This question paper consists of 3 printed pages, Solution

each of which is identified by

the Code Number CIVE 140001

 UNIVERSITY OF LEEDS

May/June 2003

Examination for the degree of

BEng/ MEng
Civil Engineering

FLUID MECHANICS

Time allowed: 2 hours L = 0.9m

x = 0.9 cos 60 = 0.45m
Attempt 4 questions The gate opens when the moment at the pivot is clockwise.
That is when the moment due to the water > (0.45/2)w.

Method 1
Force on plane = Area × Pressure at centroid
Useful formulae:
 y
Parallel axis theorem I oo = I GG + Ax 2 , Force = (1.0 × 0.9 )×  2.0 −  ρg
 2
bd 3 bd 3
2nd moment of area for a rectangle, I GG = , and for a triangle I GG = = 0.9 × (2.0 − 0.779 / 2 )1000 × 9.81
12 36
= 14219 N
1. A rectangular sluice gate, 0.9m × 1.0m, is fitted at the base of a reservoir wall with a pivot
Method 2
in the arrangement shown in Figure 1. The gate will open when the the level of water in Horizontal force = Hf = Area of projection on vertical plane × pressure at centroid
the reservoir reaches a certain depth.
 y
Determine the weight, W, that must be applied at the centre of the gate, if a water level of H f = 1.0 y 2.0 −  ρg
h = 2.0m will just cause the gate to open.  2
(25 marks) = 12307 N
Vertical force = weight of water above gate
 x× y 
V f =  2.0 x −  ρg1.0
 2 
= 7109
Resultant force
2 2
R = H f +Vf
= 14213 N

Point of action of the force = centre of pressure

Figure 1

1 2
 2 2.
L2 = = 2.309m A comparison of the sensitivity of depth change to discharge is to be made between a
sin 60
0.9 rectangular and v-notch a weir.
x = L2 − = 1.859m
2 Initially a rectangular notch weir of width 0.5m and coeeficient of discharge of 0.9 is placed
at the downstream end of a channel carrying 2m3/s of water.
2nd moment of area about O I oo
Sc = =
1st moment of area about O Ax What will be the height above the base of the notch.
I oo = I GG + Ax 2

I GG [8 marks]
Sc = +x
Ax
The experiment is repeated this time with a 70o V-notch weir with a the coefficient of
bd 3
For a rectangle, I GG = discharge of 0.8.
12
d2 What will be the height above the base of the notch for the same discharge?
Sc = +x
12 x [8 marks]
0.9 2
= + 1.859 When the height above the base in either weir is 0.5m what will be the percentage increase
12 × 1.859
in flow if the level rises by 0.1m?
= 1.895m
[7 marks]
Need to find the lever arm, i.e. the distance from the pivot to the centre of pressure specified by Sc. (Derive all formulae assuming the Bernoulli equation)
First find the position of the pivot, x2, from the surface (along the inclined plane)

x2 = L2 – 0.9 = 1.409m Solution

Lever arm, x1 = Sc - x2 = 1.895 – 1.409 = 0.486 m A General Weir Equation

Consider a horizontal strip of width b and depth h below the free surface, as shown in the figure below.
Take moments to fine the weight of the gate, w

Rx1 = 0.225w
b h

14213 × 0.486
w= = 30700 N H
0.225




δh

Elemental strip of flow through a notch
Assuming the velocity is only due to the head.

velocity through the strip, u = 2 gh

discharge through the strip, δQ = Au = bδh 2 gh
Integrating from the free surface, h = 0 , to the weir crest, h = H gives the expression for the total theoretical
discharge
H

Qtheoretical = 2 g ∫ bh 2 dh
1

This will be different for every differently shaped weir or notch. To make further use of this equation we need an
expression relating the width of flow across the weir to the depth below the free surface.

3 4
 8 θ 
For a rectangular weir the width does not change with depth so there is no relationship between b and depth h. We Qactual = Cd 2 g tan  H 5/ 2
have the equation, 15  2
b = constant = B Rectangular weir

Q (m^3/s) 2.000
C_d 0.900

B
B (m) 0.500

H
check Q
1.313
2.000

H

A rectangular weir
V-notch weir

Substituting this into the general weir equation gives Q (m^3/s) 2.000
θ 70.000 1.221729
H
C_d 0.800
Qtheoretical = B 2 g ∫ h 2 dh
1

H 1.180
0
check Q 2.000
2
= B 2 g H 3/ 2
3
To calculate the actual discharge we introduce a coefficient of discharge, Cd , which accounts for losses at the
edges of the weir and contractions in the area of flow, giving Vnotch
2
Qactual = Cd B 2 g H 3/ 2 H (m) 0.500
3 Q (m^3/s) 0.234
H (m) 0.600
For the “V” notch weir the relationship between width and depth is dependent on the angle of the “V”. Q (m^3/s) 0.369
% increase 57.744

b h
Rectangular
H H (m) 0.5
θ Q (m^3/s) 0.470
H (m) 0.6
Q (m^3/s) 0.618
“V” notch, or triangular, weir geometry. % increase 31.453
If the angle of the “V” is θ then the width, b, a depth h from the free surface is

θ 
b = 2( H − h) tan 
 2
So the discharge is

θ 
H

Qtheoretical = 2 2 g tan  ∫ ( H − h) h 1/ 2 dh
 2 0
 θ  2
H
2 
= 2 2 g tan   Hh 3/ 2 − h 5/ 2 
 2 5 5 0
8 θ 
= 2 g tan  H 5/ 2
15  2
The actual discharge is obtained by introducing a coefficient of discharge

5 6
3. φ ( u, d , ρ , ν , p ) = 0
Water flows through a 2cm diameter pipe at 1.6m/s. Calculate the Reynolds number and
find also the velocity required to give the same Reynolds number when the pipe is φ (π 1 , π 2 ) = 0
transporting air. π1 = ua d b ρ c ν
1 1 1

[5 marks]
Assuming the pressure loss along a pipe, p, can be expressed in terms of the following
π2 = u d ρ p a2 b2 c2

As each π group is dimensionless then considering the dimensions, for the first group, π1:
fluid density ρ
M 0 L0 T 0 = ( LT −1 ) ( L)b ( ML−3 ) L2 T −1
a1 c1
kinematic viscosity ν
1

diameter d M] 0 = c1
velocity u L] 0 = a1 + b1 - 3c1 + 2
show that the pressure loss can be expressed as: -2 = a1 + b1
T] 0 = -a1 - 1
p = ρu 2φ (Re ) a1 = -1
b1 = -1
Hence find the ratio of pressure drops in the same length of pipe for both cases. π1 = u −1d −1 ρ 0ν
[20 marks] ν
You will need to use these physical properties: =
ud
variable Water air And the second group π2 :
ρ 1000 kg/m3 1.19kg/m3 (note p is a pressure (force/area) with dimensions ML-1T-2)
ν 1.31×10−6m2/s 15.1×10−6m2/s M 0 L0 T 0 = ( LT −1 ) ( L) b ( ML−3 ) MT −2 L−1
a1 1
c1

M] 0 = c2 + 1
c2 = -1
L] 0 = a2 + b2 - 3c2 - 1
Solution
-2 = a2 + b2
T] 0 = -a2 - 2
Draw up the table of values you have for each variable:
a2 = - 2
variable water air b2 = 0
u 1.6m/s uair
p pwater pair π 2 = u −2 ρ −1 p
ρ 1000 kg/m3 1.19kg/m3 p
ν −6 2
1.31×10 m /s 15.1×10−6m2/s =
d 0.02m 0.02m
ρu 2
So the physical situation is described by this function of nondimensional numbers,
 ν p 
φ (π1 , π 2 ) = φ 
Kinematic viscosity is dynamic viscosity over density = ν = µ/ρ.
ρud ud
,  =0
 ud ρu 2 
The Reynolds number = Re = =
µ ν  p 
Reynolds number when carrying water: φ  Re, =0
ud 16. × 0.02  ρu 2 
Re water = = = 24427
ν . × 10 − 6
131 p = ρu 2φ (Re )
To calculate Reair we know,
Re water = Re air For dynamic similarity these non-dimensional numbers are the same for the both water and air in the pipe.
uair 0.02
π 1air = π 1water
24427 = π 2 air = π 2 water
15 × 10 − 6
uair = 18.44m / s We are interested in the relationship involving the pressure i.e. π2
 p   p 
To obtain the ratio of pressure drops we must obtain an expression for the pressure drop in terms of governing  2 = 2
variables.
 ρu  air  ρu  water
Choose the three recurring (governing) variables; u, d, ρ. pwater ρwater u water
2

From Buckinghams π theorem we have m-n = 5 - 3 = 2 non-dimensional groups. =

pair ρair uair
2

1000 × 16
. 2 1
= = = 6.327
. × 18.44 2 0158
119 .
7 8
4 Describe with the aid of diagrams the following phenomena explaining why and when
they occur. 5. Water flows horizontally along a 200mm pipeline fitted with a 90o bend that moves the
(Each part requires at least a half page description of the phenomenon plus diagrams.) water vertically upwards. The diameter at the outlet of the bend is 100mm and it is 0.5m
above the centreline of the inlet. If the flow through the bend is 150 litres/s, calculate the
(i) The laminar boundary layer magnitude and direction of the resultant force the bend support must withstand. The volume
(5 marks) of the bend is 0.01m3 and the pressure at the outlet is 100 kN/m2.
(ii) The turbulent boundary layer [25 marks]
(5 marks)
(iii) The laminar sublayer 100mm
(5 marks)
(iv) Boundary layer separation
(5 marks)
(v) Methods to prevent boundary layer separation
(5 marks)

Solution
p = 100 kN/m2 200mm
Answer: As the question says - EACH PART REQUIRES AT LEAST HALF A PAGE DESCRIPTION PLUS
DIAGRAMS - take from lecture notes AND other books.

Figure 2

Solution

Force on a pipe bend question

Enter values in the yellow boxes

Pressure in (kN/m^2) 100

Inflow (litres/s) 150
Volume of bend (m^3) 0.01
Bend angle (degrees) 90
Height difference (m) 0.5
Head loss in bend (m) 0
Inlet diameter (m) 0.2
outlet diameter (m) 0.1

Q (m^3/s) 0.15000
inlet area (m^2) 0.03142
outlet area (m^2) 0.00785
inlet vel (m/s) 4.77465
outlet vel (m/s) 19.09859
Angle (rad) 1.57080

Total force
Ftx (N) -716.19724
Fty (N) 2864.78898
Pressure force
P outlet (N/m^2) -75884.49735
Fpx 3141.59265
Fpy 595.99545
Body force
Fbx 0.00000
Fby -98.10000
Resultant force

9 10
Frx -3857.78990 6 (a) Starting with the Bernoulli and Continuity equations derive the following expression
Fry 2366.89353 that can be used to measure flow rate with a Venturi meter.
Fr 4526.00573
Angle (degrees) -31.53062  p − p2 
2g  1 + z1 − z 2 
 ρg 
Force acting on bend (N) -4526.00573 Q actual = C d A1 A2
A12 − A22

Also show that when the pressure difference is measured using a manometer the
following expression can be used
ρ 
2 gh man − 1
 ρ 
Qactual = Cd A1 A2
A12 − A22
[15 marks]
(b) A venturimeter is used to measure the flow of water in a pipe of diameter 100mm. The
throat diameter of the venturimeter is 60mm and it has a coefficient of discharge of 0.9.
When a flow of 100 litres/s is flowing the attached maonmeter shows a head difference
of 60cm, what is the density of the manometric fluid of the manometer?

Solution

6(a):

Applying Bernoulli along the streamline from point 1 to point 2 in the narrow throat of the Venturi meter we have

p1 u12 p2 u22
+ + z1 = + +z
ρg 2 g ρg 2 g 2
By the using the continuity equation we can eliminate the velocity u2,
Q = u1 A1 = u2 A2
u1 A1
u2 =
A2
Substituting this into and rearranging the Bernoulli equation we get

u 2  A  
2
p1 − p2
+ z1 − z2 = 1  1  − 1
ρg 2 g  A2  
 p − p2 
2g 1 + z1 − z2 
 ρg 
u1 = 2
 A1 
  −1
 A2 

 p − p2 
2g 1 + z1 − z2 
 ρg 
= A2
A12 + A22
To get the theoretical discharge this is multiplied by the area. To get the actual discharge taking in to account the
losses due to friction, we include a coefficient of discharge

11 12
 Qideal = u1 A1 6 (b)
Qactual = Cd Qideal = Cd u1 A1  2
 A12 − A22  
Q 
ρ man = ρ      + 1
 p1 − p2    C d A1 A2   2 gh  
2g + z1 − z2  
 ρ g 
Qactual = Cd A1 A2
A12 − A22
cd 0.9
rho man (kg/m^3) ?
rho (kg/m^3) 1000
This can also be expressed in terms of the manometer readings d1 (mm) 100
p1 + ρgz1 = p2 + ρman gh + ρg ( z2 − h) d2 (mm) 60

p1 − p2 ρ  a1 (m^2) 0.007854
+ z1 − z2 = h man − 1
ρg  ρ  a2 (m^2) 0.002827

Thus the discharge can be expressed in terms of the manometer reading:: Q (m^3/s) 0.1

ρ  h (m) 0.6
2 gh man − 1
 ρ 
Qactual = Cd A1 A2
A12 − A22 rho man (kg/m^3) 115182.5
out

1
z2
in

z1

h datum

13 14