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Pre-requisite : Before going through this chapter, you
should be thorough with the basic concepts of the
chapter explained in X NCERT.
CONSERVATION OF ELECTRIC CHARGE
Whenever two bodies are charged by rubbing, one gets
positively charged and the other gets negatively
charged. The net charge on the two bodies, however,
remains zerothe same as that before rubbing. In other
words, charge is conserved. It can neither be created
nor be destroyed. The only thing that happens on
rubbing is that charged particles (electrons) get
transferred from one body to the other.
In some phenomena, charged particles are created.
But even then the conservation of charge holds. For
example, a free neutron converts itself into an electron
and the proton taken together is also zero. So, there is
no change in the conversion of a neutron to an electron
and a proton.
COULOMBS LAW
Charles Augustine de Coulomb studied the interaction
forces of charged particles in detail in 1784. He used a
torsion balance. On the basis of his experiments he
established Coulombs law. According to this law the
magnitude of the electric force between two point
charges is directly proportional to the product of the
magni tude of the two charges and i nversel y
proportional to the square of the distance between
them and acts along the straight line joining the two
charges.
In mathematical terms, the force that each of the two
point charges q
1
and q
2
at a distance r apart exerts on
the other can be expressed as
F =
2
2 1
r
q q
k
This force is repulsive for like charges and attractive
for unlike charges.
Where k is a constant of proportionality. k =
0
4
1
tc
,
here
0
is absolute permittivity of free space.
The force is directed along the line joining the centres
of the two charged particles.
For any other medium except air, free space or vacuum
coulombs law reduces to
F =
1 2
2
q q 1
4
r
tc
c = Permittivity of the medium
and c = c
0
c
r
c
r
= relative Permittivity or dielectric constant of the me-
dium.
Coulombs law is based on physical observation and
it is not logically derived from any other concept.
ILLUSTRATIONS
1. Find out the electrostatics force between two point
charges placed in air (each of +1 C) if they are
separated by 1m .
Sol. F
e
=
2
2 1
r
q kq
=
2
9
1
1 1 10 9
= 910
9
N
Note : From the above result we can say that 1 C
charge is too large to realize. In nature, charge is
usually of the order of C
2. A particle of mass m carrying charge q
1
is revolving
around a fixed charge q
2
in a circular path of radius
r. Calculate the period of revolution and its speed
also.
Sol.
0
4
1
tc
2
2 1
r
q q
= mre
2
=
2
2
T
mr 4t
'
T
2
=
2 1
2 2
0
q q
) mr 4 ( r ) 4 ( t tc
or T = 4tr
2 1
0
q q
mr tc
and also we can say that
2
0
2 1
r 4
q q
tc
=
r
mv
2
V =
mr 4
q q
0
2 1
tc
PROPERTIES OF ELECTRIC FIELD INTENSITY
(i) It is a vector quantity. Its direction is the same
as the force experienced by positive charge.
(ii) Electric field due to positive charge is always
away from it while due to negative charge always
towards it.
(iii) Its S.I. unit is Newton/Coulomb.
(iv) Electric force on a charge q placed in a region
of electric field at a point where the electric field
intensity is E

is given by E q F

= .
Electric force on point charge is in the same
direction of electric field on positive charge
and in opposite direction on a negative charge.
ELECTRICITY
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PAGE # 2
(v) It obeys the superposition principle, that is, the
field intensity at a point due to a system of charges is
vector sum of the field intensities due to individual
point charges.
3 2 1
E E E E

+ + =
+ .....
(vi) It is produced by source charges. The electric
field will be a fixed value at a point unless we change
the distribution of source charges.
3. Five point charges, each of value q are placed on five
vertices of a regular hexagon of side L. What is the
magnitude of the force on a point charge of value

q
coulomb placed at the centre of the hexagon?
q
q
C
q
q
D E
O
-q
q
B
A
F
L
Sol. If there had been a sixth charge +q at the remaining
vertex of hexagon force due to all the six charges on
q at O would be zero (as the forces due to individual
charges will balance each other), i.e.,
0 F
R
=
Now if f

is the force due to sixth charge and F

due to
remaining five charges.
F

+ f

= 0 i.e. F

= f

or, |F| = |f| =


0
4
1
tc
2
L
q q
=
2
2
0
L
q
4
1
tc
Net
F

=
CO
F

=
2
2
L
q
4
1
0
c t
along CO
4. Calculate the electric field intensity which would be
just sufficient to balance the weight of a particle of
charge 10 c and mass 10 mg.
Sol. As force on a charge q in an electric field E

is
F

q
= qE

So according to given problem


q
E
W
A
F
e
| W | | F |
q

= i.e., |q|E = mg
i.e., E =
| q |
mg
= 10 N/C., in downward direction.
ELECTROSTATIC EQUILIBRIUM
The position where the resultant force on a charged
particle becomes zero is called equilibrium position.
(a) Stable Equilibrium :
A charge is initially in equilibrium position and is
displaced by a small distance. If the charge tries to
return back to the same equilibrium position then this
equilibrium is called position of stable equilibrium.
(b) Unstable Equilibrium :
If charge is displaced by a small distance from its
equilibrium position and the charge has no tendency
to return to the same equilibrium position. Instead it
goes away from the equilibrium position.
(c) Neutral Equilibrium :
If charge is displaced by a small distance and it is still
in equilibrium condition then it is called neutral
equilibrium.
5. Two equal positive point charges 'Q' are fixed at points
B(a, 0) and A(a, 0). Another test charge q
0
is also
placed at O(0, 0). Show that the equilibrium at 'O' is
(i) stable for displacement along X-axis.
(ii) unstable for displacement along Y-axis.
Sol. (i)
Initially
AO
F

+
BO
F

= 0 | F |
AO

= | F |
BO

=
2
0
a
KQq
When charge is slightly shifted towards + x axis by a
small distance Ax, then.
| F |
AO

< | F |
BO

3
PAGE # 3
Therefore the particle will move towards origin (its
original position) hence the equilibrium is stable.
(ii) When charge is shifted along y axis
After resolving components net force will be along y
axis so the particle will not return to its original
position so it is unstable equilibrium. Finally the
charge will move to infinity.
ELECTRIC LINES OF FORCE (ELOF)
The line of force in an electric field is an imaginary
l ine, the tangent to whi ch at any poi nt on i t
represents the direction of electric field at the given
point.
(a) Properties :
(i) Line of force originates out from a positive
charge and terminates on a negative charge. If
there is only one positive charge then lines start
from positive charge and terminate at . If there
is only one negative charge then lines start from
and terminates at negative charge.
(ii) The electric intensity at a point is the number
of lines of force streaming through per unit area
normal to the direction of the intensity at that point.
The intensity will be more where the density of
lines is more.
(iii) Number of lines originating (terminating) from
(on) is directly proportional to the magnitude of
the charge.
(iv) ELOF of resultant electric field can never intersect
with each other.
(v) El ectric li nes of force produced by stati c
charges do not form close loop.
(vi ) El ect r i c l i nes of f orce end or st art
perpendicularly on the surface of a conductor.
(vii) El ectri c l i nes of force never enter i nto
conductors.
6. If number of electric lines of force from charge q
are 10 then find out number of electric lines of
force from 2q charge.
Sol. No. of ELOF charge
10 q
20 2q
So number of ELOF will be 20.
7. A charge + Q is fixed at a distance of d in front of
an infinite metal plate. Draw the lines of force
indicating the directions clearly.
4
PAGE # 4
Sol. There will be induced charge on two surfaces of
conducting plate, so ELOF will start from +Q charge
and terminate at conductor and then will again start
from other surface of conductor.
ELECTRIC FLUX
Consider some surface in an electric field
E

. Let us
select a small area element
dS
on this surface.
The electric flux of the field over the
area element is given by d|
E
=

ds . E
Direction of
dS
is normal to the surface. It is along
n

or d|
E
= EdS cos u
or d|
E
= (E cos u) dS
dS E
or d|
E
= E
n
dS
where E
n
is the component of electric field in the
direction of
dS
.
If the electric field is uniform over that area then
|
E
= S E

(a) Physical Meaning :


The electric flux through a surface inside an electric
field represents the total number of electric lines of
force crossing the surface in a direction normal the
surface. It is a property of electric field
(b) Unit :
(i) The SI unit of electric flux is Nm
2
C
1
(gauss) or J
m
2
C
1
.
(ii) Electric flux is a scalar quantity. (It can be positive,
negative or zero)
8. The electric field in a region is given by,
j E
5
4
i E
5
3
E
0 0

+ =
with E
0
= 2.0 10
3
N/C. Find the
flux of this field through a rectangular surface of area
0.2m
2
parallel to the YZ plane.
Sol. |
E
= S E

=
|
.
|

\
|
+ j E
5
4
i E
5
3
0 0

. ( ) i

2 . 0 =
C
m N
240
2

ELECTRIC POTENTIAL ENERGY


Consider a charge Q placed at a point P as shown in
figure. If another charge q of the same sign is now
brought from a very far away distance (infinity) to point
O near P, then charge q will experience a force of
repulsion due to charge Q. If charge q is still pushed
towards P, work is done. This work done is the potential
energy of the system of these two charges.
Q
P
q
O
r
q
From infinity
Thus, the electric potential energy of a system of
charges is defined as the amount of work done in
bringing the various charges from infinite separation
to thei r present positi ons to form the required
system. It is denoted by U. For the system of two
charges separated by distance r as shown in figure,
the electric potential energy is given by :
U =
r
kQq
Electric potential energy is the from of energy, therefore
it is measured in joule (J).
SUPER CONDUCTOR AND ITS APPLICATIONS
Prof. K. Onnes in 1911 discovered that certain metals
and al l oys at very l ow temperature l ose thei r
resistance considerably. This phenomenon is known
as super-conductivity. As the temperature decreases,
the resistance of the material also decreases, but when
the temperature reaches a certain critical value (called
critical temperature or transition temperature), the
resi stance of the materi al compl etel y
disappears i.e. it becomes zero. Then the material
behaves as if it is a super-conductor and there will be
flow of electrons without any resistance whatsoever.
The critical temperature is different for different material.
It has been found that mercury at critical temperature
4.2 K, lead at 7.25 K and niobium at critical temperature
9.2 K become super-conductor.
Applications of super conductors :
(i) Super conductors are used for making very strong
electromagnets.
(ii) Super conductivity is playing an important role in
material science research and high energy particle
physics.
(iii) Super conductivity is used to produce very high
speed computers.
(iv) Super conductors are used for the transmission of
electric power.
5
PAGE # 5
CELL
It converts chemical energy into electrical energy.
Electrochemical cells are of three types :
(a) Primary cell (b) Secondary cell
(c) Fuel cell
(a) Primary Cell :
It is an electrochemical cell, which cannot be recharged,
but the chemicals have to be replaced after a long use.
The reactions taking place in the cell are irreversible.
Eg. : Daniel cell, Lechlanche cell, Dry cell etc.
(b) Secondary Cell :
Electrical energy can be converted into chemical energy
and chemical energy can be converted into electrical
energy in these cells, i.e. secondary cells can be
recharged after use. Chemical reaction taking place in
these cells are reversible.
Example : Lead accumulator, Edison cell (alkali cell)
and iron nickel cell.
(c) Electro Motive Force of a Cell (E.M.F.) :
It is the maximum potential difference between the two
electrodes of the cell when no current is drawn from
the cell or cell is in the open circuit.
(d) Potential Difference of a Cell :
It is the difference of potential between two terminals
of the cell when current is drawn from it or the cell is in
closed circuit.
(e) Internal Resistance of a Cell :
It is the resistance offered to the flow of current inside
the cell i.e. internal resistance is the resistance offered
to the flow of current by electrolyte. Internal resistance
decreases with the increase of the area of plates and
also with the decrease of the distance between plates.
Determination of internal resistance of a cell :
Connect a voltmeter to a cell through key K
1
. Also
connect a resistor R to cell through K
2
. First put in key
K
1
. The reading shown by voltmeter gives us the e.m.f.
of the cell since negligible current flows through cell
due to high resistance of the voltmeter. Insert key K
2
also so that current flows through resistor R. If r is the
internal resistance of the cell and V is the reading
shown by voltmeter, then
I =
r R
E
+
E = I (R + r)
E = IR + Ir
Here, IR = V the potential difference
So, E = V + Ir
r =
I
V E
.........(i)
V = IR or I =
R
V
So for equation (i)
r =
V
V)R (E
........(ii)
GROUPING OF CELLS
(a) Cells in Series :
B
E ,r
1 1
E ,r
2 2
E ,r
3 3
E r
n n
A B
E ,r
eq eq
Equivalent EMF
E
eq
= E
1
+ E
2
+ ......... + E
n
(write EMFs with polarity)
Equivalent internal resistance r
eq
= r
1
+ r
2
+ r
3
+ r
4
+ ........ r
n
If n cells each of emf E, are arranged in series and if r is
internal resistance of each cell, then total emf = nE
R
E,r E,r E,r E,r
I
Upto n
A B
So current in the circuit, I =
nr R
nE
+
There may by two cases :
(i) If nr << R, then I =
R
nE
= n current due to one cell.
So, series combination is advantageous.
(ii) If nr >> R, then I =
r
E
= current due to one cell.
So, Series combination is not advantageous.
Note : If polarity of m cells is reversed, then equivalent
e.m.f. = (n2m) E while the equivalent resistance is
still nr + R, so current in R will be
i =
R nr
E ) m 2 n (
+

6
PAGE # 6
(b) Cells in Parallel :
If m cells each of emf E and internal resistance r be
connected in parallel and if this combination is
connected to an external resistance then the emf of
the circuit is E.
Internal resistance of the circuit =
m
r
.
and I =
r mR
mE
m
r
R
E
+
=
+
There may by two cases :
(i) If mR << r, then I =
r
mE
= m current due to one cell.
So, Parallel combination is advantageous.
(ii) If mR >> r, then I =
R
E
= current due to one cell.
So, parallel combination is not advantageous.
If emf and internal resistances of each cell are different,
then,
E
eq
=
n 2 1
n n 2 2 1 1
r 1 r 1 r 1
r E r E r E
/ ..... / /
/ ..... / /
+ +
+ +
for two cells E =
2 1
1 2 2 1
r r
r E r E
+
+
(Use emf with polarity)
E
1
E
2
E
3
E
n
r
2
r
3
r
n
r
1
(c) Cells in Multiple Arc :
n = number of rows
m = number of cells in each row.
mn = N (total number of identical cells) :
The combination of cells is equivalent to single cell of
emf = mE and internal resistance =
n
mr
Current I =
n
mr
R
mE
+
For maximum current, nR = mr
or R =
n
mr
= internal resistance of the equivalent
battery.
I
max
=
R 2
mE
r 2
nE
= .
using mn = N in above equation we get number of
rows n =
R
Nr
9. 9 cells, each having the same emf and 3 ohm internal
resistance, are used to draw maximum current through
an external resistance of 3 ohm. find the combination
of cells.
Sol. For the condition of maximum current number of rows
n =
R
Nr
so n =
3
3 9
= 3
so combination will be like 3 rows and 3 cells in each
row.
BATTERY
Battery is an arrangement that creates a constant
potential difference between its terminals. It is a
combination of a number of cells in series.
The impact of battery :
With the discovery of voltaic cell, it was soon realised
that if one constructs a number of cells and joins the
negative terminal of one with the positive terminal of
the other and so on, then the emf (which is the potential
difference between the electrodes in an open circuit)
of the combination of cells will be the sum of the emfs
of the individual cells. This observation led to a burst of
scientific activity in 1802. Humphrey Davy, an English
chemist, made a battery of 60 pairs of zinc and copper
plates. The large emf thus produced, was used to get
high current, which could melt iron and platinum wires.
By 1807, he had a battery of almost 300 plates with
which he was able to decompose chemical salts. This
led to the discovery of new elements.
7
PAGE # 7
By 1808, Davy had assembled 2,000 pairs of plates.
With thi s battery, he created electri c arcs and
succeeded in extracting the elements like barium,
calcium and magnesium from their compounds. Thus,
electricity took a front seat in exploring the nature of
matter.
ELECTRICAL RESISTANCE
The property of a substance by virtue of which it
opposes the flow of electric current through it is
termed as electrical resistance. Electrical resistance
depends on the size, geometry, temperature and
internal structure of the conductor.
We known that, v
d
=
t
m
eE
=

m
eVt
I = Anev
d
= Ane
m
eVt
I =
m
V Ane
2
t
t
=
2
Ane
m
I
V
R =
t
=
2
Ane
m
I
V
R =
t
2
Ane
m
R =
A

=

RA
=
t
2
ne
m
is called resistivity (it is also called specific
resi stance), and =
t
2
ne
m
=
o
1
, o i s cal l ed
conductivity. Therefore current in conductors is
proportional to potential difference applied across
its ends. This is Ohm's Law. Units:
1 1
m

O o
also called siemens m
1
.
10. If a copper wire is stretched to make its radius
decrease by 0.15%, Find the percentage increase
in resistance (approximately).
Sol. Due to stretching resistance changes are in the ratio
4
2
1
1
2
r
r
R
R
|
|
.
|

\
|
=
or
4
r R

or
r
r
4
R
R A
=
A
% 15 . 0 4 = = 0.60%
EFFECT OF STRETCHING OF A WIRE ON RESISTANCE
In stretching, the density of wire usually does not
change. Therefore
Volume before stretching = Volume after stretching
2 2 1 1
A A =
and
2
1
1
2
1
2
A
A
R
R
=

If information of lengths before and after stretching


is given, then use
1
2
2
1
A
A

=
2
1
2
1
2
R
R
|
|
.
|

\
|
=

If information of radius r
1
and r
2
is given then use
2
1
1
2
A
A
=

2
2
1
1
2
A
A
R
R
|
|
.
|

\
|
=

4
2
1
r
r
|
|
.
|

\
|
=
CONDUCTIVITY :
(a) Reciprocal of resistivity of a conductor is called
its conductivity. It is generally represented by o .
(b)

= o
1
(c) Unit :
1 1
metre . ohm

EFFECT OF TEMPERATURE ON RESISTANCE
AND RESISTIVITY
The resistance of a conductor depends upon the
temperature. As the temperature increases, the
random motion of free electrons also increases. If
the number densi ty of charge carrier electrons
remains constant as in the case of a conductor, then
the i ncrease of random moti on i ncreases the
resistivity. The variation of resistance with temperature
is given by the following relation
( )
2
0 t
t t 1 R R | + o + =
8
PAGE # 8
where R
t
and R
0
are the resistance at t
0
C and 0
0
C
respectively and o and | are constants. The
constant | is very small so its may be assumed
negligible.

( ) t 1 R R
0 t
o + =
or
t R
R R
0
0 t

= o
This constant o is called as temperature coefficient
of resistance of the substance.
If R
0
= 1 ohm, t = 1
0
C, then
( )
0 t
R R = o
Thus, the temperature coefficient of resistance is
equal to the increase in resistance of a conductor
havi ng a resi stance of one ohm on rai si ng i ts
temperature by 1
0
C. The temperature coefficient of
resistance may be positive or negative.
From calculations it is found that for most of the
metals the value of o is nearly
C /
273
1
0
. Hence
substituting o in the above equation
|
.
|

\
|
+ =
273
t
1 R R
0 t

273
T
R
273
t 273
R
0 0
= |
.
|

\
| +
=
where T is the absolute temperature of the conductor.
T R
t

Thus, the resistance of a pure metallic wire is directly
proportional to its absolute temperature.
The graph drawn between the resistance R
t
and
temperature t is found to be a straight line
R
t
tC
R
0
The resistivity or specific resistance varies with
temperature. This variation is due to change in
resistance of a conductor with temperature. The
dependence of the resistivity with temperature is
represented by the following equation.
( ) t 1
0 t
o + =
With the rise of temperature the specific resistance
or resistivity of pure metals increases and that of
semi-conductors and insulators decrease.
The resistivity of alloys increases with the rise of
temperature but less than that of metals.
On applying pressure on pure metals, its resistivity
decreases but on applying tension, the resistivity
increases.
The resistance of alloys such as eureka, manganin
etc., increases in smaller amount with the rise in
temperature. Thei r temperature coeffi ci ent of
resistance is negligible. On account of their high
resistivity and negligible temperature coefficient of
resistance these alloys are used to make wires for
resistance boxes, potentiometer, meter bridge etc.,
The resi stance of semi conductors, i nsul ators,
el ectrol ytes etc., decreases wi th the ri se i n
temperature. Thei r temperature coeffi ci ents of
resistance are negative.
On increasing the temperature of semi conductors a
large number of electrons get free after breaking their
bonds. These electrons reach the conduction band
from valence band. Thus conductivity increases or
resistivity decreases with the increase of free electron
density.
11. A wire has a resistance of 2 ohm at 273 K and a
resistance of 2.5 ohm at 373 K. What is
the temperature coefficient of resistance of the
material?
Sol.
( ) ( ) 273 373 2
2 5 . 2
T T R
R R
0 0
0


=

= o
K / 10 5 . 2
200
5 . 0
0 3
= =
WHEATSTONE BRIDGE
Wheatstone bridge is an arrangement of four resistors
in the shape of a quadrilateral which can be used to
measure unknown resi stance i n terms of the
remaining three resistances.
The arrangement of Wheatstone bridge is shown in
figure below. Out of four resistors, two resistances R
1
,
R
2
and R
3
, R
4
are connected in series and are joined in
parallel across two points a and c. A battery of emf E is
connected across junctions a and c and a galvanometer
(G) between junction b and d. The keys K
1
and K
2
are
used for the flow of current in the various branches of
bridge.
Principle of Wheatstone Bridge :
When key K
1
is closed, current i from the battery is
divided at junction a in two parts. A part i
1
goes through
R
1
and the rest i
2
goes through R
3
. When key K
2
is
closed, galvanometer shows a deflection.
9
PAGE # 9
The direction of deflection depends on the value of
potential difference between b and d. When the value
of potential at b and d is same, then no current will flow
through galvanometer. This condition is known as the
condi tion of bal anced bri dge or nul l defl ecti on
condition. This situation can be obtained by choosing
suitable values of the resistances. Thus, in null
deflection state, we have :
V
a
V
b
= V
a
V
d
or i
1
R
1
= i
2
R
3
...(i)
Similarly :
V
b
V
c
= V
d
V
c
or i
1
R
2
= i
2
R
4
...(ii)
On dividing equation (i) by (ii), we get
2 1
1 1
R i
R i
=
4 2
3 2
R i
R i
or
4
3
2
1
R
R
R
R
=
...(iii)
Equation (iii) states the condition of balanced bridge.
Thus, i n nul l defl ecti on condi ti on the rati o of
resistances of adjacent arms of the bridge are same.
The resi stor of unknown resi stance i s usual l y
connected in one of the arm of the bridge. The
resistance of one of the remaining three arms is
adjusted such that the galvanometer shows zero
deflection. If resistance of unknown resistor is R
4
. Then
R
4
= (R
3
)
|
|
.
|

\
|
1
2
R
R
For better accuracy of the bridge one should choose
resistances R
1
, R
2
, R
3
and R
4
of same order.
GALVANOMETER
Galvanometer is a simple device, used to detect the
current, to find direction of current and also to compare
the currents.
With the help of galvanometer we make two
important devises known as Ammeter and voltmeter
as discussed below.
(a) Ammeter :
Ammeter is an electrical instrument which measures
the strength of current in ampere in a circuit. Ammeter
is a pivoted coil gal vanometer which is always
connected in series in circuit so that total current (to be
measured) may pass through it. For an ammeter of
good quality, the resistance of its coil should be very
low so that it may measure the strength of current
accurately (without affecting the current passing
through the circuit). The resistance of an ideal ammeter
is zero (practically it should be minimum). So, to
minimize the effective resistance of an ammeter, a low
val ue resistance (shunt) as per requi rement i s
connected in parallel to the galvanometer to convert it
to ammeter of desired range.
In electric circuit, the positive terminal of an ammeter
is connected to positive plate and negative terminal is
connected to negative plate of battery.
Desi red val ue of shunt depends on the range
(measurable maximum current) of ammeter converted
from galvanometer.
If pivoted galvanometer of resistance G is to measure
current i (as an ammeter) then from figure.
G
i i
g
i
g
i
i
s
S
i
g
G = (i i
g
) S or S =
) i i (
G i
g
g

Where i
g
is an amount of current required for full
deflection in galvanometer. By using a low value of
resistance S (shunt) in parallel to the galvanometer
(resistance G), the effecti ve resi stance of
converted ammeter R
A
=
S) (G
GS
+
becomes very low..
NOTE :
Shunt : If anyhow, the flowing current through
galvanometer becomes more than its capacity, the coil
has possibility of burning due to heat produced by
flowing current. Secondly, its pointer may break up due
to impact with stop pin as its proportional deflection
as per amount of flowing current.
In order to minimize these possibilities a low resistance
wire (or strip) is connected in parallel with galvanometer,
which is known as shunt.
(b) Voltmeter :
It is an electrical instrument which measures the
potential difference in volt between two points of
electric circuit. Its construction is similar as that of
ammeter. The only difference between ammeter and
vol tmeter i s that ammeter has i ts negl i gi bl e
(approximately zero) resistance so that it may measure
current of circuit passing through it more accurately
giving the deflection accordingly, while the voltmeter
passes negligible current through itself so that potential
difference developed due to maximum current passing
10
PAGE # 10
through circuit may be measured. Therefore, an
appropriate value of high resistance is required to be
connected in series of galvanometer to convert it into a
voltmeter of desired range.
Voltmeter is connected in parallel to the electric circuit.
If a galvanometer of resistance G is to be converted
into a voltmeter of range V, then required value of high
resistance R
H
will be
V = i
g
(R
H
+ G)
or R
H
=
|
|
.
|

\
|
g
V
I
G
G
i
i
g
R
H
V
Connecting this value of high resistance in the series
of galvanometer, it will be converted to a voltmeter of
range V. After connecting high resistance R
H
in series
of galvanometer of resistance G, the effective resistance
of voltmeter becomes R
V
= (R
H
+ G) very high (high in
comparison to G).
Ideal voltmeter has infinite resistance of its own. When
ideal voltmeter is connected parallel to a part of an
electric circuit, it passes zero amount of current through
itself from the circuit so that measurement of potential
difference across the points of connection may be
perfectly accurate.
KIRCHHOFF'S LAWS
(a) Kirchhoffs Current Law (Junction law) :
This law is based on law of conservation of charge.
It states that "The algebraic sum of the currents
meeting at a point of the circuit is zero" or total
current entering a junction is equal total current
leaving the junction.

in
=
out
.
It is also known as KCL (Kirchhoff's current law).
(b) Ki rchhof f s Vol tage Law (Loop law) :
The algebraic sum of all the potential differences
along a closed loop is zero. E IR + E EMF =0. The
closed loop can be traversed in any direction. While
traversing a loop if potential increases, put a positive
sign in expression and if potential decreases put
a negative sign.


V
1

V
2
+ V
3
V
4
= 0. Boxes may contain resistor
or battery or any other element (linear or nonlinear).
It is also known as KVL
12. Figure shows, current in a part of electrical circuit, what
will be the value of current (i) ?
2 A
1 A
1
.
3

A
i
3 A
2 A
P Q R
S
Sol.
2 A
1 A
1
.
3

A
i
3 A
2 A
P Q
R
S
i
1
i
2
i
3
From KCL, current at junction P, i
1
= 2 + 3 = 5 A
From KCL, current at junction Q, i
2
= i
1
+ 1 = 5 + 1 = 6 A
From KCL, current at junction R, i
3
= i
2
2 = 6 2 = 4 A
From KCL, current at junction S, i = i
3
1.3 = 4 1.3
= 2.7 A
13. In the circuit shown, calculate the value of R in ohm
that will result in no current through the 30 V battery.
Sol. Applying KVL in loop CEFDC
50 iR 20 i = 0
i =
R 20
50
+
20O
R
50V
10O
i
i
E
F
D
i
B
A
C
Potential drop across R = Potential drop across AB
iR = 30

R 20
50
+
.R = 30
R = 30 O
11
PAGE # 11

EXERCISE
Charge and coulombs Law :
1. Conductivity of superconductor is :
(A) infinite (B) very large
(C) very small (D) zero
2. Two charges of +1 C & + 5 C are placed 4 cm apart,
the ratio of the force exerted by both charges on each
other will be -
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 5
(C) 5 : 1 (D) 25 : 1
3. A body has 80 microcoulomb of charge. Number of
additional electrons on it will be :
(A) 8 x 10
5
(B) 80 x 10
15
(C) 5 x 10
14
(D) 1.28 x 10
17
4. Which of the following relation is wrong ?
(A) Q = It
(B) 1 ampere =
Second 1
Coulomb 1
(C) V = Wq
(D) V =
q
W
5. Two particles having charges q
1
and q
2
when kept at a
certain distance, exert force F on each other. If distance
is reduced to half, force between them becomes :
(A)
2
F
(B) 2F
(C) 4F (D)
4
F
6.
25
4
Coulomb of charge contains.............................
electrons :
(A) 10
15
(B) 10
18
(C) 10
20
(D) none of these
7. 5 charges each of magnitude 10
5
C and mass 1 kg
are placed (fixed) symmetrically about a movable
central charges of magnitude 5 10
5
C and mass 0.5
kg as shown. The charges at P
1
is removed. The
acceleration of the central charge is : (KVPY/2009)
P
1
P
2
P
3
P
4
P
5
O
[Given OP
1
= OP
2
= OP
3
= OP
4
= OP
5
1 m ;
0
4
1
tc
= 9
10
9
in SI units]
(A) 9 m s
2
upwards (B) 9 m s
2
downwards
(C) 4.5 m s
2
upwards (D) 4.5 m s
2
downwards
8. 12 positive charges of magnitude q are placed on a
circle of radius R in a manner that they are equally
spaced. A charge +Q is placed at the centre. If one of
the charges q is removed, then the force on Q is :
(KVPY/2010)
(A) zero
(B) 2
0
R 4
qQ
tc
away from the position of the removed
charge.
(C) 2
0
R 4
qQ 11
tc
away from the position of the removed
charge.
(D) 2
0
R 4
qQ
tc
towards the position of the removed
charge.
9. In a neon discharge tube 2.8 10
18
Ne
+
ions move to
the right per second while 1.2 10
18
electrons move to
the left per second. Therefore , the current in the
discharge tube is : (IJSO/Stage-I/2011)
(A) 0.64 A towards right
(B) 0.256 A towards right
(C) 0.64 A towards left
(D) 0.256 A towards left
Electric filed and Potential :
10. If Q = 2 coloumb and force on it is F = 100 newton,
then the value of field intensity will be:
(A) 100 N/C (B) 50 N/C
(C) 200 N/C (D) 10 N/C
11. In the electric field of charge Q, another charge is
carried from A to B. A to C, A to D and A to E, then work
done will be -
B
Q +
A
C
D
E
centre
(A) minimum along path AB.
(B) minimum along path AD.
(C) minimum along path AE.
(D) zero along all the paths.
12
PAGE # 12
12. A negatively charged particle initially at rest is placed in
an electric field that varies from point to point. There
are no other fields. Then : (KVPY/2008)
(A) the particle moves along the electric line of force
passing through it.
(B) the particle moves opposite to the electric line of
force passing through it.
(C) the direction of acceleration of the particle is
tangential to the electric line of force at every instant.
(D) the direction of acceleration of the particle is normal
to the electric line of force at every instant.
13. Two charges +q and q are placed at a distance b
apart as shown in the figure below. (KVPY/2009)
b/2
b
+q q
B
A P
C
The electric field at a point P on the perpendicular
bisector as shown as :
(A) along vector
A

(B) along vector


B

(C) along vector


C

(D) Zero
14. Two charges +Q and _2Q are located at points A and B
on a horizontal line as shown below :
The electric field is zero at a point which is located at a
finite distance : (KVPY/2011)
(A) On the perpendicular bisector of AB
(B) left of A on the line
(C) between A and B on the line
(D) right of B on the line
Resistance :
15. There are three resistance 5O, 6O and 8O connected in
parallel to a battery of 15 V and of negligible resistance.
The potential drop across 6O resistance is :
(A) 10 V (B) 15 V
(C) 20 V (D) 8 V
16. In the given circuit, the equivalent resistance between
points A and B will be.
(A)
3
8
R (B) 4R
(C) 6R (D) 10R
17. Resistance of a conductor of length 75 cm is 3.25 O .
What will be the length of a similar conductor whose
resistance is 13.25 O ?
(A) 305.76 cm (B) 503.76 cm
(C) 200 cm (D) 610 cm
18. A piece of wire of resistance 4 O is bent through 180
0
at its mid point and the two halves are twisted together,
then resistance is :
(A) 1 O (B) 2 O
(C) 5 O (D) 8 O
19. In how many parts (equal) a wire of 100 O be cut so
that a resistance of 1 O is obtained by connecting
them in parallel ?
(A) 10 (B) 5
(C) 100 (D) 50
20. If a wire of resistance 1 O is stretched to double its
length, then the resistance will become :
(A)
2
1
O (B) 2 O
(C)
4
1
O (D) 4 O
21. Two copper wires, one of length 1 m and the other of
length 9 m, are found to have the same resistance.
Their diameters are in the ratio :
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 9
(C) 9 : 1 (D) 1 : 3
22. Reading of ammeter in ampere for the following circuit
is :
(A) 0.8 (B) 1
(C) 0.4 (D) 2
13
PAGE # 13
23. Two resistors are joined in series, then their equivalent
resistance is 90 O . When the same resistors are
joined in parallel, the equivalent resistance is 20 O .
The resistances of the two resistors will be :
(A) 70 O, 20 O (B) 80 O, 10 O
(C) 60 O, 30 O (D) 50 O, 40 O
24. In the ladder network shown, current through the
resistor 3

O is 0.25 A. The input voltage V is equal
to
(A) 10 V (B) 20 V
(C) 5 V (D)
2
15
V
25. The reading of voltmeter is
(A) 50V (B) 60 V
(C) 40V (D) 80 V
26.
2O
5O 25O
10O
1.4A 1.4A
A
(A) 0.4 (B) 1
(C) 0.6 (D) 1.2
27. Three identical bulbs are connected in parallel with a
battery. The current drawn from the battery is 6 A.
If one of the bulbs gets fused, what will be the total
current drawn from the battery ?
(A) 6A (B) 2A
(C) 4A (D)
28. A uniform wire of resistance R is uniformly compressed
along its length, until its radius becomes n times the
original radius. Now, the resistance of the wire
becomes :
(A) R/n (B) R/n
4
(C) R/n
2
(D) n R
29. The resistance of a wire of cross-section a and length
is R ohm. The resistance of another wire of the
same material and of the same length but cross-sec-
tion 4a will be
(A) 4R (B)
R
4
(C)
R
16
(D) 16 R
30. In the following circuit the value of total resistance be-
tween X and Y in ohm is :
r to r r
r r r
r r r
X
Y

(A) (1 +
3
)R (B) (
3
1)R
(C) (D) 50 r
31. Wires A and B are made from the same material. Wire
A has length 12m and weight 50 g, while wire B is 18 m
long and weighs 40 g. Then the ratio (R
A
/ R
B
) of their
resistances will be : (IAO/Jr./Stage-I/2008)
(A) 16 / 45 (B) 4 / 5
(C) 8 / 15 (D) 4 / 9
32. In case of the circuit arrangement shown below, the
equivalent resistance between A and B is :
(IAO/Jr./Stage-I/2009)
A B
(A) 10O (B) 2.5 W
(C)
3
40
W (D) None of the above
33. The net resistance between points P and Q in the
circuit shown in fig. is
(A) R/2 (B) 2R/5
(C) 3R/5 (D) R/3
14
PAGE # 14
34. A wire of resistance 10.0 ohm is stretched so as to
increase its length by 20%. Its resistance then would
be : (IAO/Sr/Stage-I/2008)
(A) 10.0 ohm (B) 12.0 ohm
(C) 14.4 ohm (D) 10.2 ohm
35. In the circuit shown below, all the resistances are equal,
each equal to R. The equivalent resistance between
points A and C is : (IAO/Sr./Stage-I/2009)
R R
R
R
R
R R
R
A D
C B
(A) R (B) 4R
(C) R /2 (D) none of the above
36. A battery or 10 V and negligible internal resistance is
connected across the diagonally opposite corner of a
cubical network consisting of 12 resistors each of
resistance 1 O. The total current 1 in the circuit external
to the network is : (KVPY/2007)
A
10V
(A) 0.83 A (B) 12 A
(C) 1 A (D) 4 A
37. Figure (a) below shows a Wheatstone bridge in which
P, Q, R, S are fixed resistances, G is a galvanometer
and B is a battery. For this particular case the
galvanometer shows zero deflection. Now, only the
positions of B and G are interchanged,. as shown in
figure (b). The new deflection of the galvanometer.
(KVPY/2010)
(A) is to the left.
(B) is to the right.
(C) is zero.
(D) depends on the values of P, Q, R, S
38. In the circuit arrangement shown, if the point A and B are
joined by a wire the current in this wire will be :
(IJSO/Stage-I/2011)
A
B
24Volt
(A) 1A. (B) 2A.
(C) 4A. (D) zero.
39. In the following circuit, each resistor has a resistance
of 15 O and the battery has an e.m.f. of 12 V with
negligible internal resistance. (IJSO/Stage-II/2011)
When a resistor of resistance R is connected between
D & F, no current flows through the galvanometer (not
shown in the figure) connected between C & F.
Calculate the value of R.
(A) 10 O (B) 15 O
(C) 5 O (D) 30 O
40. The circuit given below is for the operation of an
industrial fan. The resistance of the fan is 3 ohms. The
regulator provided with the fan is a fixed resistor and a
variable resistor in parallel. (IJSO/Stage-II/2011)
Under what value of the variable resistance given
below, Power transferred to the fans will be maximum?
The power source of the fan is a dc source with internal
resistnace of 6 ohm.
(A) 3 O (B) 0
(C) (D) 6 O
15
PAGE # 15
41. When all the resistances in the circuit are 1O each,
then the equivalent resistance across points A & B will
be : (IJSO/Stage-II/2011)
(A) 5/6 O (B) 1/2 O
(C) 2/3 O (D) 1/3 O
42. A cylindrical copper rod has length L and resistance R.
If it is melted and formed into another rod of length 2L.
the resistance will be : (KVPY/2011)
(A) R (B) 2R
(C) 4R (D) 8R
- 43. There are four resistors of 12 ohm each. Which of the
following values is/are possible by their combinations
(series and / or parallel) ? (IJSO/Stage-I/2008)
(A) 9 ohm (B) 16 ohm
(C) 12 ohm (D) 30 ohm
- 44. In case of the circuit shown below, which of the following
statements is/are true ? (IJSO/Stage-I/2009)

R
1
R
2
R
3
A
B
2
1
3
4
(A) R
1
, R
2
and R
3
are in series.
(B) R
2
and R
3
are in series.
(C) R
2
and R
3
are in parallel.
(D) The equivalent resistance of the circuit is
R
1
+
3 2
3 2
R R
R R
+
- 45. A current i reaching at a point in a circuit gets branched
and flows through two resistors R
1
and R
2
. Then, the
current through R
1
varies as : (IAO/Jr./Stage-I/2007)
(A) R
1
(B) R
2
(C) (R
1
+ R
2
) (D) 1l (R
1
+ R
2
)
- 46. In the circuit shown below, (IAO/Sr./Stage-I/2007)
10V
Y
X
(A) current flowing in the circuit is 200 mA
(B) power supplied by the battery is 2 watt
(C) current from X to Y is zero
(D) potential difference across 10O is equal to zero
47. We are given n resistors, each of resistance R. The
ratio of the maximum to minimum resistance that can
be obtained by combining them is : (KVPY/2008)
(A) n
n
(B) n
(C) n
2
(D) log
n
Cell :
48. A cell of emf E is connected across a resistance R.
The potential difference between the terminals of the
cell is found to be V. The internal resistance of the cell
is given as :
(A) R(E V) (B)
R
V E
(C) E
R
) V E (
(D) R
V
) V E (
49. 24 cells, each having the same e.m.f. and 2 ohm
internal resistance, are used to draw maximum current
through an external resistance of 3 ohm. The cells
should be connected
(A) in series
(B) in parallel
(C) in 4 rows, each row having 6 cells
(D) in 6 rows, each row having 4 cells
50. The cells are joined in parallel to get the maximum
current when
(A) external resistance is very large as compared to
the total internal resistance
(B) internal resistance is very large as compared to
the external resistance
(C) internal resistance and external resistance are
equal
(D) emf of each cell is very large
51. In secondary cells :
(A) Chemical changes can be reversed by heating
electrodes
(B) Chemical changes can be reversed by passing
electric current
(C) Current is produced by photo chemical reactions
(D) None of these
16
PAGE # 16
52. Three types of electric cells which provide current are :
(A) Button cell, solar cell & secondary cell
(B) Solar cell, electrolytic cell, electro chemical cell
(C) (A) and (B) both are correct
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) is correct
53. In which of the following cells, the potential difference
between the terminals of a cell exceeds its emf.
(A) a (B) b
(C) c (D) d
54. A cell, an ammeter and a voltmeter are all connected in
series. The ammeter reads a current I and the
voltmeter a potential difference V. If a torch bulb is
connected across the voltmeter, then.
(IJSO/Stage-I/2009)
(A) both I and V will increase
(B) both I and V will decrease
(C) I will increase but V will decrease
(D) I will decrease but V will increase
55. In the process of electrostatic induction.
(IJSO/Stage-II/2011)
(A) a conductor is rubbed with an insulator.
(B) a charge is produced by friction.
(C) negative and positive charges are separated.
(D) electrons are sprayed on the object.
56. Consider the circuit below. The bulb will light up if :
(KVPY/2009)
S
1
S
2
S
3
~
(A) S
1
S
2
and S
3
are all closed.
(B) S
1
is closed but S
2
and S
3
are open.
(C) S
1
and S
3
are closed but S
2
is open.
(D) none of these
Electric Energy and Power :
57. An electric iron of heating element of resistance 88 O
is used at 220 volt for 2 hours. The electric energy
spent, in unit, will be :
(A) 0.8 (B) 1.1
(C) 2.2 (D) 8.8
58. Two identical heater wires are first connected in series
and then in parallel with a source of electricity. The
ratio of heat produced in the two cases is :
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
59. You are given three bulbs 25 W, 40 W and 60 W . Which
of them has the lowest resistance?
(A) 25 watt bulb (B) 40 watt bulb
(C) 60 watt bulb (D) insufficient data
60. If R
1
and R
2
are the filament resistances of a 200 W
bulb and a 100 W bulb respectively designed to operate
on the same voltage, then :
(A) R
1
= 2 R
2
(B) R
2
= 2 R
1
(C) R
2
= 4 R
1
(D) R
1
= 4 R
2
61. If two bulbs, whose resistance are in the ratio of 1 : 2,
are connected in series. The power dissipated in them
has the ratio of :
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
62. When a voltage of 20 volt is applied between the two
ends of a coil, 800 cal/s heat is produced. The value of
resistance of the coil is :(1 calorie = 4.2 joule) :
(A) 1.2 O (B) 1.4 O
(C) 0.12 O (D) 0.14 O
63. You are given two fuse wires A and B with current rating
2.5 A and 6 A respectively. Which of the two wires would
you select for use with a 1100 W, 220 V room heater ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) A and B (D) none of these
64. An electric current of 2.0 A passes through a wire of
resistance 25 O . How much heat (in joule) will be
developed in 1 minute ?
(A) 6 (B) 6000
(C) 50 (D) 10
65 . Two bulbs, one of 200W and the other of 100W, are
connected in series with a 100 V battery which has no
internal resistance. Then, (KVPY/2009)
200W 100W
100V
(A) the current passing through the 200W bulb is more
than that through the 100W bulb.
(B) the power dissipation in the 200W bulb is more
than that In the 100 W bulb.
(C) the voltage drop across the 200W bulb is more
than that across the 100W bulb.
(D) the power dissipation In the 100W bulb is more
than that in the 200W bulb.
17
PAGE # 17
66. An electric heater consists of a nichrome coil and runs
under 220 V, consuming 1 kW power. Part of its coil
burned out and it was reconnected after cutting off the
burnt portion. The power it will consume now is :
(KVPY/2010)
(A) more than 1 kW.
(B) less that 1 kW, but not zero.
(C) 1 kW.
(D) 0 kW.
67. In the following circuit, the 1O resistor dissipates
power P. If the resistor is replaced by 9O. the power
dissipated in it is : (KVPY/2011)
(A) P (B) 3P
(C) 9P (D) P/3
68. A neon lamp is connected to a voltage a.c. source. The
voltage is gradually increased from zero volt. It is
observed that the neon flashes at 50 V. The a.c. source
is now replaced by a variable dc source and the
experiment is repeated. The neon bulb will flash at :
(IAO/Sr./Stage-I/2008)
(A) 50V (B) 70V
(C) 100V (D) 35V
69. A certain network consists of two ideal and indentical
voltage sources in series and a large number of ideal
resistor. The power consumed in one of the resistor is
4W when either of the two sources is active and other
is replaced by a short circuit. The power consumed by
same resistor when both sources are simultaneously
active would be : (IJSO/Stage-II/2011)
(A) 0 or 16W (B) 4W or 8W
(C) 0 or 8W (D) 8W or 16W
Circuit and Other :
70. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by
connecting
(A) A high resistance in series with the galvanometer
(B) A high resistance in parallel with the galvanometer
(C) a low resistance in series with the galvanometer
(D) a low resistance in parallel with the galvanometer
71. The circuit shown has 3 identical light bulbs A, B, C
and 2 identical batteries E
1
, E
2
. When the switch is
open, A and B glow with equal brightness. When the
switch is closed: (KVPY/2007)
A
B
C
S
E
1
E
2
(A) A and B will maintain their brightness and C will be
dimmer than A and B.
(B) A and B will become dimmer and C will be brighter
than A and B.
(C) A and B will maintain their brightness and C will not
glow.
(D) A, B and C will be equally bright.
72. A student connects two lamps in the circuit shown.
The emf of the two batteries is different.
(IJSO/Stage-II/2011)
Which of the following statements are correct?
i. When keys 1, 2, 3 and 4 are closed, bulbs
A and B will both glow
ii. When key 2 and 4 are closed bulb A will glow
iii.When 1 and 4 are closed, bulb A will glow
iv.When 2, 3 and 4 are closed, both A and B will
glow
(A) only ii (B) only iv
(C) i, ii and iv (D) ii and iii
73. Figure below shows a portion of an electric circuit with
the currents in ampere and their directions. The
magnitude and direction of the current in the portion
PQ is : (KVPY/2011)

(A) 0A (B) 3A from P to Q
(C) 4A from Q to P (D) 6A from Q to P
PAGE # 18
MOLE CONCEPT
ATOMS
All the matter is made up of atoms. An atom is the
smallest particle of an element that can take part in a
chemical reaction. Atoms of most of the elements
are very reactive and do not exist in the free state (as
single atom).They exist in combination with the atoms
of the same element or another element.
Atoms are very, very small in size. The size of an atom
is indicated by its radius which is called "atomic
radius" (radi us of an atom). Atomi c radi us is
measured in "nanometres"(nm).
1 metre = 10
9
nanometre or 1nm = 10
-9
m.
Atoms are so small that we cannot see them under
the most powerful optical microscope.
Note :
Hydrogen atom is the smallest atom of all , having an
atomic radius 0.037nm.
(a) Symbols of Elements :
A symbol is a short hand notation of an element which
can be represented by a sketch or letter etc.
Dalton was the first to use symbols to represent
elements in a short way but Dalton's symbols for
element were difficult to draw and inconvenient to
use, so Dalton's symbols are only of historical
importance. They are not used at all.
It was J.J. Berzelius who proposed the modern
system of representing en element.
The symbol of an element is the "first letter" or the
"first letter and another letter" of the English name or
the Latin name of the element.
e.g. The symbol of Hydrogen is H.
The symbol of Oxygen is O.
There are some elements whose names begin with
the same letter. For example, the names of elements
Carbon, Calcium, Chlorine and Copper all begin with
the letter C. In such cases, one of the elements is
given a "one letter "symbol but all other elements are
given a "first letter and another letter" symbol of the
English or Latin name of the element. This is to be
noted that "another letter" may or may not be the
"second letter" of the name. Thus,
The symbol of Carbon is C.
The symbol of Calcium is Ca.
The symbol of Chlorine is Cl.
The symbol of Copper is Cu (from its Latin name
Cuprum)
It should be noted that in a "two letter" symbol, the
first letter is the "capital letter" but the second letter is
the 'small letter'.

English Name of
the Element
Symbol
Hydrogen H
Helium He
Lithium Li
Boron B
Carbon C
Nitrogen N
Oxygen O
Fluorine F
Neon Ne
Magnesium Mg
Aluminium Al
Silicon Si
Phosphorous P
Sulphur S
Chlorine Cl
Argon Ar
Calcium Ca
Symbol Derived from English Names
Symbols Derived from Latin Names
English Name of
the Element
Symbol
Latin Name of
the Element
Sodium Na Natrium
Potassium K Kalium
(b) Significance of The Symbol of an
Element :
(i) Symbol represents name of the element.
(ii) Symbol represents one atom of the element.
(iii) Symbol also represents one mole of the element.
That is, symbol also represent 6.023 10
23
atoms of
the element.
(iv) Symbol represent a definite mass of the element
i.e. atomic mass of the element.
Example :
(i) Symbol H represents hydrogen element.
(ii) Symbol H also represents one atom of hydrogen
element.
(iii) Symbol H also represents one mole of hydrogen
atom.
(iv) Symbol H also represents one gram hydrogen
atom.
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PAGE # 19
IONS
An ion is a positively or negatively charged atom or
group of atoms.
Every atom contains equal number of electrons
(negatively charged) and protons (positively charged).
Both charges balance each other, hence atom is
electrically neutral.
(a) Cation :
If an atom has less electrons than a neutral atom,
then it gets positively charged and a positively
charged ion is known as cation.
e.g. Sodium ion (Na
+
), Magnesium ion (Mg
2+
) etc.
A cation bears that much units of positive charge as
there are the number of electrons lost by the neutral
atom to form that cation.
e.g. An aluminium atom loses 3 electrons to form
aluminium ion, so aluminium ion bears 3 units of
positive charge and it is represented as Al
3+
.
(b) Anion :
If an atom has more number of electrons than that of
neutral atom, then it gets negatively charged and a
negatively charged ion is known as anion.
e.g. Chloride ion (Cl), oxide ion (O
2-
) etc.
An anion bears that much units of negative charge as
there are the number of electrons gained by the
neutral atom to form that anion.
e.g. A nitrogen atom gains 3 electrons to form nitride
ion, so nitride ion bears 3 units of negative charge
and it is represented as N
3-
.
Note :
Size of a cation is always smaller and anion is always
greater than that of the corresponding neutral atom.
(c) Monoatomic ions and polyatomic ions :
(i) Monoatomic ions : Those ions which are formed
from single atoms are called monoatomic ions or
simple ions.
e.g. Na
+
, Mg
2+
etc.
(ii) Polyatomic ions : Those ions which are formed
from group of atoms joined together are called
polyatomic ions or compound ions.
e.g. Ammonium ion (NH
4
+
) , hydroxide ion (OH

) etc.
which are formed by the joining of two types of atoms,
nitrogen and hydrogen in the first case and oxygen and
hydrogen in the second.
(d) Valency of ions :
The valency of an ion is same as the charge present
on the ion.
If an ion has 1 unit of positive charge, its valency is 1
and it is known as a monovalent cation. If an ion has
2 units of negative charge, its valency is 2 and it is
known as a divalent anion.
LIST OF COMMON ELECTROVALENT POSITIVE RADICALS

LIST OF COMMON ELECTROVALENT NEGATIVE RADICALS
Monovalent Electronegative
Bivalent
Electronegative
Trivalent
Electronegative
Tetravalent
Electronegative
1. Fluoride F

1. Sulphate SO4
2-
1. Nitride N
3-
1. Carbide C
4-
2. Chloride Cl

2. Sulphite SO
3
2-
2. Phosphide P
3-
3. Bromide Br

3. Sulphide S
2-
3. Phosphite PO
3
3-
4. Iodide
I
4. Thiosulphate S
2
O
3
2-
4. Phosphate PO
4
3-
5. Hydride H

5. Zincate ZnO
2
2-
6. Hydroxide OH

6. Oxide O
2-
7. Nitrite NO
2

7. Peroxide O2
2-
8.Nitrate NO
3

8. Dichromate Cr2O7
2-
9. Bicarbonate or Hydrogen carbonate HCO
3

9. Carbonate CO
3
2-
10. Bisulphite or Hydrogen sulphite HSO
3

10. Silicate SiO


3
2-
11. Bisulphide or Hydrogen sulphide HS

12. Bisulphate or Hydrogen sulphate HSO


4

13. Acetate CH COO


3

Note :
Cation contains less no. of electrons and anion contains more no. of electrons than the no. of protons present in
them.
PAGE # 20
LAWS OF CHEMICAL COMBINATION
The l aws of chemi cal combi nati on are the
experi mental l aws whi ch l ed to the i dea of
atoms being the smallest unit of matter. The laws of
chemical combination played a significant role in the
development of Daltons atomic theory of matter.
There are two important laws of chemical combination.
These are:
(i) Law of conservation of mass
(ii) Law of constant proportions
(a) Law of Conservation of Mass or Matter :
This law was given by Lavoisier in 1774 . According to
the law of conservation of mass, matter can neither
be created nor be destroyed in a chemical reaction.
Or
The law of conservation of mass means that in a
chemical reaction, the total mass of products is equal
to the total mass of the reactants. There is no change
in mass during a chemical reaction.
Suppose we carry out a chemical reaction between A
and B and if the products formed are C and D then,
A + B C + D
Suppose 'a' g of A and 'b' g of B react to produce 'c' g of
C and 'd' g of D. Then, according to the law of
conservation of mass, we have,
a + b = c + d
Example :
When Calcium Carbonate (CaCO
3
) is heated, a
chemical reaction takes place to form Calcium Oxide
(CaO) and Carbon dioxide (CO
2
). It has been found
by experiments that if 100 grams of calcium carbonate
is decomposed completely, then 56 grams of Calcium
Oxide and 44 grams of Carbon dioxide are formed.

Since the total mass of products (100g ) is equal to
the total mass of the reactants (100g), there is no
change in the mass during this chemical reaction.
The mass remains same or conserved.
(b) Law of Constant Proportions / Law of
Definite Proportions :
Proust, in 1779, analysed the chemical composition
(types of elements present and percentage of
elements present ) of a large number of compounds
and came to the conclusion that the proportion of
each element in a compound is constant (or fixed).
According to the law of constant proportions: A
chemical compound always consists of the same
elements combined together in the same proportion
by mass.
Note :
The chemical composition of a pure substance is
not dependent on the source from which it is obtained.
Example :
Water is a compound of hydrogen and oxygen. It can
be obtained from various sources (like river, sea, well
etc.) or even synthesized in the laboratory. From
whatever source we may get it, 9 parts by weight of
water is always found to contain 1 part by weight of
hydrogen and 8 parts by weight of oxygen. Thus, in
water, this proportion of hydrogen and oxygen always
remains constant.
Note :
The converse of Law of definite proportions that when
same elements combine in the same proportion, the
same compound will be formed, is not always true.
(c) Law of Multiple Proportions :
According to it, when one element combines with the
other element to form two or more different compounds,
the mass of one element, which combines with a
constant mass of the other, bears a simple ratio to
one another.
Simple ratio means the ratio between small natural
numbers, such as 1 : 1, 1 : 2, 1 : 3
e.g.
Carbon and oxygen when combine, can form two
oxides that are CO (carbon monoxide), CO
2
(carbon
dioxide).
In CO,12 g carbon combined with 16 g of oxygen.
In CO
2
,12 g carbon combined with 32 g of oxygen.
Thus, we can see the mass of oxygen which combine
with a constant mass of carbon (12 g) bear simple
ratio of 16 : 32 or 1 : 2
Note :
The law of multiple proportion was given by Dalton in
1808.
Sample Problem :
1. Carbon is found to form two oxides, which contain
42.8% and 27.27% of carbon respectively. Show that
these figures illustrate the law of multiple proportions.
Sol. % of carbon in first oxide = 42.8
% of oxygen in first oxide = 100 - 42.8 = 57.2
% of carbon in second oxide = 27.27
% of oxygen in second oxide = 100 - 27.27 = 72.73
For the first oxide -
Mass of oxygen in grams that combines with 42.8 g
of carbon = 57.2
Mass of oxygen that combines with 1 g of carbon =
1.34
42.8
57.2
=
g
For the second oxide -
Mass of oxygen in grams that combines with 27.27 g
of carbon = 72.73
Mass of oxygen that combines with 1 g of carbon =
2.68
27.27
72.73
= g
Ratio between the masses of oxygen that combine
with a fixed mass (1 g) of carbon in the two oxides
= 1.34 : 2.68 or 1 : 2 which is a simple ratio. Hence,
this illustrates the law of multiple proportion.
PAGE # 21
(d) Law of Reciprocal Proportions :
According to this law the ratio of the weights of two
element A and B which combine separately with a
fixed weight of the third element C is either the same
or some simple multiple of the ratio of the weights in
which A and B combine directly with each other.
e.g.
The elements C and O combine separately with the
third element H to form CH
4
and H
2
O and they combine
directly with each other to form CO
2
.
H 2 4
CH
4
H O
2
C O
16
12
12
CO
2
32
In CH
4
, 12 parts by weight of carbon combine with 4
parts by weight of hydrogen. In H
2
O, 2 parts by weight
of hydrogen combine with 16 parts by weight of
oxygen. Thus the weight of C and O which combine
with fixed weight of hydrogen (say 4 parts by weight)
are 12 and 32 i.e. they are in the ratio 12 : 32 or 3 : 8.
Now in CO
2
, 12 parts by weight of carbon combine
directly with 32 parts by weight of oxygen i.e. they
combine directly in the ratio 12 : 32 or 3 : 8 which is
the same as the first ratio.
Note :
The law of reciprocal proportion was put forward by
Ritcher in 1794.
Sample Problem :
2. Ammonia contains 82.35% of nitrogen and 17.65%
of hydrogen. Water contains 88.90% of oxygen and
11.10% of hydrogen. Nitrogen trioxide contains
63.15% of oxygen and 36.85% of nitrogen. Show that
these data illustrate the law of reciprocal proportions.
Sol
In NH
3
, 17.65 g of H combine with N = 82.35 g
1g of H combine with N =
17.65
82.35
g = 4.67 g
In H
2
O, 11.10 g of H combine with O = 88.90 g
1 g H combine with O =
11.10
88.90
g = 8.01 g
Ratio of the weights of N and O which combine
with fixed weight (=1g) of H
= 4.67 : 8.01 = 1 : 1.72
In N
2
O
3
, ratio of weights of N and O which combine
with each other = 36.85 : 63.15 = 1 : 1.71
Thus the two ratio are the same. Hence it illustrates
the law of reciprocal proportions.
(e) Gay Lussacs Law of Gaseous Volumes :
Gay Lussac found that there exi sts a defi ni te
relationship among the volumes of the gaseous
reactants and their products. In 1808, he put forward
a generalization known as the Gay Lussacs Law of
combining volumes. This may be stated as follows :
When gases react together, they always do so in
volumes which bear a simple ratio to one another
and to the volumes of the product, if these are also
gases, provided all measurements of volumes are
done under similar conditions of temperature and
pressure.
e.g.
Combination between hydrogen and chlorine to form
hydrogen chloride gas. One volume of hydrogen and
one volume of chlorine always combine to form two
volumes of hydrochloric acid gas.
H
2
(g) + Cl
2
(g) 2HCl (g)
1vol. 1 vol. 2 vol.
The ratio between the volume of the reactants and
the product in this reaction is simple, i.e., 1 : 1 : 2.
Hence it illustrates the Law of combining volumes.
(f) Avogadros Hypothesis :
This states that equal volumes of all gases under
similar conditions of temperature and pressure
contain equal number of molecules.
This hypothesis has been found to explain elegantly
al l the gaseous reacti ons and is now widel y
recognized as a law or a principle known as Avogadros
Law or Avogadros principle.
The reaction between hydrogen and chlorine can be
explained on the basis of Avogadros Law as follows :
Hydrogen + Chlorine Hydrogen chloride gas
1 vol. (By experiment)
1 vol. 2 vol.
n molecules. n molecules.
2n molecules.(By Avogadro's Law)
2
1
molecules. molecules.
1 molecules. (By dividing throughout by 2n)
1 Atom 1 Atom
1 Molecule (Applying Avogadro's hypothesis)
2
1
It implies that one molecule of hydrogen chloride gas
is made up of 1 atom of hydrogen and 1 atom of
chlorine.
(i) Applications of Avogadros hypothesis :
(A) In the calculation of atomicity of elementary
gases.
e.g.
2 volumes of hydrogen combine with 1 volume of
oxygen to form two volumes of water vapours.
Hydrogen + Oxygen Water vapours
2 vol. 1 vol. 2 vol.
PAGE # 22
Applying Avogadros hypothesis
Hydrogen + Oxygen Water vapours
2 n molecules n molecules 2 n molecules
or 1 molecule
2
1
molecule 1 molecule
Thus1 molecule of water contains
2
1
molecule of
oxygen. But 1 molecule of water contains 1 atom of
oxygen. Hence.
2
1
molecule of oxygen = 1 atom of
oxygen or 1 molecules of oxygen = 2 atoms of oxygen
i.e. atomicity of oxygen = 2.
(B) To find the relationship between molecular mass
and vapour density of a gas.
Vapour density (V.D.) =
hydrogen of Density
gas of Density
=
e pressur and temp. same the
at hydrogen of volume same the of Mass
gas the of volume certain a of Mass
If n molecules are present in the given volume of a gas
and hydrogen under similar conditions of temperature
and pressure.
V.D. =
hydrogen of molecules n of Mass
gas the of molecules n of Mass
=
hydrogen of molecule 1 of Mass
gas the of molecule 1 of Mass
=
hydrogen of mass Molecular
gas the of mass Molecular
=
2
mass Molecular
(since molecular mass of hydrogen is 2)
Hence, Molecular mass = 2 Vapour density
ATOMIC MASS UNIT
The atomic mass unit (amu) is equal to one-twelfth
(1/12) of the mass of an atom of carbon-12.The mass
of an atom of carbon-12 isotope was given the atomic
mass of 12 units, i.e. 12 amu or 12 u.
The atomic masses of all other elements are now
expressed in atomic mass units.
RELATIVE ATOMIC MASS
The atomic mass of an element is a relative quantity
and it is the mass of one atom of the element relative
to one -twelfth (1/12) of the mass of one carbon-12
atom. Thus, Relative atomic mass
=
atom 12 C one of mass
12
1
element the of atom one of Mass

[1/12 the mass of one C-12 atom = 1 amu, 1 amu =
1.66 10
24
g = 1.66 10
27
kg.]
Note :
One amu is also called one dalton (Da).
GRAM-ATOMIC MASS
The atomic mass of an element expressed in grams
is called the Gram Atomic Mass of the element.
The number of gram -atoms
=
element the of mass Atomic Gram
grams in element the of Mass
e.g.
Calculate the gram atoms present in (i) 16g of oxygen
and (ii) 64g of sulphur.
(i) The atomic mass of oxygen = 16.
Gram-Atomic Mass of oxygen (O) = 16 g.
No. of Gram-Atoms =
16
16
= 1
(ii) The gram-atoms present in 64 grams of sulphur.
=
sulphur of Mass Atomic Gram
64
=
32
64
= 2

Atomic
Number Element Symbol
Atomic
mass
1 Hydrogen H 1
2 Helium He 4
3 Lithium Li 7
4 Beryllium Be 9
5 Boron B 11
6 Carbon C 12
7 Nitrogen N 14
8 Oxygen O 16
9 Fluorine F 19
10 Neon Ne 20
11 Sodium Na 23
12 Magnesium Mg 24
13 Aluminium Al 27
14 Silicon Si 28
15 Phosphorus P 31
16 Sulphur S 32
17 Chlorine Cl 35.5
18 Argon Ar 40
19 Potassium K 39
20 Calcium Ca 40
RELATIVE MOLECULAR MASS
The relative molecular mass of a substance is the
mass of a molecule of the substance as compared
to one-twelfth of the mass of one carbon -12 atom
i.e.,
Relative molecular mass
=
atom 12 C one of mass
12
1
substance the of molecule one of Mass

The molecular mass of a molecule, thus, represents
the number of times it is heavier than 1/12 of the
mass of an atom of carbon-12 isotope.
PAGE # 23
GRAM MOLECULAR MASS
The molecular mass of a substance expressed in
grams is called the Gram Molecular Mass of the
substance . The number of gram molecules
=
ance t subs the of mass molecular Gram
grams in tance subs the of Mass
e.g.
(i) Molecular mass of hydrogen (H
2
) = 2u.
Gram Molecular Mass of hydrogen (H
2
) = 2 g .
(ii) Molecular mass of methane (CH
4
) = 16u
Gram Molecular Mass of methane (CH
4
) = 16 g.
e.g. the number of gram molecules present in 64 g of
methane (CH
4
).
=
4
CH of mass molecular Gram
64
=
16
64
= 4.
(a) Calculation of Molecular Mass :
The molecular mass of a substance is the sum of
the atomic masses of its constituent atoms present
in a molecule.
Ex.1 Calculate the molecular mass of water.
(Atomic masses : H = 1u, O = 16u).
Sol. The molecular formula of water is H
2
O.
Molecular mass of water = ( 2 atomic mass of H)
+ (1 atomic mass of O)
= 2 1 + 1 16 = 18
i.e., molecular mass of water = 18 amu.
Ex.2 Find out the molecular mass of sulphuric acid.
(Atomic mass : H = 1u, O = 16u, S = 32u).
Sol. The molecular formula of sulphuric acid is H
2
SO
4
.
Molecular mass of H
2
SO
4
= (2 atomic mass of H) + ( 1 atomic mass of S)
+ ( 4 atomic mass of O)
= (2 1) + (1 32) + (416) = 2 + 32 + 64 = 98
i.e., Molecular mass of H
2
SO
4
= 98 amu.
FORMULA MASS
The term formula mass is used for ionic compounds
and others where discrete molecules do not exist,
e.g., sodium chloride, which is best represented as
(Na
+
Cl

)
n
, but for reasons of simplicity as NaCl or
Na
+
Cl

. Here, formula mass means the sum of the


masses of all the species in the formula.
Thus, the formula mass of sodium chloride = (atomic
mass of sodium) + (atomic mass of chlorine)
= 23 + 35.5
= 58.5 amu
EQUIVALENT MASS
(a) Definition :
Equivalent mass of an element is the mass of the
element which combine with or displaces 1.008 parts
by mass of hydrogen or 8 parts by mass of oxygen or
35.5 parts by mass of chlorine.
(b) Formulae of Equivalent Masses of different
substances :
(i) Equivalent mass of an element =
element the of Valency
element the of wt. Atomic
(ii) Eq. mass an acid =
acid the of Basicity
acid the of wt. Mol.
Basicity is the number of replaceable H
+
ions from
one molecule of the acid.
(iii) Eq. Mass of a base =
base the of Acidity
base the of wt. Mol.
Acidity is the number of replaceable OH

ions from
one molecule of the base
(iv) Eq. mass of a salt
=
metal of valency atoms metal of Number
salt the of wt. Mol.

(v) Eq. mass of an ion =


ion the on Charge
ion the of wt. Formula
(vi) Eq. mass of an oxidizing/reducing agent
=
substance the of molecule
one by gained or lost electrons of No.
wt At. or wt. Mol
Equivalent weight of some compounds are given in
the table :

S.No. Compound
Equivalent
weight
1 HCl 36.5
2 H
2
SO
4
49
3 HNO
3
63
4 45
5
.2H
2
O
63
6 NaOH 40
7 KOH 56
8 CaCO
3
50
9 NaCl 58.5
10 Na
2
CO
3
53
COOH
COOH
PAGE # 24
In Latin, mole means heap or collection or pile. A
mole of atoms is a collection of atoms whose total
mass is the number of grams equal to the atomic
mass in magnitude. Since an equal number of moles
of different elements contain an equal number of
atoms, i t becomes conveni ent to express the
amounts of the elements in terms of moles. A mole
represents a definite number of particles, viz, atoms,
molecules, ions or electrons. This definite number is
called the Avogadro Number (now called the Avogadro
constant) which is equal to 6.023 10
23
.
A mole is defined as the amount of a substance that
contains as many atoms, molecules, ions, electrons
or other elementary particles as there are atoms in
exactly 12 g of carbon -12 (
12
C).
(a) Moles of Atoms :
(i) 1 mole atoms of any element occupy a mass which
is equal to the Gram Atomic Mass of that element.
e.g. 1 Mole of oxygen atoms weigh equal to Gram
Atomic Mass of oxygen, i.e. 16 grams.
(ii) The symbol of an element represents 6.023 x 10
23
atoms (1 mole of atoms) of that element.
e.g : Symbol N represents 1 mole of nitrogen atoms
and 2N represents 2 moles of nitrogen atoms.
(b) Moles of Molecules :
(i) 1 mole molecules of any substance occupy a mass
which is equal to the Gram Molecular Mass of that
substance.
e.g. : 1 mole of water (H
2
O) molecules weigh equal to
Gram Molecular Mass of water (H
2
O), i.e. 18 grams.
(ii) The symbol of a compound represents 6.023 x
10
23
mol ecul es (1 mol e of molecul es) of that
compound.
e.g. : Symbol H
2
O represents 1 mole of water
molecules and 2 H
2
O represents 2 moles of water
molecules.
Note :
The symbol H
2
O does not represent 1 mole of H
2
mol ecules and 1 mol e of O atoms. Instead, it
represents 2 moles of hydrogen atoms and 1 mole
of oxygen atoms.
Note :
The SI unit of the amount of a substance is Mole.
(c) Mole in Terms of Volume :
Volume occupied by 1 Gram Molecular Mass or 1
mol e of a gas under standard condi ti ons of
temperature and pressure (273 K and 1atm.
pressure) is called Gram Molecular Volume. Its value
is 22.4 litres for each gas.
Volume of 1 mole = 22.4 litre (at STP)
Note :
The term mole was introduced by Ostwald in 1896.
SOME IMPORTANT RELATIONS AND FORMULAE
(i) 1 mole of atoms = Gram Atomic mass = mass of
6.023 10
23
atoms
(ii) 1 mole of molecules = Gram Molecular Mass
= 6.023 x 10
23
molecules
(iii) Number of moles of atoms
=
element of Mass Atomic Gram
grams in element of Mass
(iv) Number of moles of molecules
=
substance of Mass Molecular Gram
grams in substance of Mass
(v) Number of moles of molecules
=
A
N
N
number Avogadro
element of molecules of No.
=
Ex.3 To calculate the number of moles in 16 grams of
Sulphur (Atomic mass of Sulphur = 32 u).
Sol. 1 mole of atoms = Gram Atomic Mass.
So, 1 mole of Sulphur atoms = Gram Atomic Mass of
Sulphur = 32 grams.
Now, 32 grams of Sulphur = 1 mole of Sulphur
So, 16 grams of Sulphur
= (1/32) x 16 = 0.5 moles
Thus, 16 grams of Sulphur constitute 0.5 mole of
Sulphur.
6.023 10
(N ) Atoms
23
A
6.023 10
(N ) molecules
23
A
1 Mole
1 gram atom
of element
1 gram molecule
of substance
1 gram formula
mass of substance
In terms of
particles
In terms of
mass
22.4 litre
In term of
volume
PROBLEMS BASED ON THE MOLE CONCEPT
Ex.4 Cal culate the number of moles in 5.75 g of
sodium. (Atomic mass of sodium = 23 u)
Sol. Number of moles
=
element of Mass Atomic Gram
grams in element the of Mass
=
23
5.75
= 0.25 mole
or,
1 mole of sodium atoms = Gram Atomic mass of
sodium = 23g.
23 g of sodium = 1 mole of sodium.
5.75 g of sodium =
23
5.75
mole of sodium = 0.25 mole
PAGE # 25
Ex.5 What is the mass in grams of a single atom of
chlorine ? (Atomic mass of chlorine = 35.5u)
Sol. Mass of 6.022 10
23
atoms of Cl = Gram Atomic
Mass of Cl = 35.5 g.
Mass of 1 atom of Cl =
23
10 6.022
g 35.5

= 5.9 10
23
g.
Ex.6 The density of mercury is 13.6 g cm
3
. How many
moles of mercury are there in 1 litre of the metal ?
(Atomic mass of Hg = 200 u).
Sol. Mass of mercury (Hg) i n grams = Densi ty
(g cm
3
) Volume (cm
3
)
= 13.6 g cm
3
1000 cm
3
= 13600 g.
Number of moles of mercury
=
mercury of Mass Atomic Gram
grams in mercury of Mass
=
200
13600
= 68
Ex.7 The mass of a single atom of an element M is
3.15 10
23
g . What is its atomic mass ? What
could the element be ?
Sol. Gram Atomic Mass = mass of 6.022 10
23
atoms
= mass of 1 atom 6.022 10
23
= (3.15 10
23
g) 6.022 10
23
= 3.15 6.022 g = 18.97 g.
Atomic Mass of the element = 18.97u
Thus, the element is most likely to be fluorine.
Ex.8 An atom of neon has a mass of 3.35 10
23
g.
How many atoms of neon are there in 20 g of the
gas ?
Sol. Number of atoms
=
atom 1 of Mass
mass Total
=
23
10 3.35
0 2

= 5.97 10
23
Ex.9 How many grams of sodium will have the same
number of atoms as atoms present i n 6 g of
magnesium ?
(Atomic masses : Na = 23u ; Mg =24u)
Sol. Number of gram -atom of Mg
=
Mass Atomic Gram
grams in Mg of Mass
=
24
6
=
4
1
Gram Atoms of sodium should be =
4
1
1 Gram Atom of sodium = 23 g
4
1
gram atoms of sodium = 23
4
1
= 5.75 g
Ex.10 How many moles of Cr are there in 85g of Cr
2
S
3
?
(Atomic masses : Cr = 52 u , S =32 u)
Sol. Molecular mass of Cr
2
S
3
= 2 52 + 3 32 = 104
+ 96 = 200 u.
200g of Cr
2
S
3
contains = 104 g of Cr.
85 g of Cr
2
S
3
contains =
200
85 104
g of Cr = 44.2g
Thus, number of moles of Cr =
52
44.2
= 0.85 .
Ex.11 What mass in grams is represented by
(a) 0.40 mol of CO
2
,
(b) 3.00 mol of NH
3
,
(c) 5.14 mol of H
5
IO
6
(Atomi c masses : C=12 u, O=16 u, N=14 u,
H=1 u and I = 127 u)
Sol. Weight in grams = number of moles molecular
mass.
Hence,
(a) mass of CO
2
= 0.40 44 = 17.6 g
(b) mass of NH
3
= 3.00 17 = 51.0 g
(c) mass of H
5
IO
6
= 5.14 228 = 1171.92g
Ex.12 Calculate the volume in litres of 20 g of hydrogen
gas at STP.
Sol. Number of moles of hydrogen
=
hydrogen of Mass Molecular Gram
grams in hydrogen of Mass
=
2
20
= 10
Volume of hydrogen = number of moles Gram
Molecular Volume.
= 10 22.4 = 224 litres.
Ex.13 The mol ecul ar mass of H
2
SO
4
i s 98 amu.
Calculate the number of moles of each element
in 294 g of H
2
SO
4
.
Sol. Number of moles of H
2
SO
4
=
98
294
= 3 .
The formula H
2
SO
4
indicates that 1 molecule of
H
2
SO
4
contains 2 atoms of H, 1 atom of S and 4
atoms of O. Thus, 1 mole of H
2
SO
4
will contain 2
moles of H,1 mole of S and 4 moles of O atoms
Therefore, in 3 moles of H
2
SO
4
:
Number of moles of H = 2 3 = 6
Number of moles of S = 1 3 = 3
Number of moles of O = 4 3 = 12
Ex.14 Find the mass of oxygen contained in 1 kg of
potassium nitrate (KNO
3
).
Sol. Since 1 molecule of KNO
3
contains 3 atoms of
oxygen, 1 mol of KNO
3
contai ns 3 mol es of
oxygen atoms.
Moles of oxygen atoms = 3 moles of KNO
3
= 3
101
1000
= 29.7
(Gram Molecular Mass of KNO
3
= 101 g)
Mass of oxygen = Number of moles Atomic
mass
= 29.7 16 = 475.2 g
Ex.15 You are asked by your teacher to buy 10 moles of
distilled water from a shop where small bottles
each containing 20 g of such water are available.
How many bottles will you buy ?
Sol. Gram Molecular Mass of water (H
2
O) = 18 g
10 mol of distilled water = 18 10 = 180 g.
Because 20 g distilled water is contained in 1
bottle,
180 g of distilled water is contained in =
20
180
bottles = 9 bottles.
Number of bottles to be bought = 9
PAGE # 26
Ex.16 6.022 10
23
molecules of oxygen (O
2
) is equal to
how many moles ?
Sol. No. of moles =
A
N
N
molecules of no. s Avogadro'
oxygen of molecules of No.
= =
23
23
10 6.023
10 6.023

=1
PERCENTAGE COMPOSITION
The percentage composi ti on of el ements i n a
compound is calculated from the molecular formula
of the compound.
The molecular mass of the compound is calculated
from the atomic masses of the various elements
present in the compound. The percentage by mass
of each element is then computed with the help of the
following relations.
Percentage mass of the element in the compound
=
mass Molecular
element the of mass Total
100
Ex.17 What is the percentage of calcium in calcium
carbonate (CaCO
3
) ?
Sol. Molecular mass of CaCO
3
= 40 + 12 + 3 16
= 100 amu.
Mass of calcium in 1 mol of CaCO
3
= 40g.
Percentage of calcium =
100
100 40
= 40 %
Ex.18 What is the percentage of sulphur in sulphuric
acid (H
2
SO
4
) ?
Sol. Molecular mass of H
2
SO
4
= 1 2 + 32 + 16 4 = 98
amu.
Percentage of sulphur =
98
100 32
= 32.65 %
Ex.19 What are the percentage composi ti ons of
hydrogen and oxygen in water (H
2
O) ?
(Atomic masses : H = 1 u, O = 16 u)
Sol. Molecular mass of water, H
2
O = 2 + 16 = 18 amu.
H
2
O has two atoms of hydrogen.
So, total mass of hydrogen in H
2
O = 2 amu.
Percentage of H =
18
100 2
= 11.11 %
Similarly,
percentage of oxygen =
18
100 16
= 88.88 %
The following steps are involved in determining the
empirical formula of a compound :
(i) The percentage composition of each element is
divided by its atomic mass. It gives atomic ratio of the
elements present in the compound.
(ii) The atomic ratio of each element is divided by the
minimum value of atomic ratio as to get the simplest
ratio of the atoms of el ements present i n the
compound.
(iii) If the simplest ratio is fractional, then values of
simplest ratio of each element is multiplied by
smallest integer to get the simplest whole number
for each of the element.
(iv) To get the empirical formula, symbols of various
elements present are written side by side with their
respective whole number ratio as a subscript to the
lower right hand corner of the symbol.
(v) The molecular formula of a substance may be
determined from the empirical formula if the molecular
mass of the substance is known. The molecular
formula is always a simple multiple of empirical
formula and the value of simple multiple (n) is
obtained by dividing molecular mass with empirical
formula mass.
n =
Mass Formula Empirical
Mass Molecular
Ex-20 A compound of carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen
contains these elements in the ratio of 9:1:3.5 respectively.
Calculate the empirical formula. If its molecular mass is
108, what is the molecular formula ?
Sol.

Element
Mass
Ratio
Atomic
Mass
Relative Number
of Atoms
Simplest
Ratio
Carbon 9 12 0.754 = 3
Hydrogen 1 1 1 4 = 4
Nitrogen 3.5 14 0.25 4 = 1
0.75
12
9
=
1
1
1
=
0.25
14
3.5
=
Empirical ratio = C
3
H
4
N
Empirical formula mass = (3 12) + (4 1) + 14 = 54
n =
Mass Formula Empirical
Mass Molecular
=
2
54
108
=
Thus, molecular formula of the compound
= (Empirical formula)
2
= (C
3
H
4
N)
2
= C
6
H
8
N
2
Ex.21 A compound on analysis, was found to have the
following composition :
(i) Sodium = 14.31%, (ii) Sulphur = 9.97%, (iii) Oxygen
= 69.50%, (iv) Hydrogen = 6.22%. Calculate the
molecular formula of the compound assuming that
whole hydrogen in the compound is present as water
of crystallisation. Molecular mass of the compound
is 322.
Sol. Element Percentage
Atomic
mass
Relative Number
of atoms
Simplest ratio
Sodium 14.31 23 0.622
Sulphur 9.97 32 0.311
Hydrogen 6.22 1 6.22
Oxygen 69.50 16 4.34
2
0.311
0.622
=
1
0.311
0.311
=
20
0.311
6.22
=
14
0.311
4.34
=
=
23
31 . 14
=
1
22 . 6
=
16
50 . 69
=
32
97 . 9
PAGE # 27
The empirical formula = Na
2
SH
20
O
14
Empirical formula mass
= (2 23) + 32 + (20 1) + (14 16)
= 322
Molecular mass = 322
Molecular formula = Na
2
SH
20
O
14
Whole of the hydrogen is present in the form of water
of crystallisation. Thus, 10 water molecules are
present in the molecule.
So, molecular formula = Na
2
SO
4
. 10H
2
O
CONCENTRATION OF SOLUTIONS
(a) Strength in g/L :
The strength of a solution is defined as the amount of
the solute in grams present in one litre (or dm
3
) of the
solution, and hence is expressed in g/litre or g/dm
3
.
Strength in g/L =
litre in solution of Volume
gram in solute of Weight
(b) Molarity :
Molarity of a solution is defined as the number of
moles of the solute dissolved per litre (or dm
3
) of
solution. It is denoted by M. Mathematically,
M =
litre in solution the of Volume
solute of moles of Number
litre in solution of Volume
solute of Mass Molecular gram/Gram in solute of Mass
M can be calculated from the strength as given below :
M =
solute of mass Molecular
litre per grams in Strength
If w gram of the solute is present in V cm
3
of a given
solution , then
M =
mass Molecular
w

V
1000
e.g. a solution of sulphuric acid having 4.9 grams of it
dissolved in 500 cm
3
of solution will have its molarity,
M =
mass Molecular
w

V
1000
M =
98
4.9

500
1000
= 0.1
(c) Formality :
In case of ionic compounds like NaCl, Na
2
CO
3
etc.,
formality is used in place of molarity. The formality of
a solution is defined as the number of gram formula
masses of the solute dissolved per litre of the
solution. It is represented by the symbol F. The term
formula mass is used in place of molecular mass
because ionic compounds exist as ions and not as
molecules. Formula mass is the sum of the atomic
masses of the atoms in the formula of the compound.
litre in solution of Volume
solute of Mass la gram/Formu in solute of Mass
(d) Normality :
Normality of a solution is defined as the number of
gram equivalents of the solute dissolved per litre (dm
3
)
of given solution. It is denoted by N.
Mathematically,
N =
litre in solution the of Volume
solute of s equivalent gram of Number
N =
litre in solution the of Volume
solute of weight equivalent / gram in solute of Weight
N can be calculated from the strength as given below :
N =
solute of mass Equivalent
litre per grams in Strength
=
E
S
If w gram of the solute is present in V cm
3
of a given
solution.
N =
solute the of mass Equivalent
w

V
1000
e.g. A solution of sulphuric acid having 0.49 gram of
it dissolved in 250 cm
3
of solution will have its
normality,
N =
solute the of mass Equivalent
w

V
1000
N =
49
0.49

250
1000
= 0.04
(Eq. mass of sulphuric acid = 49).

Solution Semi
normal
Deci
normal
Centi
normal
Normality
10
1
100
1
2
1
Some Important Formulae :
(i) Milli equivalent of substance = N V
where , N normality of solution
V Volume of solution in mL
(ii) If weight of substance is given,
milli equivalent (NV) =
E
1000 w
Where, W Weight of substance in gram
E Equivalent weight of substance
(iii) S = N E
S Strength in g/L
N Normality of solution
E Equivalent weight
(iv) Calculation of normality of mixture :
Ex.22 100 ml of
10
N
HCl is mixed with 50 ml of
5
N
H
2
SO
4
.
Find out the normality of the mixture.
Sol. Milli equivalent of HCl + milli equivalent H
2
SO
4
= milli equivalent of mixture
N
1
V
1
+ N
2
V
2
= N
3
V
3
{ where, V
3
=V
1
+ V
2
)
= |
.
|

\
|
+ |
.
|

\
|
50
5
1
100
10
1
N
3
150
N
3
=
150
20
=
15
2
= 0.133
PAGE # 28
Ex.23 100 ml of
10
N
HCl is mixed with 25 ml of
5
N
NaOH.
Find out the normality of the mixture.
Sol. Milli equivalent of HCl milli equivalent of NaOH
= milli equivalent of mixture
N
1
V
1
N
2
V
2
= N
3
V
3
{ where, V
3
=V
1
+ V
2
)
|
.
|

\
|
|
.
|

\
|
25
5
1
100
10
1
= N
3
125
N
3
=
25
1
Note :
1 milli equivalent of an acid neutralizes 1 milli
equivalent of a base.
(e) Molality :
Molality of a solution is defined as the number of
moles of the solute dissolved in 1000 grams of the
solvent. It is denoted by m.
Mathematically,
m =
gram in solvent the of Weight
solute the of moles of Number
1000 m can
be calculated from the strength as given below :
m =
solute of mass Molecular
solvent of gram 1000 per Strength
If w gram of the solute is dissolved in W gram of the
solvent then
m =
solute the of mass Mol.
w

W
1000
e.g. A solution of anhydrous sodium carbonate
(molecular mass = 106) having 1.325 grams of it,
dissolved in 250 gram of water will have its molality -
m =
250
1000
106
1.325
= 0.05
Note :
Relationship Between Normality and Molarity of a
Solution :
Normality of an acid = Molarity Basicity
Normality of base = Molarity Acidity
Ex.24 Calculate the molarity and normality of a solution
containing 0.5 g of NaOH dissolved in 500 cm
3
of solvent.
Sol. Weight of NaOH dissolved = 0.5 g
Volume of the solution = 500 cm
3
(i) Calculation of molarity :
Molecular weight of NaOH = 23 + 16 + 1 = 40
Molarity =
litre in solution of Volume
solute of weight molecular solute/ of Weight
=
500/1000
0.5/40
= 0.025
(ii) Calculation of normality :
Normality
=
litre in solution of Volume
solute of weight equivalent solute/ of Weight
=
500/1000
0.5/40
= 0.025
Ex.25 Find the molarity and molality of a 15% solution
of H
2
SO
4
(density of H
2
SO
4
solution = 1.02 g/cm
3
)
(Atomic mass : H = 1u, O = 16u , S = 32 u)
Sol. 15% solution of H
2
SO
4
means 15g of H
2
SO
4
are
present in 100g of the solution i.e.
Wt. of H
2
SO
4
dissolved = 15 g
Weight of the solution = 100 g
Density of the solution = 1.02 g/cm
3
(Given)
Calculation of molality :
Weight of solution = 100 g
Weight of H
2
SO
4
= 15 g
Wt. of water (solvent) = 100 15 = 85 g
Molecular weight of H
2
SO
4
= 98
15 g H
2
SO
4
=
98
15
= 0.153 moles
Thus ,85 g of the solvent contain 0.153 moles .
1000 g of the solvent contain=
85
0.153
1000 = 1.8 mole
Hence ,the molality of H
2
SO
4
solution = 1.8 m
Calculation of molarity :
15 g of H
2
SO
4
= 0.153 moles
Vol. of solution =
solution of Density
solution of Wt.
=
1.02
100
= 98.04 cm
3
This 98.04 cm
3
of solution contain H
2
SO
4
= 0.153
mol es
1000 cm
3
of solution contain H
2
SO
4
=
98.04
0.153
1000 = 1.56 moles
Hence the molarity of H
2
SO
4
solution = 1.56 M
(f) Mole Fraction :
The ratio between the moles of solute or solvent to
the total moles of solution is called mole fraction.
mole fraction of solute =
N n
n
solution of Moles
solute of Moles
+
=
=
W/M w/m
w/m
+
Mole fraction of solvent =
N n
N
solution of Moles
solvent of Moles
+
=
=
W/M w/m
W/M
+
where,
n number of moles of solute
N number of moles of solvent
m molecular weight of solute
M molecular weight of solvent
w weight of solute
W weight of solvent
PAGE # 29
Ex.26 Find out the mole fraction of solute in 10% (by weight)
urea solution.
weight of solute (urea) = 10 g
weight of solution = 100 g
weight of solvent (water) = 100 10 = 90g
mole fraction of solute =
solution of Moles
solute of Moles
=
W/M w/m
w/m
+
=
18 / 90 60 / 10
60 / 10
+
= 0.032
Note :
Sum of mole fraction of solute and solvent is always
equal to one.
STOICHIOMETRY
(a) Quantitative Relations in Chemical
Reactions :
Stoichiometry is the calculation of the quantities of
reactants and products involved in a chemical
reaction.
It is based on the chemical equation and on the
relationship between mass and moles.
N
2
(g) + 3H
2
(g) 2NH
3
(g)
A chemical equation can be interpreted as follows -
1 molecule N
2
+ 3 molecules H
2
2 molecules
NH
3
(Molecular interpretation)
1 mol N
2
+ 3 mol H
2
2 mol NH
3
(Molar interpretation)
28 g N
2
+ 6 g H
2
34 g NH
3
(Mass interpretation)
1 volume N
2
+ 3 volume H
2
2 volume NH
3
(Volume interpretation)
Thus, calculations based on chemical equations are
divided into four types -
(i) Calculations based on mole-mole relationship.
(ii) Calculations based on mass-mass relationship.
(iii) Calculations based on mass-volume relationship.
(iv) Cal cul ati ons based on vol ume -vol ume
relationship.
(i) Calculations based on mole-mole relationship :
In such calculations, number of moles of reactants
are given and those of products are required.
Conversely, if number of moles of products are given,
then number of moles of reactants are required.
Ex.27 Oxygen is prepared by catalytic decomposition
of potassi um chlorate (KCl O
3
). Decompositi on
of potassium chlorate gives potassium chloride
(KCl) and oxygen (O
2
). How many moles and how
many grams of KClO
3
are required to produce
2.4 mole O
2
.
Sol. Decomposition of KClO
3
takes place as,
2KClO
3
(s) 2KCl(s) + 3O
2
(g)
2 mole KClO
3
3 mole O
2
3 mole O
2
formed by 2 mole KClO
3
2.4 mol e O
2
wi l l be formed by
|
.
|

\
|
4 . 2
3
2
mole KClO
3
= 1.6 mole KClO
3
Mass of KClO
3
= Number of moles molar mass
= 1.6 122.5 = 196 g
(ii) Calculations based on mass-mass relationship:
In making necessary calculation, following steps are
followed -
(a) Write down the balanced chemical equation.
(b) Write down theoretical amount of reactants and
products involved in the reaction.
(c) The unknown amount of substance is calculated
using unitary method.
Ex.28 Calculate the mass of CaO that can be prepared
by heating 200 kg of limestone CaCO
3
which is
95% pure.
Sol. Amount of pure CaCO
3
=
200
100
95

= 190 kg
= 190000 g
CaCO
3
(s) CaO(s) + CO
2
(g)
1 mole CaCO
3
1 mole CaO
100 g CaCO
3
56 g CaO
100 g CaCO
3
give 56 g CaO
190000 g CaCO
3
will give=
100
56
190000 g CaO
= 106400 g = 106.4 kg
Ex.29 Chlorine is prepared in the laboratory by treating
manganese di oxi de (MnO
2
) wi th aqueous
hydrochloric acid according to the reaction -
MnO
2
+ 4HCl MnCl
2
+ Cl
2
+ 2H
2
O
How many grams of HCl will react with 5 g MnO
2
?
Sol. 1 mole MnO
2
reacts with 4 mole HCl
or 87 g MnO
2
react with 146 g HCl
5 g MnO
2
will react with =
87
146
5 g HCl = 8.39 g HCl
Ex.30 How many grams of oxygen are required to burn
completely 570 g of octane ?
Sol. Balanced equation
2C H + 25O
8 18 2
16CO + 18H O
2 2
2 mole
2 114
25 mole
25 32
First method : For burning 2 114 g of the octane,
oxygen required = 25 32 g
For burning 1 g of octane, oxygen required =
114 2
32 25

g
Thus, for burning 570 g of octane, oxygen required
=
114 2
32 25

570 g = 2000 g
PAGE # 30
Mole Method : Number of moles of octane in 570
grams
114
570
= 5.0
For burning 2.0 moles of octane, oxygen required
= 25 mol = 25 32 g
For burning 5 moles of octane, oxygen required
=
0 . 2
32 25
5.0 g = 2000 g
Proportion Method : Let x g of oxygen be required for
burning 570 g of octane. It is known that 2 114 g of
the octane requires 25 32 g of oxygen; then, the
proportion.
e tan oc g 114 2
oxygen g 32 25


=
e tan oc g 570
x
x =
114 2
570 32 25


= 2000 g
Ex.31 How many kilograms of pure H
2
SO
4
could be
obtained from 1 kg of iron pyrites (FeS
2
) according to
the following reactions ?
4FeS
2
+ 11O
2
2Fe
2
O
3
+ 8SO
2
2SO
2
+ O
2
2SO
3
SO
3
+ H
2
O H
2
SO
4
Sol. Final balanced equation,
4FeS + 15O + 8H O
2 2 2
2Fe O + 8H SO
2 3 2 4
8 mole
8 98 g
4 mole
4 120 g
4 120 g of FeS
2
yield H
2
SO
4
= 8 98 g
1000 g of FeS
2
will yield H
2
SO
4
=
120 4
98 8

1000
= 1633.3 g
(iii) Calculations involving mass-volume relationship :
In such calculations masses of reactants are given
and volume of the product is required and vice-versa.
1 mole of a gas occupies 22.4 litre volume at STP.
Mass of a gas can be related to volume according to
the following gas equation -
PV = nRT
PV =
m
w
RT
Ex-32. What volume of NH
3
can be obtained from 26.75 g
of NH
4
Cl at 27C and 1 atmosphere pressure.
Sol. The balanced equation is -
NH Cl(s)
4 NH (g) + HCl(g)
3
1 mol
1 mol
53.5 g
53.5 g NH
4
Cl give 1 mole NH
3
26.75 g NH
4
Cl will give
5 . 53
1
26.75 mole NH
3
= 0.5 mole
PV = nRT
1 V = 0.5 0.0821 300
V = 12.315 litre
Ex-33 What quantity of copper (II) oxide will react with
2.80 litre of hydrogen at STP ?
Sol.
CuO + H
2
Cu + H O
2
1 mol
79.5 g
1 mol
22.4 litre at NTP
22.4 litre of hydrogen at STP reduce CuO = 79.5 g
2.80 litre of hydrogen at STP will reduce CuO
=
4 . 22
5 . 79
2.80 g = 9.93 g
Ex-34 Calculate the volume of carbon dioxide at STP
evolved by strong heating of 20 g calcium carbonate.
Sol. The balanced equation is -
CaCO
3
CaO + CO
2
1 mol
= 22.4 litre at STP
1 mol
100 g
100 g of CaCO
3
evolve carbon dioxide = 22.4 litre
20 g CaCO
3
will evolve carbon dioxide
=
100
4 . 22
20 = 4.48 litre
Ex.35 Calculate the volume of hydrogen liberated at 27C
and 760 mm pressure by heating 1.2 g of magnesium
with excess of hydrochloric acid.
Sol. The balanced equation is
Mg + 2HCl MgCl + H
2 2
1 mol

24 g
24 g of Mg liberate hydrogen = 1 mole
1.2 g Mg will liberate hydrogen = 0.05 mole
PV = nRT
1 V = 0.05 0.0821 300
V = 1.2315 litre
(iv) Calculations based on volume volume
relationship :
These calculations are based on two laws :
(i) Avogadros law (ii) Gay-Lussacs Law
e.g.
N (g) + 3H (g)
2 2 2NH (g) (Avogadro's law)
3
2 mol
2 22.4 L
1 mol
1 22.4 L
3 mol
3 22.4 L
(under si mi l ar condi ti ons of temperature and
pressure, equal moles of gases occupy equal
volumes)
N (g) + 3H (g)
2 2 2NH (g)
3
1 vol 3 vol
2 vol
(Gay- Lussac's Law)
(under si mi l ar condi ti ons of temperature and
pressure, ratio of coefficients by mole is equal to ratio
of coefficient by volume).
Ex-36 One litre mixture of CO and CO
2
is taken. This is
passed through a tube containing red hot charcoal.
The volume now becomes 1.6 litre. The volume are
measured under the same conditions. Find the
composition of mixture by volume.
Sol. Let there be x mL CO in the mixture , hence, there will
be (1000 x) mL CO
2
. The reaction of CO
2
with red
hot charcoal may be given as -
CO (g) + C(s)
2 2CO(g)
2 vol.
2(1000 x)
1 vol.
(1000 x)
Total volume of the gas becomes = x + 2(1000 x)
x + 2000 2x = 1600
x = 400 mL
volume of CO = 400 mL and volume of CO
2
= 600 mL
PAGE # 31
Ex-37 What volume of air containing 21% oxygen by volume
is required to completely burn 1kg of carbon containing
100% combustible substance ?
Sol. Combustion of carbon may be given as,
C(s) + O (g)
2
CO (g)
2
1 mol
12 g
1 mol
32 g
12 g carbon requires 1 mole O
2
for complete
combustion
1000 g carbon will require 1000
12
1
mole O
2
for
combustion, i.e. , 83.33 mole O
2
Volume of O
2
at STP = 83.33 22.4 litre
= 1866.66 litre
21 litre O
2
is present in 100 litre air
1866.66 litre O
2
will be present in
21
100
1866.66 litre air
= 8888.88 litre or 8.89 10
3
litre
Ex-38 An impure sample of calcium carbonate contains
80% pure calcium carbonate 25 g of the impure
sample reacted with excess of hydrochloric acid.
Calculate the volume of carbon dioxide at STP
obtained from this sample.
Sol. 100 g of impure calcium carbonate contains = 80 g
pure calcium carbonate
25 g of impure calcium carbonate sample will contain
=
100
80
25 = 20 g pure calcium carbonate
The desired equation is -
CaCO + 2HCl
3
CaCl + CO + H O
2 2 2
1 mol
100 g
22.4 litre
at STP
100 g pure CaCO
3
liberate = 22.4 litre CO
2
.
20 g pure CaCO
3
liberate =
20
100
4 . 22

= 4.48 litre CO
2
VOLUMETRIC CALCULATIONS
The quantitative analysis in chemistry is primarily
carried out by two methods, viz, volumetric analysis
and gravimetric analysis.In the first method the mass
of a chemical species is measured by measurement
of volume, whereas in the second method it is deter-
mined by taking the weight.
The strength of a solution in volumetric analysis is
generally expressed in terms of normality, i.e., num-
ber of equivalents per litre but since the volume in the
volumetric analysis is generally taken in millilitres
(mL), the normality is expressed by milliequivalents
per millilitre.
USEFUL FORMULAE FOR
VOLUMETRIC CALCULATIONS
(i) milliequivalents = normality volume in millilitres.
(ii) At the end point of titration, the two titrants, say 1
and 2, have the same number of milliequivalents,
i.e., N
1
V
1
= N
2
V
2
, volume being in mL.
(iii) No. of equivalents =
1000
. e . m
.
(iv) No. of equivalents for a gas =
) STP at . eq 1 of . vol ( volume equivalent
STP at Volume
(v) Strength in grams per litre = normality equivalent
weight.
(vi) (a) Normality = molarity factor relating mol. wt.
and eq. wt.
(b) No. of equivalents = no. of moles factor relat
ing mol. wt. and eq. wt.
Ex.39 Calculate the number of milli equivalent of H
2
SO
4
present in 10 mL of N/2 H
2
SO
4
solution.
Sol. Number of m.e. = normality volume in mL =
2
1
10 = 5.
Ex.40 Calculate the number of m.e. and equivalents of
NaOH present in 1 litre of N/10 NaOH solution.
Sol. Number of m.e. = normality volume in mL
=
10
1
1000 = 100
Number of equivalents =
1000
. e . m of . no
=
1000
100
= 0.10
Ex.41 Calculate number of m.e. of the acids present in
(i) 100 mL of 0.5 M oxalic acid solution.
(ii) 50 mL of 0.1 M sulphuric acid solution.
Sol. Normality = molarity basicity of acid
(i) Normality of oxalic acid = 0.5 2 = 1 N
m.e. of oxalic acid = normality vol. in mL = 1 100
= 100.
(ii) Normality of sulphuric acid = 0.1 2 = 0.2 N
m.e. of sulphuric acid = 0.2 50 = 10
Ex.42 A 100 mL sol uti on of KOH contai ns 10
milliequivalents of KOH. Calculate its strength in nor-
mality and grams/litre.
Sol. Normality =
mL in volume
. e . m of . no
=
1 . 0
100
10
=
strength of the solution = N/10
Again, strength in grams/litre = normality eq. wt.
= 56
10
1
= 5.6 gram/litre.
|
|
.
|

\
|
= = = 56
1
56
acidity
. wt molecular
KOH of . wt . eq
PAGE # 32
Ex.43 What is strength in gram/litre of a solution of H
2
SO
4
,
12 cc of which neutral ises 15 cc of
10
N
NaOH
solution ?
Sol. m.e. of NaOH solution =
10
1
15 = 1.5
m.e. of 12 cc of H
2
SO
4
= 1.5
normality of H
2
SO
4
=
12
5 . 1
Strength in grams/litre = normality eq. wt.
=
12
5 . 1
49 grams/litre
= 6.125 grams/litre.
|
|
.
|

\
|
= = = 49
2
98
basicity
wt. molecular
SO H of wt. eq.
4 2
Ex.44 What weight of KMnO
4
will be required to prepare
250 mL of its
10
N
solution if eq. wt. of KMnO
4
is 31.6 ?
Sol. Equivalent weight of KMnO
4
= 31.6
Normality of solution (N) =
10
1
Volume of solution (V) = 250 ml
1000
NEV
W =
; W =
1000
250 6 . 31
10
1

79 . 0
40
6 . 31
=
g
Ex.45 100 mL of 0.6 N H
2
SO
4
and 200 mL of 0.3 N HCl
were mixed together. What will be the normality of the
resulting solution ?
Sol. m.e. of H
2
SO
4
solution = 0.6 100 = 60
m.e. of HCl solution = 0.3 200 = 60
m.e. of 300 mL (100 + 200) of acidic mixture
= 60 + 60 = 120.
Normality of the resulting solution =
. vol total
. e . m
=
300
120
=
5
2
N.
Ex.46 A sample of Na
2
CO
3
. H
2
O weighing 0.62 g is added
to 100 mL of 0.1 N H
2
SO
4
. Will the resulting solution
be acidic, basic or neutral ?
Sol. Equivalents of Na
2
CO
3
. H
2
O =
62
62 . 0
= 0.01
|
.
|

\
|
= = 62
2
124
O H . CO Na of . wt . eq
2 3 2
m.e. of Na
2
CO
3
. H
2
O = 0.01 1000 = 10
m.e. of H
2
SO
4
= 0.1 100 = 10
Since the m.e. of Na
2
CO
3
. H
2
O is equal to that of H
2
SO
4
,
the resulting solution will be neutral.
(a) Introduction :
Volumetric analysis is a method of quantitative
analysis. It involves the measurement of the volume
of a known solution required to bring about the
completion of the reaction with a measured volume
of the unknown solution whose concentration or
strength is to be determined. By knowing the volume
of the known solution, the concentration of the solution
under investigation can be calculated. Volumetric
analysis is also termed as titrimetric analysis.
(b) Important terms used in volumetric
analysis :
(i) Titration : The process of addition of the known
solution from the burette to the measured volume of
solution of the substance to be estimated until the
reaction between the two is just complete, is termed
as titration. Thus, a titration involves two solutions:
(a) Unknown solution and (b) Known solution or stan-
dard solution.
(ii) Titrant : The reagent or substance whose solu-
tion is employed to estimate the concentration of un-
known solution is termed titrant. There are two types
of reagents or titrants:
(A) Primary titrants : These reagents can be
accurately weighed and their solutions are not to be
standardised before use. Oxalic acid, potassium
dichromate, silver nitrate, copper sulphate, ferrous
ammonium sulphate, sodium thiosulphates etc., are
the examples of primary titrants.
(B) Secondary titrants : These reagents cannot
accurately weighed and their solutions are to be
standardi sed before use. Sodi um hydroxi de,
potassium hydroxide, hydrochloric acid, sulphuric
acid, iodine, potassium permanganate etc. are the
examples of secondary titrants.
(iii) Standard solution : The solution of exactly known
concentration of the titrant is called the standard
solution.
(iv) Titrate : The solution consisting the substance to
be estimated is termed unknown solution. The
substance is termed titrate.
(v) Equivalence point : The point at which the reagent
(titrant) and the substance (titrate) under investigation
are chemically equivalent is termed equivalence point
or end point.
(vi) Indicator : It is the auxiliary substance used for
physical (visual) detection of the completion of titration
or detection of end point is termed as indicator.
Indicators show change in colour or turbidity at the
stage of completion of titration.
(c) Concentraion representation of solution
(A) Strength of solution : Grams of solute dissolved
per litre of solution is called strength of solution'
(B) Parts Per Million (ppm) : Grams of solute
di ssol ved per 10
6
grams of sol vent i s cal l ed
concentration of solution in the unit of Parts Per Million
(ppm). This unit is used to represent hardness of
water and concentration of very dilute solutions.
(C) Percentage by mass : Grams of solute dissolved
per 100 grams of solution is called percentage by
mass.
(D) Percentage by volume : Millilitres of solute per
100 mL of solution is called percentage by volume.
For example, if 25 mL ethyl alcohol is diluted with
water to make 100 mL solution then the solution thus
obtained is 25% ethyl alcohol by volume.
(E) Mass by volume percentage :Grams of solute
present per 100 mL of solution is called percentage
mass by volume.
For example, let 25 g glucose is dissolved in water to
make 100 mL solution then the solution is 25% mass
by volume glucose.
PAGE # 33
(d) Classification of reactions involved in
volumetric analysis
(A) Neutralisation reactions
The reaction in which acids and bases react to form
salt called neutralisation.
e.g., HCI + NaOH NaCI + H
2
O
H
+
(acid)
+ OH

(base)
H
2
O (feebly ionised)
The titration based on neutralisation is call ed
acidimetry or alkalimetry.
(B) Oxidation-reduction reactions
The reactions involving simultaneous loss and gain
of electrons among the reacting species are called
oxidation reduction or redox reactions, e.g., let us
consider oxidation of ferrous sulphate (Fe
2+
ion) by
potassium permanganate (MnO
4

ion) in acidic
medium.
MnO
4

+ 8H
+
+ 5e

Mn
2+
+ 4H
2
O
(Gain of electrons or reduction)
5 [Fe
2+
Fe
3+
+ e

]
(Loss of electrons or oxidation)
MnO
4

+ 5Fe
2+
+ 8H
+
Mn
2+
+ 5Fe
3+
+ 4H
2
O
________________________________________________________________
In the above reaction, MnO
4

acts as oxidising agent


and Fe
2+
acts as reducing agent.
The titrations involving redox reactions are called redox
titrations. These titrations are also called according
to the reagent used in the titration, e.g., iodometric,
cerimetric, permanganometric and dichromometric
titrations
(C) Precipitation reactions :
A chemical reaction in which cations and anions
combine to form a compound of very low solubility (in
the form of resi due or preci pi tate), i s cal l ed
precipitation.
BaCl
2
+ Na
2
SO
4
BaSO
4
+ 2NaCl
(white precipitate)
The titrations involving precipitation reactions are
called precipitation titrations.
(D) Complex formation reactions :
These are ion combination reactions in which a
sol ubl e sl i ghtl y di ssoci ated compl ex i on or
compound is formed.
Complex compounds retain their identity in the
solution and have the properties of the constituent
ions and molecules.
e.g. CuSO
4
+ 4NH
3
[Cu(NH
3
)
4
]SO
4
(complex compound)
AgNO
3
+ 2KCN K[Ag(CN)
2
] + KNO
3
(complex compound)
2CuSO
4
+ K
4
[Fe(CN)
6
] Cu
2
[Fe(CN)
6
] + 2K
2
SO
4
(complex compound)
The titrations involving complex formation reactions
are called complexometric titrations.
The determination of concentration of bases by
titration with a standard acid is called acidimetry and
the determination of concentration of acid by titration
with a standard base is called alkalimetry.
The substances which give different colours with
acids and base are called acid base indicators. These
indicators are used in the visual detection of the
equivalence point in acid-base titrations.
The aci d-base i ndi cators are al so cal l ed pH
indicators because their colour change according to
the pH of the solution.
In the selection of indicator for a titration, following
two informations are taken into consideration :
(i) pH range of indicator
(ii) pH change near the equivalence point in the
titration.
The indicator whose pH range is included in the pH
change of the solution near the equivalence point, is
taken as suitable indicator for the titration.
(i) Strong acid-strong base titration : In the titration
of HCl with NaOH, the equivalence point lies in the
pH change of 410. Thus, methyl orange, methyl red
and phenolphthalein will be suitable indicators.
(ii) Weak acid-strong base titration : In the titration
of CH
3
COOH with NaOH the equivalence point lies
between 7.5 and 10. Hence, phenolphthalein (8.3
10) will be the suitable indicator.
(iii) Weak base-strong acid titration : In the titration
of NH
4
OH (weak base) against HCl (strong acid) the
pH at equivalence point is about 6.5 and 4. Thus,
methyl orange (3.14.4) or methyl red (4.26.3) will
be suitable indicators.
(iv) Weak acid-weak base titration : In the titration of
a weak acid (CH
3
COOH) with weak base (NH
4
OH)
the pH at the equivalence point is about 7, i.e., lies
between 6.5 and 7.5 but no sharp change in pH is
observed in these titrations. Thus, no simple indica-
tor can be employed for the detection of the equiva-
lence point.
(v) Titration of a salt of a weak acid and a strong
base with strong acid:
H
2
CO
3
+ 2NaOH Na
2
CO
3
+ 2H
2
O
Weak acid Strong base
Na
2
CO
3
when titrated with HCl, the following two
stages are involved :
Na
2
CO
3
+ HCl NaHCO
3
+ NaCl (First stage)
pH = 8.3, near equivalence point
NaHCO
3
+ HCl NaCl + H
2
CO
3
(Second stage)
pH = 4, near equivalence point
For first stage, phenolphthalein and for second stage,
methyl orange will be the suitable indicator.
PAGE # 34
TITRATION OF MIXTURE OF NaOH, Na
2
CO
3
AND
NaHCO
3
BY STRONG ACID LIKE HCl
In this titration the following indicators are mainly used :
(i) Phenolphthalein (weak organic acid) : It shows
colour change in the pH range (8 10)
(ii) Methyl orange (weak organic base) : It shows
colour change in the pH range (3.1 4.4). Due to
lower pH range, it indicates complete neutralisation
of whole of the base.

Let for complete neutralisation of Na
2
CO
3
, NaHCO
3
and NaOH, x,y and z mL of standard HCl are required. The
titration of the mixture may be carried by two methods as summarised below :
Mixture Phenlphthalein Methyl orange Phenolphthalein Methyl orange
from from from after first end
beginning beginning point
1. NaOH z + (x/2) (x + z) z + x/2 x/2 (for remaining 50%
+ Na CO
2 3
beginning
Na CO )
2. NaOH z + 0 (z + y) z + 0 y (for remaining 100%
+ NaHCO NaHCO
3. Na CO (x/2) + 0 (x + y) (x/2) + 0 x/2 + y (for remaining 50%
+ NaHCO of Na CO and 100%
NaHCO are indicated)
2 3
3 3
2 3
3 2 3
3
Volume of HCl
used with
Volume of HCl used
An indicator is a substance which is used to deter-
mine the end point in a titration. In acid-base titra-
tions organic substances (weak acids or weak bases)
are generally used as indicators. They change their
colour within a certain pH range. The colour change
and the pH range of some common indicators are
tabulated below:
________________________________________
Indicator pH range Colour
change
________________________________________
Methyl orange 3.2 4.5 Orange to red
Methyl red 4.4 6.5 Red to yellow
Litmus 5.5 7.5 Red to blue
Phenol red 6.8 8.4 Yellow to red
Phenolphthalein 8.3 10.5 Colourless to pink
________________________________________
Theory of acid-base indicators : Two theories have
been proposed to explain the change of colour of
acid-base indicators with change in pH.
1. Ostwald's theory:
According to this theory
(a) The colour change is due to ionisation of the acid-
base indicator. The unionised form has different
colour than the ionised form.
(b) The ionisation of the indicator is largely affected in
acids and bases as it is either a weak acid or a weak
base. In case, the indicator is a weak acid, its
ionisation is very much low in acids due to common
ions while it is fairly ionised in alkalies. Similarly if the
indicator is a weak base, its ionisation is large in
acids and low in alkalies due to common ions.
Considering two important indicators phenolphtha-
lein (a weak acid) and methyl orange (a weak base),
Ostwald's theory can be illustrated as follows:
PAGE # 35
Phenolphthalein: It can be represented as HPh. It
ionises in solution to a small extent as:
HPh H
+
+ Ph

Colourless Pink
Applying law of mass action,
K =
] HPh [
] Ph ][ H [
+
The undissociated molecules of phenolphthalein are
colourless while ph

ions are pink in colour. In pres-


ence of an acid, the ionisation of HPh is practically
negligible as the equilibrium shifts to left hand side
due to high concentration of H
+
ions. Thus, the solu-
tion would remain colourless. On addition of alkali,
hydrogen ions are removed by OH

ions in the form of


water molecules and the equilibrium shifts to right
hand side. Thus, the concentration of ph

ions in-
creases in solution and they impart pink colour to the
solution.
Let us derive Hendetson's equation for an indicator
HIn + H
2
O H
3
+
O + In

'Acid form' 'Base form'


Conjugate acid-base pair
K
In
=
] HIn [
] O H ][ In [
3
+
K
In
= Ionization constant of indicator
[H
3
+
O] = K
In

] In [
] HIn [

pH = log
10
[H
3
+
O] = log
10
[K
In
] log
10
] In [
] HIn [

pH = pK
In
+ log
10

] HIn [
] In [

(Henderson's equation for
indicator)
At equivalence point ;
[In

] = [HIn] and pH = pK
In
Methyl orange : It is a very weak base and can be
represented as MeOH. It is ionised in solution to give
Me
+
and OH

ions.
MeOH Me
+
+OH

Orange Red
Applying law of mass action,
K =
] MeOH [
] OH ][ Me [
+
In presence of an acid, OH

ions are removed in the


form of water molecules and the above equilibrium
shifts to right hand side. Thus, sufficient Me
+
ions are
produced which impart red colour to the solution. On
addition of alkali, the concentration of OH

ions in-
creases in the solution and the equilibrium shifts to
left hand side, i.e., the ionisation of MeOH is practi-
cally negligible. Thus, the solution acquires the colour
of unionised methyl orange molecules, i.e. orange.
This theory also explains the reason why phenol-
phthalein is not a suitable indicator for titrating a weak
base against strong acid. The OH

ions furnished by
a weak base are not sufficient to shift the equilibrium
towards right hand side considerably, i.e., pH is not
reached to 8.3. Thus, the solution does not attain
pink colour. Similarly, it can be explained why methyl
orange is not a suitable indicator for the titration of
weak acid with strong base.
SOLUBILITY
The solubility of a solute in a solution is always
expressed with respect to the saturated solution.
(a) Definition :
The maximum amount of the solute which can be
dissolved in 100g (0.1kg) of the solvent to form a
saturated solution at a given temperature.
Suppose w gram of a solute is dissolved in W gram
of a solvent to make a saturated solution at a fixed
temperature and pressure. The solubility of the solute
will be given by -
W
w
100 =
solvent the of Mass
solute the of Mass
100
For example, the solubility of potassium chloride in
water at 20C and 1 atm. is 34.7 g per 100g of water.
This means that under normal conditions 100 g of
water at 20C and 1 atm. cannot dissolve more than
34.7g of KCl.
(b) Effect of Temperature and Pressure on
Solubility of a Solids :
The solubility of a substance in liquids generally
increases with rise in temperature but hardly changes
with the change in pressure. The effect of temperature
depends upon the heat energy changes which
accompany the process.
Note :
If heat energy is needed or absorbed in the process,
it is of endothermic nature. If heat energy is evolved
or released in the process, it is of exothermic nature.
(i) Effect of temperature on endothermic dissolution
process : Most of the salts like sodium chloride,
potassium chloride, sodium nitrate, ammonium
chloride etc. dissolve in water with the absorption of
heat. In all these salts the solubility increases with
rise in temperature. This means that sodium chloride
becomes more soluble in water upon heating.
(ii) Effect of temperature on exothermic dissolution
process : Few salts like lithium carbonate, sodium
carbonate monohydrate, ceri um sul phate etc.
dissolve in water with the evolution of heat. This
means that the process is of exothermic nature. In
these salts the solubility in water decreases with rise
in temperature.
PAGE # 36
Note :
1. While expressing the solubility, the solution must
be saturated but for expressing concentration (mass
percent or volume percent), the solution need not to
be saturated in nature.
2. While expressing solubility, mass of solvent is
considered but for expressing concentration the
mass or volume of the solution may be taken into
consideration.
(c) Ef fect of Temperature on the Solubility
of a Gas
(i) The solubility of a gas in a liquid decreases with
the rise in temperature.
(ii) The solubility of gases in liquids increases on
increasing the pressure and decreases on decreas-
ing the pressure.
SAMPLE PROBLEMS
Ex.47 12 grams of potassium sulphate dissolves in
75 grams of water at 60C. What is the solubility
of potassium sulphate in water at that temperature ?
Sol. Solubility = 100
solvent of mass
solute of mass

=
75
12
100 = 16 g
Thus, the sol ubi l i ty of potassi um sul phate i n
water is 16 g at 60C.
Ex.48 4 g of a solute are dissolved in 40 g of water to
form a saturated solution at 25C. Calculate the
solubility of the solute.
Sol. Solubility =
solvent of Mass
solute of Mass
100
Mass of solute = 4 g
Mass of solvent = 40 g
Solubility =
40
4
100 = 10 g
Ex.49 (a) What mass of potassium chloride would be
needed to form a saturated solution in 50 g of
water at 298 K ? Given that solubility of the salt is
46g per 100g at this temperature.
(b) What will happen if this solution is cooled ?
Sol. (a) Mass of potassium chloride in 100 g of water
in saturated solution = 46 g
Mass of potassium chloride in 50 g of water in
saturated solution.
=
100
46
(50g) = 23 g
(b) When the solution is cooled, the solubility of
salt in water will decrease. This means, that upon
cooling, it will start separating from the solution
in crystalline form.

EXERCISE
1. The solubility of K
2
SO
4
in water is 16 g at 50C. The
minimum amount of water required to dissolve 4 g
K
2
SO
4
is -
(A) 10 g (B) 25 g
(C) 50 g (D) 75 g
2. Molarity of H
2
SO
4
(density 1.8g/mL) is 18M. The
molality of this solution is -
(A)36 (B) 200
(C) 500 (D) 18
3. 8g of sulphur are burnt to form SO
2
, which is oxidised
by Cl
2
water. The solution is treated with BaCl
2
solution. The amount of BaSO
4
precipitated is -
(A) 1.0 mole (B) 0.5 mole
(C) 0.75 mole (D) 0.25 mole
4. In a compound A
x
B
y
-
(A) Mole of A = Mole of B = mole of A
x
B
y
(B) Eq. of A = Eq. of B = Eq. of A
x
B
y
(C) X mole of A = y mole of B = (x + y) mole of A
x
B
y
(D) X mole of A = y mole of B
5. The percentage of sodium in a breakfast cereal
labelled as 110 mg of sodium per 100 g of cereal is -
(A) 11% (B) 1.10%
(C) 0.110% (D) 110%
6. Two elements A (at. wt. 75) and B (at. wt. 16) combine
to yield a compound. The % by weight of A in the
compound was found to be 75.08. The empirical
formula of the compound is -
(A) A
2
B (B) A
2
B
3
(C) AB (D) AB
2
7. No. of oxalic acid molecules in 100 mL of 0.02 N
oxalic acid are -
(A) 6.023 10
20
(B) 6.023 10
21
(C) 6.023 10
22
(D) 6.023 10
23
8. Which of the following sample contains the maximum
number of atoms -
(A) 1 mg of C
4
H
10
(B) 1 mg of N
2
(C) 1 mg of Na (D) 1 mL of water
9. The total number of protons, electrons and neutrons
in 12 g of C
12
6
is -
(A) 1.084 10
25
(B) 6.022 10
23
(C) 6.022 10
22
(D) 18
10. 4.4 g of CO
2
and 2.24 litre of H
2
at STP are mixed in a
container. The total number of molecules present in
the container will be -
(A) 6.022 10
23
(B) 1.2044 10
23
(C) 2 mole (D) 6.023 10
24
PAGE # 37
11. Which is not a molecular formula ?
(A) C
6
H
12
O
6
(B) Ca(NO
3
)
2
(C) C
2
H
4
O
2
(D) N
2
O
12. The hydrated salt, Na
2
SO
4
. nH
2
O undergoes 55.9%
loss in weight on heating and becomes anhydrous.
The value of n will be -
(A) 5 (B) 3
(C) 7 (D) 10
13. Whi ch of the fol l owi ng mode of expressi ng
concentration is independent of temperature -
(A) Molarity (B) Molality
(C) Formality (D) Normality
14. The haemoglobin of the red blood corpuscles of most
of the mammals contains approximately 0.33% of
iron by weight. The molecular weight of haemoglobin
is 67,200. The number of iron atoms in each molecule
of haemoglobin is (Atomic weight of iron = 56) -
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
15. An oxide of metal have 20% oxygen, the eq. wt. of
metal oxide is -
(A) 32 (B) 40
(C) 48 (D) 52
16. How much water is to be added to dilute 10 mL of 10
N HCl to make it decinormal ?
(A) 990 mL (B) 1010 mL
(C) 100 mL (D) 1000 mL
17. The pair of compounds which cannot exist in solution is -
(A) NaHCO
3
and NaOH
(B) Na
2
SO
3
and NaHCO
3
(C) Na
2
CO
3
and NaOH
(D) NaHCO
3
and NaCl
18. If 250 mL of a solution contains 24.5 g H
2
SO
4
the
molarity and normality respectively are -
(A) 1 M, 2 N (B) 1M,0.5 N
(C) 0.5 M, 1N (D) 2M, 1N
19. The mole fraction of NaCl, in a solution containing 1
mole of NaCl in 1000 g of water is -
(A) 0.0177 (B) 0.001
(C) 0.5 (D) 0.244
20. 3.0 molal NaOH solution has a density of 1.110 g/
mL. The molarity of the solution is -
(A) 2.9732 (B) 3.05
(C) 3.64 (D) 3.0504
21. How many atoms are contained in a mole of Ca(OH)
2
-
(A) 30 6.02 10
23
atoms/mol
(B) 5 6.02 10
23
atoms/mol
(C) 6 6.02 10
23
atoms/mol
(D) None of these
22. Insul i n contai ns 3.4% sul phur. The mi ni mum
molecular weight of insulin is -
(A) 941.176 u (B) 944 u
(C) 945.27 u (D) None of these
23. Number of moles present in 1 m
3
of a gas at NTP are -
(A) 44.6 (B) 40.6
(C) 42.6 (D) 48.6
24. Weight of oxygen in Fe
2
O
3
and FeO is in the simple
ratio of -
(A) 3 : 2 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 3 : 1
25. 2.76 g of silver carbonate on being strongly heated
yield a residue weighing -
(A) 2.16g (B) 2.48 g
(C) 2.32 g (D) 2.64 g
26. How many gram of KCl would have to be dissolved in
60 g of H
2
O to give 20% by weight of solution -
(A) 15 g (B) 1.5 g
(C) 11.5 g (D) 31.5 g
27. When the same amount of zinc is treated separately
with excess of H
2
SO
4
and excess of NaOH, the ratio
of volumes of H
2
evolved is -
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 9 : 4
28. Amount of oxygen required for combustion of 1 kg of a
mixture of butane and isobutane is -
(A) 1.8 kg (B) 2.7 kg
(C) 4.5 kg (D) 3.58 kg
29. Rakesh needs 1.71 g of sugar (C
12
H
22
O
11
) to sweeten
his tea. What would be the number of carbon atoms
present in his tea ?
(A) 3.6 10
22
(B) 7.2 10
21
(C) 0.05 10
23
(D) 6.6 10
22
30. The total number of AlF
3
molecule in a sample of AlF
3
containing 3.01 10
23
ions of F

is -
(A) 9.0 10
24
(B) 3.0 10
24
(C) 7.5 10
23
(D)10
23
31. The volume occupied by one molecule of water
(density 1 g/cm
3
) is -
(A) 18 cm
3
(B) 22400 cm
3
(C) 6.023 10
23
(D) 3.0 10
23
cm
3
PAGE # 38
32. 224 mL of a triatomic gas weigh 1 g at 273 K and 1
atm. The mass of one atom of this gas is -
(A) 8.30 10
23
g (B) 2.08 10
23
g
(C) 5.53 10
23
g (D) 6.24 10
23
g
33. The percentage of P
2
O
5
in diammonium hydrogen
phosphate is -
(A) 77.58 (B) 46.96
(C) 53.78 (D) 23.48
34. The mole fraction of water in 20% (wt. /wt.) aqueous
solution of H
2
O
2
is -
(A)
68
77
(B)
77
68
(C)
80
20
(D)
20
80
35. Which of the following has the maximum mass ?
(A) 25 g of Hg
(B) 2 moles of H
2
O
(C) 2 moles of CO
2
(D) 4 g atom of oxygen
36. Total mass of neutrons in 7mg of
14
C is -
(A) 3 10
20
kg (B) 4 10
6
kg
(C) 5 10
7
kg (D) 4 10
7
kg
37. Vapour density of a metal chloride is 66. Its oxide
contains 53% metal. The atomic weight of metal is -
(A) 21 (B) 54
(C) 26.74 (D) 2.086
38. The number of atoms in 4.25 g NH
3
is approximately -
(A) 1 10
23
(B) 1.5 10
23
(C) 2 10
23
(D) 6 10
23
39. The modern atomic weight scale is based on -
(A) C
12
(B) O
16
(C) H
1
(D) C
13
40. Amount of oxygen in 32.2g of Na
2
SO
4
. 10H
2
O is -
(A) 20.8 g (B) 22.4 g
(C) 2.24 g (D) 2.08 g
41. Which of the followings does not change on dilution ?
(A) Molarity of solution
(B) Molality of solution
(C) Millimoles and milli equivalent of solute
(D) Mole fraction of solute
42. Equal masses of O
2
, H
2
and CH
4
are taken in a
container. The respective mole ratio of these gases
in container is -
(A) 1 : 16 : 2 (B) 16 : 1 : 2
(C) 1 : 2 : 16 (D) 16 : 2 : 1
43. The number of molecules present in 11.2 litre CO
2
at
STP is -
(A) 6.023 10
32
(B) 6.023 10
23
(C) 3.011 10
23
(D) None of these
44. 250 ml of 0.1 N solution of AgNO
3
are added to 250
ml of a 0.1 N solution of NaCl. The concentration of
nitrate ion in the resulting solution will be -
(A) 0.1N (B) 1.2 N
(C) 0.01 N (D) 0.05 N
45. Amount of BaSO
4
formed on mixing the aqueous
solution of 2.08 g BaCl
2
and excess of dilute H
2
SO
4
is -
(A) 2.33 g (B) 2.08 g
(C) 1.04 g (D) 1.165 g
46. 2g of NaOH and 4.9 g of H
2
SO
4
were mixed and
volume is made 1 litre. The normality of the resulting
solution will be -
(A) 1N (B) 0.05 N
(C) 0.5 N (D) 0.1N
47. 1g of a metal carbonate neutralises completely 200
mL of 0.1N HCl. The equivalent weight of metal
carbonate is -
(A) 25 (B) 50
(C) 100 (D) 75
48. 100 mL of 0.5 N NaOH were added to 20 ml of 1N
HCl and 10 mL of 3 N H
2
SO
4
. The solution is -
(A) acidic (B) basic
(C) neutral (D) none of these
49. 1M solution of H
2
SO
4
is diluted from 1 litre to 5 litres ,
the normality of the resulting solution will be -
(A) 0.2 N (B) 0.1 N
(C) 0.4 N (D) 0.5 N
50. The volume of 7g of N
2
at S.T.P. is -
(A) 11.2 L (B) 22.4 L
(C) 5.6 L (D) 6.5 L
51. One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with
excess of water gives -
(A) three moles of phosphine
(B) one mole phosphoric acid
(C) two moles of phosphine
(D) one mole of P
2
O
5
52. Mg (OH)
2
in the form of milk of magnesia is used to
neutralize excess stomach acid. How many moles of
stomach acid can be neutralized by 1 g of Mg(OH)
2
?
(Molar mass of Mg(OH)
2
= 58.33)
(A) 0.0171 (B) 0.0343
(C) 0.686 (D) 1.25
PAGE # 39
53. Cal ci um carbonate decomposes on heati ng
according to the following equation -
CaCO
3
(s) CaO(s) + CO
2
(g)
How many mol es of CO
2
wi ll be obtained by
decomposition of 50 g CaCO
3
?
(A)
2
3
(B)
2
5
(C)
2
1
(D) 1
54. Sulphur trioxide is prepared by the following two
reactions -
S
8
(s) + 8O
2
(g) 8SO
2
(g)
2SO
2
(g) + O
2
(g) 2SO
3
(g)
How many grams of SO
3
are produced from 1 mole
of S
8
?
(A) 1280 (B) 640
(C) 960 (D) 320
55. PH
3
(g) decomposes on heati ng to produce
phosphorous and hydrogen. The change in volume
when 100 mL of such gas decomposed is -
(A) + 50 mL (B) + 500 mL
(C) 50 mL (D) 500 mL
56. What amount of BaSO
4
can be obtained on mixing
0.5 mole BaCl
2
with 1 mole of H
2
SO
4
?
(A) 0.5 mol (B) 0.15 mol
(C) 0.1 mol (D) 0.2 mol
57. In the reaction , CrO
5
+ H
2
SO
4
Cr
2
(SO
4
)
3
+ H
2
O + O
2
one mole of CrO
5
will liberate how many moles of O
2
?
(A) 5/2 (B) 5/4
(C) 9/2 (D) None
58. Cal ci um carbonate decomposes on heati ng
according to the equation -
CaCO
3
(s) CaO(s) + CO
2
(g)
At STP the volume of CO
2
obtained by thermal
decomposition of 50 g of CaCO
3
will be -
(A) 22.4 litre (B) 44 litre
(C) 11.2 litre (D) 1 litre
59. When FeCl
3
is ignited in an atmosphere of pure
oxygen, the following reaction takes place-
4FeCl
3
(s) + 3O
2
(g) 2Fe
2
O
3
(s) + 6Cl
2
(g)
If 3 moles of FeCl
3
are ignited in the presence of 2
moles of O
2
gas, how much of which reagent is
present in excess and therefore, remains unreacted ?
(A) 0.33 mole FeCl
3
remains unreacted
(B) 0.67 mole FeCl
3
remains unreacted
(C) 0.25 mole O
2
remains unreacted
(D) 0.50 mole O
2
remains unreacted
60. The volume of CO
2
(in litres) liberated at STP when
10 g of 90% pure limestone is heated completely, is-
(A) 22.4 L (B) 2.24 L
(C) 20.16 L (D) 2.016 L
61. A metal oxide has the formula Z
2
O
3
. It can be reduced
by hydrogen to give free metal and water. 0.1596 g of
the metal requires 6 mg of hydrogen for complete
reduction. The atomic mass of the metal is -
(A) 27.9 (B) 159.6
(C) 79.8 (D) 55.8
Question number 62, 63, 64 and 65 are based on the
following information :
Q. Dissolved oxygen in water is determined by using a
redox reaction. Following equations describe the
procedure -
I 2Mn
2+
(aq) + 4OH

(aq) + O
2
(g) 2MnO
2
(s) + 2H
2
O( )
II MnO
2
(s)+2I

(aq)+4H
+
(aq) Mn
2+
(aq)+I
2
(aq) + 2H
2
O( )
III
2
3 2
O S 2 (aq) + I
2
(aq)
2
6 4
O S 2 (aq) + 2I

(aq)
62. How many moles of
2
3 2
O S are equivalent to each
mole of O
2
?
(A) 0.5 B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4
63. What amount of I
2
will be liberated from 8 g dissolved
oxygen ?
(A) 127 g (B) 254 g
(C) 504 g (D) 1008 g
64. 3 10
3
moles O
2
is dissolved per litre of water, then
what will be molarity of I

produced in the given


reaction ?
(A) 3 10
3
M (B) 4 3 10
3
M
(C) 2 3 10
3
M (D)
3
10 3
2
1
M
65. 8 mg dissolved oxygen will consume -
(A) 5 10
4
mol Mn
+2
(B) 2.5 10
4
mol Mn
2+
(C) 10 mol Mn
2+
(D) 2 mol Mn
2+
66. 2 g of a base whose eq. wt. is 40 reacts with 3 g of an
acid. The eq. wt. of the acid is-
(A) 40 (B) 60
(C) 10 (D) 80
67. Normality of 1% H
2
SO
4
solution is nearly -
(A) 2.5 (B) 0.1
(C) 0.2 (D) 1
68. What volume of 0.1 N HNO
3
solution can be prepared
from 6.3 g of HNO
3
?
(A) 1 litre (B) 2 litres
(C) 0.5 litre (D) 4 litres
PAGE # 40
69. The volume of water to be added to 200 mL of
seminormal HCl solution to make it decinormal is -
(A) 200 mL (B) 400 mL
(C) 600 mL (D) 800 mL
70. 0.2 g of a sample of H
2
O
2
required 10 mL of 1N KMnO
4
in a titration in the presence of H
2
SO
4
. Purity of H
2
O
2
is-
(A) 25% (B) 85%
(C) 65% (D) 95%
71. Which of the following has the highest normality ?
(A) 1 M H
2
SO
4
(B) 1 M H
3
PO
3
(C) 1 M H
3
PO
4
(D) 1 M HNO
3
72. The molarity of 98% H
2
SO
4
(d = 1.8g/mL) by wt. is -
(A) 6 M (B) 18.74 M
(C) 10 M (D) 4 M
73. 0.7 g of Na
2
CO
3
. xH
2
O is dissolved in 100 mL. 20 mL
of which required to neutralize 19.8 mL of 0.1 N HCl.
The value of x is -
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1
74. 0.45 g of an acid of molecular weight 90 was
neutralised by 20 mL of 0.5 N caustic potash. The
basicity of the acid is -
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
75. 1 litre of 18 molar H
2
SO
4
has been diluted to 100
litres. The normality of the resulting solution is -
(A) 0.09 N (B) 0.18
(C) 1800 N (D) 0.36
76. 150 ml of
10
N
HCl is required to react completely with
1.0 g of a sample of limestone. The percentage purity
of calcium carbonate is -
(A) 75% (B) 50%
(C) 80% (D) 90%
77. 50 ml of
10
N
HCl is treated with 70 ml
10
N
NaOH.
Resultant solution is neutral ized by 100 ml of
sulphuric acid. The normality of H
2
SO
4
-
(A) N/50 (B) N/25
(C) N/30 (D) N/10
78. 200 mL of
10
N
HCl were added to 1 g calcium car-
bonate, what would remain after the reaction ?
(A) CaCO
3
(B) HCl
(C) Neither of the two (D) Part of both
79. Equivalent mass of KMnO
4
, when it is converted to
MnSO
4
is -
(A) M/5 (B) M/3
(C) M/6 (D) M/2
80. A 3 N solution of H
2
SO
4
in water is prepared from
Conc. H
2
SO
4
(36 N) by diluting [KVPY-PartII-2007]
(A) 20 ml of the conc. H
2
SO
4
to 240 ml
(B) 10 ml of the conc. H
2
SO
4
to 240 ml
(C) 1 ml of the conc. H
2
SO
4
to 36 ml
(D) 20 ml of the conc. H
2
SO
4
to 36 ml
81. The solubility curve of KNO
3
as a function of tempera-
ture is given below [KVPY-Part-II-2007]
0 20 40 60 80 100
0
50
100
150
200
250
Temperature (C)
S
o
l
u
b
i
l
i
t
y

(
g
/
1
0
0

m
l

w
a
t
e
r
)

The amount of KNO
3
that will crystallize when a satu-
rated solution of KNO
3
in 100 ml of water is cooled
from 90C to 30 C, is
(A) 16 g (B) 100 g
(C) 56 g (D)160 g
82. The volume of 0.5 M aqueous NaOH solution required
to neutralize 10 ml of 2 M aqueous HCl solution is :
[KVPY-Part-I-2008]
(A) 20ml (B) 40ml
(C) 80ml (D) 120ml
83. 3.0110
23
molecules of elemental Sulphur will react
with 0.5 mole of oxygen gas completely to produce
[KVPY-Part-I-2008]
(A) 6.02 10
23
molecules of SO
3
(B) 6.02 10
23
molecules of SO
2
(C) 3.01 10
23
molecules of SO
3
(D) 3.01 x 10
23
molecules of SO
2
84. The solubility of a gas in a solution is measured in
three cases as shown in the figure given below where
w is the weight of a solid slab placed on the top of the
cylinder lid. The solubility will follow the order :
[KVPY-Part-I-2008]
gas
solution
w

gas
solution
w w

gas
solution
w w w
(A) a > b > c (B) a < b < c
(C) a = b = c (D) a >b < c
PAGE # 41

85. The density of a salt solution is1.13 g cm


3
and it
contains 18% of NaCI by weight. The volume of the
solution containing 36.0 g of the salt will be :
[KVPY-Part-II-2008]
(A) 200 cm
3
(B) 217 cm
3
(C) 177 cm
3
(D) 157cm
3
86. One mole of nitrogen gas on reaction with 3.01 x 10
23
molecules of hydrogen gas produces -
[KVPY-Part-I-2009]
(A) one mole of ammonia
(B) 2.0 x 10
23
molecules of ammonia
(C) 2 moles of ammonia
(D) 3.01 10
23
molecules of ammonia
87. [KVPY-Part-I-2009]
Solubility
g/I
20 40 60 80 100
KNO
3
KCl
Temperature (C)
50
100
150
200
250
Given the solubility curves of KNO
3
and KCl, which of
the following statements is not true ?
(A) At room temperature the solubility of KNO
3
and
KCI are not equal
(B) The solubilities of both KNO
3
and KCI increase
with temperature
(C) The solubility of KCI decreases with temperature
(D) The solubility of KNO
3
increases much more com-
pared to that of KCl with increase in temperature
88. 10 ml of an aqueous solution containing 222 mg of
calcium chloride (mol. wt. = 111) is diluted to 100 ml.
The concentration of chloride ion in the resulting so-
lution is - [KVPY-Part-II-2009]
(A) 0.02 mol/lit. (B) 0.01 mol/lit.
(C) 0.04 mol/lit (D) 2.0 mol/lit.
89. Aluminium reduces manganese dioxide to manga-
nese at high temperature. The amount of aluminium
required to reduce one gram mole of manganese
dioxide is - [KVPY-Part-II-2009]
(A) 1/2 gram mole (B) 1 gram mole
(C) 3/4 gram mole (D) 4/3 gram mole
90. One mole of oxalic acid is equivalent to
[IJSO-2009]
(A) 0.5 mole of NaOH (B) 1 mole of NaOH
(C) 1.5 mole of NaOH (D) 2 mole of NaOH
42
PAGE # 42
(i) Natural numbers :
Counting numbers are known as natural numbers.
N = { 1, 2, 3, 4, ... }.
(ii) Whole numbers :
All natural numbers together with 0 form the collection
of all whole numbers.
W = { 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, ... }.
(iii) Integers :
All natural numbers, 0 and negative of natural numbers
form the collection of all integers.
I or Z = { ..., 3, 2, 1, 0, 1, 2, 3, ... }.
(iv) Rational numbers :
These are real numbers which can be expressed in the
form of
q
p
, where p and q are integers and 0 q .
e.g. 2/3, 37/15, -17/19.
All natural numbers, whole numbers and integers are
rational.
Rational numbers include all Integers (without any
decimal part to it), terminating fractions ( fractions in
which the decimal parts are terminating e.g. 0.75,
0.02 etc.) and also non-terminating but recurring
decimals e.g. 0.666....., 2.333...., etc.
Fractions :
(a) Common fraction : Fractions whose denominator
is not 10.
(b) Decimal fraction : Fractions whose denominator is
10 or any power of 10.
(c) Proper fraction : Numerator < Denominator i.e.
5
3
.
(d) Improper fraction : Numerator > Denominator i.e.
3
5
.
(e) Mixed fraction : Consists of integral as well as
fractional part i.e.
7
2
3 .
(f) Compound fraction : Fraction whose numerator and
denominator themselves are fractions. i.e.
5/7
2/3
.
Improper fraction can be written in the form of mixed
fraction.
(v) Irrational Numbers :
All real number which are not rational are irrational
numbers. These are non-recurri ng as wel l as
non-terminating type of decimal numbers.
For Ex. :
2
,
3
4
,
3 2 +
,
3 2 +
,
4 7
3
etc.
NUMBER SYSTEM
(vi) Real numbers : Numbers which can represent
actual physical quantities in a meaningful way are
known as real numbers. These can be represented
on the number line. Number line is geometrical straight
line with arbitrarily defined zero (origin).
(vii) Prime numbers : All natural numbers that have
one and itself only as their factors are called prime
numbers i.e. prime numbers are exactly divisible by
1 and themselves. e.g. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23,...etc.
If P is the set of prime number then P = {2, 3, 5, 7,...}.
(viii) Composite numbers : All natural numbers, which
are not prime are composite numbers. If C is the set
of composite number then C = {4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12,...}.
1 is neither prime nor composite number.
(ix) Co-prime Numbers : If the H.C.F. of the given
numbers (not necessarily prime) is 1 then they are
known as co-prime numbers. e.g. 4, 9 are co-prime
as H.C.F. of (4, 9) = 1.
Any two consecutive numbers will always be co-prime.
(x) Even Numbers : All integers which are divisible by 2
are called even numbers. Even numbers are denoted
by the expression 2n, where n is any integer. So, if E is
a set of even numbers, then E = { ..., 4, 2, 0, 2, 4,...}.
(xi) Odd Numbers : Al l i ntegers whi ch are not
di vi si bl e by 2 are cal l ed odd numbers. Odd
numbers are denoted by the general expression
2n 1 where n is any integer. If O is a set of odd
numbers, then O = {..., 5, 3, 1, 1, 3, 5,...}.
(xii) Imaginary Numbers : All the numbers whose
square is negative are called imaginary numbers.
e.g. 3i, -4i, i, ... ; where i = 1 - .
(xiii) Complex Numbers : The combined form of real
and i magi nary numbers i s known as complex
numbers. It is denoted by Z = A + iB where A is real part
and B is imaginary part of Z and A, B eR.
The set of complex number is the super set of all the
sets of numbers.
Squares : When a number is multiplied by itself then
the product is called the square of that number.
Perfect Square : A natural number is called a perfect
square if it is the square of any other natural number
e.g. 1, 4, 9,... are the squares of 1, 2, 3,... respectively.
id22890984 pdfMachine by Broadgun Software - a great PDF writer! - a great PDF creator! - http://www.pdfmachine.com http://www.broadgun.com
43
PAGE # 43
Ex.1 Find the smallest number by which 300 must be
multiplied so that the product is a perfect square.
Sol. Given number is 300, first we resolve it into prime
factors.
1
5 5
25 5
75 3
150 2
300 2
300 = 2 2 3 5 5
Clearly, 3 has no pair. Thus if we multiply it by 3 then
product will be a perfect square.
Required smallest number is 3 .
Ex.2 Find the smallest number by which 1575 must be
divided so that the quotient becomes a perfect square.
Sol. Given number is 1575, first we write it as the product of
prime factors
1
7 7
35 5
175 5
525 3
1575 3
1575 = 3 3 5 5 7.
Clearly, 7 has no pair, so if we divide it by 7 then quotient
become a perfect square.
Square roots : The square root of a number x is that
number which when multiplied by itself gives x as the
product. As we say square of 3 is 9, then we can also
say that square root of 9 is 3.
The symbol use to indicate the square root of a number
is , i.e. 81 = 9, 225 = 15 ...etc.
We can calculate the square root of positive numbers
only. However the square root of a positive number
may be a positive or a negative number.
e.g. 25 = + 5 or 5.
Properties of Square Roots :
(i) If the unit digit of a number is 2, 3, 7 or 8, then it does
not have a square root in N.
(ii) If a number ends in an odd number of zeros, then it
does not have a square root in N.
(iii) The square root of an even number is even and
square root of an odd number is odd.e.g. 81 = 9, 256
= 16, 324 = 18 ...etc.
(iv) Negative numbers have no square root in set of
real numbers.
Ex.3 Find the square root of 3 + 2 .
Sol. Let
2 3 +
= p + q
3 + 2 = p + q + 2 pq [By squaring both sides]
p + q = 3 ...(i) [By equating the parts]
2 pq = 2 ...(ii)
4pq = 2 ...(iii) [By squaring both sides ]
(p q)
2
= (p + q)
2
4 pq
(p q)
2
= 9 2
(p q)
2
= 7
p q = 7 ...(iv)
p + q = 3 [By eq
n
(i)]
p = ( ) 7 3
2
1
+ [On adding (i) & (iv)]
q =
( ) 7 3
2
1
[On subtracting (i) & (iv)]
2 3 + =
2
1

|
.
|

\
|
+ + 7 3 7 3
Cube : If any number is multiplied by itself three times
then the result is called the cube of that number.
Perfect cube : A natural number is said to be a perfect
cube if it is the cube of any other natural number.
Ex.4 What is the smallest number by which 675 must be
multiplied so that the product is a perfect cube.
Sol. Resolving 675 into prime factor, we get
1
5 5
25 5
75 3
225 3
675 3
675 = (3 3 3) 5 5
Grouping the factor in triplets of equal factors, we get
675 = (3 3 3) 5 5
We find that 3 occurs as a prime factor of 675 thrice but
5 occurs as a prime factor only twice. Thus, if we multiply
675 by 5, 5 will also occur as a prime factor thrice and
the product will be 3 3 3 5 5 5, which is a
perfect cube.
Hence, we must multiply 675 by 5 so that the product
becomes a perfect cube.
44
PAGE # 44
Ex.5 What is the smallest number by which 18522 must be
divided so that the quotient is a perfect cube ?
Sol. Resolving 18522 into prime factors, we get
1
7 7
49 7
343 7
1029 3
3087 3
9261 3
18522 2
18522 = 2 3 3 3 7 7 7
Grouping the factors in triplets of equal factors, we get
18522 = 2 (3 3 3) (7 7 7)
Clearly, if we divide 18522 by 2, the quotient would be
3 3 3 7 7 7 = 3
3
7
3
which is a perfect cube.
Therefore, we must divide 18522 by 2 so that the
quotient 9261 is a perfect cube.
Any irrational number of the form
n
a
is given a special
name Surd. Where a is called radicand, rational. Also
the symbol
n
is called the radical sign and the index
n is called order of the surd.
n
a is read as nth root of a and can also be written
as
n
1
a .
Identification of Surds :
(i)
3
4 is a surd as radicand is a rational number..
Similar examples : ... , 12 , 7 , 12 , 5
5 4 3
(ii) 2 + 3 is a surd (as surd + rational number will
give a surd)
Similar examples : ... , 1 3 , 1 3 , 2 3
3
+ +
(iii) 3 4 7 is a surd as 7 4 3 is a perfect square
of ( ) 3 2 .
Similar examples :
... , 5 4 9 , 5 4 9 , 3 4 7 + +
(iv)
3
3 is a surd as
6 6
1
3
1
2
1
3
3 3 3 3 = =
|
|
.
|

\
|
=
Similar examples :
... , 6 , 5
4 5 3 3
(v) These are not a surds :
(A)
3
8 , because
3 3 3
2 8 =
which is a rational
number.
(B) 3 2 + , because 2 + 3 is not a perfect square.
(C)
3
3 1+ , because radicand is an irrational number..
Laws of Surds :
(i) ( )
n n
n
n
a a = = a
(ii)
n n n
ab b a = [Here order should be same]
(iii)
n
n n
b
a
b a =
(iv)
m n nm n m
a a a = =
(v)
p n
p n
a a

= or,
p n
p m n m
a a


=
[Important for changing order of surds]
Ex.6 If x = 1 + 2
1/3
+ 2
2/3
, then find the value of x
3
3x
2
3x 1.
Sol. x = 1 + 2
1/3
+ 2
2/3
x 1 = (2
1/3
+ 2
2/3
)
(x 1)
3
= ( 2
1/3
+ 2
2/3
)
3
x
3
3x
2
+ 3x 1 = (2
1/3
)
3
+ (2
2/3
)
3
+ 3. 2
1/3
. 2
2/3
(2
1/3
+ 2
2/3
)
x
3
3x
2
+ 3x 1 = 2 + 2
2
+ 3.2
1
(x 1)
x
3
3x
2
+ 3x 1 = 6 + 6 (x 1)
x
3
3x
2
+ 3x 1 = 6x
x
3
3x
2
3x 1 = 0.
Ex.7 Simplify :
3 2 2 5
b a 4 b a 8
Sol.
6 4 4 2 6 3 15 3
b a 4 b a 8 =
6 3
ab 2 b a 4 .
Ex.8 Divide : 24 by
3
200
Sol.
6
6 2
6 3
3
625
216
200
24
200
24
= =
) (
) (
.
Comparison of Surds :
It is clear that if x > y > 0 and n > 1 is a (+ve) integer
then
n
x
>
. y
n
e.g.
3
16 > ,
3
12
5
36 >
5
25 and so
on.
,
Ex.9 Which is greater in each of the following :
(i)
3
6 and
5
8 (ii)
2
1
and
3
3
1
Sol. (i) L.C.M. of 3 and 5 is 15.
15 5 3 5 3
7776 6 6 = =

15 5 3 3 5
512 8 8 = =

15
512
15
7776 >

5
8
3
6
(ii) L.C.M. of 2 and 3 is 6.

6
2
6
3
3
1
and
2
1
|
.
|

\
|
|
.
|

\
|
=
6 6
9
1
and
8
1
as 8 < 9
9
1
8
1
>
So,
6
9
1
6
8
1

or,
2
1
>
3
3
1
.
45
PAGE # 45
Ex.10 Arrange
3
3 2, and
4
5 in ascending order..
Sol. L.C.M. of 2, 3, 4 is 12.

12 6 2 6
64 2 2 = =

,
12 4 3 4 3
81 3 3 = =

,
and
12 3 4 3 4
125 5 5 = =

As, 64 < 81 < 125.

12 12 12
125 81 64 < <
4 3
5 3 2 < <
Conjugate Surds :
R.F. of b a and b a + type surds are called
conjugate surds .
Ex.11 (i) 3 2 is conjugate of 3 2 + .
(ii) 1 5 + is conjugate of 1 5 .
Sometimes conjugate surd and reciprocals are same.
Ex.12 (i) 3 2 + , its conjugate is 3 2 , its reciprocal is
3 2 & vice versa.
(ii) 6 2 5 , its conjugate is 6 2 5 + , its reciprocal is
6 2 5 + & vice versa.
Factors : a is a factor of b if there exists a relation
such that a n = b, where n is any natural number.
1 is a factor of all numbers as 1 b = b.
Factor of a number cannot be greater than the number
(infact the largest factor will be the number itself). Thus
factors of any number will lie between 1 and the number
itself (both inclusive) and they are limited.
Multiples : a is a multiple of b if there exists a relation
of the type b n = a. Thus the multiples of 6 are
6 1 = 6, 6 2 = 12, 6 3 = 18, 6 4 = 24, and so on.
The smallest multiple will be the number itself and the
number of multiples would be infinite.
NOTE :
To understand what multiples are, lets just take an
example of multiples of 3. The multiples are 3, 6, 9,
12,.... so on. We find that every successive multiples
appears as the third number after the previous.
So if one wishes to find the number of multiples of 6
less than 255, we could arrive at the number through
6
255
= 42 (and the remainder 3). The remainder is of
no consequence to us. So in all there are 42 multiples.
If one wishes to find the multiples of 36, find
36
255
= 7
(and the remainder is 3). Hence, there are 7 multiples
of 36.
Factorisation : It is the process of splitting any number
into form where it is expressed only in terms of the
most basic prime factors.
For example, 36 = 2
2
3
2
. 36 is expressed in the
factorised form in terms of its basic prime factors.
Number of factors : For any composite number C,
which can be expressed as C = a
p
b
q
c
r
....., where
a, b, c ..... are all prime factors and p, q, r are positive
integers, then the number of factors is equal to
(p + 1) (q + 1) (r + 1).... e.g. 36 = 2
2
3
2
. So the
factors of 36 = (2 +1) (2 + 1) = 3 3 = 9.
Ex.13 If N = 12
3
3
4
5
2
, find the total number of even
factors of N.
Sol. The factorised form of N is
(2
2
3
1
)
3
3
4
5
2
2
6
3
7
5
2
.
Hence, the total number of factors of N i s
(6 + 1) (7 + 1) (2 + 1) = 7 8 3 = 168.
Some of these are odd multiples and some are even.
The odd multiples are formed only with the combination
of 3s and 5s.
So, the total number of odd factors is (7 + 1)(2 + 1) = 24.
Therefore, the number of even factors
= 168 24 = 144.
Ex.14 A number N when factori sed can be wri tten
N = a
4
b
3
c
7
. Find the number of perfect squares
which are factors of N (The three prime numbers
a, b, c > 2).
Sol. In order that the perfect square divides N, the powers
of a can be 0, 2 or 4, i.e. 3.
Powers of b can be 0, 2, i.e. 2. Power of c can be 0, 2,
4 or 6, i.e. 4.
Hence, a combination of these powers given 3 2 4
i.e. 24 numbers.
So, there are 24 perfect squares that divides N.
Ex.15 Directions : (i to iv) Answer the questions based on
the given information.
There are one thousand lockers and one thousand
students in a school. The principal asks the first student
to go to each locker and open it. Then he asks the
second student go to every second locker and close it.
The third student goes to every third locker, and if it is
closed, he opens it, and it is open, he closes it. The
fourth student does it to every fourth locker and so on.
The process is completed with all the thousand
students.
(i) How many lockers are closed at the end of the
process ?
(ii) How many students can go to only one locker ?
(iii) How many lockers are open after 970 students
have done their job ?
(iv) How many student go to locker no. 840 ?
46
PAGE # 46
Sol. (i to iv) : Whether the locker is open or not depends on
the number of times it is accessed. If it is accessed
odd number of times, then it is open while if it is
accessed even number of times then it is closed.
How many times a locker will be accessed depends
on the locker no. If it contains odd number of factors,,
then it will be open and if it contains even number of
factors. Then it will be closed. We know that a perfect
square contains odd number of factors while a non-
perfect square contains even number of factors. Thus
the lockers with perfect square number will be open
and the number of these perfect squares from 1 to
1000 determines the no. of open lockers.
(i) No. of closed lockers = No. of non-perfect square
numbers from 1 to 1000 = 1000 31 = 969.
(ii) Upto 500 students they can go to two or more than
two lockers, while the rest 500 can go to only one locker.
(iii) The 31 perfect squares ( the last being 31
2
= 961)
will be open while the lockers from 971 to 1000 is yet
to be accessed last time so they all are open. The total
being = 31 + 30 = 61
(iv) The no. of students that have gone to locker no.
840 is same as the no. of factors of 840.
840 = 2
3
3 5 7.
So, the no. of factors = (3 + 1) (1 + 1) (1 + 1) (1 + 1) = 32.
LCM (least Common Multiple) : The LCM of given
numbers, as the name suggests is the smallest
positive number which is a multiple of each of the given
numbers.
HCF (Highest Common factor) : The HCF of given
numbers, as the name suggests is the largest factor
of the given set of numbers.
Consider the numbers 12, 20 and 30. The factors and
the multiples are :
Factors
Given
numbers
Multiples
1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12 12 12, 24, 36, 48, 60, 72, 84, 96, 108, 120....
1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20 20 20, 40, 60, 80, 100, 120.....
1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15, 30 30 30, 60, 90, 120....
The common factors are 1 and 2 and the common
multiples are 60, 120...
Thus the highest common factor is 2 and the least
common multiple is 60. Meaning of HCF is that the
HCF is the largest number that divides all the given
numbers.
Also since a number divides its multiple, the meaning
of LCM is that it is smallest number which can be
divided by the given numbers.
HCF will be lesser than or equal to the least of the
numbers and LCM will be greater than or equal to the
greatest of the numbers.
Ex.16 Find a number greater then 3 which when divided by
4, 5, and 6 always leaves the same remainder 3.
Sol. The smallest number which, when divided by 4, 5 and
6, l eaves the remai nder 3 i n each case i s
LCM (4, 5 and 6) + 3 = 60 + 3 = 63.
Ex.17 In a school 437 boys and 342 girls have been divided
into classes, so that each class has the same number
of students and no class has boys and girls mixed.
What is the least number of classes needed?
Sol. We should have the maximum number of students in
a class. So we have to find HCF (437, 342) = 19.
HCF is also the factor of difference of the number.
Number of classes =
19
437
+
19
342
= 23 + 18
= 41 classes.
For any two numbers x and y :
x y = HCF (x, y) LCM (x, y).
HCF and LCM of fractions :
LCM of fractions =
ators min deno of HCF
numerators of LCM
HCF of fractions =
ators min deno of LCM
numerators of HCF
Make sure the fractions are in the most reducible form.
Ex.18 Find the least number which when divided by 6, 7, 8,
9 and 10 leaves remainder 1.
Sol. As the remainder is same
Required number = LCM of divisors + Remainder
= LCM (6, 7, 8, 9, 10) +1
= 2520 + 1 = 2521.
Ex.19 Six bells start tolling together and they toll at intervals
of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12 sec. respectively, find.
(i) after how much time will all six of them toll together ?
(ii) how many times will they toll together in 30 min ?
Sol. The time after which all six bells will toll together must
be multiple of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12.
Therefore, required time = LCM of time intervals.
= LCM (2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12) = 120 sec.
Therefore after 120 s all six bells will toll together.
After each 120 s, i.e. 2 min, all bell are tolling together.
Therefore in 30 min they will toll together
|
.
|

\
|
+1
2
30
= 16 times
1 is added as all the bells are tolling together at the
start also, i.e. 0
th
second.
Ex.20 LCM of two distinct natural numbers is 211. What is
their HCF ?
Sol. 211 is a prime number. So there is only one pair of
distinct numbers possible whose LCM is 211,
i.e. 1 and 211. HCF of 1 and 211 is 1.
Ex.21 An orchard has 48 apple trees, 60 mango trees and
96 banana trees. These have to be arranged in rows
such that each row has the same number of trees and
all are of the same type. Find the minimum number of
such rows that can be formed.
Sol. Total number of trees are 204 and each of the trees
are exactly divisible by 12. HCF of (48, 60, 96).

12
204
= 17 such rows are possible.
47
PAGE # 47
Division Algorithm : General representation of result is,
Divisor
mainder Re
Quotient
Divisor
Dividend
+ =
Dividend = (Divisor Quotient ) + Remainder
NOTE :
(i) (x
n
a
n
) is divisible by (x a) for all the values of n.
(ii) (x
n
a
n
) is divisible by (x + a) and (x a) for all the
even values of n.
(iii) (x
n
+ a
n
) is divisible by (x + a) for all the odd values of n.
Test of Divisibility :

No. Divisiblity Test
2 Unit digit should be 0 or even
3 The sum of digits of no. should be divisible by 3
4 The no formed by last 2 digits of given no. should be divisible by 4.
5 Unit digit should be 0 or 5.
6 No should be divisible by 2 & 3 both
8 The number formed by last 3 digits of given no. should be divisible by 8.
9 Sum of digits of given no. should be divisible by 9
11
The difference between sums of the digits at even & at odd places
should be zero or multiple of 11.
25 Last 2 digits of the number should be 00, 25, 50 or 75.
Rule for 7 : Double the last digit of given number and
subtract from remaining number the result should be
zero or divisible by 7.
Ex.22 Check whether 413 is divisible by 7 or not.
Sol. Last digit = 3, remaining number = 41, 41 (3 x 2) = 35
(divisible by 7). i.e. 413 is divisible by 7.
This rule can also be used for number having more
than 3 digits.
Ex.23 Check whether 6545 is divisible by 7 or not.
Sol. Last digit = 5, remaining number 654, 654 (5 x 2)
= 644; 64 (4 x 2) = 56 divisible by 7. i.e. 6545 is
divisible by 7.
Rule for 13 : Four times the last digit and add to
remaining number the result should be divisible by
13.
Ex.24 Check whether 234 is divisible by 13 or not .
Sol. 234, (4 x 4) + 23 = 39 (divisible by 13), i.e. 234 is divisible
by 13.
Rule for 17 : Five times the last digit of the number and
subtract from previous number the result obtained
should be either 0 or divisible by 17.
Ex.25 Check whether 357 is divisible by 17 or not.
Sol. 357, (7 x 5) 35 = 0, i.e. 357 is divisible by 17.
Rule for 19 : Double the last digit of given number and
add to remaining number The result obtained should
be divisible by 19.
Ex.26 Check whether 589 is divisible by 19 or not.
Sol. 589, (9 x 2) + 58 = 76 (divisible by 19), i.e. the number
is divisible by 19.
Ex27. Find the smallest number of six digits which is exactly
divisible by 111.
Sol. Smallest number of 6 digits is which is 100000.
On dividing 100000 by 111, we get 100 as remainder.
Number to be added = (111 - 100) = 11.
Hence, required number = 100011.
Ex.28 Find the largest four digit number which when
reduced by 54, is perfectly divisible by all even natural
numbers less than 20.
Sol. Even natural numbers less than 20 are 2, 4, 6, 8, 12,
14, 16, 18.
Their LCM = 2 LCM of first 9 natural numbers
= 2 2520 = 5040
This happens to be the largest four-digit number
divisible by all even natural numbers less than 20. 54
was subtracted from our required number to get this
number.
Hence, (required number 54) = 5040
required number = 5094.
Ex.29 Ajay multiplied 484 by a certain number to get the
result 3823a. Find the value of a.
Sol. 3823a is divisible by 484, and 484 is a factor of 3823a.
4 is a factor of 484 and 11 is also a factor of 484.
Hence, 3823a is divisible by both 4 and 11.
To be divisible by 4, the last two digits have to be
divisible by 4.
a can take two values 2 and 6.
38232 is not divisible by 11, but 38236 is divisible by
11.
Hence, 6 is the correct choice.
Ex.30 Which digits should come in place of - and $ if the
number 62684-$ is divisible by both 8 and 5 ?
Sol. Since the given number is divisible by 5, so 0 or 5 must
come in place of $. But, a number ending with 5 in
never divisible by 8. So, 0 will replace $.
Now, the number formed by the last three digits is 4-0,
which becomes divisible by 8, if - is replaced by 4 or 8.
Hence, digits in place of - and $ are 4 or 8 and 0
respectively.
Ex.31 On dividing 15968 by a certain number, the quotient
is 89 and the remainder is 37. Find the divisor.
Sol. Divisor =
89
37 15968
Quotient
mainder Re Dividend
=

= 179.
Ex.32 How many numbers between 200 and 600 are
divisible by 4, 5, and 6 ?
Sol. Every such number must be divisible by L.C.M. of 4, 5,
6, i.e.60.
Such numbers are 240, 300, 360, 420, 480, 540
Clearly, there are 6 such numbers.
The method of finding the remainder without actually
performing the process of division is termed as
remainder theorem.
Remainder should always be positive. For example if
we divide 22 by 7, generally we get 3 as quotient and
1 as remainder. But this is wrong because remainder
is never be negative hence the quotient should be 4
and remainder is +6. We can also get remainder 6 by
adding 1 to divisor 7 ( 71 = 6).
48
PAGE # 48
Ex.33 Two numbers, x and y, are such that when divided by
6, they leave remainders 4 and 5 respectively. Find the
remainder when (x
2
+ y
2
) is divided by 6.
Sol. Suppose x = 6k
1
+ 4 and y = 6k
2
+ 5
x
2
+ y
2
= (6k
1
+ 4)
2
+ (6k
2
+ 5)
2
= 36k
1
2
+ 48k
1
+ 16 + 36k
2
2
+ 60k
2
+ 25
= 36k
1
2
+ 48k
1
+ 36k
2
2
+ 60k
2
+ 41
Obviously when this is divided by 6, the remainder will
be 5.
Ex.34 A number when divided by 259 leaves a remainder
139. What will be the remainder when the same
number is divided by 37 ?
Sol. Let the number be P.
So, P 139 is divisible by 259.
Let Q be the quotient then,
259
139 P
= Q
P = 259Q + 139

37
P
=
37
139 Q 259 +
259 is divisible by 37,
When 139 divided by 37, leaves a remainder of 28.
Ex.35 A number being successively divided by 3, 5 and 8
leaves remainders 1, 4 and 7 respectively. Find the
respective remainders if the order of divisors be
reversed.
Sol.
7 1
4 z 8
1 y 5
x 3
z = (8 1 + 7) = 15 ; y (5z + 4) = (5 15 + 4) = 79 ;
x = (3y + 1) = (3 79 + 1) = 238.
Now,
2 1
4 5 3
6 29 5
238 8
Respective remainders are 6, 4, 2.
Ex.36 A number was divided successively in order by 4, 5
and 6. The remainders were respectively 2, 3 and 4.
Then find out the number.
Sol.
4 1
3 z 6
2 y 5
x 4
z = (6 1 + 4) = 10
y = (5 z + 3) = (5 10 + 53) = 53
x = (4 y + 2) = (4 53 + 2) = 214
Hence, the required number is 214.
Ex.37 In dividing a number by 585, a student employed the
method of short division. He divided the number
successively by 5, 9 and 13 (factors of 585) and got the
remainders 4, 8 and 12. If he had divided number by
585, then find out the remainder.
Sol.
12 1
8 z 13
4 y 9
x 5
Now, 1169 when divided by 585 gives remainder
= 584.
To find the remainder of big number
NOTE :
(i) Binomial Expansion :
(a + b)
n
= a
n
+
1!
n
a
n1
b +
2!
1) n(n
a
n 2
b
2
+ .... + b
n
, or
(a b)
n
= a
n

1!
n
a
n1
b +
2!
1) n(n
a
n 2
b
2
... + ( 1)
n
b
n
.
Hence, first term is pure of a i.e a
n
and last digit is pure
of b, i.e. b
n
.
(ii) Total number of terms in the expansion of (a + b)
n
is
(n + 1).
Ex.38 What is the remainder when 7
38
is divided by 48.
Sol.
48
7
38
=
( )
48
7
19
2
=
( )
48
49
19
=
( )
48
1 48
19
+
so by using
binomial expansion, we can say that 18 terms are
completely divisible by 48 but the last term which is
( )
48
1
19
+
is not divisible. So,
19
1 = 1 is the remainder..
Ex.39 What is the remainder if 7
25
is divided by 4?
Sol. 7
25
can be written (81)
25
. There are 26 terms in all and
first 25 terms are divisible by 8, hence also by 4. The
last term is (1)
25
. Hence, (8 1)
25
can be written 8X 1
or 4Y 1 ( where Y = 2X). So, 4Y 1 divided by 4 leaves
the remainder 3.
Ex.40 What is the remainder if 3
45
is divided by 8 ?
Sol. 3
45
can be written 9
22
3. 9 can be written as (8 + 1).
Hence, any power of 9 can be written 8N + 1. In other
words, any power of 9 is 1 more than a multiple of 8.
Hence, (8N + 1) 3 leaves remainder 3 when divided
by 8.
Ex.41 What is the remainder when
16
15
14 is divided by 5 ?
Sol.
16
15
14 = (15 1)
odd
= 15n + (1)
odd
, i.e. a (multiple of 5)
1. Thus when divided by 5 the remainder will be (1),
i.e. 4.
Ex.42 What is the remainder when 3
57
+ 27 is divided by
28?
Sol. 3
57
= (3
3
)
19
3
57
+ 27 = (27)
19
+ 27
= (28 1)
19
+ 27
= 28M + (1)
19
+ 27 [Expand by binomial theorem]
= 28M 1 + 27
= 28M + 26
When 28M + 26 divided by 28, the remainder is 26.
Hence, the required remainder is 26.
49
PAGE # 49
Ex.43 What is the remainder when 82
361
+ 83
361
+ 84
361
+ 85
361
+ 86
361
is divided by 7?
Sol. 82
361
+ 83
361
+ 84
361
+ 85
361
+ 86
361
= [(84 2)
361
+ (84 1)
361
+ + 84
361
+ (84 + 1)
361
+ (84 + 2)
361
]
Since, 84 is a multiple of 7, then the remainder will be
when, ( 2)
361
+ (1)
361
+ 1
361
+ 2
361
is divided by 7.
is ( 2)
361
+ (1)
361
+ 1
361
+ 2
361
= 0.
So the remainder is zero.
We are having 10 digits in our number systems and
some of them shows special characterstics like they,
repeat their unit digit after a cycle, for example 1 repeat
its unit digit after every consecutive power. So, its
cyclicity is 1 on the other hand digit 2 repeat its unit
digit after every four power, hence the cyclicity of 2 is
four. The cyclicity of digits are as follows :
Digit Cyclicity
0, 1, 5 and 6 1
4 and 9 2
2, 3, 7 and 8 4
So, if we want to find the last digit of 2
45
, divide 45 by 4.
The remainder is 1 so the last digit of 2
45
would be
same as the last digit of 2
1
which is 2.
To Find the Unit Digit in Exponential Expressions :
(i) When there is 2 in units place of any number.
Since, in 2
1
unit digit is 2, in 2
2
unit digit is 4, in 2
3
unit
digit is 8, in 2
4
unit digit is 6, after that the units digit
repeats. e.g. unit digit(12)
12
is equal to the unit digit of,
2
4
i.e.6
Ex.44 In (32)
33
unit digit is equal to the unit digit of 2
1
i.e. 2.
(ii) When there is 3 in units place of any number.
Since, in 3
1
unit digit is 3, in 3
2
unit digit is 9, in 3
3
unit
digit is 7, in 3
4
unit digit is 1, after that the units digit
repeats.
Ex.45 In (23)
13
unit digit be 3
Ex.46 In (43)
46
unit digit be 9
(iii) When there is 4 in units place of any number.
Since, in 4
1
unit digit is 4, in 4
2
unit digit is 6, after that
the units digit repeats.
Ex.47 In (34)
14
unit digit is 6
Ex.48 In (34)
33
unit digit is 4
(iv) When there is 5 in units place of any number.
Since, in 5
1
unit digit is 5, in 5
2
unit digit is 5 and so on.
Ex.49 In (25)
15
unit digit is 5
(v) When there is 6 in units place of any number.
Since, in 6
1
unit digit is 6, in 6
2
unit digit is 6 & so on.
,Ex.50 In (46)
13
unit digit is 6.
(vi) When there is 7 in units place of any number.
Since, in 7
1
unit digit is 7, in 7
2
unit digit is 9, in 7
3
unit
digit is 3, in 7
4
unit digit is 1, after that the units digit
repeats.
Ex.51 In (57)
9
unit digit is 7
Ex.52 In (97)
99
unit digit is 3
(vii) When there is 8 in units place of any number.
Since, in 8
1
unit digit is 8, in 8
2
unit digit is 4, in 8
3
unit
digit is 2, in 8
4
unit digit is 6, after that units digit repeats
after a group of 4.
(viii) When there is 9 in units place of any number.
Since, in 9
1
units digit is 9, in 9
2
units digit is 1, after
that units digit repeats after a group of 2.
(ix) When there is zero in units place of any number.
There will always be zero in units place.
Ex.53 Find the last digit of
(i) 3
57
(ii) 13
59
Sol. (i) The cyclicity of 3 is 4. Hence,
4
57
gives the remainder
1. So, the last digit of 3
57
is same as the last digit of 3
1
,
i.e. 3.
(ii) The number of digits in the base will not make a
difference to the last digit. It is last digit of the base
which decides the last digit of the number itself. For
13
59
, we find
4
59
which gives a remainder 3. So the
last digit of 13
59
is same as the last digit of 3
3
, i.e. 7.
Ex.54 Find the last digit of the product 7
23
x 8
13
.
Sol. Both 7 and 8 exhibit a cyclicity of 4. The last digits are
7
1
= 7 8
1
= 8
7
2
= 9 8
2
= 4
7
3
= 3 8
3
= 2
7
4
= 1 8
4
= 6
7
5
= 7 8
5
= 8
The cycle would repeat itself for higher powers.
7
23
ends with the same last digit as 7
3
, i.e. 3.
8
13
ends with the same last digit as 8
1
, i.e. 8. Hence,
the product of the two numbers would end with the
same last digit as that of 3 8, i.e. 4.
Ex.55Find units digit in y = 7
17
+ 7
34
Sol. 7
17
+ 7
34
= 7
1

+ 7
2
= 56, Hence the unit digit is 6
Ex.56What will be the last digit of
76
64
75
) 73 (
Sol. Let
76
64
75
) 73 ( = (73)
x
where x =
76
64
75 = (75)
even power
Cyclicity of 3 is 4
To find the last digit we have to find the remainder
when x is divided by 4.
x = (75)
even power
= (76 1)
even power
, where n is divided by
4 so remainder will be 1.
Therefore, the last digit of
76
64
75
) 73 ( will be 3
1
= 3.
Ex.57What will be the unit digit of
55
63
75
) 87 ( .
Sol. Let
55
63
75
) 87 ( = (87)
x
where x =
55
63
75 = (75)
odd
Cyclicity of 7 is 4.
To find the last digit we have to find the remainder
when x is divided by 4.
x = (75)
odd power
= (76 1)
odd power
where x is divided by 4 so remainder will be 1 or 3, but
remainder should be positive always
therefore, the last digit of
55
63
75
) 87 ( will be 7
3
= 343.
Hence, the last digit is of
55
63
75
) 87 ( is 3.
50
PAGE # 50
To Find the Last Two Digits in Exponential
Expressions :
We know that the binomial theorem :
(a + b)
n
= a
n
+
1!
n
a
n1
b +
2!
1) n(n
a
n 2
b
2
+ .... + b
n
.
(i) Last two digits of numbers ending in 1 :
Let's start with some examples.
Ex.58What are the last two digits of 31
786
?
Sol. 31
786
= (30 + 1)
786
= 30
786
+ 786 30
785
1
+
2!
1) (786 786
30
784
1
2
+ .... + 1
786
.
Note that all the terms excluding last two terms will
end in two or more zeroes. The last two terms are
786 30 1
785
and 1
786
. Now, the second last term
will end with one zero and the tens digit of the second
last term will be the product of 786 and 3 i.e. 8.
Therefore, the last two digits of the second last term
will be 80. The last digit of the last term is 1. So the
last two digits of 31
786
are 81.
Ex.59Find the last two digits of 41
2789
.
Sol. According to the previous example we can calculate
the answer 61 (4 9 = 36. Therefore, 6 will be the
tens digit and one will be the units digit).
Ex.60 Find the last two digits of 71
56747
.
Sol. Last two digits will be 91 (7 7 gives 9 and 1 as
units digit)
Ex.61 Find the last two digits of 51
456
61
567
.
Sol. The last two digits of 51
456
will be 01 and the last
two digits of 61
567
will be 21. Therefore, the last two
digits of 51
456
61
567
will be the last two digits of
01 21 = 21.
(ii) Last two digits of numbers ending in 3, 7 or 9 :
Ex.62 Find the last two digits of 19
266
.
Sol. 19
266
= (19
2
)
133
. Now, 19
2
ends in 61 (19
2
= 361)
therefore, we need to find the last two digits of (61)
133
.
Once the number is ending in 1 we can straight away
get the last two digits with the help of the previous
method. The last two digits are 81 (6 3 = 18, so
the tenth digit will be 8 and last digit will be 1).
Ex.63 Find the last two digits of 33
288
.
Sol. 33
288
= (33
4
)
72
. Now 33
4
ends in 21 (33
4
= 33
2
33
2
= 1089 1089 = xxxxx21) therefore, we need to find
the last two digits of 21
72
. By the previous method,
the last two digits of 21
72
= 41 (tens digit = 2 2 = 4,
unit digit = 1)
Ex.64Find the last two digits of 87
474
.
Sol. 87
474
= 87
472
87
2
= (87
4
)
118
87
2
= (69 69)
118
69
[The last two digits of 87
2
are 69]
= 61
118
69 = 81 69 = 89.
(iii) Last two digits of numbers ending in 2, 4, 6 or 8 :
There is only one even two-digit number which
always ends in itself (last two digits) - 76 i.e. 76
raised to any power gives the last two digits as 76.
Therefore, our purpose is to get 76 as last two digits
for even numbers. We know that 24
2
ends in 76 and
2
10
ends in 24. Also, 24 raised to an even power
always ends with 76 and 24 raised to an odd power
always ends with 24. Therefore, 24
34
will end in 76
and 24
53
will end in 24.
Ex.65Find the last two digits of 2
543
.
Sol. 2
543
= (2
10
)
54
2
3
= (24)
54
(24 raised to an even
power). 2
3
= 76 8 = 08.
NOTE :
Here if you need to multiply 76 with 2
n
, then you can
straightaway write the last two digits of 2
n
because
when 76 is multiplied with 2
n
the last two digits
remai n the same as the l ast two di gi ts of 2
n
.
Therefore, the last two digits of 76 2
7
will be the
last two digits of 2
7
= 28.
Ex.66Find the last two digits of 64
236
.
Sol. 64
236
= (2
6
)
236
= 2
1416
= (2
10
)
141
2
6
= 24
141
(24 raised
to odd power) 64 = 24 64 = 36.
Now those numbers which are not in the form of 2
n
can be broken down into the form 2
n
odd number.
We can find the last two digits of both the parts
separately.
Ex.67Find the last two digits of 62
586
.
Sol. 62
586
= (2 31)
586
= 2
586
31
586
= (2
10
)
58
2
6
31
586
= 76 64 81 = 84.
Ex.68Find the last two digits of 54
380
.
Sol. 54
380
= (2 3
3
)
380
= 2
380
3
1140
= (2
10
)
38
(3
4
)
285
= 76
81
285
= 76 01 = 76.
Ex.69Find the last two digits of 56
283
.
Sol. 56
283
= (2
3
7)
283
= 2
849
7
283
= (2
10
)
84
2
9
(7
4
)
70
7
3
= 76 12 (01)
70
43 = 16.
Ex.70 Find the last two digits of 78
379
.
Sol. 78
379
= (2 39)
379
= 2
379
39
379
= (2
10
)
37
2
9
(39
2
)
189
39 = 24 12 81 39 = 92.
Factorial n : Product of n consecutive natural numbers
is known as factorial n it is denoted by n!.
So, n! = n(n 1)(n 2).............321.
e.g. 5! = 5 4 3 2 1 = 120.
The value of factorial zero is equal to the value of
factorial one. Hence 0! = 1 = 1!
The approach to finding the highest power of x dividing
y! is
(

+
(

+
(

3 2
x
y
x
y
x
y
......., where [ ] represents just
the integral part of the answer and ignoring the fractional
part.
51
PAGE # 51
Ex.71 What is the highest power of 2 that divides 20!
completely?
Sol. 20! = 1 2 3 4 .... 18 19 20
= 1 (2
1
) 3 (2
2
) 5 (2
1
3
1
) 7 (2
3
) ..... so on.
In order to find the highest power of 2 that divides the
above product, we need to find the sum of the powers
of all 2 in this expansion. All numbers that the divisible
by 2
1
will contribute 1 to the exponent of 2 in the product
1
2
20
= 10. Hence, 10 numbers contribute 2
1
to the
product. Similarly, all numbers that are divisible by 2
2
will contribute an extra 1 to the exponent of 2 in the
product, i.e
2
2
20
= 5. Hence, 5 numbers contribute an
extra 1 to exponents. Similarly, there are 2 numbers that
are divisible by 2
3
and 1 number that is divisible by 2
4
.
Hence, the total 1s contributed to the exponent of 2 in
20! is the sum of ( 10 + 5 +2 +1) = 18. Hence, group of
all 2s in 20! gives 2
18
x (N), where N is not divisible by
2. If 20! is divided by 2
x
then maximum value of x is 18.
Ex.72 What is the highest power of 5 that divides of
x = 100! = 100 99 98 ...... 3 2 1.
Sol. Calculating contributions of the different powers of 5,
we have
1
5
100
= 20,
2
5
100
= 4.
Hence, the total contributions to the power of 5 is 24, or
the number 100! is divisible by 5
24
.
Ex.73 How many zeros at the end of first 100 multiples of
10.
Sol. First 100 multiple of 10 are = 10 20 30 ...... 1000
= 10
100
(1 2 3 ....... 100)
= 10
100
10
24
N
= 10
124
N
Where N is not divisible by 10
So, there are 124 zero at the end of first 100 multiple of
10.
Ex.74 What is the highest power of 6 that divides 9!
Sol. By the normal method.
6
9
= 1 and
2
6
9
= 0. Thus
answers we get is 1 which is wrong. True there is just
one multiple of 6 from 1 to 9 but the product 2 3 = 6
and also 4 9 = 36, can further be divided by 6. Thus,
when the divisor is a composite number find the
highest power of its prime factors and then proceed. In
this case, 9! can be divided by 2
7
and 3
4
and thus by 6
4
(In this case we need not have checked power of 2 as
it would definitely be greater then that of 3).
Ex.75What is the largest power of 12 that would divide 49! ?
Sol. To check the highest power of 12 in 49!, we need to
check the highest powers of 4 and 3 in it.
Highest power of 3 in 49! = 22
Highest power of 2 in 49! = 46
Highest power of 4 in 49! =
2
46
= 23
Highest power of 12 will be 22. (Since the common
power between 3 and 4 is 22).
Ex.76 How many zeros will be there at the end of
! 36
! 36

?
Sol. Highest power of 5 in 36! is 8.
So there will be 8 zeros at the end of 36!
So at the end of
! 36
! 36 , there will be 8 36! zeros.
The number system that we work in is called the
decimal system. This is because there are 10 digits
in the system 0-9. There can be alternative system that
can be used for arithmetic operations. Some of the
most commonly used systems are : binary, octal and
hexadecimal.
These systems find applications in computing.
Binary system has 2 digits : 0, 1.
Octal system has 8 digits : 0, 1, 2..., 7.
Hexadecimal system has 16 digits : 0, 1, 2,..., 9, A , B,
C, D, E, F.
After 9, we use the letters to indicate digits. For instance,
A has a value 10, B has a value 11, C has a value 12,...
so on in all base systems.
The counting sequences in each of the systems would
be different though they follow the same principle.
Conversion : conversion of numbers from (i) decimal
system to other base system. (ii) other base system to
decimal system.
(i) Conversion from base 10 to any other base :
Ex.77 Convert (122)
10
to base 8 system.
Sol.
1 0
7 1 8
2 15 8
122 8
The number in decimal is consecutively divided by the
number of the base to which we are converting the
decimal number. Then list down all the remainders in
the reverse sequence to get the number in that base.
So, here (122)
10
= (172)
8
.
Ex.78 Convert (169)
10
in base 7
Sol.
0
3
24
169 7
7
7
1
3
3
Remainder
(169)
10
=(331)
7
Ex.79 Convert (0.3125)
10
to binary equivalent.
Sol. Integer
2 0.3125 = 0.625 0
2 0.625 = 1.25 1
2 0.25 = 0.50 0
2 0.50 = 1.00 1
Thus
(0.3125)
10
= (0.1010)
2
52
PAGE # 52
Ex.80 Convert (1987.725)
10
(........)
8
Sol. First convert non-decimal part into base 8.
3 0
7 3 8
0 31 8
3 248 8
1987 8
(1987)
10
= (3703)
8
Now we have to convert (0.725)
10
(........)
8
Multiply
0.725 8 = [5.8] ...5
0.8 8 = [6.4]
0.4 8 = [3.2]
0.2 8 = [1.6]
0.6 8 = [4.8]
...6
...3
...1
...4
Keep on accompl i shi ng i ntegral parts after
multiplication with decimal part till decimal part is zero.
(0.725)
10
= (0.56314...)
8
(1987.725)
10
= (3703.56314...)
8
(ii) Conversion from any other base to decimal system
Ex.81 Convert (231)
8
into decimal system.
Sol. (231)
8
, the value of the position of each of the numbers
( as in decimal system) is :
1 = 8
0
1
3 = 8
1
3
2 = 8
2
2
Hence, (231)
8
= (8
0
1 + 8
1
3 + 8
2
2)
10
(231)
8
= (1 + 24 + 128)
10
(231)
8
= (153)
10
Ex.82 Convert (0.03125)
10
to base 16.
Sol. 16 0.3125 = 0.5 0
16 0.5 = 8.0 8
So (0.03125)
10
= (0.08)
16
Ex.83 Convert (761.56)
8
(......)
16
Sol. In such conversi on whi ch are standard form
conversions, it is easier to
(761.56)
8
(.....)
2
(.....)
16
Converting every digit in base 8 to base 2,
(111110001.10110)
2
(1F1.B8)
16
Ex.84 Convert (3C8.08)
16
to decimal
Sol. (3C8.08)
16
= 3 16
2
+ C 16
1
+ 8 16 + 0 16
1
+ 8 16
2
= 768 + 192 + 8 + 0 + 0.03125 = (968.03125)
10
So (3C8.08)
16
= (968.03125)
10
Ex.85 If a b = 2,
and
0 c c
_____
b b
a a
+
then find the value of a, b and c.
Sol. These problems involve basic number
(i) aa + bb = 11(a + b) (ii) aa, bb are two-digit numbers.
Hence, their sum cannot exceed 198. So, c must be 1.
(iii) Hence, cc0 = 110. This implies a + b = 10 or a = 6
and b = 4.
Such problems are part of a category of problems called
alphanumerices.
Ex.86 If
_____
9 a a
c a
b 3 a

then find a, b and c if each of them is


distinctly different digit.
Sol. (i) since the first digit of (a 3 b) is written as it is after
subtracting ac carry over from a to 3.
(ii) there must be a carry over from 3 to b, because if no
carry over is there, it means 3 a = a.
2a = 3
a =
2
3
which is not possible because a is a digit. For a carry
over 1, 2 a = a
a = 1
(iii) it means b and c are consecutive digit (2, 3),
(3, 4),.... (8, 9)
Ex.87 If
1 a 4
x 3 b
8 c 8
7 2
5 d 8
s
t
then, find the value of a, b, c, d, s and t, where all of
them are different digits.
Sol. Let us consider 1 a 4 3 = s72.
a 3 results in a number ending in 6.
As 16 and 26 is ruled out, a is 2.
Thus, s = 3, t = 4
Now 1 a 4 b = 8c8 ; b = 2 or 7
Again 2 is ruled out because in that case, product would
be much less than 800.
b = 7.
Hence, a = 2, b = 7, c = 6, d = 8, s = 3 and t = 4.
53
PAGE # 53
1. If the number 357y25x is divisible by both 3 and 5, then
find the missing digit in the units place and the
thousand place respectively are :
(A) 0, 6 (B) 5, 6
(C) 5, 4 (D) None of these
2. There are four prime numbers written in ascending
order. The product of the first three is 385 and that of
the last three is 1001. The last number is :
(A) 11 (B) 13
(C) 17 (D) 19
3. Find the square root of 7 4 3 .
(A) 3 2 (B) 3 5
(C) 5 2 (D) None of these
4. The number of prime factors of (3 5)
12
(2 7)
10
(10)
25
is :
(A) 47 (B) 60
(C) 72 (D) 94
5. How many three-digit numbers would you find, which
when divided by 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 leave the remainders 1, 2,
3, 4, and 5 respectively ?
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1
6. Six strings of violin start vibrating simultaneously and
they vibrate at 3, 4, 5, 6,10 and 12 times in a minute,
find :
i. After how much time will all six of them vibrate
together ?
ii. How many times will they vibrate together in 30 min ?
(A) 60 sec, 31 times (B) 60 min, 31 times
(C) 120 sec, 15 times (D) None of these
7. The HCF of 2 numbers is 11 and their LCM is 693. If
their sum is 176, find the numbers.
(A) 99,77 (B) 110, 66
(C) 88,77 (D) 121, 44
8. If P is a prime number, then the LCM of P and (P + 1) is :
(A) P(P +1) (B) (P + 2)P
(C) (P + 1)(P 1) (D) None of these
9. Find out (A + B + C + D) such that AB x CB = DDD, where
AB and CB are two-digit numbers and DDD is a three-
digit number.
(A) 21 (B) 19
(C) 17 (D) 18
10. Three pieces of cakes of weights
2
1
4 Ibs,
4
3
6 Ibs and
5
1
7
Ibs respectively are to be divided into parts of equal
weights. Further, each must be as heavy as possible.
If one such part is served to each guest, then what is
the maxi mum number of guests that coul d be
entertained ?
(A) 54 (B) 72
(C) 20 (D) 41
11. How many natural numbers between 200 and 400 are
there which are divisible by
i. Both 4 and 5?
ii. 4 or 5 or 8 or 10 ?
(A) 9, 79 (B) 10, 80
(C) 10, 81 (D) None of these
12.
64 63 62 61
4 4 4 4 + + + is divisible by :
(A) 3 (B) 10
(C) 11 (D) 13
13. If x is a whole number, then x
2
(x
2
1) is always divisible
by :
(A) 12 (B) 24
(C) 12 x (D) Multiple of 12
14. If 653 xy is exactly divisible by 80 then the find the value
of (x + y)
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 6
15. Find the unit digit of (7
95
3
58
).
(A) 6 (B) 4
(C) 3 (D) None of these
16. When a number P is divided by 4 it leaves remainder
3. If the twice of the number P is divided by the same
divisor 4 than what will be the remainder ?
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 6
17. If (2
32
+1) is divisible by a certain number then which of
the following is also divisible by that number.
(A) (2
16
1) (B) 2
16
+ 1
(C) 2
96
+ 1 (D) None of these
18. When 1! + 2! + 3! + ... + 25! is divided by 7, what will be
the remainder ?
(A) 0 (B) 5
(C) 1 (D) None of these
19. A number when divided by 342 gives a remainder 47.
When the same number is divided by 19, what would
be the remainder ?
(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 9 (D) None of these
20. What is the remainder when 9875347 7435789
5789743 is divided by 4 ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) None of these
21. P is a prime number greater than 5. What is the
remainder when P is divided by 6?
(A) 5 (B) 1
(C) 1 or 5 (D) None of these
22. What is the remainder when 5
87
is divided by 15?
(A) 0 (B) 5
(C) 10 (D) None of these
54
PAGE # 54
23. What is the remainder when 7
63
is divided by 344?
(A) 1 (B) 343
(C) 6 (D) 338
24. What is the remainder when 30
40
is divided by 17?
(A) 1 (B) 16
(C) 13 (D) 4
25. What is the remainder when 74
13
41
13
+ 75
13
42
13
is
divided by 66?
(A) 2 (B) 64
(C) 1 (D) 0
26. A number when divided successively by 4 and 5 leaves
remai nders 1 and 4 respecti vel y. When i t i s
successively divided by 5 and 4, then the respective
remainders will be :
(A) 1, 2 (B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 2 (D) 4, 1
27. How many zeros will be there at the end of the product
! 10 ! 8 ! 6 ! 4 ! 2
! 10 ! 8 ! 6 ! 4 ! 2 ?
(A) 10! + 6! (B) 2 (10!)
(C) 10! + 8! + 6! (D) 6! + 8! + 2 (10!)
28. When Sholey screened on the TV there was a
commercial break of 5 min after every 15 min of the
movie. If from the start of the movie to the end of the
movie there was in all 60 min of commercials that was
screened what is the duration the movie ?
(A) 180 min (B) 195 min
(C) 169 min (D) 165 min
29. Which of the following numbers is exactly divisible by
all prime numbers between 1 and 17 ?
(A) 345345 (B) 440440
(C) 510510 (D) 515513
Directions : (32 to 36) Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
In a big hostel, there are 1,000 rooms. In that hostel
only even numbers are used for room numbers, i.e.
the room numbers are 2, 4, 6, ...., 1998, 2000. All the
rooms have one resident each. One fine morning, the
warden calls all the residents and tells them to go
back to their rooms as well as multiples of their room
numbers. When a guy visits a room and finds the door
open, he closes it, and if the door is closed, he opens
it, All 1,000 guys do this operation. All the doors were
open initially.
30. The last room that is closed is room number ?
(A) 1936 (B) 2000
(C) 1922 (D) None of these
31. The 38
th
room that is open is room number :
(A) 80 (B) 88
(C) 76 (D) None of these
32. If only 500 guys, i.e. residents of room number 2 to
1000 do the task, then the last room that is closed is
room number
(A) 2000 (B) 1936
(C) 1849 (D) None of these
33. In the case of previous question, how many rooms
will be closed in all ?
(A) 513 (B) 31
(C) 13 (D) 315
34. If you are a lazy person, you would like to stay in a room
whose number is :
(A) more than 500 (B) more than 1000
(C) 500 (D) 2000
35. A 4-digit number is formed by repeating a 2-digit
number such as 2525, 3232 etc. Any number of this
form is exactly divisible by :
(A) 7 (B) 11
(C) 13
(D) Smallest 3-digit prime number
36. If we write all the whole numbers from 200 to 400, then
how many of these contain the digit 7 only once ?
(A) 32 (B) 34
(C) 35 (D) 36
37. If (1
2
+ 2
2
+ 3
2
+ .....+ 10
2
) = 385, then the value of
(2
2
+ 4
2
+ 6
2
+...... + 20
2
).
(A) 770 (B) 1155
(C) 1540 (D) (385 385)
38. How many four-digit numbers are there such that the
digits are repeated at least once, i.e. all the digits do
not occur only once ?
(A) 9000 (B) 4536
(C) 4464 (D) None of these
39. Find the total number of prime factors in the expression
(4)
11
(7)
5
(11)
2
.
(A) 37 (B) 33
(C) 26 (D) 29
40. The largest number which exactly divides the product
of any four consecutive natural numbers is :
(A) 6 (B) 12
(C) 24 (D) 120
41. The largest natural number by which the product of
three consecutive even natural numbers is always
divisible, is :
(A) 6 (B) 24
(C) 48 (D) 96
42. The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is always
divisible by :
I. 2 II. 3 III. 5 IV. 6
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Only I and III (D) Only II and IV
43. A number is multiplied by 11 and 11 is added to the
product. If the resulting number is divisible by 13, the
smallest original number is :
(A) 12 (B) 22
(C) 26 (D) 53
55
PAGE # 55
44. A 3-digit number 4a3 is added to another 3-digit
number 984 to give the four-digit number 13b7, which
is divisible by 11. Then ,(a + b) is :
(A) 10 (B) 11
(C) 12 (D) 15
45. A number when divided by the sum of 555 and 445
gives two times their difference as quotient and 30 as
the remainder. The number is :
(A) 1220 (B) 1250
(C) 22030 (D) 220030
46. In a 4-digit number, the sum of the first two digits is
equal to that of the last two digits. The sum of the first
and last digits is equal to the third digit. Finally, the sum
of the second and fourth digits is twice the sum of the
other two digits. What is the third digit of the number ?
(A) 5 (B) 8
(C) 1 (D) 4
47. Anita had to do a multiplication. Instead of taking 35 as
one of the multipliers, she took 53. As a result, the
product went up by 540. What is the new product ?
(A) 1050 (B) 540
(C) 1440 (D) 1590
48. Three friends, returning from a movie, stopped to eat
at a restaurant. After dinner, they paid their bill and
noticed a bowl of mints at the front counter. Sita took 1/
3 of the mints, but returned four because she had a
monetary pang of guilt. Fatima then took 1/4 of what
was left but returned three for similar reasons. Eswari
then took half of the remainder but threw two back into
the bowl. The bowl had only 17 mints left when the raid
was over. How many mints were originally in the bowl?
(A) 38 (B) 31
(C) 41 (D) 48
49. In a number system, the product of 44 and 11 is 3414.
The number 3111 of this system, when converted to
the decimal number system, becomes :
(A) 406 (B) 1086
(C) 213 (D) 691
50. A set of consecutive positive integers beginning with 1
is written on the blackboard. A student came and erased
one number. The average of the remaining numbers
is
17
7
35 . What was the number erased?
(A) 7 (B) 8
(C) 9 (D) None of these
51. Let D be a recurring decimal of the form D = 0. a
1
a
2
a
1
a
2
a
1
a
2
....., where digits a
1
and a
2
lie between 0 and 9.
Further, at most one of them is zero. Which of the
following numbers necessarily produces an integer,
when multiplied by D?
(A) 18 (B) 108
(C) 198 (D) 288
52. What i s the val ue of the fol l owi ng expressi on
|
|
.
|

\
|

+ +
|
|
.
|

\
|

+
|
|
.
|

\
|

+
|
|
.
|

\
|
) 1 20 (
1
.....
) 1 6 (
1
) 1 4 (
1
) 1 2 (
1
2 2 2 2 ?
(A)
19
9
(B)
19
10
(C)
21
10
(D)
21
11
53. Consider a sequence of seven consecutive integers.
The average of the first five integers is n. The average
of all the seven integers is :
(A) n
(B) n + 1
(C) k n, where k is a function of n
(D) n +
|
.
|

\
|
7
2
54. Let N = 55
3
+ 17
3
72
3
. N is divisible by :
(A) both 7 and 13 (B) both 3 and 13
(C) both 17 and 7 (D) both 3 and 17
55. Convert the number 1982 from base 10 to base 12.
The results is :
(A) 1182 (B) 1912
(C) 1192 (D) 1292
56. The LCM of two numbers is 864 and their HCF is 144.
If one of the numbers i s 288, then the other
number is :
(A) 576 (B) 1296
(C) 432 (D) 144
57. The LCM of two numbers is 567 and their HCF is 9. If
the difference between the two numbers is 18, find the
two numbers :
(A) 36 and 18 (B) 78 and 60
(C) 63 and 81 (D) 52 and 34
58. If the product of n positive real numbers is unity, then
their sum is necessarily :
(A) a multiple of n (B) equal to n
n
1
(C) never less than n (D) a positive integer
59. How many even integers n, where 100 s n s 200, are
divisible neither by seven nor by nine ?
(A) 40 (B) 37
(C) 39 (D) 38
60. In a certain examination paper, there are n question. For
j = 1, 2....n, there are 2
n-j

students who answered j or
more questions wrongly. If the total number of wrong
answers is 4095, then the value of n is :
(A) 12 (B) 11
(C) 10 (D) 9
61. The number of positive n in the range 12 s n s 40 such
that the product (n 1) (n 2).... 3.2.1 is not divisible by
n is :
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 13 (D) 14
56
PAGE # 56
62. The owner of a local jewellery store hired 3 watchmen
to guard his diamonds, but a thief still got in and stole
some diamonds. On the way out, the thief met each
watchman, one at a time. To each he gave
2
1
of the
diamonds he had then, and 2 more besides. He
escaped with one diamond. How many did he steal
originally ?
(A) 40 (B) 36
(C) 25 (D) none of these
63. A rich merchant had collected many gold coins. He did
not want any body to know about him. One day, his wife
asked, How many gold coins do we hire? After
pausing a moment he replied, Well ! if divide the the
coins into two unequal numbers, then 48 times the
difference between the two numbers equals the
difference between the square of the two numbers.
The wife looked puzzled. Can you help the merchants
wife by finding out how many gold coins the merchant
has ?
(A) 96 (B) 53
(C) 43 (D) 48
64. A child was asked to add first few natural numbers
(that is 1 + 2 + 3.....) so long his patience permitted. As
he stopped, he gave the sum as 575. When the teacher
declared the result wrong, the child discovered he had
missed one number in the sequence during addition.
The number he missed was :
(A) less than 10 (B) 10
(C) 15 (D) more than 15
65. 7
6n
6
6n
, where n is an integer > 0, is divisible by :
(A) 13 (B) 127
(C) 559 (D) All of these
66. The value of
225 154 108 25 10 + + + +
is :
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 10
67 When (55)
10
is represented in base 25 then the
expression is :
(A) (25)
25
(B) (35)
25
(C) (55)
25
(D) none of these
68. Arrange the following numbers in ascending order
2
1
,
9
7
,
5
4
,
7
3
.
(A)
2
1
,
9
3
,
5
7
,
5
4
(B)
5
4
,
9
7
,
2
1
,
7
3
(C)
7
3
,
2
1
,
9
7
,
5
4
(D)
5
4
,
9
7
,
7
3
,
2
1
69. Which of the following surds is greatest in magnitude :
3 12 6
4 , 25 , 2 , 17
(A)
6
17
(B)
12
25
(C)
3
4
(D)
2
70. What is the decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal 25
digit number (100.....001)
16
?
(A) 2
23
+ 1 (B) 2
24
+ 1
(C) 2
92
+ 1 (D) 2
96
+ 1
71. The square root of a perfect square containing n digits
has ............ digits.
(A)
2
1 n +
(B) n/2
(C) A or B (D) None
72. If the decimal number 2
111
is written in the octal system,
then what is its unit place digit ?
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
73. The 288
th
term of the series a, b, b, c, c, c, d, d, d, d, e,
e, e, e, e, f, f, f, f, f, f,....is :
(A) u (B) v
(C) x (D) w
74. If n = 67 then find the unit digit of [3
n
+ 2
n
].
(A) 1 (B) 10
(C) 5 (D) None
75. The number of 2-di gi t numbers n such that 3
divides n 2 and 5 divides n 3 is : [KVPY 2007]
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 10
76. How many 4-digit numbers are there with the property
that it is a square and the number obtained by
increasing all its digits by 1 is also a square ?
[KVPY 2007]
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4
77. The number of positive fractions m/n such that
1/3 < m/n < 1 and having the property that the fraction
remains the same by adding some positive integer to
the numerator and multiplying the denominator by the
same positive integer is : [KVPY 2007]
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 6 (D) infinite
78. If a and b are any two real numbers with opposite
signs, which of the following is the greatest ?
[KVPY 2008]
(A) (ab)
2
(B) (|a| |b|)
2
(C) |a
2
b
2
| (D) a
2
+ b
2
79. The number (1024)
1024
is obtained by raising (16)
16
to the power n. What is the value of n ?
[KVPY 2008]
(A) 64 (B) 64
2
(C) 64
64
(D) 160
80. The number of integers a such that 1 s a s 100 and
a
a
is a perfect square is : [KVPY 2008]
(A) 50 (B) 53
(C) 55 (D) 56
81. The sum of 7 consecutive positive integers is equal
to the sum of the next five consecutive integers. What
is the largest among the 12 numbers ? [KVPY 2008]
(A) 24 (B) 23
(C) 22 (D 21
57
PAGE # 57
82. Let 0 < a < b < c be 3 distinct digits. The sum of all
3-digit numbers formed by using all the 3 digits
once each is 1554. The value of c is : [KVPY 2008]
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
83. If the decimal 0.d25d25d25 is expressible in the
form n/27, then d + n must be : [KVPY 2008]
(A) 9 (B) 28
(C) 30 (D) 34
84. Let S
n
be the sum of al l i ntegers k such that
2
n
< k < 2
n+1
, for n > 1. Then 9 divides S
n
if and only if :
[KVPY 2009]
(A) n is odd
(B) n is of the form 3k+1
(C) n is even
(D) n is of the form 3k + 2
85. The number of ways in which 1440 can be expressed
as a product of two positive integers is : [IAO 2007]
(A) 17 (B) 18
(C) 35 (D) 36
86. Let N = 28 , the sum of all distinct factors of N is :
[IAO 2008]
(A) 27 (B) 28
(C) 55 (D) 56
87. The units digit of (1 + 9 + 9
2
+ 9
3
+ --------- + 9
2009
) is :
[IAO 2009]
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 9 (D) 3
88. The biggest among the following is : [IAO 2009]
(A) 2
1/2
(B) 3
1/3
(C) 6
1/6
(D) 8
1/8
89. When a positive integer x is divided by 47, the
remainder is 11. Therefore, when x
2
is divided by 47,
the remainder will be : [IAO 2009]
(A) 7 (B) 17
(C) 27 (D) 37
90. When the number 7
2010
is divided by 25, the remainder
will be : [IAO 2009]
(A) 1 (B) 7
(C) 18 (D) 24
91. P, Q and R are three natural numbers such that P and
Q are primes and Q divides PR. Then out of the
following the correct statement is : [IJSO 2008]
(A) Q divides R (B) P divides R
(C) P divides QR (D) P divides PQ
92. The expression (5a 3b)
3
+ (3b 7c)
3
(5a 7c)
3
is
divisible by : [IJSO 2008]
(A) (5a + 3b + 7c) (B) (5a 3b 7c)
(C) (3b 7c) (D) (7c 5a)
93. If a
2
+ 2b = 7, b
2
+ 4c = 7 and c
2
+ 6a = 14, then the
value of (a
2
+ b
2
+ c
2
) is : [IJSO 2009]
(A) 14 (B) 25
(C) 36 (D) 47
94. In the familiar decimal number system the base is 10.
In another number system using base 4, the counting
proceeds as 1, 2, 3, 10, 11, 12, 13, 20, 21 .... The
twentieth number in this system will be:
[IJSO 2010]
(A) 40 (B) 320
(C) 210 (D) 110
95. If the eight digit number 2575d568 is divisible by 54
and 87, the value of the digit d is: [IJSO 2011]
(A) 4. (B) 7.
(C) 0. (D) 8.
96. The number of distinct prime divisors of the number
512
3
253
3
259
3
is : [KVPY 2011]
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7

58
PAGE # 58
The logarithm of the number N to the base '

a

' is the
exponent indicating the power to which the base
'

a

' must be raised to obtain the number N. This
number is designated as log
a

N. Hence:
log
a
N = x a
x
= N , a > 0, a 1 & N > 0
Systems of Logarithm :
There are two systems of logarithm which are generally
used.
(i) Common logarithm : In this system base is always
taken as 10.
If a = 10, then we write log

b rather than log
10
b.
(ii) Natural logarithm : In this system the base of the
logarithm is taken as e. Where e is an irrational
number lying between 2 and 3.
If a = e, we write nb rather than log
e
b. Here '

e

' is
called as Napiers base & has numerical value equal
to 2.7182.
REMEMBER
log
10
2 = 0.3010 ; log
10
3 = 0.4771 ;
n 2 = 0.693 ; n 10 = 2.303
REMARK :
The exi stence and uni queness of the number
log
a
N can be determined with the help of set of
conditions, a > 0 and a = 1 and N > 0.
Some Useful Results :
(i) If a > 1 then
(a) log
a
x < 0 for all x satisfying 0 < x < 1
(b) log
a
x = 0 for x = 1
(c) log
a
x > 0 for x > 1
(d) x > y log
a
x > log
a
y i.e. log
a
x is an increasing
function.

graph of y = log
a
x, a > 1
x'
y'
x
0
(1,0)
y = log x, a > 1
a
y
LOGARI THM
(ii) If 0 < a < 1, then
(a) log
a
x < 0 for all x > 1
(b) log
a
x = 0 for x = 1
(c) log
a
x > 0 for all x satisfying 0 < x < 1
(d) x > y log
a
x < log
a
y i.e. log
a
x is a decreasing
function.

graph of y = log
a
x, 0 < a < 1.
x'
y'
x
0
(1,0)
y = log x, 0 < a < 1.
a
y
Let m & n are arbitrary positive numbers, a > 0,
a = 1, b > 0, b = 1 and o is any real number then ;
(i) log
a
(mn) = log
a
m + log
a
n
[Where m and n are +ve numbers]
in general log
a
(x
1
x
2
......x
n
) = log
a
x
1
+ log
a
x
2
+ ........+
log
a
x
n
(ii) log
a

|
.
|

\
|
n
m
= log
a
m log
a
n
(iii) log
a
(m)
n
= n log
a
m
(iv)
a
b
log
m
b
log
m
a
log
(v) log
a
m . log
m
a = 1
(vi) If a is a positive real number and n is a positive
rational number, then
n a
n log
a
=
(vii) If a is a positive real number and n is a positive
rational number, then
q
a
log
n
p
n log
q
p
a
=
(viii)
p log q log
a a
q p =
Ex.1 If log
3
a = 4, find value of a.
Sol. log
3
a = 4
a = 3
4
a = 81.
id22910421 pdfMachine by Broadgun Software - a great PDF writer! - a great PDF creator! - http://www.pdfmachine.com http://www.broadgun.com
59
PAGE # 59
Ex.2 Find the value of
4
3
log
32
27
log
8
9
log +
Sol. Given
4
3
log
32
27
log
8
9
log +
4
3
log
32
27
8
9
log + |
.
|

\
|
=

|
.
|

\
|
=
4
3
27
32
8
9
log
= log1 = 0. [log
a
1 = 0]
Ex.3 If 2log
4
x = 1 + log
4
(x 1), find the value of x.
Sol. Given 2log
4
x = 1 + log
4
(x 1)
log
4
x
2
log
4
(x 1) = 1
log
4
1 x
x
2
= 1
4
1
=
1 x
x
2
x
2
= 4x 4
x
2
4x + 4 = 0
(x 2)
2
= 0 x = 2
Ex.4 Evaluate :
5 log 2
3
3 .
Sol. Given,
5 log 2
3
3 =
5 log 2
3
3 . 3 [a
m + n
= a
m
.a
n
]
= 9.
1
3
5 log
3
= 9 5
1
=
5
9
.
Ex.5 Find the value of log
25
125 log
8
4.
Sol. Given log
25
125 log
8
4
=
2
2
3
5
2 log 5 log 3 2
=
2
3
log
5
5
3
2
log
2
2
=
2
3

3
2
[ 1 a log
a
= ]
=
6
5
.
Ex.6 If A = log
27
625 +
13 log
11
7 and B = log
9
125 +
7 log
11
13 ,
then find the relation between A and B.
Sol. A = log
27
625 +
13 log
11
7 =
4
3
5 log 3 +
13 log
11
7
or, A =
3
4
log
3
5 +
13 log
11
7 ...(i)
and, B = log
9
125 +
7 log
11
13
or, B =
3
3
5 log 2 +
13 log
11
7
or, B =
2
3
log
3
5 +
13 log
11
7 ...(ii)
By (i) and (ii) we have,
A
3
4
log
3
5 = B
2
3
log
3
5

3
4
log
3
5 <
2
3
log
3
5
A < B.
Ex.7 Find the value of the following :
(i) log
4
8 (ii)
2 2
log 1024
(iii) log
1/49
343 (iv)
) 3 2 (
log

) 3 2 ( +
(v) log
0.001
0.0001
Sol. (i) Let x = log
4
8 4
x
= 8
2
2x
= 2
3
x = 3/2.
(ii) Let x =
2 2
log 1024

x
) 2 2 ( = 1024
2
3x/2
= 2
10
x = 20/3.
(iii) Let x = log
1/49
343
7
2x
= 7
3
x = 3/2.
(iv) Let x =
) 3 2 (
log

) 3 2 ( +

x
) 3 2 ( =
3 2 +

x
) 3 2 ( =
3 2
) 3 2 ( ) 3 2 (

+
=
1
) 3 2 (

x = 1.
(v) Let x = log
0.001
0.0001 (0.001)
x
= 0.0001
10
3x
= 10
4
x = 4/3.
Ex.8 Find the value of the following :
(i)

+
30 sec log
) 60 cos 60 (sin
2 2
(ii)

45 cot log
45 tan
(iii) log
20
1
Sol. (i) For (i) and (ii) log is not defined because base is
equal to 1.
(iii) log
20
1 = 0.
Fundamental Logari t hmi c Identi t y :
N log
a
a
= N, a > 0, a = 1 & N > 0
REMARKS :
(i) log
a
1 = 0
(ii) log
a
a = 1 [As a
1
= a]
(iii) log
a
0 = not defined
[As a
n
= 0 is not possible, where n is any number]
(iv) log
a
(ve no.) = not defined.
[As in log
a
N, N will always be (+ ve)]
(v) log
1/a
a =

1 (vi) log
b
a =
b log
1
a
(vii) a
x
=
a n x
e

Ex.9 Find the value of the following
(i)
3 log
1
5
81
(ii)
|
.
|

\
|
+
3
1
121 log
3
2
8
Sol. (i) Let x =
3 log
1
5
81 =
5 log 4
3
) 3 (
=
4
5 log
3
3 = 5
4
= 625.
(ii) Let x =
|
.
|

\
|
+
3
1
121 log
3
2
8
=
( ) 1 121 log 3
3
2
2
+
=
121 log
2
2 . 2 = 2(121) = 242.
60
PAGE # 60
Ex.10 Find the value of
(i) log
3
4. log
4
5. log
5
6. log
6
7 . log
7
8. log
8
9.
(ii) log tan1 + log tan2 + log tan3 + .... + log tan89.
Sol. (i) log
3
4. log
4
5. log
5
6. log
6
7 . log
7
8. log
8
9

3 log
4 log
.
4 log
5 log
.
5 log
6 log
.
6 log
7 log
.
7 log
8 log
.
8 log
9 log
=
3 log
9 log
= 2.
(ii) log tan1 + log tan2 +.......+ log tan89
= log(tan1. tan2. tan3 .... tan45 ..... tan89)
= log (tan1 tan2 tan3 ... tan45 ... cot3 cot2 cot1)
= log (1.1.1 ....... 1) = log 1 = 0.
Ex.11 Find the value of :
(i)
5 log
3
2

2 log
3
5
(ii)
16
75
log
2
9
5
log 2
2
+
243
32
log
2
(iii) 1 . 0 log
3
Sol. (i)
5 log
3
2

2 log
3
5
Here
5 log
3
2
=
3 log
5 log
2
2
2
=
( )
2 log
5 log 3
2
2
=
2 log
3
5
Hence
5 log
3
2
2 log
3
5
= 0.
(ii)
16
75
log
2

9
5
log 2
2
+
243
32
log
2
= |
.
|

\
|
25
81
243
32
.
16
75
log
2
= log
2
2 = 1
(iii) 1 . 0 log
3
= log
3
1/9 = log
3
3
2
= 2
Ex.12 If log
6
15 = a, log
12
18 = b, then find log
25
24 in terms
of a and b.
Sol. log
6
15 =
6 log
15 log
3
3
=
2 log 1
5 log 1
3
3
+
+
= a ...(i)
log
12
18 =
12 log
18 log
3
3
=
2 log 2 1
2 log 2
3
3
+
+
= b ...(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
log
3
2 =
1 b 2
b 2

Andlog
3
5 =
1 b 2
1 b 2 a ab

+ +
log
25
24 =
25 log
24 log
3
3
=
5 log 2
2 log 3 1
3
3
+
=
|
.
|

\
|

+ +
|
.
|

\
|

+
1 b 2
1 b 2 a ab
2
1 b 2
b 2
3 1
=
) 1 ab b 2 a ( 2
b 5
+ +

.
The equality log
a
x = log
a
y is possible if and only if
x = y

i.e. log
a
x = log
a
y x = y
Always check that the solutions should satisfy x > 0,
y > 0, a > 0, a = 1.
Ex.13 Solve the following equations :
(i) log
3
(x + 1) + log
3
(x + 3) = 1
(ii) log
2
log
4
log
5
x = 0
(iii) log
3
[5 + 4 log
3
(x 1)] = 2
Sol. (i) log
3
(x + 1) + log
3
(x + 3) = log
3
(x + 1) (x + 3) = 1
(x + 1) (x + 3) = 3
x
2
+ 4x = 0
x = 0, 4.
Also x + 1 > 0 or x > 1
And x + 3 > 0 or x > 3
Hence solution is x = 0.
(ii) log
2
log
4
log
5
x = 0
log
4
log
5
x = 1
log
5
x = 4
x = 5
4
= 625.
(iii) log
3
[5 + 4log
3
(x 1)] = 2
5 + 4 log
3
(x 1) = 9
log
3
(x 1) = 1
x 1 = 3 x = 4.
Ex.14 Find the total number of digits in the number
6
100
(Given log
10
2 = 0.3010 ; log
10
3 = 0.4771).
Sol. Let x = 6
100
log
10
x = 100 log
10
6
log
10
x = 100 [log
10
2 + log
10
3]
= 100 [0.3010 + 0.4771]
= 100 (0.7781)
= 77.81
The number of digits = 78.
Ex.15 Prove that log
3
5 is irrational.
Sol. Let log
3
5 is rational.
log
3
5 =
q
p
[where p and q are co-prime numbers]
3
p/q
= 5 3
p
= 5
q
.
which is not possible, hence our assumption is
wrong and log
3
5 is irrational.
1. Given log2 = 0.3010, then log 16 is :
(A) 2.4080 (B) 1.2040
(C) 0.2408 (D) 1.9030
2. If log
x
y = 100 and log
2
x = 10, then the value of y is :
(A) 2
1000
(B) 2
100
(C) 2
2000
(D) 2
10000
61
PAGE # 61
3. The value of [log
10
(5 log
10
100)]
2
is :
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 10
4. log
10
p + log
10
q = log
10
(pq), then :
(A) p = q = 0 (B) p =
q 1
q
+
(C) p = q = 1 (D) p =
q 1
q

5. If 3 3
log 3 M log
3
1
+
N = 1+ log
0.008
5, then :
(A)
N
9
M
9
= (B)
M
9
N
9
=
(C)
N
3
M
3
= (D)
M
3
N
9
=
6. The value of x, when log
3
(log
2
x) + 2 log
9
(log
7
8) = 2, is :
(A) 243 (B) 27
(C) 343 (D) 64
7. Find all the real values of x, which satisfy the equation
( )
2 x
4
5
x log x log
3
2
2
2
2
=
(

+
.
(A)
2
1
, 2 (B) 2,
2
1
and
2 2
1
(C)
1 ,
2 2
1
,
2
1
(D) 2
8. If a
p
= b
q
= c
r
= d
s
, then log
a
(bcd) is equal to :
(A) |
|
.
|

\
|
+ +
s
1
r
1
q
1
p
(B) 1
(C)
s
1
r
1
q
1
+ +
(D) 0
9. Val ue of t he f ol l owi ng summat i on
x log
1
...
x log
1
x log
1
43 3 2
+ + +
i s equal t o :
(A)
x log
1
e
(B)
e
1
(C)
x log
1
) ! 43 (
(D)
e log
! 43
x
10. Solve for x if 2log
x
7 + log
7x
7+3log
49x
7 = 0.
(A)
3
4
x =
(B)
2 / 1
7 x

=
(C)
3 / 4
7 x

=
(D) (B) or (C) only
11. Find the number of different values of x that satisfy the
equation: 2| |
x log log
4 3
27 = (log
4
x)
2
+ 5(log
4
x) + 2.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) No real value of x exists
12. If log
30
3 = x and log
30
5 = y, then log
8
30 is equal to :
(A)
) y x 1 ( 3
1

(B) 3 (1 - x - y)
(C)
) y x 1 (
3

(D)
3
y x 1
13. If log
y
x = 10, then 3
x
log
(y
6
) is equal to :
(A) 5 (B)
5
1
(C) 6 (D)
6
1
14. If log 2 = a and log3 = b then [log(1) + log(1 + 3) + log
(1 + 3 + 5) + .......+ .....+ log (1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + ..... + 19)]
2[log 1 + log2 + log3 + ....... log7] = p + qa + rb where
p,q,r are constants. What is the value of p + 2q + 3r if all
logs are in base 10 ?
(A) 12
(B) 26
(C) 18
(D) Cannot be determined
15. The sum to 2n terms of the seri es,
log
3
1 log
3
3 + log
3
9 log
3
27 ...... is :
(A)
( )
( ) 1 n
1 n 2

(B)
( )
( ) 1 n 2
1 n

(C) 1 n (D) n
16. When the curves y = log
10
x and y = x
1
are drawn in the
x-y plane. How many times do they intersect for values
x > 1 ?
(A) Never (B) Once
(C) Twice (D) More than twice
17. Solve : log (x + 4) +log (x 4) = log 3.
(A) x = 19 (B) x = + 19
(C) x =

19
(D) Cannot be determined
18. Find x from the equation a
x
c
2x
= b
3x + 1
.
(A)
b log 3 c log 2 a log
b log 2

(B)
b log 3 c log 2 a log
b log
+
(C)
b log 3 c log 2 a log
b log

(D) Cannot be determined
62
PAGE # 62
19. If log 2 = 0.3010 and log 3 = 0.4771, then find the
number of digits in 6
17
.
(A) 12 (B) 14
(C) 18 (D) 17
20. Express 3 log
10
5 4 log
10
x + log
10
y
2
as the log of a
single number.
(A) log
10

|
|
.
|

\
|
4
2
x
y 25
(B) log
10

|
|
.
|

\
|
4
3
x
y 125
(C) log
10

|
|
.
|

\
|
3
2
x
y 125
(D) log
10

|
|
.
|

\
|
4
2
x
y 125
21. Express the log
|
|
.
|

\
|
2 5
3
b c
a
in terms of log a, log b and
log c.
(A)
2
3
log a 5 log c 2 log b
(B) 3 log a 5 log c 2 log b
(C)
2
3
log a 5 log c
3
2
log b
(D)
2
3
log a 5 log c log b
22. Find x if log
10
1250 + log
10
80 = x.
(A) 5 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 7
23. If log
x
2 = a, log
x
3 = b, log
x
5 = c, then find the value of the
following in terms of a, b and c.
(i) log
x
16 (ii) log
x
75 (iii) log
x
60
(A) 4a, 2a + b, 2a + b + c
(B) 4a, 2c + b, 2a + b + c
(C) 4a, 2c + b, 2c + b + a
(D) 4a, 2c + b, 2a + 3b + c
24. Find the value of log (1 + 2 + 3) =
(A) log1 + log2 log3 (B) log1 + log2 + log3
(C) log1 log2 + log3 (D) log1 + log2 + log3
25. log
4
18 is :
(A) an irrational number (B) a rational number
(C) natural number (D) whole number
26. If log
2
y x +
=
2
1
(log x + log y), then :
(A) x = y (B) x = y
(C) x = 2y (D) 2x = yZ
27. Find the value of (yz)
logy logz
(zx)
logz logx
(xy)
logx logy
= ?
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 0 (D) 1
28. The number of sol uti ons for the equati on i n
log
e
x + x 1 = 0 is :
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) None of the above
29. If 5 . 2 N log
10
= then, find out total number of digits in
N.
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5
(D) Cannot be determined
30. log
10

|
.
|

\
|
+
2
1
1
+ log
10
|
.
|

\
|
+
3
1
1
+ log
10
|
.
|

\
|
+
4
1
1
+ ... +
log
10
|
.
|

\
|
+
1999
1
1
. When simplified has the value equal to
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 10 (D) 100
31. [(log x log y)(logx
2
+ logy
2
)] [(logx
2
logy
2
)(logx + log y)]
is equal to :
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) log x/y (D) log xy
32. If log
10
[log
10
(log
10
x)] = 0.
(A) x = 10
3
(B) x = 10
10
(C) x = 15
5
(D) None
33. The number of solutions for real x, which satisfy the
equation 2log
2
log
2
x + log
1/2
log
2
) x 2 2 ( = 1 :
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) none of these
34. Find the number of integral pairs for (x, y) from the
following equations :
log
100
|x + y| =
2
1
& log
10
y log
10
|x| = log
100
4
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) none of these
35. How many positive real numbers x are there such that
( )
x
x x
x x x =
? [KVPY 2007]
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) infinite
36. Let log
a
b = 4, log
c
d = 2 where a, b, c, d are natural
numbers. Given that b d = 7, the value of c a is :
[KVPY 2009]
(A) 1 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 2
37. The value of log
10
(3/2) + log
10
(4/3) + ------ up to 99
terms. [IAO 2008]
(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) 2.5 (D) none of the above
38. If a, b = 1, ab > 0, a = b and log
b
a = log
a
b, then ab = ?
[IAO 2008]
(A) 1/2 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 10
39. Find x, if 10
0.3010
= 2, 10
0.4771
= 3 and 10
x
= 45.
[IAO 2009]
(A) 0.6532 (B) 1.6532
(C) 1.6570 (D) 1.7781
40. If x < 0 and log
7
(x
2
5x 65) = 0, then x is :
[IJSO-2011]
(A) 13 (B) 11
(C) 6 (D) 5
PAGE # 63
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
It includes alimentary canal and digestive glands.
Alimentary canal starts from mouth and ends into
anus.
Mouth or Buccal Cavity : An adult has 16 teeth on
each jaw.
In each half of jaws starting from middle to backward
these are, incisors - 2, canine - 1, premolar - 2, molars
- 3 (2 + 1 + 2 + 3).
Dental formula is 2123/2123.
Last molars are called wisdom teeth.
Milk teeth start erupting after 6 months of birth and
appear between 6 to 24 months.
Dental formula of milk teeth is 2102/2102.
Stomach : Inner mucosa of stomach is raised into
larger number of longitudinal folds called gastric
rugae.
NUTRITION
It hel ps i n mechani cal churni ng and chemical
digestion of food.
The stomach of ruminant (cud chewing) animals have
compound stomach and consists of 4 chambers
rumen, reticulum; omasum and abomasum.
Rumen and reticulum harbour numerous bacteria
and Protozoa which help in digestion of cellulose
called symbiotic digestion.
Abomasum is true stomach as it secretes gastric juice
containing HCl and pepsin.
Small Intestine : Villi and microvilli increase the
surface area of digestion and absorption of food.
Pancreatic duct release few enzymes which act on
carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
Large Intestine : In some herbivores (like horse and
ass), caecum is large and is a site of microbial
digestion of cellulose.
In man caecum very small vestigial organ and is called
appendix.
Table : Vitamins Necessary for Normal Cell Functioning
Deficiency Disease Deficient Nutrient Deficiency Disease Deficient Nutrient
1. Xerophthalmia Vitamin A / Retinol
10. Megaloblastic
anaemia
Folic acid and Vitamin B
12
2. Night-blindness Vitamin A
11. Pernicious
anaemia
Vitamin B
12
(Cyanocobalamine)
3. Rickets (in children) Vitamin D/ Sun-Shine Vitamin12. Scurvy Vitamin C/ Ascorbic acid
4. Osteomalacia (adults) Vitamin D 13. Tetany Calcium
5. Sterility Vitamin E (Tocopherol) 14. Anaemia Iron
6. Bleeding disease Vitamin K (Phylloquinone) 15. Goitre Iodine
7. Beri beri Vitamin B
1
(Thiamine) 16. Fluorosis Excess of fluorine
8. Cheilosis Vitamin B
2
(Riboflavin) 17. Kwashiorkor Proteins
9. Pellagra Vitamin B
3
(Niacin) 18. Marasmus Proteins and food calories
Knowledge Boosters :
(1) Salivary Glands : It produces saliva. In man only
three pairs of salivary glands are present.
(a) Parotid glands : largest glands present just below
the external ear. In this glands, virus causes mumps
disease.
(b) Submaxillary glands : these lie beneath the jaw-
angles.
(c) Sublingual glands : smallest glands which lie
beneath the tongue and open at the floor of buccal
cavity.
(2) Gastric Glands: Present in the mucosa of the
stomach. These are of 3 types :
(a) Cardiac glands : secrete an alkaline mucus.
(b) Pyloric glands : secrete an alkaline mucus.
(c) Fundic glands : each gland has 4 types of cells.
1. Peptic / Zymogen cells - secrete pepsinogen,
prorennin
2. Oxyntic cells - secrete HCI
3. Goblet cells - secrete mucus
4. Argentaffin cells - produces serotonin, somatostatin
and histamine
(3) Liver : It is the largest gland and consists of a
large right lobe, a small left lobe and two small lobes.
On the right lobe lies gall bladder, which, stores bile
juice secreted by the liver.
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PAGE # 64
Bile juice contains no enzyme but possesses bile
sal ts and bi l e pi gments (bi l i rubi n-yel l ow and
biliverdin-green).
Formation of glucose from excess organic acids.
Storage of vitamins : A, D, E, K
Synthesis of vitamin A from carotene.
Secretions of blood anticoagulant named heparin.
Synthesis of blood or plasma proteins, (fibrinogen
and prothrombin)
Secretion of bile, detoxification of harmful chemicals.
Elimination of pathogens and foreign particles through
phagocytic cells called Kupffers cells.
Table : Various Enzymes Involved in Digestion
EXERCISE
1. In human digestion is :
(A) Intercellular (B) Intracellular
(C) Extracellular (D) Both A & B
2. The enzyme rennin converts
(A) Proteins to proteoses (B) Fats to fatty acids
(C) Casein to paracasein (D) Proteins to peptones
3. Digestion in Amoeba is :
(A) Intercellular (B) Intracellular
(C) Both of these (D) None of these
4. Statements true or false is:
(i) No absorption of food takes place in mouth and
oesophagus
(ii) Absorption of H
2
O, alcohol, simple salts, glucose
and chloride takes place in the stomach to slight
extent.
(iii) Whole protein particles can be absorbed by
pinocytosis.
(A) (i) and (ii) true (iii) rarely true
(B) All true
(C) (i) and (iii) true B false
(D) (i) and (ii) true (iii) false
5. Stomach is protected from HCl and gastric juice
because :
(A) The two are dilute
(B) Epithelial lining is resistant to them
(C) Wall has neutralizing agents
(D) Stomach lining is covered by mucus
6. In a villus, some of the glycerol and fatty acids are
combined to form fats, coated with proteins, and then
transported to the :
(A) Lacteal
(B) Capillaries
(C) Lumen of the small intestine
(D) Lumen of the large intestine
7. Among mammals, an herbivore has :
(A) More teeth than a carnivore
(B) Fewer teeth than a carnivore
(C) Flatter teeth than a carnivore
(D) Teeth that are more pointed than a carnivore
8. Gastric juice has a pH of about :
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 6 (D) 10
9. Softness and deformities of bones like bowlegs and
pigeon-chest are symptoms of the disease :
(A) Rickets (B) Osteomalacia
(C) Goitre (D) Beri-Beri
PAGE # 65
10. In rabbit when a dilute solution of glucose reaches
small intestine is :
(A) Absorbed rapidly by the active transport with
sodium ions
(B) Absorbed by facilitated diffusion
(C) Lost to outside with undigested food
(D) Absorbed rapidly by active transport independent
of sodium ions
11. Chymotrypsin acts on :
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Proteins
(C) Fats (D) Starch
12. The vermiform appendix is made up of :
(A) Striated muscles (B) Excretory tissue
(C) Lymphatic tissue (D) Stem cells
13. Digestion is completed in :
(A) Ileum (B) Duodenum
(C) Stomach (D) Rectum
14. One of the following is not an enzyme of digestive
system :
(A) Trypsin (B) Amylase
(C) Enterogastrone (D) Enterokinase
15. Fat soluble vitamins are :
(A) A, D and E (B) B, C and D
(C) B,D and E (D) A, B and C
16. Sunshine vitamin is :
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin E
17. Which of the vitamins is essential for normal vision :
(A) Folic acid (B) Biotin
(C) Riboflavin (D) Retinol
18. B.M.R. for a normal human adult is :
(A) 1600 Kcal/day (B) 2000 Kcal/day
(C) 2500 Kcal/day (D) 3000 Kcal/day
19. Cholesterol rich diet is undesirable because it :
(A) Makes person obese
(B) Causes heart ailments
(C) Is difficult to remove it from body
(D) All of the above
20. If all bacteria of intestine die, then what will be the
effect on body:
(A) Man will feel tired all the body
(B) It will cause blindness
(C) There will be no synthesis of vitamin -B Complex
(D) Excretion will be effected
21. The gall bladder is involved in
[KVPY 2011]
(A) synthesizing bile
(B) storing and secreting bile
(C) degrading bile
(D) producing insulin
22. In the 16th century, sai lors who travel led l ong
distances had diseases related to malnutrition,
because they were not able to eat fresh vegetables
and fruits for months at a time scurvy is a result of
deficiency of [KVPY 2011]
(A) carbohydrates (B) proteins
(C) vitamin C (D) vitamin D
23. Several mineral such as iron, iodine, calcium and
phosphorous are i mportant nutrients. Iodine is
found in [KVPY 2011]
(A) thyroxine (B) adrenaline
(C) insulin (D) testosterone

PAGE # 66
SERIES COMPLETION
Series completion problems deals with numbers,
alphabets and both together. While attempting to
solve the question, you have to check the pattern of
the series. Series moves with certain mathematical
operations. You have to check the pattern.
Type of questions asked in the examination :
(i) Find the missing term(s).
(ii) Find the wrong term(s).
NUMBER SERIES
(a) Some Important Patterns :
(i) a, a d, a 2d, a 3d.......(Arithmetic Progression)
(ii) a, ak, ak
2
, ak
3
, ................(Geometric Progression)
(iii) a,
k
a
,
2
k
a
,
3
k
a
, .............(Geometric Progression)
(iv) Series of prime numbers i.e. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, ......
(v) Series of composite numbers
i.e. 4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12, .................
Directions : (1 to 10) Find the missing numbers :
Ex 1. 16, 19, 22, 25, ?
(A) 27 (B) 28
(C) 29 (D) 25
Sol. (B) As per series a, a + d, a + 2d,.........
a = 16
d = 3
a + 4d = 16 + 4 3
Ex 2. 9, 18, 36, ?, 144
(A) 70 (B) 56
(C) 54 (D) 72
Sol. (D) As per series, a, ak, ak
2
, ak
3
, ........
a = 9, k = 2
ak
3
= 9 2
3
= 72
Ex 3. 2, 6, 14, 26, ?
(A) 92 (B) 54
(C) 44 (D) 42
Sol. (D) The pattern is +4, +8, +12, +16, .......
Ex 4. 240, ? , 120, 40, 10, 2
(A) 120 (B) 240
(C) 40 (D) 10
Sol. (B) The pattern is 1,
2
1
,
3
1
,
4
1
,
5
1
missing term = 240 1 = 240
Ex 5. 8, 12, 21, 46, 95, ?
(A) 188 (B) 214
(C) 148 (D) 216
Sol. (D) The pattern is + 2
2
, + 3
2
, + 5
2
, + 7
2
, .......
missing number = 95 + 11
2
= 216
Ex 6. 3, 9, 36, 180, ?
(A) 1080 (B) 900
(C) 720 (D) None of these
Sol. (A) Each term is multiplied by 3, 4, 5 and so on
respectively. Therefore, the next term would be
180 6 = 1080.
(b) Multiple Series :
A multiple series is a mixture of more than one
series :
Ex 7. 4, 7, 3, 6, 2, 5, ?
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
Sol. (B) The sequence is a combination of two series
I 4, 3, 2, ?
II 7, 6, 5
The pattern followed in I is 1, 1, 1
missing number = 2 1 = 1
Ex 8. 14, 15, 12, 16, 9, 18, 4, 21, ?
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 3 (D) 5
Sol. (C) The sequence is a combination of two series.
I. 14, 12, 9, 4, (....) and
II. 15. 16, 18, 21
The pattern followed in I is 2, 3, 5, .......
missing number = 4 7 = 3
Ex 9. 1, 1, 4, 8, 9, ? ,16, 64
(A) 21 (B) 27
(C) 25 (D) 28
Sol. (B) (i) 1, 4, 9, 16 [1
2
, 1
3
, 2
2
, 2
3
, 3
2
, 3
3
.............]
(ii) 1, 8, __, 64 mixed combination
Ex 10. 3, 6, 24, 30, 63, 72, ?, 132
(A) 58 (B) 42
(C) 90 (D) 120
Sol. (D) The difference between the terms is given
below as :
3 6 24 30 63 72 ? 132
3 18 6 33 9 48 ?
3 15 3 15 ?
Difference
Difference
Therefore, alternate di fference between the
difference is 3 and 15 respectively.
Hence, the next term would be 72 + 48 = 120.
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PAGE # 67
Directions : (11 to 12) Find the wrong term(s)
Ex 11. 5, 8, 10, 12, 15, 18, 20, 23
(A) 8 (B) 12
(C) 15 (D) 18
Sol. (B)
Therefore, number 12 is wrong and should be
replaced by 13.
Ex 12. 1, 3, 8, 19, 42, 88, 184
(A) 3 (B) 8
(C) 19 (D) 88
Sol. (D)

1
184 8 19 42 89 3
2 5 11 23 47 95
3 6 12 24 48
Hence, number 88 is wrong and shoul d be
replaced by 89.
or 1 2 + 1, 3 2 + 2, 8 2 +3, 19 2 + 4, 42 2 + 5,
89 2 + 6
Directions : (13 to 14) In each of the following questions, a
number series is given. After the series, below it in
the next line, a number is given followed by (P), (Q),
(R), (S) and (T). You have to complete the series
starting with the number given following the
sequence of the given series. Then answer the
question given below it.
Ex 13. 12 28 64 140
37 (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
Which number will come in place of (T) ?
(A) 1412 (B) 164
(C) 696 (D) 78
Sol. (A)
Similarly (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
37 78 164 340 696 1412
2+4 2+8 2+12 2+16
2+20
Therefore, the number 1412 will come in place of (T).
Ex 14. 2 9 57 337
3 (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
Which number will come in place of (Q) ?
(A) 113 (B) 17
(C) 3912 (D) 8065
Sol. (A)
Similarly,
(P) (Q) (R) (S)
3 17 113 673
87 76 65 54
3361
Therefore, the number 113 will come in place of (Q).
ALPHABET SERIES
(a) Pattern of Alphabets Show Variation Based on :
(i) Position of the letters (ii) Difference between the alphabets
(i) Position of alphabets :
Alphabets in order :
Alphabets in reverse order :
Directions : (15 to 24) Find the missing term(s) :
Ex 15. B, E, H, ?
(A) K (B) L
(C) J (D) M
Sol. (A) In the given series, every letter is moved three
steps forward to obtain the corresponding letters
of the next term. So, the missing term is K.
Ex 16. Q, N, K, ?, E
(A) H (B) I
(C) J (D) G
Sol. (A) In the given series, every letter is moved three
steps backward to obtain the corresponding letters
of the next term. So, the missing term is H.
Ex 17. A, Y, D, W, G, U, J, ?
(A) R (B) T
(C) S (D) P
Sol. (C) The given sequence consists of two series :
I. A, D, G, J in which each letter is moved three
steps forward to obtain the next term
II. Y, W, U, ? in which each letter is moved two steps
backward to obtain the next term.
So, the missing term would be S.
Ex 18. AG, LR, WC, HN, ?
(A) SX (B) RY
(C) SY (D) TX
PAGE # 68
Sol. (C) The first letter of each group and the second
letter of each group differs by 11 letters between
them.
Alphabetical
positions
Difference in
Alphabetical
positions
A
1
L
12
W
23
H
8
11 11 11
Similarly,
Alphabetical
positions
Difference in
Alphabetical
positions
G
7
R
18
C
3
N
14
11 11 11
Therefore, the next group of letter would be SY.
11
H S
And
11
N Y
Ex 19. AD, EI, JO, PV, ?
(A) VD (B) WC
(C) WD (D) VE
Sol. (C) The first letter of subsequent groups have a
difference of 4, 5 and 6 places respectively, whereas
the second letter of the subsequent groups has a
difference of 5, 6, and 7 places respectively,
Therefore, on following the same pattern, we get
WD as the next term which would replace the
question mark.
Ex 20. AB, BA, ABD, DBA, PQRS, ?
(A) SRQP (B) SRPQ
(C) SQRP (D) RSQP
Sol. (A) The first term is reversed to get second term.
The third term is reversed to get the fourth term.
Similarly, to get the sixth term, we reverse the fifth
term. So, the missing term would be SRQP.
Ex 21. HEJ, JGL, LIN, NKP, ?
(A) MOR (B) PNS
(C) PMR (D) NPT
Sol. (C) First letter of each group differs by 2 letters.
Second letter of each group differs by 2 letters.
Third letter of each group differs by 2 letters. All the
letters differ in the forward direction. Hence, the
next choice would be PMR.
Ex 22. XYQ, ZAR, BCS, DET, ?
(A) GFU (B) FUG
(C) FZU (D) FGU
Sol. (D) Here, first two terms of every group of letters
are in continuation, like XY, ZA, BC, DE, and the
third letter of each group is again in forward
continuation,
i.e. Q, R, S, T. Hence, the term replacing the
question mark would be FGU.
Ex 23. 17Z5, 15X4, 13V3, ?, 9R1
(A) 11S2 (B) 11T2
(C) 11U2 (D) 11T3
Sol. (B) The first number & second letter of every term
is moved two steps backward & the third number
of every term is moved one step backward. So, the
missing term would be 11T2.
Ex 24. (ABC) 6, (DEF) 15, (GHI) 24, ?
(A) (IJK) 33 (B) (JKM) 33
(C) (IJK) 32 (D) (JKL) 33
Sol. (D) In a given series
Let A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, D = 4, E = 5, F = 6, and so on
6 C B A
3 2 1
= |
.
|

\
|
+ +
,
15 F E D
6 5 4
= |
.
|

\
|
+ +
,
24 I H G
9 8 7
=
|
.
|

\
|
+ +
So, the missing term would be
33 L K J
12 11 10
=
|
.
|

\
|
+ +
Directions : (25 to 27) Find the wrong term (s) :
Ex 25. ABD, DGK, HMS, NTB, SBL, ZKW
(A) NTB (B) DGK
(C) SBL (D) ZKW
Sol. (A) First letter of first, second, third,.........terms is
moved three, four, fi ve, ........steps forward
respectively. Similarly, second letter is moved five,
six, seven,......steps forward respectively and third
letter is moved seven, eight, nine,........steps
forward respectively. Hence, NTB is the wrong term
and should be replaced by MTB.
Ex 26. EPV, FQW, GRX, HTY, ITZ
(A) FQW (B) GRX
(C) HTY (D) ITZ
Sol. (C) In every term, first second and third letter is in
alphabetical order to its next term respectively.
Fourth term is not following the same rule. Hence,
HTY is the wrong term and should be replaced by
HSY.
Ex 27. D4V, G10T, J20R, M43P, P90N
(A) P90N (B) G10T
(C) J20R (D) D4V
Sol. (B) First letter of every term is moved three steps
forward in each next term. Second number of every
term of the pattern 2 + 1, 2 + 2, 2 + 3,............and
third letter of every term is moved two steps
backward. Hence, G10T is the wrong term and
should be replaced by G9T.
LETTER REPEATING SERIES
Pattern of such questions is that some letters in
sequence are missing.
(i) The letters may be in cyclic order (clockwise or
anti-clockwise).
(ii) To solve a problem, we have to select one of the
al ternative from the gi ven alternati ves. The
alternative which gives a sequence form of letters
is the choice.
Directions : (28 to 32) Find the missing term(s) :
Ex 28. a a _ b a a _ b b b _ a
(A) baa (B) abb
(C) bab (D) aab
PAGE # 69
Sol. (A) we proceed step by step to solve the above
series:
Steps :
1. The first blank space should be filled in by 'b' so
that we have two a's followed by two b's.
2. Second blank space should be filled in by 'a' so
that we have three a's followed by three b' s.
3. The last blank space must be filled in by 'a' to keep
the series in sequence.
Ex 29. _ bca _ ca _ c _ b _
(A) aabbc (B) abbbc
(C) aabcc (D) abbac
Sol. (D)
Series is abc/ abc/ abc/ abc. So, pattern abc is
repeated.
Ex. 30 a _ abb _ aa _ ba _ a _ b
(A) ababa (B) aabba
(C) aabab (D) aaabb
Sol- (C) Series is aaabb/ aaabb/ aaabb. So, pattern
aaabb is repeated.
Ex 31. a _ c _ abb _ ca _ a
(A) baca (B) bbca
(C) bacc (D) bacb
Sol- (A) Series is abc/ aabbcc/ aaa
Ex 32. bc _ b _ c _ b _ ccb
(A) cbcb (B) bbcb
(C) cbbc (D) bcbc
Sol- (A) Series is bccb / bccb / bccb. So, pattern bccb is
repeated
Directions : (33 to 34) The question given below is based
on the letter series, In series, some letters are
missing. Select the correct alternative. If more than
five letters are missing, select the last five letters
of the series.
Ex 33. xyzu _ yz _ v _ _ uv _ _ _ _ _ _ _
(A) uvxyz (B) vuzyx
(C) uvzyx (D) vuxyz
Sol. (A) The series is x y z u v / y z u v x/ z u v x y/u v x y z
Thus the letters are written in a cyclic order.
EX 34. abcd _ bc _ e _ _ de _ _ _ _ _ _ _
(A) deabc (B) edcba
(C) decba (D) edabc
Sol. (A) The series is a b c d e / b c d e a / c d e a b / b e a b c
Thus the letters are written in a cyclic order.
Direction : (35 to 36) There is a letter series in the first row
and a number series in the second row. Each
number in the number series stands for a letter in
the letter series. Since in each of that series some
term are missing you have to find out as to what
those terms are, and answer the questions based
on these as given below in the series.
Ex 35. a _ h _ _ c _ n e _ h _ e a c _ _ _ _ _
2 1 _ 4 3 _ 5 _ _ 2 5 4 _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
The last five terms in the series are
(A) 32524 (B) 43215
(C) 25314 (D) 32541
Sol. (B) By taking a = 2, c = 1, n = 4, h = 5 and e = 3, the
numbers series runs as 21543 15432 54321
43215. If first digit of a group of five digits is placed
as the last digit, we obtain the second group of five
digits and so on.
Ex 36. _ m y e _ _ y l x _ y l m _ _ l _ _ _ _
4 6 _ 5 8 6 _ _ _ 5 7 _ 6 5 8 _ _ _ _ _
The last five terms of the number series are
(A) 46758 (B) 74658
(C) 76485 (D) 46785
Sol. (D) By taking e = 5, l = 4, m = 6, y = 7 and x = 8 the
number series runs as 46758 67485 74658 46785.
By taking the digits in the groups of five, we find
that first digit of the first group (i.e. 4) is the third
digit of the second group and the last two digits
have interchanged their positions. The same rule
applies in others groups also.
Direction : (37) In the following question, three sequences
of letter/numbers are given which correspond to
each other in some way. In the given question, you
have to find out the letter/numerals that come in
the vacant places marked by (?). These are given
as one of the four alternatives under the question.
Mark your answer as instructed.
Ex 37. C B _ _ D _ B A B C C B
_ _ 2 3 5 4 _ _ ? ? ? ?
p _ p q _ r _ q _ _ _ _
(A) 4 5 5 4 (B) 4 3 3 4
(C) 4 2 2 4 (D) 2 5 5 2
Sol. (C) Comparing the positions of the capital letters,
numbers and small letters, we find p corresponds
to C and 2 corresponds to p. So, p and 2 correspond
to C. q corresponds to A and 3 corresponds to q.
So, q and 3 corresponds to A. Also, 5 corresponds
to D. So, the remaining number i.e., 4 corresponds
to B. So, BCCB corresponds to 4, 2, 2, 4.
MISSING TERMS IN FIGURES
Directions : (38 to 47) Find the missing number(s) :
Ex 38.
6 9 15
8 12 20
4 6 ?
(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 15 (D) 21
Sol. (B) In the first row, 6 + 9 = 15
In the second row, 8 + 12 = 20
In the third row, missing number = 4 + 6 = 10.
PAGE # 70
Ex 39.
(A) 11 (B) 6
(C) 3 (D) 2
Sol. (C) Clearly, in the I column,
8
3
4 6
=

In the II column, 27
2
3 18
=

We take x in place of ?
Similarly in the III column,
9
5
15
=
x
, x 3
15
5 9
=

=
Ex 40.
3C 27D 9E
7I 21K 3M
4D ? 7J
(A) 11E (B) 28G
(C) 35I (D) 48F
Sol. (B) The letters in the first row form a series C, D, E
(a series consecutive letters). The letters in the
second row form a series I, K, M (a series of
alternate letters). Similarly, the letters in the third
row will form the series D, G, J (a series in which
each letter is three steps ahead of the previous
one). So, the missing letter is G. Also, the
number in the second column is equal to the
product of the numbers in the first and third
columns. So, missing number is (4 7) i.e. 28.
Thus, the answer is 28G.
Ex 41.
6
4 5
41
? 5
1
2
7
(A) 16 (B) 9
(C) 85 (D) 112
Sol. (C) Hint ; 4
2
+ 5
2
= 16 + 25 = 41
1
2
+ 2
2
= 1 + 4 = 5
6
2
+ 7
2
= 36 + 49 = 85
Ex 42.
84 81 88
14 18 ? 12 9 11
(A) 16 (B) 21
(C) 61 (D) 81
Sol. (A) In first figure,
2
14
12
= 84.
In second figure,
2
18
9
= 81.
Let the missing number In third figure be x.
Then,
2
x
11
= 88 or x =
11
2 88
= 16.
Ex 43.
3 5 5
10 30 ?
2 3 5 6 9 6
4 5 2
(A) 15 (B) 20
(C) 25 (D) 40
Sol. (B) Clearly
In first figure] 6 3 4 2 = 18 8 = 10
In second figure] 9 5 5 3 = 45 15 = 30
In third figure] 6 5 2 5 = 30 10 = 20
Ex 44.
26 ? 29
4 3
3 5 6 8
6 4 5
(A) 32 (B) 22
(C) 18 (D) 27
Sol. (B) In first figure] 5 4 + 6 = 26
In second figure] 8 3 + 5 = 29
missing number in third figure] 6 3 + 4 = 22
Ex 45.
174
336 ?
8
5
3
3 2 9
6
7
5
3
2 7 9
2 5
6
4
5
(A) 140 (B) 150
(C) 200 (D) 180
Sol. (B) In first figure] 8 5 3 + 3 2 9 = 120 + 54 =
174
In second figure] 6 7 5 + 2 7 9= 210 + 126
= 336
missing number in third figure]
3 2 5 + 6 4 5 = 30 + 120 = 150
Ex 46.
11 9 15 7 25
21
40 176 ?
(A) 184 (B) 210
(C) 241 (D) 425
Sol. (A) The number at the bottom is the difference of
squares of two numbers given at top
In first figure] 11
2
9
2
= 121 81 = 40
In second figure] 15
2
7
2
= 225 49 = 176
In third figure] 25
2
21
2
= 625 441 = 184
Ex 47.
33
3
5
6 3
7
48
5 4
4
3 5
4
5
?
(A) 47 (B) 45
(C) 37 (D) 35
Sol. (D) In first figure, 6 3 + 3 5 = 33
In second figure, 5 4 + 4 7 = 48
In third figure, 5 4 + 3 5 = 35
PAGE # 71
EXERCISE-1
Directions : (1 to 25) Find the missing numbers :
1. 2, 8, 18, 32, ?
(A) 62 (B) 60
(C) 50 (D) 46
2. 16, 54, 195, ?
(A) 780 (B) 802
(C) 816 (D) 824
3. 14, 316, 536, 764, ?
(A) 981 (B) 1048
(C) 8110 (D) 9100
4. 8, 11, 15, 22, 33, 51, ?, 127, 203
(A) 80 (B) 53
(C) 58 (D) 69
5. 2, 3, 6, 18, ?, 1944
(A) 154 (B) 180
(C) 108 (D) 452
6. 7,19, 55, 163, ?
(A) 387 (B) 329
(C) 527 (D) 487
7. 1, 2, 9, 4, 25, 6, ?
(A) 51 (B) 49
(C) 50 (D) 47
8. 16, 33, 67, 135, ?
(A) 371 (B) 175
(C) 271 (D) 287
9. 8, 24, 16, ?, 7, 14, 6, 18, 12, 5, 5, 10
(A) 14 (B) 10
(C) 7 (D) 5
10. 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, ?
(A) 194 (B) 210
(C) 252 (D) 258
11. 101, 100, ?, 87, 71, 46
(A) 92 (B) 88
(C) 89 (D) 96
12. 100, 50, 52, 26, 28, ? 16, 8
(A) 30 (B) 36
(C) 14 (D) 32
13. 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, 336, ?, 720
(A) 496 (B) 502
(C) 504 (D) 498
14. 3, 1, 4, 5, 9, 14, 23, ?
(A) 32 (B) 37
(C) 41 (D) 28
15. 3, 6, 18, 72, 360, ?
(A) 720 (B) 1080
(C) 1600 (D) 2160
16. 78, 79, 81, ?, 92, 103, 119
(A) 88 (B) 85
(C) 84 (D) 83
17. 0, 6, 20, 42, 72, ?
(A) 106 (B) 112
(C) 110 (D) 108
18. 2, 9, 28, 65, ?
(A) 121 (B) 195
(C) 126 (D) 103
19. 1, 11, ?, 11, 11, 11, 16, 11
(A) 1 (B) 11
(C) 6 (D) 192
20. 137, 248, 359, 470, ?
(A) 582 (B) 581
(C) 571 (D) 481
21. 3, 15, 35, ?, 99, 143
(A) 63 (B) 77
(C) 69 (D) 81
22. 9, 16, 30, 58, ?
(A) 104 (B) 114
(C) 116 (D) 118
23. 3, 12, 27, 48, 75, 108, ?
(A) 192 (B) 183
(C) 162 (D) 147
24. 1, 4, 12, 30, ?
(A) 60 (B) 62
(C) 64 (D) 68
25. 94, 166, 258, ?, 4912
(A) 3610 (B) 1644
(C) 1026 (D) 516
Directions : (26 to 28) In each of the following questions, a
number series is given. After the series, below it in
the next line, a number is given followed by (P), (Q),
(R), (S) and (T). You have to complete the series
starting with the number given following the
sequence of the given series. Then answer the
question given below it.
26. 2 3 8 27
5 (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
Which of the following numbers will come in place
of (T) ?
(A) 184 (B) 6
(C) 925 (D) 45
27. 5 18 48 112
7 (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
Which number will come in place of (S) ?
(A) 172 (B) 276
(C) 270 (D) 376
28. 15 159 259 323
7 (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
Which of the following numbers will come in place
of (R) ?
(A) 251 (B) 315
(C) 176 (D) 151
PAGE # 72
Directions : (29 to 35) Find the wrong term(s)
29. 9, 11, 15, 23, 39, 70, 135
(A) 23 (B) 39
(C) 70 (D) 135
30. 3, 9, 36, 72, 216, 864, 1728, 3468
(A) 3468 (B) 1728
(C) 864 (D) 216
31. 2, 5, 11, 20, 30, 47, 65
(A) 5 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 47
32. 121, 143, 165, 186, 209
(A) 143 (B) 165
(C) 186 (D) 209
33. 9, 15, 24, 34, 51, 69, 90
(A) 15 (B) 24
(C*) 34 (D) 51
(A) 15 (B) 24
(C) 34 (D) 51
34. 9, 13, 21, 37, 69, 132, 261
(A) 21 (B) 37
(C) 69 (D) 132
35. 105, 85, 60, 30, 0, 45, 90
(A) 85 (B) 45
(C) 105 (D) 0
EXERCISE-2
Directions : (1 to 24) Find the missing term(s) :
1. X, U, S, P, N, K, I, ?
(A) J (B) K
(C) M (D) F
2. Z, X, U, Q, L, ?
(A) F (B) K
(C) G (D) E
3. A, H, N, S, W, ?
(A) A (B) Y
(C) B (D) Z
4. Q, T, V, Y, A, ?
(A) B (B) C
(C) D (D) F
5. X, A, D, G, J, ?
(A) N (B) O
(C) M (D) P
6. Z, L, X, J, V, H, T, F, ?, ?
(A) R, D (B) R, E
(C) S, E (D) Q, D
7. AZ, YB, CX, WD, ?
(A) VE (B) UE
(C) EU (D) EV
8. DFK, FEL, HDM, JCN, ?
(A) KBN (B) KBO
(C) LBO (D) LBN
9. JXG, HTJ, FPN, ?, BHY
(A) EKS (B) ELS
(C) DLR (D) DLS
10. CYD, FTH, IOL, LJP, ?
(A) PET (B) OET
(C) OEY (D) PEV
11. ZGL, XHN, VIQ, TJU, ?
(A) RKX (B) RKY
(C) RLZ (D) RKZ
12. MTH, QRK, UPN, YNQ, ?
(A) CKT (B) ELT
(C) CLT (D) EKT
13. ZSD, YTC, XUB, WVA, ?
(A) VZZ (B) ZVX
(C) VWZ (D) VZX
14. RML, VIJ, ZFH, DDF, ?
(A) HDC (B) CHI
(C) HCD (D) DIC
15. LRX, DJP, VBH, NTZ, ?
(A) ELS (B) FMR
(C) GKS (D) FLR
16. MAD, OBE, SCH, YDM, ?
(A) HET (B) HES
(C) GET (D) UAE
17. 2B, 4C, 8E, 14H, ?
(A) 22L (B) 24L
(C) 22K (D) 2M
18. 1 BR, 2 EO, 6 HL, 15 KI, ?
(A) 22 NF (B) 31 NF
(C) 31 NE (D) 28 NF
19. P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, ?
(A) Y17O (B) X17M
(C) X17O (D) X16O
20. Z 15 A, W 13 C, ?, Q 9 G, N 7 I
(A) T 12 E (B) R 11F
(C) T 11E (D) R 13 D
21. B3M, E7J, H15G, K31D, ?
(A) N65A (B) O63A
(C) N63A (D) N63Z
22. 5X9, 8U12, 11R15, 14O18, ?
(A) 17L21 (B) 17K21
(C) 17M21 (D) 17L23
23. 6C7, 8F10, 11J14, 15O19, ?
(A) 19U24 (B) 20U25
(C) 19U25 (D) 20U24
24. B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N, ?
(A) J58Q (B) J56Q
(C) J57Q (D) J56P
PAGE # 73
Directions : (25 to 30) Find the wrong term(s) :
25. ECA, JHF, OMK, TQP, YWU
(A) ECA (B) JHF
(C) TQP (D) YWU
26. DKY, FJW, HIT, JHS, LGQ
(A) FJW (B) LGQ
(C) JHJ (D) HIT
27. DVG, FSI, HPK, JNM, LJO
(A) DVG (B) JNM
(C) HPK (D) LJO
28. CDF, DEG, EFH, FHI
(A) CDF (B) DEG
(C) FHI (D) EFH
29. ZLA, BMY, CNW, FOU, HPS
(A) ZLA (B) BMY
(C) FOU (D) CNW
30. G4T, J10R, M20P, P43N, S90L
(A) G4T (B) J10R
(C) M20P (D) P43N
EXERCISE-3
Directions : (1 to 15) Which sequence of letters when placed
at the blanks one after the other will complete the
given letter series ?
1. a _ b a a _ a a _ _ a b
(A) a a a a (B) b a a a
(C) b b a a (D) a b b a
2. _ a a b b _ a _ a b _ b
(A) b b a a (B) b a b a
(C) b a a b (D) a b a b
3. a a b _ a a a _ b b a _
(A) b a a (B) a b b
(C) b a b (D) a a b
4. a _ _ b _ a _ a b _ a a
(A) a b a a b (B) b b a b a
(C) b b a b b (D) b a a b a
5. abc _ d _ bc _ d _ b _ cda
(A) bacdc (B) cdabc
(C) dacab (D) dccbd
6. a _ bbc _ aab _ cca _ bbcc
(A) bacb (B) acba
(C) abba (D) caba
7. _ b c _ _ b b _ a a b c
(A) acac (B) babc
(C) abab (D) aacc
8. _ b c c _ ac _ a a b b _ a b _ c c
(A) aabca (B) abaca
(C) bacab (D) bcaca
9. a _ cab _ a _ c _ b c
(A) bbac (B) abab
(C) abba (D) bcba
10. ba _ cb _ b _ bab _
(A) acbb (B) bcaa
(C) cabb (D) bacc
11. a _ bc _ a _ bcda _ ccd _ bcd _
(A) abddbd (B) acbdbb
(C) adbbad (D) bbbddd
12. cc _ ccdd _ d _ cc _ ccdd _ dd
(A) dcdcc (B) dcddc
(C) dccdd (D) None of these
13. a _ b a a _ b a a _ b a
(A) a a b (B) b a b
(C) b b a (D) b b b
14. b a b b b _ b _ b _ b b
(A) b b a (B) b a a
(C) a b a (D) a a a
15. m _ l _ ml _ m _ llm
(A) lmmm (B) lmlm
(C) lmml (D) mllm
Directions : (16 to 19) The questions given below are based
on the letter series, In each of these series, some
letters are missing. Select the correct alternative. If
more than five letters are missing, select the last
five letters of the series.
16. _ _ r _ ttp _ _ s _ tp _ _ _ s _ _ _
(A) rstqp (B) tsrqp
(C) rstpq (D) None
17. _ _ x _ zbxazyxabyz _ _ _ _ _
(A) abxzy (B) abzxy
(C) abxyz (D) bxayz
18. x _ xxy _ x _ xy _ yxx _ _ yy _ y
(A) xyyyy (B) xxyyx
(C) yxxyx (D) xyxyx
19. _ _ r _ tqrptsrpqst _ _ _ _ _
(A) pqrts (B) pqtrs
(C) pqrst (D) qrpst
Directions : (20 to 23) There is a letter series in the first row
and a number series in the second row. Each
number in the number series stands for a letter in
the letter series. Since in each of that series some
term are missing you have to find out as to what
those terms are, and answer the questions based
on these as given below in the series.
20. a b _ c d _ a _ a b d _ d b a _
1 _ 3 _ 3 2 _ 1 _ _ _ 4 _ _ _ _
The last four terms in the series are
(A) 1234 (B) 3112
(C) 3211 (D) 4312
PAGE # 74
21. _ b n t _ _ n a m _ n a b _ _ a _ _ _ _
1 3 _ 2 5 3 _ _ 5 2 4 _ 3 2 5 _ _ _ _ _
The last five terms in the series are
(A) 13425 (B) 41325
(C) 34125 (D) 13452
22. n _ g f _ t _ f h t n _ _ t _ b _ f
1 3 _ 2 4 5 0 _ 4 _ _ 3 _ _ _ _ _ _
The last five terms of the number series are
(A) 50123 (B) 40321
(C) 40231 (D) 51302
23. _ m i a x _ i r x a _ _ m a _ _ _ _ _ _
4 _ 5 _ 7 3 _ _ _ 6 _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
The last five term of the letter series are
(A) r m x i a (B) x m r a i
(C) x r m a i (D) r m i x a
Directions : (24 to 26) In each of the following questions,
three sequences of letter/numbers are given which
correspond to each other in some way. In each
question, you have to find out the letter/numerals
that come in the vacant places marked by (?). These
are given as one of the four alternatives under the
question. Mark your answer as instructed.
24. _ A C _ B D _ C D C D
2 _ 4 1 _ 1 4 _ _ _ _
r s _ q r _ p ? ? ? ?
(A) p q p q (B) p r p r
(C) r q r q (D) r s r s
25. A _ B A C _ D _ B C D C
_ 4 _ 3 _ 2 _ 5 ? ? ? ?
d c _ _ b a c b _ _ _ _
(A) 2 4 5 4 (B) 2 5 4 5
(C) 3 4 5 4 (D) 4 5 2 5
26. _ A D A C B _ _ B D C C
2 4 _ _ 2 3 5 3 _ _ _ _
p _ _ q _ _ r s ? ? ? ?
(A) p r s s (B) p s r r
(C) r p s s (D) s r p p
EXERCISE-4
Directions : (1 to 39) Find the missing term in the given
figures
1.
(A) 36 (B) 9
(C) 25 (D) 64
2.
(A) 14 (B) 18
(C) 11 (D) 13
3.
(A) 112 (B) 92
(C) 82 (D) 102
4.
(A) 235 (B) 141
(C) 144 (D) 188
5.
18
30 12
6
32
16 40
8
36
18
27
?
(A) 18 (B) 12
(C) 9 (D) 6
6.
12 21 ?
6 7 8 5 6 4
4 5 10
(A) 14 (B) 22
(C) 32 (D) 320
7.
5 9 8
5 15 ?
3 5 6
(A) 12 (B) 11
(C) 16 (D) 26
8.
(A) 72 (B) 18
(C) 9 (D) 19
9.
(A) 1 (B) 18
(C) 90 (D) 225
10.
(A) 20 (B) 22
(C) 24 (D) 12
PAGE # 75
11.
7 11 49
12 8 54
15 4 ?
(A) 36 (B) 7
(C) 25 (D) 0
12.
18 24 32
12 14 16
3 ? 4
72 112 128
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
13. C
26
5
3
2
4 H
70
4
5
4
10 J
90
6
?
8
6
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
14.
80 70 80
29 29 59 27 30 40
33 31 10
43 44 20
45 43 39
39 42 ?
(A) 69 (B) 49
(C) 50 (D) 60
15.
101 48
35 56 15
184
43 34
38
?
(A) 127 (B) 142
(C) 158 (D) 198
16.
1 7 6
3 3 ?
5 4 8
35 74 104
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
17.
(A) 33 (B) 145
(C) 135 (D) 18
18.
(A) 28 (B) 36
(C) 81 (D) 49
19. 72 6
140
5
8
4 10 7
?
2
6
2
4 3 1 4 12 3
6
6 8
(A) 16 (B) 14
(C) 20 (D) 22
20.
5 3 9 4 8 4
20 24 ? 9 11 13
(A) 117 (B) 36
(C) 32 (D) 26
21.
(A) 26 (B) 25
(C) 27 (D) 30
22.
12 16 36 30 40 34 18 32 18
30 44 ?
(A) 48 (B) 9
(C) 44 (D) 64
23.
5
16 109 2
6

21
22 53 19
15

51
17 ? 48
13
(A) 25 (B) 129
(C) 7 (D) 49
24.
4 5 4
33 54 ? 3
4
3 2 2 5
2 3 6
(A) 78 (B) 82
(C) 94 (D) 86
PAGE # 76
25.
2
4
5
3
28
5
7 4
3
38
1
2 3
7
?
(A) 14 (B) 18
(C) 11 (D) 26
26.
(A) 9 (B) 11
(C) 10 (D) 12
27.
BIG - 792

HCA - 138

FED - 456

E?H - 87?
(A) G, 6 (B) I, 9
(C) G, 5 (D) I, 5
28.
26 21 ?
36 9 25
25 16 36
64 25 144 49 81 64
(A) 19 (B) 23
(C) 25 (D) 31
29.
2 1 ? 8 6 8 3 4 12
2 3 6
6 8 4
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
30.
80 70 80
29 29 59 27 30 40
33 31 10
43 44 20
45 43 39
39 42 ?
(A) 69 (B) 49
(C) 50 (D) 60
31.
(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 1
32.
(A) 12 (B) 9
(C) 14 (D) 10
33 Find the missing letters from left to right.
(A) JSN (B) JNS
(C) JRS (D) KRS
34.
3 8 10 2 ? 1
6 56 90 2 20 0
(A) 0 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 7
35.
80 65 ?
15 9 13 2 7 16
5 4 11 6 6 8
(A) 48 (B) 72
(C) 35 (D) 120
36.
(A) 38 (B) 64
(C) 4 (D) 16
37.
101 48
35 56 15
184
43 34
38
?
(A) 127 (B) 142
(C) 158 (D) 198
38.
18 32 18 30 40 27 12 16 36
6 8 ?
(A) 18 (B) 12
(C) 9 (D) 6
39.
4 9
6
9 16
12
16 ?
20
(A) 60 (B) 50
(C) 21 (D) 25
40. Find the value of X in the following figure :
15 4
33 2
27 2
36 8
32 X
18 9
22 11
12 3
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 12
PAGE # 77
Directions : (1 to 5) Read the following information carefully
and answer the questions given below it.
(i). Five professors (Dr. Joshi, Dr. Davar, Dr.
Natrajan, Dr. Choudhary and Dr. Zia) teach five
different subjects (zoology, physics, botany, geology
and history) in four universities ( Delhi, Gujarat,
Mumbai, and Osmania). Do not assume any
specific order.
(ii). Dr. Choudhary teaches zoology in Mumbai
University .
(iii). Dr. Natrajan is neither in Osmania University
nor in Delhi University and he teaches neither
geology nor history.
(iv). Dr. Zia teaches physics but neither in Mumbai
University nor in Osmania University.
(v). Dr. Joshi teaches history in Delhi University.
(vi). Two professors are from Gujarat University.
(vii). One professor teaches only one subject and
in one University only.
Ex 1. Who teaches geology ?
(A) Dr Natrajan (B) Dr. Zia
(C) Dr. Davar (D) Dr. Joshi
Ex 2. Which university is Dr. Zia from ?
(A) Gujarat (B) Mumbai
(C) Delhi (D) Osmania
Ex 3. Who teaches botany ?
(A) Dr. Zia (B) Dr. Davar
(C) Dr. Joshi (D) Dr. Natrajan
Ex 4. Who is from Osmania University ?
(A) Dr. Natrajan (B) Dr. Davar
(C) Dr. Joshi (D) Dr. Zia
Ex 5. Which of the following combinations is correct ?
(A) Delhi University - Dr. Zia
(B) Dr. Choudhary - geology
(C) Dr. Davar - Mumbai University
(D) Dr. Natranjan - Gujarat University
Sol. : (1 to 5)
From the given information in the question :
From II, we get Dr. Choudhary teaches zoology in
Mumbai University.
From III, We get Dr. Natrajan is neither in Osmania
nor in Delhi University. Therefore, he will be either
at Mumbai or Gujarat University. Similarly, as he
teaches neither geology nor history, therefore, he
must be teaching physics or botany. ..........(1)
From IV, Dr. Zia Physics but as he is not teaching
in either Mumbai or Osmania University, he must
be teaching either in Delhi or Gujarat University...(2)
Form V, we get Dr Joshi teaches history in Delhi
University Form (1) and (2), we conclude that Dr
Natarajan teaches botany. And from (1), (2) and VI,
we get both Natarajan and Zia teach in Gujarat
University. Finally, On summarisation we can
prepare the following table.
PUZZLE TEST

Names University Subject
Dr. Joshi Delhi History
Dr. Davar Osmania Geology
Dr. Natrajan Gujarat Botany
Dr. Choudhary Mumbai Zoology
Dr. Zia Gujarat Physics
On the basis of the above table, rest of the questions
can be solved very easily.
1. (C) Dr. Davar teaches geology.
2. (A) Dr. Zia is from Gujarat university.
3. (D) Dr. Natrajan teaches botany.
4. (B) Dr. Davar is from Osmania University.
5. (D) Dr. Natranjan - Gujarat University is the correct
combination.
Ex 6. Ramesh is taller than Vinay who is not as tall as
Karan. Sanjay is taller than Anupam but shorter
than Vinay. Who among them is the tallest ?
(A) Ramesh (B) Karan
(C) Vinay (D) Cannot be determined
Sol. (D) In this question ranking of Karan is not defined.
Consequently, either Ram or Karan occupies the
top position with regard to height. Hence,
option (d) is the correct choice.
Directions : (7 to 11) Read the following information carefully
and answer the questions given below it :
There are five men A, B, C, D and E and six women
P, Q, R, S, T and U. A, B and R are advocates; C, D,
P, Q and S are doctors and the rest are teachers.
Some teams are to be selected from amongst
these eleven persons subject to the following
conditions :
A, P and U have to be together.
B cannot go with D or R.
E and Q have to be together.
C and T have to be together.
D and P cannot go together.
C cannot go with Q.
Ex 7. If the team is to consist of two male advocates, two
lady doctors and one teacher, the members of the
team are
(A) A B P Q U (B) A B P U S
(C) A P R S U (D) B E Q R S
Sol. (B) The male advocates are A and B, lady doctors
are P, Q and S ; teachers are E, T and U.
Now, A and B will be selected.
A, P and U have to be together. Now, we have to
select one lady doctor more. It can be Q or S. But Q
and E have to be together. Since E is not selected,
so S will be selected. Thus, the team is A B P U S.
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PAGE # 78
Ex 8. If the team is to consist of one advocate, two
doctors, three teachers and C may not go with T,
the members of the team are :
(A) A E P Q S U (B) A E P Q T U
(C) B E Q S T U (D) E Q R S T U
Sol. (B) The advocates are A, B and R ; doctors are
C, D, P, Q, S ; teachers are E, T and U. The team
consists of 3 teachers i.e. E, T, U. Now, A, P and U
have to be together. E and Q have to be together.
Thus, the team is A E P Q T U.
Ex 9. If the team is to consist of one male advocate, one
male doctor, one lady doctor and two teachers, the
members of the team are :
(A) A C P T U (B) A D E P T
(C) A D E P U (D) B C E Q U
Sol. (A) The male advocates are A and B ; male doctors
are C and D ; lady doctors are P, Q and S ; teachers
are E, T and U. If A is selected, P and U will be
selected. D and P cannot go together. So, a male
doctor C will be selected. C and T have to be
together. Thus, the team is A C P T U. If B is
selected, D will not be selected. So, male doctor C
will be chosen. C and T have to be together. Now,
the second teacher to be selected is E or U. But, U
cannot go without A. So, E will be selected. E and Q
have to be together. Thus, the team can also be
B C E Q T.
Ex 10. If the team is to consist of one advocate, three
doctors and one male teacher, the members of
the team are:
(A) A D P S U (B) C D R S T
(C) D E Q R S (D) D E Q R T
Sol. (C) The advocates are A, B and R ; the doctors are
C, D, P, Q and S ; male teacher is E. Clearly, E will
be selected. E and Q have to be together. C and Q
cannot be together. So, C will not be selected. P
also cannot be selected because U is not selected.
So, two other doctors D and S will be selected. P is
not selected, so A will not be selected. D is
selected, so B cannot be selected. Thus, the team
is D E Q R S.
Ex 11. If the team is to consist of two advocates, two
doctors, two teachers and not more than three
ladies, the members of the team are :
(A) A B C P T U (B) A C P R T U
(C) A E P Q R T (D) B C E Q R T
Sol. (A) A C P R T U and A E P Q R T are wrong because
each of these combinations consists of four ladies.
B C E Q R T is incorrect because B and R cannot
go together.
Directions : (12 to 15) Read the following paragraph
carefully :
Four women A, B, C and D and three men E, F and
G play bridge, a game for four players.
(i) The group consists of three married couples
and a widow.
(ii) Spouses are never partners in a game.
(iii) No more than one married couple ever plays in
the same game.
(iv) One day they played four games as follows.
A and E versus B and F.
A and G versus D and F.
B and C versus F and G.
C and E versus D and G.
Ex 12. Whom is E married to ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
Ex 13. Whom is F married to ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
Ex 14. Whom is G married to ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
Ex 15. Which of the following is a widow ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
Sol. : (12 to 15)
From (iv), is married either to A or to C. If F is married
to A, then G is married to B or to C. If G is married to
B, then E is married to D ; if G is married to C, then
E is married to B or to D. If F is married to C, then G
is married to B ; then E is married to D. Hence, the
married couples are : FA, GB, ED or FA, GC, EB or
FA, GC, ED or FC, GB, ED. Of these, only FA, GB,
ED does not contradict any of the statements.
12. (D) E is married to D.
13. (A) F is married to A.
14. (B) G is married to B.
15. (C) C is a widow.
Ex 16. A vagabond runs out of cigarettes. He searches for
the stubs, having learnt that 7 stubs can make a
new cigarette, good enough to be smoked, he
gathers 49 stubs, If he smokes 1 cigarette every
three - quarters of an hour, how long will his supply
last ?
(A) 5.25 hr (B) 6 hr
(C) 4.5 hr (D) 3 hr
Sol. (B) He has got = 7
7
49
cigarettes.
The duration of time he will take to smoke these
7 cigarettes =
4
3
7 hr = 5.25 hr (i.e. 5 hr and 15
min). Now note that after he has smoked these 7
cigarettes, he will collect 7 more stubs (one form
each), form which he will be able to make another
cigarette. This will take him another
4
3
hr (45 min)
to smoke. Therefore, total time taken = 6hr.
PAGE # 79
Directions : (17 to 18) Read the following information and
answer the questions that follow.
There are 70 clerks working with M/s. Jha Lal
Khanna & Co. chartered accountants, of which 30
are female.
(i) 30 clerks are married.
(ii) 24 clerks are above 25 years of age
(iii) 19 Married clerks are above 25 years of age;
among them 7 are males.
(iv) 12 males are above 25 years of age
(v) 15 males are married.
Ex 17. How many unmarried girls are there ?
(A) 12 (B) 15
(C) 18 (D) 10
Ex 18. How many of these unmarried girls are above 25 ?
(A) 12 (B) 15
(C) 4 (D) 0
Sol. (17 to 18) : From the given data, we can make the
following table with the help of which rest of the
questions can be solved very easily.
Male (40) Female (30)
Above 25
Married 7 12
Unmarried 5 0
Below 25
married 8 3
unmarried 20 15
Total 40 30
17. There are 15 unmarried girls.
18. In these 15 unmarried girls no one is above 25.
EXERCISE
Directions : (1 to 5) Study the following information carefully
and answer the questions given below it :
There are five friends A, B, C, D and E. Two of them
are businessmen while the other three belong to
different occupations viz. medical, engineer and
legal. One businessman and the lawyer stay in
the same locality S, while the other three stay in
three different localities P, Q and R. Two of these
five persons are Hindus while the remaining three
come from three different communities viz. Muslim,
Christian and Shikh. The lawyer is the oldest in
age while one of the businessmen who runs a
factory is the youngest. The other businessman is
a cloth merchant and agewise lies between the
doctor and the lawyer. D is a cloth merchant and
stays in locality S while E is a Muslim and stays in
locality R. The doctor is a Christian and stays in
locality P, B is a Shikh while A is a Hindu and runs
a factory.
1. Who stays in locality Q ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) E
2. What is Es occupation ?
(A) Business (B) Engineer
(C) Lawyer (D) Doctor
3. Agewise who among the following lies between A
and C ?
(A) Lawyer (B) Doctor
(C) Cloth merchant (D) Engineer
4. What is Bs occupation ?
(A) Business (B) Engineer
(C) Lawyer (D) Doctor
5. What is Cs occupation ?
(A) Doctor (B) Lawyer
(C) Engineer (D) Business
Directions : (6 to 10) Study the given information carefully
and answer the questions that follow.
There are four people sitting in a row : one each
from India, Japan, USA and Germany, but not in
that order,
. They are wearing caps of different colours - green,
yellow, red and white, not necessarily in that order.
II. One is wearing a kurta and one a T-shirt.
III. The Indian is wearing a green cap and a jacket.
IV. The American is not seated at either end.
V. The persons with kurta and T-shirt are sitting
next to each other.
VI. The persons with kurta wears a red cap and
sits next to the Japanese.
VII. The Japanese wears a shirt and is not seated
at either end.
VIII. The man with white cap wears T-shirt and is
seated at one end.
6. Who wears the T-shirt ?
(A) Indian (B) Japanese
(C) American (D) German
7. Who is wearing a kurta ?
(A) Indian (B) Japanese
(C) American (D) German
8. What is the colour of the cap worn by the Japanese?
(A) Red (B) Green
(C) Yellow (D) White
9. Who precedes the man wearing T-shirt ?
(A) Indian (B) Japanese
(C) American (D) German
10. Who precedes the man wearing jacket ?
(A) Indian (B) German
(C) Japanese (D) Cannot say
PAGE # 80
Directions : (11 to 15) Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions that follow.
I. There are six students ( A, B, C, D, E and F) in a
group. Each student can opt for only three choices
out of the six which are music, reading, painting,
badminton, cricket and tennis.
II. A, C and F like reading.
III. D does not like badminton, but likes music.
IV. Both B and E like painting and music.
V. A and D do not like painting, but they like cricket.
VI. All student except one like badminton.
VII. Two students like tennis.
VIII. F does not like cricket, music and tennis.
11. Which pair of students has the same combination
of choices ?
(A) A and C (B) C and D
(C) B and E (D) D and F
12. Who among the following students likes both
tennis and cricket ?
(A) A and B (B) C
(C) B and D (D) D
13. How many students like painting and badminton ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
14. Who among the following do not like music ?
(A) A , C and D (B) A, B and C
(C) A, C and F (D) B, D and F
15. Which of the following is the most popular choice?
(A) Tennis (B) Badminton
(C) Reading (D) Painting
16. R earns more than H but not as much as T, M
earns more than R. Who earns least among
them?
(A) R (B) T
(C) H (D) M
17. Harish is taller than Manish but shorter than
Suresh. Manish is shorter than Anil but taller than
Raghu. Who among them is the shortest having
regard to height ?
(A) Anil (B) Manish
(C) Raghu (D) Cannot be determined
Direction : (18) Examine the following statements :
I. Either A and B are of the same age or A is older
than B.
II. Either C and D are of the same age or D is older
than C.
III. B is older than C.
18. Which one of the following conclusions can be
drawn from the above statements ?
(A) A is older than B
(B) B and D are of the same age
(C) D is older than C
(D) A is older than C
Directions : (19 to 23) Read the information given below
and answer the questions.
The age and height of six children in a class are as
follows :
(i) A is taller and older than B but shorter and
younger than C.
(ii) D is taller than E who is not as tall as B.
(iii) The oldest is the shortest.
(iv) The youngest would be fourth if the children
stood in a line according to their height and one
started counting from the tallest.
(v) D is younger than F but older than E who is
older than C.
19. Who among them is the tallest ?
(A) B (B) E
(C) C (D) Data inadequate
20. Who is older than B but younger than C ?
(A) F (B) D
(C) A (D) Data inadequate
21. Which of the following statements is definitely true?
(A) D is the most old person
(B) B has the max. height
(C) A is older than D
(D) F is the shortest
22. Which of the following is the correct order of height
in descending order?
(A) A, C, D, B, E, F (B) F, D, E, C, A, B
(C) D, C, A, B, E, F (D) C, D, A, B, E, F
23. Whose Rank in height cannot be positioned
definitely ?
(A) B (B) D
(C) C (D) E
Directions : (24 to 28) Study the information given below
and answer the questions that follow.
(i) Six Plays P, Q, R, S, T and U are to be organised
from Monday to Saturday i.e. 10 to 15 one play each
day.
(ii) There are two plays between R and S and one
play between P and R.
(iii) There is one play between U and T and T is to
be organised before U.
(iv) Q is to be organised before P, not necessarily
immediately.
(v) The organisation does not start with Q.
24. The organisation would start from which play ?
(A) P (B) S
(C) T (D) None
25. On which date is play T to be organised ?
(A) 10
th
(B) 11
th
(C) 12
th
(D) None
26. The organisation would end with which play ?
(A) P (B) Q
(C) S (D) None
PAGE # 81
27. Which day is play Q organised ?
(A) Tuesday (B) Wednesday
(C) Thursday (D) None
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
organising plays ?
(A) PTRUQS (B) QSTURP
(C) SUTRQP (D) None
Directions : (29 to 30) Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below it.
I. Seven books are placed one above the other in a
particular way .
II. The history book is placed directly above the
civics book.
III. The geography book is fourth from the bottom
and the English book is fifth from the top.
IV. There are two books in between the civics and
economics books.
29. To find the number of books between the civics
and the science books, which other extra piece of
information is required, from the following ?
(A) There are two books between the geography
and the science books.
(B) There are two books between the mathematics
and the geography books .
(C) There is one book between the English and
the science books.
(D) The civics book is placed before two books
above the economics book.
30. To know which three books are kept above the
English book, which of the following additional
pieces of information, if any, is required?
(A) The economics book is between the English
and the science books.
(B) There are two books between the English and
the history books.
(C) The geography book is above the English book.
(D) No other information is required.
Directions : (31 to 32) A five-member team that includes
Rama, Shamma, Henna, Reena, and Tina, is
planning to go to a science fair but each of them
put up certain conditions for going .They are as
follows.
I. If Rama goes, then at least one amongst
Shamma and Henna must go.
II. If Shamma goes, then Reena will not go.
III. If Henna will go, then Tina must go.
IV. If Reena goes, then - Henna must go.
V. If Tina goes, then Rama must go but Shamma
cannot go.
VI. If Reena plans not to go the fair, then Rama will
also not go.
31. If it is sure that Henna will go to the fair, then who
among the following will definitely go ?
(A) Rama (B) Shamma
(C) Reena (D) Rama and Reena
32. If Tina does not go to the fair, which of the following
statements must be true ?
(i) Henna cannot go
(ii) Shamma cannot go
(iii) Reena cannot go
(iv) Rama cannot go
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iv)
Directions : (33 to 37) Read the following paragraph
carefully and choose the correct alternative.
The office staff of XYZ corporation presently
consists of three females A, B, C and five males D,
E, F, G and H. The management is planning to
open a new office in another city using three males
and two females of the present staff. To do so they
plan to separate certain individuals who do not
function well together. The following guidelines
were established
I. Females A and C are not to be together
II. C and E should be separated
III. D and G should be separated
IV. D and F should not be part of a team.
33. If A is chosen to be moved, which of the following
cannot be a team ?
(A) ABDEH (B) ABDGH
(C) ABEFH (D) ABEGH
34. If C and F are to be moved to the new office, how
many combinations are possible ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
35. If C is chosen to the new office, which number of
the staff cannot be chosen to go with C ?
(A) B (B) D
(C) F (D) G
36. Under the guidelines, which of the following must
be chosen to go to the new office ?
(A) B (B) D
(C) E (D) G
37. If D goes to the new office, which of the following
is/are true ?
I. C cannot be chosen
II. A cannot be chosen
III. H must be chosen.
(A) I only (B) II only
(C) I and II only (D) I and III only
PAGE # 82
Directions : (38 to 42) Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions that follow :
A team of five is to be selected from amongst five
boys A, B, C, D and E and four girls P, Q, R and S.
Some criteria for selection are :
A and S have to be together
P cannot be put with R.
D and Q cannot go together.
C and E have to be together.
R cannot be put with B.
Unl ess otherwi se stated, these cri teri a are
applicable to all the questions below :
38. If two of the members have to be boys, the team
will consist of :
(A) A B S P Q (B) A D S Q R
(C) B D S R Q (D) C E S P Q
39. If R be one of the members, the other members of
the team are :
(A) P S A D (B) Q S A D
(C) Q S C E (D) S A C E
40. If two of the members are girls and D is one of the
members, the members of the team other than D
are :
(A) P Q B C (B) P Q C E
(C) P S A B (D) P S C E
41. If A and C are members, the other members of the
team cannot be :
(A) B E S (B) D E S
(C) E S P (D) P Q E
42. If including P at least three members are girls, the
members of the team other than P are :
(A) Q S A B (B) Q S B D
(C) Q S C E (D) R S A D
Directions : (43 to 44) Read the given information carefully
and answer the questions that follow :
Ratan, Anil, Pinku and Gaurav are brothers of Rakhi,
Sangeeta, Pooja and Saroj, not necessarily in that
order. Each boy has one sister and the names of
bothers and sisters do not begin with the same
l etter. Pi nku and Gaurav are not Saroj s or
Sangeetas brothers. Saroj is not Ratans sister.
43. Poojas brother is
(A) Ratan (B) Anil
(C) Pinku (D) Gaurav
44. Which of the following are brother and sister ?
(A) Ratan and Pooja (B) Anil and Saroj
(C) Pinku and Sangeeta (D) Gaurav and Rakhi
Directions : (45 to 49) Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
(i) There is a family of six persons- L, M, N, O, P
and Q. They are professor, busi nessman,
chartered account, bank manager, engineer and
medical representative, not necessarily in that
order.
(ii) There are two married couples in the family.
(iii) O, the bank manager is married to the lady
professor.
(iv) Q, the medical representative, is the son of M
and brother of P.
(v) N, the chartered accountant, is the daughter - in
law of L.
(vi) The businessman is married to the chartered
acconuntant.
(vii) P is an unmarried engineer.
(viii) L is the grandmother of Q
45. How is P related to Q.
(A) Brother (B) Sister
(C) Cousin (D) Either brother or sister
46. Which of the following is the profession of M ?
(A) Professor
(B) Chartered accountant
(C) Businessman
(D) Medical representative
47. Which of the following is the profession of L ?
(A) Professor (B) Charted accountant
(C) Businessman (D) Engineer
48. Which of the following is one of the couples ?
(A) QO (B) OM
(C) PL (D) None of these
49. How is O related to Q?
(A) Father (B) Grandfather
(C) Uncle (D) Brother
Directions : (50 to 54)
I. There is a group of six persons P,Q, R, S, T and U
from a family. They are Psychologist, Manager,
Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer.
II. The Doctor is grandfather of U, who is a
Psychologist.
III. The Manager S is married to P.
IV. R, the Jeweller is married to the Lawyer.
V. Q is the mother of U and T.
VI. There are two married couples in the family.
50. What is the profession of T ?
(A) Doctor (B) Jeweller
(C) Manager (D) None of these
51. How is P related to T ?
(A) Brother (B) Uncle
(C) Father (D) Grandfather
52. How many male members are their in the family ?
(A) One (B) Three
(C) Four (D) Data inadequate
PAGE # 83
53. What is the profession of P ?
(A) Doctor (B) Lawyer
(C) Jeweller (D) Manager
54. Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples
in the family ?
(A) PQ (B) PR
(C) PS (D) Cannot be determined
Direction : (55) The ages of Mandar, Shivku, Pawan and
Chandra are 32, 21, 35 and 29 years, not in order,
Whenever asked they lie of their own age but tell
the truth abut others.
(i) Pawan says, My age is 32 and Mandars age is
not 35
(ii) Shivku says, My age is not 2 9 and Pawans
age in not 21
(iii) Mandar says, My age is 32.
55. What is Chandras age ?
(A) 32 years (B) 35 years
(C) 29 years (D) 21 years
Directions : (56 to 57) Answer the questions on the basis
of the information given below. 5 friends Nitin,
Reema, Jai, Deepti and Ashutosh are playing a
game of crossing the roads. In the beginning, Nitin,
Reema and Ashutosh are on the one side of the
road and Deepti and Jai are on the other side. At
the end of the game, it was found that Reema and
Deepti are on the one side and Nitin, Jai and
Ashutosh are on the other side of the road. Rules
of the game are as follows :
I. One movement means only one person crosses
the road from any side to the other side.
II. No two persons can cross the road
simultaneously from any side to the other side.
III. Two persons from the same side of the roads
cannot move in consecutive movements.
IV. If one person crosses the road in a particular
movement, he or she cannot immediately move
back to the other side.
V. Jai and Reema did not take part in first 3
movements.
56. What i s the mi ni mum possi bl e number of
movements that took place in the entire game ?
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
57. If number of movements are minimised in the
game, then which of the following combination of
friends can never be together on one particular
side of the road during the course of the game ?
(A) Nitin, Reema amd Deepti
(B) Nitin, Jai and Deepti
(C) Deepti, Jai and Ashutosh
(D) Ashutosh, Nitin and Deepti
58. You have 12 similar looking coins. 11 of them weigh
the same. One of them has a different weight, but
you dont know whether it is heavier or lighter. You
also have a scale. You can put coins on both sides
of the scale and itll tell you which side is heavier or
will stay in the middle if both sides weigh the same.
What is the minimum number of weighing required
to find out the odd coin.
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6

PAGE # 84
CALENDAR AND CLOCK TEST
We are to find the day of the week on a mentioned
date. Certain concepts are defined as under.
An ordinary year has 365 days.
In an ordinary year, first and last day of the year are
same.
A leap year has 366 days. Every year which is
divisible by 4 is called a leap year. For example
1200, 1600, 1992, 2004, etc. are all leap years.
For a leap year, if first day is Monday than last day
will be Tuesday for the same year.
In a leap year, February is of 29 days but in an
ordinary year, it has only 28 days.
Year ending in 00's but not divisiable by 400 is not
considered a leap year. e.g., 900, 1000, 1100, 1300,
1400, 1500, 1700, 1800, 1900, 2100 are not leap
years.
The day on which calendar started (or the very first
day ) i.e., 1 Jan, 0001 was Monday.
Calendar year is from 1 Jan to 31 Dec. Financial
year is from 1 April to 31 March.
ODD DAYS
The no. of days exceeding the complete no. of
weeks in a duration is the no. of odd days during
that duration.
COUNTING OF ODD DAYS
Every ordinary year has 365 days = 52 weeks +1 day.
Ordinary year has 1 odd day.
Every leap year 366 days = 52 weeks + 2 days.
Leap year has 2 odd days.
Odd days of 100 years = 5,
Odd days of 200 years = 3,
Odd days of 300 years = 1,
Odd days of 400 years = 0.
Explanation :
100 years = 76 ordinary years + 24 leap years
( The year 100 is not a leap year)
= 76 odd days + 2 24 odd days = 124 odd days.
Odd days =
7
124
= 5 odd days.
Similarly, 200 years = 10 odd days = 03 odd days
300 years =
7
15
= 1 odd day..
400 years =
7
1 20
= 0 odd day (1 is added as 400
is a leap year)
Similarly, 800, 1200, 1600, 2000, 2400 years
contain 0 odd days.
After counting the odd days, we find the day
according to the number of odd days.
Sunday for 0 odd day, Monday for 1 odd day and so
on as shown in the following table.
Table : 1 (Odd days for week days)
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Saturday Monday Sunday Tuesday Wednesday Days
Odd Days
Thursday Friday
Table : 2 (Odd days for months in a year)
Ordinary
Year
Days
Odd
Days
Leap year Days
Odd
Days
January 31 3 January 31 3
February 28 0 February 29 1
March 31 3 March 31 3
April 30 2 April 30 2
May 31 3 May 31 3
June 30 2 June 30 2
Total 181 days 6 Total 182 days 0
July 31 3 July 31 3
August 31 3 August 31 3
September 30 2 September 30 2
October 31 3 October 31 3
November 30 2 November 30 2
December 31 3 December 31 3
Total 184 days 1 Total 184 days 2
Table : 3 (Odd days for every quarter)
Iv
th
three
months
1 Oct. to
31 Dec.
Total year
1 Jan to
31 Dec.
I
st
three
months
1 Jan to
31 March
Months
of
years
II
nd
three
months
1 Apr to
30 June
III
rd
three
months
1 July to
30 Sep.
Total days
90 / 91
Ord. / Leap
91 92 92
365 / 366
Ord. / Leap
1
Odd day
1 / 2
Ord. / Leap
Odd days
6 / 0
Ord. / Leap
0
Odd day
1
Odd day
Ex 1. If it was Saturday on 17th December 1982 what
will be the day on 22nd December 1984 ?
Sol. Total number of odd days between 17 Dec.1982
to 17 Dec.1984 the number of odd days = 1+2 = 3.
From 17 to 22 Dec. number of odd days = 5
3 + 5 = 8 odd days = 1 odd day.
Saturday + 1 odd day = Sunday.
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PAGE # 85
Ex 2. Find the day of the week on 16 January, 1969.
Sol. 1600 years have 0 odd day. .....................(A)
300 years have 1 odd day. ......................(B)
68 years have 17 leap years and 51 ordinary years.
Thus = (17 2 + 51 1 ) = 85 odd days

' 01' odd day ...(C)


16 January has = ' 02' odd days..(D)
Adding (A) + (B) +(C) +(D),
We get, 0 + 01 +01 +02 = 04 odd days
Ans. Thursday
Ex 3. Find the day of the week on 18 July, 1776 (leap
year).
Sol. Here 1600 years have 0 odd day.....................(A)
100 years have 5 odd days..............................(B)
75 years = (18 leap years + 57 ordinary years)
= (18 2 + 57 1)
= 93 odd days
= (7 13 + 2) = 2 odd days.............................(C)
Now, the no. of days from 1
st
January to 18 July,
1776
= 182 + 18 = 200 days
= (28 7 + 4) days = 4 odd days.....................(D)
Adding (A) + (B) +(C) +(D),
We get, 0 + 5 + 2 + 4 = 04 odd days
Ans. Thursday
Ex 4. On what dates of October, 1975 did Tuesday fall ?
Sol. For determining the dates, we find the day on 1
st
Oct, 1975.
1600 years have 0 odd days.....................(A).
300 years have 01 odd days.....................(B).
74 years have (18 leap years + 56 ordinary years)
2 18 + 1 56 = 92 odd days
= 01 odd days.............(C)
Days from 1
st
January to 1
st
Oct., 1975
1
st
Jan 30 June + 1
st
July to 1
st
Oct.
181 + 31 + 31 + 30 + 1 = 274 days
= 01 odd days......(D) (274/7= 01 days)
Adding (A) + (B) +(C) +(D) = 0 + 01 +01 +01
= '03' odd days
Ans. Wednesday( 1
st
Oct), hence 7,14,21,28 Oct. will
Tuesday fall.
Ex 5. Calendar for 1995 will serve for 2006, prove ?
Sol. The Calendar for 1995 and 2006 will be the same
,if day on 1st January of both the years is the same.
This is possible only if the total odd days between
31st Dec. 1994 and 31st Dec.2005 is 0. [one day
before both the years as we want to know the day
on 1st January of both the years i.e. same]
During this period, we have
3 leap years
(1996, 2000, 2004) and
08 ordinary years
(1995,1997,1998,1999, 2001, 2002, 2003,2005)
Total odd days = (2 3 + 1 8) = 14 = 0 odd
days (Thus Proved)
Ex 6. The year next to 1996 having the same Calendar
will be -
Sol. 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003
2 1 1 1 2
Total = 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 = 7= 0 odd days
Hence, year 2001 will have the same calendar as
year 1996.
Ex 7. Prove that last day of a century cannot be Tuesday,
Thursday or Saturday.
Sol. 100 years have = 5 odd days
Last day of
st
century is Friday
200 years have = 10 odd days
Last day of II
nd
century is Wednesday
= 3 odd days
300 years have = 15 odd days
Last day of
rd
century is Monday
= 01 odd day
400 years have = (5 4 + 1)
Last day of 4th century is Sunday
= 21 odd days
= 0 odd days
Since the order keeps on cycling, we see that the
last day of the century cannot be Tuesday, Thursday
or Saturday.
Important Notes :
Minute hand and hour hand coincides once in every
hour. They coincide 11 times in 12 hours and 22
times in 24 hours.
They coincide only one time between 11 to 1 O
clock. at 12 O clock.
Minute hand and hour hand are opposite once in
every hour. They do it 11 times in 12 hours and 22
times in 24 hours.
They opposite only one time between 5 to 7 O
clock. at 6 O clock.
Both hands (minute and hour) are perpendicular
twice in every hour. 22 times in 12 hours and 44
times in 24 hours.
In one minute, hour hand moves 1/2 and minute
hand moves 6. In one hour, hour hand moves 30
and minute hand moves 360.
In an hour, minute hand moves 55 minutes ahead
of hour hand.
PAGE # 86
HANDS COINCIDE
Ex.8 At what time between 3 OClock and 4 OClock will
the two hands coincide ?
Sol. At 3 Oclock the distance between the two hands is
15 minutes when they coincide with each other the
distance between the two hands will be 0 min.
So, the time taken (15 + 0 ) = 15 minutes.
Minute hand is 55 min. ahead of hour hand in
60 min.
Minute hand is 1 min. ahead of hour hand in

55
60
min.
Minute hand is 15 min. ahead of hour hand in

55
15 60
=
11
180
=
11
4
16 min.
Hence the right time is
11
4
16 minute past 3.
HANDS ARE OPPOSITE
Ex.9 At what time between 2 Oclock and 3 Oclock will
the two hands be opposite ?
Sol. At 2 Oclock the distance between the two hands is
10 minutes. When they are at 30 minutes distance,
they are opposite to each other. The time taken
(30 + 10 ) = 40 min.
Minute hand is 55 min. ahead of hour hand in
60 min.
Minute hand is 1 min. ahead of hour hand in

55
60
min.
Minute hand is 40 minutes ahead of hour hand
in
55
40 60
=
11
480
=
11
7
43 min.
Hence, the right time is
11
7
43 min. past 2.
HANDS ARE PERPENDICULAR
Ex.10 At what time between 4 Oclock and 5 Oclock will
the hands are perpendicular ?
Sol. At 4 Oclock the distance between the two hands is
20 min. When they are at 15 minutes distance,
they are perpendicular to each other.
Case-I When the time taken (20 15) = 5 min.
Minute hand is 55 min. ahead of hour hand in
60 min.
Minute hand is 5 min. ahead of hour hand in

55
5 60
=
11
60
=
11
5
5 min.
Hence, the right time is
11
5
5 min. past 4.
Case-II When the time taken (20 + 15) = 35 min.
Minute hand is 55 min. ahead of hour hand in
60 min.
Minute hand is 35 min. ahead of hour hand in

55
35 60
=
11
420
=
11
2
38 min.
Hence, the right time is
11
2
38 min. past 4.
MIRROR IMAGE OF CLOCK
If the time is between 1 Oclock to 11 Oclock, then
to find the mirror image, time is subtracted from
11 : 60.
If the time is between 11 Oclock to 1 Oclock, then
to find the mirror image, time is subtracted from
23 : 60.
Ex.11 The time in the clock is 4 : 46, what is the mirror image ?
Sol. (11 : 60) (4 : 46) = 7 : 14.
Ex.12 The time in the clock is 12 : 35, then find its mirror
image.
Sol. (23 : 60) (12 : 35) = 11 : 25.
TO FIND THE ANGLE BETWEEN TWO HANDS
Angle are of two types :
Positive angle : It is obtained by moving from hour
hand to minute hand moving in clockwise direction.
Negative angle : It is obtained by moving from
minute hand to hour hand.
Both types of angles are 360 in total. If one angle
is known, other can be obtained by subtracting from
360.
Ex.13 At 4 : 30, what is the angle formed between hour
hand and minute hand ?
Sol. At 4 O clock angle between hour and min. hand is
of 120.
In 30 min. minute hand make an angle of 180.
So, the resultant angle is 180 120 = 60.
But in 30 min. hour hand will also cover an angle of 15.
Hence, the final angle between both hands is
60 15 = 45.
Short trick
PAGE # 87
Ex.14 A bus for Delhi leaves every thirty minutes from a bus
stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the bus
had already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will
leave at 9.35 A.M. At what time did the enquiry clerk
give this information to the passenger ?
Sol. Bus leaves after every 30 minutes.
The next bus will leave at 9 : 35 A.M.
The last bus left at 9 : 35 0 : 30 = 9 : 05 A.M.
but clerk said that bus had left 10 minutes earlier.
9 : 05 + 0 : 10 = 9 : 15 A.M.
EXERCISE
1. Find the day of the week on 26 January, 1950.
(A) Tuesday (B) Friday
(C) Wednesday (D) Thursday
2. Which two months in a year have the same
calendar ?
(A) June, October (B) April, November
(C) April, July (D) October, December
3. Are the years 900 and 1000 leap years ?
(A) Yes (B) No
(C) Can't say (D) None of these
4. If it was Saturday on 17th November, 1962 what
will be the day on 22nd November, 1964 ?
(A) Monday (B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday (D) Sunday
5. Sangeeta remembers that her father's birthday
was certainly after eighth but before thirteenth of
December. Her sister Natasha remembers that
their father's birthday was definitely after ninth but
before fourteenth of December. On which date of
December was their father's birthday ?
(A) 10th (B) 11th
(C) 12th (D) Data inadequate
6. Find the day of the week on 15 August, 1947.
(A) Tuesday (B) Friday
(C) Wednesday (D) Thursday
7. Karan was born on Saturday 22nd March 1982. On
what day of the week was he 14 years 7 months
and 8 days of age ?
(A) Sunday (B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday (D) Monday
8. If on 14th day after 5th March be Wednesday, what
day of the week will fall on 10th Dec. of the same
year ?
(A) Friday (B) Wednesday
(C) Thursday (D) Tuesday
9. If the day before yesterday was Saturday, what day
will fall on the day after tomorrow ?
(A) Friday (B) Thursday
(C) Wednesday (D) Tuesday
10. If February 1, 1996 is Wednesday, what day is March
10, 1996 ?
(A) Monday (B) Sunday
(C) Saturday (D) Friday
11. If the seventh day of a month is three days earlier
than Friday, what day will it be on the nineteenth
day of the month ?
(A) Sunday (B) Monday
(C) Wednesday (D) Friday
12. Mohini went to the movies nine days ago. She goes
to the movies only on Thursday. What day of the
week is today ?
(A) Thursday (B) Saturday
(C) Sunday (D) Tuesday
13. At what time are the hands of a clock together
between 5 and 6 ?
(A) 33
11
3
min. past 5 (B) 28
11
3
min. past 5
(C) 27
11
3
min. past 5 (D) 26
11
3
min. past 5
14. At what time between 9 and 10 will the hands of a
clock be in the straight line, but not together ?
(A) 16 minutes past 9
(B)
11
4
16 minutes past 9
(C)
11
6
16 minutes past 9
(D)
11
9
16 minutes past 9
15. At what time between 5 & 5 : 30 will the hands of a
clock be at right angle ?
(A)
11
10
10 minutes past 5
(B)
11
5
11 minutes past 5
(C)
11
10
9 minutes past 5
(D)
11
9
10 minutes past 5
16. Ajay left home for the bus stop 15 minutes earlier
than usual. It takes 10 minutes to reach the stop.
He reached the stop at 8.40 a.m. What time does
he usually leave home for the bus stop ?
(A) 8.30 a.m. (B) 8.45 a.m.
(C) 8.55 a.m. (D) Data inadequate
PAGE # 88
17. The priest told the devotee, "The temple bell is
rung at regular intervals of 45 minutes. The last
bell was rung five minutes ago. The next bell is
due to be rung at 7.45 a.m." At what time did the
priest give this information to the devotee ?
(A) 7.40 a.m. (B) 7.05 a.m.
(C) 6.55 a.m. (D) None of these
18. There are twenty people working in an office. The
first group of five works between 8.00 A.M. and 2.00
P.M. The second group of ten works between 10.00
A.M. and 4.00 P.M. And the third group of five works
between 12 noon and 6.00 P.M. There are three
computers in the office which all the employees
frequently use. During which of the following hours
the computers are likely to be used most ?
(A) 10.00 A.M. 12 noon
(B) 12 noon 2.00 P.M.
(C) 1.00 P.M. 3.00 P.M.
(D) 2.00 P.M. 4.00 P.M.
19. A tired worker slept at 7.45 p.m.. If he rose at 12
noon, for how many hours did he sleep ?
(A) 5 hours 15 min. (B) 16 hours 15 min.
(C) 12 hours (D) 6 hours 45 min.
20. How many times are the hands of a clocks
perpendicular in a day ?
(A) 42 (B) 48
(C) 44 (D) 46
21. If a clock shows 04: 28 then its mirror image will
be ?
(A) 07: 42 (B) 07: 32
(C) 08: 32 (D) 08: 42
22. A watch, which gains uniformly, is 3 minutes slow
at noon on Monday and is 3 minutes 48 seconds
fast at 2 p.m. on the following Monday. What time it
was correct ?
(A) 2 p.m. On Tuesday
(B) 2 p.m. On Wednesday
(C) 3 p.m. On Thursday
(D) 1 p.m. On Friday.
23. How many times are the hands of a clocks coincide
in a day ?
(A) 10 (B) 11
(C) 12 (D) 22
24. At what time between 2 and 3 O clock the hands of
a clock will make an angle of 160 ?
(A) 20 minutes past 2 (B) 30 minutes past 2
(C) 40 minutes past 2 (D) 50 minutes past 2
25. Ashish leaves his house at 20 minutes to seven in
the morning, reaches Kunals house in 25 minutes,
they finish their breakfast in another 15 minutes
and leave for their office which takes another 35
minutes. At what time do they leave Kunals house
to reach their office ?
(A) 7.40 am (B) 7.20 am
(C) 7.45 am (D) 8.15 am
26. The train for Lucknow leaves every two and a half
hours from New Del hi Rai l way Stati on. An
announcement was made at the station that the
train for Lucknow had left 40 minutes ago and the
next train will leave at 18. 00 hrs. At what time was
the announcement made ?
(A) 15.30 hrs (B) 17.10 hrs
(C) 16.00 hrs (D) None of these
27. A monkey climbs 30 feet at the beginning of each
hour and rests for a while when he slips back 20
feet before he agai n starts cl i mbi ng i n the
beginning of the next hour. If he begins his ascent
at 8.00 a.m., at what time will he first touch a flag at
120 feet from the ground ?
(A) 4 p.m. (B) 5 p.m.
(C) 6 p.m. (D) None of these
28. If the two incorrect watches are set at 12 : 00 noon
at correct time, when will both the watches show
the correct time for the first time given that the first
watch gains 1 min in 1 hour and second watch
loses 4 min in 2 hours :
(A) 6 pm, 25 days later
(B) 12 : 00 noon, 30 days later
(C) 12 noon, 15 days later
(D) 6 am 45 days later
29. Rajeev and Sanjeev are too close friends Rajeev's
watch gains 1 minute in an hour and Sanjeev's
watch loses 2 minutes in an hour. Once they set
both the watches at 12 : 00 noon, with my correct
watch. When will the two incorrect watches of
Rajeev and Sanjeev show the same time together?
(A) 8 days later (B) 10 days later
(C) 6 days later (D) can't be determined
30. At a railway station a 24 hour watch loses 3 minutes
in 4 hours. If it is set correctly on Sunday noon
when will the watch show the correct time ?
(A) 6 pm after 40 days
(B) 12 noon after 75 days
(C) 12 pm after 100 days
(D) 12 noon after 80 days
31. A swiss watch is being shown in a museum which
has a very peculiar property. It gains as much in
the day as it loses during night between 8 pm to 8
am. In a week how many times will the clock show
the correct time ?
(A) 6 times (B) 14 times
(C) 7 times (D) 8 times
32. A wrist watch which is running 12 minutes late on
a Sunday noon is 16 minutes ahead of the correct
time at 12 noon on the next Sunday. When is the
clock 8 minutes ahead of time ?
(A) Thursday 10 am (B) Friday noon
(C) Friday 8 pm (D) Tuesday noon
PAGE # 89
33. A clock loses 2 minutes in a hour and another clock
gains 2 minutes in every 2 hours. Both these clocks
are set correctly at a certain time on Sunday and
both the clocks stop simultaneously on the next
day with the time shown being 9 am and 10 : 06
AM. What is the correct time at which they stopped?
(A) 9 : 54 am (B) 9 : 44 pm
(C) 9 : 46 am (D) 9 : 44 am
34. David sets his watch at 6 : 10 am on Sunday, which
gains 12 minutes in a day. On Wednesday if this
watch is showing 2 : 50 pm. What is the correct
time ?
(A) 1 : 50 pm (B) 2 : 10 pm
(C) 2 : 30 pm (D) 3 : 30 pm
35. Ramu purchased a second hand Swiss watch
which is very costly. In this watch the minute-hand
and hour hand coincide after every
11
3
65 minutes.
How much time does the watch lose or gain per
day ?
(A) 4 min (B) 5 min
(C) 4 min, 20 sec (D) none of these
36 My watch was 8 minutes behind at 8 pm on Sunday
but within a week at 8 pm on Wednesday it was 7
minutes ahead of time. During this period at which
time this watch has shown the correct time :
(A) Tuesday 10 : 24 am
(B) Wednesday 9 : 16 pm
(C) It cannot show the correct time during this period
(D) None of the above
37. Out of the following four choices which does not
show the coinciding of the hour hand and minute-
hand :
(A) 3 : 16 : 2 (B) 6 : 32 : 43
(C) 9 : 59 : 05 (D) 5 : 27 : 16
38. Kumbhakarna starts sleeping between 1 pm and
2 pm and he wakes up when his watch shows
such a time that the two hands (i.e., hour-hand
and minute-hand) interchange the respective
places. He wakes up between 2 pm and 3 PM on
the same night. How long does he sleep ?
(A)
13
5
55
min (B)
13
10
110
min
(C)
13
6
54
min (D) None of these
39. A clock loses 3% time during the first week and
then gains 2% time during the next one week. If the
clock was set right at 12 noon on a Sunday, what
will be the time that the clock will show exactly 14
days from the time it was set right ?
(A) 1 : 36 : 48 (B) 1 : 40 : 48
(C) 1 : 41 : 24 (D) 10 : 19 : 12
Direction : (40 to 41) A 12 dial clock has its minute hand
defecti ve. Whenever i t touches di al 12, i t
immediately falls down to 6 instead of running
smoothly (the hour hand remains unaffected during
that fall). It was set right at 12 O clock in the noon.
40. What was the actual time when the minute hand of
the clock touched dial 9 for the 5th time?
(A) 2 : 15 (B) 3 : 00
(C) 5 : 15 (D) 6 : 45
41. If the actual time is 10 : 10, what is the position of
the hour hand in that defective clock ?
(A) Between 2 and 3 (B) Between 4 and 5
(C) Between 10 and 11 (D) Between 3 and 4

PAGE # 90
CUBE AND DICE-TEST
CUBES
A cube is three dimensional figure, having 8
corners, 6 surfaces and 12 edges. If a cube is
painted on all of its surfaces with any colour and
further divided into various smaller cubes, we get
fol l owi ng resul ts. Smal l er cubes wi th three
surfaces painted will be present on the corners of
the big cube.

3
3
3
3
3
3
3
3 3
3
3
3
1 1
1 1
1
1
1
1
1
1 1
1
2 2
2 2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2 2
2
2
2 2
Smaller cubes with two surface painted will be
present on the edges of the big cube. Smaller
cubes with one surface painted will be present on
the surfaces of the big cube. Smaller cubes with
no surface painted will be present inside the big
cube.
If a cube is painted on all of its surfaces with a
colour and then divided into smaller cubes of equal
size then after separation, number of smaller cubes
so obtained will be calculated as under :
Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces
painted = 8
Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces
painted = (n 2) 12
Number of smaller cubes with one surfaces
painted = (n 2)
2
6
Number of smaller cubes with no surfaces painted
= (n 2)
3
Where n = No of divisions on the surfaces of the
bigger cube
=
cube smaller one of edge of length
cube big of edge of length
TYPE I
If a cube is painted on all of its surfaces with single
colour and then divided into various smaller cubes
of equal size.
Directions : ( 1 to 4) A cube of side 4 cm is painted black on
all of its surfaces and then divided into various
smaller cubes of side 1 cm each. The smaller
cubes so obtained are separated.
Total cubes of obtained =
64
1 1 1
4 4 4



Here n =
4
1
4
cube small of side
cube big of side

Ex 1. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces
painted ?
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 24
Sol. (B) Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces
painted = 8
Ex 2. How many smaller cubes have two surfaces
painted ?
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 24
Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces
painted = (n 2) 12 = (4 2) 12 = 24
Ex 3. How many smaller cubes have only one surface
painted ?
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 24 (D) 32
Sol. (C) Number of smaller cubes with one surface
painted = (n 2)
2
6 = (4 2)
2
6 = 4 6 = 24
Ex 4. How many smaller cubes will have no side painted ?
(A) 18 (B) 16
(C) 22 (D) 8
Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with no surface
painted = (n 2)
3
= (4 2)
3
= (2)
3
= 8
TYPE II
If a cube is painted on all of its surfaces with
different colours and then divided into various
smaller cubes of equal size.
Directions : ( 5 to 7 ) A cube of side 4 cm is painted black on
the pair of one opposite surfaces, blue on the pair
of another opposite surfaces and red on remaining
pair of opposite surfaces. The cube is now divided
into smaller cubes of equal side of 1 cm each.
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PAGE # 91
Ex 5. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces
painted ?
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 24
Sol. (B) Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces
painted = 8
(These smaller cubes will have all three surfaces
painted with different colour blue, black and red.)
Ex 6. How many smaller cubes have two surfaces
painted ?
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 24
Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces
painted = 24. And out of this -
(a) Number of cubes with two surfaces painted
with black and blue colour = 8.
(b) Number of cubes with two surfaces painted
with blue and red colour = 8.
(c) Number of cubes with two surfaces painted
with black and red color = 8.
Ex 7. How many smaller cubes have only one surface
painted ?
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 24 (D) 32
Sol. (C) Number of smaller cubes with one surface
painted = 24. And out of this -
(a) Number of cubes with one surface painted
with black colour =8.
(b) Number of cubes with one surface painted
with blue colour = 8.
(c) Number of cubes with one surface painted
with red colour = 8.
TYPE III
If a cube is painted on its surfaces in such a way
that one pair of opposite surfaces is left unpainted.
Directions : ( 8 to 11 ) A cube of side 4 cm is painted red on
the pair of one opposite surfaces, green on the
pair of another opposite surfaces and one pair of
opposite surfaces is left unpainted. Now the cube
is divided into 64 smaller cubes of side 1 cm each.
Ex 8. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces
painted ?
(A) 0 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 20
Sol. (A) Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces
painted = 0 (Because each smaller cube at the
corner is attached to a surface which is unpainted.)
Ex 9. How many smaller cubes have two surfaces
painted ?
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 24
Sol. (C) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces
painted = Number of cubes present at the corners
+ Numbers of cubes present at 4 edges
= 8 + (n 2) 4 = 8 + 8 = 16
Ex 10. How many smaller cubes have only one surface
painted ?
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 24 (D) 32
Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with one surface
painted = Number of cubes present at the 8 edges
+ number of cubes present at the four surfaces=
(n 2) 8 + (n 2)
2
4
= 2 8 + 4 4 = 16 + 16 = 32
Ex 11. How many smaller cubes will have no side painted
?
(A) 18 (B) 16
(C) 22 (D) 8
Sol. (B) Number of smaller cubes with no side painted
= Number of cubes on the two unpainted surfaces +
number of cubes present inside the cube.
= (n 2)
2
2 + (n 2)
3
= 4 2 + (2)
3
= 8 + 8 = 16.
TYPE IV
If a cube is painted on its surfaces in such a way
that one pair of adjacent surfaces is left unpainted.
Directions : (12 to 15 )A cube of side 4 cm is painted red on
the pair of one adjacent surfaces, green on the
pair of other adjacent surfaces and two adjacent
surfaces are left unpainted. Now the cube is divided
into 64 smaller cubes of side 1 cm each.
Ex 12. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces
painted ?
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 6
PAGE # 92
Sol. (A) Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces
painted = Number of smaller cubes at two corners
= 2
Ex 13. How many smaller cubes have two surfaces
painted ?
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 14
Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces
painted = Number of smaller cubes at four corners
+ Number of smaller cubes at 5 edges.
= 4 + (n 2) 5 = 4 + 2 5
= 4 + 10 = 14
Ex 14. How many smaller cubes have only one surface
painted ?
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 24 (D) 30
Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with one surface
pai nted = Number of small er cubes at four
surfaces + Number of smaller cubes at 6 edges +
Number of smaller cubes at two corners.
= (n 2)
2
4 + (n 2) 6 + 2
= 4 4 + 2 6 + 2 = 16 + 12 = 28 + 2 = 30
Ex 15. How many smaller cubes will have no side painted
?
(A) 18 (B) 16
(C) 22 (D) 8
Sol. (A) Number of smaller cubes with no surfaces
painted = Number of smaller cubes from inside
the big cube + Number of cubes at two surfaces +
Number of cubes at one edge.
= (n 2)
3
+ (n 2)
2
2 + (n 2)
= (2)
3
+ (2)
2
+ 2
= 8 + 8 + 2 = 18
DICES
Type-I
General Dice : In a general dice the sum of numbers
on the any two adjacent faces is 7.
Standard Dice : In a standard dice the sum of
numbers on the opposite faces is '7'.
Ex 16. Which number is opposite 4 in a standard dice
given below ?
4
1
5
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) Cant be determined
Sol. Clearly , from the standard dice the sum of
numbers on the opposite faces is '7', so number
opposite to 4 is 3.
Type-II
Ex 17. The figures given below show the two different
positions of a dice. Which number will appear
opposite to number 2 ?.
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
Sol. (C) The above question,
where only two positions of
a dice are given, can easily
be solved with the
following method.
Step I. The dice, when unfolded, will appear as shown in
the figure given on the right side.
Step II. Write the common number to both the dice in the
middle block. Since common number is 4, hence
number 4 will appear in the central block.
Step III. Consider the figure (i) and write the first number in
the anti -cl ockwi se di recti on of number 4,
(common number) in block I and second number
in block II. Therefore, numbers 3 and 2 being the
first and second number to 4 in anticlockwise
directions respectively, will appear in block I & II
respectively.
Step IV. Consider figure (ii) and wire first and second
number in the anticlock-wise direction to number
4, (common number) in block (III) & (IV). Hence
numbers 6 and 5 will appear in the blocks III and IV
respectively.
Step V. Write remaining number in the remaining block.
Therefore, number 1 will come in the remaining
block. Now, from the unfolded figures we find that
number opposite to 6 is 3, number opposite to 2 is
5 and number opposite to 4 is 1. Therefore, option
(C) is our answer.
( Short Trick : From the given dice, we will take the
common number as the base and then in its
respect move clockwise direction and write as
follows : 4 2 3
4 5 6.
Here,we find that number opposite to 6 is 3, number
opposite to 2 is 5 and number opposite to 4 is
remaining number 1.
Therefore, option (C) is our answer. )
Ex 18. On the basis of two figures of dice, you have to tell
what number will be on the opposite face of number
5 ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 6
PAGE # 93
Sol. (D) The above question where only two positions
of a dice are given, can easily be solved with the
following method :
If in the given dice, there are two numbers common,
then uncommon numbers will always be opposite
of each other.
Therefore, option (D) is our answer.
Type-III
Ex 19. From the following figures of dice, find which
number will come in place of ?
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 2 (D) 3
Sol. (D) If the above dice is unfolded, it will look like as
the figure (i) given below.
Figure (i)
Now the number in place of ? can be obtained by
making a slight change in the figure as given here.
Now comparing figure (ii) with third dice as above,
we get that number in place of ? is 3.
Figure (ii)
Type-IV
Ex 20. A dice has been thrown four times and produces
following results.
Which number will appear opposite to the number
3 ?
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 1
Sol. (A) From the figures (i), (ii) and (iv) we find that
numbers 6, 1, 5 and 2 appear on the adjacent
surfaces to the number 3. Therefore, number 4
will be opposite to number 3.
Type-V
Ex 21. Which of the following dices is identical to the
unfolded figure as shown here ?
(X)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Sol. (A) From the unfolded figure of dice, we find that
number opposite to 2 is 4, for 5 it is 3 and for 1 it is
6. From this result we can definitely say that figure
(B), (C) and (D) can not be the answer figure as
numbers lying on the opposite pair of surfaces are
present on the adjacent surfaces.
EXERCISE
Directions : (1 to 5) A cube is coloured orange on one face,
pink on the opposite face, brown on one face and
silver on a face adjacent to the brown face. The
other two faces are left uncoloured. It is then cut
into 125 smaller cubes of equal size. Now answer
the following questions based on the above
statements.
1. How many cubes have at least one face coloured
pink ?
(A) 1 (B) 9
(C) 16 (D) 25
2. How many cubes have all the faces uncoloured ?
(A) 24 (B) 36
(C) 48 (D) 64
3. How many cubes have at least two faces coloured ?
(A) 19 (B) 20
(C) 21 (D) 23
4. How many cubes are coloured orange on one face
and have the remaining faces uncoloured ?
(A) 8 (B) 12
(C) 14 (D) 16
5. How many cubes one coloured silver on one face,
orange or pink on another face and have four
uncoloured faces ?
(A) 8 (B) 10
(C) 12 (D) 16
PAGE # 94
Directions : (6 to 11) A cube is painted red on two adjacent
surfaces and black on the surfaces opposite to
red surfaces and green on the remaining faces.
Now the cube is cut into sixty four smaller cubes of
equal size.
6. How many smaller cubes have only one surface
painted ?
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 24 (D) 32
7. How many smaller cubes will have no surface
painted ?
(A) 0 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 16
8. How many smaller cubes have less than three
surfaces painted ?
(A) 8 (B) 24
(C) 28 (D) 48
9. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces
painted ?
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 24
10. How many smal ler cubes with two surfaces
painted have one face green and one of the
adjacent faces black or red ?
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 24 (D) 28
11. How many smaller cubes have at least one surface
painted with green colour ?
(A) 8 (B) 24
(C) 32 (D) 56
Directions : (12 to 16) A cube of 4 cm has been painted on
its surfaces in such a way that two opposite
surfaces have been painted blue and two adjacent
surfaces have been painted red. Two remaining
surfaces have been left unpainted. Now the cube
is cut into smaller cubes of side 1 cm each.
12. How many cubes will have no side painted ?
(A) 18 (B) 16
(C) 22 (D) 8
13. How many cubes will have at least red colour on
its surfaces ?
(A) 20 (B) 22
(C) 28 (D) 32
14. How many cubes will have at least blue colour on
its surfaces ?
(A) 20 (B) 8
(C) 24 (D) 32
15. How many cubes will have only two surfaces
painted with red and blue colour respectively ?
(A) 8 (B) 12
(C) 24 (D) 30
16. How many cubes will have three surfaces coloured ?
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) 16
Directions : (17 to 21) The outer border of width 1 cm of a
cube with side 5 cm is painted yellow on each side
and the remaining space enclosed by this 1 cm
path is painted pink. This cube is now cut into 125
smaller cubes of each side 1 cm. The smaller
cubes so obtained are now seperated.
17. How many smaller cubes have all the surfaces
uncoloured ?
(A) 0 (B) 9
(C) 18 (D) 27
18. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces
coloured ?
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 10
19. How many cubes have at least two surfaces
coloured yellow ?
(A) 24 (B) 44
(C) 48 (D) 96
20. How many cubes have one face coloured pink and
an adjacent face yellow ?
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4
21. How many cubes have at least one face coloured ?
(A) 27 (B) 98
(C) 48 (D) 121
Directions : (22 to 31) A solid cube has been painted yellow,
blue and black on pairs of opposite faces. The
cube is then cut into 36 smaller cubes such that
32 cubes are of the same size while 4 others are
of bigger sizes. Also no faces of any of the bigger
cubes is painted blue.
22. How many cubes have at least one face painted
blue ?
(A) 0 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 32
23. How many cubes have only one faces painted ?
(A) 24 (B) 20
(C) 8 (D) 12
24. How many cubes have only two faces painted ?
(A) 24 (B) 20
(C) 16 (D) 8
25. How many cubes have atleast two faces painted ?
(A) 36 (B) 34
(C) 28 (D) 24
26. How many cubes have only three faces painted ?
(A) 8 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) 0
PAGE # 95
27. How many cubes do not have any of their faces
painted yellow ?
(A) 0 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 16
28. How many cubes have at least one of their faces
painted black ?
(A) 0 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 20
29. How many cubes have at least one of their faces
painted yellow or blue ?
(A) 36 (B) 32
(C) 16 (D) 0
30. How many cubes have no face painted ?
(A) 8 (B) 4
(C) 1 (D) 0
31. How many cubes have two faces painted yellow
and black respectively ?
(A) 0 (B) 8
(C) 12 (D) 16
Directions : (32 to 35) Some equal
cubes are arranged in the
form of a solid block as
shown i n the adj acent
fi gure. Al l the vi si bl e
sufaces of the block (except
the bottom) are then
painted.
32. How many cubes do not have any of the faces
painted ?
(A) 27 (B) 8
(C) 10 (D) 12
33. How many cubes have one face painted ?
(A) 9 (B) 24
(C) 22 (D) 20
34. How many cubes have only two faces painted ?
(A) 0 (B) 16
(C) 20 (D) 24
35. How many cubes have only three faces painted ?
(A) 4 (B) 12
(C) 6 (D) 20
Directions : (36 to 40) A cuboi d of dimensi ons
(6 cm 4 cm 1 cm) is painted black on both the
surfaces of dimensions (4 cm 1 cm), green on the
surfaces of dimensions (6 cm 4 cm). and red on
the surfaces of dimensions (6 cm 1 cm). Now the
block is divided into various smaller cubes of side
1 cm. each. The smaller cubes so obtained are
separated.
36. How many cubes will have all three colours black,
green and red each at least on one side?
(A) 16 (B) 12
(C) 10 (D) 8
37. How many cubes will be formed?
(A) 6 (B) 12
(C) 16 (D) 24
38. If cubes having only black as well as green colour
are removed then how many cubes will be left?
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 30
39. How many cubes will have 4 coloured sides and
2 sides without colour?
(A) 8 (B) 4
(C) 16 (D) 10
40. How many cubes will have two sides with green
colour and remaining sides without any colour?
(A) 12 (B) 10
(C) 8 (D) 4
41. Which alphabet is opposite D ?
(A) E (B) C
(C) F (D) A
42. What should be the number opposite 4 ?
(i) (ii) (iii)
(A) 5 (B) 1
(C) 3 (D) 2
43.
(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)
Which letter will be opposite to letter D ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) E (D) F
Directions : (44 to 45) The figure (X) given below is the
unfolded position of a cubical dice. In each of the
following questions this unfolded figure is followed
by four different figures of dice. You have to select
the figure which is identical to the figure (X).
PAGE # 96
44. (X)
(A) (B)
(B) (D)
45. (X)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Directions : (46 to 48) In each of the following questions,
select the correct option for the question asked.
(i) (ii)
46. Which number will come opposite to number 2?
(A) 5 (B) 1
(C) 6 (D) 3
47. Which number will come opposite to number 6?
(A) 1 (B) 5
(C) 4 (D) 3
48. Which number will come opposite to number 4?
(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 1 (D) 2
49. On the basis of two figures of dice, you have to tell what
number will be on the opposite face of number 5?
(i) (ii)
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 6
50. Which symbol will appear on the opposite surface
to the symbol x?
(A) (B) =
(C) (D) O
51. Three positions of the same dice are given below.
Observe the figures carefully and tell which number
will come in place of ?
(i)
1
6
3
(ii)
3
5
4
(iii)
4
2
?
(A) 1 (B) 6
(C) 3 (D) 5
52. On the basis of the following figures you have to
tell which number will come in place of ?
(i)
3
6
1
(ii)
4
2
6
(iii)
?
1
5
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 6 (D) 4
Directions : (53 to 55) Choose from the alternatives, the
boxes that will be formed when figure (X) is folded:
53. (X)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54. (X)
+
(A) (B)
+
(C)
+
(D)
PAGE # 97
55. (X)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Direction : (56) The six faces of a cube have been marked
with numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 respectively. This
cube i s roll ed down three times. The three
positions are given. Choose the figure that will be
formed when the cube is unfolded.
56.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
57. Which number is opposite 3 in a standard dice
given below ?
(A) 1 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) Cant be determined
58. Which number is opposite 4 ?
(A) 5 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1
Directions : (59) In the following question four positions of
the same dice have been shown. You have to see
these figures and select the number opposite to
the number as asked in each question.
59.
(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)
Which number is opposite to number 5?
(A) 6 (B) 5
(C) 1 (D) 3
Directions : (60 to 64) Choose the cube from the options
that will unfold to give the figure on the left
60.
X
M
M
M M X
X
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
61.
4 1 8
3
7
9
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
9
8
1 1
4
7
7
8
7
4
8
7
62.
D
8
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
8 8 D
63.
B
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
B
PAGE # 98
64.
J
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
J
J
Directions : (65 to 68) In each of the following questions, a
diagram has been given which can be folded into
a cube. The entries given in the squares indicate
the entries on the face of the cube. In each question
a number or a letter has been given . Of the four
alternatives given below it, you have to find the one
that would appear on the face opposite to it in the
cube.
65. Which letter is opposite Q ?
Q
O P L
N
M
(A) L (B) M
(C) N (D) P
66. Which number/letter is opposite 2 ?
3 I C
A
B
2
(A) A (B) C
(C) 1 (D) 3
67. Which number/letter is opposite O?
N M 2
L
I O
(A) L (B) M
(C) N (D) 2
68. Which letter is opposite R?
Q R
S P
U T
(A) P (B) S
(C) T (D) U

99
PAGE # 99
ANSWER KEY
ELECTRICITY(PHYSICS)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. A A C C C B A D A B D C A B B
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B A A A D D B C B C B C B B A
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. A D B C D B C D A B D C ABCD CD BD
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. ABD C D C B B C B C C B B D C B
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73
Ans. B C B B D A A B A A C D D
MOLE CONCEPT(CHEMISTRY)
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B C D B C B A D A B B D B C B
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. A A A A A B A A D A A A D A D
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. D C C B C B C D A B C A C D A
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. B B C C C C B C B A A D C A D
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. C D A B A B C A D B C B C B D
Ques. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. A A C A A D B D B C B C C D D
NUMBER SYSTEM(MATHEMATICS)
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B B A D C B A A A D
Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A B A A B C C B C A
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C B B A D B D B C C
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. B A A B D D C C D C
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. C B A A D A D D A A
Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. C C B D C C C C C A
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans. B B D D D A A B A D
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. C A C C B B B A D C
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. B B D C D D A B C D
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96
Ans. A&D C&D A D B C
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100
PAGE # 100
LOGARITHM(MATHEMATICS)
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B A B D B C B A C D
Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A A B B D D B C B D
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. A A B B A A D A A B
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. B B A B B A D B B C
NUTRITION(BIOLOGY)
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C C B D D A C B A A
Ques. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B C A C A B D A D C
Ques. 21 22 23
Ans. B C A
SERIES COMPLETION(MENTAL ABILITY)
EXERCISE-1 (Number Series)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. C D D A C D B C C C D C C B D
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B C C C B A B D D A C B B C A
Que. 31 32 33 34 35
Ans. C C C D D
EXERCISE- 2 (Alphabet Series)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D A D C C A D C D B D C C C D
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C A B C C C A B A C D B C D B
EXERCISE- 3 (Letter Repeating Series)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D D A A C B A C D D C B D C B
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
Ans. C A A A C D D D A B D
101
PAGE # 101
EXERCISE- 4 (Missing Term In Figure)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B D B D C C C D A D D B C A B
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B C A B B A C A D D A C D B A
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. B B A C A C B C D B
PUZZLE-TEST(MENTAL ABILITY)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. A B D C A D C C C C C D C C B
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C C D D C D D B B C A A D C D
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. D C B A B A D A D C D A C B D
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58
Ans. C A D B D D D A C A A D B
CALENDAR AND CLOCK-TEST(MENTAL ABILITY)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D C B D D B C B C C A B C B A
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B B B B C B C D C B D C B B D
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41
Ans. D B D B A A C A D A C
CUBE AND DICE TEST(MENTAL ABILITY)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D C C D A C C D B B C A C D B
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C D C B A B D D A D C A D C B
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. C D C D C A D C B C B B A D B
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. D A B C D A B D B D C B A C C
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68
Ans. A D E D C A B B