Western Leyte College of Ormoc City.

College of Nursing & Allied Health Sciences

Name: ___________________________________________ Date: __________________ Score: __________________ Multiple Choice: 1. The nurses assesses that the client with cancer is not ready for teaching when the client asks: a. Am I going to loose my hair? c. Will this make me really sick? b. Should I get a second opinion? d. Will I have to stop exercising at the gym? 2. . In evaluating the client with cancer what best indicates that nutritional status is adequate? a. Calorie intake b. Weight is stable c. Amount of nausea and vomiting d. Serum protein levels 3. An adult client with newly diagnosed cancer says, Im really afraid of dying. Whos going to take care of my children? What is the best initial response for the nurse to make? a. What makes you think you are going to die? b. How old are your children? c. This must be a difficult time for you. d. Most people with your kind of cancer live a long time. 4. A client with terminal cancer yells at the nurse and says, I dont need your help. I can bathe myself. Which stage of grief is the client most likely experiencing? a. Projection b. Denial c. Anger d. Depression 5. . Which statement the client makes indicates to the nurse that the client understands external radiation? a. Ill stay away from small children since I am radioactive. b. I wont wash these marks off until after my therapy. c. Ill put lotion on my skin to keep it moist. d. I will double flush the toilet each time I use the bathroom. 6. . When teaching and preparing a client for a bone marrow biopsy, the nurse would a. Check for iodine allergy. b. Position the client in fetal position with back curved. c. Have the client sign the consent form. d. Have the client remain NPO. 7. . An adult client has had a bone marrow aspiration. What should the nurse do immediately following this procedure? a. Apply firm pressure to the site of the aspiration for at least 5 minutes. b. Place a plain adhesive bandage directly over the aspiration site. c. Apply a topical antibiotic on the aspiration site and leave open. d. Apply an ice pack to the aspiration site for at least 10 minutes. 8. The client is diagnosed as having a bowel tumor and several diagnostic tests are prescribed. The nurse understands that which test will confirm the diagnosis of malignancy? a. Biopsy of the tumor b. Abdominal ultrasound c. Magnetic resonance imaging d. Computed tomography scan 9. The client is receiving external radiation to the neck for cancer of the larynx. The most likely side effect to be expected is: a. Dyspnea b. Diarrhea c. Sore throat d. Constipation 10. . The nurse is caring for a client with an internal radiation implant. When caring for the client, the nurse should observe which of the following principles? a. Limit the time with the client to 1 hour per shift. b. Do not allow pregnant women into the client's room. c. Remove the dosimeter badge when entering the client's room. d. Individuals younger than 16 years old may be allowed to go in the room as long as they are 6 feet away from the client. 11. A cervical radiation implant is placed in the client for treatment of cervical cancer. The nurse initiates what most appropriate activity order for this client? a. Bed rest b. Out of bed ad lib c. Out of bed in a chair only d. Ambulation to the bathroom only

12. The client is hospitalized for insertion of an internal cervical radiation implant. While giving care, the nurse finds the radiation implant in the bed. The initial action by the nurse is to: a. Call the physician. b. Reinsert the implant into the vagina immediately. c. Pick up the implant with gloved hands and flush it down the toilet. d. Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place it in a lead container. 13. A male client has an abnormal result on a Papanicolaou test. After admitting, he read his chart while the nurse was out of the room, the client asks what dysplasia means. Which definition should the nurse provide? a. Presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells that dont resemble cells of the tissues of their origin b. Increase in the number of normal cells in a normal arrangement in a tissue or an organ c. Replacement of one type of fully differentiated cell by another in tissues where the second type normally isnt found d. Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells 14. For a female client with newly diagnosed cancer, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Anxiety related to the threat of death secondary to cancer diagnosis. Which expected outcome would be appropriate for this client? a. Client verbalizes feelings of anxiety. b. Client doesnt guess at prognosis. c. Client uses any effective method to reduce tension. d. Client stops seeking information. 15. A female client with cancer is scheduled for radiation therapy. The nurse knows that radiation at any treatment site may cause a certain adverse effect. Therefore, the nurse should prepare the client to expect: a. hair loss. b. stomatitis. c. fatigue. d. vomiting. 16. Nurse April is teaching a client who suspects that she has a lump in her breast. The nurse instructs the client that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by: a. breast self-examination. b. mammography. c. fine needle aspiration. d. chest X-ray. 17. A male client with a nagging cough makes an appointment to see the physician after reading that this symptom is one of the seven warning signs of cancer. What is another warning sign of cancer? a. Persistent nausea b. Rash c. Indigestion d. Chronic ache or pain 18. Nurse Lucia is providing breast cancer education at a community facility. The American Cancer Society recommends that women get mammograms: a. yearly after age 40. b. after the birth of the first child and every 2 years thereafter. c. after the first menstrual period and annually thereafter. d. every 3 years between ages 20 and 40 and annually thereafter. 19. A male client is in isolation after receiving an internal radioactive implant to treat cancer. Two hours later, the nurse discovers the implant in the bed linens. What should the nurse least likely do? a. Stand as far away from the implant as possible and call for help. b. Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place it in a lead-lined container. c. Leave the room and notify the radiation therapy department immediately. d. Put the implant back in place, using forceps and a shield for self-protection, and call for help. 20. A female client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. Which of the following is one of the most common metastasis sites for cancer cells? a. Liver b. Colon c. Reproductive tract d. White blood cells (WBCs) 21. A 34-year-old female client is requesting information about mammograms and breast cancer. She isnt considered at high risk for breast cancer. What should the nurse tell this client? a. She should have had a baseline mammogram before age 30. b. She should eat a low-fat diet to further decrease her risk of breast cancer. c. She should perform breast self-examination during the first 5 days of each menstrual cycle. d. When she begins having yearly mammograms, breast self-examinations will no longer be necessary. 22. The nurse is preparing for a female client for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to confirm or rule out a spinal cord lesion. During the MRI scan, which of the following would pose a threat to the client? a. The client lies still. b. The client asks questions. c. The client hears thumping sounds. d. The client wears a watch and wedding band.

23. Which set of classification values indicates the most extensive and progressed cancer? a. T1 N0 M0 b. Tis N0 M0 c. T1 N1 M0 d. T4 N3 M1 24. The disease progress of cancers, such as cervical or Hodgkins, can be classified according to a clinical staging system. Place the description of stages 0-IV in the correct order. a. Metastasis b. Limited local spread c. Cancer in situ d. Tumor limited to tissue of origin e. Extensive local and regional spread _____, _____, _____, _____, _____ 25. For a patient who is experiencing side effects of radiation therapy, which nursing action would be the most appropriate? a. Assist the patient to identify patterns of fatigue. b. Recommend participation in a walking program. c. Report the amount and type of food consumed from the tray. d. Check the skin for redness and irritation after the treatment.

Western Leyte College of Ormoc City, Inc. Ormoc City

Name: ____________________________________ _____ Date: _______________Score: ______________ Multiple Choice: Place the correct letter of your choice before each number. 1. Stephanie delegates effectively if she has authority to act, which is BEST defined as: A. having responsibility to direct others B. being accountable to the organization C. having legitimate right to act D. telling others what to do 2. Regardless of the size of a work group, enough staff must be available at all times to accomplish certain purposes. Which of these purposes in NOT included? A. Meet the needs of patients B. Provide a pair of hands to other units as needed C. Cover all time periods adequately. D. Allow for growth and development of nursing staff. 3. Katherine is a young Unit Manager of the Pediatric Ward. Most of her staff nurses are senior to her, very articulate, confident and sometimes aggressive. Katherine feels uncomfortable believing that she is the scapegoat of everything that goes wrong in her department. Which of the following is the best action that she must take? A. Identify the source of the conflict and understand the points of friction B. Disregard what she feels and continue to work independently C. Seek help from the Director of Nursing D. Quit her job and look for another employment. 4. As a young manager, she knows that conflict occurs in any organization. Which of the following statements regarding conflict is NOT true? A. Can be destructive if the level is too high B. Is not beneficial; hence it should be prevented at all times C. May result in poor performance D. May create leaders 5. Katherine tells one of the staff, I dont have time to discuss the matter with you now. See me in my office later when the latter asks if they can talk about an issue. Which of the following conflict resolution strategies did she use? A. Smoothing B. Compromise C. Avoidance D. Restriction 6. Kathleen knows that one of her staff is experiencing burnout. Which of the following is the best thing for her to do? A. Advise her staff to go on vacation. B. Ignore her observations; it will be resolved even without intervention C. Remind her to show loyalty to the institution. D. Let the staff ventilate her feelings and ask how she can be of help. 7. She knows that performance appraisal consists of all the following activities EXCEPT: A. Setting specific standards and activities for individual performance. B. Using agency standards as a guide. C. Determine areas of strength and weaknesses D. Focusing activity on the correction of identified behavior. 8. Which of the following statements is NOT true about performance appraisal? A. Informing the staff about the specific impressions of their work help improve their performance. B. A verbal appraisal is an acceptable substitute for a written report C. Patients are the best source of information regarding personnel appraisal. D. The outcome of performance appraisal rests primarily with the staff. 9. There are times when Katherine evaluates her staff as she makes her daily rounds. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of conducting an informal appraisal? A. The staff member is observed in natural setting. B. Incidental confrontation and collaboration is allowed. C. The evaluation is focused on objective data systematically. D. The evaluation may provide valid information for compilation of a formal report. 10. She conducts a 6-month performance review session with a staff member. Which of the following actions is appropriate? A. She asks another nurse to attest the session as a witness.

B. She informs the staff that she may ask another nurse to read the appraisal before the session is over. C. She tells the staff that the session is manager centered. D. The session is private between the two members. 11. She checks the documentary requirements for the applicants for staff nurse position. Which one is NOT necessary? A. Certificate of previous employment B. Record of related learning experience (RLE) C. Membership to accredited professional organization D. Professional identification card 12. St. Raphael Medical Center just opened its new Performance Improvement Department. Ms. Valencia is appointed as the Quality Control Officer. She commits herself to her new role and plans her strategies to realize the goals and objectives of the department. Which of the following is a primary task that they should perform to have an effective control system? A. Make an interpretation about strengths and weaknesses B. Identify the values of the department C. Identify structure, process, outcome standards & criteria D. Measure actual performances 13. Ms. Valencia develops the standards to be followed. Among the following standards, which is considered as a structure standard? A. The patients verbalized satisfaction of the nursing care received B. Rotation of duty will be done every four weeks for all patient care personnel. C. All patients shall have their weights taken recorded D. Patients shall answer the evaluation form before discharge 14. The following are basic steps in the controlling process of the department. Which of the following is NOT included? A. Measure actual performance B. Set nursing standards and criteria C. Compare results of performance to standards and objectives D. Identify possible courses of action 15. She wants to ensure that every task is carried out as planned. Which of the following tasks is NOT included in the controlling process? A. Instructing the members of the standards committee to prepare policies B. Reviewing the existing policies of the hospital C. Evaluating the credentials of all nursing staff D. Checking if activities conform to schedule 16. She notes that there is an increasing unrest of the staff due to fatigue brought about by shortage of staff. Which action is a priority? A. Evaluate the overall result of the unrest B. Initiate a group interaction C. Develop a plan and implement it D. Identify external and internal forces. 17. Her former manager demonstrated passion for serving her staff rather than being served. She takes time to listen, prefers to be a teacher first before being a leader, which is characteristic of A. Transformational leader B. Transactional leader C. Servant leader D. Charismatic leader 18. On the other hand, Ms. Castro notices that the Chief Nurse Executive has charismatic leadership style. Which of the following behaviors best describes this style? A. Possesses inspirational quality that makes followers gets attracted of him and regards him with reverence B. Acts as he does because he expects that his behavior will yield positive results C. Uses visioning as the core of his leadership D. Matches his leadership style to the situation at hand. 19. Which of the following conclusions of Ms. Castro about leadership characteristics is TRUE? A. There is a high correlation between the communication skills of a leader and the ability to get the job done. B. A manager is effective when he has the ability to plan well. C. Assessment of personal traits is a reliable tool for predicting a managers potential. D. There is good evidence that certain personal qualities favor success in managerial role. 20. She reads about Path Goal theory. Which of the following behaviors is manifested by the leader who uses this theory? A. Recognizes staff for going beyond expectations by giving them citations B. Challenges the staff to take individual accountability for their own practice

C. Admonishes staff for being laggards. D. Reminds staff about the sanctions for non performance.

21. One leadership theory states that leaders are born and not made, which refers to which of the following theories? A. Trait B. Charismatic C. Great Man D. Situational 22. She came across a theory which states that the leadership style is effective dependent on the situation. Which of the following styles best fits a situation when the followers are self-directed, experts and are matured individuals? A. Democratic B. Authoritarian C. Laissez faire D. Bureaucratic 23. Ms. Castro learns that some leaders are transactional leaders. Which of the following does NOT characterize a transactional leader? A. Focuses on management tasks B. Is a caretaker C. Uses trade-offs to meet goals D. Inspires others with vision 24. A theory predicts the most appropriate leadership style from the level of maturity of the followers. Which of the following is true? A. Trait theory B. Contingency theory C. Situational theory D. Path-goal theory 25. Style of leadership that has a strong control over the group or directive approach and concern with task accomplishments. A. Authoritarian B. Democratic C. Laissez-faire D. Permissive

WESTERN LEYTE COLLEGE OF ORMOC CITY College of Nursing and Allied health Sciences Name: _____________________________Date: ____________________Score:__________ Identification: Identify the following and place your correct answer in the space provided below 1. Conducted to develop, test and refine theories and generate new knowledge. 2. A research which is expected to confer on the study subject an opportunity to receive a treatment that might be beneficial. 3. A systematic inquiry, which is reported in a form that allows the research methods and outcomes to be accessible to others. 4. A basic principle of ethics which states that person should have their decisions respected, be protected from harm, and have steps taken to ensure their well-being 5. A basic principle of ethics that incorporates a participants right to fair treatment and fairness in distribution of benefits 6. Refers to methods focused on contrasting and combining results from different studies, in the hope of identifying patterns among study results, sources of disagreement among those results, or other interesting relationships that may come to light in the context of multiple studies 7. A method of social research in which there are two kinds of variables. The independent variable is manipulated by the experimenter, and the dependent variable is measured. 8. an approach to structuring knowledge that utilizes methods of inquiry that emphasize subjectivity and the meaning of the experience to the individual. 9. An approach to generating knowledge that uses quantitative research methods to understand the incidence, distribution, and control health problems within a population. 10. A study of groups of people who share some common characteristics are followed over the course of time. 11. Form a class of research methods that involve observation of all of a population, or a representative subset, at one specific point in time 12. Involves the experimental group and the control which are carefully selected through randomization procedures 13. It involves an exchange of two or more treatments taken by the subjects during the experiment 14. Design used to determine the relationship of two dependent variables (X and Y) on how they are manipulated by the independent variable 15. Compares a group of people with a diagnosed disease with one or more groups that have not been given the same diagnosis. Answer: 1. _____________________________________ 2. _____________________________________ 3. _____________________________________ 4. _____________________________________ 5. _____________________________________ 6. _____________________________________ 7. _____________________________________ 8. _____________________________________ Multiple choice: Encircle the letter of your correct answer 1. Raphael is interested to learn more about transcultural nursing because he is assigned at the family suites where most patients come from different cultures and countries. Which of the following designs is appropriate for this study? A. Grounded theory C. Case study B. Ethnography D. Phenomenology 2. Which of the following ethical principles was NOT articulated? 9. _____________________________________ 10. ____________________________________ 11. ____________________________________ 12. ____________________________________ 13. ____________________________________ 14. ____________________________________ 15. ____________________________________

A. Beneficence B. Respect for human dignity

C. Justice D. Non-maleficence

3. Which of the following measures will best prevent manipulation of vulnerable groups? A. Secure informed consent B. Payment of stipends for subjects C. Protect privacy of patient D. Ensure confidentiality of data 4. This study relates to a particular type of experiment or other study in which one has little or no control over the allocation of the treatments or other factors being studied. A. True Experiment C. Quazi- experiment B. Meta-analysis D. Panel/cohort 5. Which of the following experimental research designs would be appropriate for this study if she wants to find out a cause and effect relationship between the structured discharge plan and compliance to home care regimen among the subjects? A. True experiment B. Quasi experiment C. Post-test only design D. Solomon four-group 6. You would like to compare the support system of patients with chronic illness to those with acute illness. Considering that the hypothesis was: Clients with chronic illness have lesser support system than clients with acute illness. What type of research is this? a. Descriptive b. Correlational, non experimental c. Experimental d. Quasi experimental 7. Which of the following studies is based on quantitative research? a. A study examining the bereavement process in spouses of clients with terminal cancer b. A study exploring factors influencing weight control behavior. c. A study measuring the effects of sleep deprivation on wound healing d. A study examining clients feeling before, during and after a bone marrow aspiration 8. Which of the following studies is based on qualitative research? a. A study examining clients reactions to stress after open heart surgery b. A study measuring nutrition and weight loss/gain in clients with cancer c. A study examining oxygen levels after endotracheal suctioning d. A study measuring differences in blood pressure before, during and after a procedure 9. Researcher wants to determine the level of effectiveness of the preoperative health teaching in minimizing the postoperative discomforts between the male & female experimental groups (those with preoperative health teaching) and the male & female control group male & female(those without preoperative health teaching). What type of experimental research design? a. Parallel group design c. Two pair group design b. Two group design d. Latin square design 10. A researcher wishes to determine the effectiveness of the four methods of teaching NCM 106 by four instructors to four groups of students. Each instructor is required to use each methods of instruction. a. Parallel group design c. Two pair group design b. Two group design d. Latin square design

WESTERN LEYTE COLLEGE OF ORMOC CITY College of Nursing & Allied Health Sciences Name: ________________________________________ Date: ________________ Score: _____________________ Multiple Choice: Encircle the correct letter of your choice. 1. The underlying pathophysiology of COPD is: a. Inflamed airways that obstruct airways b. Mucus secretions that block airways c. Overinflated alveoli that impair gas exchange d. Characterized by variations of all the above 2. The abnormal inflammatory response in the lungs occurs primarily in: a. The airways c. the pulmonary vasculature b. The parenchyma d. All of the above 3. Two diseases common to the etiology of COPD are: a. Asthma and atelectasis c. Pneumonia and pleurisy b. Chronic bronchitis and emphysema d. Tuberculosis and pleural effusions 4. For a patient with chronic bronchitis, the nurse expects to see the major clinical symptoms of: a. Chest pain during respirations c. fever, chills and diaphoresis b. Sputum and a productive cough d. Tachypnea and tachycardia 5. The major cause of emphysema is: a. Air pollution b. Allergens c. infectious agents d. Smoking

6. The pathophysiology of emphysema is directly related to airway obstruction. The end result of deterioration is: a. Diminished alveolar surface area b. Hypercapnia resulting from decreased carbon dioxide elimination c. Hypoxemia secondary to impaired oxygen diffusion d. Respiratory acidosis due to airway obstruction 7. The primary presenting symptom of emphysema is: a. Chronic cough c. Tachypnea b. Dyspnea d. Wheezing 8. Bronchodilators are prescribed in emphysema primarily because they: a. Improve gas exchange c. improve airflow b. Interfere with mucosal edema d. Reverse bronchospasm 9. Nursing assessment of a patient with bronchospasm associated with COPD would include assessment for: a. Compromised gas exchange c. Wheezes b. Decreased airflow d. All of the above 10. The nurse should be alert for a complication of bronchiectasis that results from a combination of retained secretions and obstruction. The complication is known as: a. Atelectasis c. Pleurisy b. Emphysema d. Pneumonia 11. Which of the following treatment is a suitable surgical intervention for a client with unstable angina? a. Cardiac catheterization b. Echocardiogram c. Nitroglycerin

d. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) 12. A client with hypertension asks the nurse which factors can cause blood pressure to drop to normal levels? a. Kidneys excretion to sodium only. b. Kidneys retention of sodium and water c. Kidneys excretion of sodium and water d. Kidneys retention of sodium and excretion of water 13. Nurse Rose is aware that the statement that best explains why furosemide (Lasix) is administered to treat hypertension is: a. It dilates peripheral blood vessels. b. It decreases sympathetic cardioacceleration. c. It inhibits the angiotensin-coverting enzymes d. It inhibits reabsorption of sodium and water in the loop of Henle. 14. Prehypertension, a precursor to hypertension can be diagnosed when the diastolic reading is: a. Between 60 and 70 mmHg c. At 80 mmHg b. At 75 mmHg d. Between 85 and 90 mmHg c. 15. A characteristic symptom of damage to the vital organs as a result of hypertension is: a. Angina c. Epistaxis b. Dyspnea d. All of the above 16. One of the most significant concerns for medical and nursing management of hypertension is: a. Complications from medication c. Noncompliance with recommended therapy b. Insufficient information d. Uncontrolled dietary management 17. Incomplete closure of the tricuspid valve results in a backward flow of blood from the: a. Aorta to the left ventricle c. Right atrium to the right ventricle b. Left atrium to the left ventricle d. Right ventricle to the right atrium 18. Backward flow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium is through the: a. Aortic valve c. Pulmonic valve b. Mitral valve d.Tricuspid valve 19. What are the clinical manifestations of Hypertension? a. The ischemic changes of lower extremities causes pain and necrosis b. Central Abdominal obesity c. Headache, dizziness, angina, blurred vision and epistaxis d. Headache, dizziness and cough 20. 40 year old man works a very stressful job and has to meet the deadline on a regular basis. He smokes one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 10 years. He is 10 pounds (4.5 kg) overweight. He drinks 3 cups of coffee daily. There is family history of hypertension: father, uncle, grandfather. His blood pressure is 120/80. Which of the following will reduce his risk for hypertension over the next 5 years? a. Increased intake of dietary fiber b. Restrict caffeine c. Stress management d. Weight loss