Practice Test

The practice tests included with this workbook have been designed to give you the real game day-type practice you need to succeed on the SAT. When you take the practice tests, you should try to replicate the conditions of an actual SAT testing situation. Key points to consider are: Make sure you have a long block of time where you can concentrate on the test without interruption. Use the answer sheets provided in the back of this workbook to get used to filling in your answers. Either tear them out or copy them so you wont need to flip back and forth. Have at least two sharp #2 pencils-get used to using them to see how many you need to bring on test day. Use the same calculator you plan to use on test day. Dont forget to use it. It will save you time. Have some scratch paper handy. Use an accurate timer and strictly follow the allotted time for each section. Dont get in the habit of giving yourself any more time than is allotted. Try to complete the whole test before checking your answers on any section. Dont flip back to the workbook for help. Struggle through and then go back and review the sections of the workbook and DVDs as needed.

Section 1
Time20 Minutes
20 Questions In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then decide which is the best of the choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Notes: . The use of a calculator is permitted. All numbers used are real numbers. 2. Figures that accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems. They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that the figure is not drawn to scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. . If x/6 = 3/4 then x = (A) 5/4 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 64/3

Once you have completed a practice test, turn to the answer section and check your answers. Once youve checked your answers, go back to the test questions and try to understand what you did wrong on the ones you missed. This type of review will help you understand and correct any trouble areas you have.
NOTE: The practice tests included in this workbook do not contain an experimental section.

W 12 X C Z Y

12 60

2. Triangle ABC above has a perimeter equal to: (A) 24 (B) 36 (C) 38 (D) 40 (E) 44

a b d c

i j l k

Line 1

e f m n h g p o

Line 2
2 x 33 x

A = r C = 2r
2

A = lw

A = bh

V = lwh

V = r h
2

C = A +b
2 2

Special Right Triangles

The number of degrees od arc in a cirlce is 360 The measure in degrees of a straignt line is 180 The sum of the measure in degrees of the angles in a triangle is 180 

SAT Practice Test

A
7. If a/b =  then a b =

RESTAURANT X RESTAURANT Y

(A) 0 (B)  (C) 2 (D) a (E) b

3. Based on the information in the chart above, Restaurant X sold approximately how many more hamburgers in 997 than did Restaurant Y? (A) 50,000 (B) 75,000 (C) 00,000 (D) 25,000 (E) 50,000

8. Last week Charlie ran five miles more than Danny did. This week Charlie ran two miles less than Danny did. Which of the following must be true about Charlies miles run for the two weeks when compared with Dannys? (A) Charlie ran twice as far as Danny. (B) Charlie ran 7 miles less than Danny. (C) Charlie ran 3 miles less than Danny. (D) Charlie ran 3 miles more than Danny. (E) Charlie ran 7 miles more than Danny.

A E D H

4. A certain company issues a test for all potential employees. In order to work for this company, an employee must answer at least 90% of the 40 questions on this test correctly. A minimum of how many questions must be answered correctly to work at this company? (A) 30 (B) 32 (C) 34 (D) 35 (E) 36

9. If x2 - 6 = 23, then x2 + 6 = (A) 29 (B) 35 (C) 52 (D) 59 (E) 84

W 12 X Y

X Y B B
0. In isosceles triangle ABC, side AB is equal to side AC and side BC is bisected by line segment AD, not shown. How many points on AD are the same distance from point B as from point C? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) All points

Z
(A) 2 (B) 60

5. In the figure above, WX=5, YZ=2 and XY = /3YZ. What is the volume of this rectangular solid?

(C) 240 (D) 276 (E) 420

b c

i j lLine 1 k

Line 1
. If a, b, and c are positive integers where ab = 0 and bc = 20, which of the following cannot be true? (A) a > c (B) b > c (C) a > b (D) c > b (E) c > a

6. For which of the following pairs of (x, y) is x + y > 4 and x y < -4?

(A) 4,3 m 3,4 n n e f Line 2 (B) p o o h g (C) 2,7 (D) ,/3 (E) 0, 4

Line 2

SAT Practice Test

6. A certain gym offers its members two types of monthly membership deals.

a b d c

i j l k

Line 1

Type  = Unlimited use of the gym for $30 per month. Type 2 = An initial charge of $20 per month plus a $ charge for each visit. How many times would a gym member need to visit the gym in a month for Type  to be the cheaper of the two options? (A)  (B) 5 (C) 9 (D) 0 (E) 

e f m n h g p o

Line 2

2. In the figure above, Line  is parallel to Line 2. Which of the following angles must be equal? I. a and g II. e and g III. h and m (A) None (B) I only (C) II and III only (D) I and III only (E) I and II only

7. A line segment has endpoints M and N, and the length of line segment MN is greater than 20 but less than 30. There are five additional points A,B,C,D, and E on line segment MN which are located 2,6,7,2, and 6 respectively from point N. Which of these points could be the bisector of MN? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E

3. A total of 80 people attended a dinner party. If 30% of the first 30 people ordered chicken, 60% of the next 20 people ordered chicken, and 50% of the final 30 people also ordered chicken, what percent of the 80 people at this party ordered chicken? (A) 30% (B) 35% (C) 45% (D) 90% (E) 40%

R(a,b)

8. The difference on a ruler between x and /6 is the same as the B difference between 4/5 and . Which of the following could be x? (A) /6 (B) /5 (C) /30 (D) 29/30 (E) 6/5

S(a,0)

4. Let wxyz be defined as (w x)(y z). If a = 5374, 70 what is the value of 84a3? (A) 6 (B) 2 (C) 32 (D) 96 (E) 78

RESTAURANT X RESTAURANT Y

5. The product of the integers a and b is 2,500. The units digit of a is 0. If a is divided by 25, the result is equal to b. Which of the following could be a? (A) 0 (B) 25 (C) 00 (D) 25 (E) 250

9. In circle Z above, arc XY is equal to /4th of the circles circumference. If the radius of the circle is 6, what is the area of triangle XYZ? (A) 9 (B) 8 (C) 36 (D) 9 (E) 36

A E D H

B G

SAT Practice Test

20. Four former United States presidents are to be photographed for the Smithsonian. They will stand side by side in one row, with the tallest President never standing next to the shortest President. If no two Presidents are the same height, how many different arrangements are possible? (A) Four (B) Six (C) Eight (D) Ten (E) Twelve

5. The television program portrayed the decline in aquatic life not as an indicator of wide spread ecological ____, but rather as ____ problem that would fix itself over the next few decades. (A) niche..a typical (B) erudition..a simple (C) turmoil..an arduous (D) disaster..a continuing (E) disruption..a transitory

Section 2
Time25 Minutes
24 Questions For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the answer choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. . The normally ____ couple surprised their host when they erupted into an argument in the middle of the dinner. (A) combative (B) troublesome (C) appropriate (D) resourceful (E) tranquil

6. Despite ____ backgrounds and occupations, the members of the two opposing groups were able to find common ground and finalize the plans in a ____ effort. (A) likely..joint (B) disparate..concerted (C) celebrated..coupled (D) diverse..tedious (E) eclectic..deteriorating

7. The goalie had weeks to prepare mentally for the opening game, but he was still ____ by the ____ play of his opponents. (A) apprehensive..anxious (B) persuaded..expeditious (C) bewildered..unorthodox (D) dumfounded..emaciated (E) thwarted..superficial

2. The success of the teams marketing strategy hinged on its ____; not only were their ideas good, but they appealed to a wide variety of people. (A) patience (B) diversity (C) stamina (D) vagueness (E) precision

8. While most considered him a less ____ orator than the fiery Daniel Webster, John C. Calhoun is remembered as a having a precise mind that could craft highly ____ arguments. (A) impeccable..phonetic (B) animated..sagacious (C) systematic..custodial (D) condensed..ratiocinative (E) subtle..judicious

3. Despite the special promotions that were offered, the ____ for the grand opening was small, much to the disappointment of its owners. (A) staff (B) coverage (C) finance (D) turnout (E) attachment

9. The personal computer, once thought to be too expensive for the typical American, has become the ____ for how an industry can convince even the ____ that its product is needed in the home. (A) paradigm..impecunious (B) vocation..unpretentious (C) ideal..insalubrious (D) cue..confused (E) story..prototype

4. By only showing one half of the known accidents in his graph, Jeff promoted the ____ that there were ____ traffic accidents than expected last year. (A) idea..worse (B) indiscretion..harsher (C) mirage..dangerous (D) misconception..fewer (E) notion..more

SAT Practice Test

Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in each passage and in any introductory material that may be provided. Questions 10 18 are based on the following passage. The following passage is taken from an article in a science magazine written for the non-scientist. It concerns a new theory presented by Borge Nodland of the University of Rochester and John P. Ralston of the University of Kansas. [Note: Synchrotron radiation is a highly polarized type of radiation.] Faced with the paradox that some stars appear to be older than the universe itself, some scientists have developed a theory that not only resolves this dilemma but also suggests that the universe has a preferred orientation. Observations of gamma-ray bursts have provided the evidence needed to formulate a highly speculative theory that challenges one of the basic principles of physics and astronomy: rotational symmetry. Some of the greatest theoretical physicists of all time, including Newton, Kepler, and Einstein, all assumed that no matter which way a piece of space is oriented, the physical laws within that three-dimensional space will be consistent. In other words, no matter how you turn or rotate the cosmos, when you measure the events within it you will get the same results. Challenging this assertion, Borge Nodland of the University of Rochester and John P. Ralston of the University of Kansas have developed a theory that measurements of light from distant galaxies is altered by the position of the galaxies themselves in the heavens. While many theoretical physicists doubt that this theory will prove to be correct, Nodland and Ralston feel they may have discovered a fundamental flaw in classical astrophysics. They began by studying polarized light coming from remote galaxies. Polarized light generally travels within one plane as opposed to in all directions like the light from a light bulb. Thus, polarized light can be influenced in its travels through space by powerful electromagnetic fields that bend and shape the light in unique ways. The researchers believed that this bending, known as the Faraday Effect, was just one way in which the light was being altered. Their study focused on 60 galaxies that emitted synchrotron radiation. Nodland and Ralston then attempted to determine how the polarized light was being influenced above and beyond the twisting inherent in the Faraday effect. Their calculations suggest that there is an excess bending of light from distant galaxies, a bending that can not be attributed to the normal warping characteristic of electromagnetic fields. Because the phenomenon varies with distance, the researchers feel that there is little chance that it is locally produced. The amount of rotation in the polarized light is greatest along a certain axis, which suggests that the universe is not as symmetrical as physicists always believed it to be. Their colleagues, who find fault in their statistical methods, have challenged Nodland and Ralston. Steven Infield from the Harvard-Smithsonian Center for Astrophysics and Chip Rena from Bates College believe that Nodland and Ralston have polluted their data by examining galaxies from specific sections of the sky. But even if their findings turn out to be bogus, Ralston notes that forcing theorists to challenge basic assumptions about the universe is always beneficial. Just as Copernicus challenged the prevailing scientific community of his time by suggesting that the world was round, Nodland and Ralston have suggested a concept just

55

as radical. Space, they seem to claim with their findings, is shaped. Perhaps this will provoke another revolution of thought, just as Copernicuss claim did centuries ago. Perhaps not. But either way, it will probably be decades, perhaps centuries, before the physical laws of the universe are completely codified.

0. In line , paradox most nearly means (A) training (B) vision (C) isolation (D) mystery (E) reference

. Why does the author mention Newton, Kepler, and Einstein in line 9? (A) as examples of authors who have written about rotational symmetry (B) to give credibility to his writing (C) to imply that rotational symmetry is a firmly established belief (D) to question the calculations of Nodland and Ralston (E) to introduce a general study of the cosmos

0

5

20

2. Based on the description of polarized light given in lines 22-29, it may be inferred that (A) synchrotron radiation is extremely dangerous (B) polarized light breaks one of the fundamental laws of the universe (C) polarized light from distant galaxies is strong enough to be measured (D) little research has been conducted on polarized light (E) polarized light does not bend as much as full-spectrum light

25

30

3. Which of the following best explains the Faraday Effect mentioned in lines 27-29? (A) the twisting of polarized light by electromagnetic fields (B) the process of astrophysical research (C) the errors inherent in detailed studies of polarized light (D) the inability of the prevailing scientific establishment to accept new data (E) the amount of rotation found in a given piece of cosmos

35

40

45

4. What is the phenomenon mentioned in line 36? (A) the calculations of Nodland and Ralston (B) the examination of specific regions of the sky (C) the normal emission of gamma-ray radiation (D) the symmetrical nature of the cosmos (E) the rotation of polarized light from distant galaxies

50

SAT Practice Test

5. In the fourth paragraph, the author mentions those who disagree with Nodland and Ralston in order to (A) prove that Nodland and Ralstons theory is wrong (B) clarify that Nodland and Ralstons theory is not yet accepted (C) show how little attention Nodland and Ralstons theory has received (D) reveal a crucial flaw in Nodland and Ralstons logic (E) present an alternative analysis of synchrotron radiation 5

20

6. The author uses the phrase perhaps not in line 56 to express (A) passion (B) empathy (C) hopelessness (D) approval (E) uncertainty 25

30 7. Which of the following pairs of people mentioned in the passage believe that space has rotational symmetry? I. Infield and Rena II. Nodland and Ralston III. Newton and Einstein (A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) I and III only (E) I, II, and III 40 35

45 8. Which of the following physicists mentioned in the passage works at the University of Kansas? (A) John P. Ralston (B) Steven Infield (C) Copernicus (D) Chip Rena (E) Einstein 50

55

and naval authority thereof, will recognize and maintain the freedom of such persons, and will do no act or acts to repress such persons, or any of them, in any efforts they may make for their actual freedom. That the Executive will on the first day of January aforesaid, by proclamation, designate the States and parts of States, if any, in which the people thereof, respectively, shall then be in rebellion against the United States; and the fact that any State, or the people thereof, shall on that day be, in good faith represented in the Congress of the United States by members chosen thereto at elections wherein a majority of the qualified voters of such State that have participated, shall, in the absence of strong countervailing testimony, be deemed conclusive evidence that such State, and the people thereof, are not then in rebellion against the United States. Now, therefore, I, Abraham Lincoln, President of the United States, by virtue of the power in me vested as Commander-In-Chief, of the Army and Navy of the United States in time of actual armed rebellion against the authority and government of the United States, and as a fit and necessary war measure for suppressing said rebellion, do, on this first day of January, in the year of our Lord one thousand eight hundred and sixty-three, and in accordance with my purpose so to do publicly proclaimed for the full period of one hundred days, from the day first above mentioned, order and designate as the States and parts of States wherein the people thereof respectively, are this day in rebellion against the United States...And by virtue of the power, and for the purpose aforesaid, I do order and declare that all persons held as slaves within said designated States, and parts of States, are, and henceforward shall be free; and that the Executive Government of the United States, including the military and naval authorities thereof, will recognize and maintain the freedom of said persons. And I hereby enjoin upon the people so declared to be free to abstain from all violence, unless in necessary selfdefense; and I recommend to them that, in all cases when allowed, they labor faithfully for reasonable wages. And I further declare and make known, that such persons of suitable condition, will be received into the armed service of the United States to garrison forts, positions, stations, and other places, and to man vessels of all sorts in said service And upon this act, sincerely believed to be an act of justice, warranted by the Constitution, upon military necessity, I invoke the considerate judgment of mankind and the gracious favor of Almighty God.

Questions 9 24 are based on the following passage. This passage is an excerpt from the Emancipation Proclamation, issued by President Abraham Lincoln on September 22, 862. Whereas, on the twenty-second day of September, in the year of our Lord one thousand eight hundred and sixty-two, a proclamation was issued by the President of the United States, containing, among other things, the following, to wit: That on the first day of January, in the year of our Lord one thousand eight hundred and sixty-three, all persons held as slaves within any State or designated part of a State, the people whereof shall then be in rebellion against the United States, shall be then, thenceforward, and forever free; and the Executive Government of the United States, including the military

9. The passage states, in lines 6-8, that (A) all slaves in the United States shall be granted 40 acres and a mule (B) all persons held as slaves are considered to be in rebellion (C) all persons held as slaves in the rebellious provinces are to be freed immediately (D) all persons held as slaves in any of the rebellious states will be freed in the immediate future (E) the freedom of all persons shall be fully supported by the military and naval authority

0

SAT Practice Test

20. What is the evidence that is necessary to show that a State and its people are not then in rebellion against the United States? (line 24) (A) The States congressional representatives need to make a sworn statement professing loyalty to the Union. (B) Members of Congress need to be chosen in elections by a majority of qualified voters. (C) There can be no countervailing testimony questioning the loyalty of a member of Congress. (D) Citizens of a State must demonstrate their support of the United States by holding rallies. (E) Congressional representatives must present proof that their views are representative of those in their home states.

Section 3
Time10 Minutes
10 Questions Directions for Student-Produced Response Questions Each of the 0 questions requires you to solve the problem and enter your answer by marking the ovals in the special grid, as shown in the examples below.

7 / 1 2
/ /

Answer:.7/2 2 5
/ /

2 0 1
/ /

2 0 1
/ /

2 1 / 2
/ /

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

2. What reason does President Lincoln give in lines 26-32 for issuing this proclamation? (A) to bring freedom to all people of the United States (B) to help the war effort against the Southern States (C) to foment chaos within the United States 7 / (D) to correct a long overdue injustice inflicted upon a particular group of Americans 0 (E) to provide a measure of safety for those States standing 1 1 2 2 against the Union
/

1 2
/

2 . 5 2 / 3
/ /

Answer: 1 2 0 2.5
/ /

. 6 6 6
1 1 2 2 3
/

2 0 1 . 6 6 7
/ /

2 1 / 2
/ /

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 1 2 2 3

4 5 6 7 8 9

4 5 6 7 8 9

3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8

3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8

0 1 1 2 2 3

3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8

0 1 1 2 2 3

3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8

0 1 1 2 2 3

3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8

3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8

0 1 1 2 2 3

3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8

0 1 1 2 2 3

3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8

0 1 1 2 2 3

1 1 2 2 3

3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8

3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8

0 1 1 2 2 3

3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8

0 1 1 2 2 3

3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8

0 1 1 2 2 3

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

22. The word abstain (line 45) most nearly means (A) insist (B) see through (C) do without (D) beg (E) take command

8 9 9

8 9 9

8 9 9

8 9 9

8 9 9

8 9 9

8 9 9

8 9 9

8 9 9

8 9 9

8 9 9

8 9 9

7 / 1 2
/ /

22 35 / .
1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 9 0 0 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 9
/ /

1 2 3 4 5

0 1 2 3 4 5

0 1 2 3 4 5

0 1 2 3 4 5

23. Lincoln states that newly freed slaves will be received into the 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 armed forces as long as they
8 8 8 8

9 9 9 (A) denounce the government of the rebellious States 9 (B) are fit to serve (C) take an oath of loyalty 2 / 3 . 6 (D) agree to form segregated divisions (E) enforce the will of the President on an unwilling0population 0 0 0
/ / /

0 0 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 9

/ /

26 6 6 . 0 1
1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 9 0 0 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 9
/ /

0 0 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 9

0 0 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 9

/ /

2 0 1 . 6 6 7
1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 9 0 0 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 9
/ /

Answer:/20 2 1 2
/ /

0 0 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 9

0 0 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 9

/ /

0 0 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 9

Either position is correct.

Note: 0 0 may start your answers in any You 0 1 1 1 1 column, space permitting. Columns not 2 2 2 2 needed should be left blank.
3 3 3 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 4 5 6 7 8 9 4 5 6 7 8 9 4 5 6 7 8 9

6 6
/

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 2 3 4

1 2 3 4

1 2 3 4

1 2 3 4

1 2 3 4

1 2 3 4

5 5 5 5 5 5 24. Lincoln concludes the Emancipation Proclamation by asking for 6 6 6 6 6 6 the sanction of 7 7 7 7 7 7

(A) the American people 7 / 2 . 5 (B) the freed slaves 1 2 (C) the Congress of the United States 0 0 0 0 0 0 (D) God 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 (E) the Southern States 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
/ / / /

8 9

8 9

8 9

8 9

8 9

8 9

2 0 1
/ /

2 0 1
/ /

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Mark no more than one oval in any column. . 6 6 7 Because the answer sheet will be machine scored, you will receive credit only if the ovals are filled in correctly. 0 0 0 1 Although not required, it is suggested that you write your 1 1 1 2 2 2 answers in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in 2 3 3 3 3 the ovals accurately. 4 4 4 4 5 Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such 5 5 5 6 6 6 cases, grid only one answer. 6 7 7 7 7 8 No question has a negative answer. 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 2 1 / 2 Mixed numbers such as 2 /2 must be gridded as 2.5 or 5/2. is gridded, it will be interpreted as 2/2, not 2 /2.)
/ /

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

3 4 5 6 7 8 9

3 4 5 6 7 8 9

3 4 5 6 7 8 9

3 4 5 6 7 8 9

3 4 5 6 7 8 9

3 4 5 6 7 8 9

3 4 5 6 7 8 9

3 4 5 6 7 8 9

2 / 3
/ /

. 6 6 6
/ /

. 6 6 7
/ /

SAT Practice Test

4 5 6 7 8

4 5 6 7 8

4 5 6 7 8

4 5 6 7 8

4 5 6 7 8

4 5 6 7 8

4 5 6 7 8

4 5 6 7 8

4 5 6 7 8

4 5 6 7 8

4 5 6 7 8

4 5 6 7 8

4 5 6 7 8

4 5 6 7 8

4 5 6 7 8

4 5 6 7 8

4 5 6 7 8

4 5 6 7 8

4 5 6 7 8

4 5 6 7 8 9

9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 Decimal Accuracy: If you obtain a 9 9 decimal 9answer, enter the 9most accurate value the grid will accommodate.

2 / 3
/ /

. 6 6 6
/ /

. 6 6 7
/ /

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

7. If the area of the shaded region in rectangle ABCD above is 90, what is the area of EFG?

For example, if you obtainan answer such as 0.6666..., you should record the result as .666 or .667. Less accurate values such as .66 or .67 are not acceptable. Acceptable ways to grid 2/3 = .6666... . Three non-overlapping lines intersect at point P forming 6 equal angles. What is the degree measure of any one of these angles?

(a 43) + (b 42) + (c 4) = 88 8. In the equation above a, b, and c each represent a digit less than 3. What three-digit number do the digits abc represent?

2. Dave works 5 days and then takes 2 days off to rest. This ratio of days working to days resting is the same as the ratio of 0.5 to y. What is the value of y? 4 < a < 7 5<b<9 3. If a and b are integers, what is one possible value of a b?

9. Four students are running for positions on student council. The student who receives the most votes will be president, the student with the second most votes will be vice president, the student with the third most votes will be treasurer and the student with the fourth most votes will be the secretary. Assuming there are no ties, how many different combinations are possible for positioning the four students among the four offices?

0. The average (arithmetic mean) of five integers is 2. If all of the integers are greater than zero, what is the greatest possible value of any one of the integers?

4. If (4a3 + 5a2)(2a2 + 3a) = 8a5 + xa4 + 5a3, what is the value of x?

Section 4
Time20 Minutes
19 Questions 5. In the figure above the circle is bisected by the x-axis. What is the greatest distance that any point on the circle lies from the x-axis? For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the answer choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 6. A plain white cube is marked with an X on exactly two adjacent faces as shown above. If the cube is tossed on a flat surface and the cube lands so that an X appears on the top face, what is the probability that the bottom face does not have an X on it? Example: Medieval kingdoms did not become constitutional republics overnight; on the contrary, the change was ______. (A) unpopular (B) unexpected (C) advantageous (D) sufficient (E) gradual

SAT Practice Test

. Whenever the great violinist Uta Scatcho would begin playing his instrument, the ____ look on his face would convey to the audience how much he enjoyed his profession. (A) strained (B) reflected (C) disguised (D) blissful (E) sorrowful 2. The work of early medical researchers was ____ by the contamination of samples and unreliable equipment. (A) increased (B) hampered (C) disowned (D) forwarded (E) conformed 3. The faction leaders nominated him as president because they wanted someone who would be an ineffectual figurehead and would not ____ his own ideas. (A) promote (B) influence (C) dissuade (D) train (E) seek 4. While most scientists devote their lives to the ____ of one particular field, an increasing number are trying to facilitate interaction between different disciplines by gaining credentials in ____ domains. (A) control..dominant (B) response..one (C) establishment..umpteen (D) study..multiple (E) review..certain 5. The variety of beetles found on this planet is ____; from rain forests to desert sands, beetles live in incredibly _____ regions. (A) predictable..mundane (B) pedestrian..bountiful (C) astounding..dissimilar (D) tricky..forbidden (E) unbelievable..moist 6. One important aspect of a good book review is that the book is ____ in a way that informs the reader without revealing too much of the plot. (A) vocalized (B) summarized (C) condemned (D) marked (E) supported

7. The work of volunteer nurses is often ignored by the general public, but in his book Getting the Most, Steven Mahoney explains how a hospital can ____ its image by effectively advertising the ____ work that goes on there. (A) harm..contrasted (B) mutate..gluttonous (C) shift..compiled (D) soften..laborious (E) bolster..charitable 8. The ____ of interest in adult education has forced the college to ____ the size of its current curriculum. (A) recognition..elect (B) punishment..lighten (C) ascent..augment (D) temperence..regulate (E) array..shackle 9. Grants ____ appearance made him a controversial choice to lead the armies of the North, but despite his ragged presentation and careless hygiene, he quickly showed that he could win battles. (A) pristine (B) unkempt (C) torpid (D) transient (E) idealist 0. Growing up in a rural community, Peter developed a thick provincial accent that would ____ him as a bumpkin for the rest of his days. (A) stigmatize (B) transmute (C) debunk (D) assail (E) revere Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in each passage and in any introductory material that may be provided. Questions 11-19 are based on the following passage. These two passages discuss whaling. Passage  is an excerpt from a book on the history of whaling. Passage 2 is from a study commissioned by the Whale Preservation Society. Passage 1 When one wonders why so many men chose to risk their lives whaling, it is most often assumed that they were pursuing great wealth and financial reward. But although many men lost their lives pursuing whales, very few earned a substantial income from their efforts. Why, then, did so many brave sailors hunt these noble beasts almost to the point of extinction? The answer is the enormous value provided by the whales. Oil was needed for light and lubrication; baleen was needed for skirt hoops and corset stays. The death of so many whales was an afterthought as whalers sought to provide the modern day necessities of eighteenth and nineteenth

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SAT Practice Test

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century society. In The Noble Whale, Doug Thayer writes that, up until the beginning of the 900s, whaling was considered a noble pursuit, and the members of the profession were highly respected. It is only with the advantages of todays information and technology that the profession of whaling is seen as heartless or barbarous. Here is but a partial list of the products gleaned from whaling. Whale Oil provided much needed oil for lighting. This was because whale oil burned slowly, without an offensive odor. During the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries, it was considered one of the finest oils for illumination. Whale oil was also used extensively as a lubricant. The oil was processed and used within many industries, such as clockmaking. The oil of the humpback was prized for lubricating delicate machinery, such as the gears which powered many turbines on steam engines. Although it was mostly used for illumination and lubrication, whale oil also had many secondary, but quite useful, purposes. It was used in the manufacture of soaps, varnish, and paint; it was used to process textiles and rope; and it also provided heat. Sperm whales in particular were a much sought-after prize. Whalemen eagerly searched for sperm whalesoil extracted from their blubber was of the highest quality to be found amongst all the whale species. In addition, within the head of the sperm whale can be found a translucent amber oil known as spermaceti. While this oil remains liquid while within the sperm whale, the oil solidifies when exposed to normal air. What results is an incredibly fine oil, which was also used to lubricate fine machinery. The oil was also used to produce smokeless, odorless candles, which sold at up to seven times the price of an ordinary tallow candle. This wax was also used much in the cosmetic industry; many of the finest facial and hand creams were manufactured using this wax distilled from sperm whale oils. Another by-product of the multi-faceted sperm whale is Ambergris. This is a dark, waxy substance, which is believed to develop in the intestines of the sperm whale, and it has been valued since ancient times. In the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries, Ambergris was used in perfume, headache remedies, and in wine and love potions. Baleen whales are another species of whale considered to be quite valuable to mankind several hundred years ago. Baleen whales take their name from the substance that hangs in their mouths. Instead of teeth, these whales have long strips known as baleen. Baleen is made of keratin (keratin is also found in nails, hooves, and claws). This too was used in a variety of nineteenth century items, including buggy whips, fishing poles, springs, and skirt hoops. Baleen needed to be meticulously cleaned as soon as it was removed from the whales jaw, or it developed an acrid odor that lowered its market value.

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little has changed. The relatively few whales that remain are highly vulnerable, and the factors that led to their overexploitation in the past have not changed. Here are the key arguments against whaling. Whales are mammals, and yet they have historically been treated as fish by the industry. The vast majority of fish species reproduce by releasing huge quantities of eggs into the water for fertilization by the male. Whales, however, have a long gestation period and usually give birth every one or two years. These births are usually just a single calf that requires more than a year of maternal care before it can survive on its own. In this way, whales are like humans; even after the first year of life, whales take several more years to reach maturity. This makes it nearly impossible for whale populations to recover quickly from exploitation. These factors are compounded by our lack of knowledge about many aspects of whale biology. Whales are highly migratory, they live long healthy lives when unmolested by man, and they are slow to reproduce. All of these factors have foiled research efforts to determine accurately the growth rate of whale populations. These factors have also limited efforts to establish reliable estimates of live birth rates or to determine the natural mortality rates of calves and juveniles. Whales have evolved over tens of millions of years and are superbly adapted to the environment in which they live. But this environment is threatened by the consequences of human activities, including climate change, increased UV radiation brought about by a depleted ozone layer, pollution by organochlorine compounds and increasingly invasive fisheries. Organochlorines, which are any of various hydrocarbon pesticides that contain chlorine, such as DDT, have been shown to cause reproductive failure in marine mammals and to be potent suppressors of marine mammals immune systems. Whales and other marine mammals absorb these artificial compounds through the food chain, so concentrations in the whales are dramatically higher than in the surrounding seawater. Recent work suggests that some classes of compounds, called endocrine disrupters, exert powerful negative effects on reproduction at extremely low concentrations. UV, or ultraviolet radiation, has been shown to affect plankton, which are at the base of the ocean food chain. In some species, UV radiation damages the sensory cells that respond to light and gravity, causing the plankton to swim randomly and lose their optimum position in the water column. Anything less than a careful approach to safeguard against further depletion is unacceptable in the effort to conserve whales. A failure to do so may extinguish any hope of longterm protection for the worlds whale populations.

Passage 2 The saga of commercial whaling is one of repeated abuse of resources, as whaling companies endeavored to increase their immediate profits despite the fact that by hunting the whales so aggressively, these companies actually damaged their abilities to sustain any long term viability in their field. There will be no more whaling as an industry if there are no more whales to hunt. Now, past mistakes are being acknowledged by the modern-day whaling lobby as it strives to convince the world that whaling today will take into account the long term effects of over-harvesting. However,

. According to the author of Passage , most people assume that whalers pursued their profession in order to (A) better society by providing material necessities (B) fulfill a need to be destructive (C) achieve great wealth (D) satisfy their sense of adventure (E) eliminate whales from the seas

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SAT Practice Test

2. According to the second paragraph of Passage , what were the primary uses for whale oil? (A) light and lubrication (B) the manufacture of soap and paint (C) processing textiles and rope (D) heat (E) cosmetics 3. In the fourth paragraph of Passage , spermaceti is described as (A) a fine oil extracted from the blubber of sperm whales (B) an amber oil found in the head of the sperm whale (C) an extract used in the construction of fine machinery (D) a dark waxy substance found in the intestines of the sperm whale (E) a liquid that solidifies within one hour of the sperm whales death 4. It can be inferred from the last line of Passage  that baleen (A) was not as durable if it is not cleaned immediately (B) was not as valuable as the keratin found in hooves (C) lost its value once it obtained an odor (D) was found in the jaws of humpback whales (E) was made from cartilage 5. It can be inferred from the phrase these companies...field (lines 2-6, Passage 2) that (A) whaling companies stand to make huge profits by aggressive whaling practices (B) there are plenty of whales, so limits need not be placed on numbers killed (C) environmental efforts are damaging whaling profits (D) whaling companies will be out of business if they kill too many whales (E) modern whaling is widespread, especially in the United States and Russia 6. According to the second paragraph in Passage 2, the problem with treating whales like fish is that (A) fish release large numbers of eggs to be fertilized by the male (B) whales are immature (C) certain species of fish are often mistaken for mammals (D) whales are more powerful than fish, bettering their chances for survival in the water (E) whales do not reproduce with either the frequency or the quantity of fish

7. According to Passage 2, all of the following are factors that contribute to the damaging of the whales environment EXCEPT (A) UV radiation (B) pesticides such as DDT (C) invasive fisheries (D) massive oil spills (E) changes in climate

8. According to passage 2, UV radiation is so dangerous to whales because (A) it affects their ability to breathe (B) it damages the whales sensory cells, hampering their abilities to respond to light and gravity (C) it adversely affects the plankton on which the whales feed (D) it hampers their ability to reproduce (E) whales respond to a strong ozone layer 9. In line 57, Passage 2, optimum most nearly means (A) incorrect (B) ideal (C) random (D) supported (E) assumed

Section 5
Time20 Minutes
16 Questions In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then decide which is the best of the choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Notes: . The use of a calculator is permitted. All numbers used are real numbers. 2. Figures that accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems. They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that the figure is not drawn to scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.

2 x 33 x A = r2 C = 2r A = lw A = bh V = lwh V = r2h C2 = A2+b2 Special Right Triangles

The number of degrees od arc in a cirlce is 360 The measure in degrees of a straignt line is 180 The sum of the measure in degrees of the angles in a triangle is 180

SAT Practice Test



. In an attempt to attract business, a certain store announces that B every cash dollar spent will be worth approximately 3 store dollars. If the price of a stereo system is 4000 store dollars, which of the following best approximates the actual cost of the stereo in terms of cash dollars? x (A) 3 (B) 300 (C) 400 (D) 3900 (E) 4000

P(0,0)

S(a,0)

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5. If a, b, c and d are consecutive even integers and d > c > b > a, then b + d is how much greater than a + c? (A) RESTAURANT X 0 (B) 8 RESTAURANT Y (C) 6 (D) 5 (E) 4

2. To get from Mudville back to his hotel, Casey must take a path connected by line segments and travel in the same direction as the arrows. How many different ways are there for Casey to get back to the hotel? (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9 (E) 0

6. In rectangle WXYZ shown above, sides WX and YZ pass through the centers of the two semi-circles. The shaded region has an area of : (A) 54 (B) 57 (C) 60

A E D H

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B G

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3. What is the minimum power that the base 3 must be set to in order to multiply out to a product that is greater than 90? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 (E) 7

July Adults Children Seniors Total People 90

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Summer Total 40 00 85

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4. If x y = 30, which of the following could be the coordinates of x and y? A B

X 7. A certain movie theaters paid attendance is broken down into X specific categories in the table above. A soda spill has made all the numbers except for the totals impossible to read. What is the least amount of blank boxes that are needed to complete the entire table with accuracy?
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2 (E) 

XX

8. Ms. Clark drove from her home to the museum at an average speed of 40 miles per hour and returned home along the same route at an average speed of 35 miles per hour. If her total driving time for the trip was two hours, how many minutes did it take Ms. Clark to drive from her home to the museum? (A) 70 (B) 60 (C) 56 (D) 45 (E) 50

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SAT Practice Test

9. A computer programmer designs a video game in which basketball players who are x feet tall in real life appear as y inches tall on the video screen. How tall, in inches, does a player appear on the video a screen if he is x +Q(0,b) tallR(a,b) life?  feet in real (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) x/y x + /y y + /x P(0,0) y(x + )/x y/x + 

4. If n >  and each of the three integers n, n + 2, and n + 4 is a prime number, then the set of three such numbers is called a prime B triple. There are how many prime triples? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) More than three
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RESTAURANT X RESTAURANT Y

0. If 4a = b, in terms of a, which of the following equals 6b? (A) 42/a (B) 4a (C) 42 + a (D) 43 + a (E) 64a

5. If a and b are integers and a + b = 3a + 5, which of the following must be true? I. a is odd II. b is odd III. b a is odd (A) None (B) I only (C) II only (D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III
E D H A F B G

. Seven distinct points lie in a plane such that four of the points are on line s and four of the points are on a different line, t. What is the total number of lines that can be drawn so that each line passes through exactly two of these seven points? (A) 5 (B) 9 (C) 0 (D)  (E) 5

Note: Figures not drawn to scale 6. In the figure above, the radius of the circle with center G is three times the radius of the circle with center D, and the measure of angle IGH is three times that of angle FDE. If the area of the shaded region of circle D is 2, what is the area of the shaded region of circle G? (A) 54 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 2 (E) 2/3

2. If the ratio of j to k is 3 to 4, which of the following could be true? (A) j = 0, k = (B) j = 3/2, k = 2 (C) j = 4, k = 5 (D) j = 2, k = 9 (E) j = 9, k = 6

 ,3, 2, -,... 3. The first four numbers of a sequence are shown above. After the second number, each number can be obtained by subtracting from the preceding number the number preceding that. For example, the fourth number can be obtained by subtracting the second number from the third number. What is the sum of the first 52 numbers of the sequence? (A) 0 (B) 5 (C) 5 (D) 30 (E) 46

Section 6
Time25 Minutes
35 Questions Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence is underlined; beneath each sentence are five ways of phrasing the underlined material. Choice A repeats the original phrasing; the other four choices are different. If you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence than any of the alternatives, select choice A; if not, select one of the other choices.

SAT Practice Test

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In making your selection, follow the requirements of standard written English; pay attention to grammar, choice of words, sentence construction, and punctuation. Your selection should result in the most effective sentenceclear and precise, without awkwardness or ambiguity. Example: My brother learned to drive and he was 20 years old then. (A) and he was 20 years old then. (B) when he was 20 years old. (C) at the age of 20 years old. (D) upon reaching his age of 20 years. (E) and the time was when he was 20. . However ones opinion of her films, Rachels brilliant talent must be recognized. (A) However ones opinion of her films (B) Whatever ones opinion of her films (C) Despite ones opinion of her films (D) Although ones opinion of her films (E) Whether ones opinion of her films 2. Increasing understanding among teammates is a proven method for building team loyalty. (A) Increasing understanding among teammates is a proven method for building team loyalty. (B) Increasing understanding among teammates is a proved method for building team loyalty. (C) Increased understanding among teammates are a proven method for building team loyalty. (D) Increasing understanding for teammates are a proven method for building team loyalty. (E) Increasing understanding for teammates is a proved method for building team loyalty. 3. In this years election, more students cast votes for Carlos than Julian. (A) more students cast votes for Carlos than Julian (B) more students voted for Carlos than Julian (C) more students cast votes for Carlos than cast votes for Julian (D) more students cast votes for Carlos than for Julian (E) more students votes for Carlos than those who voted for Julian 4. You can improve your community not only by being a good citizen but it can also help to volunteer. (A) but it can also help to volunteer (B) but also by becoming a volunteer (C) but by volunteering (D) as well as volunteering (E) but also through being a volunteer.

5. Jones enjoyed starting a new project, and it was choosing a deadline that he believed was his favorite part of the process. (A) and it was choosing a deadline that he believed was his favorite part of the process (B) and of which he believed choosing a deadline was his favorite part of the process (C) and getting to choose a deadline was his favorite part of the process (D) and his favorite part of the process was getting to choose a deadline (E) and choosing a deadline was his favorite part of the process 6. Jillian woke up early and that was how it was discovered by her a squirrel in her kitchen. (A) that was how it was discovered by her (B) then she discovered (C) and she then discovered (D) discovered (E) discovered then 7. In most societies, protection of civil liberties are important to most of its citizens. (A) are important to most of its citizens (B) are important to most of their citizens (C) are important to most citizens (D) is important to most of its citizens (E) is important to most citizens 8. At the special conference, the chefs were eating exotic foods, were teaching each other recipes, and reading eclectic cookbooks. (A) the chefs were eating exotic foods, were teaching each other recipes, and reading eclectic cookbooks (B) the chefs were eating exotic foods, teaching each other recipes, and were reading eclectic cookbooks (C) the chefs ate exotic foods, taught each other recipes, and read eclectic cookbooks (D) the chefs ate exotic foods, and taught each other recipes, and read eclectic cookbooks (E) the chefs had eaten exotic foods, had taught each other recipes, and read eclectic cookbooks 9. Despite our previous experiences, even Hector and me believed the bus would arrive on time. (A) even Hector and me believed the bus would arrive on time (B) even Hector and I believe the bus would arrive on time (C) even me and Hector believed the bus would arrive on time (D) yet Hector and me believed the bus would arrive on time (E) even Hector and I believed the bus would arrive on time

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SAT Practice Test

0. The search-and-rescue team thinks that improving equipment offers better chance for survival than do increasing the amount of rescue stations on the mountain. (A) than do increasing the amount of rescue stations on the mountain (B) than does increasing the amount of rescue stations on the mountain (C) than increasing the amount of rescue stations on the mountain (D) than an increase of the amount of rescue stations on the mountain (E) than does an increase in the amount of rescue stations on the mountain . Because the play is to be performed tomorrow night, many cast members are extremely focused. (A) Because the play is to be performed tomorrow night (B) While the play is to be performed tomorrow night (C) Because the play is yet to be performed tomorrow night (D) Even though play is to be performed tomorrow night (E) Considering that the play is to be performed tomorrow night 2. Survey work entails tasks where attention to detail is a must. (A) where attention to detail is a must (B) demanding attention to detail (C) where you must pay attention to detail (D) during which attention to detail is a must (E) where they must pay attention to detail The following sentences test your ability to recognize grammar and usage errors. Each sentence contains either a single error or no error at all. No sentence contains more than one error. The error, if there is one, is underlined and lettered. If the sentence contains an error, select the one underlined part that must be changed to make the sentence correct. If the sentence is correct, select choice E. Example: The other members and him quickly chose the next president of the A B C D council. No error E The correct answer is B. 3. Archaeological research expeditions shows indisputable evidence A of their advanced civilization and prove their cultural resiliency. B C D No error E 4. Eating more vegetables is one way to stay healthy; to exercise A B C more frequently is another. No error D E

5. For we members, excelling in group competitions was far more A B important than receiving high grades from our teacher. No error C D E 6. After Deandra had sung her time-tested song, she learned that A B C she would be performing at Carnegie Hall the next month. No error D E 7. Though I had never enjoyed participating in extreme sports, A I could deny neither their popular appeal or their spirited B C D competition. No error E 8. Few of the failures of Thomas and Bernard as scientists A B have the least to do with their lack of personal observation C D of experiments. No error E 9. Even though one loves to pick flowers in bloom, you cannot A B neglect the fact that they should be left for all to enjoy. No error C D E 20. Expertise in sleight-of-hand techniques are essential in the A B C successful fooling of audiences of all sizes. No error D E 2. Never one to shy away from a challenge or to reject a new A B opinionexamples of supreme tenacity Bettina was constantly C D stimulated by the environment in the laboratory. No error E 22. In extreme pain, the mountain climberdesperate to get back A B to base campchose a previously unknown trail down the high cliff C D wall. No error E 23. Albert was joined with a colleague whose chosen field was that A B C D of insect biology. No error E 24. Elderly residents enjoy the performers, because they, who the A B visits are planned for, identify with the humor portrayed. No error C D E

SAT Practice Test

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25. Climbing a tree, untying his knapsack, Ahmet whistling while he A B C awaited his friends arrival at the clubhouse. No error D E 26. The latest magazines, thousands of books, and comfortable seats are all cited as reasons of why the library is chosen as their favorite A B C spot by students from all over school. No error D E 27. The towns utilities department is unaware of the problems A B resulting from the recent unexpected flooding. No error C D E 28. Even including Hester, her fellow patients and her had often A B written kind letters to Dr. Keegan, whose medical prowess was well C respected throughout the medical community. No error D E 29. The donkeys were inexperienced in canyon climbing; however, A each of them carried twice their weight in gold on the way to the top. B C D No error E Directions: The following passage is a draft paper. Some of its writing and organization can be improved. Read the passage and select the best answers for the questions that follow. Some questions are about particular sentences; some questions ask you to consider organization and development. Questions 30 35 are based on the following passage. Note: Aesthetics is a branch of philosophy that deals with beauty and the arts. () In the history of aesthetics, no two individuals have shown more influence or innovation than Plato and his first student Aristotle. (2) While Plato tended to generalize on beauty and art in terms of his own ethical philosophy, it was Aristotle that was concerned with a complete systemization of the field. (3) Plato was concerned with an accurate conception of beauty and the formation of an ideal and esoteric state, while Aristotle was concerned with the empirical effects of art in the real world. (4) These two approaches, best symbolized in each philosophers theory of aesthetics, are also accurate statements concerning the whole of their philosophical systems. (5) While both of their theories of aesthetics began with the similar ideal that art is an imitation of reality, each philosopher reached different conclusions as to the impact and the significance of the artistic endeavor.

30. Which of the following is the best version of the underlined portion of sentence 6 (reproduced below)? In the history of aesthetics, no two individuals have shown more influence or innovation than Plato and his first student Aristotle. (A) (As is) (B) In the history of aesthetics, no two individuals have shown more influence or innovation than have Plato and his first student Aristotle. (C) In the history of aesthetics, no two individuals have shown more influence or innovation than Plato and his first student, Aristotle. (D) In the history of aesthetics, no two individuals had shown more influence or innovation than Plato and his first student Aristotle. (E) In the history of aesthetics, no two individuals have shown more influence or innovation than have Plato and his first student, Aristotle. 3. Of the following, the authors main reason for writing this passage is to: (A) Demonstrate that Plato was an idealist and that Aristotle was a realist. (B) Present an overview of Platos and Aristotles philosophies. (C) Outline the major distinctions between Platos views on aesthetics and Aristotles views (D) Show how Plato taught Aristotle aesthetics, which lead to the latters improvement of the philosophy (E) Demonstrate how the two philosophers came to the same conclusion about aesthetics despite their starting with different assumptions. 32. To improve this essay, the writer should do which of the following to sentence 2 (reproduced below)? While Plato tended to generalize on beauty and art in terms of his own ethical philosophy, it was Aristotle that was concerned with a complete systemization of the field. (A) (As is) (B) Plato tended to generalize on beauty and art in terms of his own ethical philosophy; it was Aristotle that was concerned with a complete systemization of the field. (C) Plato tended to generalize on beauty and art in terms of his own ethical philosophy, it was Aristotle that was concerned with a complete systemization of the field. (D) While Plato tended to generalize on beauty and art in terms of his own ethical philosophy, Aristotle was concerned with a complete systemization of the field. (E) While Plato tended to generalize on beauty and art in terms of his own ethical philosophy, it was Aristotle who was concerned with a complete systemization of the field. 33. Of the following, which is the best location with the essay for sentence 5? (A) Where it is (B) Before sentence  (C) Between sentence  and sentence 2 (D) between sentence 2 and 3 (E) between sentence 3 and 4

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SAT Practice Test

34. The primary point of sentence 3 is to (A) Provide a concrete example of the differences between the philosophers conceptions of aesthetics (B) Show how Platos view on aesthetics influenced Aristotles views (C) Provide a transitory bridge between the essays thesis and its conclusion (D) Offer a framework for how the two philosophers would view a particular piece of art (E) Prove that Aristotles empiricism measures up to Platos idealism 35. Of the following, what is the best way to rewrite sentence 4 (reproduced below)? These two approaches, best symbolized in each philosophers theory of aesthetics, are also accurate statements in regards to their whole systems of philosophy. (A) (As is) (B) These two approaches, best symbolized in each philosophers theory of aesthetics, are also accurate statements of their whole systems of philosophy. (C) The approaches of these two, best symbolized in each philosophers theory of aesthetics, are also accurate statements of their whole systems of philosophy. (D) The most accurate statements in regards to these philosophers whole systems of philosophy is these two approaches symbolized in their theory of aesthetics. (E) These two approaches, best symbolized in each philosophers theory of aesthetics, are also accurate statements concerning the whole of their philosophical systems.

ESSAY
Time25 Minutes The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can develop and express ideas. You should, therefore, take care to develop your point of view, present your ideas logically and clearly, and use language precisely. Use your own paper to write the essay. (An answer sheet will be given to you on the day of the test.) Make certain your handwriting is legible. You have 25 minutes to write an essay on the topic assigned below. Do not write on another topic. An off-topic essay will receive a score of zero. Think carefully about the issue presented in the following excerpt and assignment below. Let me assert my firm belief that the only thing we have to fear is fear itself. (Adapted from President Franklin Delano Roosevelts First Inaugural Speech.) Assignment: Is fear itself the only thing to fear, or are there actual things that should be feared? Plan and write an essay in which you develop your point of view on this issue. Support your position with reasoning and examples from your reading, experience, or observations.

SAT Practice Test

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First 4 letters of Last name

A B C D E F G H I J K A B C D E F G H I J K A B C D E F G H I J K

1. Your Name

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First Mid. init. init. Signature:

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IMPORTANT: please fill in items 8 and 9 exactly as shown on the back cover of your test book

Date:

8. Form Code
(Copy and grid as on back of test book.)

Home Address:

A B C D E F G H I J K

A B C D E F G H I J K

A B C D E F G H I J K

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Number and Street City State State

Center:
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Zip Code Center Number

City

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L M N O P Q R S T U V
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L M N O P Q R S T U V
W

L M N O P Q R S T V
W

Jan. Feb. Mar. Apr. May June July Aug. Sept. Oct. Nov. Dec.

Month

3. Date Of Birth
Day Year

4. Social Security Number

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

L M N O P Q R S T U V
W

L M N O P Q R S T U V
W

6. Registration Number
(Copy from your Admission Ticket)

5. Sex

Female

Male
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

X Y Z

X Y Z

X Y Z

X Y Z

X Y Z

X Y Z

7. Test Book Serial Number

(Copy from front of test book.)

------------------------------------1 2
A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E

DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA.

Y Z

Y Z

(Copy from front of test book.)

9. Test Form

Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer questions than answer spaces, leave the extra spaces blank.

11 A 12 A 13 A 15 A

B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E

21 A

B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E

31 A 32 A 34 33 A 35 A

B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C

SECTION

3 4 5 6 7 8 9

14 A 16 A

22 A 23 A 25 A 27

24 A 26 A
A

17 A 18 A 19 A 20 A 11
A

36 A

37 A 38 A 39 A 40 A 31 A 32 A 33 A 35 A

28 A

10 A 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
A A A A A A A A A

29 A 30 A 21 A 22 A

12 A

SECTION

13 A 15 A

14 A 16 A

23 A 25 A

24 A 26 A

34 A 36 A

17 A 18 A 19 A 20 A

27 A 28 A 29 A 30 A

37 A 38 A 39 A 40 A

10 A

FOR ETS USE ONLY

D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E

Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer questions than answer spaces, leave the extra spaces blank.

1 2

A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E

16 A 17 A 18 A 20 A

B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E

31 A 32 A 33 A 35 A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E

SECTION

3 4 5 6 7 8 9

19 A 21 A

34 A 36 A

22 A 23 A 24 A 25 A 26 A 27 A

37 A 38 A 39 A 40 A

10 A 11 A 12 A

13 A 15 A

14 A

28 A 30 A

29 A

If section 3 of your test book contains math questions that are not mulitiple-choice, continue to item 16 below. Otherwise, continue to item 16 above.
ONLY ANSWERS ENTERED IN THE OVALS IN EACH GRID AREA WILL BE SCORED YOU WILL NOT RECEIVE CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES ABOVE THE OVALS.
/ / / / / / / / / /

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

BE SURE TO ERASE ANY ERRORS OR STRYA MARKS COMPLETELY.

PLEASE PRINT YOUR INITIALS

First

Middle Last

Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer questions than answer spaces, leave the extra spaces blank.

1 2

A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E

11 A 12 A 13 A 15 A

B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E

21 A 22 A 23 A 25 A

B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E

31 A 32 A 33 A 35 A

B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D

E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E

SECTION

3 4 5 6 7 8 9

14 A 16 A

24 A 26 A

34 A 36 A

17 A 18 A 19 A 20 A 11 A 12 A 13 A 15 A

27 A 28 A 29 A 30 A 21 A 22 A 23 A 24 A 25 A 26 A

37 A 38 A 39 A 40 A 31 A 32 A 33 A 35 A

10 A 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
A A A A A A A A A

SECTION

14 A 16 A

34 A 36 A

17 A 18 A 19 A 20 A

27 A 28 A 29 A 30 A

37 A 38 A 39 A 40 A

10 A

CERTIFICATION STATEMENT
Copy in long hand the statement below and sign your name as you would an official document. DO NOT PRINT. I hereby agree to the conditions set forth in the Registration Bulletin and certify that I am the person whose name and address appear on this answer sheet.

SIGNATURE:

DATE:

Practice Test Answers

MATH

Section 5
. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 0. . 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. B A C A E D D C D C B B B B C A _______ _______

Section 1
. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 0. . 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7 8. 9. 20. C B B E C C A D B E A E C B E E D C B E _______ _______

# Correct = # Incorrect =

CRITICAL READING Section 2

. E B D D E B C B A D C C A E B E D A D 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 0. . 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. _______ _______ 9.

# Correct = # Incorrect =

Section 3
Student-Produced
Response-Questions . 60 2. 0.2 or /5 3. 7, 8, 9 or 0 4. 22 5. 6.5 or 3/2 6.  7. 66 8. 2 9. 24 0. 0 # Correct = # Incorrect =

SAT Practice Test Answer Key

2

20. 2. 22. 23. 24. 20. 2. 22. 23. 24.

B B C B E D B E D A _______ _______

WRITING Section 6
. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 0. . 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 20. 2. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 3. 32. 33. _______ _______ 34. 35. B A D B E D E C E B A B A C A E C E B B E E A B C B A B C E C D C A E

# Correct = # Incorrect =

Section 4
. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 0. . 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. D B A D C B E C B A A B C D E D C B B

# Correct = # Incorrect =

22

SAT Practice Test Answer Key

Scoring Your Practice Test

To score your practice test, follow these steps: . Mark your correct and incorrect responses in each section. 2. Count the number of correct and incorrect responses for each section. 3. Fill in the scoring matrix below for your test and compute the totals. 4. There are no penalties for incorrect responses on the studentproduced response questions. 5. To compute your rounded score, round the unrounded score to the nearest whole number. 6. The rounded total for each part makes up your raw score.

Writing
Section 6 # Correct ______ # Incorrect 4 ______ = ________

Total Unrounded = ________ Total Rounded = ________

Critical Reading
Section 2 # Correct ______ ________ Section 4 # Correct ______ # Incorrect 4 ______ = ________ Total Unrounded = ________ Total Rounded = ________ # Incorrect 4 ______ =

Math
Section  # Correct ______ # Incorrect 4 ______ = _______

Section 3 # Correct ______ = ________ Section 5 # Correct ______ # Incorrect 4 ______ = ________ Total Unrounded = ________ Total Rounded = ________

SAT Practice Test Answer Key

23

Critical Reading Conversion Table

Raw Score 43 42 4 40 39 38 37 36 35 34 33 32 3 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 2 20 Scaled Score 800 770-800 740-780 730-770 720-760 70-750 690-740 680-730 670-720 660-700 650-690 640-680 630-670 620-660 600-650 580-640 560-620 540-600 520-580 500-550 480-540 470-530 460-520 450-50 Raw Score 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2  0 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2  0 - -2 -3 -4 and below Scaled Score 440-500 430-490 420-480 40-470 400-460 390-450 370-440 360-430 350-420 330-40 320-400 300-390 280-380 30-370 300-360 290-350 270-340 250-320 220-300 200-290 200-250 200-230 200-20 200

Math Conversion Table

Raw Score 46 45 44 43 42 4 40 39 38 37 36 35 34 Scaled Score 800 770-800 740-780 730-770 720-760 70-750 690-740 680-730 670-720 660-700 650-690 640-680 630-670 Raw Score 20 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2  0 9 8 430-480 420-470 40-460 400-450 390-450 380-440 370-440 360-430 350-420 330-40 320-400 300-390 Scaled Score

24

SAT Practice Test Answer Key

33 32 3 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 2

620-660 600-650 580-640 560-620 540-600 520-580 500-550 490-540 480-530 470-520 460-50 450-500 440-490

7 6 5 4 3 2  0 - -2 -3 -4 and below

280-380 30-370 300-360 290-350 270-340 250-320 220-300 200-290 200-250 200-230 200-20 200

Writing Conversion Table

Multiple-Choice Questions
Raw Score 35 34 33 32 3 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 2 20 9 8 7 6 Scaled Score 770-800 760-800 750-800 740-800 720-780 700-760 680-740 660-730 640-720 620-700 600-690 580-680 560-670 540-660 520-640 500-620 480-600 470-590 460-580 450-570 Raw Score 5 4 3 2  0 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2  0 - -2 -3 -4 and below Scaled Score 440-560 420-550 40-530 400-50 390-500 370-480 350-460 330-440 320-420 300-400 290-380 280-360 260-340 240-320 220-300 200-290 200-250 200-230 200-20 200

Note: Your score on the multiple-choice questions will be integrated with your score on the essay to determine your final Writing Section Score.

SAT Practice Test Answer Key

25