IMMUNOLOGY:

1) T-cell activation involves: A B C D Autocrine and paracrine cytokines Conformational changes in the CD3 peptide chains. Docking of tyrosine kinases to extracellular domains of the CD3 peptide chains Irreversible increases in intracellular Ca2+

2)

Natural Killer cell are A B C D Able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization B-cells Cytotoxic T-cells Increased by immunization

3)

In the immune response to a hapten-protein conjugate, in order to get anti-hapten antibodies it is essential that A B C D The hapten be recognized by helper T-cells The hapten be recognized by suppressor T-cells The protein be recognized by B-cells The protein be recognized by helper T-cells

4)

Two dissimilar inbred strains of mice, A and B, are crossed to yield an F1 hybrid strain. If a large dose of spleen cells from an adult A mouse is injected into an adult AB mouse, which of the following is MOST likely to occur? The spleen cells will A B C D be destroyed induce a graft-versus-host reaction in the recipient survive and induce tolerance to strain A grafts in the recipient survive without any effects on the recipient

5)

Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T-cells must express which one of the following on their surface?

A B C D E

Class I MHC Class II MHC CD4 IgM Thy-1

6)

The role of macrophages during an antibody response is to A Express Fc receptors B Lyse virally infected cells C Process and present antigen D Suppress cytotoxic T-cells

MICROBIOLOGY: VIROLOGY
1) The virion of the following viruses contains a polymerase EXCEPT: A B C D Hepatitis B virus Human Immunodeficiency virus Influenza virus Togavirus

2) All of the following statements about negative-stranded RNA viruses are true, EXCEPT: A B C D All of them have helical capsids They are all enveloped viruses They are genetically related and likely have a common ancestor They replicate exclusively in the cytoplasm

3) Rhinovriuses are causative agents of the common cold. No vaccine is available against these infections, because: A B It has been difficult to attenuate the virus in the laboratory for vaccine preparations It mutates rapidly

C D

Human rhinoviruses combine with animal strains so that new antigenic types continually emerge There are too many serotypes, which makes vaccination impractical

4) Respiratory syncytial virus is an important respiratory pathogen. All of the following statements are true, EXCEPT: A B C D Because it is a DNA virus there is no effective antiviral agent available to treat this infection It is the most common cause of lower respiratory infections in infants and causes approximately 90000 hospitalization per year It occurs in yearly outbreaks Unlike with some of the common childhood viral infections, lifelong immunity does not occur and re-infections may occur throughout life.

5) The following statements about interferons are true, EXCEPT: A B C D Interferons can bind to and inactivate viruses directly Interferons can modulate immunity Interferons posses anti-tumor activity Interferons suppress both viral and cellular mRNA translation

6) Acyclovir is used against HSV and VZV infections because: A B It can effectively eliminate latency established by HSV and VZV It is efficiently converted to the active monophosphate form by the cellular thymidine kinase in HSV and VZV infected cells It reduces the duration of virus shedding and the frequency of recurrences

7) All of the following statements about polyomaviruses are true, EXCEPT: A B C D They are able to establish a latent infection in humans They have circular double stranded DNA They have an envelope The T-antigen is an important structural protein

8) All of the following statements about papillomaviruses are true, EXCEPT: A B C D They infect epithelial cells They have been associated with cervical dysplasia The virion contains a single stranded DNA molecule More than 80 serotypes have been identified

9) Because retroviruses have genomes composed of RNA (hence the name RNA tumor viruses), they would not be affected by drugs that inhibit DNA synthesis: A B True False

True (A) or False (B)? 10) 11) 12) 13) 14) 15) 16) Adenovirus virion contains a single stranded DNA molecule Adenovirus replicates in the nucleus of the host cell Different strains of adenoviruses replicate either in the respiratory tract or the gut, never in both Adenovirus interferes with the interferon response B19 uses its own polymerase for replication B19 can be transmitted through the placenta B19 infects mature and progenitor erythroid cells

17)

A major reason for the high incidence of herpes simplex virus infections in the U.S. population is that the virus: A B C D E Has a very short incubation period, which facilitates rapid spread. Mutates frequently and escapes immune surveillance. Prevents the production of antibodies in the infected host Remains highly infective for many days on objects or surfaces touched by infected individuals. Sheds from infected individuals even when they are asymptomatic

18)

Erythema infectiosum (Fifth disease), a self-limiting disease of children, is caused by: A Human Herpesvirus 3

B C D E F

Human Herpesvirus 6 Measles virus Parvovirus Rubellavirus Variolavirus

19)

Which of the following statements is NOT true about adults, who have herpes simplex infections: They A B C D E Carry the virus in a latent state Develop circulating antibodies to the virus Develop permanent immunity that prevents recurrent infections May shed virus for long periods Usually acquire the infection in childhood

FOR QUESTION 20 AND 21: 20) A two-week-old infant was admitted for a two-day history of fever and irritability. He was born to a 20-year-old mother with no prior pregnancies but a gestation complicated by a painful vaginal infection in the sixth month, treated with an unknown oral medicine. On physical examination, the infant was found to have small red vesicular and pustular lesions on the scalp, was irritable and running a fever of 102.5F. The mother had been immunized as a child against measles, mumps and rubella, but her antibody titer to these viruses were unknown. She had chicken pox as a child. Based on this information, the most likely cause of the infants illness is which of the following: A B C D Congenital Cytomegalovrus infection Congenital Herpes Simplex infection Congenital Rubellavirus infection Congenital Varicellavirus infection

21) A B

Which of the following courses of management should be followed? Culture fluid from the scalp lesions, blood and CSF for viruses. Await the result before starting treatment Culture fluid from the scalp lesions and the CSF for Herpes simplex and begin acyclovir treatment immediately

C D

Culture fluid from the scalp lesions and the CSF for Herpes simplex and begin ribavirin treatment immediately Measure serum antibody titers to Herpes simplex, Varicella-zostervirus and Cytomegalovirus in both the mother and the infant to establish the diagnosis. Await the result before starting treatment.

FOR QUESTIONS 22 AND 23: 22) An 18-year-old Caucasian male presented with a one-week history of low-grade fever, fatigue, abdominal pain and vomiting. A day prior to presentation he became jaundiced. There was no history of exposure to hepatitis, but he was sexually active and reported IV drug use within the prior 6 months. His bilirubin and liver enzymes were elevated, suggesting inflammation of the liver. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HbsAg) test was positive and tests for the other forms of viral hepatitis were negative. What instruction regarding infectivity of this patient is correct? A B A Hepatitis B e-antigen (HbeAg) test should be done and if negative he should be considered non-infectious. He is most likely a chronically infected by Hepatitis B virus and should be considered non-infectious as soon as the bilirubin and liver enzyme values have normalized His illness is most likely due to Hepatitis B virus and he should be considered infectious (through blood and sexual contact) until HBsAg becomes negative and Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-Hbs) becomes positive To avoid fecal-oral transmission to other individuals he should not be allowed to prepare food for others

23) Which of the following statements regarding the above patient are TRUE? A Antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (antiHBc antibody) will become positive several months after recovery from hepatitis B B The most likely outcome of his infection is cancer of the liver C The surest way of preventing his infection would have for him to have been vaccinated against Hepatitis B as a child D Since he acquired Hepatitis B as an adult he has a 90% risk of becoming chronically infected

24) Which of the following viruses are often associated with congenital infections of newborns, which damage the developing fetus during pregnancy ?

i ii iii iv v vi vii A B C D

Cytomegalovirus Human immunodeficiency virus Measlesvirus Mumpsvirus Rubellavirus Parvovirus Varicella zostervirus i, ii, iv, v, vi, vii i, ii, v, vi, vii i, ii, v, vi, i, v, vi

25)

Which of the following viral infections is commonly transmitted by small droplet aerosol and is the most contagious of them all? A B C D E CMV B19 Hepatitis B virus Rubella Variola

26)

Which of the following properties made smallpox eradicable? A B C D Monkeys are a reservoir no carrier state no inapparent infection only one antigenic viral strain exists

MICROBIOLOGY: DIAGNOSTIC MICROBIOLOGY

1) Which of he following steps may be involved when attempting to identify a pathogen in a specimen? A Differentiation organisms between endogenous and pathogenic

B C D

Selection against endogenous organisms Both Neither

2) If you were to develop an Enzyme-Linked-Immunosorbent-Assay (ELISA) to detect the presence of growth hormone, would you absorb antigen or antibody to the ELISA plate (solid phase)? A B Antibody Antigen

3) Why is a change in antibody titer considered significant only when it is fourfold or larger? A B C D the intrinsic error of the ELISA is two the intrinsic error of the ELISA is four twofold differences occur frequently due to the high intrinsic background of serum within any given individual the daily fluctuations of antibody titers are twofold

MICROBIOLOGY: GENERAL MICROBIOLOGY:

1) The most efficient skin disinfection for a surgical patients is application of: A B C D alcohol detergent and soaps germicidal lamp exposure iodophor compounds

2)

Which one of the following statements is NOT true? A In Europe and the US death due to infection is increasing B Infectious diseases are spread by five basic methods: food, fomite spread, respiratory transmission, sexual transmission, vector borne, zoonotic and vertical. C Knowledge of the pathogen and pharmacology is usually sufficient 8

to initiate effective treatment D Most people worldwide die of an infectious disease

3)

Which one of the following statements is NOT true? A A special group of toxins, usually related to the bacterial cell wall are called endotoxins B HIV and malaria evade the hosts immune system by frequently changing their surface antigens C The human hosts first line of defense against infections are antibodies and cytotoxic killer cells D To cause disease an infectious apthogen must be presented to the host in a way and in an environment that will allow it to grow E Virulence factors are mechanisms employed by a pathogen to establish itself and produce disease

4)

Which one of the following statements is NOT true? A Eighty percent of diagnoses are made from just the history and the physical exam B It is very common for people, who have an infection, not to show any identifiable symptoms and yet become immune C Most people die of infectious diseases, which are not preventable D The incubation period is the time it takes for the pathogen to establish itself to the point where the first symptoms appear E The same infectious disease agent can cause a variety of different clinical syndromes

MICROBIOLOGY: BACTERIOLOGY: GRAM (+) COCCI:

1) A 2250 gram male infant was born to a 23-year-old woman. Pregnancy was uneventful. At 52 hours of age, the infant developed a generalized convulsion. Cultures of blood and CSF yielded b-hemolytic organisms. Which one of the following characteristics is consistent with this organism? A B Positive CAMP test Positive Catalase 9

C D

Pyrrolidonyl arylamidase (PYRase) positive Susceptible to optochin

2) A 6-year-old boy presented with a 1-week history of fever, sore throat and headache. One day before hospital admission, he awakened with pain and swelling in the right ankle. In addition to a warm, swollen right ankle, he was noted to have a new grade II/IV systolic heart murmur thought to be consistent with mitral regurgitaion. He was admitted to the hospital with a presumptive diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever. Which one of the following is consistent with this organism? A B C D CAMP test positive Produces alpha hemolysis on sheep blood agar plates Pyrrolidonyl arylamide (PYRase) positive Resistant to bacitracin

3) A 7-year-old girl was admitted with a 3-day history of increasing pain and swelling of her left leg. The patient recalled some trauma to her left leg. The patient was febrile (temperature of 39.2oC), left leg was red, swollen, warm and very tender. Bone scan and CT revealed subperiosteal abscess. Cultures of blood and abscess grew gram positive organisms. Which one of the following characteristics is consistent with this organisms? A B C D Able to grow in bile and in 6.5% salt Almost all strains produce coagulase Catalase negative cocci in clusters Resistance to nacomycimn is common

MICROBIOLOGY: BACTERIOLOGY: GRAM (-)BACILLI:

1) Enteroinvasive E.coli has the following properties EXCEPT: A B C D E Causes bloody, mucous diarrhea Chromosomal sequences related Shigella Destroys the intestinal mucosa Does not require antibiotic treatment Produces Shiga toxin

10

2) Salmonella thyphi causes disease by A B C D Forming a thick capsule Releasing endotoxin Resisting phagocytosis Producing an exotoxin

3) Salmonella typhi and Salmonella enteritis share the following properties EXCEPT: A B C D Spread systemically Invade the epithelial cells of the intestine Are food borne pathogens Possess endotoxin

4) Legionella pneumophila is characterized by the following statements: A B C Air conditioning units are often the source of the pathogen It is diagnosed in HE stained sputum specimen Requires X and V factor to grow in culture

MICROBIOLOGY:BACTERIOLOGY:GRAM (+) BACILLI:

FOR QUESTION 1 AND 2: A 2 year-old child was brought to the ER with an upper respiratory infection. The patient was febrile to 38.9oC and had an exudate in the posterior pharynx that was described as a yellowish membrane, which bled when scraped and removed. The patients medical history revealed that he had not received any immunizations. 1) The patient was admitted. Special cultures were requested for the suspected pathogen. What was the suspected pathogen? A Bordetella pertussis B Corynebacterium diphteriae C Haemophilus influenzae 11

D Streptococcus pyogenes E Epstein Barr Virus

2)

How does this organism cause disease? A B C D E Causes disseminated intravascular coagulation Causes Toxic Shock syndrome Spreads to the CNS, where it causes meningitis Produces toxins that interfere with protein translation Produces toxins that increase cellular cAMP level

3)

The patient is a neonate born at 32 weeks of gestation. The baby was intubated at birth because of poor respiratory effort. Blood and CSF specimens taken from the infant grew small, aerobic, gram positive rods. On the basis of the patients age and the description of the organism, what organism is likely? A B C D Bacillus cereus Clostridium perfringens Gardnerella spp Listeria monocytogenes

For question #4,5 and 6: A 64-year-old man presented to the clinic with an abscess in his mouth. He stated that the abscess had been getting larger for a period of three months. He was homeless and had not sought medical care until this presentation. A sinus track had formed from the abscess to the outside of the face. An aspirate of the abscess was sent to the laboratory for gram stain and culture. The culture was positive for Actimomyces spp. 4) What was the Gram stain report of this organism? A B C D 5) Gram positive, box car cells Gram positive, branching, thin rods Gram positive cocci in clusters Gram negative, intracellular diplococci

What is the source of this organism?

12

A B C D

Contaminated food Gastrointestinal flora Oral flora Soil

6)

How can this organism be differentiated from Nocardia spp? A B C D Actinomyces spp forms target hemolysis on a blood agar plate Nocardia spp has a capsule Nocardia spp is acid fast Nocardia spp produces branching rods

For question #7 and 8: A 13-week-old baby girl was brought to the Peds ER. The baby was weak, lethargic, fed poorly and constipated. Baby was hospitalized. After admission, it was noted that the baby was gradually becoming paralysed. A diagnosis was made when the mother reported that she had sweetened the babys formula with organically grown honey. 7) What is the most likely diagnosis? A B C D Group B streptococcal disease Infant botulism Infant poliomyelitis Listeriosis

8)

How can the diagnosis be confirmed? A B C D Culture of babys formula Culture of babys stool Culture of babys stool and detection of toxin in babys stool Detection of toxin in babys blood

For question #9, 10 and 11: The patient was a 35-ear-old woman. She worked in a fast food restaurant. She was brought to the emergency room, weak and somnolent. She had trouble swallowing. She told the physicians that

13

previously she had been in good health. Her condition worsened and she developed descending quadraparesis, requiring intubation. Cultures of her stool and gastric content were negative. A blood specimen was sent to the laboratory and gave a positive result. She remained hospitalized for six weeks and then returned to her previous good health. 9) What was wrong with this patient? A B C D Classical botulism Classical tetanus Systemic Clostridium perfringens infection Enterohemorrhagic E.coli

10)

What test was ordered to confirm the diagnosis? A Antibody titer B Blood culture C Toxin detection

11)

What is the appropriate for this patient? A Antibiotics B Hyperbaric pressure treatment C Maintenance of respiratory function

For question #11 and 12: A 21-year-old male presents with three days of abdominal pain and tenderness in midgastric and lower abdomen. He was febrile (39.2oC), tachycardic and tachypneic. He was admitted and blood cultures were sent to the laboratory. On an exploratory laparotomy, he was found to have a gangrenous and perforated appendix. 12) The blood cultures were positive for a Gram neg rod. What is the most likely organism? A Bacteriodes fragilis B Bacillus subtilis C Bacillus cereus

14

D Clostridium perfringens 13) What is the possible source for this organism? A B C D Contaminated food Gastrointestinal flora Genital flora Oral flora

MICROBIOLOGY:BACTERIOLOGY:ACID-FAST BACILLI
1) Which one of the following statements is NOT true? A B C D E An individual gets infected with TB by inhaling tubercle bacilli present in small droplets From 1985 through 1992, the number of new TB cases in the United States increased by 80% Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex includes M. tuberculosis, M. bovis and M. ulcerans TB is the leading cause of death due to infectious disease in adults around the world The resurgence in TB cases between 1985 and 1992 can be attributed to the HIV epidemic, immigration from countries where TB is common, the spread of TB in correctional facilities and homeless shelters and inadequate funding for TB control

2) Which one of the following statements is NOT true? A B AIDS reduces the patients immune response to TB so they have less severe disease Because they are relatively resistant to disinfection, the Mycobacterium fortuitum complex have caused infections related to artificial heart valves, hip prostheses and dialysis fluids. Isolation from blood or other normally sterile body tissues is sufficient to make a diagnosis of disseminated non-tuberculosis mycobacterial disease Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) is most associated with disseminated disease in patients with AIDS

15

E F

Patients, whose sputum is smear positive for tuberculosis transmit the disease and should be treated The non-tuberculous mycobacteria are difficult to treat because they are drug resistant

3) Which one of the following statements is NOT true? A B C D About 75% of leprosy patients with an early solitary lesion heal spontaneously Mycobacterium leprae causes a chronic disease of the superficial segments of peripheral nerves Mycobacterium leprae is an obligate intracellular parasite, which multiplies very slowly in mononuclear phagocytes The diagnosis of leprosy is confirmed by growth of Mycobacterium leprae on culture medium for a period of six weeks

MICROBIOLOGY: PARASITOLOGY
1) What morphological form of the malaria parasite will you most likely see in a blood smear during a fever episode? 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 6) 7) A B C D Ringform Young trophozoite Mature trophozoite Young schizont Mature schizont Mereozoite None

1 and 5 1, 5 and 6 2, 3 and 4 7

For question #2 and #3: A young woman from Syria presented with skin lesions on her arm and face. The lesions were raised papules that were firm but not painful. On the same day, a young man from Africa presented with hepatosplenomegaly (enlarged 16

liver and spleen), abdominal pain, fever and pallor. In both cases the cause of their symptoms was discovered to be a parasitic infection with Leishmania, but b two different species of this parasite. 2) The symptoms of the patient from Africa are consistent with: A B C D Disseminated helminth infection Disseminated protozoan infection Localized helminth infection Localized protozoan infection

3) The differences in the symptoms of the two patients was determined in part by a difference in the species of the parasite; this difference is most likely related to the following: A B C D Host temperature optimum Invertebrate host Parasite temperature requirement Vertebrate host

4) A patient arrived in a rural health clinic in Columbia, South America, with a distended and painful abdomen and reported that he had not had a bowl movement in more than six weeks. The patient reported that his home was infested with vinchuca, also known as the kissing bug. This patient is most likely infected by A B C D Leishmania braziliensis Leishmania donovani Trypanosoma cruzi Trypanosoma gambiense

5) A 40-year-old woman presented with a chronic history of vague abdominal discomfort, hunger pains and indigestion. She was found to have moderate eosinophilia and was slightly anemic. She reported that she and her husband frequently dined in gourmet restaurants and greatly enjoyed steak tartare (highly seasoned raw beef). An ova and parasite examination of the patients stool was positive for proglottids and eggs of Taenia sagginata, the beef tape worm. Taenia sagginata undergoes sexual reproduction in the human gastrointestinal tract, therefore, humans are considered to be the

17

A B C D

Definitive host Intermediate host Paratenic host Sexual host

MICROBIOLOGY: UPPER RESPIRATORY INFECTIONS

1) Which of these conditions occurs because a bacteriophage containing the genetic information governing toxin production infects the causative organism? A B C D Diphteric membranous pharyngitis and scarlet fever Gonococcal pharyngitis and staphylococcal pharyngitis Infectious mononucleosis and mumps Sore throat without a rash due to Streptococcus pyogenes and epiglottis due to Haemophilus influenzae

MICROBIOLOGY: LOWER RESPIRATORY TRACT INFECTIONS

1) In an adult patient with pneumonia, a Gram stain of sputum, which shows >25 polymornuclear leukocytes (PMNs) per Low Power Field (LPF) and <10 epithelial cells per LPF associated with >8-10 lancet-shaped Gram-positive cocci, suggests which of the following organisms: A B C D Haemophilus influenzae Klebsiella pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae

2) In patients with HIV/AIDS the most important pathogen causing pneumonia is which of the following: A B C Coccidiodes immitis Mycoplasma pneumoniae Pneumocystis carinii

18

Staphylococcus aureus

3) A 65-year-old male presents with a 3 day history of cough productive of green sputum with right sided chest pain on deep inspiration. He also reports high fever, rigors and a 5 pound weight loss in the past month. On physical exam he is noted to have a temperature of 38.5C, RR 26, BP 120/80, HR=100 regular, poor dentition, injected pharynx, 0.5cm nontender lymph nodes in anterior cervical area and decreased breath sounds at the right base, dullness to percussion at right base and course bronchi and rales at the right lower lobe. Sputum examination reveals ,10 epithelial cells, >25 WBC/LPF with numerous gram negative bacilli. Lab revealed a WBC of 13,400 with 60 segs, 14% bands, 30% lymphs and a serum Cr of 1.8. CXR shows a right lower lobe infiltrate with blunted costrophrenic angle. Based on the clinical presentation and the Gram stain the most likely diagnosis is: A B C D E F Klebsiella pneumoniae Mycobacterium tuberculosis Mycoplasma pneumoniae Pneumocystis carinii Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pneumoniae

4) A 65-year-old female presents with a 3 day history of cough productive of green sputum with right sided chest pain on deep inspiration. She also reports high fevers, rigors and a 3 pound weight loss in the past month. Also of note, she had the flu with URI symptoms, sore throat, severe myalgias, fever and cough (mildly productive) that also attacked other friends and family. On physical exam she is noted to have a temperature of 38.5C, RR 26, BP 120/80, HR=100 regular, poor dentition, injected pharynx, 0.5cm non-tender lymph nodes in anterior cervical area and decreased breath sounds at the right base, dullness to percussion at right base and course bronchi and rales at the right lower lobe. Sputum examination reveals <10 epithelial cells, >25WBC/LPF with numerous gram positive cocci in clusters. Lab revealed a WBC of 13,400 with 60% segs, 14% bands and 30% lymphs and serum Cr of 1.8. CXR shows a right lower lobe infiltrate with blunted costophrenic angle. Based on the clinical presentation and Gram stain the most likely diagnosis is: A B Klebsiella pneumoniae Mycobacterium tuberculosis

19

C D E F

Mycoplasma pneumoniae Pneumocystis carinii Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pneumoniae

MICROBIOLOGY: CNS INFECTIONS

1) A 55-year-old renal transplant recipient on chronic steroid therapy is hospitalized with fever and headaches of 5 days duration. On examination, the patient is confused and has nuchal rigidity. A lumbar puncture disclosed 120 WBC (80% Lymphocytes), CSF glucose of 40 and CSF protein of 95. A smear of CSF revealed many WBC but no organisms. The most likely cause is: A B C D Herpes simplex meningitis Listeria meningitis Neisserial meningitis Pneumococcal meningitis

MICROBIOLOGY: SYSTEMIC INFECTIONS

1) What are the current most common etiologic agents in the US causing sepsis in children beyond the neonatal period? A B C D E Haemophilus influenzae and Neisseria meningitides Listeria monocytogenes and Herpes simplex Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus agalactiae Streptococcus agalactiae and E.coli

2) Injecting drugs users are at an increased risk of bloodstream infection due to which of the following organisms? A B C D Brucella melitensis Rhodotorula rubra Saccharomyces cerevisiae Staphylococcus epidermidis

20

3) A 38-year-old male with a diagnosis of AIDS and Cytomegalovirus retinitis, with an indwelling IV catheter for receipt of CMV treatment is admitted to the hospital with fevers to 103 F and shaking chills. Physical exam is normal and there is no evidence of infection at the catheter insertion site. 24 hours following admission, the laboratory reports that blood cultures are positive for gram positive cocci in clusters. What organisms are likely? A B C D Enterococcus faecalis Staphylococccus aureus Staphylococcus epidermidis Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus

MICROBIOLOGY: GI INFECTIONS
1) Half of the attendees at a student reunion became ill two hours after a luncheon buffet. The menu included quiche, baked chicken, deviled eggs, potatoe salad, gelatin salad and egg custard among other fine picnic fare. Those ill, experienced projectile vomiting, nausea and abdominal pain. Several of the affected individuals also had diarrhea. If you cultured all of the above menu items, high level of contamination with which organism is most likely? A B C D E Enterococcus faecalis Salmonella typhi Staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus epidermidis Yersinia enterocolitia

21