Laboratory examination

1- Blood is composed of: by binding a40% cells or chelating calcium, so that the calcium is not available for b- 60% cells coagulation. c- 45% cells d- 70% cells 2- Blood is composed of: a- 55% plasma b- 70% plasma c- 70% protein d- 55% carbohydrate 3- Plasma consisted of: a- Proteins b- Albumin c- Globulins d- All the previous 4- Sodium citrate prevents clotting by. a- inhibiting the ionization of calcium b- precipitating calcium c- by forming calcium insoluble salts d- non of the previous 5- EDTA prevents clotting by: a- inhibiting the ionization of calcium b- precipitating calcium c- by forming calcium insoluble salts d- non of the previous 6- Haemolysis may be caused by: a- acids b- alkalis c- bacterial toxins d- All the previous 7 - Life span of RBCs about: a- 170 days b- 120 days c- 150 days d- 100 days
Sodium citrate and EDTA prevents coagulation

ad cell (RBC) can be modeled as a biconcave discoid. A RBC is composed of hemoglobin (32%), water (65%), and Better answer (a) 8- The RBCs composedof: The non-granulocytes are lymphocytes and monocytes. a- 60 % water b- 30% water Monocytes are formed in the bone marrow and the lymphocytes within the lymphatic s c- 50% water d- non of the previous 9- Normal range of WBCs between: a- 3-7 ths/cmm b- 4-11 ths/ cmm c- 1- 3 ths/cmm d- 11-20 ths/cmm 10- Leucopenia is: a- the decrease in number of leucocytes below 1 ths/cmm b- the increase in number of leucocytes above 12 ths/cmm c- the increase in number of leucocytes above 4 ths/cmm d- the decrease in number of leucocytes below 4 ths/cmm 11- Leucocytosis is: a- the decrease in number of leucocytes below 1 ths/cmm b- the increase in number of leucocytes above 12 ths/cmm c- the increase in number of leucocytes above 4 ths/cmm d- the decrease in number of leucocytes below 4 ths/cmm 12- The granulocytes are formed in the: a- bone marrow stem cells b- Lymphatic tissue c- Liver d- spleen 13- The nongranulocytes are formed in the: a- bone marrow stem cells b- Lymphatic tissue c- Liver d- spleen 14- Life span of granulocytes is: a- 8 hours b- 12 hours c- 16 hours d- 2 days

6 hrs to Few days

bdc-

15 - Life span of lymphocytes is: a- 8 days b- 12 days c- 15 days d- 10 days 16- Normal range of neutrophils: a- 15-22% b- 10-15% c- 40-50% d- 60-70% 17- Normal range of Lymphocytes: a- 15-22% b- 10-15% c- 40-50% d- 60-70%

?????? 34%

Eosinophil: 0-7 %

18- Normal range of Basophil is: a- 3-8% b- 2-4% c- 4-8% d- 1-2% 19- Normal range of Monocyte is: a- 3-8% b- 2-4% c- 4-8% d- 1-2% 20- Normal range of Eosinophil is: a- 3-8% b- 2-4% c- 4-8% d- 1-2% 21- The life span of Neutrophil is: a- 6 days b- 8 d ays c- 4 days d- 2 days

ef-

22- The life span of eosinophil is: a- 12-18 days b- 6-8 days c- 8-10 days d- 18-20 days 23- The stain which used in leukocytic differentiation: a- Leishman b- methyl violet c- Giemsa d- non of the previous 24- Hb was measured by Sahlis method using: a- distilled water b- Potassium ferricyanide c- 0.1 N HCl d- Sodium citrate 25- Hb was measured by colourimetric method using: a- distilled water b- Potassium ferricyanide c- 0.1 N HCl d- Sodium citrate 26- Stain used in reticulocytic count a- Leishman b- Giemsa c- methyl violet d- brilliant cresyl blue 27- Reticulocytes increase in the following conditions a- pregnancy b- all types of anemia c- Leukemia d- all the previous 28- The anticoagulant used in ESR a- EDTA b- 2.8% Sodium citrate c- heparin d- 3.8% Sodium citrate

29- Thrombocytopenia means that platelets count is a- more than 50 ths/cmm b- more than 400 ths/cmm c-less than 50 ths/cmm d- less than 400 ths/ cmm 30- Ratio of blood to anticoagulant in ESR is: a- 1:9 b- 9:1 c- 1:4 d- 4:1 31- the ratio of blood to sodium citrate in prothrombin time test a- 1:9

b- 9: 1
c- 1:4 d- 4:1 32- Stain which used in Malaria a- Leishman b- Giemsa c- Brilliant cresyl blue d- Fields stain 33- LDL and VLDL are precipitated by a- phosphotungestic acid b- TCA c- HCI

d- H2S04
34- Picric acid was used in the determination of a- glucose b- creatinine c- uric acid d- b and c 35- Creatinine determination was done in a- alkaline media b- acidic media c- neutral media d- all the previous
5

36- Lipase value is high in a- liver disease b- Muscles disease c- Pancreatic disease d- all the previous 37- Acid phosphatase has high value in a-liver disease b-Muscles disease c- Pancreatic disease d- Prostatic disease 38- GOT and GPT values are high in a- acute hepatitis b- Pancreatitis c- Myocardial infraction d- A and C 39- LDH comes from a- heart b- liver c- muscle d- all the previous 40- CPK comes from a- heart b- liver c- muscle d- a and c 41- Ultra violet method for ALT determination used wave length a- 505 nm b- 340 nm c- 420 nm d- 620 nm 42- Colorimetric method for ALT determination used wave length a- 505 nm b- 340 nm c- 420 nm d- 620 nm

43- In colorimetric determination of ALT use a-4N NaOH b- 0.4 Non-reactive: N NaOH button-shaped sedimentation or little ring with regular borders. c- l N NaOH d- 2 N NaOH 44- Presence of ring in the bottom of the well in IHA test means that a- positive reaction b- negative reaction c- invalid test d- non of the previous 45- IHA test for bilharziasis detect a- antigens b- antibodies c- eggs d- adult worm 46- Concentration of CRP increases in case of a- inflammatory disease b- malignant disease c-liver disease d- a and b 47- Causative organism of Syphilis a- Streptococci produces streptolysin 0 b- Treponema Palladium c- Salmonella d- non of the previous 48- Causative organism which stimulate ASO antibodies a- Streptococci produces streptolysin 0 b- Treponema Palladium c- Salmonella d- non of the previous 49- Causative organism of Typhoid a- Streptococci produces streptolysin 0 b- Treponema Palladium c- Salmonella d- non of the previous

50-HCV infection can be diagnosed by b- RIBA c- PCR d- non of the previous

See this link: A + b + c : True

a- ELISA

51- Toxoplasmosis can be diagnosed using a- light microscope b- dark microscope c- brilliant microscope 52- IgM antibodies can be determined in IHA test by adding a- mercapto-ethanol b- ethanol c- methanol d- propanol 53- In ELISA technique washing was done after a- antibody b- conjugate c- substrate d- a and b 54- Alpha-fetoprotein is a glycoprotein with a molecular weight between a- 20-30 KDa b- 35-45 KDa c- 45-55 KDa d- 65-70 KDa 55- Which of the following is tumor marker a-Alpha-fetoprotein bCA-125 c- CA19.9 d- all the previous 56- The urine can be preserved by a- acidification b- toluene c- chloroform d- all the previous

dfluor escen ce micr osco pe

57- The average of daily excreted urine in adult is a- 3-4 liter Normal urine color ranges from pale yellow to deep amber b- 1-2liter c- 0.5 liter d- non of the previous 58- Polyuria is the increasing in daily excreted urine above a- 0.5 liter b- 1 liter c- 2 liter d- 3 liter 59- Oliguria is the decreasing in daily excreted urine below a- 0.5 liter b- l liter c- 2 liter d- 3 liter 60- Normal colour of urine a- pale yellow b- deep yellow c- greenish yellow d- amber yellow 61- The urine color in polyuria become a- pale yellow b- deep yellow c- greenish yellow d- amber yellow 62- The urine color in oliguria become a- pale yellow b- deep yellow c- greenish yellow d- amber yellow 63- The urine color during riboflavin administration become a- pale yellow b- deep yellow c- greenish yellow d- amber yellow

And refractometer. b-The urine color during riboflavin hematuria 64become a- deep yellow 64- The urine color during riboflavin hematuria become a- deep yellow b- reddish c- greenish brown d- orange brown

65- The urine color in jaundice become a- deep yellow b- reddish c- greenish brown d- orange brown 66- Urine specific gravity was determined by a- microscope b- pH meter c- urinometer d- non of the previous 67 - specific gravity is low in ? a- chronic nephritis b- diabetes mellitus c- drinking much water d- a and b 68- Nitrite in urine is indirect method for the early detection of a- glucose b- pus cells c- blood d- bacteria 69- A blue to red change in litmus paper means that the solution is a- alkaline b- acidic c- Neutral d- non of the previous 70- A red to blue change in litmus paper means that the solution is a- alkaline b- acidic c- Neutral d- non of the previous
c-

71- No change in litmus paper means that the solution is a- alkaline b- acidic

To differentiate between the two, add a few of acetic acid, 5%. The formation of drops a cloudy precipitate indicates either phosphate salts or albumin. If a precipitate persists, this shows that albumin was present. 72- Normal pH of urine varying between If the precipitate dissolves, then phosphate salts

c- Neutral d- non of the previous

0.75 % 3%

Henri: 4.6-8

a- 3-5
b- 5-6 c- 6-7 d- 7-8 73- After boiling the urine, if a cloud appears this means that a- presence of phosphate crystal b- presence of oxalate crystal c- presence of protein d- a and c 74- To differentiate between protein and phosphate crystals. After urine boiling we must add a- sodium hydroxide b- sulphuric acid c- glacial acetic acid d- non of the previous 75- After boiling the urine and addition of acetic acid, if the cloud disappears this means the presence of a- protein b- phosphate crystals c- oxalate crystals d- non of the previous 76- To detect protein in urine we can use a- 20% TCA (trichloroacetic acid) b- 20% sulphuric acid c- 20% HCI d- 20% Sulpho-salicylic acid 77 - The albuminuria was occurred in the following disease a- Nephritis b- tumor c- T.B. of the kidney d- all the previous

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d- all the previous 78- Normal urine contains small amounts of sugar, for example a- pentoses b- disaccharide c- traces of glucose d- all the previous 79- Sugar can be detected in urine using a- Fehling test b- Benedict test c- paper strips d- all the previous 80- In the Fehling test to detect glucose in urine, If the blue color changes to red precipitate this means that the glucose equal about a- 100 mg/dl b- 300 mg/dl c- 700 mg/dl d- 1000 mg/dl 81- Ketone bodies exist in urine are a- Aceto-acetic acid b- acetone c- - hydroxyl butyric acid d- all the previous 82- Ketonuria is usually met within the following cases a- Diabetes mellitus b- Much fats and low carbohydrates c- starvation d- all the previous 83- The direct bilirubin formed when bilirubin conjugated with a- albumin b- glucuronic acid c- gluconic acid d- glucose 84- The cells which can be present in urine include a- RBCs b- Leucocytes c- epithelial cells

85- To differentiate between RBCs and pus cells in urine investigation, note the following except a- Pus cells larger than RBCs b- pus cells have nuclei c- lysing RBCs by 2% acetic acid d- addition of HCI 86- In urine examination, to differentiate between RBCs and yeast cells note the following except a- yeast cells will not dissolve in 2% acetic acid b- yeast cells will not stained with eosin c- yeast cells will dissolve in normal saline d- yeast cells are avoid 87- Pus cells were characterized by the following except a- larger than RBCs b- smaller than epithelial cells c- will not dissolve in 5% HCI d- will not dissolve in 2% acetic acid
88- In urine investigation, type of epithelial cells all the following except

a- bladder b- transitional c- squamous d- renal tubular 89- In urine investigation all the following are types of cast cells except a- red cells b- white cells c- yeast cells d- epithelial cells 90- Organisms can be identified in urinary sediments a- bacteria b- yeast c- protozoa and parasites dall the previous

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They are quite soluble in chloroform, ether and HOT alcohol, but are insoluble in alcohol

91- Parasites can be identified in urinary sediments aS. mansoni b- S. haematobium c- Enterobius vermicularis d- b and c 92- Protozoa can be identified in urinary sediments aAmoeba b- Giardia lamblia c- Trichomonas vaginalis dall the previous

93- Lipids may be present in the urinary sediment as afree lipid droplet b- oval bodies c- cholesterol crystal d- all the previous 94- Crystals found in acidic urine auric acid b- calcium oxalate camorphous urates d- all the previous 95- Uric acid crystals insoluble in the following except a- alcohol b- hydrochloric acid c- acetic acid d- sodium hydroxide 96- Cholesterol crystals soluble in the following except a- chloroform b- ether c- hot alcohol d- saline 97 - Amorphous urate crystals soluble in a- Saline

b- HCI
c- Sulphuric acid d- hot alkali

d-

98- The following crystals were founded in alkaline urine except a- triple phosphate b- amorphous phosphate c- tyrosine d- calcium carbonate 99- Type of triple phosphate crystals founded in urine are a- Ammonium phosphate b- ferric phosphate c- magnesium phosphate d- a and c 100- Triple phosphate crystals are soluble in a- NaOH b- ether c- acetic acid (10% without boiling) d-saline 101- How to distinguish between amorphous phosphate and amorphous urate a- shape b- pH c- solubility in acetic acid d- b and c 102- In semen analysis, the expression of azoospermia means a- excess of spermatozoa b- low spermatozoa c- no spermatozoa d- non of the previous 103- Normal count of sperms in one ml a- 40-100 mil b- 20-60 mil c- 100-120 mil d- non of the previous 104- Factors affecting on spermatogenesis a- FSH b-LH c- Testosterone d- all the previous

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105- The normal pH of the seminal fluid a- alkaline b- acidic b- neutral d- non of the previous 106- The largest egg founded in the stool a- Taenia b- H. Nana c- Ascaris d- S. mansoni 107- S. mansoni egg has a- terminal spin b- lateral spin c- no spin d- non of the previous 108- S. haematobium egg has a- terminal spin b- lateral spin c- no spin d- non of the previous 109- If you found blood in stool the patient may be have a- Amoeba b- S. mansoni c- Giardia Lamblia d- all the previous 110- One deciliter equal the following except a- 0.1 liter b- 100 ml c- 100000 microlitre d- all the previous 111- The normal value of creatinine in serum a- 0.6-1.4 mg/L b- 0.6-1.4 mg/dl c- 0.6-1.4 gm/dl d- 0.6-1.4 gm/L

e112- Quantitative clinical chemistry investigation are carried out on a- blood Up to 200 b- cerebrospinal fluid c- urine d- all the previous
113- Which of the following is kidney function test a- serum creatinine b- serum urea c- creatinine clearance d- all the previous 114- The normal value of albumin in serum a- 3.6-4.7 mg/dl b- 3.6-4.7 gm/dl c- 3.6-4.7 mg/L d- 3.6-4.7 gm/L 115- The normal value of potassium in serum a- 3.5-5.5 mg/dl b- 3.5-5.5 mol/L c- 3.5-5.5 m mol/L d- 3.5-5.5 mg/L 116- The reference range of total cholesterol in serum a- 140-260 mg/dl b- 140-260 mg/100 ml c- 140-260 g/dl d- a, and b 117 - Reference range of total protein in serum a- 6.3-8.3 mg/dl b- 6.3-8.3 mg/L c- 6.3-8.3 g/dl d- 6.3-8.3 g/L 118- Reference range serum Tri-iodothyronine (total T3) a- 1.2-2.8 n mol/L

b- 78-182 ng/100 ml
c- 1.2-2.8 mol/L d- a, and b

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119- Reference range serum Thyroxine (total T 4 ) a- 70-150 n mol/L b- 5.5- 11.7 g/l00 ml c- 70-150 mol/L d- a, and b 120- Reference range of plasma pH a- 7-7.3 b- 6-7 c-7.35-7.45 d-7.45-7.55 121- The most sensitive test for diabetes mellitus a- oral glucose tolerance b- fasting blood glucose c- urine glucose d- I. V. glucose 122- Which of the following anticoagulant inhibit glycolysis a- sodium citrate

b- EDT A
c- heparin d- sodium fluoride 123- All the following cause hemolysis of RBCs except a- acids b- alkalis c- normal saline d- hypertonic and hypotonic solutions 124- Normal RBCs count a- 4.5-5.5 ths/cmm b- 4.5-5.5 mil/cmm c- 4.5-5.5 ths/dl d- 4.5-5.5 mil/dl 125- Life span of RBCs about a- 120 hour b- 120 days c- 120 min. d- 120 weeks

126- The percentage of hemoglobin in RBCs about a- 34% b- 44% c- 54% d- 64% 127- The normal range of WBCs a- 4-11 ths/cmm b- 4-11 ths/dl c- 4-11 ths/L d- 4-11 ths/ml 128- The number of leukocytes in leucopenia a- above 12 ths/cmm b- below 4 ths/cmm c- 4-11 ths/ cmm d- non of the previous 129- The number of leukocytes in leucocytosis a- above 12 ths/cmm b- below 4 ths/cmm c- 4-11 ths/ cmm d- non of the previous 130- The following leukocytes are granular except a- neutrophil b- eosinophil c- basophil d- monocyte 131- Which of the following used in leukocytic counting a- saline b- 1 N HCl c- 2% Sulphuric acid d- 2% acetic acid 132- Normal range of platelets (thrombocytes) a- 150-400 ths/cmm b- 150-400 mil/cmm c- 150-400 ths/dl d- 150-400 ths/ml

19

133- Life span of platelets a- 4 hours b- 4 days c- 4 weeks d- 4 months 134- Which of the following used in platelets counting a- saline b- 1 N HCI c- 2% acetic acid d- 3% ammonium oxalate 135- Normal hematocrit value a- 20-32% b- 30-42% c- 40-52% d- 50-62% 136- Media must contain life cells in case of culturing a- bacteria b- virus c- fungi d- non of the previous 137- Methods for bacterial identification a- microscopic examination b- Bacterial culture c- biochemical tests d- all the previous 138- In oral glucose tolerance test the patient drinks glucose a- 0.01 gm/Kg body weight b- 0.1 gm/Kg body weight c- 1 gm/Kg body weight d- 10 gm/Kg body weight 139- The test which is a good index of long term efficacy of diabetes mellitus control a- glucose in urine b- glucose in serum c- glycosylated hemoglobin d- glucose tolerance test

f140- For lipogram test the patient must be fasting for a- 6-8 hour Near complete suppression of urine. b- 8-10 hour c- 10-12 hour

d-12-16 hour

141- CPK increases in case of a-liver disease b- kidney disease c- diabetes mellitus d- myocardial infraction 142- LDH increased in case of a- hepatocellular carcinoma b- kidney disease c- myocardial infraction d- a, and c 143- AST value is high in the following a- liver disease b- myocardial infraction c- acute pancreatitis d- all the previous 144- Causes of hypercalcaemia a- bone malignancies b- hyperparathyroidism c- vitamin D excess d- all the previous 145- Causes of hypocalcaemia a- hypoparathyroidism b- malabsorption of calcium c- chronic renal disease d- all the previous 146- Anuria is a decreasing in daily excreted urine below a- 10 ml b-100 ml c- 400 ml d- 500 ml

21

147- Which of the following causes polyuria a- excessive ingestion of fluids b- after mobilization of fluids from ascites c- diabetes mellitus d- all the previous 148- Which of the following causes oliguria a- severe hypotension b- severe diarrhea c- severe vomiting d- all the previous 149- High specific gravity occurs in a- glucosuria b- proteinuria c- oliguria d- all the previous 150- Low specific gravity occurs in a- polyuria b- acute tubular necrosis c- liver disease d- a, and b 151- Normal 24 hours protein in urine a- 100-150 g b- 100-150 mg c- 100-150 g d- non of the previous 152- causes of protein urea are the following except a- renal disease b- heart failure c- fever d- liver disease 153- Ketone bodies exist in urine in the following except a- acetone b- acetic acid c- aceto-acetic acid d- B- hydroxybutyric acid

ghi-

+ Legal + Fromer + Dumm-shibly

154- Ketone bodies were examined by the following tests except Amylase a-Rothera's Trypsin test b- Benedicts Pepsin test cLipase Gerhard's test d- test strips

155- Which of the following causes ketonuria a- uncontrolled diabetes mellitus b- prolonged vomiting c- prolonged starvation d- all the previous 156- The bilirubin increasing may be due to a- hemolytic causes
b-hepatic causes

c- obstructive causes d- all the previous 157 - Prothrombin time determination are used in the following except a- diagnosis of coagulopathy b- assessment of liver function c- assessment of kidney function d- control of oral anticoagulant therapy 158- Normal prothrombin time a- 8-10 second b- 10-12 second c- 12-14 second d-14-16 second.

159- In acute hepatic necrosis there are a- high serum bilirubin b- high serum AL T and AST c- prolonged prothrombin time d- all the previous
160- All the following tests used to assess Pancrease except

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1 2 161- In normal individuals cortisol concentration is 8 evening = 50% of 8 morning a- stable during the day b- reach to highest level in the early morning c- reach to lowest level in the midnight d- b, and c

or Biomphalaria glabrata

162- If the serum not separated from RBCs a- glucose increase b- glucose decrease c- glucose not affected d- non of the previous 163- The hemolysis will affect the following tests a- LDH b-ALT c- AST d- all the previous 164- Intermediate host of S. mansoni aBulinus truncates bBiomphlaria Alexandrian c- cats d- non of the previous