Question Bank

HTML 1. What does HTML stand for?
Home Tool Markup Language Hyper Text Markup Language Hyperlinks and Text Markup Language 2. Who is making the Web standards? Mozilla The World Wide Web Consortium Microsoft 3. Choose the correct HTML tag for the largest heading <h1> <heading> <h6> <head> 4. What is the correct HTML tag for inserting a line break? <br /> <lb /> <break /> 5. What is the correct HTML for adding a background color? <background>yellow</background> <body background="yellow"> <body style="background-color:yellow">
6.
Choose the correct HTML tag to make a text bold <bold> <b>
7.
Choose the correct HTML tag to make a text italic <i> <italic>
8.
What is the correct HTML for creating a hyperlink?
<a href="http://www.google.com">Google</a> <a>http://www.google.com</a> <a name="http://www.Google.com">Google.com</a> <a url="http://www.google.com">Google.com</a> 9. How can you create an e-mail link? <a href="mailto:xxx@yyy"> <mail href="xxx@yyy"> <mail>xxx@yyy</mail> <a href="xxx@yyy"> 10. How can you open a link in a new browser window? <a href="url" target="new"> <a href="url" new> <a href="url" target="_blank"> 11. Which of these tags are all <table> tags? <table><tr><td> <table><head><tfoot> <table><tr><tt> <thead><body><tr> 12. Choose the correct HTML to left-align the content inside a table cell <td align="left"> <td leftalign> <tdleft> <td valign="left"> 13. How can you make a list that lists the items with numbers? <dl> <list> <ol> <ul> 14. How can you make a list that lists the items with bullets? <ul> <list> <ol>
<dl> 15. What is the correct HTML for making a checkbox? <input type="check" /> <input type="checkbox" /> <check> <checkbox> 16. What is the correct HTML for making a text input field? <textfield> <textinput type="text" /> <input type="text" /> <input type="textfield" /> 17. What is the correct HTML for making a drop-down list? <input type="dropdown" /> <input type="list" /> <select> <list> 18. What is the correct HTML for making a text area? <input type="textbox" /> <textarea> <input type="textarea" /> 19. What is the correct HTML for inserting an image? <img href="image.gif /> <image src="image.gif" /> <img src="image.gif" /> <img>image.gif</img> 20. What is the correct HTML for inserting a background image? <img src="background.gif" background /> <background img="background.gif"> <body background="background.gif">
HTML KEY 1.B 2.B 3.A
4.A
5.C
6.B
7.A
13.C
8.A 14.A 20.C
9.A 15.B
10.C 16.C
11.A 17.C
12.A 18.C
19.C
ISDN
1. ISDN is __________ [ a ] a. Integrated services Digital Network b. Internal services Distant network c. Integrated solutions Digital Network d. none 2. Services offered by ISDN are_________ [ d ] a. Packet switching sevices b. Circuit switching sevices a. Leased circuit sevices d. All 3. The recommended coding of CCITT of S/T interface is [ b ] a. HDB3 b. AMI c. Manchester d. None 4. ISDN uses _____ type of signaling between the exchanges [ c ] a. Decadic b. DTMF c. CCS#7 d. CAS 5. ISDN terminals are connected to [ a ] a. NT b. TA c. PBX d. none 6. Non-ISDN terminals are connected to S/T interface via [ b ] a. NT b. TA c. PBX d. none 7. The interface between TA and Non ISDN terminal is [ c ] a. S b. T c. R d. U 8. The interface between TA and NT2 is [ a ] a. S b. T c. R d. U 9. The interface between NT2 and ISDN terminal is [ a ] a. S b. T c. R d. U 10. The interface between NT1 and NT2 is [ b ] a. S b. T c. R d. U 11. The interface between NT1 and ISDN exchange is [ u ] a. S b. T c. R d. U 12. NT1 provides the functions of [ a ] a. Layer 1 b. Layer 2 c. Layer 3 d. Layer 4 13. NT2 provides the functions of [ b ] a. Layer 1 b. Layer 2 c. Layer 3 d. Layer 4 14. NT1 provides the functions of [ d ] a. circuit termination b. supply of electricity c. Physical parameters d. All 15. NT2 provides the functions of [ d ] a. Protocol b. control c. concentration d. All 16. S/T is a ________ wire interface [ b ] a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 10 17. U is a ________ wire interface [ a ] a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 10 18. The channel which carries user information (voice+data) is [ a ] a. B b. D c. C d. none 19. The channel which carries signalling information is [ b ] a. B b. D c. C d. none
20. The channel which is useful for carrying high speed data is [ c a. B b. D c. H d. none 21. The speed of B-channel is ______ kbps [ b a. 16 b. 64 c. 384 d. 1536 22. The speed of D-channel is ______ kbps [ d a. 16 b. 64 c. 384 d. both (a) & (b) 23. Which of the following is not the speed of H channel [ c a. 384 kbps b. 1536 kbps c. 160 kbps d. 1920 kbps 24. In BRI the speed of D-channel is ________ kbps [ a a. 16 b. 64 c. 384 d. 1536 25. In PRI the speed of D-channel is ________ kbps [ b a. 16 b. 64 c. 384 d. 1536 26. BRI is called __________ system, [ c a. 20B+D b. 30B+D c. 2B+D d. none 27. PRI is called __________ system, [ b a. 20B+D b. 30B+D c. 2B+D d. none 28. Which of the following is the max speed of BRI [ a a. 144 Kbps b. 384 Kbps c. 1536 Kbps d.2 Mbps 29. Which of the following is the max speed of PRI [ d a. 144 Kbps b. 384 Kbps c. 1536 Kbps d.2 Mbps 30. Bearer services are the services which supports Layers [a a. L1-L3 b. L1-L7 c. L4-L7 d. none 31. Teleservices are the services which supports Layers [b a. L1-L3 b. L1-L7 c. L4-L7 d. none 32. In OCB exchange the ISDN service is provided by TAN3G card [ 33. In CDOT exchange the ISDN service is provided by BRI/PRI card
Question Bank on Office Suite A. MS Word 1. Which key is used to turn the extend selection mode off? A. F5 2. B. F8 C.Esc D.F6
] ] ] ] ] ] ] ] ] ] ] ] ]
Insertion point can be moved to the start of the document using A. Home B. Control + Home C. End D. Control + End
3.
Insertion point can be moved to the end of the document using A. Home B. Control + Home C. End D.Control + End
4.
Insertion point can be moved to the end of the line using A. Home B. Control + Home C. End D.Control + End
5.
Insertion point can be moved to the start of the line using A. Home B.Control + Home C.End D.Control + End
6.
Insertion point can be moved word by word using A.Up & Down Arrow keys B.Right & Left Arrow keys
C. Control + Right & Left Arrow keys D. Control + Up & Down Arrow keys 7. Insertion point can be moved paragraph by paragraph using A.Up & Down Arrow keys B.Right & Left Arrow keys
C.Control + Right & Left Arrow keysD. Control + Up & Down Arrow keys 8. Insertion point can be moved line by line using A.Up & Down Arrow keys B.Right & Left Arrow keys D.Control + Up & Down Arrow keys
C.Control + Right & Left Arrow keys 9.
Insertion point can be moved character by character using A.Up & Down Arrow keys B.Right & Left Arrow keys
C.Control + Right & Left Arrow keysD.Control + Up & Down Arrow keys 10. MS Word file is known as A.Document 11. B.Database C.Worksheet D.None
In MS Word, the text is inserted at A.Start of the document C.Insertion Point B.End of the document D.Mouse pointer
12.
A previous character can be deleted using A.DEL B. BACKSPACE C. Control + DEL D.Control + BACKSPACE
13.
You can cancel an undo operation using A.Undo B. Redo C. Esc D.Close
14.
You can cancel your last operation using A.Undo B. Redo C.Esc D.Close
15.
Which key is used to turn the extend selection mode on? A.F5 B. F8 C. Esc D.F6
16.
For selecting the entire document A.Click at the left margin C.Trippleclick at the left margin B.Doubleclick at the left margin D. Rightclick at the left margin
17.
For selecting the entire paragraph A.Click at the left margin C. Trippleclick at the left margin B.Doubleclick at the left margin D. Rightclick at the left margin
18.
For selecting the entire line
A.Click at the left margin C.Trippleclick at the left margin 19.
B.Doubleclick at the left margin D. Rightclick at the left margin
A next word can be deleted using A.DEL B. BACKSPACE C. Control + DEL D.Control + BACKSPACE
20.
Rular bar is the component of which window ? A.Word B.Excel C.Access D.Power point
21.
MS Word file is given an extension of A.PPT B.XLS C.MDB D.DOC
22.
In MS Word, replacing the existing text is in A.Extend selection Mode mode B.Overtype Mode C.Insert Mode D.Track
23.
Which indent is helpful for bullets & numbering A.First line indent B.Left indent C. Hanging Indent D.Right Indent
24.
Which method is not suitable for drawing table A. Drawing command B.Draw Table C.Insert table button D.Insert table
25.
The words of different spelling but same pronounciation can be found using A.Find whole words B.All word forms C.Match case D.Sounds like
26.
In find what box, you can type a maximum characters of A.100 B.25 C.200 D.255
27.
The shortcut key for pasting operation is A.Ctrl + C B.Ctrl + P C.Ctrl + V D.Ctrl + X
28.
The shortcut key for cutting operation is A.Ctrl + C B.Ctrl + P C.Ctrl + V D.Ctrl + X
29.
The shortcut key for copying operation is A.Ctrl + C B.Ctrl + P C.Ctrl + V D.Ctrl + X
30.
Which alignment is suitable for a title/heading A.Justified alignment B.Left alignment C.Centre alignment D.Right
31.
Which alignment is suitable for a regular paragraphs A.Justified alignment B.Left alignment C.Centre alignment D.Right
32.
Which alignment is suitable for a list of numbers A.Justified alignment B.Left alignment C.Centre alignment D.Right
33.
Insertion point can be moved screen by screen using A.PGDN /PGUP B. Control + PGDN/PGUP C. Home/End D.Control + Home/End
34.
Which indent is helpful for the first line of regular paragraphs A.First line indent B.Left indent C.Hanging Indent D.Right Indent
35.
Insertion point can be moved page by page using A.PGDN /PGUP B. Control + PGDN/PGUP C. Home/End D.Control + Home/End
36.
First letter of each selected word is changed into capital using A.Toggle case B.Title case C.Sentence case D.Upper case
37.
In MS Word, a sentence can be selected using A.Ctrl + click B.Alt+click C.Shift+click D.Ctrl +Alt+ click
38.
Which of the following is not a table formatting element A.Row height B.Header & Footer C.Horizontal Alignment D.Borders
39.
Which of the following is not a page formatting element A.Margin B.Header & Footer C.Horizontal Alignment D.Borders
40.
Which of the following is not a paragraph formatting element A.Font Name B.Line spacing C.Alignment D.Indent
41.
Which of the following is not a character formatting element A.Font Name B.Font Size C.Font Color D.Indent
42.
A next character can be deleted using A.DEL B.BACKSPACE C.Control + DEL D.Control + BACKSPACE
43.
A previous word can be deleted using A.DEL B.BACKSPACE C.Control + DEL D.Control + BACKSPACE
44.
The heading of table can be repeated to the next page using A.Table Heading & pasting B.Copying C.Copying & pasting D.Cutting
45.
Which alignment is suitable for a list of names A.Justified alignment B.Left alignment C.Centre alignmentD.Right
key to Answers 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. MS Excel 1. In Excel, one missing item of data for all the employees can be entered by A.Inserting Column Worksheet 2. B.Inserting Row C.Inserting Cell D.Inserting c b d c a c b a c a a d a a b 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. c d a b a d b c a d b a b c a 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. c b b a b d c d a c d a d a b
An Excel worksheet is having a maximum of columns of A.128 B.256 C.112 D.240
3.
An Excel worksheet is having a maximum of cells of A.16 millon B.16 crore C.8 million D.2 million
4.
In Excel , a text entry can be upto A.256 B.255 C.32k D.64 k
5.
In Excel , a formula can begin with a symbol of A.+ B.= C.both D.-
6.
An Excel worksheet can have a maximum of worksheets A.255 B.128 C.100 D.50
7.
Control + click is used for
A.Non contiguous selection D.none 8. Shift + click is used for A.Non contiguous selection D.none 9.
B.Contiguous selection
C.both
B.Contiguous selection
C.both
Which of the following is not a data type in Excel A.Text B.Number C.Logic D.memo
10.
After entering a formula, formula appears in the A.Cell B.Formula bar C.Name Box D.Nowhere
11.
When an unformatted long number exceeding the width of the cell is entered, it is displayed in A.Scientific format D.reduced format B.Currency format C.Hashes ######
12.
When a text exceeding the width of the cell is entered, the display A.Truncated B.Shrinked are not having any data C.Wrapped D.Displayed in adjacent cells if they
13.
Pasting the data can be done by using the shortcut A.Control + C +E B.Control + V C.Control + P D.Control
14.
An Excel worksheet is having a maximum of rows of A.65532 B.65536 C.16632 D.1024
15.
In Excel, series of numbers, dates, months, days can be entered by using A.Autocomplete feature D.Typing the series manually B.Autofill handle C.Copying feature
16.
The office name & page nos etc can be printed by using A.Header & Footer B.Typing C.Page setup D.Print preview
17.
In Excel, which operator is having highest priority A.+ and B.* and / C.^ D.%
18.
In Excel, which operator is having least priority A.+ and B.& C.<> D.* and /
19.
In Excel, which function is used for finding the greatest of the given numbers
A.Sum 20.
B.Min
C.Max
D.Average
In Excel, which function is used for finding the smallest of the given numbers A.Sum B.Min C.Max D.Average
21.
In Excel, which function is used for finding the total of the given numbers A.Sum B.Min C.Max D.Average
22.
MS Excel file is known as A.Worksheet B.Workbook C.Spreadsheet D.Document
23.
MS Excel file is given an extension of A. XLS B.DOCC.MDB D.PPT
24.
Formula bar is the component of which window ? A.Word B.Excel C.Access D.Power point
25.
Which chart option displays the chart using the entire worksheet A.Embedded chart B.Chart sheet C.Chart type D.all the above
26.
Which chart option displays the chart as an object in the worksheet A.Embedded chart B.Chart sheet B.Column chart C.Chart type D.all the above D.Area chart
27. 28.
Only one data series can be plotted in ABar chart C.Pie chart In Excel you can reduce or enlarge worksheet during printing using the option A.Orientation B.Scaling B.Portrait C.Print quality C.Both B.Clicking the formula bar D.Overtyping D.Sheet D.None More no of columns can be printed using A.Landscape In Excel, editing a cell can be done A.Double clicking the cell C.Both of the above
29. 30.
Key to Answers 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 16. 17. a b a c c a d 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 21. 22. a a b d b a b 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 26. 27. a d b b b a c
18. 19. 20.
c c b
23. 24. 25.
a b b
28. 29. 30.
b a c
QUESTION BANK FOR UNDERGROUND TELECOM CABLES Chapter I I. Fill the blank with suitable word:: 1. The circuit between two exchanges in a local network is called .. .. . 2 .. Is the last cable termination point from where subscriber line is connected. 3. The cable connecting Pillar and DP is called 4. In ducted cable system we use .. cables are used 5. Entry of moisture into the core of cable is prevented by filling .. in PIJF cables. 6. In Telecommunication cable network cables are required to be protected from .. .prevent damages from external sources. 7. PCM cables are designed with a conductor diameter of ..mm. 8. Paper Insulated cables are prone to more faults due to entry of .. 9. Over lay of conductors in a pair is done during manufacture of telecom cable to prevent effect of . 10. A 400 pair cable consist of . No of super units of .. size. II. INDICATE WHETHER TRUE OR FALSE 11. The material used as conductor in local telecom under ground cables is high conductivity annealed copper . ( ) 12. The sheath of a underground cable protect the conductors from damage due to entry of moisture to safe guard the insulation resistance of pairs. ( ) 13. Jacket is the sheathing arrangement made over armoured cable to protect the armour against corrosion and rusting. ( )
14. Paper Insulated cables are now being replaced with Polythene insulated Jelly filled cables to improve efficiency of cable network ( ) Chapter II I. Fill the blank with suitable word:: 1. while selecting the route for laying cable ------------------ -----------route should selected. 2. While crossing power cables the telecom cables should be laid at ---------------- ------- to the power cables. 3. While crossing roads it should be seen that any no point ------------------------- should not fall in between road crossing. 4. While laying cables near bends the bending should be minimum of---------- ------- ------------- time the diameter of the cable. 5. The laying of telecom cables across railway crossing should be laid in -------------------- -----------pipes. 6. While paving out cable it should be seen that damages to the sheath is to be ------------------ .------7. Flooding of the trench after fresh digging and laying will help in detecting ----------------- ----------- caused to the existing cables. 8. The protective stone slabs which are placed over the cables after laying in the trench are called -------------- ---------------- and they help in preventing damages due to digging by other service utility personnel. 9. Indicator kept at 200 m apart in the route of the cable is called ----------------- ------------ --------- . 10. The indicator kept at every joint place is called ------------ -------. 11. While crossing the power cables the telecom cables should be laid in solid for a distance of ------------ ------m on either CHAPTER III I. Fill the blank with suitable word:: 1.During Area transfer the pairs from one exchange are extended to another exchange using -----------------type of jointing of the pairs. These pairs are available to both the exchanges till the switch over of area is completed. 2.The jointing of pairs of one large size cable to two or more smaller size cables is called --------------- jointing. 3.The jointing of one cable to another cable of same size is called ------------------- jointing. 4.Conventional twist jointing methods of conductors is used generally for the ---------------------- insulated conductors and it requires a material called -------------------------------or preventing the contact between the de-insulated conductors from each other. 5.For jointing 100 pair PIJF cable conductors----------------number of UY connectors are required.
6.For jointing conductors of bigger sizes of PIJF cables ------------------sized module are used. 7.The ALSS joint is generally more used for closing the joints of -------------------type of cables because of its reentry technique CHAPTER IV I. Fill the blank with suitable word:: 1. THE INTRODUCTION OF PILLAR OR CABINET IN A LOCAL CABLE NETWORK MAKES IT ---------------------- . 2. In a local cable network where there are no cabinets and pillars then the network is called -------------------- system 3. In a local cable network where there are Pillars only then the cable connected to DP and pillar is called-------------------- cable and the cable connected to pillar and Exchange MDF is called ----------------------- cable. 4. The size of the module used in Krone type CT Box termination of underground cables at Pillar or cabinet is ------------- . 5. In krone type CT Box ---------------------- type of wiring is only done. 6. No soldering, no screwing and no stripping of insulation is required for termination of cable pairs on a ----------------- type of termination points. 7. Stripping of extra length of insulated wire is achieved in krone type CT Box by using the tool ------------------------ -----------. 8. The contact used in krone CT Box is an --------------- contact. 9. The disconnection or isolation of wires in a Krone CT Box can be achieved by simple insertion --------------------CHAPTER V I. Fill the blank with suitable word:: 1.Power induction in telecom lines is due to -------------- of power and telecommunication wires. 2.At the crossing of power lines, telecom wires or cables should be crossed at almost ------------------ with sufficient vertical separation. 3.For arresting induction from Railway traction ------------ transformers and ------------------ ------------are used by railways. 4.Installation of -------------------------- ----------- at both ends of telecom line or cable involved in parallelism and at individual points along the line will protect the equipment and personnel from dangers of electrocution. 5.The PTCC clearance is to be obtained if the length of parallelism between telecom and power lines is ---------------------- and above. 6.The minimum vertical clearance between power and telecom line is --------- .
7.While crossing power cables the telecom cables should be laid at right angles and should be laid in -------------------------. 8.For preventing any danger of power line and telecom line coming into contact and before actual tripping of power line -------------------- -------------- ---------- are installed on top most wires of the telecommunication lines. 9.The quality of telecommunication circuit and signals are affected by the type of induction called ---------- ------------- ----------10.The arrangement provided above telecom lines or below the power lines to safe guard the personnel and equipment due to contact of the lines is called ---------11.Gas discharge Tubes are of --------------- ---------- restoring type. They come to normal position once the induced voltage drops down to with in limits.
CHAPTER IX I. FILL THE BLANKS WITH SUITABLE WORDS. 1. Incomplete and sometimes absence of documentation and records, and negligence of preventive as well as annual maintenance of external plant result in --------------------------- . 2. Improper cable works and lack of Co-ordination with other public utility services result in cable ------------------------. 3. It is correct method to directly terminate ---------------------------------- on MDF by laying ---------------------------- type of cables. 4. It is not good to provide joints before the plinth of the pillar, instead it is better to terminate the cable ------------------------on to the CT boxes. This will eliminate cluster of joints surrounding cabinets/pillars. 5. Eliminate joints at the bottom of the DP posts by laying sufficient length of distribution cable ----------------------common branching point and it also reduces the cost of external plant. 6. Certain uncared operations in cable constructions, though simple in nature, may lead to -------------- ----------- during life time of the cables.
7. The tendency of some cable splicers to develop their own theory of jointing in the absence of full complement of jointing kit should be ------------------------, which otherwise results in large number of joint failures. 8. In case of PIJF cables ensure use of -------------- for pressing UY connectors for jointing the conductors instead of ordinary pliers to avoid break faults. 9. Ensure use of ---------------------------- in the splice to avoid any possibility of ingress of moisture setting in to the joint of PIJF cables. 10.Ensure sheath continuity at --------------------- and earthing at DP pillar and MDF. 11.A missing poly-al sheath continuity can result --------------------------due to power induction. 12.As far as possible a single length of drop wire should be run from ------------------------------up to maximum length of four spans 13.Elimination of ----------------------in drop wire reduces high resistance faults. Following accessories are to be used. 14.Whenever a trench is dug for laying new telephone cables or some other department digs the trench for installation of their services, the trench may be filled in with adequate quantity of water for two or three days to simulate the monsoon conditions. This is called --------------------------- of trench. 15. If the water is not allowed to remain in the trench for adequate period during flooding operation detection of small faults --------------------16.Gas pressurization is a preventive maintenance work for -------------------------------------------. Dry air or Nitrogen is fed into dry core cables either by use of cylinders or compressor dryer units at a pressure of 0.7 KSC either by static feed system or continuous feed system CHAPTER X I. FILL THE BLANKS WITH SUITABLE WORDS. 1. Fault Prone cables with low insulation should be -------------- -----------. 2. All heavy over head alignment should be --------------------by new DPs. 3. Cabinets and pillars should be installed for more than ------------------------------------- line exchanges.
4. Service line is the portion of the ------------------------- from pole Mount DP to the terminating points. 5. Subscribers --------------------- is the loop is equal to the sum of resistances of each limb of subscribers line and telephone set. 6. Internal DP is the cable termination Point where underground cable is laid directly to the ------------------7. The Inspection of ---------------------- consists of the inspections carried out by checking DPs / cabinet Pillars and subscriber lines. 8. During inspection & -physical inspection, electrical parameters of the lines and dials are to be ------------------------..
CHAPTER XI I. Fill the blank with suitable word:: 1. When the insulation between the earth and the conductor in test in a cable becomes very low the fault is called ----------------------------------When the insulation between conductors in the cable or between the pairs or between pair and earth falls below a prescribed limit (normally 0.5 meg ohm) the fault is called ------------------------------------------When the Conductor ----------------------------is cut then the fault is called
2.
3. 4.
When the resistance between the wires or between the conductors becomes very low even without any loop in the circuit on the pairs the fault is called ----------------. The existence of potential, even when the circuit is idle or isolated from the potential of exchange and subscriber premises equipment then the fault is called -------------------------------------
5.
6. 7.
Chemical and electro chemical action which damages the outer sheath and the conductor of the cable is due to ------------------------------Sheath is effected due to mechanical stresses during construction and hence------------------------------------ happen longitudinal, transverse, tensional oscillation or periodical variation of temperature or repeated overheating of the sheath Bad constructional practices like in-efficient, nonstandard and careless work-man ship, specially during the time of laying & jointing of cable result in ----------------------------This instrument is extensively used in all the cable maintenance sections for testing all types of faults which on Wheatstone Bridge principle is --------------------
8.
9.
KEY TO QUESTION BANK UNDERGRUND TELECOM CABLES. Answers to Chapter I:: 1. Junction circuit 2. Distribution point (D.P.) 3. Distribution cable 1. Unarmoured cables 5. Jelly compound 6. Mechanical protection. 7. 0.63 mm 8. moisture or water 9. cross talk 10. 8, 50 pairs. 11. True 12. True 13. true 14. True Answers to Chapter II 1. Shortest 2. Right angles 3. Cable joints 4. 15 times 5. GI pipes 6. avoided 7. damages 8. warning Bricks 9.route indicators 10. Joint indicators 11. 90 cm Answers to Chapter III:: 1. Tee joint 5. 200 numbers 2. Branch. 3. Straight joint. 4. Paper insulated, sleeves 6. 20 pair 7. Lead sheathed
Answers to Chapter IV:: 1, Flexible cable system 2. Rigid cable system. 3. Distribution , Primary. 4. 100 pairs 5. A type of wiring. 6. Krone 7. Insertion. 8. Air & Gas 9. Disconnection plug or Test plug
Answers to Chapter V:: 1.Parallelism 2. 90 degrees tubes. 5. 800 meters. 8. Power contact protectors. 10.personnel Answers to Chapter IX : 1. Break down of cables 2. cable faults 3. Underground cables , PIJF 4. tails directly. 5. directly from 8. Crimping pliers induction. 12. DP 16. Dry core cables Answer to Chapter X : 1. replaced 4. Subscriber line premises 7. external plant 2. removed by erection of 5. loop resistance 8. Tested as per norms 3. 500 line capacity 6. Customer 6. cable joint faults 9. Jelly. 13.Joints 10. Joints 7. discouraged. 11. noise or 15. go unnoticed 3 Booster, Return conductors 4.GD 6. 2 feet 7. Solids or pipes. 9. Low frequency induction. 11. guarding .
14. Flooding of trench.
Answers to Chapter XI : 1. Earth fault. 2. low insulation 3. Break or high resistance. 4. Loop or short circuit. 5. Foreign potential 6. Corrosion due to moisture. 7. Inter crystalline sheath damages 8. Break down of network. 9. Meggar QUESTIONNAIRE ON POWER PLANT Conventional power plant Q 1) State true or false 1) Float rectifier is used to convert AC from commercial Mains to DC voltage 2) In 24 cell float system, float rectifier works with two batteries in series. 3) LC filters are used for filtering the AC ripples in the output of rectifier. 4) HRC fuse is provided in positive lead of DC output of rectifier.
5) Output of float rectifier 51.5 0.5 V is kept constant by voltage regulation mechanism. 6) If the DC output voltage is decreased due to increase in load then the triggering pulse to SCR is advanced. 7) Contact voltmeter is used to indicate the exchange bus bar voltage . 8) When battery charger is used as float rectifier in emergency, ballast chokes need not be bypassed. Q 2) Write down the classification of power plant based on (a) unit type, (b) capacity ? Q.3. What is the facility provided in the switching cubicle ? Q.4. What is the main parts of power plant? Possible Answers. Ans: Q.1. (1) True, (2) False, (3) True, (4) False, (5) True, (6) True, (7)True (8) True. Ans. Q.2. (a) single unit type (i) Two unit type, (iii) Three unit type. (b) 5/12 Ampere, 25/50 Ampere, >50 Ampere. Ans. Q.3. Connecting three negative battery, connecting three float rectifier, connecting two battery chargers, supervisory alarms for all the units, monitoring various voltages and current, auto paralleling. Ans Q4., Float rectifier, Battery charger, Switching Cubicle.
QUESTIONNAIRE ON SMPS power plant &UPS Q1) What does SMPS stand for? Q 2) Write down the precautions to be taken before powering ON the SMPS ? Q 3) Write down three different modes of working of SMPS ? Q 4) State TRUE or FALSE a) SMPS power plant float mode voltage is 55.2 0.5 V. b) Capacity of UPS is expressed in Watts. c) UPS system is designated for uninterrupted power supply. d) Alarms in UPS system are raised , when the output voltage exceeds 250 V A.C. ANSWERS Q 1) Switch Mode Power Supply. Q 2) a)Initial battery connection & exchange connection shall be done without energizing the system b) Ensure the body of cabinet is properly earthed. c) Earthing of site must be proper. Q 3) Auto Float , Auto Charge, Manual Boost. Q 4) a)False, b) False, c) True, d) True
QUESTIONNAIRE ON CONVENTIONAL & VRLA BATTERIES Q 1) What are the general requirements of a good cell? Q 2) What do you know about AH efficiency and WH efficiency? Q 3) In VRLA type cell , the separator is made up of ____________________ Q 4) In VRLA type cell , the positive plate is made up of ________________ alloy. Q 5) In VRLA type cell , the negative plate is made up of ________________ alloy. Q 6) VRLA battery should be charged with ----------------- charger. Q 7) Write down the advantages of VRLA battery over conventional battery? ANSWERS Q 1) General requirements of a good cell 1. There must be no local action, i.e., little or no wastage of the materials when the cell is not delivering current. 2. The e.m.f. of the cell must be of such magnitude so as to enable the cell to deliver a reasonable amount of energy with moderate current. 3. Frequent replacements of materials must not be necessary and such materials must not be expensive. 4. The internal resistance must be small. Q 2) AH efficiency = AH discharge x 100 AH Charge WH efficiency = AH efficiency x Average voltage during discharge ----------------------------------------------Average voltage during charge.
Q 3)Separator -Spun glass micro porous matrix Q 4) Positive plate-Patented MFX alloy. Q 5) Negative plate-Lead Calcium alloy. Q 6) Constant potential Q 7) a) Maintenance free, reliable, effective and user friendly source of power. b) Spill proof, leak proof and explosion resistant and there is no need to add water or to clean terminals. c) It has low self-discharge rate, which eliminates the need for equalizing charges. d) Gas evolution under float condition is negligible. e) No need for specially ventilated battery room and acid resistant flooring.
QUESTIONNAIRE ON EARTHING & FIRE FIGHTING Q Q Q Q Q 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) Write any two purposes of exchange earthing ? What are the different types of earth electrode systems ? Write down the essential factors to cause fire ? Write down the various types of fire extinguishers ? List the officials constituting Fire Fighting Organization ? ANSWERS Q 1) a) To provide a direct connection with earth for lightning protective apparatus. b) To provide protection to persons and plant against leakage from station power wiring to metallic apparatus, frames etc. Q 2) Spike earth electrode system, Lead Strip Electrode System, Earth plate electrode system. Q 3) The combustible material or fuel, Oxygen or air, The ignition temperature or heat. Q 4) Soda acid type, Foam type, CO2 Type. Q 5) Fire fighting officer: - The officer-in-charge of building will usually are the fire-fighting officer. Floor wardens: - On each floor, a responsible officer usually the senior most Supervisor is appointed as a floor warden. Asstt, warden: - the wardens under intimation to the fire fighting officers select them. They are to act as wardens in the absence of wardens for the floor. Fire fighters: - Normally all engineering staff and other selected officials on duty are fire fighters. On the floors, used for administrative offices where no engineering staff is available, a group of fire fighters is selected by the floor wardens concerned in consultation with the sectional in-charge.
QUESTIONNAIRE on AC & Engine Alternator Q1 Which gas is used for pressure testing ? Q2 Which type of vacuum pump should be used for vacuumisation ? Q3 Which type of refrigerant is used in the window AC & Package AC system ? Q4 What are the types of AC units used in our Department ? Q5 What is the designed temperature to be maintained in the switch room? Q6 What is the suction and discharge pressure of package AC unit of R-22 gas? Q7 What is the function of compressor in an AC system? Q8 How much superheat is to kept for perfect gas charging?
Q9 If the filter of window AC unit is choked what will be the effect on the unit ? Q10 Is the orientation of condenser plays any role in its efficiency ? Answers Ans 1 Dry Nitrogen gas . Ans 2 Two stage rotary type vacuum pump. Ans 3 R-22 ( Monochloro Difluro Methane ). Ans 4 Window AC, Split AC & Package AC Unit. Ans 5 23 3
0
C.
Ans 6 Suction pressure - 84 psi & Discharge pressure 286 psi. Ans7 Compressor compresses refrigerant vapor into high pressure corresponding to saturation temperature higher than temperature of naturally available air. Ans 8 8-10 0 F superheat . Ans 9. If the filter is choked there will be no evaporation in evaporator coil and chances of liquid flood back to the compressor . Ans 10 .Yes . The fins and tubes of the condenser should not be exposed directly to the sunrays because it reduces the efficiency of the condenser.
C-DOT DSS MAX I. Fill in the blanks: 1) The destination of Signalling Cables is given in P/Q/R/S/T format. Here, P denotes 2) The MDF Cables used for connecting Subscriber lines consists of 64 pairs divided into bunches of pairs each. 3) To carry out Exchange Side (Signalling + CODEC) tests of a Subscriber Line, Test Set No: is used. 4) When one copy of BMS goes faulty in a Base Module, the class of alarm
generated is 5) The Subscriber priority assigned by the system for CCB-STD line is 6) A Trunk Group may be identified by a number between & 7) A trunk circuit is identified by the designating the port at which the circuit is connected to the Exchange hardware. 8) TGP-CAT may be a number between and 9) Not more than TENs can be added to a TGP by a single command. 10) In a TU, time slot is used as HDLC message link with BPU. 11) The Announcement Card (ANNC) provides different stored announcements. 12) TTC is located in Slot No: in TU in the SBM switch. 13) The 128 terminals in a TU are scanned by the SPC during a period of ms. 14) SCIC card in TSU is similar to TIC card hardware and software-wise. 15) IOP is used as the in C-DOT DSS. 16) IOM consists of two similar switch units, namely, and 17) Operating System used in IOP is 18) The Link speed of IOP-BP/AP link is and that of IOP-IOP link is 19) The BPU hardware when used in AM is called and when used in CM is called 20) In SBM configuration, BPU is connected to , and through HDLC links. 21) is the message transfer point in Base Module. 22) BP communicates with other processors like TIC, SCIC, TSC, TGA, ANNC, MFC through 23) BMS is housed in frame. 24) In MBM configuration, BPU is connected only to
25) In MBM configuration, IOP and ADP are connected to 26) In C-DOT DSS MAX, is the basic growth unit. 27) The LCC interfaces up to subscribers. 28) A Terminal Group (TG) consists of Terminal Cards. 29) In a TU, there can be a maximum of Terminal Groups (TG). 30) TIC is an -bit microprocessor Controller Card. 31) The two types of analog trunk cards are & 32) TSU receives channels from each TU. 33) In APU, Central Message Switches (CMS) are housed. 34) The I/P supply to PSU-II is and it generates secondary voltages like , , & 35) If BMS-0 goes faulty in the Base Module, a Alarm is generated. II. Choose the correct answer from the brackets: 1) is the heart of the SBM. (ANNC/ TIC/ BP) 2) There are Test Access relays in an LCC. (2/ 4/ 8) 3) A maximum of Terminal Cards can be provided in a TU. (8/ 16/ 24) 4) The signaling information from the terminations are processed by card. (TIC/ TUI/SPC) 5) A TIC controls Terminal Groups. (2/ 4/ 8) 6) A maximum of Digital Trunk Systems can be provided in a DTU. (4/ 8/ 16) 7) A maximum of MFC cards can be provided in C-DOT SBM RAX. (4/ 3/ 8) 8) All the tones required for the Exchange are generated by card. (ANNC/ MFC/ TGA) 9) acts as a Message Transfer Point between BP and different controllers. (BP/ BMS/ MU) 10) The Master Controller in the SBM is (BPU/ TSU/ TIC)
11) The maximum concentration permissible in C-DOT MAX is (3:1/ 4:1/ 8:1) 12) The OOD terminal is connected to the (BP/ TS/ IOP) 13) When one of the IOPs goes out of service, alarm is reported. (Non-urgent/ Urgent/ Critical) 14) When ANNC goes out of service, alarm is reported. (Nonurgent/ Urgent/ Critical) 15) When any PSU card failure happens, alarm is reported. (Non-urgent/ Urgent/ Critical) 16) When Battery-Low condition is encountered, alarm is reported. (Non-urgent/ Urgent/ Critical) 17) To find out the status of all Switch Units (SWU) in the system, command is used. 18) In BPU and TSU, the PSUs used are of type (I/ II/ III) 19) From each LCC slot, pairs of wires are to be extended to MDF. (8/ 16/ 24) 20) In the TEN 1-1-1-3-6, the card slot number is (1/ 3/ 6) 21) In SBM configuration, IOP and ADP are directly connected to (TU/ TSU/ BPU) 22) In the normal working of BPU, is active. (MU-0, MU-1/ MU-0 & MU-1) III. Say TRUE or FALSE; if FALSE, correct the underlined portion: 1) It is possible to login to root account from any terminal connected to the IOP. 2) The individual cards in each IOP are duplicated. IV. Answer the following questions: 1) List the major functions performed by IOP. 2) Mention the different RUN LEVELS of IOP. 3) Name the software deliverables required for Software installation in IOP. 4) The three racks of a C-DOT SBM RAX are shown below. Complete the diagram showing the different TUs and concentration. Also note down the ti identities.
5) Write down the Card Slot No. of the following PCBs: a) ANNC: c) TGA-0: e) MFC1: g) MFC3: i) CPU-0: b) TTC: d) TGA-1: f) MFC2: h) MFC4: j) CPU-1:
6) Names of few Switch Units are given below. Indicate the PCBs that constitute them: a) TI : : b) BP : d) MU :
c) BMS e) TSC: EWSD 1.
Fill in the blank with suitable words. 1. EWSD Switching system has been designed & manufactured by M/s ___ _____________ ________________. 2. __________ exchange. ______ are terminated on DLU ( Digital line unit) in EWSD
3. ___________________ & ________________ are connected to the LTG unit ( Line/Trunk group unit ) in the EWSD exchange. 4. The SN ( Switching Network ) in the EWSD exchange consists of two stage groups . They are ___________________ & ______________________. 5. __________card is used to terminate analog subscribers and ___________ card is used to terminate digital subscribers in the DLU of EWSD exchange 6. Tones are generated in the _________ unit of EWSD exchange.
7. ______________ unit in the EWSD exchange generates the link between the users(LTGs) of the CCS7 and the signal links. 8. In case of link failure to the main exchange of EWSD, the remote DLU(RSU) can continue to work if __________module is equipped in that DLU (RSU) 9. Every exchange working on CCS7 signaling should have a ____________ ___________ Code. 10.Meter readings of a subscriber in EWSD exchange are associated with ________________ ______________ only. OCB I. Multiple choice questions. ( 5 Marks) 1. Maximum number of LRs that can be connected from CSNL to SMX is ______ a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 1 [ ] 2. Which of the following software is loaded in SMX for control operations? a) MLMR b) MLTR c) MLCOM d) MLPC [ ] 3. Which of the following unit is not connected to MAS ring? a) SMT b) SMA c) SMC d) SMM [ ] 4. The number of subscribers that can be equipped in one concentrator is __ a) 128 b) 64 c) 256 d) 2048 [ ] 5. The number of Call attempts per sec of OCB-283 exchange is ___ a) 220 b) 240 c) 260 d) 280 [ ] II. Match the following units with respect to its corresponding stations ( 5 Marks) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. SMA STS CSN SMC SMT [ [ [ [ [ ] ] ] ] ] PC URM PUPE UCN HIS
QUESTION BANK ON BATTERY I.FILL UP THE FOLLOWING BLANKS: 1.UNDER FULLY CHARGED CONDITION THE ACTIVE MAYERIAL ON +VE PLATE IS -------------------------------------- AND ON -VE PLATE IS ---------------------2.UNDER DISCHARGE CONDITION THE ACTIVE MATERIAL ON +VE PLATE IS---------------------------------- AND ON -VE PLATE IS ----------------------------------.
3.ON CHARGE THE POSITIVE PLATE ASSUMES ----------------------------------COLOUR WHILE THE -VE PLATE ASSUMES ---------------------------- COLOUR. 4. LIBERATION OF HYDROGEN GAS AT -VE PLATE AND OXYGEN AT +VE PLATE IS KNOWN AS --------------------------------------------. 5.CONCENTRATED SULPHURIC ACID HAS A SPECIFIC GRAVITY OF ------------------------,WHILE THE SPECIFIC GRAVITY OF THIS ELECTROLYTE IS ---------------------- IN FULLY CHARGED CONDITION AND ---------------------------- IN FULLY DISCHARGED CONDITION. 6. FOR CONVINIENCE THE SPECIFIC GRAVITY READINGS ARE MULTIPLIED BY ------------------------------- AND TO MEASURE THE SPECIFIC GRAVITY OF THE ELECTROLYTE -------------------------------- IS USED ON WHICH READINGS ARE MARKED ACCORDINGLY. 7.THE CAPACITY OF THE SECONDARY CELL IS EXPRESSED IN -------------------8. PRACTICALLY IT IS OBSERVED THAT AT -----------------RATE 100% CAPACITY OF THE CELL IS AVAILABLE FOR DISCHARGE. 9.THE FLOAT VOLTAGE OF BATTERY IS --------------------------- WHILE FOR SINGLE CELL IS --------------------------- IN VRLA BATTERY. 10.THE BOOST VOLTAGE OF A BATTERY IS ----------------------- WHILE FOR SINGLE CELL IS -----------------------------. 11. THE VRLA BATTERY IS CHARGED ON CONSTANT ---------------------- METHOD WHILE CONVENTIONAL BATTERY IS CHARGED ON CONSTANT ------------------------------- METHOD. 12.THE SPECIFIC GRAVITY OF THE ELECTROLYTE AT ANY TEMPERATURE TOC IS GIVEN BY THE FORMULA ---------------------------------------------, BASED ON WHICH ADD -------------------------POINTS IF THE TEMPERATURE IS ABOVE 10OC AND SUBTRACT ----------------------POINTS WHEN THE TEMPERATURE IS LESS THAN 10 OC.
13.FOR TOPPING UP OF SECONDARY CELL ----------------------------- WATER IS ONLY TO BE USED. 14.ALWAYS ---------- SETS OF BATTERIES ARE TO BE INSTALLED IN WORKING EXCHANGE. II. STATE TRUE OR FALSE 1.GASSING IS THE MAIN PROBLEM IN LEAD ACID BATTERY. ( 2.VRLA CELLS WILL NOT RELEASE GASES ) ( )
3. WHILE PREPARING ELECTROLYTE ,DISTILLED WATER IS ADDED TO THE ACID ( )
4.POSITIVE PLATES IN A CELL ARE ONE MORE IN NUMBER THAN NEGATIVE PLATES. ( ) ).
5.ON CHARGE COLOUR OF NEGATIVE PLATES IS LIGHT GREY (
6.DURING DISCHARGE LEAD SULPHATE IS FORMED ON BOTH THE PLATES OF A CELL ( ).
7.THE PILOT CELL IS SELECTED OF VRLA BATTERY SHOULD BE LOWEST CELL VOLTAGE IN THE BATTERY ( ).
8.VRLA BATTERY NEEDS REGULAR MAINTANENCE ( ). 9.TEST DISCHARGE CAN BE CONTINUED TILL THE CELL ATTTAINS THE VOLTAGE OF 1.85V ( ).
10.THE CAPACITY OF THE CELL WILL BE 100% IF THE CELLS ARE DISCHARGED AT ONE HOUR RATE ( ).
11.THE COLOUR OF THE +VE PLATE IN A FULLY CHARGED SECONDARY CELL IS LIGHT GREY ( ).
12.THE SPECIFIC GRAVITY OF A CELL INCREASES WITH INCREASE IN TEMPERATURE ( ).
13.THE SPECIFIC GRAVITY OF A CELL IN A FULLY CHARGED CELL IS 1200 ). 14.THE END PLATES ARE ALWAYS NEGATIVE ( ).
15.HYDROMETER IS USED TO MEASURE THE SPECIFIC GRAVITY OF THE ELECTROLYTE. 16.THE DISCHARGE RATE IS ALWAYS CARRIED AT C10 RATE ( QUESTION BANK ON AIR-CONDITIONING I.FILL UP THE BLANKS : (EACH BLANK CARRIES ONE MARK). ).
1.TEMPERATURE OF THE EXCHANGE IS TO BE MAINTAINED BETWEEN ------DGREE CENTIGRADE TO ---------- DEGREE CENTIGRADE. 2.THE THERMOSTAT USED IN AN A/C SYSTEM IS ADJUSTED TO HAVE AN CUTOUT TEMPERATURE OF ---------- DEGREE CENTIGRADE WHERE AS THE CUT IN TEMPERATURE IS -------- DEGREE CENTIGRADE. 3.THE RELATIVE HUMIDITY IN THE SWITCH ROOM IS TO BE MAINTAINED BETWEEN --------- PERCENTAGE TO ------------- PERCENTAGE. 4.THE COARSE FILTER USED IN THE A/C SYSTEM WIIL BLOCK --------- PERCENTAGE OF THE DUST PARTICLES HAVING THE DIAMETER OF -----------MICRONS. 5. THE FINE FILTER USED IN THE A/C SYSTEM WIIL BLOCK --------- PERCENTAGE OF THE DUST PARTICLES HAVING THE DIAMETER OF -----------MICRONS. 6. THE A/C UNITS TAKE FRESH AIR FROM OUTSIDE AND SUPPLY THE SAME AT A RATE EQUAL TO ----------- AIR CHANGE PER HOUR. 7.IF THE VOLUME OF THE ROOM IS 18,000 CUFT THE RATE AT WHICH FRESH AIR IS SUPPLIED TO THE ROOM IS --------- CUFT PER HOUR. 8. THE CAAPCITY OF THE FRESH AIR FAN SHOULD BE --------- AIR CHANGE PER HOUR.
9.THE PROCESS BY WHICH THE TEMPERATURE OF A GIVEN SPACE OR SUBSTANCE IS LOWERED BELOW THAT OF THE ATMOSPHERE OR SURROUNDINGS IS CALLED AS --------------------------------. 10.THE PROCESS WHICH HEATS , COOLS , CLEANS AND CIRCULATES THE AIR AND CIRCULATES THE AIR AND CONTROLS THE MOISTURE CONTENTS IS CALLED AS ------------------------------. 11.THE AMOUNT OF HEAT REQUIRED TO RAISE THE TEMPERATURE OF ONE POUND OF WATER BY ONE DEGREE FAHREMHEIT IS CALLED AS ---------------. 12. THE AMOUNT OF HEAT REQUIRED TO RAISE THE TEMPERATURE OF ONE GRAM OF WATER BY ONE DEGREE CENTIGRADE IS CALLED ---------------. 13.1 BTU = ------------ KCAL. 14. 1 KCAL =--------------- BTU. 15.A MACHINE HAVING ITS CAPACITY TO PRODUCE COOLING EFFECT OF ---------------- BTU PER MINUTE OR ------------- KCAL PER MINUTE IS CLASSIFIED AS ONE TON OF REFRIGERATION. 16.HEAT WHICH CAN BE MEASURED BY THERMOMETER IS KNOWN AS ------------------ HEAT WHERE AS ------------- HEAT CANNOT BE SENSED BY THERMOMETER. 17. THE EXPANSION OF PSI = ------------------------------, PSIG IS ------------------------------------------ AND PSIA = ------------------------------------------------. 18.PRESSURE BELOW ATMOSPHERIC IS KNOWN AS ----------------------------------- AND ABOVE ATMOSPHERIC IS KNOWN AS ------------------------------------------. 19.THE FLUID USED IN REFRIGERATING SYSTEMS TO PRODUCE COOL BY REMOVING HEAT IS KNOWN AS --------------------------------------------------. AS
20.THE REFRIGERANTS THAT COOL SUBSTANCES BY ABSORBING LATENT HEAT ARE KNOWN AS ----------------- REFRIGERANTS WHERE AS THOSE THAT COOL SUBSTANCES BY ABSOBING SENSIBLE HEAT ARE KNOWN AS -------------------------------------------------- REFRIGERANTS. II. STATE TRUE OR FALSE: ( EACH CARRIES ONE MARK) 1. ROOM AIR CONDITIONERS HAVE NO PROVISION FOR EFFECTIVE HUMIDITY CONTROL ( ). ( ). ).
2.REFRIGERANT AT CONDENSOR OUTPUT IS IN VAPOUR FORM 3.IN EXPANSION VALVE REFRIGERANT GAINS PRESSURE (
4.IN THE REFRIGERATION CYCLE THE REFRIGERANT IS AT HIGHEST TEMPERATURE IN THE EVAPORATOR. ( ).
5.A VAPOUR IS THAT WHICH CAN BE LIQUID ONLY BY INCREASE IN PRESSURE WITHOUT LOWERING THE TEMPERATURE ( ). (
6.THE FREEZING OF THE REFRIGERANT IN THE EVAPORATOR IS DESIRABLE ). 7.THE REFRIGERANT SHOULD NEVER MIX WITH LUBRICATING OIL (
).
8.SPLIT AC UNITS ARE PREFFERED THAN WINDOW TYPE AC UNITS IN THE SWITCH ROOM IN RESPECT OF DUST FILTERNING ( ).
9.IN SPLIT TYPE THE CONDENSOR IS AVAILABLE IN THE ROOM TO BE COOLED ( ). 10.PACKAGE UNITS WORKS ON THREE PHASE SUPPLY ( ).
III. ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS ( EACH CARRIES TWO MARKS). 1. WRITE THE CHEMICAL NAME AND FORMULA OF REFRIGERANT -11. 2. WRITE THE CHEMICAL NAME AND FORMULA OF REFRIGERANT -12. 3. WRITE THE CHEMICAL NAME AND FORMULA OF REFRIGERANT -22.
4. WHAT ARE COLOUR SCHEMES USED FOR THE FOLLOWING: A. HOT GAS LINE B. LIQUID LINE C. SUCTION LINE D. CONDENSOR WATER LINE
5. WHAT ARE THE MAIN CYCLES EMPLOYED IN A VAPOUR REFRIGERATION SYSTEM? KEY I.FILL UP THE BLANKS: 1. LEAD PEROXIDE , METALLIC LEAD 2. LEAD SULPHATE,LEAD SULPHATE 3. RICH CHOCOLATE,LIGHT GREY 4. GASSING 5. 1.84,1200(1.2),1150 (1.15) 6. 1000,HYDROMETER 7. AMPERE-HOUR 8. 10 HR 9. 54V,2.25V 10.55.2V,2.30V 11.VOLTAGE,CURRENT 12.SG27 = SGT + 0.7 ( T-27) ,7,7. 13.DISTILLED 14.TWO II. SAY TRUE OR FALSE: T,T,T,F,T,T,F,F,T,F,F,F,T,T,T,T.
COMPRESSED
III. 1. 1.MATERIAL PURITY 2.NEGATIVE EXCESS CAPACITY 3. LEAK PROOF CONSTRUCTION
2. + VE PLATE------------------------> LEAD PEROXIDE -VE PLATE---------------------------------> METALLIC LEAD 3. AMPERE-HOUR DISCHARGE X 100
AMPERE HOUR EFFICIENCY=--------------------------------------------------AMPERE-HOUR CHARGE WATT-HOUR DISCHARGE X 100 WATT- HOUR EFFICIENCY=--------------------------------------------------WATT-HOUR CHARGE
4. 1.NO WATER TOPPING UP 2. FLEXIBLE ORIENTATION 3. OFFICE FRIENDLY 4. SAFE TO USE 5. CONVENTIONAL LEAD ACID BATTERY 1. TOPPING UP IS REQUIRED 2.INSTALLED IN UP RIGHT POSITION 3.BULKY 4. HEAVY CONVENTIONAL VRLA 1.NO TOPPING UP 2. HORIZONTAL 3. COMPACT 4. LIGHT,30% OF
KEY TO AIR-CONDITIONING QUESTION BANK
I. FILL UP THE BLANKS: 1.20,26 3.30,60 5.99.9,5 7.9000 9.REFRIGERATION 11.BTU 13.0.252 15.200,50 2.23,25 4.90,20 6.HALF 8.ONE 10.AIR-CONDITIONING 12.CALORIE 14.3.968 16.SENSIBLE,LATENT
17.PRESSURE PER SQUARE INCH,PRESSURE PER SQUARE INCH GAUGE,PRESSURE PER SQUARE INCH ABSOLUTE 18.VACUUM,GAUGE 20.PRIMARY,SECONDARY II. TRUE OR FALSE: F,F,F,F,T,F,F,T,F,T. II. ANSWER THE FOLLOWING: 1. FREON -11 ; CCL3F - TRICHLORO MONOFLURO METHANE 2. FREON -12 ; CCL2F2 - DICHLORO DIFLURO METHANE 3. FREON 22 ; CHCLF2 - MONOCHLORO DIFLURO METHANE 4. RED,YELLOW,ORANGE,DEEP-BLUE 5. REFRIGERATION CYCLE,AIR CYCLE,WATER CYCLE. 19.REFRIGERANT
INTELLIGENT NETWORK (IN) 1.ABBREVIATE THE FOLLOWING: (EACH CARRIES ONE MARK): 1.SCP: 2.SMP: 3.SSP:
4.IP: 5.CCAF: 6.CCF: 7.SSF: 8.SCF: 9.SDF: 10.SRF: 11.SCEF: 12.SMAF: 13.SMF: 14.FPH: 15.VCC: 16.ACC: 17.VOT: 18.PRM: 19.UAN: 20.VPN: II.ANSWER THE FOLLOWING: ( EACH CARRIES TWO MARKS) 1.DRAW THE DIAGRAM OF IN ARCHTECTURE. 2.MENTION ANY FOUR IN SERVICES PROVIDED BY BSNL.
III. MATCH THE FOLLOWING: 1.FPH 2.VCC 3.UAN-LOCAL 4.VOT 5.PRM 6.UAN-NATIONAL A.0900 ( B.0901 ( D.1601 ( E.1901 ( F.1902 ( ) ) ) ) ) ). VRLA BATTERY 1. In VRLA type cell , the separator is made up of _spun glass microporous matrix type material__ 2. In VRLA type cell , the positive plate is made up of ____Patented MFX___ alloy. 3. In VRLA type cell , the negative plate is made up of ____Lead calcium___ alloy. 4. Recommended float voltage is __2.25______ VPC at 27o C. 5. Recommended boost voltage is _2.30_______VPC at 27o C.
C.1600 (
State TRUE or FALSE. a. VRLA cells will not release gases ( T ). b. To the charge, discharge system of battery, float rectifier is not necessary ( T ) c. During discharge Lead Sulphate is formed on both the plates of a cell ( F ). d. The pilot cell is selected of VRLA battery should be the lowest cell voltage in the battery ( T ). e. VRLA battery needs regular maintenance ( T ). f. The exchange earth should be nearer to A.C. earth ( F ). g. Test discharge can be continued, till the cell attains the voltage of 1.85 V ( F ). h. The capacity of the cell will be 100%, If the cells are discharged at 1 hr rate( F ). i. For VRLA battery set, never give an extended charge ( at 65 V) ( ). j. The specific gravity of electrolyte in a fully charged cell is 1200 ( ). k. The capacity of a cell increases with the increase in temperature ( T ). l. The end plates are always negative ( ). m. Hydrometer is used to measure the level of electrolyte ( F ). ENGINE ALTERNATOR I. Fill in the blanks. 1. In four stroke engines the cam shaft speed will be exactly --------------the speed of crank shaft. 2. ---------------- rings on the piston will form oil fill for lubrication of cylinder walls. 3. ----------------- converts reciprocating motion of the piston to rotary motion and transmits the power to crank shaft. 4. high power alternators generally have stationary ----------------- and rotating ----------------------- . 5. Voltage regulation due to load variations in alternator is achieved by varying ------------------------- . 6. In an engine alternator the dynamo is used for ---------------------------- . 7. Air cooling of two types, viz, -------------------- and ------------------------- . 8. During the suction stroke ------------------- is drawn into the cylinder of diesel engine. 9. ---------------- is used to maintain the correct speed of engine.
10.For an alternator have two sets of pole pairs the speed should be ------------ rpm for the required frequency of 50 Hz. 11.For small capacity engine alternators upto 50 KVA, generally -------cooled engines may be specified. 12.A tolerance of ------ percent on fuel consumption at full load shall be allowed. 13.An engine is a machine which converts ------------------------- energy into -------------------- energy. 14.A generator is an electromagnetic machine which converts -------------energy into ------------------- energy. 15.Diesel cycle comprises of -------------, -------------, ----------------- and ------------------- strokes. 16.In compression stroke inlet valve is --------- and exhaust valve remains ----------------- position. 17.Fuel system comprises -----------------, ------------------- and ------------------- . 18.Methods of cooling adopted in engine are ---------------- and ------------------ . 19.Change the paper element of the air filter in engines for every -------hours. 20.It is recommended that the engine is overhauled at the end of every ---------- hours. II. Mention the TRUE or FALSE. 1. 50 KVA capacity engine alternator is used for 1000 1400 lines exchange capacity. 2. The fuel consumption shall be stated in grams per brake horse power in the case of gas engines. 3. connecting rod is a stationary part of the diesel engine. 4. In large capacity alternators the main armature winding remains stationary and field coils rotates. 5. Sodium dichromate is used to remove the scales caused by the hard water in the radiator tubes. 6. asbestos rope is wound around the pipe carrying exhaust gases to prevent accidental electrical shocks to the maintenance staff. 7. In a diesel engine the piston moves from BDC to TDC during the power stroke. 8. Some of the diesel engines are two stroke engines. 9. In suction stroke, exhaust valve opens and inlet valve closes. 10.In compression stroke the piston moves from BDC to TDC. 11.Variation of the speed, due to variations in the pressure of working fluids inside the cylinder is regulated by a Governor. 12.The function of air intake system is to supply the clean air into the engine cylinder for the purpose of combustion. 13.Temperatures above 300 F may evaporate the lubrication oil and cause injuries to the piston and head. 14.Clean the air cleaner element by lightly tapping it on wooden block for every 500 hours. 15.If the poles are spaced equally apart, the frequency becomes thrice the speed of rotation of the loop.
16.The stationary armature alternators are also called brush less alternators. 17.The power of AC generators is measured in KW. 18.All air filters are wet type only. 19.Cam shaft rotates twice for every one rotation of the crank shaft. 20.Muffler changes the velocity of the exhaust gases and increases the pressure in steps.
Power Plant Fill in the blanks 1. Minimum insulation resistance of components w.r.t. Earth in p/p is ----------- ohms. 2. In power plant ---------- lead is earthed. 3. Three modes of smps are --------------, -------------, -------------4. If smoothing filter fuse fails ----------------------- . 5. Switch on/ switch off command circuits are provided in ------------------- unit. 6. The fr is protected from getting switched on, in case of any one of the phase failures by ---------------- circuit, in conventional 3 piece power plant. 7. The battery charger can deliver full rated current at --------- volts in conventional 3 piece power plant. 8. The battery charger portion of the power plant can be used as float rectifier in emergency by including ---------------- at the output. 9. The bridge rectifier elements are protected from overload by -----------------, w.r.t. Conventional 3 piece power plant. 10.The output of fr is regulated within the range of -------- volts, w.r.t. Conventional 3 piece power plant. 11.The overload alarm is generated by ------------ unit, w.r.t. Conventional 3 piece power plant. 12.The capacity of small exchange power plant ----------- amps. 13.The ripple should be with in ---------------- mv psophometric without batteries. 14.Controller of float rectifier consists --------------,------------,----------and -----------------. 15.The battery charger is prevented from switching on unless the tap changing switches are in --------,---------- and -------- positions 16.Regulation is achieved in smps by varying the --------------- in the switch 17.In fr regulation is done by ------------------, ----------------, and ------------------ methods.
18.In scr regulation method, the scr will be in on condition as long as the current flowing through scr is above threshold value called ---------- . 19.The capacity of ups is expressed in --------
True or False a. Auto paralleling is available in small power plants. b. Normally the float rectifier of lowest capacity available will be nominated as priority unit. c. Output of inverter is -51 + 0.5 V DC. d. Non priority unit (F/R) works on constant current mode. e. Battery charger gives regulated DC output. f. HRC fuses are provided at the DC output of the module to safe guard them against over loads in SMPS. g. When the smoothing filter fuse fails, the FR will automatically trip. h. In SMPS, because of low power factor, separate PF capacitors are mounted. i. In power plants, alarm fuses are always connected in series with HRC fuses to give alarm when a HRC fuse blows. i. the output of an SMPS power plant in float mode is 55.2 V. ii. the psophometric noise is 2 mv, when battery is floated across the output of FR. iii. Non-priority working is constant voltage mode. iv. Voltage signal -5.0 V ( w.r.t. to earth) given by a priority FR when delivering 20% of the rated load current. v. Bypass key is associated with non priority FR. j. Over load alarm is generated by FR k. In smps power plants the battery is charged at constant current l. In two piece power plants FC/BC also share the load current m. Auto paralleling is provided in two piece power plants n. The EMI generated by SMPS power plant is greater than the conventional o. Rectification is done twice in SMPS power plants p. Due to high frequency switching the size of the transformer is small in smps p/p q. If the float voltage is high the battery will get over charged r. If conventional batteries are floated the float voltage is maintained at 55.2V in smps s. Provision exists to charge the conventional battery in smps t. Drooping is provided in the FR to protect the battery Match the following a. Filter 2. SMPS
b. c. d. e. f. g.
Multi rack Fine Switch Rectifier Charger Switching cubicle Inverter
3. 4. 5. 6.
Battery Charger Float Rectifier Ballast choke Power Transistor bridge 7. Alarm circuits 8. Smoothing circuit
( THE DSS FAMILY & SYSTEM FEATURES ) I. Fill the blanks with suitable words :
1.0 .CDOT Software is written in C language. 2.0. For inter processor communication the messages are exchanged over HDLC..links. 3.0. CDOT system employs T-S-T.switching configuration. 4.0. The basic growth unit of the system is Base..module. 5.0. The Central Module performs network syncand space.switching between base modules. 6.0. IOP is connected with ......AM........ .(AM/CM) I. Fill up the blanks with suitable words :
I.0. LCC card is the basic system element in CDOT DSS. 2.0. The termination capacity of a BM is 488..terminals in non Concentration mode whereas 2024terminals in concentration mode. 3.0. A Base Module provides max. of B- Channels . 4.0. A line module can provide upto 768.terminals. 5.0. The termination capacity of SBM exchange is 1500lines and 128 trunks. 6.0. The BHCA capacity of Base Processor is 30000with upgraded processor . 7.0. In case of MAX- XL exchange, the BHCA handling capacity is 8 lakhs(with HPC and HMS cards). 8.0. The Erlang Traffic capacity of SBM Exchange is 250 erlangs. 9.0. ADP is connected to .........AM 10.0. OOD is connected to ............IOP.... 11.0. OOD means output outside diagolue terminal. 1.0. What is the Termination capacity of subs criber lines in RSU 2024 ( HARDWARE ARCHITECTURE ) I. I.0. 2.0. 3.0. Fill in the banks with suitable words : The base module interfaces lines, trunks and -------------------The BM communicates with AM through Central.module. One ATU supports maxmium 128terminals.
4.0. One DTU interfaces upto 4E I / PCM links. 5.0. AM communicates with Base Processor through switch for messages. 1.0. Expand a. SP b. STP h. INAP c. MTP d. TUP e. ISUP f. SCCP g. TCAP
control
Signalling Point Signalling Transfer Point Message transfer part Telephone User part ISDN user pat Signalling connection control part Transactions capability application part Fill in the blanks 1. CM-L is equipped with ___4__________ no. of frames. 2. The first frame in CM-L is ____BTU______ , second frame is _SSU__ , third frame is SSCU____ , and fourth frame is _____APU__________. 3. 4. 5. 6. CM-L supports a maximum of ___16__________ no. of BMs. Even____ numbered BMs only can be configured as RBMs. CM-L supports a maximum of __8_____ no. of RBMs. The IFC card in a CM-L caters for ___2_____ no. of BMs and the card used is _in BTU frame. 7. The IFC card used for connecting one RBM and one co-located BM is _ESL_. 8. The CMSs which are integral part of CM are placed in ___APU_____ frame . 9. _________ and _________ CMSs only will interface with the AM for routing control messages to BP. 10.CM-XL is equipped with the ____6_____ no. of frames. 11.BTU___ occupies frame I and frame IV of CM-XL. 12.SSU__ occupies frame II and frame III of CM-XL. 13.The frame V in CM-XL is equipped with __SSCU___ unit and frame VI is equipped with __APU_______ unit. 14.A total of ______ no. of power supply filter boxes are available in CM-XL cabinet. 15.The IFC card used in CM-XL to cater to two co-located BMs is ___PSM_______. 16.The IFC card used in CM-XL to cater to one RBM and one collocated BM is __ESM_______. 17.NSC__ card is used in CM-XL to synchronise with the Network clock.
( SUBS LINE ADMINISTRATION ) I. Fill in the blanks with suitable words :
I.0. To create a new subs line the two essential parameters are Directory Number.and TEN 2.0When a directory number is deleted, its status is changed to frozen..list.
( TRUNK & ROUTING ADMINISTARTION ) I. Fill in the blanks with suitable words : I.0. Line signals essentially deal with of a circuit . 2.0. Decadic signalling is an example for Addresssignalling. 3.0. The digit from which digits are out pulsed on an outgoing trunk is Rank of digit. 3.0.Explain the significance of the following parameters in creation of TGP . a .Rank Of Digit b. Group Type a. DGT SZFD b. TGP CAT 4.0.Define the following : a. Route b. Route Code 5.0. Explain the following parameters used in the creation of a route . a. RUT - FLG b. CRG RTN c. TGP - CHC 6.0. How many trunks can be added / deleted by writing single command ? 6.0. Name the command used before deleting a trunk circuit from a TGP . frctrm-oos 9.0. Write short notes on : a. Charge Rate Number b. Route Flag c. Digit Length ( DGT LGT )
( TRAFFIC ADMINISTRATION ) Fill in the blanks with suitable words : I. 1.0. For starting the desired traffic reports start-trf-rpt.command is to be executed. 1.0. To remove desired trunk group from observation mod-tgp-obs command is to be used. 2.0. To put a subs line for malicious call observation mod-sub-faccommand is to be given. 3.0. To display current traffic information for a specified subs displ-subtrfinf.command is to be keyed in. BILLING ADMINISTRATION I. Fill in the blanks with suitable words :
I.0. To know the current meter reading of particular subscriber displ-submtr.command is to be given. I.0. fmt-blg-cntr..command is to be given for formatting the billing counter dumps. 3.0. Detailed bill records for TGP are generated only when TGP is under billing observation. 4.0. To initialise the time schedule and corresponding tariff class for a given type of day mod-typ-day..command is to be keyed in. 5.0. For outgoing calls originated from CDOT exchange the desired charge rate number having initial charge = 1.should be specified in the desired route. CCS#7 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. How many levels are there in CCS#7 layer architecture 4 Name any two user parts ISUP, TUP, DUP, OMAP, MAP, INAP etc. Which Signalling system is faster CCS or CAS : CCS CCS#7 messages are of fixed length(T/F) F Write layers of MTP MTP1, MTP2, MTP3 Which CCS#7 level includes USER PART. Level-4
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
ISDN ISDN BRI provides __2________ bearer channels. ISDN provides end to end __ digital___________ connectivity. D channel is used for carrying signalling (T/F) F Non ISDN equipment is connected to __TA________- at customer primises. Non ISDN equipment is connected to NT directly.(T/F) F Speed of B- Channel is ____64 kbps_______ in ISDN BRI. Speed of B- Channel is ___64 kbps________ in ISDN PRI. Speed of D- Channel is ___16 kbps________ in ISDN BRI. Speed of D- Channel is ___64 kbps________ in ISDN PRI.
E10B I.Fill up the Blanks :each question carries one mark (15 marks) 1.The number of BHCA that can be handled by E10B exge. is _____________ a) 180000 b) 190000 c) 200000 d) None [ ] 2.Management functions of Maximum ________ exges are carried out by Single OMC [ ] a) 4 b) 2 c) 6 d) 8 3.OMC is connected to E10B Exge by ________ link a) PCM b) Data c) Physical d) None [ 4. Switching network is a _______ stage digital switch in E10B system a) 2 b) 4 d) 6 d) 3 [ ]
5. Power feeding on Subscriber line is carried out by _______ unit in E10B a) CSE b) TR c) TX d) CX [ ] 6.______are the Maximum no. of subscribers connected to a CSE a)1000 b) 2000 c) 1023 d) None [ ] 7.Maximum _____ PCM s can be terminated on one URM Rack a) 20 b) 32 c) 30 d) 34 [ ] 8.Generation of different tones is carried out by _____ unit in E10B a) CSE b) ETAc) TX d) CX [ ] 9.E10B System is equipped with minimum ______ no. of ETAs a) 2 b) 4 d) 6 d) 16 [ ] 10.Announcement machine is equipped in _______ rack in E10B a) CSE b) ETAc) BDA d) CX [ ] 11. Maximum ______ no. of Multi Registers (MR) are installed in E10B Exge. a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 16 [ ] 12.Setting up and releasing of calls is done by ______ unit in E10B a) TX b) MR c) BDA d) TR [ ] 13. Subscriber meter accounts are handled by ______ unit in E10B Exge. a) TX b) MR c) TR d) MQ [ ] 14.Timing signals required for E10B Exge is supplied by _____ unit a) TX b) BDA c) BT d) MQ [ ] 15. Management functions in E10B exge are carried out by _______ a) TX b) OMC c) TR d) OC [ ] II. Say True or False:each question carries one mark (5 marks) 1.Subscribers of RLUs get all facilities on par with Main Exge Subs [ ] 2.CSEL is Subscriber connection unit located in RLU [ ] 3.Switching and management functions are segregated in E10B system [ ] 4.DSF Participate in switching functions in E10B system [ ] 5.E10B exge does not use digital switching [ ] III.Match the following E10b Commands:5 Marks 1. ABOCR a) Peripheral Management [ ] 2. ANACR b) New subs creation [ ] 3. ABOIN c) Subscriber testing [ ] 4. INFHS d) National analysis creation [ ] 5. ABESL e) Subscriber Interrogation [ ] PCM Say True or False w.r.to. 30 chl PCM. 1. Sampling frequency for speech transmission is 8000 Hz. 2. 30 Chl PCM will have 30 speech time slots. [T 3. Time Slot duration is 3.9 Micro Seconds 4. Frame duration is 125 nano seconds. 5. Multi Frame duration is 200 milli seconds. [F 6. TS 16 of Frame zero carries FAW. 7. TS 16 of F1 to F15 carries Signalling information. 8. 30 chl PCM bit rate is 1544Kbps. 9. 30 chl PCM signal will be in HDB-3 code format. 10. Bit repetition rate is 488 Micro seconds. [ ] [ [ ] [ T T F ] ] ] ] ] ] ] ]
F [ T [F [T [F
CDMA I. 1. SELECT THE SUITABLE ANSWER BTS is connected to BSC a) by Radio link b) by Optical fibre link c) By copper wire medium d) all the above In CDMA the data rate after spreading is (as per IS 95A) a) 1.2288 Mbps b) 9600 bps c) 4800 bps d) None of the above In CDMA, network identifies the subs end equipment by a) ESN b) IMEI c) IMSI d) none of the above IWF function in CDMA WILL system is used a) to give connectivity to data network b) to provide connectivity to the PSTN c) Both a) & b) d) None of the above ( )
2.
3. 4.
5. Forward CDMA channel consists of a) A Pilot channel, A synchronization channel b) Paging channels, Forward traffic channels c) both a & b d) only Forward traffic channel
6. CDMA uplink frequency as per IS 95A is ( ) a) 824-849 MHz b) 869 894 MHz c) Both (a) & (b) d) none of the above.
Questions on Data communications :

1. In which layer of the OSI model data is converted into segments ] (a) Network (b) Transport (c) Presentation (d) Application 2. LAN stands for ______________ (a) Logical Area Network (b) Local Area Network (c) Local Access Network [ ] [
(d) Logical Access Network 3. One of the following is FALSE in the case of bus topology (a) Least amount of media is used (b) To add a new station cable is to be broken (c) Stations are connected using passive taps (d) Coverage can be increased by extending the bus using repeaters 4. In ring topology nodes are connected through repeaters called ] (a) Ring Interface Unit (b) Passive Taps (c) Ring Access Interface (d) None of these 5. The topology that is suitable for fibre is _______ (a) Bus (b) Ring (c) Star (d) None of these [ [ ]
6. In sliding window flow control mechanism, if the frame sequence number consists of N number of bits, then the window size will be at most [ ] (a) N (b) 2N-1 (c) 2N-1 (d) N-1 7. The first two bits of the control field of a HDLC frame are 1 1 then it is a/an: (a) I-frame (b) S-frame (c) U-frame (d) None of the above [ ]
8. In one of the HDLC frames there will not be any sequence number of the frame, what is it? ] (a) I-frame (b) S-frame (c) U-frame (d) None of the above 9. Communication between the corresponding layers of two nodes is called as ------------------(a) peer to peer communication (b) node to node communication (c) PC to- PC communication [
(d) None of the above 10. FDDI means __________ (a) Fibre Distributed Data Interface (b) Fast Data Distribution Interface (c) Fast Digital Distribution Interface (d) Fibre Digital Data Interface 11. Which error detection method involves polynomials? (a) VRC (b) LRC (c) CRC (d)Checksum 12. Link utilization is better in the following mechanism (a) Stop-and-wait flow control mechanism (b) Sliding window flow control mechanism (c) Both of the above. (d) None of the above [ ]
1.B
2.B
3.B
4.A
5.B
6.C
7.C
OFC
8.B
9.A
10.A
11.C
12.B
1. Light velocity in glass is _______ than that of air (a) faster (b) slower (c) no velocity change (d) infinite 2. When light traveling from one material to another changes its direction of travel .This phenomenon is called ______ ( ) (a) reflection (b) Refraction (c) Polarisation (d) diffraction 3. The refractive index of cladding is ______ than that of core. ( ) (a) less (b) more (c) equal (d) half 4. The step index fibre has core with ___ refractive index through out ( ) (a) uniform (b) variable (c) ramp type (d) sine wave. 5. The Graded Index Fibre _____________ the modal dispersion . ( ) (a) increases (b) eliminates totally (c) reduces (d) doubles 6. The core diameter of a single mode fibre is in the range of ____ microns ( ) (a) 5 ---10 (b) around 50 (c) 82.5 (d) 100-125 7. In single mode fibre the diameter of the light appearing at the end of ( ) the single mode fibre is __________than the core diameter (a) smaller (b) equal (c) larger (d) half 8. In SM fibres , ___ is the term used to define the diameter of optical energy. ( ) (a) core diameter (b) Mode field diameter (c) spectral dia (d) window
9. Light traveling through a very sharp bend cannot make the turn and lost , is called (a) micro bending (b) macro bending (c) discontinuity (d) aperture loss 10. Numerical Aperture is the _______________ ability of a fibre ( ) (a) light gathering (b) light reflecting (c) light scattering (d) light dispersing 11. Modal dispersion occurs only in ________ fibres ( ) (a) Multimode fibres (b) single mode fibres (c) plastic fibres (d) siecor 12. The ________ of a source is a major factor in deciding Material dispersion ( ) (a) brightness (b) directionality (c) spectral width (d) modulation 13. The material used as central strength member in OF cable ( ) (a) Nylon (b) PVC (c) Steel tape (d) fibre glass 14. The length of the fibre is --------- (than) the buffer tube ( ) (a) shorter (b) longer (c) equal (d) double 15. _______fibre having core with refractive index highest at the centre and is gradually decreases until it matches that of cladding. LDCE-2007 (a) Multimode fibres (b) single mode fibres (c) plastic fibres (d) siecor 16. Number of fibres per ribbon in 96 F cable is LDCE2007 (a) one (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 24 17. The parameter used to express dispersion ( ) (a) nm (b) decibels (c) MHz.Km (d) ps/km/nm 18. ____________detector is preferred for detecting low power. LDCE2007 (a) PIN photo diode (b) APD photo diode (c) LED (d) LASER 19. At every 200 mtr. of route length of OFC route have (a) Joint indicator (b) route indicator (c) branch indicator (d) none of these 20. _________ nm wave length is called Zero dispersion wave length (a) 850 (b) 1300 (c) 1550 (d) 1600 21. _________ nm wave length offers minimum attenuation (a) 850 (b) 1300 22. Dispersion shifted fibres (DSF) OF cable minimum attenuation at ____nm wave (a) 850 (b) 1300 (c) 1550 (d) 1600 offers Zero dispersion and length (c) 1550 (d) 1600 )
23. Propagation of light through fibre is governed by the indices of core and cladding by _____ ( (a) newtons law (b) Wave theory ( c) Snells law (d) Electro magnetic theory
24. Spreading of light pulses in time domain as it travels down the fibre is called (a) attenuation (b) delay (c) dispersion (d) echo
PDH 1. The bit rate of the primary MUX used in European hierarchy ( ) (a) 2.048 Mbps ( ) (a) 2.048 Mbps ( ) (a) 848 bits 2007 (a) 848 bits ( ) (a) 2928 bits LDCE-2007 (a) 12th bit (b) 13th bit 2007 (a) 2.048 Mbps (a) 2.048 Mbps (a) 2.048 Mbps Mb 10. the line code used in 2.048 Mbps is (a) RZ (b) NRZ (c) HDB3 11. . the line code used in 8 Mbps is LDCE-2007 (d) CMI (b) 8.448 Mbps (c) 34.368 Mbps (b) 8.448 Mbps (b) 8.448 Mbps (c) 34.368 Mbps (c) 34.368 Mbps (d) 139.264 Mb (d) 139.264 Mb (d) 139.264 8. Third order MUX in PDH hierarchy will have a bit rate of 9. Fourth order MUX in PDH hierarchy will have a bit rate of (c) 15th bit (d) 17th bit LDCE7. Second order MUX in PDH hierarchy will have a bit rate of (b) 206 bits (c) 1536 bits (d) 2048 bits (b) 206 bits (c) 1536 bits (d) 2048 bits 5. No of bits in the Frame length of 140 Mb signal (b) 206 bits (c) 1536 bits (d) 2048 bits LDCE4. No of bits in the Frame length of 34 Mb signal (b) 1.544 Mbps (c) 8.448 Mbps (d) 34 Mb 3. No of bits in the Frame length of 8 Mb signal (b) 1.544 Mbps (c) 8.448 Mbps (d) 34 Mb 2. The bit rate of the primary MUX used in hierarchy of USA
6. In 140 Mbps system, alarm indication for end terminal indicated by
(a) RZ (a) RZ (a) RZ
(b) NRZ (b) NRZ (b) NRZ
(c) HDB3 (c) HDB3 (c) HDB3
(d) CMI (d) CMI (d) CMI
12. the line code used in 34 Mbps is 13. the line code used in 140 Mbps is SDH 1. No. of rows and columns in STM-1 frame are .and . respectively A. 9 and 260 B. 270 and 9 C. 9 and 270 D. 260 and 9 2. Bit rate of STM-16 is 16 times of STM-1 A.more than B.less than C.exactly D.none of these 3. Bit rate of STM-N is N times of STM-1 LDCE-2007 A.more than B.less than C.exactly D.none of these 4. SDH can not accommodate mbps PDH signal A. 2 B. 8 C. 34 D. 140 5. AU pointer bytes are available in .row of STM frame structure A.3rd B.4th C.5th D.6th 6. K-1 & K-2 bytes in STM-1 frame structure are used for A. frame alignment B. order wire C. parity check D. protection 7. which of the following byte in STM-1 frame structure is used for Transmission error acknowledgement LDCE-2007 A. K1 B. B1 C. M1 D. F1 8. First entry point of PDH signal in STM1 frame Multiplexing structure LDCE-2007 A. Virtual Container B. Container C. Tributary unit D. enter directly any of the A, B,C 9. Multiplexer device used in ring topology A. Terminal Multiplexer B. Regenerator C. Add drop Multiplexer 10.The size of a C-4 Container is A.9 Rows x 84 Columns C. 34 bytes B. 9 Rows x 260 coloumns D. None D. None of the above.
11.The synchronization method followed in BSNL is called A. Mutual synchronization method synchronization method C. distribution method A. Container C. Administrative unit D. asynchronous method 12. Container plus Path Over Head (POH) is called B. Virtual Container D. None of the above. B. Master-Slave
13. Virtual Container plus Pointer is called
A. Container C. Administrative unit 14. Bit rate of STM-1 is -----Mbps A.155.52 B.140 C. 34
B. Virtual Container D. None of the above. LDCE-2007 D.622.08 LDCE-2007 C. 8448 Kbps D.
15. The size of a C12 Container is A.2048 Kbps B. 2176 Kbps None DWDM 1) Most popular amplifier used in DWDM
a. CDFA b. DDFA c. EDFA d-FDFA 2) C-Band wave length range in DWDM Systems 2007 a. 1500 - 1650 nm None b.1530 1565 nm c. 1550 1620 nm
LDCEd.
3) Adding and dropping of channels(lamdas) in optical domain is done by_______ ( a) ADM b) TM c) OADM d) Digital cross connector 4) In DWDM systems, input interface rates are a) bit rate as well as format dependent b) bit rate as well as format independent c) only bit rate independent but format dependent d) only bit rate dependent but format independent MLLN 1. The maximum port capacity of the DXC a) 128 a) b) 64 c) 256 c) 5Kms c) 256Mbps d) None ] 2. HDSL driving distance on copper for 2Mbps 3.5Kms b) 7Kms a) 64Mbps a) VMUX a) 4 ------------a) NTU 3. The maximum cross connect port capacity for DXC b) 512Mbps b) DXC b) 8 c) 2 4. In MLLN the large capacity cross connect device is ---c) NTU d) 10 b) 89.5% c) DXC c) 97.5% d) None d) None [ ] [ [ d) None [ ] [ ] d) None ] ] d) None
LDCE-2007
5. The MLLN system on-demand B.W. availability up to --- Mbps. [
6.. The MLLN has to provide high reliability service and proposed to offer SLA for a) 99.5% b) VMUX 7. The Basic Node of the MLLN system is ------
8. How many types of VMUXs supplied ----------a) 2 b) 3 a) Last mile c) 4 d) 6 [ 9. NTUs are usually ------------ equipment.
[ ]
b) First mile c) Middle mile
d) None
10. The MLLN Equipment supplied by -------------a) Motorola b) Tellabs c) Bell Labs d) None 11. Which of the following is not a MLLN network element 2007 a) Digital cross Connect (DXC). b) Versatile Multiplexer (VMUX). c) Network Termination Unit (NTU). d) Analog cross connect ( ACC). DLC 1) ( ) (b) 30 (c) 240 (d) 1000 LTM-8 caters for _____ no of sub
LDCE
lines
(a) 120 2)
The RT equipment of DLC can be installed in a special _______ cabinet ( ) (a) indoor (b) outdoor (c) underground (d) none
3) In DLC based on V5.2, V5.2 interface will be LDCE 2007 a) between COT and RT b) between COT and switch
c) between COT and LTM d) none 4) digital transmission rate between COT LTM-8 to RT LTM-8 a)2 Mbps b) 8 Mbps c) 34 Mbps d) none
5) One RT supports _____no of analogue subscriber terminations LDCE 2007 (a) 480 (b) 30 (c) 240 (d) 120 LDCE 2007 d) 4
6) One DLC supports maximum _ No. of RTs a) 1 b) 2 c) 3
7) By using 140 Mb MUX , DLC can serve ________no of subscribers (a) 2000 (b) 1000 (c) 1920 (d) 480
FTTH ( Fibre To The Home) 1) In FTTX, x indicates a) Termination point b) type of medium c) bandwidth d) wavelength Measurements 1) The splice loss measurement is done with the following meter (a) attenuators (b) spectrum analyzer (c) OTDR 2) OTDR stands for (a) Optical Total Distortion Reading (b) Reflectometer (b) Optical Total Distortion Referen Reflectometer 3) CRC stands for _______ (a) critical repetition clock (c) Cyclic redundancy check (b) critical redundancy check (d) Cyclic repetition check (d) Operational Time Domain Optical Time Domain (d) dB meter ( )
4) For data communication BER should be less than (a) 10-3 (b) 10-5 (c) 10-8 (d) 10-9 5) Jitter in a transmission line is (a) Short-term variations (c) Long-term variations 6) Cross talk in a Network is induced due to (a) Electromagnetic induction (c) Both a &b 7) Methods to reduce cross talk (a) transposition wires (c) increase distance between pairs 8) OTDR is based on the principal of 2007 a) Refraction of light b) Reflection of light (d) all the above LDCE (b) reduce seperation between (b) Electrostatic induction (d) None of the above (b) Disired signal (d) None of the above.
c) Back scattering of light
d) none
9) The attenuation /losses per Km of OF Cable is measured with the following meter (a) attenuators (b) spectrum analyzer (c) OTDR (d) dB meter
10) The best method of measurement of losses per Km is obtained with a) OTDR only c) Source meter and OTDR 11) Optical power is measured withs a) OTDR b) Source meter c) Power meter d) none b) Source meter and power meter d) none
12) The period for which BER exceeds 1 in 10-3 for 10 consecutive seconds is called a) Error seconds LDCE 2007 c) Severely error seconds d) unavailable seconds b) Degraded minutes
13) The period within the available time, if BER exceeds 1 in 10-3 is known as a) Error seconds LDCE 2007 c) Severely error seconds 14) unit of Jitter is a) UI (unit interval) b) dB c) Volts d) radians d) unavailable seconds b) Degraded minutes

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HTML 1. What does HTML stand for?

What is the correct HTML for creating a hyperlink?

HTML KEY 1.B 2.B 3.A

8.A 14.A 20.C

C.Control + Right & Left Arrow keys 9.

For selecting the entire line

A.Click at the left margin C.Trippleclick at the left margin 19.

B.Doubleclick at the left margin D. Rightclick at the left margin

MS Word file is given an extension of A.PPT B.XLS C.MDB D.DOC

An Excel worksheet is having a maximum of columns of A.128 B.256 C.112 D.240

In Excel , a text entry can be upto A.256 B.255 C.32k D.64 k

Control + click is used for

An Excel worksheet is having a maximum of rows of A.65532 B.65536 C.16632 D.1024

MS Excel file is known as A.Worksheet B.Workbook C.Spreadsheet D.Document

MS Excel file is given an extension of A. XLS B.DOCC.MDB D.PPT

18. 19. 20.

23. 24. 25.

28. 29. 30.

14. Flooding of trench.

c) BMS e) TSC: EWSD 1.

3. WHILE PREPARING ELECTROLYTE ,DISTILLED WATER IS ADDED TO THE ACID ( )

5.ON CHARGE COLOUR OF NEGATIVE PLATES IS LIGHT GREY (

6.DURING DISCHARGE LEAD SULPHATE IS FORMED ON BOTH THE PLATES OF A CELL ( ).

12.THE SPECIFIC GRAVITY OF A CELL INCREASES WITH INCREASE IN TEMPERATURE ( ).

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KEY TO AIR-CONDITIONING QUESTION BANK

Multi rack Fine Switch Rectifier Charger Switching cubicle Inverter

( SUBS LINE ADMINISTRATION ) I. Fill in the blanks with suitable words :

Questions on Data communications :

6. In 140 Mbps system, alarm indication for end terminal indicated by

(a) RZ (a) RZ (a) RZ

(b) NRZ (b) NRZ (b) NRZ

(c) HDB3 (c) HDB3 (c) HDB3

(d) CMI (d) CMI (d) CMI

13. Virtual Container plus Pointer is called

5. The MLLN system on-demand B.W. availability up to --- Mbps. [

b) First mile c) Middle mile

6) One DLC supports maximum _ No. of RTs a) 1 b) 2 c) 3

c) Back scattering of light

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