Find the remainder upon dividing 98! by 101.

By Wilson's theorem (problem 34) we know that for every integer n>1, (n-1)! mod n = n -1 which is equivalent to the statement for every integer n>1, (n-1)! mod n = -1 mod n. (FOR N PRIME!) We know that 100 mod 101 = -1 and 99 mod 101 = -2 just from basic modular arithmetic. We also know from Wilson's theorem that (100)! mod 101 = -1 mod 101. The key here is that from what we have above we can rewrite 98!. Since 100! = 100*99*(98!) then 98! = (100!)/ (100*99) and thus: 98! mod 101 = (100!)/ (100*99) mod 101 = (100! mod 101)/ [(100 mod 101) *(99 mod 101)] by distribution and thus: 98! mod 101 = (-1)/(-1 * -2) = -1/2 Which is actually the remainder upon diving 98! by 101. Moreover under mod 101 we can rewrite -1/2 as 50 since: -1/2 = x mod 101 -1 = 2x mod 101 Since x=50 can satisfy this equation we are set. -

Answer 16 page 304 Let p be a prime. (a) Determine the number of irreducible polynomials over Zp of the form x2 + ax + b. (b) Determine the number of irreducible quadratic polynomials over Zp.

Recall that a polynomial with leading coefficient 1 is called 'monic'; so we can restate part (a), as 'Determine the number of irreducible monic polynomials over Zp.' (a) Since Zp is a field, then Zp[x] is a unique factorization domain. Since Zp[x] is a unique factorization domain, then for any pair m, n of elements of Zp[x], there is exactly one monic polynomial of degree 2 with m and n as roots [namely, the polynomial (x - m)(x - n) ]. So let us count the reducible monic polynomials by counting all possible pairs of roots. There are p(p 1) / 2 different ways to pick two distinct roots, and there are p different ways to pick both roots the same. So there are p(p - 1) / 2 + p different reducible monic polynomials. So there are p^2 - p(p - 1) / 2 - p different irreducible monic polynomials. This simplifies to (p^2 - p) / 2. (b) Since Zp[x] is a unique factorization domain, then multiplying a polynomial in Zp[x] by a unit in Zp[x] does not change whether that polynomial is reducible or not. So for each of the (p^2 - p) / 2 irreducible quadratic polynomials from part (a), we could multiply it by 1, 2, 3, 4, ..., or p - 1, and get a different irreducible quadratic polynomial in each case. [The polynomials would look like (x - m)(x - n), 2(x - m)(x - n), 3(x - m)(x - n), and so on.] These will be all the irreducible quadratic polynomials.

So the number of irreducible quadratic polynomials is (p - 1)(p^2 - p) / 2, which simplifies to (p^3 2p^2 + p) / 2.

Answer 17 page 243

All this means is that for two idempotent elements a and b, their product is also idempotent. (ab)^2 = abab = aabb = a^2 * b^2 = ab where the abab = aabb is because we're in a commutative ring. Hence the product of any two idempotents is idempotent, so it's closed under Answer 33 (b) (1 - e)^2 = 1 - 2 e + e^2 = 1 - 2 e + e = 1 e Answer 39 page 244 First suppose the multiplicative identity 1 has finite order n > 0. So n*1 = 0 Then for any element x, nx = (n*1)x = 0*x = 0 So every element has additive order less than or equal to n. Now suppose we have a nonzero element x with additive order m < n. Then mx = 0. But m is an element of the integral domain and x is nonzero, so since there are no nonzero zero divisors, m = 0 (in the integral domain) i.e. m*1 = 0 So the additive order of 1 must be less than or equal to m, which contradicts that m < n. Therefore every nonzero element has additive order n.

Finally, if 1 has infinite additive order then we show that all nonzero elements have infinite additive order. For suppose x is a nonzero element with finite additive order. Then mx = 0 for some m > 0. But again, since there are no nonzero zero divisors and x is nonzero, we must conclude that m = 0 (in the integral domain) i.e. m*1 = 0. So 1 has finite additive order, contradiction. Answer 41 page 244 A field is an integral domain. It has some characteristic. Say char(F)=p. We know p is not zero -- otherwise the following would all be distinct elements of F: 1 1+1 1+1+1 1+1+1+1 1+1+1+1+1 etc... So F has some nonzero characteristic p. So, more to the point, F has a cyclic subgroup (additive subgroup, that is) generated by 1 with order p. (Notice: If p were not prime, we would have zero divisors in this ring -- it would not be a field. So we are sure p is prime. You may have already proved

an integral domain must have prime characteristic.) Call this subgroup F1. If F = F1, you are done and |F|=|F1|=p. Otherwise, there is some number of elements that live outside of F1. Say there are n-1 of them. Then every element of F1 can be written as a (unique, distinct) linear combination of 1 and these elements not in F1. That gives precisely p^n possible linear combinations. Thus |F|=p^n for some n. F1, for your information, is called the prime subfield. It captures some essential parts of the behavior of F, and in fact, F is a vector space over F1 of dimension n. Pretty interesting stuff.

Answer 56 page 245

Let F be a field of order 8. So F is a finite extension of Z/2Z of degree 3, which I'll write [F:Z/2Z] = 3. Let a, b be in F, and suppose that a^2+ab+b^2 = 0. If b = 0, then a^2 = 0, so a = 0. Now suppose that b is nonzero. Then we may divide by b^2 to get: (a/b)^2+(a/b)+1 = 0 Now a/b 0, 1, since neither 0 nor 1 satisfy this relation. Thus a/b is an element algebraic over Z/2Z of degree 2 (satisfying the irreducible polynomial x^2+x+1), and the field: K = (Z/2Z)[a/b] is a degree 2 extension of Z/2Z, which I'll write [K:Z/2Z] = 2. But K is a subfield of F, and we have: [F:Z/2Z] = [F:K][K:Z/2Z] or: 3 = 2[F:K] which is impossible. The general idea is the same: let F have 2^n elements, repeat the proof above replacing 3 with n everywhere. Conclude: n = 2[F:K] which is impossible if n is odd.

Answer:33 page 322 Prove that if is a nontrivial ideal, then is finite.

Let be a nonzero ideal. We know that every ideal in for some Gaussian integer . Let be a coset of ; since

is principal, so that is a Euclidean domain is

and , we have , where . That is, every coset in represented by an element whose norm is strictly less than . We claim that for a fixed , only finitely many elements can have see this, let have norm ; that is, . Certainly it must be the case that , so that there are only finitely many possibilities for . Thus there are only finitely many possible representatives of distinct cosets in Hence is finite. .

. To

Answer: 29 page 322

You just need to show that <p> is maximal. Suppose I is an ideal of D properly containing <p>. We want to show that I = D. Since D is a PID, we have I = ,<a> for some a in D. Then p is in I, so p = ab for some b in D. Since p is irreducible, one of a or b is a unit. If b is a unit then a = pb^(-1) is in <p>, which contradicts that I properly contains <p>. Therefore a is a unit, and we have 1 = aa^(-1) as an element of <a>. It follows that <a> = D.

Question :3 page 320 It should be clear that the ideal generated by ab is contained in the ideal generated by b. Proper containment follows from the following claim. b is not in the ideal generated by ab. Proof: Suppose not. Then b = abx for some x in the integral domain. Then abx - b = 0, i.e. b(ax - 1) = 0. Since this is an integral domain we either have b = 0 or ax - 1 = 0. But b = 0 contradicts that b is nonzero and ax - 1 = 0 contradicts that a is not a unit.