Question 1: An anti hypoglycaemic, causing a breakdown of stored glycogen to glucose and inhibits the synthesis of glycogen from glucose

A) Dextrose 10% B) Glucagon C) Lignocaine D) Paracetamol Question 2: Inhibits prostaglandin production. A) Atropine B) Paracetamol C) Aspirin Question 3: Selective 5HT3 receptor antagonist, reduces nausea and vomiting by blocking receptors in brain and GI tract A) Metachloprimide B) Paracetamol C) Ondansetron Question 4: Natural narcotic analgesic, which acts on opiate receptors in the CNS resulting in analgesia A) Fentanyl B) Morphine C) Entonox D) Midazolam Question 5: Blocks inward movement of sodium ions across nerve cell membrane, resulting in reversible impulse propagation blockade along nerve fibres A) Lignocaine B) Midazolam C) Fentanyl D) Morphine Question 6: Broad spectrum cephalosporin antibiotic. Disrupts bacterial cell walls resulting in cell rupture A) Salbutamol B) Ceftriaxone C) GTN Question 7: Non depolarising skeletal muscle relaxant, inhibiting neuromuscular transmission by competitively binding with acetylcholine to motor end plate receptors A) Suxamethonium B) Vecuronium C) Ketamine D) Midazolam Question 8: Expands intravascular and extracellular fluid volumes A) Glucose 10% B) Sodium chloride 0.9% Question 9: Narcotic antagonist competing for and displacing narcotic molecules from opiate receptors A) Naloxone B) Ketamine C) Midazolam D) Entonox Question 10: Absorbed in lungs and bound to hemaglobin A) Salbutamo B) Oxygen C) Entonox Question 11: Inhaled anaesthetic, CNS depressant. A) Entonox B) Salbutamol C) Ipratropium

D) GTN Question 12: Potent vasodilator with antianginal, anti ischaemia,and anti hypertensive effects. Relaxes vascular smooth muscle promoting peripheral pooling, decreasing preload and after load A) Aspirin B) Entonox C) Glyceryl trinitrate D) Vecuronium Question 13: An inhibitor of platelet aggregation by blocking formation of thromboxane A2 and prostoglandin A) Aspirin B) GTN C) Glucagon D) Vecuronium Question 14: Induces relaxation and reduces pain sensitivity by altering tissue excitability A) Morphine B) Entonox C) Methoxyflurane D) Paracetamol Question 15: Synthetic narcotic agonist, with faster onset and shorter duration then morphine A) Morphine B) Ipratropium C) Fentanyl D) Naloxone Question 16: It is an antimuscurenic, blocking muscurenic responses to acetylcholine, opposing the action of the vagus nerve, increasing SA node discharge and AV node conduction A) Adrenaline B) Atropine C) Adenosine D) Midazolam Question 17: Short acting benzodiazepine, intensifies the activity of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA A) Naloxone B) Midazolam C) Loratadine D) Entonox Question 18: Long acting non sedating antihistamine with selective peripheral H1 antagonist activity. Blocks action of histamine, reducing itching, redness and hives A) Loratadine B) Midazolam C) Adrenaline Question 19: Sympathise metric beta 2 specific bronchodilating agonist A) Ipratropium B) GTN C) Salbutamol Question 20: Anticholenergic blocks parasympathetic action on bronchiol smooth muscle, dilating bronchioles and decreasing secretions A) Ipratropium B) Glyceryl tri nitrate C) Salbutamol D) Entonox Question 21: Naturally occurring catecholamine that acts directly on both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors, resulting in increased myocardial contraction, HR, and cardiac output, bronchodilation, and mucus secretion and histamine inhibition A) Morphine B) Ceftriaxone C) Adrenaline

D) Glyceryl trinitrate Question 22: Class 3 antiarrhythmic, acts directly on cardiac tissue prolonging the action potential and refractory periods A) Adrenaline B) Amiodarone C) Adenosine D) Atropine Question 23: It slows conduction through the AV node, causing a transient heart block A) Atropine B) Amiodarone C) Suxamethonum D) Adenosine Question 24: Depolarising neuromuscular blocker. Acetylcholine antagonist at neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle preventing skeletal muscle from contracting A) Vecuronium B) Suxamethonium Question 25: Rapid acting general anaesthetic, producing and anaesthetic state characterised by profound analgesia, normal pharyngeal/laryngeal reflexes, cardiovascular and respiratory stimulation A) Ketamine B) Morphine C) Fentanyl D) Entonox

Answer key:
1) Correct answer: Glucagon 2) Correct answer: Paracetamol 3) Correct answer: Ondansetron 4) Correct answer: Morphine 5) Correct answer: Lignocaine 6)Correct answer: Ceftriaxone 7) Correct answer: Vecuronium 8)Correct answer: Sodium chloride 0.9% 9)Correct answer: Naloxone 10) Correct answer: Oxygen

11) Correct answer: Entonox 12) Correct answer: Glyceryl trinitrate 13) Correct answer: Aspirin 14) Correct answer: Methoxyflurane 15) Correct answer: Fentanyl 16) Correct answer: Atropine 17)Correct answer: Midazolam 18) Correct answer: Loratadine 19) Correct answer: Salbutamol 20) Correct answer: Ipratropium 21)Correct answer: Adrenaline 22)Correct answer: Amiodarone 23) Correct answer: Adenosine 24) Correct answer: Suxamethonium 25)Correct answer: Ketamine

Answers: 1) Pharmacodynamics is the study of what happens to a drug once inside the body - TRUE - Nod like receptors - CD14 Correct answer: FALSE 2) Drug-Receptor interactions are studied as a part of - Pharmacokinetics - Nod like receptors - CD14 Correct answer: Pharmacodynamics 3) What is the most important method of drug transfer across cell membranes? - Facilitated diffusion - Pinocytosis - Active Transport

Correct answer: Passive diffusion 4) With increasing pH, acids become increasingly ionised - FALSE - Surface area of membrane - Thickness of me membrane Correct answer: TRUE 5) With increasing pH, acids become increasingly ionised - FALSE - Surface area of membrane - Thickness of me membrane Correct answer: TRUE 6) Which of the following is a basic drug? - Paracetamol - Aspirin - Warfarin Correct answer: Atenolol 7) Which of the following is an acidic drug? - Atropine - Diazepam - Amiodarone Correct answer: Enalapril 8) Which of the following is not applicable to IV methods of administration - Pharmacokinetics - Pharmacokinetics - Distribution Correct answer: Absorption 9) Rectal administration of drugs bypasses 1st pass metabolism - TRUE - Pharmacokinetics - Distribution Correct answer: FALSE 10) Acidic drugs are absorbed mainly in the stomach - TRUE - Pharmacokinetics - Distribution Correct answer: FALSE 11) The metabolism of drugs carried out by gut flora is known as - 1st pass metabolism - 2nd pass metabolism - Microbial metabolism Correct answer: Pre-systemic metabolism 12) Which of the following best describes protein binding - Both plasma and tissue protein binding increase distribution - Plasma protein binding increases distribution whereas tissue protein binding decreases distribution

- Both plasma and tissue protein binding decrease distribution Correct answer: Plasma protein binding decreases distribution whereas tissue protein binding enhances distribution 13) Basic drugs are mainly bound to - trypsin - lipoproteins - albumin Correct answer: a1-acid glycoprotein 14) Which of the following is not an example of a Phase 1 reaction? - Hydrolysis - Reduction - Oxidation Correct answer: Conjugation 15) Water soluble drugs are excreted exclusively in urine - TRUE - Reduction - Oxidation Correct answer: FALSE 16) Which of the following is an example of a drug that undergoes enterohepatic recirculation? - SSRIs - Rifampicin - Digoxin Correct answer: Tetracyclines 17) Sodium bicarbonate can be administered to - Make urine more acidic to enhance base clearance - Rifampicin - Digoxin Correct answer: Make urine more alkaline to enhance acid clearance 18) Which of the following is the most common target for clinical drugs? - Ion channels - Nuclear receptors - Cytosolic proteins Correct answer: GPCRs 19) In GPCRs, which subunit dissociates and attaches to an effector molecule? - Gy - Gb - Gs Correct answer: Ga 20) m2 receptors are attached to inhibotry G proteins that work by affecting Na+ channels - TRUE - Gb - Gs Correct answer: FALSE 21) Which of the following is NOT attached to a stimulatory G protein (Gs) - B1

- 5-HT4 - D1 Correct answer: 5-HT2 22) Which of the following is a GPCR linked receptor that achieves its effects by increasing the levels of intracellular calcium? - b1 - m4 - a2 Correct answer: a1 23) Ionotropic glutamate receptors have 5 subunits per channel - TRUE - m4 - a2 Correct answer: FALSE 24) Nicotinic ACh, GABAa and 5-HT3 receptors are all examples of - 2nd messenger gated ion channels - GPCRs - Voltage gated ion channels Correct answer: Cys-loop gated ion channels 25) Antagonists are drugs that bind to a receptor and subsequently inactivate it - TRUE - GPCRs - Voltage gated ion channels Correct answer: FALSE 26) Competitive agonists - Shift the dose-response curve to the right - Reduce the Emax - Have no effect on EC50 Correct answer: Shift the dose-response curve to the left 27) If spare receptors are present - EC50 will be greater than Kd - Reduce the Emax - Have no effect on EC50 Correct answer: EC50 will be less than Kd 28) If spare receptors are present - EC50 will be greater than Kd - Reduce the Emax - Have no effect on EC50 Correct answer: EC50 will be less than Kd 29) If spare receptors are present - EC50 will be greater than Kd - Reduce the Emax - Have no effect on EC50 Correct answer: EC50 will be less than Kd 30) If spare receptors are present

- EC50 will be greater than Kd - Reduce the Emax - Have no effect on EC50 Correct answer: EC50 will be less than Kd 31) In humans, therapeutic index is defined as - HD50/ED50 - Kd/LD50 - LD50/ED50 Correct answer: TD50/ED50 32) Nicotinic adrenergic receptors are found - In parasympathetic only - In sympathetic only - LD50/ED50 Correct answer: In both the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems 33) Which of the following is NOT a feature of the sympathetic system - ACh releasing preganglionic fibres - Thoracolumbar outflow - Mass response Correct answer: Short postganglionic fibres 34) The spleen recieves parasympathetic innervation only - TRUE - Thoracolumbar outflow - Mass response Correct answer: FALSE 35) Which of the following is associated with a GPCR that activates Phospholipase C - a2 receptors - b3 receptors - b2 receptors Correct answer: a1 receptors 36) b1 receptors - Cause bronchodilation - Cause vasodilation of arteries supplying skeletal muscle - Cause relaxation of the GI tract Correct answer: Increase the rate and force of heart contraction 37) Which of the following is NOT a function of B1 receptors - Increasing renin secretion from the kidneys - Increasing lipolysis in adipocytes - Causing contraction of the splenic capsule Correct answer: Decreasing insulin release from the pancreas 38) Contraction of various urinary organs including the prostate, uterus, vas deferens and ureter is caused by - parasympathetic stimulation of muscarinic receptors - parasypathetic stimulation of a1 receptors - sympathetic stimulation of muscarinic receptors Correct answer: sympathetic stimulation of a1 receptors

39) Which of the following is NOT associated with GPCRs - Adrenergic receptors - Muscarinic cholinergic receptors - Insulin receptors Correct answer: Nicotinic cholinergic receptors 40) Which of the following is a special case of GPCR that works by opening 2nd-messenger linked ion channels? - M3 - B2 - A1 Correct answer: M2