1 ANDRES BONIFACIO COLLEGE SCHOOL OF NURSING College Park, Dipolog City FINAL EXAM NCM 42 (RLE) 2ND SEM.

2006-2007 NAME: __________________________________________________ SCORE: _______ MULTIPLE CHOICES: encircle the correct answer- letter only NO ERASURE

Sometimes when I consider what tremendous consequences come from little things.. I am tempted to think .. there are no little things. RN or RN? registered nurse or rejected nurse (which is which?)
1. CVA, ischemic, with temp of 39.5C receive aspirin. the primary purpose of giving this drug, because of its; a. anti platelet effect b. anti pyretic effect c. anti inflammatory d. anti coagulant 2. Toradol is classified as: a. narcotic analgesic c. NSAIDs b. non-narcotic analgesic d. antipyretic

3. S/E of the above drug, includes the following, except? a. hypotension, GI distress, drowsiness b. GI distress, constipation, vasodilation c. N&V, hypersensitivity d. CNs depression, diarrhea, & constipation 4. Which of the ff antacids that may cause diarrhea? a. Maalox b. zantac c. alu tab d. NaHCO3 5. Amoxicillin is best given; a. together with food c. it could be given anytime b. after meal c. on an empty stomach

6. Which of the ff drugs is classified as cephalosporin? a. cefuroxime b. augmentin c. gentamicin d. pen G na 7. Cephalosporin is ordered. which of the ff drugs that should not be mix with; a. gentamicin b. ranitidine c. cefuroxime d. cefazolin 8. Cefuroxime 750 mg q 8h ivtt ANST is ordered. Which of the ff lab result is altered by this drug? a. cbc b. BUN & creatinine c. SGOT & SGPT d. urine test for sugar 9. Ciprofloxacin is given. This drug is best given:

2 a. AC c. immediately after meal b. with food d. 2h PC

10. Health teachings includes: a. advise pt to drink plenty of fluids b. to drink meds together with antacids. c. to monitor I&O d. all of the above 11. Aminoglycosides is ordered; which if the ff lab findings would you report to AP, stat; a. platelet ct b. WBC c. BUN & creatinine d. Hypo & hyperkalemia 12. Health teachings includes the ff; a. MIO, weigh daily c. give antacid for GI distress b. increased oral fluid intake d. diarrhea

13. Gentamicin is ordered, which of the ff drugs should not be given immediately after genta? a. Pen G na b. tramadol c. cefuroxime d. cefotaxime 14. Metronidazole is classified as: a. aminoglycosides c. antiprotozoal b. cephalosporin d. NSAIDs

15. Which of the ff nrsg care should be implemented in pt receiving metronidazole IV? a. should be given on stomach b. pt should be lying down because of sudden severe hypotension c. skin test prior to administrstion d. can be mix with other drugs. 16. Heparin is ordered. you are to with hold the drugs if? a. PTT 2-5 mins b. PTT 21-35 sec c. 11/2 mins. d. wait for drs. order 17. Antidote for heparin; a. vit K c. protamine SO4 18. Drug of choice for status asthmaticus; a. salbutamol c. aminophylline b. ASA d. phenergan b. budecort d. budesonide

19. The ff are S/E of bronchodilators; a. hypotension, diarrhea, anxiety b. hypotension, palpitations, anxiety & restlessness c. hypertension, tachycardia, irritability d. constipation, bronchospasm & apnea 20. Ca channel blockers- inhibit ca ion reflux decreasing myocardial contractility; dilates coronary artery. Which of the ff is Ca channel blockers: a. verapamil b. nifidifine c. nitroglygerine d. capoten 21. Enalapril is given to pt. health teachings include the ff; a. taken with food b. assess for renal fxn

3 c. increased fiber in diet d. do not D/C abruptly

22. Nitroglycerine patch is ordered; the ff are health teachings except; a. patch must be applied to non hairy skin surface. b. be sure to remove patch before defibrillating c. do not touch the inner side of the patch- can cause headache d. change patch PRN 23. This drug relaxes arteriolar smooth muscle; a. catapress b. calcibloc c. apresoline d. nifidipine 24. Its a K+ sparring diuretics; a. lasix c. mannitol b. aldactone d. diamox

25. It increases the excretion of NaCl, acts on loop of henle: a. lasix b. aldactone c. mannitol d. diamox 26. Aldactone is ordered; which of the ff drugs should not be given with aldactone? a. ASA b. aspirin c. paracetamol d. none of the above 27. Anti-cholinergic is given as a pre-operative meds. Which of the ff drug is anticholinergic? a. epinephrine Hcl b. atropine SO4 c. nalbuphine Hcl d. none of the above 28. The primary purpose of administering anti-cholinergic is; a. secretions b. to relieve anxiety c. it has an anti histamine effect d. to prolong the effect of anesthesia 29. An immunoglobulin which blocks the Rh(-) mothers immune system when Rh(+) blood cells are introduced into her system; a. rhogam b. gamunex c. HibTiter d. flumist 30. Which of the ff drugs that can cause bradycardia if given rapidly? a. insulin b. aminophylline c. ranitidine d. phenergan 31. Which of the ff drugs given IM; induces uterine contraction of smooth muscle, shortens the 3rd stage of labor & reduces blood loss; a. oxytocin b. syntocinon c. hydralazine d. methergin 32. Antidote for magnesium SO4 toxicity; a. Ca gluconate c. heparin 33. Drug of choice for PIH; a. methergin c. diamox 34. Antidote oxytocin toxicity; a. magnesium SO4

b. Vit K d. syntocinon b. mannitol d. magnesium SO4 b. protamin SO4

4 c. valium d. prozac

35. Pt admitted due to skull fx, 2 V/A. decadron is ordered, this is to; a. inflammation- anti inflammatory effects b. cerebral edema c. antipyretic d. pain 36. This drug must be tapered slowly to avoid; a. adrenal crisis b. seizure c. edema d. addiction 37. INH is ordered; you expect what vitamin is given together with this drug; a. Vit C b. Vit B1 c. Vit E d. Vit B6 38. INH is taken with foods but teach pt to avoid tyramine containing foods, because it can cause serious: a. seizure b. severe headache c. hypertensive crisis d. euphoria 39. This drug should be diluted with NSS, not with sterile water: a. dilantin b. hydralazine c. aminophylline d. penG na. 40. Of the activities listed below, which one should most certainly be an accomplishment of a normal 15 mos. old baby? a. he is able to build a tower of two blocks b. the child can put 4 blocks on top of each other c. he demonstrates the ability to walk independently. d. the child uses sentences with five or more words. 41. The best toy for an 18 mos old child would be which of the ff? a. crib mobiles b. a pull truck c. skates d. tricycle 42. Which of the ff activities are expected for a normal 2 &1/2 y.o child? a. accomplishes the devt task which involves the sense of industry. b. participates in parallel play when in play groups with other children. c. identifies with parent of the opposite sex. d. enjoys feeding time and has overcome his feelings of frustration. 43. Pt is to receive an IM injection. which of the ff actions taken by the nurse would be most appropriate? a. ask for assistance from one of the staff members to help restraining the pt. b. carefully explain the procedure in detail to the child and ask for her assistance. c. proceed with the injection only after the promises to cooperate. d. promise her a lollipop if she behaves well. 44. A child is admitted due to fx on the femur and multiple bruises. if Bryants traction is ordered, you must make sure that the childs hips; a. were resting on the bed and his legs suspended at right angles to the bed. b. were slightly elevated from the bed and his legs suspended at right angles. c. were elevated above the level of his body on a pillow. d. and legs were flat on bed with pull traction coming from the foot of the bed.

5 45. A child suffers from a severe burn. The Hgb determination is higher than normal. This due to: a. shock caused by the burn b. loss of the skin surface c. diminished fluid intake d. release of plasma into the tissues at the burn site. 46. A 2 y.o has the ff V/S. which one will be an indicative of theophylline toxicity? a. BP 100/60 b. HR 135 c. RR 28 c. HR 90 47. Children with leukemia are prone to infection primarily because; a. they fatigue easily b. the WBC in leukemia are immature c. the concentration of RBC s d. bleeding tendencies s susceptibility. 48. Which of the ff lab values will best indicate that the IV therapy is correct in a child with gastroenteritis and dehydration? a. Na b. Specific gravity c. K+ d. Cl 49. The normal time for the closure of anterior fontanel is: a. at the end of the 2nd mo. b. at the end of 6th mo. c. 6-10 mos old d. 12-18 mos old 50. Which of the ff is the greatest fear of a 2 y.o child? a. mutilation b. death c. pain d. desertion 51. The typical stools of a child with celiac disease have been compared to a child with cystic fibrosis. The stools of celiac disease maybe described as: a. green, watery and odorless b. yellow, seedy with water margin c. brown, formed d. pale, frothy and foul smelling 52. Which of the ff statements of cystic fibrosis is true? a. ducts leading from epithelium are blocked b. excessive pancreatic enzymes in the digestive tract. c. ducts leading from the pancreas are blocked by thick mucus. d. excessive amounts of trypsin in the stool. 53. When assessing an infant or child with a cyanotic heart defect, you will find: a. poor wt gain b. elevated temp c. babies have difficulty eating because of inability to breathe and suck at the same time d. generalized skin rash growth.. 54. The usual first sign of diabetes in child is: a. restlessness b. increased appetite c. insomia d. hyper activity 55. Symptoms of tetralogy of fallot in a 3 y.o child are: a. cyanosis, fatigue, clubbing of the fingers and toes b. overweight, cyanosis , poor appetite c. fatigue, cyanosis, hyperactivity d. cyanosis, poor appetite, restlessness. 56. Which of the ff would be a signs of dehydration exhibited by an infant? a. pallor, periorbital edema, fever rapid pulse. b. sunken fontanel, poor skin turgor, oliguria

6 c. fever, anuria, slow pulse, edema d. poor skin turgor, wt loss, bulging fontanels. 57. Which of the ff is not normal in a newborn infant 2 hrs after birth? a. RR 40-50/min b. slight cyanosis c. dark green sticky stools d. persistent, high pitched cry. 58. According to apgar scoring, which is most valuable index concerning the condition of the newborn? a. RR b. reflex irritability c. HR d. muscle tone 59. Credes prophylaxis is done, the rationale for this is to prevent: a. icterus neonaturum b. infantile keratitis c. ophthalmic neonaturum d. retrolental fibroplasias. 60. Infant is more prone to the devt of fluid and electrolyte imbalance asso with acute illnesses because the infant has a: a. large amount of body fluids which comprises at least 80% or more of his wt. b. relatively low BMR c. small BSA when compared to the adult. d decreased extracellular fluid level. 61. A blood transfusion was ordered for a child with hemophilia. Which of the ff signs would you conclude that he might possibly have a transfusion reaction? a. pain at the needle site b. epigastric pain c. melena d. anorexia 62. Cortisone was also ordered for a child with hemophilia. a serious S/E of this drug would be: a. acne b. fatigue c. HPN d. pallor 63. When administering Vit k to baby, which step if done is potentially unsafe? a. using G 25 needle b. using the same needle used to withdraw the medication from the ampule. c. cleansing the injection site a solution containing alcohol. d. injecting the medication into the gluteus minimus muscle. 64. A child is schedule for T/A. which of the ff lab findings would you report to AP in order to postpone the surgery? a. Hgb 13gm b. WBC 5-10,000 c. bleeding time 8 mins d. Hct 45% 65. Which of the may indicate bleeding from the operative site after T/A? a. frequent swallowing and restlessness. b. a tarry stool c. flushed face and LOC d. elevated temp. 66. A child with bacterial meningitis. One of the signs of this illness would most probably be: a. lethargy b. nuchal rigidity c. anorexia d. dyspepsia 67. The main tx for PKU is dietary. Which of the ff would you expect to be restricted in the tx? a. natural CHON b. CHO

7 c. Fe d. Vitamins

68. You would delay the immunization of a child if you discover the child has: a. an allergy to egg b. hay fever c. an oral temp of 37.9C d. a rectal temp 39.9C 69. MI involves: a. dilation of the heart chambers c. necrosis of the heart muscle b. irritation of the heart coverings d. destruction of the heart valves

70. An ECG is a recording of the: a. difference between systolic and diastolic BP b. transmission of electrical impulses over the myocardium c. necrosis of the heart muscle d. variations in rate of myocardial contractions 71. You teach the pt the importance of controlling his hypertension, because: a. it will compromise the blood flow to vital organs b. it predisposes to narrowing of the arteries. c. it decreases life span of blood vessels. d. it leads to formation of blot clots. 72. MI usually cause by: a. increased viscosity of the blood b. increased blood flow c. bacterial irritation of the endothelium d. occlusion caused by atheromatous plaque in one or both of the coronary arteries 73. An elevated temperature that may occur in early stage of MI: a. indication of infection b. indicates a need for O2 c. indicates pulmonary infection d. is considered normal under these circumstances 74. 52 y.o, housewife, admitted with a dx of chronic glumerulonephritis and impending renal failure. Chronic glumerulonephritis results in renal failure because of: a. decreased production of the ADH b. suppression of angiotensin mechanism c. obstruction of ureters. d. destruction of nephrons. 75. An indication of the progression of renal pathology is: a. bradycardia b. HPN c. fasting blood pressure d. postural hypotension 75. UO is 150cc/ shift. This is due to: a. depressed rate of glumerular filtration b. a decreased rate of tubular filtration c. an increased rate of glumerular absorption. d. an accelerated rate of tubular reabsorption. 76. Her BUN result is 56mg/100ml. This value is: a. elevated b. slightly low c. marked low d. WNL 77. Base on the result, your nrsg care includes observing for: a. hypoglycemic rxn b. changes in sensorium c. black tarry stools d. generalized edema

8 78. Upon assessment, you observed that she has an increasing muscular weakness. This maybe an indication of: a. hypernatremia b. hyperkalemia c. azotemia d. hypocalcaemia 79. Peritoneal dialysis is order in order to: a. draw off fluid for cytological testing b. remove fluid from the arterial system c. eliminate toxic metabolites d. decrease bacterial toxins. 80. An early observation indicating that the dialysis is effective is: a. OU 40cc/hr b. rapid fall in BP c. an increase in mental alertness d. normal CVP 81. Antacid preparations is ordered for pt with duodenal ulcer to: a. suppress acid production b. reduce peristalsis c. neutralize stomach acid d. increase peristalsis 82. Anti-cholinergic meds is used for pt with duodenal ulcers to: a. relieve gastric distention b. reduce volume of gastric secretions c. improve blood flow to affected area d. increase the flow of bile to duodenum 83. Dietary modification in the care of pt with duodenal ulcers is base on the need to: a. provide for the intake of food at regular intervals b. provide rest for the ulcerated area c. avoid letting food to come in contact with the ulcerated area. d. provide an alkaline environment 84. Fe supplement is best given with ascorbic acid to: a. minimize the S/E of iron prep. b. prolong the retention if Fe is in the body c. prolong the period of systemic absorption of the Fe d. promote the absorption of the Fe prep. 85. You are assign to a pt with a tracheostomy, should use separate catheters to suction the nasopharynx and tracheostomy tube in order to: a. insure patency of the catheter b. minimize trauma c. provide maximum aspiration d. limit the introduction of microorganism 86. Nrsg intervention for a pt in adrenal crisis should be directed toward: a. reduction of energy b. provision of frequent high caloric feedings c. support to respiratory fxns c. promotion of diuresis 87. A 65 y.o is admitted with a dx of CVA. He is unconscious; face flushed and puffy having a stertorous breathing. one of his present symptoms includes a right sided paralysis. You recognize that aphasia will: a. most likely tend to occur b. generally not present a problem c. be caused by involvement of the hypoglossal nerve d. definitely not occur. 88. You took the pts BP and petechiae is noted on his skin. This is probably due to a manifestation of which deficiency? a. iodine b. Vit C c. Vit B12 d. phosphorous 89. The same pt is given dicumural. The therapeutic effect of this drug is to:

9 a. activate heparin b. reduce production of prothrombin c. dissolve existing clots in the vascular system. d. prevent fragmentation 90. Pt receives penicillin as a prophylactic measures against nosocomial infection. Which of the ff drugs must have on hand when penicillin is to be given to this pt? a. caffeine b. nalline c. histamine d. epinephrine 91. A complete CBC reveals that the pt has anemia. He complains of being tired all the time. Fatigue with associated anemia results most directly from which of the ff? a. increased cardiac output b. breakdown of erythrocytes c. inadequate tissue O2 d. total decrease in the amount of whole blood 92. Fe SO4 is ordered, 3 tabs OD, P.O. When is the best time to take this medicines? a. immediately after meal b. between meal c. Q8h d. anytime of the day. 93. The pt is hemiplegic. You saw the staff nurse administered injection to the nonaffected side. What is your comment? a. di kabalo ang nurse. b. its scorrect because giving injection to a flaccid muscle will delay the absorption of the injection. c. its better to give it to the affected side, in order to minimize pain at the injection site. d. it doesnt matter, whether to giver it on the affected side or in the non-affected side. 94. Lumbar punctured is done. The needle is inserted in the: a. subdural space bet 3rd & 4th lumbar vertebra b. subarachnoid space bet 3rd & 4th lumbar vertebra c. spinal cord bet 3rd & 4th lumbar vertebra d. vertebral process of the 3rd & 4th lumbar vertebra 95. To prevent abduction of the leg, you know that the trochanter roll may be applied: a. to the outer aspect of the leg, from above the hip to well below the knee b. to the outer aspect of the leg, from mid-thigh to the ankle c. along the inner aspect of the thigh to the ankle. d. along the inner aspect of the thigh to the knee. 96. A CVA pt is admitted. Which of the ff would indicate the poorest prognosis? a. spiking temperature b. aphasia c. paralysis d. incontinence 97. to the ankle. d. along the inner aspect of the thigh to the knee. 98. A CVA pt is admitted. Which of the ff would indicate the poorest prognosis? a. spiking temperature b. aphasia c. paralysis d. incontinence 99. You note that his mouth is sagging to one side and he is drooling. What would you prepare to assist him? a. pharyngeal suction b. O2 via nasal cannula c. secure a box of tissue d. obtain an additional linen for bed change

10 100. You do the suctioning of he oropharynx, why is it necessary to keep pinched off during insertion? a. to prevent tissue trauma b. to increase the force of suction c. to avoid unnecessary interference with CO2 excretion d. to reduce the loss of normal secretions 101. The Dr. ordered an early ambulation for a CVA pt. You recognizes which of the ff in relation to ambulation? a. ambulation encourages dependence on the part of the pt. b. activity of ambulation stimulates the circulation c. sitting in a chair is a valuable as walking in the room d. immobility aids in tissue repair. 102. An epileptic pt is admitted for neurological work up. The pt receives dilantin, Dr orders folic acid and Vit B12 to prevent the devt of: a. more seizures b. megalobalstic anemia c. blood clots d. respiratory complications 103. The pt has a grand mal seizure, which progression of grand mal seizure is most typical? a. tonic contractions, clonic contractions, aura, sleep b. aura, tonic, clonic contractions, sleep c. aura, clonic, tonic contractions and sleep d. clonic contractions, sleep, tonic contractions and aura. 104. During the grand mal seizure, the initial treatment should to be: a. restraint the pt. b. elevate the head about 20 c. let the pt convulse d. leave to secure assistance 105. A 69 y.o was admitted with a dx of parkinsons disease. Your ncp includes measures which aim to: a. restore normal muscle fxn b. prevent intention tremors c. re-establish muscle coordination d. slow further physical & emotional deterioration 106. The major pathological finding in Parkinsons disease is: a. loss of cells and fibers of the basal ganglia b. a malignancy of the CNS c. a psychosomatic disorder d. demylinization of the sheath surrounding nerve cells 107. The drug of choice for this dse? a. mag SO4 c. L-dopa 108. S/E of the answer of the above? a. it helps to increase the appetite c. increase sex drive b. thorazine d. atropine b. booster the immune system d. insomnia

109. Multiple sclerosis is described best as a: a. functional disease b. diffuse infection of muscular dystrophy c. a diffuse demyelinating disease of the CNS d. a benign growth of the CNS. 110. The cause of death in multiple sclerosis is usually: a. circulatory collapse b. renal calculi

11 c. inter-current infection d. pathological fractures

111. The drug of choice for myasthenia gravis would be: a. prostigmine b. codeine c. proscoline d. prednisone 112. Which manifestation developing in a client after termination of prolonged cortisone therapy would indicate adrenal insufficiency? a. hyperactivity b. periorbital edema c. exhaustion d. persistent elevated BP 113. A pt admitted with a dx of leukemia. An iliac crest bone marrow is puncture to be done. The reason for this procedure would be to ascertain the: a. number of lymphocytes as a compared to number of leukocytes b. amount of lymphocytes being produced c. types of WBC being produced d. types of RBC being produced. 114. The pt is admitted with a dx of gout. In doing your assessment, you inquire the foods your pt eats. Which of the ff foods would you instruct the pt to eliminate? a. whole grain toast and egg for breakfast. b. liver, onions for dinner. c. green leafy vegetables d. French fries 115. Your pt has had several episodes of gout in the last few years. What other condition would be a possibility with this pt.? a. kidney stones b. osteomyelitis c. anemia d. hypertension 116. The pt has had a liver biopsy. Which position post procedure is best to prevent hemorrhaging? a. on the right side b. T position c. on his back, pillow under the knees d. on the left side 117. A pt who is in hypovolemic shock, receives IVF. You can tell if the shock is improving due to IV therapy when the pt develops an increase in: a. thirst b. HR c. RR d. UO 118. A pt with a tibial fx. A hip spica is applied. 36h post-op the pt becomes anxious, SOB, restless and confused with a temp of 39C. What is your priority? a. orient the pt to person, place, and time TID b. check the distal pulse of the casted leg c. take BP d. place a pulse oximeter on the the finger or ear lobe 119. A woman should do SBE monthly for which of the ff reasons: a. to find cancerous growth b. to become aware of any changes in her breast from previous month c. to feel confident she is a cancer free since her last mammogram since 6 mo. ago d. to search the breast for lumps which could be fibrocystic breast disease. 120. Your pt has a sickle cell anemia. What sign would be indicative of sickle cell crisis? a. fatigue b. abdominal pain c. increased pulse d. anxiety

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121. Your CA pt is receiving chemotherapy and developed stomatitis. Your concern would be for the pts.? a. alteration in nutrition b. alteration in respiration c. alteration in urination d. alteration in elimination 122. You are assessing the clinical manifestations in pt with Cushings syndrome Which of the ff S/S are present in Cushings syndrome? a. hypertension, diaphoresis, N&V b. tetany, irritability, dry skin, and seizure c. unexplained wt gain, energy loss, cold tolerance d. water retention, moon faced, hirsutism, and purple striae. 123. The pt is admitted with a dx of Addisons dse, which finding is most characteristic of this adrenal disorder: a. enlarged abdomen b. skin blemishes c. moon shaped face d. bronzed skin 124. Which of the ff nrsng assessment is most helpful in evaluating the status of the pt with addisons dse: a. BP + level of fatigue b. bowel sounds + BP c. lung sounds + BP d. heart sounds + breath sounds 125. A pt has chest tube, you notices there is no fluctuation in the drainage system. What would be your first action? a. have pt sit up, deep breath and cough b. milk chest tube towards the pt. c. milk chest tube towards the drainage bottle. d. milk chest tube with lotion. 126. Chest tube is removed by AP, the pt should: a. breathe deeply b. perform valsalva maneuver c. hold his breath d. cough 127. A pt with chest tube is ready to ambulate. You should: a. coil the tube on the pts hand and carry the bottle. b. disconnect pt from suction c. clamp tube d. assist pt by holding bag lower than the pts chest. 128. A pt had a right lower lobectomy. You should observe and listen for: a. vascular sounds in the left lung b. decreased breath sounds in the right lung c. rales on the left lung side d. increased breath sounds on the operative side 129. You observes the drainage and notes within the first hour, 25 cc of pink drainage. What action should you take? a. continue to observe, since this is normal b. notify the AP stat c. check the distal pulse d. clamp the chest tube. 130. You suspect the right pneumothorax. What symptom observed would you probably indicate that this is correct? a. right chest does not expand b. tracheal displacement to the right side c. apical pulse of 96 d. symmetrical expansion of the entire chest

13 131. You saw a 68 y.o male, lives alone, with a hx of M.I a year ago, finds him slumped in the chair. Upon assessment, no apical pulse, no RR. What would be your initial action? a. sit him up in an upright position b. put him onto couch c. place him on the coffee table d. lay him on the floor 132. In an emergency situation, it is best to have the pt supine in order to: a. to facilitate pts airway b. to avoid fracturing any bones of the chest cavity c. to make it easier for the nurse to do CPR d. to allow for proper sternal compression during CPR 133. In one man CPR, what is the proper ratio of compression to respiration? a. 15:1 b. 5:2 c. 5:1 d. 15:2 134. When would it be reasonable for the nurse to stop CPR? a. when the extremities are rigid b. within 1 hr c. until the nurse is exhausted d. within 30 mins. 135. A pt is admitted due to chest pain in the sternal area, radiating to the left shoulder down to the left arm, anxiety and irritability. He is profusely diaphoretic and fatigued. He is place on a cardiac monitor for the ff purpose: a. to diagnosed angina from an MI b. to monitor ventricular contractility c. to monitor the cardiac cycle d. to prevent arrhythmia 136. A complication of MI for the first 10-14 days is: a. cardiac arrhythmia b. ventricular hypertrophy c. cardiac shock d. a second MI 137. Digoxin is ordered 0.125 mg od, for several months. His pulse is 92, slight irregular. What should you do? a. give digoxin as ordered, and chart pulse and rhythm b. withhold the medicine c. give digixin and notify the AP of pulse irregularity d. withhold the meds for 1 hr and check again. 138. A pt had not voided for 12h. FBC is inserted to: a. decompress the bladder to prevent accumulation of urine in the bladder b. obtain a urine specimen c. reduce bladder spasms d. obtain bladder relaxation 139. When giving K+ IV, what should be checked first? a. OU b. apical pulse c. distal pulse d. skin turgor 140. When giving decadron and mannitol, what sign shows they are working? a. increased mental alertness b. adequate UO c. decreased mental alertness d. decreased UO 141. Which of the ff are the signs of scoliosis? a. flexion of the hips b. asymmetry of hips and ribcage c. abduction of the knees d. bilateral pronation of the feet 142. What sign indicates that aminophylline is working? a. increased diaphoresis b. increased UO c. decreased bronchospasms d. decreased respirations

14 143. When putting antacid into an NGT, you should: a. instill H2O and clamp for 15 mins b. instill H2O, clamp for 30 mins. to 1hr. c. begin to suction d. clamp for 15 mins. then begin to suction 144. A pt with a cast on lower ext. What would warrant taking the cast off? a. burning sensation b. itching sensation c. an ecchymotic area above the cast d. not able to move her toes 145. What is the normal CVP reading? a. 2-12 cm H2O b. 3-10 cm H2O c. 4-10 cm H2O d. 6-16 cm H2O 146. The classic sign of ICP? a. BP, pulse pressure widens b. bradycardia c. PR, BP, & pulse pressures narrows d. mild nausea 147. Why mannitol is given to pt with glaucoma? a. ICP b. ICP c. maintains normal IOP d. induces lethargy 148. A pt admitted due to sickle cell crisis. Signs of impending sickle cell crisis includes: a. lethargy, joint pain, temp b. BP, pulse, temp c. pulse pressure widens d. BP, irritability, respirations 149. Post mastectomy pt returned from RR. Her right arm is positioned on a pillow fro which of this purposes? a. to promote venous drainage b. to prevent hemorrhage c. to reduce stress on the suture line d. to minimize the loss of lymphatic exudates 150. To detect a possible cx of thyroid surgery, you should include which of these measures in the NCP? a. monitoring her carotid pulse b. assessing the tone of her voice c. measuring UO d. evaluating hypoglossal nerve

GOODLUCK!

ELDRIDGE ROY BABAO MANDALUPA, BSN-RN,MN Instructor

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