Sentences A and D are correct. Sentence E uses a wrong article: it should be an industry, not a industry. The comma at the end of sentence C is incorrect, as it separates the subject from the main verb. B uses the incorrect pronoun their instead of its. Hence, (4). 10. In part B, there is an incorrect conjunction. The sentence implies that his discussion cannot proceed unless he provides some other explanations. So, instead of since the conjunction until, which means up to the time, should be used to connect the clauses. There is an article error in part D. Here the concepts of socialism and capitalism are referred to in a very generic sense. So, the article before capitalism is not required. Parts A, C and E are correct. Hence, (3). 11. In part A, the de!nite article before culture is not required because culture is an abstract concept and is an uncountable noun. Moreover, here the reference is not to any speci!c culture. In C, there is an incorrect conjunction - and also. Not only but also is the correct conjunction pair, also called correlative conjunction. There is a preposition error in part D: the word nature used in the sense of main characteristic of something is followed by the preposition of and not for. Thus, only parts B and E are correct. Hence, (4). 12. There is a missing article in part C. Here the adjective elites represents the whole class; there fore it is used as a noun and should be preceded by the de!nite article the. In D there is a missing pronoun. Here we require a re$exive pronoun because the subject who does the action and the object who receives the action is same. Thus, D should read: that Marxism should !nd itself. Parts A, B and E are correct. Hence, (2). 13. There is an incorrect preposition in part B. The correct expression is to shed light on, which means to provide an explanation for or to make things easier for understanding. In D, there is an incorrect word form: pure is an adjective and here it is supposed to qualify the adjective local. But an adjective cannot

qualify another adjective; we require the adverb form purely to qualify local. Parts A, C and E are grammatically correct. Hence, (3). 14. There is an article error in part B. The sentence denotes a very general scenario and talks of any publisher who can face this problem. Therefore, the inde!nite article a should precede publisher. In part C, there is an incorrect pronoun. Here the pronoun should be in the objective case and not the nominative case; so, most of whom should be the correct expression. There is an incorrect word form in E the adjective attentive should be replaced by the noun attention to make the sentence correct. So, only parts A and D are grammatically correct. Hence, (4). 15. (Source : CAT 2005) There is an article error in sentence B. Here a particular project is being referred to so, the should precede project. In C again, there is an article error. The correct phrase should be with a single-minded focus because when an abstract noun is preceded by an adjective, it requires an article. Sentences A and D are correct. Hence, (2). 16. (Source : CAT 2005) There are two article errors in the given excerpt. In sentence B, the should precede Enlightenment because here a particular philosophical movement is being referred to. In sentence C, the de!nite article should be used before 1820s. Sentences A and D are correct. Hence, (1).

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3 IMS-34-CT-CU-SC-O-BA-VA-ATI 17. In sentence A, to is a preposition; hence it cannot be followed by the base form of the verb. Here the gerund form facing should be used. In B, there is a dangling modi!er error. The sentence does not have a de!nite subject, so it is not clear whom the modifying phrase Having lived through it quali!es. The subject should be placed as close as possible to the modi!er to make the sentence unambiguous. The correct sentence should read: Having lived through it, I can now say this to youpurely intellectual concept. In sentence C, the before Heaven is incorrect. An article is not used before abstract nouns used in a general sense. Thus, only sentence D is correct. Hence, (4). 18. Sentence B has a missing article. When an abstract noun is quali!ed by an adjective or adjectival phrase, the article is used. Therefore, the phrase primary goal should be preceded by the article a; an inde!nite article has to be used because it is one of the many goals. In C, there is a misplaced modi!er due to which the sentence is completely ambiguous. The clause that are seeking to increase per capita consumption rates at home quali!es the developing countries and not only China, so it should be

placed immediately after the introductory phrase. The correct sentence should read: Among the developing countries that are seeking to increase per capita consumption rates at home, China stands out. Sentence A and D are correct. Hence, (1). 19. In A, there is an incorrect word form. Downrightly is incorrect; the correct adverb form is downright and it quali!es the adjective suspect. Downright means thoroughly. In sentence B there is a dangling modi!er error. It is not clear whom the phrase rising at odd hours quali!es. The correct sentence should read: Rising at odd hours, these people leave polite society behind to spend long stretches staring not at dazzling vistas or strange beasts but at birds. There is a preposition error in sentence C. When the word front is used in the sense of a cover or disguise for some other activity, the correct phrase is front for something and not front of something. Hence, (2). 20. According to the rule of modi!er, a modifying phrase and the subject it modi!es should be placed as close to each other as possible. If there is no clearly de!ned subject in the sentence, then the subject has to be introduced. In the given sentence, Moura is the subject and unmoved by Wellss challenge is the modifying phrase. Only options (2) and (4) show the proximity of the subject and the modi!er. The other two options give rise to ambiguity due to their arrangement. In (4), the use of the conjunction when is unnecessary. Only (2) gives us a grammatically correct sentence. Hence, (2). 21. From the given options we understand that the modifying clause is Believing that Lenin's cube-shaped mausoleum represented a "fourth dimension" where death did not exist and it modi!es the subject he. (3) gives the impression that the followers homes hold the belief, which is incorrect. In (2) there is no subject who does the action; therefore, it is a case of dangling modi!er error. (1) is completely ambiguous. Only (4) has the proper arrangement and gives us a grammatically and structurally correct sentence. Hence, (4). 22. In sentence (4), there is an error of dangling modi!er. The subject is missing from the sentence, therefore, we do not know who faced the challenge of modernity and where the split occurred. In (3), there is an incorrect word modernism is incorrectly used in place of modernity. They have two di"erent connotations. Moreover, in (3) too the modifying clause is placed far away from the subject, Shiism. In (2), the order of the modi!er and the subject is reversed due to which there is an error of misplaced modi!er. Only sentence (1) gives us a grammatically correct sentence. Hence, (1).

23. A!ected means fake. The meanings of the rest of the words can be found in VA 3-4. The correct answer is option (3).

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24. The meanings of the rest of the words can be found in VA 3-4. The correct answer is option (1). 25. The meanings of the words can be found in VA 3. The correct answer is option (2). 26. Bear in is a non-existent form of usage. Hence, (4). 27. Break through is incorrect as it is a single word. Hence, (3). Questions 28-30 THOUGHT FLOW PARA PRIMARY PURPOSE CENTRAL IDEA 1 To outline the birth of psychoanalysis as a legitimate scienti!c !eld Psychoanalysis was !rst recognised as a science in 1909 and its achievements hinged on the discovery of the workings of the unconscious. 2 To describe the signi!cance of the discovery of psychoanalysis - the unconscious. According to Freud, it was a major discovery since it implied that we were strangers even to ourselves. 3 To outline the spread of psychoanalysis into everyday vocabulary Very soon psychoanalysis and became widespread and formed the basis of any talk about human behavior. 4 To outline the current attitude towards psychoanalysis being considered as a scienti!c discipline But now it is no longer considered a science and is routinely denounced. 28. From the above thought $ow it can be seen that the primary purpose of the passage is to outline the rise and fall of psychoanalysis as a legitimate scienti!c !eld. Option (2) is incorrect since the author never expresses his own views about psychoanalysis but only presents the general view. The author starts the fourth paragraph by saying that psychoanalysis !nds itself routinely denounced. Also, he goes on to add the phrase, they say in third line of the last paragraph just to distance himself from the general opinion about psychoanalysis. Option (3) only refers to the third paragraph. Option (4) is incorrect since the passage does not discuss the role of psychoanalysis in popular culture. Hence, (1). 29. Based on the thought $ow and the answer to the primary purpose question it can be seen that option

(3) best expresses the central idea of the passage. Options (1) and (4) are incorrect since the central idea is not that psychoanalysis is unscienti!c but that after its widespread use it is now considered unscienti!c. Option (2) is incorrect as per the content of the passage, since it is currently not considered relevant. Hence, (3). 30. Based on the thought $ow and the primary purpose, it can be seen that the best option is (3). Hence, (3).

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5 IMS-34-CT-CU-SC-O-BA-VA-ATI Questions 30-40: The highlighted options are valid deductions. 31. (1) Some schizophrenics need medication. (2) All schizophrenics need medication. (3) Negative conclusion requires negative premise. (4) All those who need medication is not distributed in the premises. 32. (1) No game are prey. (2) No prey are game. (3) Some prey are not game. (4) Some game are not prey. 33. (1) Knights is not distributed in the premises. (2) Freemasons is not distributed in the premises. (3) Negative conclusion requires negative premise. (4) Some freemasons are knights. 34. (1) Denims is not distributed in the premises. (2) Some denims are not garments. (3) Negative premise requires negative conclusion. (4) Negative premise requires negative conclusion. 35. (1) Clairvoyants is not distributed in the premises. (2) Clairvoyants is not distributed in the premises (3) Some clairvoyants are not soothsayers. (4) Clairvoyants is not distributed in the premises. 36. (1) Negative premise requires negative conclusion. (2) Negative premise requires negative conclusion. (3) Some sceptics are not conservatives. (4) Sceptics is not distributed in the premises. 37. (1) Sincere people is not distributed in the premises.

(2) NGOs is not distributed in the premises. (3) Negative conclusion requires negative premise. (4) Some sincere people work for NGOs. 38. (1) Some football stars who play for the love of the game are over-paid. (2) Some football stars who are overpaid play for the love of the game. (3) Negative conclusion requires negative premise. (4) Negative conclusion requires negative premise. 39. (1) Planes is not distributed in the premises.. (2) Negative premise requires negative conclusion. (3) Birds is not distributed in the premises. (4) None of the above. 40. (1) Some respectable people are not rastafarians. (2) Respectable is not distributed in the premises. (3) Negative premise requires negative conclusion. (4) Respectable is not distributed in the premises.

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