AIEEE/FST 3 23.01.

2011

BRILLIANTS FULL SYLLABUS TEST 3

FOR STUDENTS OF OUR ONE/TWO-YEAR POSTAL COURSE TOWARDS

ALL INDIA ENGINEERING ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2011

MATHEMATICS, PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY
Time: 3 hours IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS Maximum marks: 432

1. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 432. 2. There are three parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under for each correct response. Part A MATHEMATICS (144 Marks) Questions No. 1 to 9 and 13 to 21 and 25 to 30 consist of FOUR (4) marks each and Questions No. 10 to 12 and 22 to 24 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each correct response. Part B PHYSICS (144 Marks) Questions No. 33 to 49 and 54 to 60 consist of FOUR (4) marks each and Questions No. 31 to 32 and 50 to 53 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each correct response. Part C CHEMISTRY (144 Marks) Questions No. 64 to 69, 73 to 90 consist of FOUR (4) marks each and Questions No. 61 to 63 and 70 to 72 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each correct response. 3. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated in instruction No. 2 for correct response of each question.1/4 (one-fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet. 4. Use Blue/Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars/ marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited 5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, page mobile phone, any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room 6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the bottom of each page

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :________________________________________________

Roll Number: in figures

: in words ___________________________________________________________________

Examination Centre Number:

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SEAL

PART A : MATHEMATICS
1. If z1 and z2 are two nonzero complex numbers such that
z
1

4. If the two circles (x 1)2 + (y 3)2 = r2 and x2 + y2 8x + 2y + 8 = 0 intersect in two distinct points, then (1) r < 2 (2) r = 2 (4) 2 < r < 8

= z

z , 2

then arg z1 arg z2 is equal to

2 2

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

(3) r > 2

5. The number of integral terms in the

256

2. If the roots of the quadratic equation x2 + px + q = 0 are tan 30 and tan 15 respectively, then the value of 5 + q p is (1) 0 3. The sin
1

expansion of (1) 33 (2) 34

is (4) 32

(3) 35

6. If f(x) = sin x, g(x) = x2, h(x) = logex and F(x) = (h g f) (x), then F(x) is (1) 2 cosec2 x (2) 2 cosec2 x (3) 2x cot x2 (4) 2 cot x2 4 x2 cosec2 x2 7. The number of values of k for which the equation x3 3x + k = 0 has two different roots lying in the interval (0, 1) are

(2) 5

(3) 6

(4) 3 equation

trigonometric x = 2 sin
1

a, has a solution for

(1) all real values of a

1 (2) a < 2

(3) a

1 2 < a < 1 2

(4)

1 2

(1) 0 (3) 3 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(2) 2 (4) infinitely many

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3 8. Direction ratios of normal to the plane which passes through the points (1, 0, 0) and (0, 1, 0) which makes angle x + y = 3 are (1) 1, 1, 2 (3) 1 , 1 , 2 (2)
2, 1, 1 4

Statement 2: If is a root of f(x) = 0, then is a root of f( x) = 0. 10. Statement 1: The number of terms in the expansion of (a + b + c + d)5 is 56. Statement 2: The number of non-

with

(4) 1 , 2 , 1

Questions 9 to 14 are Assertion-Reason type questions. Select the correct choice from the following options: (1) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true, statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (2) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false. (3) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true. (4) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true, statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. 9. Statement 1: If the roots of x2 + px + q = 0 are both greater than 1, then the roots of x2 px + q = 0 are both less than 1

negative integral solutions of x + y + z + t = 5 is 56.

4xy x y
2

11. Statement 1: If cosec2 = then x = y . Statement 2: cosec2 1.

12. Statement 1: The solution of the differential equation dy x = , y(5) = 3 is the dx y entire hyperbola x2 y2 = 16. Statement 2: y(5) = 3 no part of the curve lies above the Xaxis.

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4 13. Statement 1: if the vectors 2 i

i 3i 2j j 3k 5k j k,

16.

lim sec
x0

and are = 4.

sin x x

coplanar,

then

(1) 1
2

(2) 0

Statement 2: If the vectors a , b , c are coplanar, then

a b c = 0 .

(3)

(4) does not exist

17. Two integers x and y are chosen with 14. Statement 1: If I(m, n) = then replacement from
1
m 1

1 , 2 , , 10 . Then y > 5 is 30 121 1 5

x
0

1 x

n 1

the probability that x

dx , 15 121 3 11

(1)

(2)

m, n

x 1

m 1

dx

(3)

(4)

Statement 2: If x is replaced by

1 in an y

18.

( p q) is logically equivalent to (1) p q (3) p q (2) p q (4) p q

integral, then the limits 0 to 1 change to to 0.

6i 3i 3i 3 1 1 i

15. If

4 20

= x + iy, then the

19. If (adj B) = A, P = Q = 1 , then adj (Q 1 BP 1) = (1) PQ (2) QAP (4) PA 1Q

ordered pair (x, y) = (1) (3, 1) (3) (0, 0) (2) (1, 3) (4) (0, 3) (3) PAQ SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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5
a b c a c a
2 2 2

23. If the mean of n observations 12, 22 , 32 , ... , n2 is = 0, then the line (1) 11 (2) 12
2 46n , then n = 11

20. If

b c

a b b c

(3) 23

(4) 22

ax + by + c = 0 passes through (1) (1, 1) (3) (0, 1) (2) ( 1, 1) (4) (1, 1) then f 21. 10 different letters of the alphabet are given. Words with 5 letters are formed with these given letters. The number of words which have at least one letter repeated is (1) 59720 (3) 69760 (2) 79260 24. If f() = tan

(1 + sec ) (1 + sec 2)

(1 + sec 4) (1 + sec 8) (1 + sec 16),

64 = 1 2 1 16

(1) 1
1 4

(2)

(3)

(4)

25. If in a G.P. tp + q = m and tp q = n, then (4) None of these tp = (1) mn (3) 26. If
21 , 5 10 , 3 3 z m n 2

22. The point of intersection of the lines

x 3 x 5 = y 7 z 2 = and 1 1

(2) mn (4)
n m

z 6 3 y 3 = = is 36 2 4

2i = 1 , then the minimum

value of z = (1) 2 2 (3) 2 2

1 1

(1) (2, 10, 4)

(2)

(2) 2 2 (4) 2 2
2

(3) (5, 7, 2)

(4) ( 3, 3, 6)

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6 27. If the normal

2

to

the

rectangular
c ct , t ct , c t

29.

xe

dx = e
x

hyperbola xy = c at the point meets the curve again at then

(1) 2 x , (2) 2x (3) 2x

4 xe 4 e 4 e
x x

4 x 4 x

(1) t t = 1 (3) tt = 1

(2) t t = 1 (4) tt = 1 (4)

4 x e

28. The number of divisors of 1029, 847, 122 are in (1) G.P. (2) H.P. (3) A.P. (4) A.G.P.

30. The compound statement (p q) is logically equivalent to (1) p q (3) p q (2) p q (4) p q

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PART B : PHYSICS
31. The Young s
11 2

modulus

of

steel

is

(3) 6 hours (4) 48 hours 34. A transformer has an efficiency of 80%. It is connected to a power output of 4 kW and 100 V. if the secondary voltage is 240 V, then the secondary current is (1) 4.6 A (3) 4.3 A (2) 40 A (4) 13.3 A

2 10 N/m . The interatomic distance of the particles in steel is 2.8 . If a stress of 109 N/m2 is applied, then the change in interatomic distance will be (in ) (1) 7 10 3 (3) 21 10 3 32. The resistivity (2) 14 10 3 (4) 28 10 3 of metals (where

temperature T is in C) (1) always varies as T5 (2) is independent of temperature (3) increases linearly with room temperature and above (4) attains a constant value (nonzero) as temperature tends to absolute zero 33. If the earth suddenly contracts to half its radius, then the length of the day will be (1) 24 hours only

35. An Amplitude-Modulated radio receiver is to be used for speech (500 Hz) and for music (5 kHz). The minimum possible bandwidths of the RF amplifier (Br) and AF amplifier (Ba) are respectively (1) 10 kHz and 0.5 kHz (2) 5 kHz and 1 kHz (3) 10 kHz and 4.5 kHz (4) 5.5 Hz and 500 Hz

(2) 12 hours SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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8 36. In the photomultiplier tube (PMT), for each electron incident, six leave the dynode. These six are accelerated to a second dynode, so producing 36 electrons, which are all accelerated to the third dynode, and so on. The electron emitted from the tenth dynode are collected and constitute a current of 7.2 nA. The incident light has a wavelength of 365 nm. At this wavelength one in three of the incident photons ejects an electron from the photocathode. The power of incident light is of the order of 6
10

(1) 10 12 W (3) 10 15 W

(2) 1 W (4) 10 3 W

37. Hydrogen atom does not emit X-rays because (1) its energy levels are too close to each other (2) its energy levels are too far apart (3) it is too small in size (4) it has a single electron 38. What is work done in enlarging the size of soap bubble from 2 cm to 4 cm diameter? (Given: surface tension of soap solution is 2 10 2 N/m) (1) 24 10 6 J (2) 12 10 6 J (3) 48 10 6 J (4) 4 10 2 J

6 10

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9 39. A rectangular loop of coil rotates in a magnetic field. The induced voltage will be maximum at (1) 0 and 180 (2) all through 360 (3) 180 and 360 (4) 90 and 270 40. Given two statements: (A) Magnetic flux through a closed surface is zero (R) Gauss law applies in case of electric flux only (1) Both A and R are true and R is correct reason for A (2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct reason for A (3) A is true but R is false (4) A is false but R is true 41. An LC resonant circuit contains a capacitor 400 pF and an inductor 100 H. It is set to oscillations (by coupling to an antenna). The wavelength of the radiated electromagnetic wave is (1) 176 m (3) 5298 (2) 377 m (4) 400 nm

42. Given two statements: Statement 1: Narrower the open organ pipe, higher will be the pitch. Statement 2: The frequency of open organ pipe depends on its radius. (1) Both statements statement 1 and statement 2 are true and statement 2 is reason for statement 1 (2) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not reason for statement 1 (3) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false (4) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true 43. Three point charges q, q and 2q are located at (0, a, a), (0, a, a) and (0, 0, a) respectively. The net dipole moment of this charge distribution is (1) 4aq k (3)
4qa i

(2) 2qa k (4)

2qa j

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10 44. Which one of the following disintegration series of the heavy elements will give 209 Bi as a stable nucleus? (3) (1) Thorium series Data for questions 47 and 48 (2) Neptunium series (3) Uranium series (4) Actinium series 45. The ratio of the rise in temperature of a gas when compressed adiabatically to that when compressed isothermally to the same extent (1) is more than 1 The coefficient of friction between A and (2) is less than 1 (3) is equal to 1 (4) depends on the gas 46. Monochromatic energy density (U) B is =
1 and the horizontal surface over 2

(1) T4
5 2

(2) 5
5

(4) T 4

Two blocks A and B of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are placed one over the other as shown. A time-varying horizontal force F = 2t is applied on upper block (Here t is in second and F is in Newton).

which B is placed is smooth (g = 10 m/s2) 47. The maximum acceleration of B can be (1) 1.5 m/s2 (3) 10 m/s2 (2) 2.5 m/s2 (4) 3.5 m/s2

(i.e., per unit volume) of the radiation of a blackbody is proportional to (where is wavelength)

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11 48. Given two following statements statement 1 and statement 2 about the graphs between accelerations aA and aB versus t. Statement 1: For t 7.5 s, aA versus t or aB versus t graph is a straight line passing through origin and of slope
1 3

(1) a neutrino (3) an -particle

(2) an antineutrino (4) a positron

50. The diameter of aperture of a planoconvex lens is 6 cm and its maximum thickness is 3 mm. The velocity of light in the material of lens is 2 108 m/s. The focal length of lens is (1) 15 cm (3) 30 cm (2) 6 cm (4) 37.5 cm

Statement 2: For t 7.5 s, aA versus t is a straight line parallel to taxis but aB versus t is a line of slope
1 and intercept 2 3

51. In Young s experiment, the third bright band for wavelength of light (source A) 6000 coincides with the fourth bright band for another source B in the same arrangement. The wavelength of the source B is (1) 6289 (3) 2250 (2) 4500 (4) 6000

(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true (2) Only statement 1 is true (3) Only statement 2 is true (4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false 49. By capturing an electron transforms into
54 24 54 25

52. Two simple pendula of length L and 16 L are in phase at the mean position at a certain instant. If T is the period of shorter pendulum, then the minimum time after which they will be again in phase is (1) (3)
T 3 3T 2

Mn

(2) (4)

2T 3 4T 3

Cr releasing

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12 53. Identify the function F generated by the logic network shown below. 55. Given below is the performance of two learners A and B.

(1) F = (X + Y) Z (2) F = Z (3) F = ZY Y (4) F = XYZ 54. Which one of the following is not a correct statement about semiconductors? (1) The electrons and holes have different mobilities in a semiconductor. (2) In an n-type semiconductor, the fermilevel lies closer to the conduction band edge. (3) Silicon is a direct band gap semi conductor. (4) Silicon has structure. diamond crystal Which one of the following can be deduced from the graph? (1) The learning task was difficult (2) The learning task was easy (3) B learned faster than A throughout the task (4) A learned faster than B throughout the task 56. A particle is projected from point A towards a building of height h as shown at an angle of 60 with horizontal. It strikes the roof of building at B at as angle of 30 with the horizontal. The speed of projection is
Y X YX

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13 58. The angular velocity of the lamina when it has turned through an angle of 30 will be
g a g 5a g 3a g a

(1) (1)
gh

(2)

(2)

2gh (3)

3gh (4) 2 gh

57. The random error in the arithmetic mean of 100 observations is x. Then, the random error in the arithmetic mean of 400 observations will be (1) 4x (2)
1 x 4

(3) 2

(4) 2

(3) 2x

(4)

x 2

59. The linear speed v of the centre O of the lamina when the plane becomes vertical is
2ga 5 ga

Data for questions 58 , 59 and 60 A uniform circular lamina with centre at O mass m and radius a is free to rotate about a tangent AB at P which is fixed horizontally. The lamina is initially held at rest with its plane horizontal and then released.

(1)

2ga

(2) 2

(3)

3ga

(4)

60. If a perfectly inelastic peg located at distance a vertically below P stops the lamina bringing it to instantaneous rest, then the impulsive reaction at the moment of impact is (1) m 2ga (3) m 1.6ga (2) zero (4) mga

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14

PART C : CHEMISTRY
61. In a first order reaction time taken for half of the reaction to complete in 100 seconds. The time taken for 99% reaction to occur will be (1) 600 sec (3) 630 sec (2) 664.64 sec (4) 655.6 sec 64. For melting of sodium chloride the heat required is 30.3 kJ mol increases is 28.2 J mol point of NaCl is (1) 2351.3 K (3) 987.2 K
1 1

. The entropy . The melting

(2) 1074.4 K (4) 597.3 K

62. Vapour pressure of CCl4 at 25C is 143 mm Hg. 0.5 g of a non-volatile solute (Mol.wt = 65) is dissolved in 100 mL CCl4. The vapour pressure of the solution is (Density of CCl4 = 1.58 g/cm3) (1) 141.93 mm (3) 199.43 mm (2) 94.39 mm (4) 143.99 mm

65. The de Broglie wavelength associated with a proton moving with 25% of the velocity of light is (Mass of proton = 1.6 10 24 g) (1) 6.25 10 13 cm (2) 5.52 10 13 cm (3) 4.15 10 12 cm (4) 3.5 10 13 cm 66. The structure of I Cl is

63. The pH of 1.0 M aqueous solution of a weak acid HA is 6.0. Its dissociation constant is (1) 1.0 10 (3) 1.0
12

(1) trigonal (2) trigonal bipyramidal

(2) 10 10 (4) 6.0

(3) octahedral (4) square planar

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15 67. The X in the reaction is (1) phenyl acetate (2) acetophenone (3) benzoic acid (4) benzophenone 68. 0.66 g of a metal was deposited when a current of 2 amperes is passed through a metal ion solution for 100 seconds. The electrochemical equivalent of the cell is (1) 3.3 10 3 (3) 0.033 69. The maximum (2) 3.3 10 4 (4) 3.3 amount of BaSO4 71. Reaction between acetone and chloroform in the presence of a strong base will be (1) chloral (2) 2-chloro propene (3) 2-3-dichloro propene (4) chloretone 72. When phenol is treated with CHCl3 and NaOH and acidification the product formed is (1) salicylaldehyde (2) salicylic acid (3) benzoic acid (4) benzaldehyde SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK X; (1) cis and trans isomers of 2, 3 dimethyl-2-butene (2) 3, 3-dimethyl-1-butene (3) 2, 3-dimenthyl-2-butene (4) 2, 3-dimethyl-1-butene

precipitated on mixing BaCl2 0.5 M with H2SO4 I M will corresponds to (1) 0.5 M (3) 1.5 M (2) 1.0 M (4) 2.0 M

70. When 3,3-dimethyl-2-butanol is heated with H2SO4, the product obtained is

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16 73. Which of the following species has lowest ionisation potential? (1) O (2) O2 (4) O 76. The rate constant for the reaction 2N2O5(g) 4NO2(g) + O2(g) is 3.0 10 5 sec 1. If the rate is 2.4 10
5

mol lit

sec

, then the

(3) O

concentration of N2O5 in mol lit 1 is

2

(1) 1.4 74. The free energy change for a reversible reaction at equilibrium is (1) zero (2) small positive

(2) 1.2

(3) 0.04

(4) 0.8

77. Variable valency is a characteristic of (1) halogens (2) transition elements (3) alkali metals (4) noble gases 78. Hydrogen behaves as agent in its reaction with (1) chlorine (3) sodium an oxidising

(3) small negative (4) large positive 75. On the basis of Le-Chatellier s principle, the condition that is unfavourable for the formation of SO3 is 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) ; H = 42 kcal (1) low pressure (2) high pressure (3) high temperature (4) high concentration of SO2

(2) nitrogen (4) sulphur

79. The process for the manufacturing of Na2CO3 is (1) van-Arkel process (2) Nelson s process (3) Solvay s process (4) Down process

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17 80. Which of the following oxides is most alkaline in nature ? (1) B2O3 (3) In2O3 (2) Al2O3 (4) Tl2O 85. The IUPAC name of 4-isopropyl-m-

xylene is (1) 4-isopropyl-m-xylene (2) 1-isopropyl-2, 4-dimethyl benzene (3) 4-isopropyl-3, 5-dimethyl benzene (4) 1-isopropyl-3, 5-dimethyl benzene 86. Ethyl ester X; X is

81. When alumina is heated with carbon in the atmosphere of nitrogen then the products formed are (1) Al + CO2 (3) Al + CO + N2 (2) Al + CO (4) AlN + CO

82. Which is anhydride of orthophosphoric acid ? (1) P4O10 (3) P4O6 (2) P2O5 (4) P2O3

(1)

83. Bromine water reacts with SO2 to form (1) H2O and HBr (2) H2SO4 + HBr (3) HBr + S (4) S and H2BrO4 84. Which of the following ion disproportionates in aquous solution? (1) Cu3+ (3) Cu+ (2) Fe3+ (4) Cu2+

(2)

(3)

(4)

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18 87. The product B is (1) propene (3) propanone (2) propyne (4) propanal ; 90. . (3) o-cresol (4) meta-chloroaniline

88. Which one of the following compounds can undergo Cannizzaro s reaction? (1) (CH3)2 CHCHO (2) CH3CH2CHO (3) C6H5CHO 89. ; The product B is (1) phenol (2) chlorobenzene SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK (4) HCHO C- in the reaction is (1) butyric acid (2) butanol (3) butanal (4) n-butane

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22

READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet (Side-1) with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. 2. For writing/marking particulars on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet, use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. 3. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. 4. For each incorrect response, one-fourth of the total marks allotted to the question would be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet. 5. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code) will another set be provided. 6. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet. All calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet itself, marked Space for Rough Work . 7. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 8. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator. 9. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat. 10. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet again. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet a second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. The candidates are also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in the Attendance Sheet. 11. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic Item like mobile phone etc., is prohibited. 12. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board. 13. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances. 14. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.

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