Model Question Paper Introduction to Project Management Subject Code-PM0010 Part A-1 Marks question

Q. No. Question Statement

_____________ is the task to be performed by the person out of their job profile. a. Responsibility b. Role c. Duty d. Planning The project team members have predefined _____ and ________ for fulfilling the project requirement. a. Goal, objectives b. Responsibilities, objectives c. Facilities, designs d. Roles, responsibilities Ned Herrmann developed an instrument that measures thinking preferences in an individual. Which is that instrument? a. Hermann Brain Dominance Instrument b. Hermann's Idea Dominance Instrument c. Hermann Creativity Instrument d. Hermann Brain Mapping Instrument SWOT analysis stands for : a. Strength, Weakness, Opportunity, Threats b. Strength, Weakness, Objective Testing c. Strength, Weakness, Objective, Threat d. Strength, Weakness, Opportunity, Testing Corporate strategy is influenced by ______ in the business.

a. Investors b. Stakeholders c. Environment

d. Direction __________________ reduces critical disagreements within the project team. . a. Issue log b. Managing conflicts c. Requested changes

d. Work performance ______ formalises acceptance of the product, service or result and brings the project or a project phase to an orderly end. a. Executing process group b. Controlling process group c. Closing process group

d. Planning process group The functional and technical requirements are collectively called as ________. a. Project b. Project plan c. Functionality

d. Specification Leading a project is like leading a ____________ . a. Organisation b. Agency c. Government d. Department Project Human Resource Management is a subset of ______. a. Cost Management b. Project Cost Management c. Project Management

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d. Project Procurement Management Making sure that the solution is of acceptable quality is the part of _________ responsibility of a project manager. a. People b. Quality c. Process d. Risk Management As per the current market situation and the demand forecasts, a ______ analysis is carried out. a. Statistical b. Technical c. Demand

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d. SWOT The manager uses various techniques such as ______ to monitor any uncertainties that are likely to occur in the project flow. a. Brainstorming

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b. Mind Mapping

c. Equivalence partitioning d. Boundary value analysis Project managers need to manage resources and ______ during project implementation. a. Clients b. Vendors c. Consumers d. Government

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The process of applying the planned quality activities to ensure that the project employs all processes needed to meet the quality standards is called as_______ . a. Quality Assurance b. Project Management Information c. Pre-assignment

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d. Project Execution The complexity of the schedule can differ depending on the ________ used. a. Web application b. Tool c. Event d. Procedure Expansion of NBCR is: a. Net Bearer Cost Rate b. Net Benefit Cost Ratio c. Net Benefit Cost Rate d. Net Broader Cost Ratio

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The output of the planning process group is the ________ . a. Scope change b. Project Management Plan c. Scope definition d. Logical sequence

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______is a collection of related project activities required for completion of one or more deliverables. a. Phase b. Budget c. Environment

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d. Organisational Culture ______ determines the placement of power and authority in the organisation. a. Strategy b. Processes c. Structure

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d. Rewards Which of the following provides to-do lists, wiki style web-based text documents, milestone management, file sharing, time tracking and messaging system? a. Basecamp b. Project Kickstart c. Matchware MindView d. Rational Plan Multi Project The expansion of SCBA is : a. Social Cost Benefit Analysis b. Social Cost Better Accounts c. Strategy Cost Benefit Accounts

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d. Social Challenge Benefit Authority Expansion of NBCR is: a. Net Bearer Cost Rate b. Net Benefit Cost Ratio c. Net Benefit Cost Rate d. Net Broader Cost Ratio

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The PM/CM entity is an _____ to the client and becomes an internal design and construction group of the client. a. Advisor b. 'Burden' c. 'Negotiator'

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d. 'Facilitator' Cash cows refer to businesses that have a high relative market share in a_______ market.

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a. Moderately growing b. Slowly growing c. Rapidly growing d Stagnant Expansion of CPIF is a. Cost-Plus-Increment-Fee b. Cost-Plus-Incentive-Fee c. Cast-Planning-Incentive-Fee

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d. Cost-Planning-Incentive-Fee In nominal group technique, who collects the ideas and each idea is voted on by the group? a. Team leader b. Project manager c. Experts d. Moderator ____________ describes about the production and installation to be used by an organisation based on their requirement. a. ISO 9001 b. ISO 9002 c. ISO 9000

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d. ISO 9003 Which is the main input to the plan contract process? a. Contract Statement of work b. Cost baseline c. Resource requirement

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d. Outsourcing ______ strategy needs no action or response plan which leaves the project team to deal with the threats or opportunities as they occur. a. Risk interaction b. Active acceptance c. Risk Management Planning

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d. Passive acceptance _________________ ensures that no errors made at delivery stage of product or service. a. Prevention cost b. Managing cost c. Appraisal cost

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d. Failure cost The unknown risks have to be managed by _________ response plans based on past experience. a. Actual significant risks b. Contingency allowances

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c. Contingency Risk

d. Cost risk In the 'Risk Management phase, risk analysis is accompanied by _____________ . a. Economic changes b. Quality Control c. Scenario thinking

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d. Project Evaluation _____________ is considered to be a major part of project breakdown structure. a. OBS b. CBS c. WBS d. PERT It is an organised method of physically recording data. What is "it" referred to? a. Check Sheet b. Check Out c. Fish-bone diagram d. Pareto Chart _______ includes information about managing and maintaining the expected and available budget. a. Hardware b. Application design c. Monitoring

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d. Software The first level in WBS hierarchy structure is _______________. a. Project title b. Project work c. Project deliverables

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d. Project end ________ facilitates setting up of projects from any location. It helps in refining and distributing various tasks of the project. a. No Kahuna Tool b. Lighthouse c. Copper tool d. Project HQ

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________ maintains a plan that ensures that any predictable or occurred risks are analysed and solved

in time.

a. Patching and Mitigation plans b. Patching Requirement c. Application Design d. Contingency and Mitigation Plans

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________ defines project procurement management as the process of acquiring goods, services or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work as well as the contract management processes. a. PMI b. RBI c. IRDA d. PMBoK

Part B -2 Marks question

Q. No. Question Statement
Infrastructure projects generally signify projects that are implemented to produce economic services from utilities. They are: 1. Electricity 2. Highways 3. Metro Transit system 4. Communications a. 1, 3 b. 2, 3 c. A, 4

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d. 2, 3 ___________ and __________ are measures that allow the monitoring of the project in terms of expenses and finance. a. Project cost, Project Analysis b. Accrued Cost, Earned Value Analysis

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c. Verifiable objective setting, PERT d. Brain Storming, PERT Identify which is not included in Scheduling support:

a. The project management system should facilitate calculations that can be automatically done using the effectiveness rate. b. It should provide means to calculate the critical paths of projects. c. It is vital to provide training that supports the technical skills of the members participating in the team to adhere to the standards of the organisation.

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d. It facilitates procedures that can manage allocations of various resources. Identify the correct statement with respect to scatter diagram. 1. The direct or strong correlation between the variables does not necessarily imply cause and effect relationship. 2. In scatter diagram y-axis is used for the variable to be predicted and the x-axis is used for the variable to make the prediction. 3. All relationships between variables are linear. 4. It determines and shows correlations between more than two variables.

a. 1, 2 & 3 b. 1, 3 & 4 c. 1 & 2

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d. 1 & 4 Which of the following is not included in the checklist of buyer and seller? 1. Identify and prioritise objectives 2. Prepare the negotiation facility 3. Conduct price realism analysis 4. Examine alternatives a. 1, 2 & 3 b. 1, 3 & 4 c. 4 & 3

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d. 1 & 4 State whether the statement is True or False. 1. Secondary information is a starting point for the market and the demand analysis. 2. A person knowledgeable and experienced in both statistical and economic analysis should carry out statistical analysis.

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a. 1F, 2F b.1F, 2T c. 1T, 2F d. 1T, 2T These are not a function of Time Management: A. It is one of the important activities that enable on time delivery of deliverables. B. It is not necessary that listening to the other members of the team ,Trust and work balance are treated as less priorities for the team. C. The activities have to be prioritised using milestones to achieve the defined time. D. It is important to check the available dates and time before committing to any task. a. D, B, C b. D, B, A c. A, B, C

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d. D, A, C The risks identified in a 200 kilometre railway line laying project is different from those in the construction of a side-walk along roads. This is an example of: a. Risk management b. Risk monitoring and control c. Quantitative risk analysis

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d. Qualitative risk analysis State whether the statement is True or False. 1. The formula for NBCR is: NBCR = BCR + 1. 2. Debentures are issued for a period of 2 to 4 years and carry a variable rate of interest. a. 1T, 2T b. 1F, 2F c. 1F, 2T d. 1T, 2F State whether the statement is 'True or 'False'. 1. In 'Risk Management', many of the risks will involve decision making process. 2. As the project progresses, the risks will be formulated at an increasingly detailed level and will relate more to the composition of the project team and the method of contracting. a. 1F, 2T b. 1T, 2F c. 1F, 2F

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d. 1T, 2T

The definition of on-call contracting is a. This mode is adopted when the design is partially developed at the time of contracting. b. In this contracting mode, the contract calls for a reimbursable fee i.e. reimbursement of actual cost + a fee. c. This mode is adopted by the consultant when the consultant is more familiar with the nature of work in the beginning of the project than the owner. d. This mode is adopted by the owner when the owner is more familiar with the nature of work in the beginning of the project than the consultant. State which of the following statements is True or False: 1. Corporate strategy is heavily influenced by suppliers in the business. 2. Corporate level strategy aims to create value for the corporation as a whole. a. 1T, 2F b. 1T, 2T c. 1F, 2F

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d. 1F, 2T _________and _______ of project risks are required for effective risk management. a. Identification, Analysis b. Analysis, Implementation c. Contingency allowances, Analysis

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d. Schedule risks, Identification State whether the statements True or False. 1. An activity can occur at any time after a specified date but no earlier that the given date. 2. Cost breakdown structure of the project will have all the activities that are required to accomplish the project. a. 1F, 2T b. 1T, 2F c. 1T, 2T

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d. 1F, 2F Identify the statements whether true or false. 1. Activities of the project are represented by Arrows, and events are numbered and are represented by Nodes.

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2. Start to Finish dependency relationship is the most commonly used in this network logic diagram. 3. The logic development process is further refined during schedule development and optimisation. 4. Manual techniques are beneficial in larger project and also it is useful during the initial stages of smaller projects. a. 1-T, 2-T, 3-F, & 4-T b. 1-F, 2-T, 3-F, & 4-T c. 1-F, 2-T, 3-T, & 4-F d. 1-T, 2-F, 3-T, & 4-F Which among the following states the Pareto's rule. a. The Pareto rule states that 80 % of quality can be achieved by adopting ISO standards. b. The Pareto rule states that 80 % of the problems are often due to 20 percent of the causes. c. The Pareto rule states that 50 % of the problems are often due to 50 percent of the causes d. The Pareto rule states that "to achieve customer satisfaction there should be 100 % of quality." Match the following: First set 1. Dynamic Plan 2. Product Description 3. Associability 4. Mandatory Dependencies Second set A. This input often involves most of the physical limitations. B. Arrows move from left to right and the node number of the events increases form left to right. C. This must be updated and reviewed regularly since it decides the beginning and end of each task. D. This input describes the various products involved in the project plan, required to accomplish the project. a. 1 - C, 2 - D, 3 - A, 4 - B

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b. 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - D, 4 - C

c. 1 - C, 2 - D, 3 - B, 4 - A d. 1 - D, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - B State whether the statements True or False. 1. OBS provides a task oriented perspective of the project rather than organisation based. 2. The hierarchical structure of the OBS aggregates the project information to higher levels. a. 1F, 2T b. 1F, 2F c. 1T, 2F d. 1T, 2T What does business level strategy addresses? a. It addresses that positioning the business against rivals. b. It addresses that each SBU is independent of others. c. It addresses that the combination of tools may need to be deployed for strategy planning. d. It addresses that growing market requires investment in assets to increase capacity. Identify the statements which are not a part of Ethics in Project Management: 1. Business practices have been, and are subject to a number of instances of ethical mistakes. 2. It is a general subject denoting rightful conduct and moral principles that are accepted by the majority of the members of society. 3. The specifics that the code of ethics includes would cover actions like using authority properly, protecting privileged information, taking responsibility for actions, acceptance of gifts and so on. 4. Organisations make their code of ethics a dynamic document to ensure broad ethical principles like adhering to applicable laws and regulations. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 3, 4 c. 1, 2, 4

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d. 1, 3, 4

Part C-4 Marks question

Q. No.
Match the following: First Set: 1. Leadership ability 2. Commitment 3. Technical Skills 4. Setting goals Second Set: A. It is the knowledge of the tools and techniques used in the project to ensure proper utilisation of resources. B. It is the ability to lead a group with integrity, openness and receptiveness. C. These need to benefit the organisation in terms of finance as well as the overall growth of the organisation. D. This quality creates a positive and energetic work environment for the team to work in. a. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C b. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C c. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B d. 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C

Question Statement

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Identify the different factors of an organisation associated to implement total quality system. 1. Employee involvement 2. Communication 3. Continual improvement 4. Integrated system a. 1, 3 & 4 b. 1, 2, 3 & 4 c. 1, 2 & 4

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d. 3 & 4 Which among the following statement is not a market description?

1. Segmental breakdown of the demand for the product. 2. Price which consumers are paying for the product presently in the market. 3. Price which suppliers are paying for the product presently in the market. 4. Adoption of sales promotion and distribution methods.

a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 3, 4 c. 2, 3,1 d. 1, 2, 4 Match the following: First set 1. Trade credits 2. Non-discounting criteria 3. Market Planning 4. Cost Analysis

Second set A. It deals with questions of quality and quantity of delivered services, differing methods of delivering services, the efficiency of service delivery techniques, and the trends in service costs over time. B. As per the current market situation and the demand forecasts, a Strength, Weakness, Opportunities, and Threats (SWOT) analysis is carried out and then clear-cut objectives and marketing strategy are charted out. C. These are secured by the company are non-interest bearing liabilities, which also have an implied cost in the price the company pays for acquiring goods and services. D. These do not consider the time value of money i.e., is the future years cash flows are considered on the same footing as the investment or cash flows in the initial year or years. a. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D b. 2-A, 3-B, 1-D, 4-C c. 1-C, 2-D, 4-A, 3-B

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d. 4-D, 3-A, 2-B, 1-C Identify whether the following statements are True or False in accordance with Debt-Equity Ratio (DER):

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1. Private party which constructs, operates and maintains the roads during the construction period and would earn an assured annuity from NHAI irrespective of the actual level of traffic, lenders have agreed to a DER of 4:1. 2. An example of DER is National Highway Authority of India (NHAI) on BOOT basis. 3. DER for large conventional projects where the project and in turn, the lenders are exposed to pure market risks, DER always exceeds 2:1. 4. DER for an infrastructure project on the SPV model is substantially higher than conventional projects. a. 1F, 2T, 3F, 4T b. 1T, 2F, 3F, 4T c. 1T, 2T, 3T, 4F d. 1F, 2F, 3T, 4F Match the following: First set 1. This mode is adopted when the design is partially developed at the time of contracting. 2. The PM (Project Management) and CM (Construction Management) entity enters into a contract with the client to represent the client in leading the design team and in the management of the construction process. 3. This scheme is implemented by the owner signing a master contract with one consultant at the beginning of the project, and then dividing the project into TOs (Task Orders). 4. The construction management contractor (CM) acts as a consultant bidder and provides advice on the practicality of the design with respect to the construction methods that can be deployed. Second set A. On-call contracting B. Guaranteed Maximum Price C. CM, PM D. Design and Construct Novation and turnkey a. 1-A, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B b. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C c. 1-C, 2-C, 3-A, 4-A

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d.1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A Risk management encourages the project team to take appropriate measures to: 1. Minimise adverse impact on project scope, cost, schedule and quality

2. Maximise opportunities to improve the objectives of project with lower cost, shorter schedules, enhanced scope and higher quality. 3. Maximise management crises. 4. Minimise management crisis. a. 1, 2 & 4 b. 2, 3 & 4 c. 1, 3 & 4 d. 1, 2 & 3 Match the four generic strategies in business unit level: First set 1. Focused low cost 2. Focused differentiation 3. Cost leadership 4. Differentiation

Second set A. The firm can offer product to customers at the lowest price essentially by tight control over production. B. The value is provided to customers through unique features and characteristics of the firms products rather than lowest price. C. The firm not only sells at lowest price, but also selects a small segment of the market to provide goods and services. D. The firm not only competes based on differentiation, but also selects a small segment of the market. a. 1-A, B-2, 3-C, 4-D b. 4-B, 3-A, 1-C, 2-D c. 2-A, 3-B, 2-C, 1-D

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d. 3-A, 1-B, 4-C, 2-D Match the following: First Phase

1. Name and general description of the application

2. Software

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3. Key support and maintenance items

4. Contingency and mitigation plans

Second Phase

A. It maintains a plan that ensures that any predictable or occurred risks are analysed and solved in time. B. It provides support and maintenance to handle projects of various sizes. C. It includes information such as the types of software available, the types of software required, the software version number, new releases etc. D. This provides information such as the purpose of using the defined application also outlines the primary objectives of the project that has to be met.

a. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A b. 2-A, 1-D, 3-B, 4-A c. 3-A,1-C, 2-D, 4-B d. 4-C, 2-B, 3-A, 1-D Limitations cited in the BCG matrix model are: 1. Market growth rate is only one factor in industry attractiveness. 2. The matrix depends heavily on the breadth of the definition of the market. 3. Relative market share is only one factor in competitive advantage. 4. An SBU may dominate its small position, but have very low market share in the overall industry. a. 1, 2 & 3 b. 3, 4 & 2 c. 1, 2 & 4

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d. 4, 2 & 3 Match the following: First set A. Technological risks

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B. Environment, safety and health risks

C. Incremental risks D. Loss of support risk Second set 1. This ultimately leads to the reduction in the scope and funding cuts, thus contributing to the poor performance of the project. 2. These risks include the risks that are not significant themselves but they accumulate to form a major risk to the project. 3. These include risks like a completed project which fails perform as intended or fails to meet the required objective of the project. 4. Serious incidents can have a major impact on the schedule and cost and even sometimes leads to the cancellation of project. a. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 b. B-4, C-2, D-1, A-3 c. A-4, D-3, C-1, B-2 d. B-1, D-2, A-3, C-4 Match the following sets: First set: A. Quality characteristics B. Quality definition C. Quality plan D. Quality Assurance 1. It is a part of defining the quality process which includes developing a quality checklist. 2. Describe the conditions of the material, equipment and services that are used to meet the requirements of the project. 3. It is carried out to confirm that the product meet the needs and expectations of the donors and beneficiaries. 4. First step of quality management. a. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 b. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 c. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

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d. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 Match the following project Life Cycle (PLC).

First Phase

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1. Project Initiation

2. Project Planning

3. Execution Phase

4. Monitoring and Control

Second Phase A. It involves implementing the solution that is planned to solve the problem that is specified in the requirements of the project. B. It involves checking the project execution and identifying the potential problems. C. It includes planning of cost, time and resources that are essential to manage the risks that are associated with the execution of the project. D. It includes preparing an outline of the project.

a. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B

b. 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B

c. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

d. 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C Match the following:

First Phase

1. Quality audits 2. Training 3. Design control

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4. Documented Quality Management system

Second Phase A. It includes the existing quality procedures; these procedures are standardised as per the wants of the customers within the organisation. B. This includes the procedures for design review of the requirements C. It is vital to conduct audits that are internal to the organisation. D. It is vital to provide training that supports the technical skills of the members participating in the team to adhere to the standards of the organisation. a. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A b. 2-A, 1-B, 3-D, 4-C c. 3-A,1-C, 2-D, 4-B d. 4-C, 2-B, 3-A, 1-D State whether the following statements are True or False. 1. The outputs of managing a project team are requested changes (staffing changes), recommended corrective actions. 2. The outputs of quality control are cost estimates updates, cost baseline update, forecast of total cost of completion. 3. The main output of schedule control is the updates of the project schedule model information used in the project, and the schedule baseline updates as applicable. 4. The outputs of scope control are quality baseline update and recommended corrective a. 1T,2F,3T,4F b. 1F,2F,3F,4F c. 1F,2T,3F,4F d. 1F,2F,3T,4T

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