SNO

Question Which among below are the focus areas under operations maturity? (a) Metrics culture (b) Strong interface with COE and PE (c) Process definition, Implementation and Compliance (d) Recording customer complaints (e) Conducting meetings

Option 1 All of above

Which tool(s) is used for recording the audit findings?

All of above

(a) Prolite (b) Qsmart (c) Wiki (d) Remedy

Which function administers the six monthly IT IS business CSAT process?

(a) Operations maturity (b) DAG (c) HR (d) Finance

Which are the 3 phases in the transition framework?

a, b, and e

(a) Planning (b) Knowledge transfer (c) Pilot and guided support (d) Service operations (e) Business relationship management

Objective of this phase is to ensure Proposal terms and conditions are clearly understood by the delivery team and corresponding statement of work is agreed upon by all stakeholders. Which phase is this? (a) Proposal (b) Transition (c) Formalization and Due diligence (d) Service delivery

Objective of this phase is to ensure effective transfer of all the information and knowledge required from customer/vendor to run offshore services independently by Cognizant Team. Which phase is this? (a) Service operations (b) Transition (c) Formalization and Due diligence (d) Service delivery

Cognizant Team starts handling tickets and circulates daily dashboard in which phase of transition? (a) Planning (b) Pilot and guided support (c) Knowledge transfer

(d) None of above

What is the frequency of the steady state phase Project management review (PMR) for d large engagements? (a) Weekly (b) Fortnightly (c) Monthly (d) Quarterly

The service capability of each engagement is evaluated and tracked using

(a) Six Sigma score (b) CSAT score (c) Delivery maturity index (d) Compliant register

10

Why is it important to daily measure the SLA/KPI performance and publish daily dashboard? (a) OM Quality person requires it (b) Daily measurement triggers real-time corrective actions (c) Because it needs to be considered for daily practice level SLA compliance score (d) None of above

11

Which of the following statements is true for a service management plan (SMP)?

(a) Once approved the SMP is not revised. (b) SMP requires a review whenever there are major changes. (c) It is necessary to update the Change Log on subsequent reviews and approvals of SMP (d) None of above

12

To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimize the adverse impact on business operations is the objective of which ITIL process?

(a) Request fulfillment (b) Release management (c) Capacity management (d) Incident management

13

Which among the following is not an exit criterion for the Pilot and guided support phase? (a) Availability of signed off run books or technical SOPs (b) Daily dash board implemented (c) KT execution as per plan. (d) Process documents reviewed and signed-off

14

Which of the following is not an objective of problem management?

(a) Minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented (b) Preventing problems and resulting incidents (c) Eliminating recurring incidents

15

(d) Restoring normal service operations as quickly as possible and minimize the adverse impact on What is best description of a known error?

(a) Incident with causal analysis done (b) A problem that has a documented root cause and a work around. (c) Service request which has not been completed but scheduled (d) Knowledge base with errors

16

The four stages of the Deming cycle are?

(a) Plan-Measure-Monitor-Report (b) Plan-check-React-Implement (c) Plan-Do-Act-Audit (d) Plan-Do-Check-Act

17

Which of the following is the correct sequence of activities for handling an incident?

(a) Identification, logging, categorization, prioritization, Initial diagnosis, Functional escalation, Investigation and diagnosis, Resolution and recovery, closure. (b) Identification, prioritization, logging, categorization, Initial diagnosis, Functional escalation, Investigation and diagnosis, Resolution and recovery, closure. (c) Identification, logging, Initial diagnosis, categorization, prioritization, Functional escalation, Investigation and diagnosis, Resolution and recovery, closure. (d) Identification, Investigation, logging, categorization, Functional escalation, Prioritization, Initial diagnosis, Resolution and recovery, closure. The goal of configuration management is to?

18

(a) Account for all the financial assets of the organization (b) Provide accurate information on configurations and their documentation to support all the other Service Management processes (c) Build service models to justify ITIL implementation (d) Implement ITIL across the organization

19

Which among the following is not an aim of change management process?

(a) Minimize impact of change related incidents (b) Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of changes (c) All changes are handled in a prompt manner. (d) All budgets and expenditure are accounted for

20

Business, service and component based considerations are handled as a sub-process of which ITIL process? (a) Capacity management (b) Supplier management (c) Incident management (d) Change management

21

Determining the vital business functions and impact arising from IT component failure is c done in which ITIL process.

(a) Capacity management (b) Supplier management (c) Availability management (d) Change management

22

Which is the team from CTS that reviews the project specific BCP requirements and tests the BCP at defined frequency? (a) Operations maturity (b) Global information security (GIS) (c) Finance (d) HR

23

An Incident occurs when: (a) A user is unable to access a service during service hours (b) An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service hours (c) A network segment fails and the user is not aware of any disruption to service (d) A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an application.

All of the above

24

Determining vital business functions and designing greater level of resilience is done by? (a) Capacity management (b) Supplier management (c) Availability management (d) Change management

25

The following is not a key activity of the IT service continuity process?

(a) Business impact analysis (b) Risk Assessment (c) Testing strategy (d) Monitoring service availability

26

Service level agreement is?

(a) The part of the contract that specifies responsibility of each party (b) An agreement between service provider and an internal organization (c) An agreement between service provider and an external organization (d) An agreement between service provider and their customer

27

Important metric used to actively manage and report on the process, IT service or activity is called as? (a) Critical success factor (b) Key performance indicator (c) Kano model (d) Operational level agreement

28

A root cause analysis is to be done when?

(a) There are SLA breaches (b) Customer escalations (c) Customer satisfaction survey is not meeting the expectations

(d) There are non-conformances reported in internal audit cycle (e) None of above (f) All of above

29

DMAIC are the phases of which methodology?

(a) Six Sigma (b) SIPOC (c) Service Transformation (d) IT IS

30

ESA project creation is carried out in which phase?

(a) Proposal (b) Formalization and due diligence (c) Transition (d) Delivery management

31

The risk exposure value is a factor of which parameters listed below?

a, b, and c

(a) Probability (b) Impact (c) Detectability (d) Skills of delivery manager (e) Customer location

32

The delivery maturity index for a project is a factor of which parameters listed below?

b, c

(a) SLA performance (b) Escalations (c) Knowledge management (d) Risk Assessment (e) Monetary Awards from customer

33

The technology maturity index for an engagement is assessed by which function?

(a) Operations maturity (b) COE (Committee of expertise) (c) Production engineering (d) NSS

34

A formally negotiated agreement to identify expectations, clarify responsibilities and facilitate communication between service provider and customer, to provide a certain level of service is called as (a) Operational level agreement (b) Project plan (c) Service level agreement (d) Work Order

35

A formally negotiated agreement to identify expectations, clarify responsibilities and facilitate communication between service provider and customer, to provide a certain level of service is called as

(a) Operational level agreement (b) Project plan (c) Service level agreement (d) Work Order

36

A document which explains the formulae details, exceptions, data source etc for a metrics is called as (a) SLA/KPI Operational definition document (b) PMR (c) Heat Map report (d) Automation maturity index

37

Which report mentions the trending of DMI/AMI and TMI across verticals and engagements? (a) Risk and escalation report (b) Transition status report (c) Heat Map assessment report

38

Which are the mandated training(s)/certifications in IT IS practice?

(a) Qview (b) Six Sigma yellow belt (c) ITIL-CCP (d) CSQA (e) PMP

39 40 41

Which activity takes place immediately after recording and registering an incident?

Analysis and diagnosis

Which ITIL process has the objective to monitor the IT services by maintaining a logical Capacity Mgt model of the IT infrastructure and IT services? Which statement best describes the role of a service desk First point of contact for the customer

42

Which activity is not a service desk activity?

Registering incidents

43

A service desk receives different type of calls. Which if the following is an incident?

Information about roll-out of a specific application

44

Which process is responsible for discussing reports with the customer showing whether Continual service services have met their targets? improvement

45

Which of the following are the objectives of release and deployment management process? a. To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans b. To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations and support staff

A, b, and c only

A, b, and c only

c. To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services, operations and support d. To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the business Service level agreement is The part of contract that specifies responsibility of each party The relative importance of the incident based on impact and urgency

46

The priority of an incident refers to?

47

Which of the following is not an example of a service request?

User calls to order a toner cartridge

48

Incident management has a value to the business by?

Helping control infrastructure cost of adding new technology

49

Which of the following best describes the purpose of event management?

The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine appropriate control action

50 51

An Incident or Problem for which the root cause is known and for which a temporary Work-around or a permanent alternative has been identified is called as Which of the following is NOT an objective of problem management?

Change

Minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented

52

Which of the following best describes a major incident?

A complex incident which requires a root cause analysis before any workaround can be found

53 54

A measure of how long it will be until an incident, problem or change has a significant impact on the usiness is a definition of A process to notify all stakeholders, opening a dedicated bridge and updating stakeholders on the progress, implementing decisions taken in the call, contacting COEs/SMEs if the issue is not resolved is defined in A problem management is an

Urgency Problem management process

55

Proactive process

56

Which of the following tasks is a part of proactive problem management

Making a change to resolve a problem

57

When is a known error identified?

When the cause of problem is known

58

What is the use of additional technical expertise in the incident management process called?

Incident classification

59

Of which ITIL process are reliability, serviceability and maintainability components?

IT service continuity management

60 61

The ability of a Configuration Item or IT Service to resist Failure or to Recover quickly following a Failure is called as Which ITIL process is responsible for determining the hardware necessary in order to support an application?

Resilience Availability management

62

An analysis is made regarding the expansion of the customer information database. The Availability management result indicates that the mainframe disk capacity must be increased to accommodate the expected growth of the database in the foreseeable future. Which process is responsible for sharing this information on time, to make sure that the available disk space is sufficient? How a change that must be made quickly is called? Fast change

63 64 65

What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called? What is the term used for a fully described and approved change that does not have to be evaluated by change management each time?

Replacement request Request for change

66

Which ITIL process carries out a risk analysis on the possible threats to and vulnerabilities of the IT infrastructure?

Configuration management

67

What does the term detail level mean in context of the configuration management data Relationship between the base? different configuration items

68

When is a back-out plan invoked?

When it is found that something went wrong when building a change

69

What is the first activity when implementing a release?

Designing and building a release

70 71 72

Some of the invitees for the transition kick-off meeting are Contract review, Resource/Infrastructure requirements review and set-up, establishing transition governance are carried out in which stage of the transition process? Few activities carried out in the KT Phase of the transition are a. Organize Quiz / Tests to evaluate the effectiveness of knowledge acquisition by the team b. Transfer of knowledge between onshore and offshore teams c. Obtain call/ticket history and baseline figures d. Obtain information on interfaces and handoffs with third party vendors. e. Publish daily dashboard on ticket/call handling performance.

VP-IT IS Planning

a, b, and c

73

Which of the following statements about a standard change is INCORRECT?

A standard change is one for which the approach is pre-authorized by change management

74

The three sub-processes of capacity management are:

Business, service and component capacity management

75

Which of the following statement are correct? a. Problem management can support service desk by providing known errors to speed up the incident resolution. b. Problem management provides information to service level management about the impact of changes. The following options are considered within which process? a. Big bang Vs phased

A only

76

Incident management

Incident management

b. Push and Pull c. Automated Vs manual

77

Which statement best describes a problem?

One or more known errors

78

In which cases must a review take place after implementation of a change?

If another incident of the same type occurs again

It is important for the operation of a given application that the version of the software installed on each of the computers on the network is the same. Which process is responsible for this?

Change management

79 80

An issue resulting in a financial loss to the customer or a work stopper issue is a An up-to date database containing carefully written articles of tickets which have been resolved overtime by technical specialists and which has an excellent information retrieval system (search engine), and a well designed content format and classification structure is The Automation Maturity index for an engagement is assessed by which function? IT IS Projects reports the SLA compliance, Customer Complaints & any project issues, if any on a daily basis in the form of a A customer-based Service Level Agreement structure includes:

Level 1 escalation Solution database

81 82 83

NSS PMR

An SLA covering all Customer groups and all the services they use

84

Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added by Problem Management to the Service Desk?

The number of Problems raised

85

Within a CMDB, which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents and Problems? (1) One Incident to one Problem (2) One Incident to many Problems (3) Many Incidents to one Problem Does Problem Management depend ENTIRELY on having a mature Incident Management process in place?

1 & 2 only

Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place there is no reliable information available When it is urgent

86

At what point does an Incident turn into a Problem?

87

The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:

Technically focused, so that they may be understood by IT professionals

88

The process to implement SLAs comprises of the following activities in sequence:

Draft SLAs, catalogue services, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLRs, negotiate, agree SLAs

89 90

Which of the following represents the four stages of the Demming cycle in the correct order One of the key objectives of Metrics group(SMG) is to

Check, Plan, Do, Act

Define KPIs that reflect efficiency and effectiveness of the operations

91 92

Combination of two or more measures used to compare processes, projects, products. E.g. Productivity, Seat Utilization etc is defined as PMR stands for

Baseline Peer Management Review

93

The suggestion RCA techniques for any SLA deviation is/are

Pareto Analysis ONLY

94 95 96 97

The group that is involved in defining & maintaining the Technical procedures to run day PE to day activities required to support the service at an operations or procedural level is OM facilitates productivity and automation initiatives in various deliveries along with COE and PE teams. IT IS QView is aligned to ITIL V3 LifeCycle What is the RACI model used for? TRUE TRUE Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity.

98

Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the following? 1. Incident Management

Event management and Request Fulfillment

Event management and Request Fulfillment 2. Problem Management 3. Access Management 4? 5?

9 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108

Establishing Governance is a part of which Transition Phase

Knowledge Transfer

Infrastructure Readiness is a part of Pilot & Guided Phase SMP stands for

TRUE Service Management Plan

Effectiveness of Transition is measured as part of Resource Identification is a part of which Transition Phase

DashBoard Knowledge Transfer

It is equally important to understand the Customer Infrastructure during the KT Phase Transition CSAT survey is administered to Customer to obtain feedback on Transition by A business agreement between organization and the customer, forming the basis for project execution. Contract/ SoW Should are reviewed by technical, finance and legal groups before submitting to customer. The Agreement containing terms and conditions and description of services which may be used in absence of Master Agreement to serve as contractual documents During the Transition Phase, Risk updation is a part of OM Statement

TRUE

TRUE Master Business Agreement 1 and 2 only

(a) Transition ScoreCard (b) Deployment & Effectiveness ScoreCard (c) Transition PMR (d) Transition Workbook

109

The objective of the Change Management process is most accurately described as?

Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested and implemented in a controlled manner

110

The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of people?

Senior business managers and all IT staff

111

The spell check module of a word-processing software package contains a number of errors. The Development department has corrected these errors in a new version. Which process is responsible for ensuring this updated version is tested?

Configuration Management

112

Of which ITIL process are Reliability, Serviceability and Maintainability components?

IT Service Continuity Management

113 114 115 116 117

The ISO standard for IT service management is The cumulative effect of the chances of uncertain occurrences adversely affecting project objectives is a First call resolution % is a typical metrics for a

ISO 20000 Risk Problem management

Mean time to resolve/repair is a typical metrics for a

Incident management

Configuration items discrepancy % is a typical metrics for a

Change management

118

Which of the following is NOT an agenda item in the PMR

Project metrics

119

Which among the following is not a KPI for service level management

Number of services covered by SLAs

120 121 122 123

Which among the following a NOT a parameter in the delivery maturity index?

SLA performance

The total time elapsed from the time of disaster until IT infrastructure and data is recovered and project can resume operations is the A collection of one or more changes that includes new and/or changed configuration items that are tested and then introduced into the live environment is a

Recovery time objective

Change

Term used to describe a secure compound in which the definitive authorized versions of Definitive software library all software CIs are stored and protected is

124

Ticket review is done because

It is mandated by OM QR

125 126

What is Q view? Which of the following is correct with regards to organization quality objectives/

QMS Exceed customer expectation

127

QView processes are compliant to :

ISO 20000 and ITIL Framework

128 129 130

Operations Maturity group has a strong interface with;

TCG and PE team

Quality and productivity organization structure includes: Proposal phase of the IT IS Process framework belongs to which ITIL process areas?

IT IS SEG Service strategy & Service design.

131 132 133 134

Formalization and Due diligence phase of IT IS Process framework belongs to which ITIL process areas? Knowledge transfer of IT IS Process framework belongs to which ITIL process areas? Pilot and guided support of IT IS Process framework belongs to which ITIL process areas? Resource identification is a part of which phase of Transition lifecycle?

Service strategy Service strategy Service strategy Planning Phase

135

Project Planning is done during which phase of Transition lifecycle?

Planning Phase

136

CSAT is done during which phase of Transition lifecycle?

Planning Phase

137 138 139 140 141 142

CSAT is administered during the KT phase of the Transition ? TRUE or FALSE How is the transition progress tracked in an engagement

TRUE D&E Scorecard

Daily Dashboards are initiated during

Steady State

Audits are conducted only during steady state RFP stands for

TRUE Response For proposal

Deployment parameters in the D&E scorecard are : (i) Governance (ii) Customer reports (iii) Process Documentation (iv) CritSit Management

(i), (ii) & (iii)

143

Effectiveness parameters in the D&E scorecard are : (i) Governance (ii) Customer reports (iii) Process Documentation (iv) CritSit Management

(i), (ii) & (iii)

144 145

PMR is conducted only during steady state TCG leads are not a part of Transition Governance meetings

TRUE TRUE

146 147 148 149 150

Preparing Transition Plan in line with SoW and obtain customer sign off is responsibility Quality Representative of MSA stands for Major Supplier Agreement

LOI stands for

Level Of Investigation

CRITSIT Management is done during which phase BusinessImpact Understanding presentation is done during ?

Deployment Planning Phase

151

Transition Planning activities?

Obtain sales handover

152 153 154

Non-disclosure agreement signed at the start of interaction with the customer Input for Knowledge Transfer phase is Process & Technical SOP documentation are done during?

TRUE Project plan Planning Phase

155 156

During Knowledge Transfer first draft of SMP is prepared Objective of Pilot & Guided Support phase is?

TRUE start shadowing

157 158

What is purpose of Cognizant's Policy

Provides Vision and approach

Qview is hosted on?

https://c20ecosyste m.cognizant.com

159

What are the challenges related to Business and IT allignment

Large teams and people issues

160

What are the challenges in Insufficient Collabration?

Compliance and control

161

In which stage is the Start up audit conducted?

Transition phase

162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169

Which group administers the Business C-sat survey What are the 3 phases of Transition Phase

PM/ PL Transition Planning

What does DMI stand for?

Delivery Maturity Index

Run books contain information about: Transition C-Sat is conducted at the end of which phase?

Technical Procedures Due-Deligence

Q-View is a :

Reporting Tool

The ISO standard applicable for IT IS is? RACI Stands for

ISO 20000 Responsible, accountable, Conuslted , Infomed

170 171 172

SAG team key objective is ? SEG team key objective is ?

Assurance Engineering

Qview Process are compliant to:

ISO 20000 and ITIL Framework

173
Which one is people and Process challenge ? Multi-location support

174
Which are the Short cycle Time IT service management Challenges Changing architectures

175

Why do we need Qview?

Helps control costs and risks that can potentially damage customer relationships SLA Compliance

176 177 178 179 180

The objective of Daily Dashboard is to? Which phase has the Objective to ensure Proposal terms and conditions are clearly understood by the delivery team and corresponding statement of work is agreed upon by all stakeholders Practice level Daily dashboard is : Audit Findings are logged in ?

Proposal Internal Report Q-view

Six Sigma Initiatives are a part of :

Pilot and guided Support

181

In IT IS Process framework which are the ITIL activities

Proposal

Option 2 a, b and c

Option 3 None of above

Option 4 a, b, and e

Option 5

Correct Option 2

c and d

None of above

None of above

b, c and d

c, d an e

a, b and c

b and c

b and c

1 and 4 only

2 and 3 only

None of the above

b and c

d and e

a, b, and c

b and d

d and e

a, b, c, and d.

a, b and c

Classification

Matching

Solving and restoring

Change Mgt Primary deck of Service desk is to investigate problems

Configuration Mgt It ensures that the agreed IT service is available

Financial Mgt It ensures that the telephone is always manned.

3 1

Solving a problem

Relating an incident to a known error

Applying temporary fixes

A notification that a new toner cartridge has been installed

A system message that a printer is not working

A request to install a new book keeping package

Business relationship management

Service level management Availability management

All of above

A and c only

A, c and d only

All of above

A and c only

A, c and d only

An agreement between service provider and an internal organization The speed with which the incident needs to be resolved

An agreement between service provider and an external supplier The number of staff that will be assigned to work on the incident so that it is resolved in time

An agreement between service provider and their customer The escalation path that would be followed to ensure resolution of incident

User calls because they would like a change to application functionality.

Manager submits a request for a new employee to be given access to an application

A user logs onto an internal website to download a licensed copy of software from a list of approved options.

Enabling users to resolve problems

Helping to align people and Contributing to the process for a delivery of reduction of impact. service

The ability to implement monitoring tools

The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff

The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of infrastructure services

Problem

Known error

Event

Preventing problems and resulting incidents from happening

Eliminating recurring incidents

Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimizing adverse impact on business

An incident that requires large number of people to resolve

An incident that is so The incident which has complex that the service high impact on the desk takes longer than five business. times the normal time to log it.

Impact Critical situation management process

Priority Change management process

MTTR Service desk process

1 2

Reactive process

Both reactive and proactive None of the above process

Registering frequently occurring errors

Analyzing trends

Managing known errors

When the incident has been sent to problem management

When the problem is known

When the problem has been resolved.

Functional escalation

Resolution and recovery of Problem analysis incident

Service level management Problem management

Availability management

Resistance Capacity management

Repeatability Change management

Toughness Configuration management

1 2

Capacity management

Change management

Security management

Urgent change

An unplanned change

Standard change

Request for change Service request

Request for release Standard change

Service request Urgent change

2 3

IT service continuity management

Problem management

Capacity management.

The depth of database structure

The quantity of stores configuration items

The location of the Configuration item

When it is found that something went wrong when implementing a change

When it is found that When it is found that something went wrong something went wrong when scheduling resources when testing a change.

Testing a release

Compiling the release schedule

Communicating and preparing the release.

VSL Knowledge transfer

DL Pilot and guided support

TCG and OM team

All of above

5 1

a, b, c, d and e

b and c

all except e

All of above.

Each standard change is granted by the nominated authority for that change

Standard changes are usually low risk and wellunderstood

Standard changes are only raised using the request fulfillment process.

Supplier, service and component capacity management

Supplier, service and technology capacity management

Business, capacity, technology and component capacity management

B only

Both A and B

Neither of above.

Release management

Service asset and configuration management

Release management

Service asset and configuration management

A known cause of one or more disruptions

An unknown cause of one or more incidents

A known error with one or more incidents.

Always

At the request of the person who submitted the change request

Randomly

Configuration management Network management

Release management

Level 2 escalation Change database

Level 3 escalation. Configuration database Capacity management database

3 1

COE MetBook

Production engineering Daily Dashboard

Operations maturity SLA Assessment Report

3 3

SLAs for each service that are Customer-focused and written in business language

An SLA for each service type, covering all those Customer groups that use that Service

An SLA with each individual Customer group, covering all of the services they use

The number of Known Errors identified

The number of Problems correctly categorized

The number of RFCs raised

2 & 3 only

1 & 3 only

All of them

No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of little importance to proactive Problem Management

No, because progress can Yes, because trend still be made on solving analysis cannot be long-standing Problems undertaken without a lot of accurate Incident Management information Never

When it is a Major Incident If the person reporting the incident is very senior

A mixture of business, Clear and concise, leaving Legally worded as they technical and legal no room for ambiguity. must be contractually language, so that they can binding be understood by everyone

Draft SLAs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalogue services,

Review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalogue services, negotiate, agree SLAs

Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate service levels, agree SLAs

Act, Plan, Do, Check

Plan, Do, Check, Act

Act, Check, Do, Plan

Identify opportunities for Service Improvement

Drive Six Sigma & Lean Projects

Define & Maintain

Metrics

Request

Measure Project Metrics Review

2 3

Performance Management Project Management Review Review

Pareto Analysis & FishBone Diagram

FishBone Diagram ONLY

SIP

OM

TCG

PE, OM & TCG

FALSE FALSE Defining requirements for a Analyzing the business new service or process impact of an incident Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service Management.

1 1 1

Event Management and Service Desk

Facilities Management and Change Management and Event Management Service Level Management.

Event Management and Service Desk

Facilities Management and Change Management and Event Management Service Level Management.

Steady State

Planning

Pilot & Guided Phase

FALSE Service Management Process MetBook Steady State Software Management Process Transition WorkBook Planning Service Management Project D&E ScoreCard Pilot & Guided Phase

2 1

4 3

FALSE Transition Manager Contract FALSE Master Service Agreement Statement of Work Letter of Intent PE Clause COE Letter

1 2 2 1 4

2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

All of the above.

Ensuring that changes to IT infrastructure are managed efficiently and effectively

Ensuring that all changes Protecting services by not have appropriate back-out allowing changes to be plans in the event of failure made.

Senior business managers, All customers, users and IT Information Security IT executives and the staff Management staff only. Security Manager

Incident Management

Problem Management

Release Management.

Service Level Management Problem Management

Availability Management

ISO 9000 Issue Service desk

ISO 14000 Problems Change management

ISO 9004 Concerns Access management

1 1 2

Change management

Capacity management

Availability management

Configuration management Availability management

Incident management

Profitability

Service improvements

Organization BES survey compliance

Number of SLAs where the Number of Services where Number of resources which agreed service levels are SLAs are backed up by have cleared ITIL v3. fulfilled corresponding OLAs/ UCs

Knowledge management

Ticket creation automation Risk management

Recovery point objective

BCP Objective.

Release

Incident

Request.

Definitive hardware stores

CMDB

SKMS (Service knowledge management system).

It is a template in qview

To verify if the incident classification/resolution process is followed as per guidelines.

A template Meet specific product quality requirements.

Process Delivered within the budgeted cost.

A document All of the above

1 4

ISO 9001 : 2000

CMMI Level 5 ver 1.2 and ISO 27001 (Security processes)

All of the above

Vertical and horizontals

Third party vendors

IT IS SAG

IT IS SMG

All of the above Service strategy & Service Operation

4 1

Service design and Service Service Transition & Transition Service operations

Service design Service design Service design KT

Service transition Service transition Service transition Pilot & Guided Support Phase

Service Operations Service Operations Service Operations All of the above

2 3 3 1

KT

Pilot & Guided Support Phase

All of the above

KT

Pilot & Guided Support Phase

All of the above

FALSE Weekly report Transition PMR Transition Governance

2 1

KT phase

Project planning phase

Pilot & Guided Support

FALSE Request for Proposal Request for policy Request for project

2 2

(ii) & (iii)

(i) & (iii)

All of the above

(ii) & (iii)

(ii) & (iv)

All of the above

FALSE FALSE

2 1

Delivery Lead

Transition Manager

Operations Manager

Master Service Agreement Management Supplier Agreement Letter Of Intent Line Of Initiation

Master Supplier Agreement

Letter Of Investigation

Effectiveness KT Pilot & Guided Support Phase All of the above

2 1

Contract review

Resource and transition planning

All of the above

FALSE Transition Plan KT SOW Pilot & Guided Support Phase All of the above All of the above

1 2 3

FALSE ram up providing support to Measuring, tracking & customer reporting of SLAs & KPIs All of the above

1 4

Tells us what to do

Tells us how to do

Provides tools, format

all the above

https://c20system.co https://cognizant20e https://c20ecosys.co https://c2ecosystem. gnizant.com cosystem.cognizant.c gnizant.com cognizant.com om

Convergence of strategy, governance and management

Changing architectures

Weak Tool support

Measuring IT in business value outcomes

Large teams and people issues

Compliance and control

None of the above

Service Initiation phase

Steady state Operation Phase

Continous Improvement Phase

None of the above

Service Desk Knowledge Transfer

OM Pilot & guided Support

Third - Party Option 1 and 2 above

None of the above All of the above

3 4

Delivery Monthly Index

Delivery Monitory Index

Delivery Monthly Indicator

BCP Guidelines Pilot and guided Support

Transition Process Steady State operations

Ticket Status After 1st Audit

1 2

Feedback Tool

Process Document Repository ISO 14000 Review, auditable, Conuslted , Infomed

Audit Tracker

ISO 9000 Responsible, auditable, Conuslted , Infomed

ISO 9004 Review,accountable, Conuslted , Infomed

1 1

Audit Effectiveness

Accountable Enabling

1 1 4

ISO 9001 : 2000

CMMI Level 5 ver 1.2

ISO 27001

All of the above 1

Faster time to resolve incidents

Balancing stability v. responsiveness

Multi-location support 3

Balancing stability v. responsiveness

Communication

Option 1 and 2 above

All of the above 4

Set of industry best practices to increase the likelihood of achieving service excellence Customer Complaints

Based on ITIL Framework and ISO 20000 SIP's

Option 1 and 3 above Option 1 and 2 above

All of the above 4 Option 1 and 3 above 2

Due Diligence Customer Report Q-smart Continous Improvement Process

Transition None of the above Audit Tracker

Knowledge Transfer

Pilot and Guided support 1

Daily Dashboard

2 2

Steady State Operations

Customer Relationship Mgmt

Service Support

Service Delivery

Business Relationship MgmtOption 2 and 3 above