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MCQ IN ANATOMY &PHYSIOLOGY .

Chapter 10: Blood


.a- passive transport .b- Endocytosis .c- Phagocytosis .d- Diapedesis

The process by which white blood cells move into and out of the blood vessels -1( ) ?is called

?A decrease in the oxygen-carrying ability of the blood-2 ( )


.a- is caused from carbon dioxide .b- leads to thrombocytosis .c- can lead to an immediate death .d- is called, in any form, anemia

The doctor pricks your finger, takes some blood and does a WBC count. -3 ( ) The count indicates 12,500 cells/cubed millimeter. This is known as leukocytosis. ?What could you conclude
.a- A low WBC count, caused by certain drugs and anti-cancer agents .b- You've received a blood transfusion, and are having a transfusion reaction .c- You are perfectly healthy and no infections in the blood .d- A high WBC count, indicating a bacterial or viral infection

While blood typing, the sample is mixed with anti-A serum and anti-B -4 ( ) ?serum. There is no agglutination. You could conclude
.a- The sample is type O .b- The sample is type AB .c- The sample is type B .d- The sample is type A

Type O blood is known as -5 ( )


.a- The least common blood type among US white population .b- The universal donor .c- The universal recipient

?The major function of the water in plasma is -6 ( )


.a- for osmotic balance, pH buffering and clotting of blood .b- for transport of oxygen and help transport carbon dioxide .c- a solvent for carrying other substances .d- for regulation of membrane permeability

?Formed elements of the blood-7 ( )


.a- produce contents of plasma .b- are megakaryocytes .c- carry salts and buffer the pH of blood .d- Include erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets

?The normal pH of blood-8 ( )


.a - 6,-6, 6, 4 .b- is generally slightly acidic .c- 8,-1, 8, 0 .d- Is about 7.4

?An inadequate hemoglobin content in RBC-9 ( )


.a- can lead to pernicious anemia .b- Is called hemorrhagic anemia .c- can be a result of heavy menstrual flow or bleeding ulcer, and called iron-deficiency anemia .d- causes sickle-cell anemia

When a huge number of immature WBCs are produced in the bone -10 ( ) marrow, it can cause the body to become easy prey for bacteria and viruses. This ?is called
.a- leucopenia .b- anemia .c- leucopenia .d- leukemia .e- leukocytosis

?Erythropoietin controls-11 ( )
.a- production of bone marrow .b- how much oxygen the RBCs can carry .c- The kidney by monitoring the amount of oxygen in the blood .d- The rate of erythrocyte production

?Characteristics of RBC include-12 ( )


.a- Multinucleate when immature, live about 100 days, carry oxygen .b- Are generated in reticulocyte, take 8 days to form, live 100-120 days c- arise from a type of stem cell called hemocytoblast, multinucleate and about 100RBC: 1 .WBC .d- anucleate when mature, contain hemoglobin, live 100-120 days

The rapid sequence of vascular spasms, platelet plug formation and -13 ( ) ?coagulation is known as
.a- hemostasis .b- erythropoiesis .c- hematopoiesis .d- hemophilia

?A cerebral embolus can be caused from-14 ( )


.a- a clot that breaks away, and attempts to flow through a vessel in the brain that is too narrow .b- a freely flowing clot moving throughout the heart .c- a stroke .d- a clot remaining in an unbroken blood vessel

A transfusion reaction is rarely fatal, but can cause /have these -15 ( ) ?characteristics
.a- fever, chills and nausea .b- agglutination, causing blockage of small vessels .c- all of the above .d- lysing of RBC, releasing hemoglobin into the blood

?During hemostasis, hairlike molecules of protein form, this protein is-16 ( )


.a- thromboplastin .b- fibrin .c- serotonin .d- Elastin

?''A hereditary bleeding disorder, commonly called the "bleeders disease -17 ( )
.a- hemophilia .b- hemocytosis .c- thrombocytopenia .d- hematocrit

?A measure of the percent of RBC in whole blood-18 ( )


.a- hemocytometer .b- Often called the buffy coat .c- hematocrit .d- 55%

A normal salt content in the blood is normal, what is the function of the -19 ( ) ?salts
.a- to help fight foreign invaders .b- Osmotic balance, pH buffering and regulation of membrane permeability .c- blood clotting .d- solutes carry other substances to the capillaries

The most numerous white blood cell, which are active phagocytes and -20 ( ) ?increase rapidly during acute infections
.a- monocyte b- basophil c- eosinophil d- neutrophil .e- lymphocyte

?Blood does each of the following except-21 ( )


.a- transport nutrients .b- increase fluid loss .c- regulate body temperature .d- regulate pH

?Each of the following occurs when blood clots after a cut except-22 ( )
.a- thrombin converts fibrin into fibrinogen .b- thromboplastin converts prothrombin into thrombin .c- platelets release clotting factor .d- fibrin filaments trap cells to produce a clot

?Approximately 55 percent of blood is-23 ( )


.a- lymph .b- plasma .c- red blood cells .d- white blood cells

?The fluid that leaks into the tissues from the blood is-24 ( )
.a- useless .b- plasma c- harmfull .d- lymph

?Each of the following is true of red blood cells except that they-25 ( )
.a- contain hemoglobin .b- live about 30 days .c- are anucleate .d- are formed in the red marrow

?Unlike red blood cells, white blood cells-26 ( )


.a- have a nucleus .b- contain hemoglobin .c- are biconcave .d- live for one week

?The term that is unrelated to the others is -27 ( )


.a- phagocytosis .b- blood clotting .c- leukocytes .d- antibodies

A protein in the plasma which contributes to the osmotic pressure of -28 ( ) ?blood
.a- elastin .b- prothrombin .d-thrombin c- Albumin 3

?In a normal hematocrit, the buffy coat accounts for -29 ( )


.a- all of the white blood cells and plasma .b- approximately 10 percent of whole blood .c- The top portion of the centrifuged blood .d- approximately 1 percent of blood volume

Although it carries much oxygen, it is more attracted to pesticides and -30 ( ) ?carbon monoxide
.a- white blood cells .b- plasma .c- Thrombin .d- Hemoglobin

?Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are alike in that they -31 ( )


.a- are granulocytes .b- are the only phagocytic leukocytes .c- lack a defined nucleus .d- release histamine

?The largest of all WBCs is the -32 ( )


a- Neutrophil b- Eosinophil .c- Monocyte .d- Lymphocyte e- Basophil

The WBC which increases during allergic reactions and parasitic worm -33 ( ) ?infections
.a- Lymphocytes .b- Basophils .c- Neutrophils .d- Eosinophils .e- Monocytes

Fragments of megakaryocytes which rupture into pieces and responsible -34 ( ) ?for clotting
.a- RBC .b- antibodies .c- platelets .d- WBC

?--------When oxygen levels are low, the _______ is stimulated to release -35 ( )
.a- bone, oxygen .b- kidney, erythropoietin .c- bone, erythropoietin .d- Liver, calcitonin

?Hematopoiesis primarily occurs in -36 ( )


.a- liver .b- Flat bones & epiphyses of long bones .c- kidneys .d- Irregular bones

?A woman with blood type O has a baby with type O. The father -37 ( )
.a- Could be A, B or O; but in no way AB .b- Could possibly be AB .d-Is Rh. c- Must be type O

The WBC which has a very thin rim of cytoplasm, thus having a large -38 ( ) ?spherical nucleus is
a- Basophil b- Eosinophil 4

c- Neutrophil .d- Monocyte .e- Lymphocyte

?Active macrophages that work in long-term cleanup of tissues -39 ( )


a- Neutrophil b- Eosinophil .c- Lymphocyte d- Basophil .e- Monocyte

?The WBC which releases histamine at sites of inflammation -40 ( )


.a- Lymphocyte b- Eosinophil c- Basophil .d- Monocyte e- Neutrophil

.Self test Chapter 10: Blood a) 1- Which term refers to the ) movement of white blood cells between endothelial cells lining capillary walls to ?enter the tissue
a- Diapedesis b- Polycythemia c- Hemostasis d- Leukopenia

?b) 2- Which of these cells produce histamine and are involved in allergy)
a- Lymphocytes b- Basophils c- Neutrophils d- Erythrocytes

?d) 3- An example of a formed element in blood is)


a- Plasma proteins b- Electrolytes c- Water d- Leukocytes

?b) 4- Which of the cells below are active phagocytes)


a- Lymphocytes b- Neutrophils c- Basophils d- Erythrocytes

?d) 5- Which type of blood cell differs from others because it is anucleate )
a- Monocytes b- Neutrophils c- Basophils d- Erythrocytes

?a) 6- Which of the following is a clot that forms in an uninjured vessel )


a- Thrombus b- Hemophilia c- Thrombocytopenia d- Embolus

b) 7- During hemostasis, which chemical is released by the platelet plug to trigger) ?vessel spasms which in turn decrease blood loss
a- Thromboplastin b- Serotonin d- Fibrinogen c- Prothrombin 5

d) 8- Any hereditary bleeding disorder resulting from lack of clotting factors is ) ?called
a- Thrombocytopenia b- Embolus c- Thrombus d- Hemophilia

c) 9- Which term below refers to a molecule which the body recognizes as ) ?foreign
a- Agglutination b- Antibody c- Antigen d- Rh factor

?b) 10- Hemolytic disease in a newborn is most likely in)


a- The first born Rh+ baby of an Rh- mother b- The second born Rh+ baby of an Rh- mother c- The first born Rh- baby of an Rh- mother d- The second born Rh- baby of an Rh- mother

?b) 11- What is the most common blood type in the U.S. population)
a- B a- B b- O b- O c- A c- AB d- AB d- A

?c) 12- Which blood type allows a patient to be a universal recipient) a) 13- Very young and very old patients are more likely to develop leukocytosis ) ?which may be indicative of
a- Leukemia b- Physiologic jaundice c- Hemolytic disease of the newborn d- Bleeder's disease

c) 14- By age 7 months, what becomes the primary site of hematopoiesis in a ) ?fetus
a- Liver b- Spleen c- Red marrow d- Thymus

.Chapter 11: The Cardiovascular System


?The tissue which forms a loose-fitting sac around the heart is the -1 ( )
a- endocardium b- parietal pericardium c- visceral pericardium d- myocardium e- epicardium

The layer of serous membrane that covers the heart that lies closest to the -2 ( ) ?sternum is the
a- endocardium b- parietal pericardium c- myocardium d- visceral pericardium e- epicardium

?Heart muscle is also called -3 ( )


a- visceral pericardium b- epicardium c- endocardium d- myocardium 6

e- endothelium

What is the specific name of the tissue that lines all the chambers of the -4 ( ) ?heart
a- endothelium b- endocardium c- simple cuboidal epithelium d- simple squamous epithelium

?Blood flows from the right ventricle into the -5 ( )


a- pulmonary trunk b- pulmonary veins c- coronary artery d- right atrium e- superior vena cava

Blood returning from the pulmonary part of the circulatory system enters -6 ( ) ?the _______ of the heart
a- left ventricle b- left atrium c- right ventricle d- right atrium e- sinus venosus

?The tricuspid valve prevents flow of blood from the -7 ( )


a- pulmonary trunk to the right ventricle b- right ventricle to the pulmonary arch c- right atrium into the left atrium d- right ventricle to the right atrium e- left ventricle to the left atrium

?The mitral valve is on the same side of the heart as the -8 ( )


a- superior vena cava b- aortic semilunar valve c- tricuspid valve d- pulmonary semilunar valve e- opening of the coronary sinus

The cusps of the atrio-ventricular (A/V) valves are anchored to the -9 ( ) ?papillary muscles by the
a- pericardium b- chordae tendinae c- intercalated discs d- fossa ovalis e- coronary sinus

?What is the first branch off the base of the aorta -10 ( )
a- brachiocephalic artery b- left common carotid artery c- left subclavian artery d- right common carotid artery e- coronary artery

?Blood vessels carrying blood away from the heart are called -11 ( )
a- veins b- capillaries c- coronaries d- arteries e- lymphatics

?What is the heart's pacemaker -12 ( )


a- medulla oblongata 7

b- Atrio-Ventricular (A/V) node c- Sino-Atrial (S/A) node d- Cranial nerve X - Vagus nerve e- both a and d above are correct

When considering the heart sounds (frequently given as lub, dup), we -13 ( ) ?should realize that
a- the first sound is caused by contraction of the Purkinje fibers, the second by contraction of the papillary muscles b- the first sound is caused by closure of the A/V valves, the second by closure of the semilunar valves c- the first sound is caused by closure of the tricuspid valve, the second by closure of the mitral valve d- they are caused by contraction of the ventricles, followed by contraction of the atria e- the first sound is caused by closure of the mitral valve, the second by closure of the tricuspid valve

?The correct sequence of parts that function to carry cardiac impulses is -14 ( )
a- S/A Node ===> A/V Node ===> Atrioventricular bundle ===> Purkinje fibers b- S/A Node ===> Purkinje fibers ===> A/V Node ===> Atrioventricular bundle c- A/V Node ===> Atrioventricular bundle ===> Purkinje fibers ===> S/A Node d- Atrioventricular bundle ===> S/A Node ===> A/V Node ===> Purkinje fibers e- A/V Node ===> S/A Node ===> purkinje fibers ===> Atrioventricular bundle

?What is the portion of the ECG that indicates ventricular repolarization -15 ( )
a- R spike b- QRS complex c- P-Q interval d- P wave e- T wave

?The product of the stroke volume and the heart rate is known as the-16 ( )
a- cardiac reserve b- end-systolic volume c- blood pressure d- cardiac output e- end-diastolic volume

What is the circulatory route that runs from the digestive tract to the -17 ( ) ?liver called
a- systemic circuit b- hepatic portal system c- renal portal system d- pulmonary circuit e- coronary circuit

You are not an athlete and you are not physical fit. If you suddenly -18 ( ) partake in physical exercise, then the increased demands of such vigorous exercise ?on your body are met primarily by
a- increased stroke volume b- increased heart rate c- increased blood volume d- all of a, b and c above are correct e- only b and c above are correct

?The umbilical vein carries -19 ( )


a- Metabolic wastes and carbon dioxide from the fetus to the placent b- oxygen and foods from the fetus to the placenta c- from the navel directly into the inferior vena cava d- oxygen and foods from the placenta to the fetus 8

?Which of the following fetal structures carries the most oxygenated blood -20 ( )
a- umbilical arteries b- foramen ovale c- ductus arteriosus d- umbilical vein e- ductus venosus

?What serous membrane encloses the heart -21 ( )


a- cutaneous membrane b- pericardium c- peritoneum d- pleura e- synovial membrane

This heart valve prevents the return of blood to the right atrium from the -22 ( ) ?right ventricle
a- mitral valve b- aortic semilunar valve c- bicuspid valve d- tricuspid valve e- pulmonary semilunar valve

?Which on of the following blood vessels carries oxygen-rich blood -23 ( )


a- pulmonary trunk b- Coronary sinus c- pulmonary vein d- superior vena cava e- inferior vena cava

Identify the final portion of the intrinsic conduction system of the heart -24( ) which carries the wave of depolarization over the ventricles causing them to ?contract from the heart apex toward the atria
a- atrioventricular bundle b- Purkinje fibers c- bundle branches d- atrioventricular node e- sinoatrial node

Which one of the following blood vessels returns blood to the left side of the -25( ) ?heart or left atrium
a- coronary sinus b- pulmonary artery c- superior vena cava d- pulmonary vein e- aorta

?Blood exits the right ventricle in which one of the following blood vessels -26 ( )
a- pulmonary vein b- coronary artery c- aorta d- pulmonary trunk e- superior vena cava

Which of the following is involved in anchoring the AV valve flaps to the -27 ( ) ?walls of the ventricles
a- Purkinje fibers b- chordae tendinae c- cuspidors d- fenestrations e- adhesions 9

Which of the following indicates atrial depolarization in an -28 ( ) ?electrocardiogram


a- QT interval b- U wave c- P wave d- T wave e- QRS complex

?Which of the following would not lead to an increase in cardiac output -29 ( )
a- release of epinephrine into the bloodstream b- an increase in sympathetic stimulation c- an increase in stroke volume d- an increase in heart rate e- a decrease in venous return

Exchanges of nutrients, gases, wastes, etc. between blood and tissue cells -30 ( ) ?occurs at
a- capillaries b- venules c- veins d- arterioles e- arteries

Which of the following blood vessels is NOT part of the systemic -31 ( ) ?circulation
a- inferior vena cava b- carotid arteries c- pulmonary artery d- aorta e- coronary artery

During fetal existence, this short blood vessel connects the pulmonary -32 ( ) trunk to the aorta allowing blood to bypass the fetal lungs which are ?nonfunctional
a- umbilical vein b- ductus venosus c- foramen ovale d- ductus arteriosus e- umbilical artery

Most often, systemic arterial blood pressure is measured in this artery -33 ( ) ?using the auscultatory method using a stethoscope and sphygmomanometer
a- carotid artery b- brachial artery c- femoral artery d- radial artery e- aorta

Which of the following conditions is characterized by a rapid -34 ( ) ?uncoordinated shuddering of the heart muscle
a- tachycardia b- bradycardia c- fibrillation d- angina pectoris e- myocardial infarction

?Which of the following would NOT cause an increase in the heart rate -35 ( )
a- release of epinephrine into the blood b- exercise 10

c- sympathetic stimulation d- an increase in body temperature e- stimulation of the vagus nerve

Which of the following drugs acts in a similar way to the vagus nerves to slow and -3 ?steady the heart resulting in a stronger heartbeat
a- digitalis b- angiotensin II c- thyroxine d- epinephrine e- renin

Compared to an artery, the wall of a vein differs in which of the following -37 ( ) ?ways
a- It contains smooth muscle b- It consists of three coats c- The outer coat is composed largely of collagen fibers d- The middle coat is thin e- It is lined by a thin layer of endothelium

This unique feature connects the anterior and posterior blood supplies of -38( ) the brain providing more than one route for blood to reach brain tissue in a given ?area
a- circle of Willis b- bundle branches c- coronary circulation d- ductus arteriosus e- hepatic portal circulation

?Which of the following is NOT true during ventricular systole -39 ( )


a- intraventricular pressure rises b- chordae tendinae prevent AV valve flaps from flipping up into the atria c- semilunar valves close d- the atria are relaxed e- AV valves close

Which of the following does not aid the return of venous blood to the heart -40 ( ) ?from the lower extremities
a- valves in veins b- the large lumen of veins ''c- the muscle "pump ''d- the respiratory "pump e- gravity

.Chapter 11: The Cardiovascular System Self Test ?a) 1- The cardiac output of the heart is)
a- The amount of blood pushed from each ventricle in one minute b- The amount of blood entering the pulmonary circulation c- The amount of blood pushed from a ventricle with each beat d- The number of beats per minute

c) 2- Freshly oxygenated blood from pulmonary circulation is first received by)


a- Right atrium b- Right ventricle c- Left atrium d- Left ventricle

c) 3- Which condition is the result of lack of oxygen to the muscle of the heart ) ?causing extreme pain in the chest
a- Fibrillation 11

b- Arteriosclerosis c- Angina pectoris d- An infarct e- Heart block

?a) 4- Which part of the nodal system is considered the "pacemaker" of the heart)
a- Sinoatrial (SA) node b- Bundle branches c- Atrioventricular bundle d- Atrioventricular (AV) node e- Purkinje fibers

b) 5- Lack of blood supply to the heart, resulting in rapid, uncoordinated shuddering ?heart muscle, is called
a- An infarct b- Fibrillation c- Angina pectoria d- Heart block e- Arteriosclerosis

d) 6- Which blood vessel tunic is composed of smooth muscle and controls the ) ?diameter of the vessel
a- Myocardium b- Tunica externa c- Tunica intima d- Tunica media

e) 7- Which structures of fetal circulation are designed to bypass the lungs in an ) ?unborn baby
a- Pulmonary arteries and veins b- Hepatic vein and aorta c- Umbilical arteries and veins d- Aorta and vena cava e- Ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale

d) 8- Which vessel delivers blood to the liver from the digestive organs, spleen and) ?pancreas
a- Superior vena cava b- Umbilical vein c- Superior mesenteric artery d- Hepatic portal vein

?b) 9- Capillary beds are drained by)


a- Arteries b- Venules c- Arterioles d- Veins

a) 10- Which of the following factors does not contribute to vasoconstriction and ) ?hypertension
a- Alcohol b- Nicotine c- Renin d- Cold

?b) 11- Any decrease in the elasticity of arteries is known as)


a- Atherosclerosis b- Arteriosclerosis c- Thrombophlebitis d- Varicose veins 12

d) 12- Which of the following is a condition resulting from inflammation of a vein ) ?which contains a clot
a- Arteriosclerosis b- Varicose veins c- Atherosclerosis d- Thrombophlebitis

Chapter 12: The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses: ( ) 1- The most important nonspecific defense of the body is?
a- cilia and mucus b- Sweat glands c- antibodies d- The skin

( ) 2- White blood cells that engulf and destroy bacteria are?


a- phagocytes b- antibodies c- T-lymphocytes d- B-lymphocytes

( ) 3- A person who has recovered from mumps is protected from contracting the disease again by a?
a- slow production of antibodies b- secondary immune response c- lack of antibodies d- primary immune response

( ) 4- Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be spontaneously killed by?
a- mucous membrane cells b- Natural Killer Cells c- macrophage d- antibodies e- Neutrophils

( ) 5- The body's second line of defense?


a- antibodies b- Spleen c- Mucous d- MALT (mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue) e- The inflammatory response

( ) 6- The rejection of tissue transplants is brought about by?


a- killer T-cells b- helper T-cells c- macrophages d- NK cells e- suppressor T-cells

( ) 7- The immune cells involved in allergic reactions, especially in the lining of the nasal passages?
a- release macrophages b- produce phagocytes c- mast cells d- cause asthma

( ) 8- Two indications that the body is fighting an infection are increased?


a- pain and fever b- white blood cells and fever c- red blood cells and pain d- white and red blood cells

( ) 9- The scientist who developed the first successful polio vaccine was?
a- Salk b- Sabin c- Pasteur d- Jenner

( ) 10- The substance produced by virus-infected cells that helps other cells resist viral infection is?
a- an antigen b- a marker protein c- a receptor protein d- interferon e- an antibody 13

( ) 11- A mass of linked viruses and antibodies are engulfed and destroyed by?
a- plasma cells b- T-cells c- phagocytes d- B-cells e- agglutination

( ) 12- An infection may spread throughout the body, causing swelling and tenderness of the?
a- joints b- nerve endings c- skin d- liver e- lymph nodes

( ) 13- The sneezing, runny nose, and watery eyes that make a person having allergies feel so miserable result from?
a- lysozyme b- interferon c- histamines d- antibodies

( ) 14- The antibodies that are often given to travelers to protect them from tropical diseases produce?
a- secondary immunity b- passive immunity c- active immunity d- permanent immunity

( ) 15- Each of the following is true of antibodies except that?


a- They are released by plasma cells b- each antibody binds to three antigens c- They have two identical binding sites d- They are shaped like the letter Y

( ) 16- The response in which the rapid loss of material from a cancerous cell causes it to rupture and die is known as?
a- blood-mediated immunity b- primary immune response c- secondary immune response d- cell-mediated immunity

( ) 17- Lysozyme?
a- Is the substance produced by the body to break down the cell walls of bacteria b- Is a substance used to create antibody-mediated clonal cells c- Is an organelle found in most cells to destroy invading organisms. d- Is a chemical which causes the hypothalamus to reset its temperature higher than 98.6 F.

( ) 18- Each of the following is an autoimmune disease except?


a- acquired immune deficiency syndrome b- rheumatoid arthritis c- juvenile onset diabetes d- rheumatic fever

( ) 19- Each of the following is involved in the formation of antibodies except?


a- plasma cells release antibodies into the blood b- suppressor T-cells grow and divide very rapidly c- an antigen activates some of the body's B-cells d- activated B-cells produce many plasma cells

( ) 20- The immune system's loss of its ability to distinguish "self" from "nonself" results in ________?
14

a- autoimmune diseases b- cell-mediated immune deficiency diseases c- immune-deficiency diseases d- immune response diseases

?The first line of defense against the invasion of pathogens -21 ( )


a- antibodies b- skin c- white blood cells d- vaccines

?Interferon is -22 ( )
a- a chemical producing antibodies b- a chemical which inhibits the production of viruses c- a substance produced by virus-infected cells that helps other cells resist viral infection d- very similar to a vaccine

The immune cells involved in allergic reactions, especially in the lining of -23 ( ) ?the nasal passages, causing sneezing and runny noses
a- produce phagocytes b- inhibit production of myeloid stem cells c- are mast cells d- are macrophages

?The inflammatory response -24 ( )


a- is the body's second line of defense, after the skin b- works with the phagocytic response c- works with antibodies d- Acts in response to production of mast cells

?Two indications that the body is fighting an infection are increased -25 ( )
a- red blood cells and pain b- white and red blood cells c- white blood cells and fever d- pain and fever

?When antibodies are present in the fluids of the blood -26 ( )


a- it is called cell-mediated immunity b- it creates anitigen specific response c- lymphocytes work on viruses, or lyse foreign cells d- it is called humoral immunity, or antibody-mediated immunity

?(The injection of weakened pathogens to produce immunity is a(n -27 ( )


a- vaccination b- cellular mediated antigen response c- antigens d- self-antigen production

?The basic functional unit of the immune system is -28 ( )


a- antibody b- B-lymphocyte c- killer T-cell d- marker protein

Each of the following is involved in the formation of antibodies except -29 ( ) ?that
a- plasma cells release antibodies into the blood b- an antigen activates some of the body's B-cells c- activated B-cells produce many plasma cells d- suppressor T-cells grow and divide very rapidly

?The most common overreactions of the immune system are known as -30 ( )
a- histamines 15

b- allergies c- asthma d- antihistamines

The substance produced by the body that breaks down the cell walls of -31 ( ) ?bacteria is
a- interferon b- mucus c- lysozyme d- hormone

An antibody has two identical -32 ( ) ?


a- receptor proteins b- antigen binding sites c- marker proteins d- killer T-cell binding sites

A form of natural passive immunity, in which no immunological memory -33 ( ) ?is established
a- placenta or breast milk b- vaccine c- infection or contact with a pathogen d- gamma globulin

?Antibodies are soluble proteins secreted by -34 ( )


a- Helper T-cells b- Activated T-cells c- Activated B-cells and B cell clone descendants d- suppressor T-cells

?Slowing or stopping the activity of a B cell or T cell is done by -35 ( )


a- Killer T-cell b- Helper T-cell c- Memory Cell d- Suppressor T cell

A substance capable of provoking an immune response, not normally -36 ( ) ?present in the body
a- monokines b- antigens c- antibody d- B-cells

After having the chicken pox, these cells would remain in the body, -37( ) enabling it to respond quickly and efficiently to subsequent infections of meetings ?with the same anitigen
a- Suppressor T cells b- Memory cells c- Macrophages d- Memory B cells

An antibody producing machine, which produces a huge number of -38 ( ) ?immunoglobulin


a- Memory cells b- Mast cells c- Stem cells d- plasma cells

When the liver and spleen gather up nutrients such as iron and zinc, so -39 ( ) ?that bacteria cannot multiply, what is happening in the body
a- interferon is being produced 16

b- complement fixation is working to find foreign cells c- The body has a fever d- gastric juices are clogging the ducts of the liver and spleen

?Edema causes -40 ( )


a- redness to an injured area b- pain and swelling, thus temporarily limiting joint movement c- The infected area to become hot, thus increasing metabolic rate d- Clotting proteins to enter an area

.Chapter 12: The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses Self Test ?d) 1- Which organ is not a lymphoid organ)
a- Tonsils b- Spleen c- Thymus d- Gall bladder

?a) 2- Which is a lymphoid organ found in the small intestine)


a- Peyer's patches b- Spleen c- Thymus d- Tonsils

?b) 3- Fever)
a- Interferes with bacterial replication b- a, b, and c are correct c- Speeds tissue repair processes d- Increases human body metabolism

d) 4- Which secretions or structures contribute to the effectiveness of the skin as a) ?mechanical barrier to infection
a- Secretory IgA b- Lysozyme c- Cilia d- b and c are correct

c) 5- Which nonspecific body defense is designed to prevent the spread of viruses ) ?to uninfected cells in adjacent tissues
a- Complement b- Natural killer cells c- Interferon d- Fever

c) 6- Which type of cell does not require specific antigen activation to become ) ?active
a- Cytotoxic T cells b- Helper T cells c- Natural killer cells d- B cells

d) 7- Which type of effector T cells are responsible for attacking and lysing ) ?infected and cancerous cells
a- Supressor T cells b- Delayed hypersensitivity T cells c- Helper T cells d- Cytotoxic T cells

?c) 8- Acute hypersensitivity or allergy is due to)


a- Lymphokines b- Delayed hypersensitivity T cells c- IgE antibodies d- Activated macrophages 17

?d) 9- Which type of T cell is specifically targeted by HIV)


a- Cytotoxic T cells b- All T cells are targeted by HIV c- Supressor T cells d- Helper T cells

c) 10- Which of the following is an autoimmune disease in which the myelin ) ?sheaths in the brain and spinal cord are destroyed over time
a- Myasthenia gravis b- Grave's disease c- Multiple sclerosis d- Systemic lupus erythematosus

?d) 11- Memory B cells)


a- Produce lymphokines that stimulate macrophages b- Trigger the complement cascade .c- Are produced to destroy an antigen in response to the first exposure to that antigen d- Respond to repeated exposures to the antigen that caused their creation

?a) 12- Which of these lymphoid organs is well developed before birth)
a- Thymus b- Tonsils c- Red marrow d- Liver

d) 13- In the early stages of fetal development, the lymphatic vessels form by ) ?branching from
a- The thymus gland b- Nerves c- Arterioles d- Veins

Chapter 13: The Respiratory System Air in the larynx on its way to the lungs would enter which of the following -1 ( ) ?next
a- pharynx b- primary bronchus c- trachea d- bronchiole e- esophagus

?This partition separates the nasal cavity from the oral cavity below -2 ( )
a- epiglottis b- nasal septum c- palate d- concha e- thyroid cartilage

What is the maximum volume of air that can be expelled from the lungs -3 ( ) ?called
a- residual volume b- expiratory reserve volume c- inspiratory reserve volume d- vital capacity e- tidal volume

?What is the term for difficult or labored breathing -4 ( )


a- dyspnea b- cyanosis c- apnea d- eupnea e- hypoxia

18

What muscular passageway serves as a common passageway for food and -5 ( ) ?air
a- pharynx b- trachea c- glottis d- larynx e- esophagus

?Which of the following is NOT true about the lungs -6 ( )


a- They are divided into lobes b- They contain elastic connective tissue in their walls c- They receive air by way of primary bronchi d- They are covered by visceral pleura e- They are located in the mediastinum

Air in the conducting zone airways that is not in position to contribute to gas -7( ) ?exchange between the alveoli and the blood is termed
a- dead space volume b- expiratory reserve volume c- tidal volume d- residual volume e- alveolar air

?Respiratory distress syndrome in an infant is characterized by -8 ( )


a- an expanded barrel chest b- inadequate surfactant production c- excessive production of mucus d- loss of elasticity by the lungs e- chronic inflammation

?How is the bulk of the carbon dioxide transported in the blood -9 ( )


a- as the bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) in plasma b- as carbon monoxide(CO) in the plasma c- dissolved in the plasma d- inside red blood cells e- combined with hemoglobin

?Which of the following is NOT true during inspiration -10 ( )


a- intrapulmonary volume increases b- the diaphragm contracts, moves inferiorly and flattens out c- The external intercostal muscles contract lifting the rib cage and thrusting the sternum forward d- intrapleural pressure becomes equal to atmospheric air pressure e- intrapulmonary air pressure decreases

Where is the center which sets the basic rhythm of inspiration and -11 ( ) ?expiration located
a- cerebellum b- cerebrum c- pons d- medulla e- corpus callosum

?The main stimulus for increasing the breathing rate and depth involves -12 ( )
a- an increase in blood pH b- a decrease in body temperature c- an increase in the level of oxygen in the blood d- an increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood e- a decrease in the level of oxygen in the blood 19

In addition to the respiratory system, what other system shares the -13 ( ) responsibility of supplying cells of the body with oxygen and disposing of carbon ?dioxide
a- reproductive system b- lymphatic system c- cardiovascular system d- urinary system e- digestive system

Which of the following is NOT a protective mechanism of the respiratory -14 ( ) ?system
a- gastric juice b- sneezing c- coughing d- cilia mucus sweeping e- ''dust cells"

Air must pass through this slit-like opening between the vocal cords in the -15 ( ) ?larynx to enter the trachea
a- concha b- palate c- sinus d- alveolus e- glottis

Which of the following would increase the pH of blood leading to -16 ( ) ?alkalosis
a- exercising b- holding your breath c- falling asleep d- hyperventilating e- rebreathing air in a brown paper bag

?The serous membrane associated with each lung is the -17 ( )


a- synovial membrane b- peritoneum c- pleura d- pericardium e- cutaneous membrane

Which of the following respiratory system disorders or defects is -18 ( ) ?INCORRECTLY paired with its brief description
a- asthma - hypersensitivity to an irritant b- cystic fibrosis - over secretion of mucus c- emphysema - loss of elasticity by the lungs d- sudden infant death syndrome - inadequate production of surfactant e- cleft palate - bones forming the hard palate fail to fuse medially

?Which of the following is not involved in conducting air to the lungs -19 ( )
a- larynx b- trachea c- esophagus d- bronchus e- pharynx

?Each of the following is directly connected to the pharynx except the -20 ( )
a- nasal cavity b- auditory tubes c- oral cavity d- trachea 20

e- larynx

Pick the correct order for the path followed by Trevor (an oxygen -21 ( ) ?molecule) as he travels from the outside to the lungs
Primary bronchi .1 Laryngopharynx .2 Nasal cavity .3 External nares .4 Glottis .5 Oropharynx .6 Secondary bronchi .7 Larynx .8 Nasopharynx .9 Trachea .10 a- 6,3,9,4,5,2,8,10,1,7 d- 4,3,9,6,2,5,8,10,1,7

b- 4,9,3,6,2,5,8,1,10,7 e- 4,3,9,6,5,2,8,10,7,1

c- 6,9,2,3,5,4,10,8,1,7

?The nose -22 ( )


a- 1.moistens the air b- 2.warms the air c- 3.filters the air d- 4.contains the olfactory receptors .Only (1) and (3) above are correct .Only (2) and (4) above are correct .All of (1), (2), (3), and (4) above are correct .Only (4) above is correct .Only (1), (2), and (3) above are correct

?The "Adam's Apple" is the common name for the -23 ( )


a- arytenoid cartilage b- hyoid bone c- epiglottis d- thyroid cartilage e- pharynx

?What prevents food from entering the trachea -24 ( )


a- epiglottis b- saliva c- glottis d- vocal cords and false vocal cords e- Soft palate

?Place the following in their correct order from the outside to inside -25 ( )
lungs .1 pleural cavity .2 visceral pleura .3 parietal pleura .4 a- 3,2,4,1 b- 2,3,4,1

c- 4,2,3,1

d- 2,1,4,3

e- 1,2,3,4

?Pleurisy results from an accumulation of fluid in the -26 ( )


a- pleural cavity b- nasal passages c- auditory tubes d- primary bronchi e- alveoli

?Inhalation results when the -27 ( )


a- diaphragm relaxes and the intercostal muscles contract b- intercostal muscles and diaphragm contract and make the chest cavity bigger c- air pressure within the lungs increases drawing air into the lungs from the outside 21

d- intercostal muscles relax and the diaphragm contracts e- lungs expand and make the chest cavity bigger

?What supplies the force responsible for normal expiration -28 ( )


a- diaphragm contracting b- external intercostal muscles contracting c- elastic recoil of the diaphragm d- internal intercostal muscles contracting e- both a and d above are correct

?The tidal volume is air -29 ( )


a- exhaled during normal breathing b- forcefully exhaled c- inhaled during normal breathing d- forcefully inhaled e- both a and c above are correct

The volume of air, over the tidal volume, that can be forced into the lungs -30 ( ) ?is called the
a- residual air b- inspiratory reserve volume c- expiratory reserve volume d- reserve air e- vital capacity

?What is (approximately) the average vital capacity for humans -31 ( )


a- 6,000 ml a- pulmonary vein blood b- renal vein blood c- pulmonary artery blood d- renal artery blood e- hepatic portal vein blood b- 1,200 ml c- 3, 100 ml d- 4, 300 ml e- 4, 800 ml

?Where would carbon dioxide concentration be the highest -32 ( )

?Oxygen and carbon dioxide cross the lung membrane surface through -33 ( )
a- osmosis b- differences in atmospheric pressure c- tidal air d- active transport e- diffusion

?What is the form of hemoglobin that is responsible for carrying oxygen -34 ( )
a- carbamino-hemoglobin b- carboxyhemoglobin c- deoxygenated hemoglobin d- reduced hemoglobin e- oxyhemoglobin

?Where are the respiratory control centers located -35 ( )


a- cerebrum b- hypothalamus c- medulla d- pons e- both c and d above are correct

The condition whereby the respiratory alveoli become enlarged and may -36 ( ) ?be replaced by fibrous tissue is known as
a- pleurisy b- pneumonia c- emphysema d- bronchitis 22

e- tuberculosis

?The glottis is the -37 ( )


a- space between the vocal cords b- just above the larynx and esophagus c- point where the trachea divides d- moveable lid covering the opening into the larynx e- pointed end of the lungs

?How is oxygen carried in the trachea -38 ( )


a- as a gas b- as oxyhemoglobin (c- in solution in body fluids (e.g. mucin d- as a result of peristaltic actions (e- by buffering compounds like KCl (potassium chloride

The largest amount of carbon dioxide is carried in the blood in the form -39 ( ) ?of
a- carbamino-hemoglobin b- dissolved carbon dioxide (gas bubbles) in the blood plasma c- oxyhemoglobin d- carbonic acid e- bicarbonate ions

Which of the following is a substance found in cigarette smoke that -40 ( ) ?interferes with the ability of the blood to transport oxygen
a- nicotine b- asbestos c- carbon monoxide d- nitrogen e- hydrogen cyanide

.Chapter 13: The Respiratory System Self Test b) 1- Which of the following describes the pathway air follows to reach the alveoli ) ?during an inspiration
a- bronchi pharynx bronchiole trachea larynx alveoli b- pharynx larynx trachea bronchi bronchiole alveoli c- trachea pharynx bronohile bronchi larynx alveoli d- pharynx bronchi larynx bronchioli trachea alveoli

a) 2- The respiratory membrane must be very ______ to allow rapid ______ of ) ?O2 and CO2
a- thin, diffusion b- thick, osmosis c- thick, diffusion d- thin, osmosis

?a )3- The superior, middle, and inferior nasal conchae serve to)
a- increase the mucosal surface area and increase air turbulence in the nasal cavity b- support the nasal septum and hard palate c- produce mucus and prevent it from draining into the paranasal sinuses d- resonate speech and drain the paranasal sinuses

c) 4- Oxygen loading and carbon dioxide unloading between the pulmonary ) ?capillary blood and the air in the alveoli is called
a- breathing b- internal respiration c- external respiration d- expiration

?c) 5- Most of the carbon dioxide (CO2) carried in the blood is carried)
23

a- bound to ferritin proteins in plasma b- bound to hemoglobin in RBCs c- as the bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) in plasma d- as a dissolved gas in the water of the plasma

?d) 6- A normal tidal volume is about ____ milliliters and it represents)


a- 150, the amount of air that remains in the air passageways b- 1200, the amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled c- 300, the amount of air remaining in the lungs after each breath d- 500, the amount of air moved into and out of the lungs with each breath

?a) 7- The acronym COPD is the abbreviation for)


a- Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease b- Cancerous Oncologic Plural Disease c- Cystic Occlusion Pneumatic Disorder d- Colloid Osmotic Pressure Disorder

?c) 8- Over 90% of lung cancers are associated with)


a- smog b- asbestos c- smoking cigarettes d- sawdust

c) 9- When bronchial passageways become chronically inflamed and ) ?hypersensitive the result is
a- SIDS b- tuberculosis c- asthma d- cystic fibrosis

d) 10- Surfactant is a ________ that acts to ______ the surface tension of water ) ________ ?with the
a- carbohydrate, lower, trachea b- protein, raise, trachea c- nucleic acid, raise, alveoli d- lipid, lower, alveoli

?c) 11- The most common lethal genetic disease in the United States is)
.a- asthma .(b- Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS .c- cystic fibrosis .d- squamous cell carcinoma

Chapter 14: The Digestive System and Body Metabolism An assailant stabs a man in the upper abdomen with a butcher knife. The -1 ( ) man's stomach is perforated. The first layer of tissue in the stomach wall to be cut ?was the
a- muscularis mucosa b- serosa c- lamina propria d- submucosa e- mucosa

A wave of muscular contraction moving from the oropharynx towards the -2 ( ) ?[stomach is termed a[n
a- peristalsis b- segmentation contraction c- swallowing action d- antiperistalsis e- both a and c above are correct 24

?Teeth that bite off pieces of food are the -3 ( )


a- wisdom teeth b- bicuspids c- molars d- premolars e- incisors

The glands that frequently become inflamed when one gets the mumps are -4 ( ) ?called the _______ glands
a- parotid b- submandibular c- sublingual d- sustentacular e- both b and c above are correct

?The soft palate separates the oral cavity from the -5 ( )


a- nasopharynx b- larynx c- nasal cavities d- hard palate e- laryngopharynx

?The pyloric sphincter -6 ( )


a- is located in the jejunum b- opens to let food into the stomach c- opens to let food into the duodenum d- increases the surface area for absorption e- both a and d above are correct

?Chief cells of the gastric glands secrete -7 ( )


a- mucus b- HCl c- pepsinogen d- trypsin e- both [a] and [c] above are correct

?The cells that secrete hydrochloric acid are the _______ cells -8 ( )
a- parietal b- zymogen c- Kupffer d- chief e- mucous neck

The finger-like projections of the small intestinal mucosa, which are so -9 ( ) ?important in nutrient absorption, are the
a- rugae b- plicae circulares c- lacteals d- villi e- Krypts of Lieberkuehn

?The terminal portion of the small intestine is the -10 ( )


a- caecum b- duodenum c- ileum d- jejunum e- colon

A small blind tube attached to the caecum just below (inferior) to where -11 ( ) ?the ileum attaches is the
25

a- sigmoid colon b- ascending colo c- transverse colon d- appendix e- rectum

?Clusters of lymphoid tissue found in the walls of the ileum are called -12 ( )
a- Brunner's glands b- plicae circulares c- ileocaecal valve d- Peyer's patches e- Krypts of Lieberkuehn

?Bile is carried to the duodenum by the -13 ( )


a- Haustra b- bile duct c- cystic duct d- pancreatic duct e- common hepatic duct

One of your digestive glands secretes enzymes that are capable of digesting -14 ( ) ?carbohydrates, lipids and proteins. The gland is the
a- parotid gland b- adrenal gland c- liver d- pancreas e- cardiac gland

?A digestive organ that provides a strongly acidic environment is the -15 ( )


a- stomach b- jejunum c- ileum d- oral cavity e- colon

?Pepsin initiates the chemical digestion of -16 ( )


a- proteins b- lipids into fatty acids and glycerol c- all hormones d- complex carbohydrates - such as starches e- steroids

?The stomach lining is protected from the stomach acid by -17 ( )


a- mucus b- lipase c- intrinsic factor d- gastrin e- pepsinogen

?Gastrin, secreted by the gastric and duodenal mucosa, acts to -18 ( )


a- change pepsinogen into pepsin b- increase the secretions of the gastric glands c- inhibit the production of hydrochloric acid d- slow down the muscular contractions of the stomach wall muscles e- initiate the digestion of lipids

?Trypsin acts to break down -19 ( )


a- maltose b- polypeptides c- cellulose d- cholesterol 26

e- triglycerides

?Fat digestion in adult humans occurs in the -20 ( )


a- mouth b- duodenum c- liver d- stomach e- ileum

?Which part of the alimentary canal penetrates the diaphragm -21 ( )


a- pharynx b- large intestine c- esophagus d- stomach e- small intestine

Which of the following does not contribute to the extensive surface of the -22 ( ) small intestine at which the bulk of chemical digestion and nearly all food ?absorption occurs
a- rugae b- length and coiling of the tube c- microvilli d- villi e- plicae circulares

?These chisel-shaped teeth are adapted for cutting -23 ( )


a- premolars b- incisors c- canines d- molars e- bicuspids

?What is the main digestive function occurring in the stomach -24 ( )


a- protein digestion b- emulsification of fats c- starch digestion d- fat digestion e- absorption of the end-products of digestion

?Which of the following is not an enzyme contained in pancreatic juice -25 ( )


a- lipase b- trypsin c- pepsin d- chymotrypsin e- amylase

Food in the stomach on its way through the alimentary canal would next -26 ( ) ?enter the
a- ascending colon b- esophagus c- duodenum d- ileum e- Jejunum

Which of the following is NOT a major nutrient (makes up the bulk of -27 ( ) ?(what we eat
a- lipids b- vitamins c- carbohydrates d- water e- proteins 27

?Which of the following is the body's most concentrated source of energy -28 ( )
a- protein b- vitamins c- glucose d- fat e- glycogen

The formation of muscle proteins from food you have eaten is an example -29 ( ) ?of
a- peristalsis b- deglutition c- anabolism d- catabolism e- emulsification

When cells oxidize amino acids for energy their _______ groups are -30( ) removed and, ultimately, in the liver, converted to the waste _______ which is ?flushed from the body in urine
a- amine group; creatinine b- carboxyl group; urea c- amine group; uric acid d- carboxyl group; creatine e- amine group; urea

?Which of the following is NOT an important role of the liver -31 ( )


a- store glycogen b- excretion of urea c- produce blood proteins d- phagocytosis e- manufacture bile

In general, which of the following is probably the most important factor -32 ( ) ?(involved in determining a person's basal metabolic rate (BMR
a- surface area in relation to body volume b- emotional state c- amount of thyroxine produced by the thyroid gland d- gender of the individual e- Age of the individual

This hormone, produced by the duodenum, causes an increase in the output -33( ) ?of bile by the liver and pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate ions
a- gastrin b- histamine c- secretin d- somatostatin e- cholecystokinin

What substance, produced by gastric glands, is needed for the absorption -34 ( ) ?of vitamin B12 from the small intestine
a- pepsinogen b- hydrochloric acid c- histamine d- intrinsic factor e- gastrin

What organ produces enzymes capable of digesting all of the major -35 ( ) ?categories of organic compounds
a- stomach 28

b- pancreas c- gall bladder d- salivary gland e- liver

?Ketosis and acidosis are consequences of the incomplete oxidation of -36 ( )


a- carbohydrates b- proteins c- glucose d- starch e- fats

Which of the following is not one of the four basic layers or tunics of the -37 ( ) ?wall of the alimentary canal
a- muscularis externa b- serosa c- mucosa d- mesentery e- submucosa

?Which of the following is not an enzyme associated with protein digestion -38 ( )
a- pepsin b- trypsin c- chymotrypsin d- lipase e- carboxypeptidase

?(Proteins of plant origin (i.e. beans, corn, rice -39 ( )


a- are complete b- are incomplete c- contain all of the essential amino acids d- are the highest quality proteins e- meet all of the body's requirements for tissue maintenance and growth

?Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the large intestine -40 ( )


a- Its longitudinal smooth muscle occurs in three bands b- It has numerous goblet cell in it mucosa c- It is relatively large in diameter d- It has finger-like projections called villi in its mucosa e- Its wall exhibits pocket-like sacs called haustra

.Chapter 14: The Digestive System and Body Metabolism Self Test c) 1- Which of the following describes the food pathway through the digestive ) ?process
a- Mouth pharynx stomach esophagus small intestine large intestine b- Mouth_ esophagus pharynx stomach large intestine small intestine c- Mouth pharynx esophagus stomach small intestine large intestine d- Mouth stomach_ small intestine large intestine esophagus pharynx

?c) 2- The walls of the alimentary canal from outside to inside are)
a- muscularis externa serosa mucosa submucosa b- submucosa serosa mucosa muscularis externa c- serosa muscularis externa submucosa mucosa d- mucosa submucosa muscularis externa serosa

?d) 3- The two structures that keep food in the stomach during digestion are the )
a- submucosal and myenteric plexi b- hepatic and splenic flexures c- rugae and ileocecal valve d- cardioesophageal and pyloric sphincters 29

?d) 4- The proper name for baby, or milk, teeth is)


a- monociduous teeth b- gingival teeth c- periodontal teeth d- deciduous teeth

?d) 5- The chemical digestion of food occurs by a series of reactions called)


a- peristalsis b- segmentation c- synthesis d- hydrolysis

?c) 6- In a broad sense, the digestion of food)


a- takes place entirely in the stomach b- takes place outside the body and exits with propulsion c- takes place outside the body and enters upon absorption d- takes place entirely within the mouth and small intestine

?b) 7- Food swallowing occurs in which of the following two phases )


a- Peristaltic and sympathetic phases b- Buccal and pharyngeal-esophageal phases c- Deglutial and pharyngeal-esophageal phases d- Pharyngeal-esophageal and gastric phases

?c) 8- The three main metabolic pathways of cellular respiration are the)
a- lipoid, saccharoid, and proteinoid pathways b- glycemic, hyperglycemic, and hypoglycemic pathways c- glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and electron transport pathways d- fats, sugar, and protein pathways

?d) 9- Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver)


a- production of albumin and fibrinogen b- production of bile c- detoxification of drugs d- storage of antibodies

?a) 10- The major nutrients are)


a- carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and water b- water, carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen c- grains, fruits, vegetables, and milk d- vitamin A, vitamin K, vitamin D, and vitamin E

?d) 11- Metabolism can be defined as)


a- the breakdown of the major nutrients in the body b- the detoxification processes that take place in the body c- all the cellular respiration taking place in the body d- all the anabolic and all the catabolic processes taking place in the body

c) 12- The most important factor determining a person's basal metabolic rate is ) ?the amount of __________ in the plasma
a- lipid b- thymopoietin c- thyroxine d- growth hormone

?a) 13- The most common congenital feeding defect of the digestive system is)
a- cleft palate b- ulcers c- PKU d- cystic fibrosis

?b) 14- Phenylketonuria (PKU) is the body's inability to)


a- absorb phenylketones properly 30

b- use phenylalanine properly c- metabolize phenylketones properly d- absorb phenylalanine properly

.Chapter 15: The Urinary System ?What enzyme produced by the kidneys helps to regulate blood pressure -1 ( )
a- renin b- aldosterone c- urochrome d- erythropoietin e- creatine

?Blood in an afferent arteriole would enter which of the following next -2 ( )


a- interlobular artery b- efferent arteriole c- peritubular capillaries d- arcuate artery e- glomerulus

The filtrate forced through the capillary walls in the kidneys enters which -3 ( ) ?of the following first
.(a- distal convoluted tubule (DCT b- glomerular capsule c- loop of Henle d- collecting duct .(e- proximal convoluted tubule (PCT

Which of the following is not normally in the filtrate forced from the -4 ( ) ?glomerular capillaries and, therefore, does not appear in urine
a- proteins b- glucose c- water d- amino acids e- urea

Which of the following is normally present in the filtrate forced from the -5 ( ) ?glomerular capillaries but does not normally appear in the urine
a- blood cells b- water c- proteins d- glucose e- urea

?Which of the following is not located in the renal medulla -6 ( )


a- interlobar artery b- renal pyramid c- glomerular capsule d- collecting duct e- renal column

From first to last, the correct order in which the filtrate would pass through -7 ( ) ?the structures listed is
a- collecting duct-glomerular capsule-PCT-loop of Henle-DCT b- glomerular capsule-collecting duct-PCT-loop of Henle-DCT c- glomerular capsule-PCT-loop of Henle-DCT-collecting duct d- glomerular capsule-DCT-loop of Henle-PCT-collecting duct e- glomerular capsule-loop of Henle-PCT-DCT-collecting duct

The metabolism of nucleic acids yields this nitrogenous waste that appears -8 ( ) ?in blood and urine
31

a- uric acid b- urochrome c- urea d- ammonia e- creatinine

The regulation of blood pH by the elimination of excess acids or alkaline -9 ( ) ?substances from the body is accomplished by the
a- renal mechanism b- bicarbonate buffer system c- protein buffer system d- respiratory system e- phosphate buffer system

?Which of the following substances is not normally found in urine -10 ( )


a- urochrome b- urea c- uric acid d- water e- red blood cells

?Which of the following would not apply to the location of the kidneys -11 ( )
a- ventral cavity b- thoracic cavity c- retroperitoneal d- abdominal cavity e- lumbar region

?Podocytes are -12 ( )


a- Cells of the wall of the glomerular capillaries b- cells that line the urinary bladder c- Cells of the inner layer of the glomerular capsule d- kidneys cells that produce renin e- phagocytic cells in the kidneys

?A high specific gravity of urine indicates -13 ( )


a- diabetes insipidus b- alkalosis c- acidosis d- excessive fluid intake e- kidney inflammation

Starting at the tip of a medullary pyramid, the correct sequence of -14( ) ?structures that urine passes through on its way out of the body is
a- renal pelvis-calyx-ureter-urinary bladder-urethra b- renal pelvis-calyx-urethra-urinary bladder-ureter c- ureter-calyx-renal pelvis-urinary bladder-urethra d- calyx-renal pelvis-ureter-urinary bladder-urethra e- calyx-renal pelvis-urethra-urinary bladder-ureter

?Which of the following is an indicator of the disease diabetes insipidus -15 ( )


a- ketones in the urine b- glucose in the urine c- acidosis d- a huge volume of dilute urine e- hunger

What are the structural and functional units of the kidneys involved in -16 ( ) ?forming urine
a- calyces 32

b- medullary pyramids c- renal columns d- nephrons e- renal pelvises

Which of the following terms refers to the formation of a large volume of -17 ( ) ?urine
a- oliguria b- polyuria c- anuria d- ptosis e- dysuria

Which of the following terms refers to an inflammation of the urinary -18 ( ) ?bladder
a- pyelitis b- cystitis c- ptosis d- urethritis e- glomerulonephritis

?Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidneys -19 ( )


a- produce urea b- produce renin c- excrete urea d- maintain acid-base balance e- maintain water and electrolyte balance

Which of the following substances enters the renal tubule by both filtration -20 ( ) ?and secretion
a- glucose b- amino acids c- creatine d- urea e- water

?Each kidney is surrounded by a layer of fibrous tissue, the -21 ( )


a- renal fat pad b- hilus c- renal fascia d- renal capsule e- renal pelvis

The notch on the medial surface of the kidney, through which the blood -22 ( ) ?vessels enter and leave the kidney, is called the
a- renal cortex b- renal pelvis c- ureter d- calyx e- hilus

?The expansion of the ureter into the substance of the kidney forms the -23 ( )
a- renal fascia b- renal capsule c- renal fat pad d- renal pelvis e- hilus

?What is the outermost portion of the kidney -24 ( )


a- renal pelvis b- renal pyramid 33

c- renal calyx d- renal medulla e- renal cortex

Cortical tissue that extends between the medullary or renal pyramids is -25 ( ) ?termed the
a- nephrons b- renal medulla c- renal papillae d- medullary rays e- renal columns

If you dissected a medullary or renal pyramid, what would you find -26 ( ) ?inside
a- the vas deferens b- the glomeruli c- the collecting tubules d- the calyx e- an Egyptian King's tomb

?What is the functional unit of the kidney -27 ( )


a- nephron b- renal medulla c- glomerulus d- renal corpuscle e- renal cortex

?The portion of the nephron closest to the collecting duct is called the -28 ( )
a- distal convoluted tubule b- proximal convoluted tubule c- Loop of Henle d- glomerulus e- Bowman's capsule

?The beginning of the nephron is dilated to form the -29 ( )


a- glomerulus b- renal calyx c- renal pelvis d- proximal convoluted tubule e- Bowman's capsule

?Urine formation requires which of the following -30 ( )


a- Glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion b- Glomerular filtration and tubular secretion only c- a lot of patience d- Tubular secretion, tubular filtration and glomerular reabsorption e- Glomerular reabsorption and tubular filtration only

?The uptake of substances from the lumen of the nephrons is known as -31 ( )
a- tubular secretion b- tubular filtration c- does not occur d- tubular reabsorption e- tubular distension

?The filtrate materials found in the nephron first leave the blood at the -32 ( )
a- urinary bladder b- Loop of Henle c- contractile vacuole d- nephridium e- glomerulus 34

Where does most reabsorption of substances from the glomerular filtrate -33 ( ) ?occur
a- in the distal convoluted tubule b- in the loop of Henle c- in the collecting tubule d- in the proximal convoluted tubule e- in the Bowman's Capsule

?Which of the following can enter the urine by tubular secretion -34 ( )
+a- H +b- K c- Creatinine d- All of a, b and c above are correct about tubular secretion e- Only a and b above are correct about tubular secretion

?What does renin do -35 ( )


a- It forms paracasein with a milk protein in the stomach b- It catalyses the formation and release of angiotensin c- It is concerned with lipid digestion in the stomach d- It reduces blood pressure e- It is concerned with carbohydrate digestion in the stomach

?The cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus -36 ( )


a- secrete aldosterone b- secrete renin c- are located in the proximal convoluted tubule d- both a and c above are correct about the juxtaglomerular cells e- both b and c above are correct about the juxtaglomerular cells

?Aldosterone is secreted in response to -37 ( )


a- low extracellular sodium (Na+) ion concentrations b- high extracellular potassium (K+) ion concentrations c- increased plasma angiotensin d- all of a, b and c above are correct about aldosterone e- only a and c above are correct about aldosterone

Which endocrine gland is primarily concerned with sodium (Na+) and -38( ) ?potassium (K+) ion balance in the body
a- Parathyroids b- thyroids c- adrenal cortex d- corpus luteum e- adrenal medulla

Just before the final exam in Anatomy and Physiology, to relax yourself -39 ( ) and ease your tensions, you drank ten pints of beer. The production and release of ?ADH [Antidiuretic Hormone or Vasopressin] would
a- be carried out by the kidney b- decrease c- be controlled by the anterior pituitary d- increase dramatically e- remain the same

?ADH stimulates tubular reabsorption of -40 ( )


.a- water .b- Na+ ions .c- K+ ions .d- all of a, b and c above are correct about ADH .e- only b and c above are correct about ADH

.Chapter 15: The Urinary System Self Test


35

?a) 1- The kidneys are located)


a- posterior to the peritoneum and in the superior lumbar region b- superior to the peritoneum and in the inferior lumbar region c- superior to the stomach and in the superior thoracic region d- posterior to the stomach and in the inferior thoracic region

?b) 2- The structural and functional units of the urinary system are the)
a- glomerular capsules b- nephrons c- collecting ducts d- kidneys

b) 3- Which of the following describes the pathway of glomerular filtrate through ) ?the nephron
.a- proximal convoluted tubule glomerular capsule distal convoluted tubule loop of Henle .b- glomerular capsule proximal convoluted tubule loop of Henle distal convoluted tubule .c- Loop of Henle glomerular capsule proximal convoluted tubule distal convoluted tubule .d- distal convoluted tubule loop of Henle proximal convoluted tubule glomerular capsule

b) 4- The major factor regulating sodium ion concentration in the extracellular ) ?fluid (ECF) is
a- cortisol b- aldosterone c- angiotensin d- potassium

c)5- The "tube" that carries urine from the urinary bladder to the outside world ) is the ____________ and the "tube" that carries urine from the kidney to the _____________ ?urinary bladder is the
a- collecting duct, nephron b- nephron, collecting duct c- urethra, ureter d- ureter, urethra

c) 6- The urinary bladder is made up of ________ smooth muscle layers and may ) ?contain _______ milliliters of __________ when moderately full
d- 2, 400, urine a- 2, 300, water b- 3, 1000, blood c- 3, 500, urine

?c) 7- Dysuria is)


a- a kidney infection b- a bladder infection c- painful urination d- a ureter infection

c) 8 - Control of voluntary urination through the night does not usually occur in ) ?children before
.a- 6 years of age. .c- 4 years of age. b- 8 years of age d- 10 years of age

a) 9 - The glomerular filtration rate drops by about _____ percent by the age of ) ?70
a- 50 b- 10 c- 75 d- 25

.Chapter 16: The Reproductive System ?Gonads are -1 ( )


abcdefound only in the male found only in the female secondary sex organs primary sex organs both a and c above are correct 36

The cells forming the outer layer (i.e. that closest to the basement -2 ( ) ?membrane) of the seminiferous tubule are the
a- spermatogonia b- sustentacular cell c- spermatids d- interstitial cells e- secondary spermatocytes

?The spermatozoa complete their maturation in the -3 ( )


a- ductus deferens b- epididymis c- seminal vesicles d- rete testis e- ejaculatory duct

?Which structures in the testes produce spermatozoa -4 ( )


a- seminiferous tubules b- sustentacular cells c- spermatogenesis d- interstitial cells e- inguinal canals

?Why are the testes are located in the scrotum -5 ( )


a- The temperature in the abdominal cavity is too high b- They would become tangled in their ducts if they were in the abdominal cavity c- There is no room for them in the abdominal cavity d- They must be located closer to the penis e- They can move more freely during spermatogenesis

?The spermatic cord contains -6 ( )


a- spermatic artery, spermatic vein, spermatic nerve, ductus deferens, epididymis b- spermatic artery, spermatic vein, spermatic nerve, seminal vesicle c- spermatic artery, spermatic vein, spermatic nerve, ductus deferens d- spermatic artery, spermatic vein, spermatic nerve, epididymis e- ovarian artery, ovarian vein, ovarian nerve, inguinal canal

?The spermatic cord leaves the scrotum through the -7 ( )


a- acoustic tube b- gubernaculum c- ductus deferens d- eustachian tube e- inguinal canal

?Vasectomy does not affect the male secondary sexual characters because -8 ( )
a- the bulbourethral glands are not affected b- the interstitial cells are untouched c- the semen will still contain spermatozoa d- the testes are found in the scrotum e- the ductus deferens produces the male sex hormones

?From the ejaculatory duct, sperm can pass directly into the - 9 ( )
a- seminal vesicle b- epididymis c- seminiferous tubule d- urethra e- ductus deferens

?What is the cone-shaped, terminal portion of the penis - 10 ( )


a- prepuce b- external auditory canal 37

c- epididymis d- glans penis e- foreskin

?Erectile tissue becomes turgid due to the -11 ( )


a- contraction of skeletal muscle b- a bony structure c- blood sinuses filling with blood d- elastic cartilage e- elastic connective tissue

?The largest of the accessory glands of the male reproductive system is the-12 ( )
a- Bartolini's glands b- seminal vesicles c- seminal receptacles d- prostate glands e- bulbourethral glands

?The interstitial cells -13 ( )


a- produce ova b- produce spermatozoa c- secrete estrogens d- dissolve any spermatozoa that are not ejaculated e- secrete testosterone

The hormone directly responsible for the development of the male -14 ( ) ?secondary sexual characters is called
a- cortisol b- testosterone c- FSH d- epinephrine e- LH

?In oogenesis, the secondary oocyte is liberated into the -15 ( )


a- fallopian tube b- vagina c- fimbriae d- uterus e- abdominal cavity

What is the rupture of the Graafian follicle and the release of its contents -16 ( ) ?called
a- placentation b- mastication c- menstruation d- ovulation e- fertilization

The finger-like structures around the internal opening of the uterine or -17 ( ) ?Fallopian tube are known as the
a- cervix b- fundus c- cilia d- endometrium e- fimbriae

?The soft, vascular mucosal lining of the uterus is the -18 ( )


a- peritoneum b- corpus luteum c- mesentery 38

d- endometrium e- fundus

The tubular portion of the uterus, that extends downwards into the upper -19 ( ) ?part of the vagina, is known as the
a- myometrium b- epimetrium c- peritoneum d- cervix of the uterus e- endometrium

?Ovulation depends on -20 ( )


a- declining levels of FSH and a sudden surge in the levels of LH b- low levels of both FSH and LH c- very low estrogen levels and high progesterone levels d- high levels of FSH and low levels of LH e- low levels of both progesterone and estrogen

?The usual site of implantation is the -21 ( )


a- uterus b- uterine tube c- ovary d- vestibule e- vagina

?One of the "sperm-forming factories" inside each testis is called a -22 ( )


a- urethra b- seminiferous tubule c- ejaculatory duct d- vas deferens e- epididymis

This nonmotile cell, produced by meiosis, develops into a motile sperm by -23 ( ) ?losing excess cytoplasm and developing a tail
a- secondary spermatocyte b- interstitial cell c- spermatogonium d- spermatid e- primary spermatocyte

Developing follicles produce this hormone which stimulates thickening of -24( ) the endometrium during each menstrual cycle and enlargement of female ?reproductive organs and breast development in a young woman
a- LH b- progesterone c- estrogen d- testosterone e- FSH

Starting at the site of sperm production, the correct sequence of structures -25 ( ) ?sperm pass through to reach the outside is
a- ejaculatory duct-epididymis-rete testis-vas deferens- urethra b- rete testis-epididymis-vas deferens-ejaculatory duct- urethra c- rete testis-epididymis-ejaculatory duct-vas deferens- urethra d- ejaculatory duct-rete testis-epididymis-vas deferens- urethra e- epididymis-rete testis-vas deferens-ejaculatory duct- urethra

This structure begins embedding itself in the endometrium of the uterus -26 ( ) ?about 7 days after ovulation
a- fetus b- zygote 39

c- blastocyst d- four-cell stage e- morula

What hormone produced by the blastocyst prods the glandular corpus -27 ( ) ?luteum to continue producing its hormones to maintain the endometrium
a- testosterone b- follicle stimulating hormone c- progesterone d- human chorionic gonadotropin e- oxytocin

During embryonic development ectoderm, one of the three primary -28 ( ) ?germlayers, gives rise to which of the following
a- nervous system b- muscles c- skeleton d- kidneys e- lining of the digestive tract

All body systems are present in at least rudimentary form by the end of -29 ( ) ?this week of development
a- 8 b- 16 c- 2 d- 12 e- 40

?Which of the following is NOT true about the placenta -30 ( )


a- Consists of choronic villi in cooperation with tissues of the mother's uterus b- removes wastes from the blood of the embryo and fetus c- produces hormones including estrogen and progesterone d- delivers oxygen and nutrients to the blood of the embryo and fetus e- forms from the inner cell mass

?Sperm maturation occurs in which of the following locations -31 ( )


a- vas deferens b- ejaculatory duct c- urethra d- seminiferous tubule e- epididymis

Since the reproductive system structures of males and females are -32 ( ) identical during early development, what determines whether male accessory ?reproductive organs are formed
a- absence of testosterone b- presence of LH c- presence of FSH d- absence of FSH e- presence of testosterone

Female reproductive capabilities end, and reproductive organs begin to -33 ( ) ?atrophy during
a- cryptorchidism b- parturition c- menopause d- menses e- menarche

?What is a mature follicle that is ready to undergo ovulation called -34 ( )


a- corona radiata b- corpus luteum c- blastocyst d- Graafian follicle 40

e- antrum

This male hormone, or androgen, is necessary for sperm production and -35 ( ) ?causes the appearance of male secondary sex characteristics starting at puberty
a- testosterone b- LH c- progesterone d- FSH e- estrogen

?Which of the following is NOT a male reproductive function -36 ( )


a- implantation b- ejaculation c- erection d- spermatogenesis e- testosterone production

Enlargement of the prostate gland can interfere with a male's reproductive -37 ( ) ?function and urination because it surrounds part of this tubular structure
a- epididymis b- vas deferens c- urethra d- ureter e- uterine tube

?Acrosomal enzymes are needed for -38 ( )


a- maintenance of the corpus luteum b- sperm motility c- implantation d- maintenance of the endometrium of the uterus ''e- sperm penetration of an "egg

Which of the following events occurring during the menstrual cycle is -39 ( ) ?caused by an increase in estrogen in the blood
a- increase in blood supply and glandular secretion of the endometrium b- ovulation c- degeneration of the corpus luteum d- sloughing off of the endometrium e- thickening of the endometrium

Which of the following methods of contraception works mainly by -40 ( ) ?preventing ovulation
a- coitus interruptus b- intrauterine device ''c- birth control "pill d- diaphragm e- tubal ligation

.Chapter 16: The Reproductive System Self Test d) 1- Which of the following describes the pathway that sperm follow when ) ?leaving the male body
a- prostatic urethra, membranous urethra, spongy urethra, epididymis ductus (vas) deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethral orifice b- ejaculatory duct, prostatic urethra, membranous urethra, spongy urethra, epididymis ductus (vas) deferens, urethral orifice c- urethral orifice, spongy urethra, membranous urethra, prostatic urethra, ejaculatory duct, ductus (vas) deferens epididymis d- epididymis ductus (vas) deferens, ejaculatory duct, prostatic urethra, membranous urethra, spongy urethra, urethral orifice 41

a) 2- The endocrine product of the testis is _________ while the exocrine product ) ___________ ?is
a- testosterone, sperm b- estrogen, semen c- semen, estrogen d- sperm, testosterone

?a) 3- Semen is composed of)


a- sperm and secretions from the prostate, seminal vesicles, and bulbourethral glands b- sperm and secretions from the prostate, epididymis, and interstitial cells c- sperm and secretions from the epididymis, ductus deferens, and urethra d- sperm and secretions from the testes

b) 4- Testosterone production is carried out by the ________ cells after being ) ___________ ?stimulated by
a- follicle, progesterone b- interstitial, luteinizing hormone c- egg, estrogen d- sperm, progesterone

?d) 5- The progression of development in spermatogenesis is)


a- spermatogenocyte primary spermatid secondary spermatid tertiary spermatid sperm cell b- sperm cell spermatid secondary spermatocyte primary spermatocyte spermatogonium c- spermatid primary meiocyte secondary meiocyte acrosomal meiocyte sperm cell d- spermatogonium primary spermatocyte secondary spermatocyte spermatid sperm cell

c) 6- Which of the following glands produce both exocrine and endocrine ) ?products
a- testes, ovaries, mammaries b- testes, ovaries, anterior pituitary c- testes, ovaries, pancreas d- testes, ovaries, thymus

b) 7- Which of the following describes a pathway an ovum would follow to the ) ?exterior of the body
a- ovary b- ovary c- ovary d- ovary fundus uterine tube urethra uterine tube uterus vagina vagina myometrium endometrium uterus vagina fallopian tube

?d) 8- The three layers of the uterus from the inside to the outside are)
a- intrametrium mediometrium exometrium b- endomuscularis myomuscularis epimuscularis c- interiomuscularis mediomuscularis exteriomuscularis d- endometrium myometrium epimetrium

?a) 9- The products of meiosis I in oogenesis are the)


a- secondary oocyte and first polar body b- primary oocyte and first polar body c- secondary oocyte and second polar body d- primary oocyte and second polar body

a) 10- The follicle cells of the ovary produce ________ and the corpus luteum ) _________ ?produces
a- estrogen, progesterone b- progesterone, estrogen c- luteinizing hormone, estrogen d- estrogen, luteinizing hormone

c) 11- The pathway of milk from the mammary gland to the outside of the body ) ?is
42

a- lactiferous duct alveolar gland nipple b- nipple lactiferous duct alveolar gland c- alveolar gland lactiferous duct nipple d- lobule gland alveolar gland lactiferous duct

?d) 12- The mammary glands are modified)


a- uterine glands b- areolar glands c- sebaceous glands d- sudoriferous glands

?d) 13- The three primary germ layers are the)


a- chorion, amnion, and placenta b- exoepidermis, mediodermis, and endohypodermis c- epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis d- endoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm

?d) 14- The sequential stages of labor from the beginning are)
a- placental, dilation, and expulsion b- softening, crowning, and contraction c- softening, contraction, and stretch d- dilation, expulsion, and placental

a) 15- Which of the following represents a possible sequence of events in ) ?embryonic development
a- zygote morula blastocyst b- blastocyst zygote morula c- embryo vesicle zygote d- vesicle blastocyst zygote

?b)16- usually occurs about _____ year(s) after puberty in females) _____
a- menopause, 3 b- menarche, 2 c- menarche, 1 d- menopause, 2

?b) 17- Menopause is considered to have begun when)


a- hot flashes begin b- a year has passed without a menstruation c- the blood levels of progesterone increase above normal d- the blood levels of estrogen increase above normal

43