Review Test-6 Paper-Ii: Class: 13 Time: 3 Hours

Class: 13
th
(VXY) Date: 22/01/2012 Time: 3 Hours. Max. Marks: 243
VERY IMPORTANT
A. The question paper consists of 3 section (Section-1 contains Mathematics , Section-2 contains Physics
and Section-3 contains Chemistry). Please fill the OMR answer Sheet accordingly and carefully.
B. Each Section contains (16 questions in Part-A, 1 question in Part-B and 4 questions in Part-C) and
total number of pages are 32.
C. Please ensure that the Question Paper you have received contains ALL THE QUESTIONS in
each Section and PAGES. If you found some mistake like missing questions or pages then
contact immediately to the Invigilator.
INSTRUCTIONS
PART-A
1. Q.1 to Q.8 are single correct type questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
For Q.1 to Q.8, you will be awarded 3 marks, if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark
will be awarded.
2. Q.9 to Q.14 are Paragraph type. Based upon the paragraph 3 single correct type questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
For each question, you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubble are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
3. Q.15 & Q.16 are Reasoning type questions, contains Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
(Reason). Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
For each question you will be awarded 3 marks, if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1)
mark will be awarded.
PART-B
4. Q.1 is Matrix Match type question. Each question has Three statements (A, B, C ) given in Column-I and
Four statements (P, Q, R, S ) given in Column-II. Any given statement in Column-I can have correct matching
with one or more statement(s) given in Column-II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with
the statement given in Q and R, then for the particular question, against statement B darken the bubbles corresponding
to Q and R in the OMR.
For Q.1, you will be awarded 3 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer.
PART-C
5. Q.1 to Q.4 are Integer Type questions. The answer to each question is upto 4 digit ranging from
0 to 9999. The correct digit below the question number in the OMR is to be bubbled.
For each question, you will be awarded 6marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened.
For example, if for a given question, your answer is 25, then for the particular question, against question
number you must fill as 0025 in the OMR. No negative marks will be awarded in this section.
6. Indicate the correct answer for each question by filling appropriate bubble in your answer sheet.
7. Use of Calculator, Log Table, Slide Rule and Mobile is not allowed.
8. The answers of the questions must be marked by shading the circle against the question by dark Black Ball
point Pen only.
USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: Al = 27, Mg = 24, Cu = 63.5, Mn = 55, Cl = 35.5, O = 16, H = 1, P = 31, Ag = 108, N = 14,
Li = 7, I = 127, Cr = 52, K=39, S = 32, Na = 23, C = 12, Br = 80, Fe = 56, Ca = 40, Zn = 65.5, Ti = 48,
Ba = 137, U = 238, Co= 59, B =11, F = 19, He = 4, Ne = 20, Ar = 40 , Mo = 96
[Take : ln 2 = 0.69, ln 3 = 1.09, e = 1.6 10
19
, m
e
= 9.1 10
31
kg ]
Take g = 10 m/s
2
unless otherwise stated
CODE
A
REVIEW TEST-6
PAPER- II
MATHEMATICS
XIII (VXY) RT-6 [Paper-II] Code-A Page # 2
PART-A
[SINGLE CORRECT CHOICE TYPE]
Q.1 to Q.8 has four choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Q.1 The value of definite integral dx
1 x tan 3
3 x tan
12
0
2
2
}
t
is equal to
(A)
12
t
+
3
1
ln
|
|
.
|
\
|

3 2
1 3
(B)
8
t
+
3
1
ln
|
|
.
|
\
|

3 2
1 3
(C)
12
t

3
1
ln
|
|
.
|
\
|

3 2
1 3
(D)
8
t

3
1
ln
|
|
.
|
\
|

3 2
1 3
Q.2 The range of p e R for which the equation 2x
2
2(2p + 1)x + p(p + 1) = 0
have one root less than p and other root greater than p, is
(A) 1 < p < 0 (B) p < 1 or p > 0 (C) p > 0 (D) p = 0
Q.3 If the cubic polynomial y = ax
3
+ bx
2
+ cx + d (a, b, c, d e R) has only one critical point
in its entire domain and ac = 2, then the value of | b | is
(A)
2
(B)
3
(C)
5
(D)
6
Q.4 The number of ordered pair(s) (x, y) of real numbers satisfying the equation
1 + x
2
+ 2x sin (cos
1
y) = 0, is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
Q.5 The value of
}
>

x
a
t
a x
) 0 a ( , dt t sin te
a x
1
Lim is equal to
(A)
a sin e
2
1
a
(B) 2 a sin e
a
(C)
a sin e
2
1
a
(D)
a sin e
2
1
a
Q.6 Number of ways in which 5 alike red balls and 6 alike green balls can be arranged so that
exactly two pairs of green balls are together, is
(A) 72 (B) 90 (C) 144 (D) 180
Q.7 If the trace of matrix A =
|
|
|
.
|
\
|
7 x x tan 0
| x | n 3 x x ) x ( cos
x sin e 2 x
1
2 2
x
l
is zero, then x is equal to
(A) 2 or 3 (B) 3 or 2 (C) 3 or 2 (D) 2 or 3
MATHEMATICS
Q.8 Let S
1
: x
2
+ y
2
6x 4y 12 = 0 and S
2
: x
2
+ y
2
4x 6y 12 = 0
be two circles, then which one of the following statement is incorrect?
(A) S
1
and S
2
cut each other orthogonally.
(B) S
1
and S
2
have 2 common tangents.
(C) Equation of radical axis of S
1
and S
2
is x y = 0.
(D) The point (1, 2) lies inside S
1
but outside S
2
.
[PARAGRAPH TYPE]
Paragraph for question nos. 9 to 11
Common tangents are drawn to C
1
: x
2
+ y
2
= 16 and C
2
: 4x
2
+ 25y
2
= 100.
Q.9 The x-intercept of common tangent of curves C
1
and C
2
having negative gradient in the
first quadrant is
(A)
7 2
(B)
3
7 4
(C)
7 2
(D)
3
7 4
Q.10 Area of quadrilateral formed by common tangents between C
1
and C
2
is
(A)
3
3 142
(B)
3
3
112
(C)
3
3
92
(D)
3
3
62
Q.11 If tangents are drawn from any point on director circle of C
1
to auxiliary circle of C
2
,
then locus of mid-points of chords of contact is
(A) x
2
+ y
2
=
12
625
(B) x
2
+ y
2
=
24
625
(C) x
2
+ y
2
=
16
625
(D) x
2
+ y
2
=
32
625
Let F and G be two real-valued functions defined on R (the set of all real numbers).
Consider
>
s +
=
0 x , x
0 x , 1 x
) x ( F ,
>
s +
=
1 x , 2 x
1 x , 1 x
) x ( G
and H(x) = F(x) + G(x).
Q.12 Which one of the following statement is correct ?
(A) H(x) increases in ( , 1) and decreases in (1, ).
(B) H(x) decreases in ( , 1) and increases in (1, ).
(C) H(x) has local minimum at x = 1.
(D) H(x) has local maximum at x = 1.
Q.13 Number of points of discontinuity of H(x) are
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
Q.14 The value of definite integral
}
2
2
dx ) x ( H is equal to
(A) 4 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 12
MATHEMATICS
[REASONING TYPE]
Q.15 & Q.16 has four choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Q.15 Let f(x) = (x
2
+ x 2) (x
2
+ 2x 3), x e R.
Statement-1: f(x) has local extremum at x = 1.
Statement-2: f(x) is differentiable for every x e R and f ' (1) = 0.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.16 Statement-1: If C and B , A

are three non-zero and non-coplanar vectors, then the vectors
A C C B B A

+ + and C B A

+ + are perpendicular vectors.
Statement-2: If q and p

are two non-zero vectors such that q p

= 0, then p
is perpendicular to q
.
PART-B
[MATRIX TYPE]
Q.1 has three statements (A, B, C) given in Column-I and four statements (P, Q, R, S) given in Column-II.
Any given statement in Column-I can have correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column-II.
Q.1 Column-I Column-II
(A) Line y = x + 2 is a tangent to the parabola y
2
= 8x. Let M be (P) 1
the point on this line, the other tangent from which is perpendicular
to this tangent. The distance of M from N(1, 2 2 ) is equal to (Q) 2
(B) Let P be the point on ellipse x
2
+ 2y
2
= 6, whose distance from line
x + y = 7 is least. The distance of P from Q(2, 1) is equal to
(C) The foci of ellipse 1
9
y
25
x
2 2
= + are S and S'. Let P be a point on (R) 3
ellipse whose eccentric angle is
3
t
. The distance of incentre of triangle (S) 4
SPS' from
|
.
|
\
|
3
2
, 0 is equal to
MATHEMATICS
PART-C
[INTEGER TYPE]
Q.1 to Q.4 are "Integer Type" questions. (The answer to each of the questions are upto 4 digits)
Q.1 Determine the total number of local maxima and local minima of the function
f(x) = |
.
|
\
|
t
x 2
cos(tx + 3t) +
2
1
t
sin(tx + 3t), where 0 < x < 4.
Q.2 Let P be a point on the plane x + y + z = 6 where the line passing through the points A(1, 0, 1) and
B(4, 2, 2) intersects the plane. If the shortest distance of the point P from the line of intersection of
the planes x + y + z = 1 and x + z = 0 is d , where d e N then find d.
Q.3 If P be the r
th
term when n arithmetic means are inserted between 5 and 100 and Q be the
r
th
term when n harmonic means are inserted between 5 and 100, then find the value of |
.
|
\
|
+
Q
100
5
P
.
Q.4 Given p, q e {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, ......., 19, 20}. Consider the system of equations
x + y + z = 4
2x + y + 3z = 6
x + 2y + pz = q
Let L: denotes number of ordered pairs (p, q) so that the system of equations has unique solution,
M: denotes number of ordered pairs (p, q) so that the system of equations has no solution and
N: denotes number of ordered pairs (p, q) so that the system of equations has infinite solutions.
Find (L + M N).
PHYSICS
PART-A
Q.1 In Fig. denote the numerical values of resistors in SI.
The total resistance of the circuit
a b
50
4
20
30
16
3
2
20
15
(A) 12 ohms
(B) 24 ohms.
(C) 15 ohms
(D) 6 ohms
Q.2 Fig. shows two magnetic field lines of a long conductor, located
perpendicular to the plane of the figure carrying inward current. In which
one of the points A, B, C, D vector of the magnetic field B to the right
and has the lowest magnitude.
A
C
B
D
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
Q.3 An LC circuit consists of inductance coil and a capacitor. At the initial time t = 0 capacitor is not
charged, the initial value of the current through the coil is not equal to zero. After the closure of the circuit
charge oscillates with period T. The energy of the electric field in the capacitor reaches a maximum value
at time
(A) T/2, T, 3T/2 (B) T/4, 3T/4, 5T/4 (C) T/4, 5T/4, 9T/4 (D) T/2, 3T/2, 5T/2
Q.4 A stream of liquid, set at an angle u, is directed against a plane
surface (figure). The liquid, after hitting the surface, spreads over
it. Find the pressure on the surface. The density of the liquid is
and its velocity is v.
u
v
a
(A) v
2
cos u (B) v
2
cos
2
u
(C)
2
1
v
2
cos u (D)
2
1
v
2
cos
2
u
Q.5 A conducting loop is halfway into a magnetic field. Suppose the magnetic field begins to increase rapidly
in strength. What happens to the loop ?

(A) The loop is pushed upward, toward the top of the page.
(B) The loop is pushed downward, toward the bottom of the page.
(C) The loop is pulled to the left, into the magnetic field.
(D) The loop is pushed to the right, out of the magnetic field.
Q.6 Comment on the magnetic field.
B
Induced E
(A) Increasing (B) Decreasing (C) Constant (D) Cannot be predicted

PHYSICS
Q.7 Rank in order, from largest to smallest, the angular acclerations o
1
to o
3
.
(1)
2kg
1N
2kg
2m
1N
(2)
2kg
1N
2kg
4m
1N
(3)
2kg
2N
2kg
4m
2N
30
30
(A) o
1
< o
2
= o
3
(B) o
1
> o
2
= o
3
(C) o
1
> o
2
> o
3
(D) o
2
> o
1
> o
3
Q.8 The figure shows volume flow rates (in cm
3
/s) for all but one tube. What is the volume flow rate through
the unmarked tube ? Is the flow direction in or out ?

?
10 1
2 8
4
Flows in cm /s
3
(A) 3 cm
3
/s out (B) 1 cm
3
/s out (C) 2 cm
3
/s out (D) 1 cm
3
/s in
[PARAGRAPH TYPE]
Like many other galvanometers, a ballistic galvanometer has a
coil which rotates between magnets. The ballistic galvanometer
has the special feature that its rotating coil has a large moment
of inertia. It is used to measure quantity of charge rather than
currents, for the large moment of inertia permits the passage of
a quantity of charge before the coil moves significantly. The
passage of the charge produces an impulse, a momentary torque,
which causes the coil then to swing to some maximum position.
For the ballistic galvanometer, the damping is made negligible.
Such a galvanometer was often used to standardize capacitors.
Galvanometer
Standard Capacitor
Standard Cell
+
Before first use the ballistic constant of the galvanometer must be determined. This is usually done by
connecting to the galvanometer a known capacitor, charged to a known voltage and recording the
deflection. The constant K is calculated from the capacitance C, the voltage V and the deflection u.
K = CV / u
where K is expressed in coulombs per degree. In operation the unknown quantity of charge Q (in
coulombs) is simply : Q = Ku.
[Take torsional constant of wire as C, moment of inertia of coil as I, number of turns of coil as N, area of
coil as A and magnetic field as B.]
Q.9 As the coil swings
(A) its angular velocity increases but angular acceleration decreases.
(B) its angular velocity decreases but angular acceleration increases.
(C) its angular velocity as well as angular acceleration increases.
(D) its angular velocity as well as angular acceleration decreases.
PHYSICS
Q.10 A standard capacitor with charge Q is connected to a galvanometer the maximum deflection is u. Now
identical uncharged capacitor is connected across galvanometer and a charge Q is given to left plate.
The maximum deflection will be
(A)
2
u
(B) u (C) 2u (D) 4u
Q.11 What is constant K in terms of parameters of galvanometer coil
(A)
INAB
C
(B)
I
CNAB
(C)
2 2 2
B A IN
C
(D)
I
B A CN
2 2 2
Blood pressure is measured with a sphygmomanometer (figure). The oldest kind of sphygnomanometer
consists of a mercury manometer on one side attached to a closed bag-the cuff. The cuff is wrapped
around the upper arm at the level of the heart and is then pumped up with air. The manometer measures
the gauge pressure of the air in the cuff.
At first, the pressure in the cuff is higher than the systolic pressure-the maximum pressure in the bronchial
artery that occurs when the heart contracts. The cuff pressure squeezes the artery closed and no blood
flows into the forearm. A valve on the cuff is then opened to allow air to escape slowly. When the cuff
pressure decreases to just below the systolic pressure, a little squirt of blood flows past the constriction
in the artery with each heartbeat. The sound of turbulent blood flow past the constriction can be heard
through the stethoscope.
As air continues to escape from the cuff, the soundof blood flowing through the constriction in the artery
continues to be heard. When the pressure in the cuff reaches the diastolic pressure in the artery the
minimum pressure that occurs when the heart muscle is relaxed there is no longer a constriction in the
artery, so the pulsing sounds cease. The gauge pressure for a healthy heart are nominally around 120
mmHg (systolic) and 80 mmHg (diastolic). Take atmospheric pressure as 760 mmHg. specific gravity of
mercury as 13.6 (approx.)
Q.12 The cuff pressure when the sound of turbulent blood flow is heard in case of a healthy heart is
(A) 120 mmHg (B) 80 mmHg (C) 880 mmHg (D) 840 mmHg
Q.13 An IV fluid bottle is connected to a patient's vein. The blood pressure in the vein has a gauge pressure
of 12 mmHg. At least how far above the vein must the IV bottle be hung in order for fluid to flow into the
vein ? Assume the fluid in the IV has the same density as blood.
(A) 12 mm (B) 163.2 mm (C)
6 . 13
12
mm (D) 12 cm
Q.14 In case of a healthy heart, what is approx. maximum pressure of blood in foot which is 1m below heart.
Take density of blood equal to that of water and specific gravity of mercury as 13.6
(A) 160 mmHg (B) 920 mmHg (C) 950 mmHg (D) 1000 mmHg
PHYSICS
[REASONING TYPE]
Q.15 & Q.16 has four choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Q.15 Statement-1 : The gauss law for magnetism states that
}
= 0 A d B

.
Statement-2 : Magnetic monopoles do not exist.
Q.16 Statement-1 : If we touch the steam coming out of a blowing whistle of a pressure cooker, water
vapour is cooler than 100C.
Statement-2 : During an adiabatic expansion, the temperature of gas falls.
PART-B
[MATRIX TYPE]
Q.1 has three statements (A, B, C) given in Column-I and four statements (P, Q, R, S) given in Column-II.
Q.1 Column-I Column-II
(A) Bernoulli's Theorem (P) Law of conservation of charge
(B) Kirchoff's loop law (Q) Law of conservation of angular momentum
(C) Kepler's second law (R) Law of conservation of linear momentum
(S) Law of conservation of energy
PART-C
[INTEGER TYPE]
Q.1 A circular disk of radius R with uniform charge density o rotates with an angular speed e. Show that the
magnetic field at the center of the disk is B = R
0
oe/n. Fill n in the OMR sheet.
Q.2 In the circuit (Figure), E = 5 V, r

= 1 ohm, R
2
= 4 ohms, R
3
= 3 ohms and C = 3 F. Find the charge on
the plates of capacitor A (in C).
C C
C C
R
1
R
2
R
3
c
r
A
PHYSICS
Q.3 A horizontal pipe has a cross section of 10 cm
2
in one region and of 5 cm
2
in another. The water velocity
at the first is 5 ms
1
and the pressure in the second is 2 10
5
Nm
2
. Find the pressure of water in 1
st
region (in 10
2
Pa).
Q.4 The drawing shows a top view of a frictionless horizontal surface, where there are two springs with
particles of mass m
1
and m
2
attached to them. Each spring has a spring constant of 1200 N/m. The
particles are pulled to the right and then released from the positions shown in the drawing. How much
time passes before the particles are side by side for the first time at x = 0m if m
1
= 3 kg and m
2
= 27 kg.
If time is
80
nt
sec, fill n in OMR sheet.
Position of
unstrained
spring
(x = 0)
CHEMISTRY
PART-A
Q.1 Let solubility of a sparingly soluble salt of strong base and weak acid in pure water is equal to s
1
, in a
buffer solution with pH < 7 is equal to s
2
and in another buffer solution with pH > 7 is equal to s
3
. If
hydrolysis is considered in all the solutions then the correct relation between s
1
, s
2
and s
3
is :
(A) s
1
= s
2
= s
3
(B) s
1
> s
2
> s
3
(C) s
1
< s
2
< s
3
(D)

s
2
> s
1
> s
3
Q.2 Which of the following is not the similar property between P
4
O
10
and P
4
O
6
?
(A) Both have ptdt bond.
(B) Equal number of POP linkages.
(C) Four 'P' atoms are sp
3
hybridised.
(D) 'd' orbital is involved in the formation of hydrolysis product.
Q.3
O N
2
H
H
O
O

A / H O
(A)
O N
2
OH
COO
(B)
O N
2
OH
COO
(C)
O N
2
O N
2
COO
CO
O
&
OH
OH
(D) None of these
Q.4 Structure of N
2
O is N = N = O. Calculate bond enthalpy of N = N bond in N
2
O.
Given :

A
O N , f
2
H = 100 kJmol
1
N N
BE
= 950 kJmol
1
O N
BE
=
= 600 kJmol
1
O O
BE
=
= 500 kJmol
1
and resonance energy of N
2
O = 100 kJ mol
1
(A) 500 kJmol
1
(B) 450 kJmol
1
(C) 400 kJmol
1
(D) 420 kJmol
1
Q.5 Poling process is used in the purification of :
(A) Sn (B) Cu (C) both (D) None
CHEMISTRY
Q.6 Consider the elementary reaction :
A
B
C
k
1
k
2
Given : k
1
= k
2
=
20
2 ln
min
1
. A, B and C all are optically active compound. If optical rotation per unit
concentration of A, B and C are 60, 40 and 80 and initial concentration of A is 1M, then time at
which reaction mixture will be optically inactive is :
(A) 100 min (B) 15 min (C) 25 min (D) 10 min
Q.7 (i) LAH
SBH/EtOH
(ii) H O
2
(A)
(B)
O NH
O
O
(A) and (B) are
(A)
O O NH NH
O
HO
O
&
(B)
O O NH NH
O
O
&
(C)
O O NH NH
HO
HO
O
&
(D)
O O NH NH
HO O
&
Q.8 Select the incorrect statement :
(A) Oxidation potential of Hydrogen electrode will increases with increase in partial pressure of hydrogen
gas if other parameters are kept constant.
(B) Boron and Cadmium are very good neutron absorber and are used in control rods of a nuclear
reactor.
(C) All exothermic reactions are accompanied by decrease of entropy.
(D) The oxidation state of Sulphur in S
2
O
8
2
is +6.
CHEMISTRY
[PARAGRAPH TYPE]
ONLY V-GROUP :
(A) + K Cr O + conc. H SO
2 2 7 2 4
Salt solid
NaOH
(E)
HCl
White fumes
(A)
(B)
Orange red fumes
NaOH
(C)
yellow solution
CH COOH
3
(CH COO) Pb
3 2
(D)
yellow ppt
gas
Q.9 What will be the hybridisation of central atom in compound (B), (C) and (D)?
(A) sp
2
(B) sp
3
d
2
(C) d
2
sp
3
(D) d
3
s
Q.10 BaCl
2
+ (C) (X)
For (X) which option is correct?
(A) X is soluble in NaOH (B) X is a yellow coloured compound
(C) X is amphoteric in nature (D) In X the ve ion is octahedral
Q.11 Salt (A) + AgNO
3

. ppt white
) Y (
+ O H ) E (
2

) solution le lub so (
) Z (
3
HNO
) ppt white (
) Y (
What will the hybridisation of central atom in complex (Z)?
(A) sp
3
d
2
(B) d
2
sp
3
(C) sp
3
(D) sp
CHEMISTRY
ONLY XY-GROUP :
For extraction of Cu from
2
CuFeS 2 (OR)
3 2 2
S Fe S Cu
Pulverisation
Froth floatation
Roasting
Smelting
Copper matte
Bessemerisation process
Blister Copper
Poling
Electrolysis gives 99.99% 'Cu'
Q.9 During poling which of the following is produced as impurity which is reduced by hydrocarbon gas ?
(A) Cu
2
S (B) Cu
2
O (C) CuFeS
2
(D) FeS
Q.10 In Bessemerisation process reducing agent is :
(A) Cu
2
S (B) SO
2
(C) C (D) SiO
2
Q.11 Choose the correct statement(s) when roasted copper pyrite is heated in a smelter.
(A) SiO
2
is used as flux (B) FeSiO
3
slag is obtained
(C) This process is pyro metallurgical (D) All the above are correct.
C
N
OH
H
+
(i) LAH
(i) MeMgX
(ii) H /H O
+
2
CHCl /OH
3
(ii) H O
2
(A) (B)
(D)
(C)
H
Q.12 A can be prepared by
(A)
O
| |
Cl C Ph + NH
3
(B)
O
| |
NH C Ph
2

A

5 2
O P
(C)
Cl

KCN . aq
(D)
C N

hydrolysis Partial
CHEMISTRY
Q.13 Which statement is incorrect about D?
(A) D can produce yellow ppt. on reaction with H O
/ I
2
(B) D can be prepared by Ph C CH on reaction with Hg
2+
/ H
+
/ H
2
O
(C) D can form geometrically isomeric oxime on reaction with NH
2
OH
(D) D can be converted into alcohol on reaction with Zn(Hg) / HCl.
Q.14 Which gas is evolved when B reacts with HNO
2
(A) NO (B) N
2
O (C) N
2
(D) CO
2
[REASONING TYPE]
Q.15 Statement-1 : By electrolysis of aqeous solution of Na
2
SO
4
using inert electrode, Na is obtained at
cathode.
Statement-2 : Discharge potential of Na
+
is greater than H
+
.
Q.16 Statement-1 :
CH
2
N
H C
3
CH
3
(I)
is more stable resonating structure than
CH
2
N
H C
3
CH
3
(II)
Statement-2 : Structure I contains benzenoid ring while structure II has non benzenoid ring.
CHEMISTRY
PART-B
[MATRIX TYPE]
Q.1 has Three statements (A,B,C) given in Column-I and Four statements (P, Q, R, S) given in Column-II.
Q.1 Column I Column II
(Reactant) (Product, on Ozonolysis)
(A) (P)
O
(B) (Q)
O
(C)
H
(R)
O
| |
H C C H
3

(S)
O
PART-C
[INTEGER TYPE]
Q.1 When equal volume of 0.2 M AgNO
3
and 1M KCN solutions were mixed then at equilibrium,
concentration of Ag
+
was found to be 10
6
M. While when equal volume of 0.2 M Zn(NO
3
)
2
solution
and of 1M KCN solution were mixed then at equilibrium, concentration of Zn
2+
ion was found to be
10
12
M. Then find the equilibrium constant of the following reaction.
2[Ag(CN)
2
]
(aq) + Zn
2+
(aq) [Zn(CN)
4
]
2
(aq) + 2Ag
+
(aq)
Q.2 How many of the following are paramagnetic having
spin
(Magnetic moment) 2.8 BM ?
N
2
, O
2
, B
2
, C
2
, C
2
2+
, N
2
2
, F
2
, O
2
, Li
2
+
, B
2
If your answer is 2, write the answer as 0002.

Instruction for Q.3
Partial Marks (+1) will be awarded for correct value of each 'a','b','c' & 'd'.
Q.3 Calculate 'abcd'
'a' = pH at which Mg(OH)
2
begins to precipitate from a solution containing 0.1M Mg
2+
ions.
[ Given :
11
) OH ( Mg , sp
10 K
2
=
]
'b' = (AH AU) in kJ for the reaction 2CO(g) + O
2
(g) 2CO
2
(g) occuring in a rigid vessel of 1L
capacity in which pressure changes from 70 bar to 40 bar.
'c' = Order of reaction in which half life is directly proportional to initial concentration.
'd' = Number of | particles emitted when U
238
92
changes into radioactive Pb
206
82
.
CHEMISTRY
Q.4 For compound
O
OH
OH
H
C
C
OH
(i) Number of functional group (x) (except C = C and C C)
(ii) Number of functional group which can react with Na (y)
(iii) Number of functional group which can react with NaOH (z)
(iv) Number of functional group which can react with NaHCO
3
(w)
then xyzw will be

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Class: 13

(A) Increasing (B) Decreasing (C) Constant (D) Cannot be predicted

If your answer is 2, write the answer as 0002.

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