Activated platelets excrete the contents of these granules into their canalicular systems and into surrounding blood. There are three types of granules:
dense (or delta) granules (containing ADP or ATP, calcium, and serotonin) lambda granules similar to lysosomes and contain several hydrolytic enzymes. Alpha granules (containing P-selectin, platelet factor 4, transforming growth factor1, platelet-derived growth factor, fibronectin, B-thromboglobulin,vWF, fibrinogen, and coagulation factors V and XIII). 2. which region of the developing embryo becomes the neural plate: dorsal lip region
-invagination of the neural plate results in formation of what structure:neural groove -neural folds on either side of the neural groove fuse to form what critical structure:neural tube -neurulation takes place during what week of embryonic development:4th week -an increase in what protein marker is often seen with neural tube defects:alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) -what disease is associated with low-maternal AFP:down syndrome -caudal neural tube defects can be prevented by maternal consumption of what vitamin:Folate -which antiepileptic drug is associated with neural tube defects: valproic acid -which groove separates the alar and basal plates :Sulcus limitans -which plate contains neurons with afferent functions:Dorsally located alar plate -which plate contains neurons with efferent functions:ventrally located basal plate -what are the 3 primary vesicles from rostral to caudal Prosencephalon Mesencephalon Rhombencephalon
-which structures are considered part of the CNS:brain, spinal cord, olfactory bulb and tract, optic nerve, and retina -which structures make up the PNS:cranial nerves III-XII, spinal nerves, and autonomic ganglia and nerves -from which embryologic origin are the cells of the PNS derived :Neural crest cells -what cell types and tissues are derived from neural crest cells :pseudounipolar neurons of pripheral ganglia, schwann cells, neurons of autonomic ganglia, leptomeninges, chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla, melanocytes, odontoblasts, parafollicular C cells, pharyngeal arches, and aorticopulmonary septum -what re the 3 divisions of the autonomic nervous system Sympathetic Parasympathetic Enteric -which tissues are innervated by the ANS:smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands -which divisions of the ANS is responsible for the fight-or-flight response:Sympathetic Deep Lymph Nodes 1. Submental 2. Submandibular (Submaxillary)
Inferior Deep Cervical Lymph Nodes 10. Juguloomohyoid 11. Supraclavicular (scalene)
wind (heat loss is more rapid in wind) humidity (heat loss is less in high humidity) radiation (70% of the bodys heat loss can occur through an uncovered head) convection (heat loss from convection can be reduced by proper clothing).
being immobilised (e.g. being trapped or suffering a stroke and lying outside all night) being seriously injured (e.g. major burns or spinal cord injuries) being very young or very old being under the influence of alcohol being involved in endurance activities being unconscious.
White fibrocartilage consists of a mixture of white fibrous tissue and cartilaginous tissue in various proportions. It owes its flexibility and toughness to the former of these constituents, and its elasticity to the latter. It is the only type of cartilage that contains type I collagen in addition to the normal type II. Fibrocartilage is found in the pubic symphysis, the annulus fibrosus of intervertebral discs, menisci, and the TMJ. During labor, relaxin loosens thepubic symphysis to aid in delivery, but this can lead to later joint problems.
primary ossification center is in diaphysis secondary ossification center is in epiphysis Low voltage is produced by: 1.The damping effect of increased layers of fluid, fat or air between the heart and the recording electrode 2.Loss of viable myocardium 3.Diffuse infiltration or myxoedematous involvement of the heart Specific causes of low voltage include: Pericardial effusion Pleural effusion
Obesity Emphysema Pneumothorax Contrictive pericarditidis Previous massive MI End-stage dilated cardiomyopathy Infiltrative myocardial diseases i.e. restrictive cardiomyopathy due to amyloidosis, sarcoidosis, haemochromatosis Scleroderma Myxoedema
in fasting state muscle releases alanine which gives gluconeogenic substrate pyruvate and an amino group for urea synthesis Glycogen storage disease type II (also called Pompe disease or acid maltase deficiency) is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder, which damages muscle and nerve cells throughout the body. It is caused by an accumulation of glycogen in the lysosome due to deficiency of the lysosomal acid alpha-glucosidase enzyme. It is the only glycogen storage disease with a defect in lysosomal metabolism.... The usual presenting features are cardiomegaly (92%), hypotonia (88%), cardiomyopathy (88%), respiratory distress (78%), muscle weakness (63%), feeding difficulties (57%) and failure to thrive (53%). Mesoderm components MESODERM: Mesothelium (peritoneal, pleural, pericardial)/ Muscle (striated, smooth, cardiac) Embryologic Spleen/ Soft tissue/ Serous linings/ Sarcoma/ Somite Osseous tissue/ Outer layer of suprarenal gland (cortex)/ Ovaries Dura/ Ducts of genitalia Endothelium Renal Microglia Mesenchyme/ Male gonad
Work of Breathing
1.
Components of Work o elastic work - work to overcome: lung elastic recoil thoracic cage displacement abdominal organ displacement o frictional work - work to overcome: air-flow resistance (major) viscous resistance (lobe friction, minor) o inertial work - work to overcome: acceleration and deceleration of air (negligible due to low mass of air) acceleration and deceleration of chest wall and lungs (negligible due to overdamping
33 25 18 10 <2
30 50 29 22 8
29 21 22 18 7
Chylomicrons 100-1000
Choroid plexus is present in all components of the ventricular system except for the cerebral aqueduct, [1] [1] frontal horn of the lateral ventricle, and occipital horn of the lateral ventricle.
Choroid plexus
It is found in the superior part of the inferior horn of the lateral ventricles. It follows up along this boundary, continuous with the inferior of the body of the lateral ventricles. It passes into the interventricular foramen, and is present at the top of the third ventricle. There is also choroid plexus in the fourth ventricle, in the section closest to the bottom half of the cerebellum.
Omenta
Sources Structure From To Contains
Dorsal mesentery
Transverse colon
Gastrosplenic ligament
Stomach
Spleen
Gastrophrenic ligament
Stomach
Diaphragm
Gastrocolic ligament
Stomach
Transverse colon
Splenorenal ligament
Spleen
Kidney
Ventral mesentery
Lesser omentum
Liver
The right free margin-hepatic artery, portal vein, and bile duct. Along the lesser curvature of the stomach-left and right gastric artery.
Hepatogastric ligament
Stomach
Liver
Duodenum
Liver
Hepatic artery proper, hepatic portal vein, bile duct, autonomic nerves
Sources
Structure
From
To
Contains
Dorsal mesentery
Mesentery proper
Transverse mesocolon
Transverse colon
Middle colic
Sigmoid mesocolon
Sigmoid colon
Pelvic wall
Sigmoid arteries
Mesoappendix
Mesentery of ileum
Appendix
Appendicular artery
Ventral mesentery
Thoracic diaphragm, Round ligament of liver, paraumbilical anterior veins abdominal wall
Umbilicus
Ventral mesentery
Thoracic diaphragm
Ductus venosus
Ligamentum venosum
Liver
Liver
Phrenicocolic
ligament
flexure
diaphragm
Ventral mesentery
Umbilical folds
Urinary bladder
Ileocecal fold
Ileum
Cecum
Uterus
Pelvic wall
Ovarian ligament
Uterus
Inguinal canal
Ovary
Pelvic wall
Ovarian artery
In addition, in the pelvic cavity there are several structures that are usually named not for the peritoneum, but for the areas defined by the peritoneal folds:
Name Location Genders possessing structure
Rectovesical pouch
Male only
Rectouterine pouch
Female only
Vesicouterine pouch
Female only
Pararectal fossa
Surrounding rectum
Paravesical fossa
The parietal peritoneum lining the anterior abdominal wall is supplied by lower six thoracic and first lumbar nerves. It should be kept in mind that these are the same nerves that supply the muscles and skin of the anterior abdominal wall.
In the region of diaphragm, the nerve supply is different. The central part of the diaphragmatic peritoneum is innervated by phrenic nerves. Peripherally, the nerve supply comes through the lower six thoracic nerves.
In the pelvic region, the parietal peritoneum is mainly supplied by the obturator never, which is a branch of the lumbar plexus.
Nerve supply to visceral peritoneum: Unlike the parietal peritoneum, the visceral peritoneum is sensitive only to stretch and tearing. The sensations of touch, pressure or temperature are absent. The sensation of pain arises secondary to tearing and is very limited. It is of less severe nature and is referred to an area of abdominal wall according to the affected region of intestinal tract. The nerve supply comes through the autonomic afferent nerves that supply the underlying viscera or the ones that travel in the mesenteries. Over distension of a viscus causes stretch of visceral peritoneum and leads to pain.
1.
The cavernous sinus comprises one or more venous channels (sometimes a plexus). * It is located in a dural compartment bounded by the body of the sphenoid bone and the anterior portion of the tentorium. In addition to the venous channels, the dural compartment contains (outside the endothelium) the internal carotid artery, sympathetic plexus, abducent nerve, and, further laterally, the oculomotor, trochlear, and ophthalmic nerves
2. The middle cerebral artery, the larger terminal branch of the internal carotid artery, is frequently regarded as the continuation of that vessel. It passes laterally in the lateral fissure and gives rise to numerous branches on the surface of the insula. Small, central branches (lenticulostriate arteries) enter the anterior perforated substance, supplying deeper structures of the hemispheres and are liable to occlusion (lacunar strokes) or rupture (Charcot's "artery of cerebral hemorrhage"). It supplies the motor and premotor areas and the sensory and auditory areas. It also supplies the language areas in the dominant hemisphere.Occlusion of the middle cerebral artery causes a contralateral paralysis (hemiplegia) and a sensory defect. The paralysis is least marked in the lower limb (territory of anterior cerebral artery). When the dominant (usually left) side is involved, there are also disturbances of language (aphasia).
3. The brain is supplied by the two internal carotid and the two vertebral arteries. 4. The subarachnoid space communicates with the fourth ventricle by means of apertures: a
median (Magendie) one and two lateral (Luschka) ones.
5. The ciliary, pterygopalatine, otic, and submandibular ganglia are associated with certain of
the cranial nerves. In these ganglia, parasympathetic fibers synapse, whereas sympathetic and other fibers merely pass through.
1. Hepatic hemengioma is associated with: A. Vinyl Chloride. 2. Which of the disease is common in I/V drug abusers: A. Infective Endocarditis. 3. Typhoid carriers are: A. Usually asymptomatic. 4. Intestinal metaplasia due to reflux esophagitis leads to: A. Adenocarcinoma. 5. Embryological marker that reappears in circulation in Ca Colon is: A. CEA. 6. Which of the following is peculiar for crohn`s disease is: A. Perianal Lesions. 7. Anemia of pregnancy is due to: A. Increase plasma volume. 8. Major complication of severe burn: Formation of granulation tissue. Carcinoma formation. 9. What is Inappropriate about hyper parathyroidism: A. There is increase PO4 renal absorption. 10. A 25 year old lady complaining of palpitations, heat intolerance on examination her pulse is 112b/min, BP 120/80, R/R 20 br/min. She is most probably a case of: A. Hyperthyroidism. 11. Resection of Anterior lobe of pituitary will lead to: A. Decrease glucocorticoids. 12. A 6 year old boy is complaining of proximal muscular weakness was found to be Ca++ channel antibodies positive. The most probable diagnosis is: Lambert Eaten Syndrome. Mysthenia Gravis. 13. In pulmonary embolism, respiratory failure is due to: A. Ventilation / perfusion mismatch. 14. Left ventricular failure will lead to: A. Increase pulmonary arteriolar Pressure. 15. Immediate effect after injury to a vessel is: Vasoconstriction 16. Effects of hyper parathyroidism in Ca. lung is due to: Parathyroid like protein Parathyroid hormone 17. Spleenectomy will help in treating which type of anemia: A. Hereditary Spherocytosis. 18. Malignant Tumor that will not metastasize: A. Basal cell carcinoma.
19. Achlasia is due to: A. Absence of Myenteric plexus. 20. After a traffic accident a lady is brought to a hosp the IMMEDIATE step you do: A. Clear airway. 21. Ameobic infection reaches lungs via: Direct extension from liver. By aspiration of ova of Entameoba histolitica. By aspiration of trophozoits of Entameoba histolitica. Via Portal vein. 22. In Hypothyroidism there is increase in: A. Cholesterol 23. In thyroid disease the antibodies are directed against: A. Thyroglobin. Limbic system: A ring shaped collection of structures including hypothalamus, pituitary gland, thalamus, amygdala, and hippocampus, Plays important role in expression of survival instincts, drives and emotions. They mediate effects of mood on external behavior and play a vital role in keeping conditions inside your body constant. Smell information enters directly into your limbic system which is why smells are often associated with strong memories and emotions and also depicts sexual and sensual feelings both in male and female. Also known as mammalian brain, because it is thought to have emerged in mammals
The phrayngeal Pouches i created a formula for them ... 1A, 2P, 3 TIP, 4 SPUB It might seem even more difficult but let me explain ... 1A .. 1 for the 1st letter of Alphabet which is A stands for Auditory ... So, 1st Pouch gives the epithelial lining of Auditory tube and middle ear cavity 2P ... 2 for the 2nd letter of the Alphabet which is the P ... for Palatine ... So, 2nd pouch gives the epithelial lining of cryPts of Palatine tonsil 3 TIP ... 3 then 3 letters TIP & start with T of Three ... these letters are the
abbreviations given in kaplan for those derivatives and stands for Thymus and Inferior Parathyroid gland 4 SPUB ... 4 then 4 letters SPUB ... Also the abbreviations given in the notes for Superior Parathyroid gland and Ultimobranchial Body The Arches ... The Nerves ... March 1975 i.e. 1975 = X, IX, VII, V and March to remember it is V3 .... Arrange them .... Arch 1 gives V3, 2 gives VII, 3 gives IX and both 4 & 6 will have X The Arteries ... 1st - part of MAXillary a. -------------- 1st arch is MAXimal 2nd- Stapedial a. & Hyoid a. ------- Second for Stapedial 3rd- Common Carotids and parts of internal Carotids ---- C is the 3rd letter of Alphabet 4th- on the lt. --> AORtic Arch and on the Rt.--> Rt. Subclavian ---4th arch (4 limbs) = Systmeic & Also remember that AOR is from FOUR 6th- Pulmonary arteries and Ductus arteriosus ---- 6th arch= Pulmonary and Pulmonary - Systemic Shunt ( Ductus ) Muscles (Mesoderm) & Skeletal (Neural Crest) Derivatives ... 1st arch ... Muscles => V3 innervates M.D. My T.V. i.e. Muscles of mastication ( masseter, temporalis, pterygoid) Digastric ( Anterior Belly) Mylohyoid tensor Tympani tensor Veli Skeletal => I'M getting Skeletal like Silvester
Skeletal remind u of skeletal derivatives then I for the 1 i.e. 1st arch and for Incus M for Malleus/Maxilla/Mandible 2nd Arch .... To remember the Muscles innervated by the CN VII ... Imagine someone making the Facial Expression to say " PSS ... " Facial Expression muscles Posterior Belly of digastric Stapedius ----> and it reminds u of the other skeletal derivative Stapes Stylohyoid -----> and it reminds u of the the Hyoid ... but not all the Hyoid, we still in the 2nd level so choose the lesser that is above i.e. the Lesser Horn of the upper body of the Hyoid.( and when u get to the 3rd arch do the opposite )
6. Because the lung is centered vertically around the heart, part of the lung is superior to the heart,
and part is inferior. This has a major impact on the V/Q ratio apex of lung higher base of lung lower In a subject standing in orthostatic position (upright) the apex of the lung shows higher V/Q ratio, while at the base of the lung the ratio is lower but nearer to the optimal value for reaching adequate blood oxygen concentrations. The main reason for lower V/Q ratios at the base is that both ventilation and perfusion increase when going from the apex to the base, but Q does it more strongly thus lowering the V/Q ratio. The principal factor involved in the genesis of V/Q dishomogeneity between the apex and the base of the lung is gravity (this is why V/Q ratios change in positions other than the orthostatic one).
8. the ventilation/perfusion ratio (or V/Q ratio) is a measurement used to assess the efficiency and
adequacy of the matching of two variables It is defined as: the ratio of the amount of air reaching the alveoli to the amount of blood reaching the alveoli. "V" ventilation the air that reaches the alveoli "Q" perfusion the blood that reaches the alveoli
Epidemic: An outbreak of disease that attacks many peoples at about the same time and may spread through one or several communities. Endemic: a disease that exists permanently in a particular region or population. Malaria is a constant worry in parts of Africa.
9.
IGA:produced in submucosa,dimer,imp component of breast milk,protects mucosal surfaces of body 10. IGE:bound to mast cells and basophils,mediates typ1 allergic reaction,protects against parasites
11. Branches of Facial Nerve: Great Nerve Cut Can Produce Motor Palsy.
G- Greater superficial petrosal nerve N- Nerve to stapedius C- Corda tympani C- Communicating branch P- Posterior auricular nerve M- Muscular branches to stylohyoid and posterior belly of digastric P- Peripheral branches
12. Circumduction>Hemiparesis
Stamping Slapping> Tabes, SACD (POST COLUMN) Spastic> UMN Ataxic>cerebellar lesions Apraxic> Frontal lobe ds-dementia Waddling>B/L sup gluteal N, Muscular dystrophy Festooned>Parkinson Festinant>Parkinson, CO poisoning, AS Positive rhombergs >Sensory ataxia
Question Answer
High Cal, Low phos MC cause of primary MC parathy disorder Low cal, high phos High Cal high Phos PTH vit D receptors Calcitonin receptors Low urine cal, high phos N ALP Bones, Groans, Psychic moans, abdo stones
primary hyperpara single adenoma primary hyperparathy Sec hyperparathy Tertiary hyperpara on osteoblasts Osteoclasts Hypopara Hypoparathy
memorize
13. Fibrous pericardium and the parietal layer of serous pericardium are supplied by
phrenic nerves. The visceral layer of serous pericardium has different innervations than the parietal layer. It is innervated by branches of sympathetic trunks and vagus nerves
Myeloma Ewing's sarcoma Seminoma Moderately radiosensitive tumours are: Small cell lung carcinoma Carcinoma of breast Teratoma Ovarian carcinoma Basal cell carcinoma Medulloblastoma Dysgerminoma Nasopharyngeal carcinoma Relatively Resistant tumours are: Squamous cell carcinoma of lung Hypernephroma (Renal Cell Carcinoma) Rectal carcinoma and carcinoma colon Bladder carcinoma Soft tissue carcinoma such as fibrosarcoma Carcinoma of cervix Highly Resistant tumours are: Melanoma Osteosarcoma Pancreatic carcinoma Hepatoma
Email ThisBlogThis!Share to TwitterShare to Facebook Definitions
Stressed volume is what? Blood volume in the arteries
Which vasculature has the highest largest total cross-sectional and surface area?
Capillaries
R=8visl/pir^4
Decrease
P wave
Atrial depolarization
PR interval
QRS
Ventricle depolarization
QT interval
ST segment
T wave
What is the resting membrane potentials for ventricles, atria, and Purkinje system?
-90mV
Na conductance influx
Phase 3 repolarization
Phases 0,3,4
Phase 0 of SA node?
Inward of Ca
Phase 3 of SA node?
Repolarization of K efflux
Phase 4 of SA node?
Which phases are not present in SA node but present in ventricle AP?
Phase 1, 2
Increases PR interval
What parts of the heart has PANS innervation and what parts dont? What's the neurotransmitter and what receptors?
SA node, atria, and AV node has PANS vagal innervation, ventricles don't! ACh, M3
Increases conduction velocity through AV node Increases inward Ca current phase 0 of AV node.
What type of calcium channels are in heart muscles? What type of receptors?
Ryanodine receptors
Troponin C
EF equation?
EF=SV/EDV
Inotropy
Heart contractility
Inhibiting Na,K ATPase, diminishes Na/Ca counter exchange and causes increased Ca intracellularly
Preload
Afterload
What factor has been increased?Increased in end-diastolic volume, increase in stroke volume
Increased pre-load
What factor has been increased? Decrease in SV, increase in end-sytolic volume
Increased afterload
What factor has been increased? Increased SV, decrease in end-systolic volume
Increased contractility
When cardiac output and venous return are simultaneously plotted, the point they intercept is?
Closing of AV valves
Mitral
Aortic valve
Stretch receptors located within the walls of the carotid sinus near the bifurcation of the common carotid arteries and aortic arches
Which baroreceptors only respond to increase arterial pressure and not decrease arterial pressure?
Aortic baroreceptors
Increase in HR
1. Secretion of aldosterone 2. Increase Na-H exchange in the proximal convoluted tubule. 3. Increases thirst 4. Vasoconstriction of the arteries
Near the bifurcation of the common carotid arteries and along the aortic arch
EDRF is produced where? What does it cause? What is the mechanism of EDRF? What is a form of EDRF?
Produced in endothelial cells Causes relaxation of vascular smooth muscle Mechanism involves activation of cGMP One form of EDRF is NO
Which prostaglandins are vasodilators and which ones are vasoconstrictors? (PGE or PGF)
What are the most important metabolic factors for coronary circulation?
What are the sympathetic innervation receptors on skeletal muscles? What do they cause?
Released from atria when it detects a decrease in blood volume. ADH causes both vasoconstriction and increased water reabsorption
Renal artery
Contractility is increased
The ventricles are completely depolarized during which isoelectric portion of the electrocardiogra?
ST segment
Highest level actually coincides with the beginning of the reduced ventricular ejection phase.
Cardiac output of the right side of the heart is what percentage of the cardiac output of the left side of the heart?
100%
Phase 4
During which of the cardiac cycle does the mitral valve open?
16. The blood supply to the breast is derived from 3 sources. The predominant supply of blood comes from the perforating branches of theinternal mammary arteries, derived from the internal thoracic artery. The breast is further supplied by the lateral thoracic andthoracoacromial arteries (branches of the axillary artery) as well as posterior intercostal arteries (branches of the thoracic aorta). 17. Venous drainage of the breast is mainly accomplished by the axillary vein. The subclavian, intercostal, and internal thoracic veinsalso aid in returning blood to the heart.
Pulmonary vein/ 215 Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure systolic Left ventricular pressure diastolic 3-12 100140