Exam 5 Practice Questions From Brunner and Suddarths Textbook 1.

An early sign of cancer of the larynx in the glottic area (66% of cases) is: a. affected voice sounds b. burning of the throat when hot liquids are ingested c. enlarged cervical nodes d. dysphagia answer: a 2. A patient with a total laryngectomy would no longer have: a. natural vocalization b. protection of the lower airway from foreign particles c. a normal effective cough d. all of the above mechanisms answer: d 3. Patient education for a laryngectomy includes: a. advising that large amounts of mucus can be coughed up through the stoma b. cautioning about preventing water from entering the stoma c. telling the patient to expect a diminished sense of taste and smell d. doing all of the above answer: d 4. Incomplete closure of the tricuspid valve results in a backward flow of blood from the: a. aorta to the left ventricle b. left atrium to the left ventricle c. right atrium to the right ventricle d. right ventricle to the right atrium answer: d 5. Backward flow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium is through the: a. aortic valve b. mitral valve c. pulmonic valve d. tricuspid valve

answer: b 6. The pathophysiology of mitral stenosis is consistent with: a. aortic stenosis b. left ventricular failure c. left atrial hypertrophy d. all of the above answer: c 7. On auscultation, the nurse suspects a diagnosis of mitral valve regurgitation when which of the following is heard? a. mitral click b. high-pitched blowing sound at the apex c. low-pitched diastolic murmur at the apex d. diastolic murmur at the left sterna border answer: c 8. The presence of a water-hammer pulse (quick, sharp strokes that suddenly collapse) is diagnostic for: a. aortic regurgitation b. mitral insufficiency c. tricuspid insufficiency d. tricuspid stenosis answer: a 9. The most common valvuloplasty procedure is the: a. balloon valvuloplasty b. annuloplasty c. chordoplasty d. commissurotomy answer: d 10. Xenographs, used for valve replacement, have a viability of about: a. 2 years b. 4 years c. 8 years d. 12 years

answer: c 11. The nurse knows that a patient who is to receive a xenograft from a pig or cow will be receiving a (an): a. allograft b. autograft c. heterograft d. homograft answer: c 12. Rheumatic endocarditis is an inflammatory reaction to: a. group A, beta-hemolytic streptococcus b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Serratia marcescens d. Staphylococcus aureus answer: a 13. The causative microorganism for rheumatic endocarditis can be accurately identified only by: a. a throat culture b. an echocardiogram c. roentgenography d. serum analysis answer: a 14. Clinical manifestations of infective endocarditis may include: a. embolization b. focal neurologic lesions c. heart murmurs d. all of the above answer: d 15. The most characteristic symptom of pericarditis is: a. dyspnea b. constant chest pain c. fatigue lasting more than 1 month d. uncontrolled restlessness

answer: b 16. The characteristic sign of pericarditis is: a. a friction rub b. dyspnea c. fever d. hypoxia answer: a 17. Which of the following medications would not be used to treat pericarditis because it can decrease blood flow? a. Colchicine b. Indocin c. Motrin d. Prednisone answer: b 18. A serious consequence of pericarditis is: a. cardiac tamponade b. decreased venous pressure c. hypertension d. left ventricular hypertrophy answer: a 19. Clinical manifestations of acute venous insufficiency include all of the following except: a. cool and cyanotic skin b. initial absence of edema c. sharp pain that may be relieved by the elevation of the extremity d. full superficial veins answer: b 20. A significant cause of venous thrombosis is: a. altered blood coagulation b. stasis of blood c. vessel wall injury d. all of the above

answer: d 21. Clinical manifestations of deep vein obstruction include: a. edema and limb pain b. ankle engorgement c. leg circumference differences d. all of the above answer: d 22. When administering heparin anticoagulant therapy, the nurse needs to monitor the clotting time to make certain that it is within the therapeutic range of: a. one to two times the normal control b. two to three times the normal control c. 3.5 times the normal control d. 4.5 times the normal control answer: a

23. When caring for a patient who has started anticoagulant therapy with warfarin (Coumadin), the nurse knows not to expect therapeutic benefits for: a. at least 12 hours b. the first 24 hours c. 2 to 3 days d. 3 to 5 days answer: 3 24. Knowing the most serious complication of venous insufficiency, the nurse would assess the patients lower extremities for signs of: a. rudor b. cellulitis c. dermatitis d. ulceration answer: d 25. A nurse should teach a patient with chronic venous insufficiency to do all of the following except:

a. avoid constricting garments b. elevate the legs above the heart level for 30 minutes every 2 hours c. sit as much as possible to rest the valves in the legs d. sleep with the foot of the bed elevated about 6 inches answer: c 26. A varicose vein is caused by: a. phlebothrombosis b. an incompetent venous valve c. venospasm d. venous occlusion answer: b 27. Postoperative nursing management for vein ligation and stripping include all of the following except: a. dangling the legs over the side of the bed for 10 minutes every 4 hours for the first 24 hours b. elevating the foot of the bed to promote venous blood return c. maintaining elastic compression of the leg continuously for about 1 week d. starting the patient ambulating for 24 to 48 hours after surgery answer: a