PART - 1 Q No. 1. Maxillary artery is divided into three parts by one of the following muscles: (1) Upper head of lateral pterygoid (2) Lower head of lateral pterygoid (3) (4) Answer: Lower head of lateral pterygoid Deep head of medial pterygoid Lower head of medial pterygoid
Explanation:
Q No. 2. Which limb defect is correctly matched with its definition? (1) meromelia ____ complete absence of one or more extremities (2) phocomelia _____ all segments of extremities are present but abnormally short amelia _____ long bones are absent, and small hands or feet are attached to the trunk by short, (3) irregular bones (4) cleft hand (lobster claw deformity) ______ absent third metacarpal, fusion of digits 1-2 and 4-5 Answer: cleft hand (lobster claw deformity) ______ absent third metacarpal, fusion of digits 1-2 and 4-5
Explanation: Amelia is the complete absence of one or more extremities while meromelia is the partial absence of one or more extremities. All segments of extremities are present but abnormally short in micromelia. In phocomelia, long bones are absent, and small hands or feet are attached to the trunk by short, irregular bones. Q No. 3. Which of following is the feature of Y chromosome?
Acrocentric
Explanation:
Q No. 4. The following statements concerning the blood supply to the heart are correct except which? (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: The circumflex branch of the left coronary artery descends in the anterior interventricular groove and passes around the apex of the heart. The coronary arteries are branches of the ascending aorta. It can be classified as functional end arteries The right coronary artery supplies both the right atrium and the right ventricle. The circumflex branch of the left coronary artery descends in the anterior interventricular groove and passes around the apex of the heart. Arrhythmias (abnormal heart beats) can occur after occlusion of a coronary artery.
Explanation:
Q No. 5. The following structures receive innervation from branches of the pudendal nerve except which? (1) Labia minora (2) (3) (4) Urethral sphincter The posterior fornix of the vagina Ischiocavernosus muscles and Skin of the penis or clitoris
Explanation:
Q No. 6. All of the following statements regarding vas deferens are true except: (1) The terminal part is dilated to form ampulla (2) (3) (4) Answer: It is separated from the base of bladder by the peritoneum It crosses ureter in the region of ischial spine lt passes lateral to inferior epigastric artery at deep inguinal ring It is separated from the base of bladder by the peritoneum
Explanation: There is no peritoneal layer between vas deferens and the bladder. Q No. 7. The carpal tunnel contains all of the following important structures except? (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Flexor carpi radialis Median Nerve Flexor pollicis longus Flexor carpi radialis Flexor digitorum superficialis
Explanation:
Q No. 8. All of the following are the components of the white pulp of spleen, except: (1) Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (2) (3) (4) Answer: Vascular sinus B cells Antigen presenting cells Vascular sinus
Explanation: Vascular sinuses are seen in red pulp of spleen. Q No. 9. The following statements are true about the heart EXCEPT (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: It is sensitive to touch, heat and cold T1 and T2 spinal segments are involved in the radiation of pain to the left arm in ischaemic heart disease Cardiac pain is not felt in the heart Pain impulses from the heart travel through the sympathetic fibres It is sensitive to touch, heat and cold
Explanation:
Which of the following nerves is NOT correctly matched with its distribution? frontal nerve ______ skin of forehead, scalp,eyelid, and nose supraorbital nerve _____ skin of foreheadas far as vertex supratrochlear ______ skin in middle of forehead lacrimal _____ skin on dorsum of nose
Explanation:
Spinal arteries supplying the vertebrae are branches of the: vertebral and ascending cervical arteries in the neck posterior intercostal arteries in the lumbar region subcostal and lumbar arteries in the pelvis iliolumbar and lateral and medial sacral arteries in the thorax
Explanation:
Diaphragm develops from all except: Septum transversum Dorsal mesocardium Pleuroperitoneal membrane Cervical myotomes
Dorsal mesocardium
Explanation:
All of the following statements concerning the sinoatrial node are correct EXCEPT: It is located near the superior end of the sulcus terminalis. It is located at the junction of the superior vena cava and the right atrium. It is avascular. It is specialized cardiac muscle fiber.
Explanation:
All the following are true regarding air in the pleural cavity (pneumothorax) except Allows intrapleural pressure to rise to atmospheric pressure Increases the functional residual capacity Leads to a slight outward movement of the chest wall Reduces vital capacity
Explanation:
Lacrimation is affected in injury to: Greater petrosal nerve Nasocilliary nerve Palatine nerve Ophthalmic nerve
Explanation:
Insulin increases glucose uptake in the liver via GLUT 4 GLUT 1 GLUT 5 Glucokinase
Glucokinase
Explanation: Insulin stimulates glucokinase in the liver (glucokinase converts glucose into glucose - 6 phosphate) and thus favours the diffusion into the liver cell. In tissues such as the skeletal muscle, adipose tissue and heart, insulin increases glucose uptake via GLUT 4. Q No. 17. (1) (2) The rate of B.E.R. is minimum in Stomach Duodenum
Caecum Sigmoid
Explanation:
Which physiologic principle can explain the 'phantom limb' ? Weber Fechner law Bell Megendie law Law of projection Muller's doctrine
Law of projection
Explanation:
Melatonin is associated with all the following except Vomiting Pituitary gland secretion Sleep mechanism Jet lag
Explanation: Melatonin is synthesized from serotonin in the pineal gland. It plays a role in sleep mechanism. It may decrease gonadotropic hormone secretion (from the anterior pituitary). Melatonin shows diurnal variation; its secretion is increased in the dark. Q No. 20. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Adenosine Coronary vasodilatation is caused by Direct effect of sympathetic stimulation Adenosine Hypocarbia All of the above
Explanation:
Q No. 21.
Bainbridge reflex
Explanation:
All the following cause bronchoconstriction except Substance P Cholinergic stimulation Cool air Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)
Explanation:
The haematocrit of venous blood is 3% less than arterial blood 10% less than arterial blood 10% more than arterial blood 3% more than arterial blood
Explanation:
In cold temperature, thyroxine secretion is Increased Decreased No change None of the above
Explanation:
The average half-life of a neutrophil in the circulation is 6 hours 4 days 120 days 60 days
Explanation:
Explanation: Parahaemophilia is due to deficiency of factor V. Q No. 27. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 5 nm size with positive charge Permeability of a particle across the glomerular basement membrane will be maximum for 5 nm size with negative charge 5 nm size with positive charge 6 nm size with negative charge 6 nm size with positive charge
Explanation: The glomerular basement membrane is freely permeable to particles with less than 4 nm size and is impermeable for particles with greater than 8 nm size. Further, the glomerular basement membrane has fixed negative charges (due to the presence of sialoproteins). Therefore, it favours the filtration of positively charged particles. Q No. 28. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Increased solubility of nitrogen in nerve cell membrane Nitrogen narcosis is caused due to: Nitrogen inhibitis dismutase enzyme Increase production of nitrous oxide Increased solubility of nitrogen in nerve cell membrane Decrease in oxygen free radicals
Explanation:
Vasomotor centre of medulla is associated with? Acts with the cardiovagal centre to maintain B.P. Independent of corticothalamic inputs Influenced by baroreceptors not chemoreceptors Essetially silent in sleep
Explanation:
True regarding myocardial O2 demand? Inversely related to heart rate Has constant relation to external cardiac work
Explanation:
A two year old child with fare skin, blue eyes, Hyperactivity, and occasional seizures, with urine turning green on ferric chloride test, the diagnosis is: Phenylketonuria Alkaptonuria Multiple carboxylase deficiency Glutaric aciduria
Phenylketonuria
Explanation:
False about Heme synthesis: Occurs in the liver and bone marrow. Iron inhibits ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase. Glutathione reductase requires NADPH for its action.
Explanation:
Which of the following is autosomal dominant porphyria? Erythropoietic uprotoporphyria Acute intermittent porphyria Porphyria cutanea tarda Protoporphyria
Explanation:
All the following reactions generate ATP with the help of ETC except: Succinate dehydrogenase Malate dehydrogenase Glyceraldehyde 3 PO4 dehydrogenase Pyruvate kinase
Pyruvate kinase
Explanation:
Each glucose chain in a glycogen molecule contains : 13 glucose residues 10 glucose residues
13 glucose residues
Explanation:
Which of the following enzymes is used to monitor deficiency of thiamin: Pyruvate dehydrogenase ( ketogluterate dehydrogenase Transketolase All of the above
Transketolase
Explanation:
Marker for Endopolasmic reticulum is: Na - K ATPase LDH Glutamate dehydrogenase Glucose - 6- phosphatase
Glucose - 6- phosphatase
Explanation:
Activity of which of the following enzyme increase in alcoholism? Lactate dehydrogenase Acid phosphatase Alkaline phosphatase Gamma-glutamyltransferase
Gamma-glutamyltransferase
Explanation:
The sigma subunit of prokaryotic RNA Polymerase: Binds the antibiotic Rifampicin Is inhibited by alpha-amanitin Specifically recognizes the promoter site Is part of the core enzyme
Explanation:
All the following are constituents of ganglioside molecule, EXCEPT: Glycerol Sialic acid Hexose sugar Sphingosine
Explanation:
(4) Answer:
Dna replication
Euchromatin formation
Explanation:
Triplet DNA is formed due to Hoogsteen base pair Palindromic sequences Mutiple pyrimidine repeats Multiple Guanidine triplet repeats
Explanation:
Movement of protein from nucleus to cytoplasm can be seen by FISH FRAP Confocal microscopy, Electron microscopy
Explanation:
Which of the following process in a vector is used to increasethe yield of protein produced in recombinant protein synthesis? Promoter induction Genes for protease inhibitors Translation initiation signals Translation and transcription termination signals
Explanation:
Flopy infant may be due to all except werdning Hoffman disease myopathy sepsis edward syndrome(trisomy -18)
Explanation: hypertonia is seen in Edward. Q No. 46. (1) (2) (3) Masaoka Staging System is used for neurofibroma lymphoma angioma
thymoma
Explanation: Masaoka Staging System is for Thymomas Q No. 47. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: LFA-1 ICAM-1 bind to VLA-4 LFA-1 both none
Explanation: ICAM-1 bind.beta2 integrin,LFA1,MAC1 Q No. 48. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: diastase positive,PAS positive Glycogen is diastase sensitive,PAS negative diastase negative,PASnegetive diastase neegetive,PAS positive diastase positive,PAS positive
Explanation:
Variant of Giant cell tumor is? Ossifying fibroma Non ossifying fibroma Osteosarcoma Chondroblastoma
Explanation:
both none
Explanation:
A 10-year-old boy died of acute rheumatic fever. All the following can be expected at autopsy except: Ashoff nodules Rupture of chordae tendinae McCallum patch Fibrinous pericarditis
Explanation:
Which Autoantibodies in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is associated with psychosis anti-RNP anti ribosomal-P anti -Ro antineoronal antibody
anti ribosomal-P
Explanation:
All risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma except Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH Wilson disease Citrullinemia galactosemia
galactosemia
Explanation:
Cylin -D Amplification associated with breast cancer burkit lymhoma mantle cell lymphoma SCLL
breast cancer
Explanation:
The commonest gene mutation occurs in pancreatic ca is CDKN2A P16 K-ras DPC4
Explanation:
Which of the following is the proper cytogenetic notation for a female with Down syndrome mosaicism? 46,XX,+21/46,XY 47,XY,+21 47,XXX/46,XX 47,XX,+21/46,XX
Answer: 47,XX,+21/46,XX
Explanation:
Strogyloidosis
Explanation:
Gamma gandy body is found in all except cirrhosis with portal hypertension sickle cell anemia CML hereditery spherocytosis
hereditery spherocytosis
Explanation:
Cells with multilobated nuclei ("flower" cells) are frequently observed in anaplastic large cell lymphoma sezary syndrome adult t-cell lymphoma large granular lymphocytic leukemia
Explanation:
Risk factor for colorectal cancer is streptococcus fecalis mycobacterium bovis streptococcus bovis Enterococci
streptococcus bovis
Explanation:
Primitive streak is initiated and maintained by Nodal gene hi BMP4 FGF Brachyury gene
Nodal gene
Explanation:
Apoptic cells can be identified by binding of special dye VON KOSSA CONGO RED ANNEXIN-V OIL RED-O
ANNEXIN-V
Explanation: staining is commonly used to identify apoptotic cells Q No. 63. (1) (2) (3) (4) Autosomal dominance inheritance is characterized by all of the following except: It affects individuals in every generation & There is a 50% chance of transmission It has a high spontaneous mutation rate It affects males more commonly than females Phenotypically normal parents do not transmit the disease to the child
Explanation: All others are very typical of autosomal dominant inheritance. The sex ratio should be equal. Often the parents are not affected because the disease is a spontaneous mutation in the child. Neurofibromatosis is an example of an autosomal dominant disease. Q No. 64. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: X-linked dominant A disease affecting all of the daughters but none of the sons of an affected father, and 50% of the sons or daughters of an affected mother, is most likely: X-linked recessive X-linked dominant Mitochondrial deletion syndrome Autosomal recessive
Explanation: This is the classic pattern of an X-linked dominant condition. These are rare conditions, which include hypophosphatemic rickets and incontinentia pigmenti (IP). IP is lethal to the male fetus and thus no males are born alive with this disorder Q No. 65. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Acute ingestion of more than 150-200 mg/kg (children) or 7 g total (adults) What is the toxic dose of paracetamol for which N- acetylcysteine is required Acute ingestion of more than 25-75mg/kg (children) or 3g total (adults) Acute ingestion of more than 50-100 mg/kg (children) or 4 g total (adults) Acute ingestion of more than 100-125 mg/kg (children) or 5 g total (adults) Acute ingestion of more than 150-200 mg/kg (children) or 7 g total (adults)
Explanation:
The maintenance dose of theophyline in Apnea of prematurity is 1mg/kg.dose thrice a day 2mg/kg /dose thrice a day 10mg/kg/dose thrice a day 5mg/kg twice a day.
Explanation:
A pt was brought to emergency in pulseless codition.One junior resident started CPR.One onduty sister pushed a single dose of adrenaline . The dose of this drug in a pt of caridac arrest is: 0.01 mg/kg OF 1: 10,00 0.1 mg/kg OF 1: 10,000 0.01 mg/kg of 1: 10,000 solution No need .Give One vial stat( I.V.)
Explanation: cardiac arrest, symptomatic bradycardia , hypotention, Dose - 0.01 mg/kg ( 0.1ml/kg of 1 10,000 solution) Q No. 68. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Lamotrigine The chances of severe life-threatening skin reactionssuch as Stevens-Johnson syndrome are greatest with which of the following anticonvulsant medications? Phenobarbital Gabapentin Carbamazepine Lamotrigine
Explanation: The Skin lesion is Stevens-Johnson syndrome. In additionto lamotrigine, phenobarbital and carbamazepine are also associated with an acute drug hypersensitivity syndrome involving skin, mucous membranes, and the liver. Q No. 69. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 0.1-0.2 mg/kg A baby was admitted with c/o tachycardia ,lethergy,sweating.ECG feature suggests Supraventricular tachycardia .One junior resident planned to give the drug by intravenous route.What is the dose of this drug ? 0.1-0.2 mg/kg 0.01-0.02 mg/kg 1-2 mg/kg 10-mg/kg
Explanation:
The baby was brought by mother with c/o constipation and protruded tongue.The baby was investigated for this presntation and was started with thyroxine replacement. Overtreatment with thyroxine may risk Long QTc craniosynostosis Diarrhoea Hirsutism
craniosynostosis
Explanation:
A 56-year-old woman with type-2 diabetes was given a GABA analog for the treatment for neuropathic pain. She was most likely given Amitriptyline Capsaicin Pregabalin Carbamazepine
Explanation:
Deferasirox -all are true except Deferasirox is a tridentate chelator with a high affinity for iron and low affinity for other metals, eg, zinc and copper. Given in intravenous route In the circulation, it binds iron, and the complex is excreted in the bile. Deferasirox was recently approved for the oral treatment of iron overload caused by blood transfusions, a problem in the treatment of thalassemia
Explanation:
The following are used for treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting following squint surgery in children except Ketamine. Ondansetron. Propofol. Dexamethasone
Answer:
Ketamine.
Explanation:
All are true about exenatide except? Glucagon like peptide analogue Used in type 1 diabetes mellitus Administered subcutaneously Decreases glucagon secretion
Explanation:
Arrylhmia
Explanation:
Triamterene
Explanation:
Which of the following is false regarding Echinocandins: Available only as intravenous formulation Effective against cryptococcal infections Prevents synthesis of fungal cell wall Used in the treatment of disseminated candidiasis
Explanation:
Which of the following statements regarding Aliskiren is True: It produces dose dependent reduction in plasma renin activity It inhibits renin secretion Both A and B None of the above
Answer:
Explanation:
Weight gain is least with which of the following atypical antipsychotic: Clozapine Ziprasidone Olanzapine Risperidone
Ziprasidone
Explanation:
Varenicline is used in the treatment of: Opioid addiction Smoking cessation Obesity Alcoholism
Smoking cessation
Explanation:
Which of the following is wrong match in metabolizing CCB-CYP3A Carvedilol - CYP2 D6 Simvastatin - glucoronide conjugation Digoxin -p glycoprotein
Explanation:
Clofarabin is a Alkylating agent Anti metabolite Antibiotic Cell cycle non specific agent
Anti metabolite
Explanation:
Q No. 83.
Which one of the following is a FDA-approved drug for newly diagnosed glioblastoma multiformae (GBM) in combination with radiotherapy
Temozolamide
Explanation:
Abacavir is a nucleoside transcription inhibitor that carries which side effect unique for HIV antiretroviral agents? Fanconi's anemia Hypersensitivity reaction Lactic acidosis Lipoatrophy
Hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation:
Which one of the following statements is faise regarding vincristine? It is an alkaloid Its use is associated with neurotoxicity It does not cause alopecia It is a useful drug for induction of remission in acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Explanation:
A 16-yr-old boy is suspected of having legionellosis. Which of the following is the most useful test for prompt diagnosis of Legionella pneumonia? Culture of respiratory secretions Detection of antigen in respiratory secretions Detection of antigen in urine Serologic testing for IgM antibodies
Explanation:
Q No. 87.
A 4-wk-old infant has the history of gagging and gasping episodes of acute onset, with mild cough and rhinorrhea. The infant is afebrile and appears well, and findings on lung auscultation are normal. Complete blood count reveals hemoglobin 12.0 gm/dL, WBC count 42,000/mm3 (10% neutrophils, 3% monocytes, 87% lymphocytes), and platelet count 650,000/mm3. The most likely etiologic agent of this illness is: Chlamydia trachomatis Rhinovirus Bordetella pertussis Group B streptococci
Bordetella pertussis
Explanation: Leukocytosis (15,000-100,000 cells/mm3) due to absolute lymphocytosis is characteristic in the catarrhal stage of pertussis Q No. 88. A 12-yr-old boy presents to the emergency department with a nail puncture wound of his foot. The injury occurred 1 hr ago in a school play yard. His wound is cleansed and debrided. His last tetanus immunization was at age 4 yr, as confirmed in his medical records. Which of the following is recommended? Tetanus vaccination alone Tetanus vaccination plus tetanus immune globulin Td None of the above: no immunization is necessary
Td
Explanation: A tetanus toxoid booster (preferably Td) is given to all persons with any wound if their tetanus immunization status is unknown or incomplete. A booster is given to injured persons who have completed their primary immunization series if (1) the wound is clean and minor but more than 10 yr have passed since the last booster, or (2) the wound is more serious and more than 5 yr have passed since the last booster. With delayed wound care, active immunization should be started at once Q No. 89. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Sweet-smelling odor All of the following may be clues to anaerobic infection except: Pus that shows no growth on routine laboratory testing Highly variable morphology of organisms seen on Gram stain Sweet-smelling odor Gas formation in tissues
Explanation: Anaerobic infections should be suspected with foulsmelling pus, which is present in half of anaerobic infections. In addition, the culture may be negative if the specimen is not handled properly under anaerobic conditions Q No. 90. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Fever Manifestations of Chlamydia trachomatis pneumonia include all of the following except: Fever Conjunctivitis Cough Tachypnea
Explanation:
All of the following are requirements for the diagnosis of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis except: Asthma Immediate cutaneous reactivity to Aspergillus fumigatus antigens by RAST Peripheral eosinophilia Pulmonary hyperinflation and hilar lymphadenopathy
Explanation: Hyperinflation due to air trapping is not always noted with allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, nor is hilar lymphadenopathy. The inflammatory response does not necessarily produce either of these lesions. Q No. 92. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Sporothrix schenckii A 4-yr-old girl develops nodular lymphangitis after being bitten by a cat. The most likely etiologic agent is: Mycobacterium marinum Nocardia brasiliensis Pasteurella multocida Sporothrix schenckii
Explanation:
All of the following may be manifestations of parvovirus B19 infection except: Facial rash ("slapped-cheek" appearance) Lacy, reticulated rash over the trunk and proximal extremities Arthritis
(4) Answer:
Explanation: The rash occurs in three stages, which are not always clinically distinguishable. After the initial "slapped-cheek" appearance, the rash spreads to become a lacy, reticulated rash over the trunk and proximal extremities. Arthritis and arthralgia are much more common in adults, especially in females, than in children. The transient arrest of erythropoiesis is usually clinically silent in previously healthy persons. Q No. 94. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Kaposi sarcoma All of the following tumors are associated with Epstein-Barr virus except: Burkitt lymphoma Kaposi sarcoma Leiomyosarcoma Lymphoproliferative disease in immunocompromised persons
Explanation: EBV is associated with several malignancies, including nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Burkitt lymphoma, Hodgkin disease, and lymphoproliferative diseases and leiomyosarcomas in immunocompromised persons. Kaposi sarcoma is associated with HHV-8.) Q No. 95. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Naegleria infection An 8-yr-old child presents with meningitis and encephalitis of acute onset in late summer after swimming in a pond of stagnant water. The most likely etiology is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection Herpes simplex virus infection Mucor infection Naegleria infection
Explanation:
The radiologist calls to report that a plain x-ray that you ordered to evaluate a hip-click shows periostitis. This finding suggests congenital infection by which of the following agents? Cytomegalovirus and rubella virus Toxoplasma gondii Syphilis Herpes simplex virus
Explanation: Periostitis, occurring in the long bones, is most typical of congenital syphilis. Osteochondritis is a common finding in congenital cytomegalovirus, rubella, and syphilis infections Q No. 97. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Removal of the central line and amphotericin B therapy The recommended treatment of a central line infection due to Candida is: Amphotericin B therapy Flucytosine therapy Removal of the central line and amphotericin B therapy Removal of the central line and flucytosine therapy
Explanation:
Q No. 98.
The microbiology laboratory calls to report that an organism has been detected in a blood culture, and the rapid germ tube test is positive. Which of the following organisms has been identified?
Candida albicans
Explanation:
Q No. 99.
An otherwise healthy 5-yr-old girl presents with focal back pain of insidious onset. Her father is a pigeon fancier, and the child helps him care for the pigeons. Her past medical history is also remarkable for an episode of "bronchitis" 1 yr ago. A plain film of the back reveals destruction of the T8 vertebral body. The most likely diagnosis is: Aspergillosis Blastomycosis Cryptococcosis Histiocytosis
Cryptococcosis
Explanation:
A 17-yr-old boy with cystic fibrosis develops recurrent bronchospasm and transient pulmonary infiltrates. Laboratory testing reveals mycelia in the sputum, and a peripheral eosinophilia. The most likely causative organism is: Burkholderia cepacia Stenotrophomonas maltophilia Aspergillus Malassezia furfur
Answer: Aspergillus
Explanation: Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis complicates chronic pulmonary disease in approximately 10% of persons with cystic fibrosis. Q No. 101. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Snuffles All of the following are characteristic manifestations of congenital rubella syndrome except: Snuffles Intrauterine growth retardation Cataracts Structural cardiac defects
Explanation: Congenital rubella affects virtually all organ systems. Snuffles is a sign of congenital syphilis Q No. 102. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Aphthous stomatitis All of the following may be manifestations of enterovirus infection except Aseptic meningitis Herpangina Hand, foot, and mouth disease Aphthous stomatitis
Explanation: Infections due to enteroviruses have a wide spectrum of clinical manifestations. Herpangina is usually caused by echovirus type 9. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease is usually caused by coxsackievirus A16. Diarrhea is probably less common than istaught.
Q No. 103.
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome Kawasaki disease Toxic shock syndrome Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Explanation:
Inclusion bodies seen in Lymphogranulona venereum is known as Halbertaedter Prawazek (HP) bodies. Levinthal-Cole-Lille (LCL) inclusion bodies. Bollinger body Miyagawa corpuscles.
Miyagawa corpuscles.
Explanation:
An intern got pricked during ward duties. He had received full vaccination course for Hepatitis B 3 yrs back and now he want to see the anti Hbs Ab in his blood. The protective level of Ab are
Answer:
Explanation:
Ochronosis is seen in poisoning with: Nitric acid. Oxalic acid. Carbolic acid. Acetic acid
Carbolic acid.
Explanation:
The following documents are exceptions to oral evidence in court except: Postmortem reports. Dying declaration. Reports of Mint Officers. Chemical Examiner's reports.
Postmortem reports.
Explanation:
Scab or Crust of abrasion appears brown: Between 12-24 hours Between 2-3 days
Explanation:
Pure aryans have which type of skull : Mesaticephalic Brachycephalic Dolicocephalic None of the above
Dolicocephalic
Explanation:
Double edge sword produces which type of wound Triangular, Elliptical, Wedge shape, Oval.
Explanation:
Explanation:
Explanation:
Gordon classification is for type of Spine fracture hypoxia Intracranial hemorrhage Firearm
Explanation:
Answer: Phosphorus
Explanation:
Explanation:
As per WHO, H1NI influenza pandemic is in which phase? phase 3 phase 4 phase 5 phase 6
Explanation:
Answer: Normal
Explanation:
Under RNTCP sputum sample slide with 3 AFB per oil immersion field will be reported as: scanty + (1+) ++ (2+) +++ (3+)
Explanation:
Recommended dose of Oseltamavir for a 9 month old baby for treating swine flu is: 2 mg/ kg twice daily for five days 2.5 mg/ kg twice daily for five days 3 mg/ kg twice daily for five days 3.5 mg/ kg twice daily for five days
Explanation:
Q No.
120. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 0.0475 inch in diameter 0.0475 inch in diameter 0.0475 cm in diameter 0.475 inch in diameter 0.475 cm in diameter
Explanation:
Prevention of food adulteration act was enacted in: 1964 1954 1974 1984
Explanation:
Which of the following is included as "proximate principles" of nutrition? Iron Vitamin A Carbohydrate Calcium
Carbohydrate
Explanation:
The "water act" passed in 1974 deals with: Provision of adequate drinking water Prevention of water pollution Provision of adequate irrigation water Provision for digging of wells
Explanation:
An Anganwadi centre functions for how many hours a day? 3.5 4.5 6 4
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
"RHIME" is: A form of verbal autopsy A mode of imparting non formal education A method of behaviour therapy A new hormonal contraceptive
Explanation:
As per NFHS 3 data, what is the prevalence of anaemia in children 6 to 59 months: 50% 60% 70% 80%
Explanation:
Explanation:
What is the minimum recommended consumption level of PUFA by the WHO/ FAO expert group on diet, nutrition and prevention of chronic diseases: 5% 6% 8% 10%
Explanation:
Which of the following age group comprises the young age dependant population?
Explanation:
A tuberculosis patient with only rifampicin resistance will be treated under which category as per RNTCP 2010 guidelines? Cat I Cat II Cat III Cat IV
Explanation:
Explanation:
Cholera Vaccine
Explanation:
Explanation:
Under "SABLA" scheme implemented under ICDS, the beneficiaries comprises of the age group:
Explanation:
Q No.
Situs inversus
Explanation:
Ortners syndrome is Paralysis of recurrent laryngeal nerve + cardiomegaly Paralysis of recurrent laryngeal nerve + lung hamartoma Paralysis of phrenic nerve + cardiomegaly Paralysis of phrenic nerve + GERD
Explanation:
All are true about Henneberts Sign except It is a positive fistula sign in the absence of fistula Seen in congenital syphilis
Explanation:
Lever ratio between the handle of malleus and long process of incus is 1:2 1.1:1 1.3:1 1.5:1
Explanation:
Mc Govern's technique is used in the management of Nasal synechiae Unilateral choanal atresia Bilateral choanal atresia CSF rhinorrhoea
Explanation:
Acoustic neuroma involves Superior vestibular division of 8th cranial nerve Auditory part of 8th cranial nerve 7th cranial nerve Inferior vestibular division of 8th cranial nerve
Explanation:
Steeple sign is seen in Croup AC Epiglotitis Normal variant All of the above
Explanation:
Nerve of the pterygold canal Is also known as Arnolds nerve Vidian nerve Nerve of Kuntz Criminal nerve of grassi
Vidian nerve
Explanation:
Dysphonia plica ventricularis is a condition in which voice is produced by true cord false cords arytenoids oesophagus
Explanation:
Krauses node -which is true ? Most superior node of lateral group of retropharyngeal node Enlargement of these node compresses on CN IX,X,XI Nodes situated in optic foramen Nodes situated behind the clavicle
Explanation:
Radius of curvature of the anterior surface of an adult crystalline lens with accommodation at rest is 7 mm 8mm 9mm 10mm
Explanation:
Is a sweat gland Glamd of mall gland of zeus Merbromin gland all of the above
Glamd of mall
Explanation:
Adult size of the cornea is attained by the age of 2yrs 3yrs 5yrs 9yrs
Explanation:
Circulars iritis major is formed by the anastomoses of long posterior ciliary arteries with short posterior ciliary arteries Anterror ciliary with short posterior ciliary Long posterior ciliary with anterior ciliary Long posterior ciliary with anterior conjunctival artery
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
See saw nystagmus all are true except: Pendular Nystagmus eye elevates and extorts causes include parasellar tumour bitemporal hemianopia
Explanation:
Explanation:
Inverted purikinje image are seen on Anterior surface of cornea Posterior surface of cornea Anterior surface of lens Posterior surface of lens
Explanation:
Cytomegalavirus
Explanation:
Explanation:
The common associated changes in alports syndrome include all except platelet defect Proteinuria is frequently seen in males Haemolytic anaemia leiomyomatosis of esophagus
Haemolytic anaemia
Explanation:
An epileptic syndrome ,manifestation by aphasia,along with regression of milestone dandy walker syndrome refsum disease tuberous sclerosis
(4) Answer:
Explanation:
All are true except about lab finding of dengue fever electrocardiogram may show sinus tachycardia Mild acidosis, increased transaminase values, hypoproteinemia
Explanation:
Regarding prasugrel, a newer antiplatelet drug it is an 5-HT2A antagonist it is shortacting is a prodrug exhibits high inter-individual variablity in platelet response
is a prodrug
Explanation:
In Brugada syndrome VF episodes are precipitated most with exercise. catecholamines. quinidine. fever.
Explanation:
Which of the following investigation has the highest sensitivity for diagnosing myocarditis CK-MB isoform Indium -111 antimyosin scintigraphy myocardial biopsy echocardiography
Explanation:
A 5-day-old appropriate-for-gestational age male presents with tachypnea, poor feeding, and lethargy. On examination, the neonate appears in shock with hypotension, pallor, and poor capillary refill. Among the following, which is the most likely diagnosis? tetrology of Fallot tricuspid atresia transposition of the great vessels hypoplastic left heart syndrome
Explanation: Hypoplastic left heart syndrome typically presents within the first few days to weeks of life with tachypnea, lethargy, and poor feeding. The condition of the neonate worsens dramatically with closing of the PDA. Cyanosis may not be obvious initially, but patients develop a grayish blue color of the skin which results from a mix of cyanosis and hypoperfusion. As the PDA closes, progressive shock will develop. The other cyanotic heart lesions listed are more likely to present with cyanosis and tachypnea rather than shock
The primary biochemical lesion in homozygotes with familial hypercholesterolemia the loss of apoprotein B the malfunctioning of acyl CoA cholesterol acyl transferase (ACAT) the functional deficiency of plasma membrane receptors for low density lipoproteins the increased production of low density lipoproteins
the functional deficiency of plasma membrane receptors for low density lipoproteins
Explanation:
Which of the following is a minor criteria for diagnosis of infective endocarditis antiphase I IgG antibody titer for Coxiella brunetti > 1:800 new partial dehiscence of prosthetic valve single positive blood culture for coagulase negative staphylococci rheumatoid factor
rheumatoid factor
Explanation:
DNA microsatellite - best description Single locus 2 - 4 base pairs repeats DNA fragments CAG repeat poly A tailing
Explanation:
Changes least likely with familial colonic cancer APC gene mutation DNA repair gene mutation Chromosomal translocation Microsatellite instability
Chromosomal translocation
Explanation:
A newborn is presented with what appear to be large pupils that do not constrict to light. There is no family history of similar ocular findings. An appropriate study to be performed in the future is: CT scan of the head and orbit Visual evoked potentials Renal ultrasound study Cocaine test
Explanation: In aniridia, the pupils look large and nonreactive. Because children so affected are at risk for Wilms tumor, renal ultrasound study is indicated.
Mollatet's meningitis is associated with which of the following viral infection : Measles CMV HSV- 2 Polio virus
Explanation:
Inverted champagne bottle muscle atrophy occurs in ? Duchenne Muscle dystrophy Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Peroneal Muscle atrophy Progressive Muscular Atrophy
Explanation:
Explanation:
Oral drug recently approved for treatment of multiple sclerosis is glatiramer alemtuzumab Fingolimod metothrexate
Answer: Fingolimod
Explanation:
Steroids can be given in which of the following muscular dystrophy LGMD DMD FSMD myotonic
Explanation:
REM sleep disorder is associated with which disease in future: alzemier's disease parkinsonism motor neuron disease huntington's chorea
parkinsonism
Explanation:
Mutations in the glucocerebrosidase (GBA) gene associated with Gaucher's disease are also associated with an increased risk of Idiopathic Parkinsonism Alzheimers Wilson disease Halloverdan spatz
Idiopathic Parkinsonism
Explanation: Mutations in the glucocerebrosidase (GBA) gene associated with Gaucher's disease are also associated with an increased risk of idiopathic PD. Again the mechanism is not precisely known, but it is noteworthy that it is associated with altered autophagy and lysosomal function, suggesting that mutations in this gene might also impair protein clearance leading to PD.
Face of Giant Panda" on MRI is classically seen in Wilsons disease hallervorden-spatz disease Neuroacantocytosis sturge weber syndrome
Wilsons disease
Explanation:
Which of the following antibiotics has the weakest association with the development of Clostridium difficile- associated disease? Ceftriaxone Ciprofloxacin &Moxifloxacin Clindamycin Piperacillin/tazobactam
Piperacillin/tazobactam
Explanation:
All of the following statements regarding Kawasaki disease are true except: It occurs in outbreaks Exposure to an affected patient greatly increases therisk of the disease Asian children have the highest risk 80% of patients are younger than 5 yr of age
Explanation:
A 6-yr-old girl is diagnosed with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis. In advising her parents about the probability of persistence of active disease into adulthood, you cite which of the following? All symptoms will resolve by age 21 5-10% 50% 90% 99%
Explanation:
Clubbing is a feature of all the following except Aortic dissection Tricuspid atresia Fungal endocarditis Pulmonary AV fistula
Aortic dissection
Explanation:
Which of the following is the correct statement regarding JVP findings? Cannon 'a' wave: Tricuspid regurgitation Rapid, deep 'y' descent: tricuspid regurgitation Giant c wave: tricuspid stenosis Increased JVP with prominent pulsations: SVC obstruction
Explanation:
An early systolic murmur may be caused by all of the following, except: Large VSD with pulmonary hypertension Small muscular VSDs Tricuspid regurgitation with no pulmonary hypertension Aortic stenosis
Aortic stenosis
Explanation:
Explanation:
All the following are associated with a decreased sense of smell except head trauma HIV infection influenza B infection parainfluenza virus type 3 infection
influenza B infection
Explanation:
All of the following statements regarding congenital neuromuscular disorders are true except: Most are hereditary Most are nonprogressive conditions The definitive diagnosis is best made by electromyography (EMG)
(4) Answer:
Explanation:
Granulocytic sarcomas are associated with which cytogenitic abnormality t (8;21) t (15;174) inv (16 del (5q)
Explanation:
vanadium
Explanation:
Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is associated with all of the following Except: Short P-R interval Slow upstroke of QRS complex Renal tubular acidosis Ebstein anomaly
Explanation:
isoprinosine
Explanation:
Disorders associated with complete heart block include all of the following Except: Maternal systemic lupus erythematosus Kearns-Sayre syndrome Rheumatoid arthritis Cardiac rhabdomyoma
Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:
All of the following statements regarding hereditary spherocytosis are true Except: Individuals with hereditary spherocytosis may be asymptomatic without anemia The newborn with hereditary spherocytosis may present with anemia and hyperbilirubinemia severe enough to require phototherapy and exchange transfusions Isoimmune hemolytic anemia due to ABO incompatibility may mimic hereditary spherocytosis Splenectomy does not eliminate most of the hemolysis of hereditary spherocytosis
Explanation:
Q No. 191.
A 4-yr-old girl has experienced progressive loss of ambulation over a 2-yr period. On examination, the child is apathetic and uninterested in hersurroundings. She has horizontal nystagmus and optic atrophy. Her voice is dysarthric. She is hypotonic, and her deep tendon reflexes are absent. A sibling died at the age of 6 yr with a similar history. The motor nerve conduction velocities show marked slowing, and computed tomography (CT) of the head shows diffuse symmetric attenuation of the
cerebral and cerebellar white matter. The most likely diagnosis is: (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Metachromatic leukodystrophy Multiple sclerosis Metachromatic leukodystrophy GM2 gangliosidosis (Tay-Sachs disease) Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis
Explanation: Metachromatic leukodystrophy is a familial degenerative disease affecting both the central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous system white matter? hence the loss of deep tendon reflexes with CNS symptoms.
Osteoporosis, neutropenia, neurologic symptoms, depigmentation of hair and skin is seen in deficiency of copper chromium selenium molybdenum
Explanation:
Causes of spherocytosis include all except thermal injury, clostridial septicemia with exotoxemia, Wilson diseas splenectomy
splenectomy
Explanation:
Cardiac manifestations of Kawasaki ds are all except: CHF Pericarditis Coronary artery aneurysm Valve stenosis
Valve stenosis
Explanation:
Probable cure of Eisenmenger Syndrome Heart transplantation Lung transplantation Heart- Lung transplantation Bypass Grafting
Explanation:
Causes of large for date baby are all except congenital Hypothyroid constitutional Beckweith-wiedmann syndrome William syndrome
William syndrome
Explanation:
Severe vitamin C deficiency may result in all except degeneration of skeletal muscles, cardiac hypertrophy, bone marrow depletion, adrenal hyperplasia
adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:
All are poor prognostic factor of meningococcemia except purpura fulminans meningitis low ESR acidosis
Explanation:
All are true about Duchene muscular dystrophies except in terminal stages of the disease, the serum CK value may be considerably higher than it was a few years earlier Other lysosomal enzymes present in muscle, such as aldolase and aspartate aminotransferase, are also increased but are less specific. Cardiac assessment by echocardiography, electrocardiography (ECG), and radiography of the chest is essential and should be repeated periodically Electromyography (EMG) shows characteristic myopathic features but is not specific for Duchenne muscular dystrophy. No evidence of denervation is found. Motor and sensory nerve conduction velocities are normal
Answer: in terminal stages of the disease, the serum CK value may be considerably higher than it was a few years earlier
Explanation:
Craniosynostasis with autosomal recessive condition is seen in Apert syndrome Crouzon disease Carpenter syndrome Pfeiffer syndrome
Carpenter syndrome
Explanation:
Q No.
201. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: lethergy Hyper alert Sympathetic overactivity lethergy Absent dolls eye
Explanation:
Q No. 202.
A 6-wk-old girl has had feeding problems, hypotonia, and emesis for 3 wk. During the last week she developed an erythematous exfoliative generalized rash and partial alopecia. Laboratory data reveal metabolic acidosis, ketosis, and hyperammonemia. The treatment of the patient is best accomplished
by administration of: (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Biotin Biotin Vitamin B1 Vitamin B6 Vitamin B12
Explanation: Treatment with biotin will result in rapid improvement. Biotin is an important cofactor for the fourcarboxylase enzymes in this disorder
Q No. 203.
A brain abscess
Explanation: This young girl has tetralogy of Fallot and a brain abscess resulting in part from the right-to-left cardiac shunt. Predisposing factors for brain abscesses in other patients include chronic otic and sinus infections. Q No. 204. Hoarseness or aphonia caused by paralysis of the laryngeal nerve is a characteristic sign of which deficiency?
B1 B2 B6 B12
Explanation:
Bulging fissure sign is thought to be characteristic of which pneumonia? s.aureus pseudomonas millediosis klebsiella
Explanation:
Q No. 206.
Alexis Carrel was conferred Nobel Prize for his contribution towards?
Vascular Surgery
Explanation:
Explanation:
Vegetable inflicted as causing Tropical Chronic Pancreatitis in people of lower socioeconomic status is Beet root Bitter Guard Cassava Broccoli
Explanation:
(4) Answer:
Explanation:
All are features of Refeeding Syndrome Except: Hypo calcaemia Hypo phosphataemia Hypo magnesaemia Hypo natraemia
Hypo natraemia
Explanation:
What is the common cause of post operative fever in a patient operated for abdominal aortic aneurysm r 48 hrs after surgery Atelectasis of lung Deep wound infection Deep vein Thrombosis Urinary tract infection
Atelectasis of lung
Explanation:
A polytrauma patient of 54 yrs is brought to your hospital emergency, he is opening his eyes on calling his name, withdraws his limbs to painful stimuli and is speaking confused. His GCS would be 12 11 13 9
Answer: 11
Explanation:
Classic Triad of pericardial tamponade/beck's triad include all except Venous pressure elevation increased arterial pressure muffled heart sounds decreased arterial pressure
Explanation:
Indian forehead rhinoplasty done by Sushruta, described in sushrutha samhita is a type of myocutaneous flap osseomyocutaneous flap fasciocutaneous flap advancement flap
fasciocutaneous flap
Explanation:
Type of hernia most commonly associated with Congenital Dislocation of Hip Laugier's femoral hernia madyl's inguinal hernia Cloquet's hernia Narath's femoral hernia
Explanation:
According to Maastricht Classification of Non heart beating donors belong to category 2 are. cardiac arrest while brain dead dead on arrival at hospital awaiting cardiac arrest after withdrawal of support unsuccessful resuscitation in hospital
Explanation:
Explanation:
Most common type of soft tissue sarcoma found in childhood Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma Synovial sarcoma malignant fibrous histiocytoma dedifferentiated liposarcoma
Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
Explanation:
Lymph nodes lying anterior to anterior belly of digastric and superior to hyoid bone in neck belong to which lymph node station II B
II A IB IA
Explanation:
BIRADS 1 is given to a mammographic finding of benign finding suspicious abnormality probably benign finding negative finding
Explanation:
Most common gene to be mutated in male breast cancer is PSA BRCA 1 BRCA 2 MSH 2
Explanation:
Q No. 222.
AMES clinical scoring system is used to risk stratify which group of patients
hurtle cell carcinoma anaplastic thyroid cancer parathyroid cancer oral cancer
Explanation:
All are low grade salivary gland tumour except Adenoid cystic carcinoma Squamous Cell Carcinoma muco-epidermoid carcinoma Acinic Cell Carcinoma
Explanation:
Likelihood of Medullary thyroid carcinoma developing in a patient with MEN 2 with mutation in RET protooncogene is 50% 70% 100% 75%
Explanation:
Following procedure is used for limb reduction in a case of lymphoedema of lower limb. Thompson Palma Lane Taheri
Answer: Thompson
Explanation:
All are risk factor for Bladar cancer except Cigarette smoking is believed to contribute to up to 50% of the diagnosed urothelial cancers Chronic cyclophosphamide exposure Phenacetin Vit-A
Explanation:
A63-year-old man underwent gastric resection for severe peptic ulcer disease. He had complete relief of his symptoms but developed "dumping syndrome." This patient is most likely to complain of which of the following? Gastric intussusception Repeated vomiting Severe diarrhea Severe vasomotor symptoms after eating
Explanation: Dumping syndrome is a symptom complex ocurring after gastric surgery. It is characterized by fatigue, abdominal distension, pain, and vasomotor symptoms caused by the rapid entry of food into the small intestine. Tachycardia, sweating, and feeling lightheaded after eating are symptoms patients may feel. There are two types of dumping syndrome, early and late
Protoscopy reveals nonbleeding grade I hemorrhoids and maroon stool and clots coming from the proximal colon. Which of the following is TRUE in the management of lower gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding? Barium enema is a good tool in the early evaluation of massive GI bleeding. Technetium sulfur colloid has excellent sensitivity in localizing lower GI bleeding. Technetium sulfur colloid scan is useful because it may be repeated 24 hours later with single injection. Colonoscopy should be avoided in the evaluation of acute lower GI bleeding
Explanation:
Technetium sulfur colloid scans have the advantage of immediate availability but the patient must be bleeding when the isotope is injected as the isotope is quickly cleared by the reticuloendothelial system of the liver and spleen
Charecteristic feature of pagets cell is Eosinophilic cytoplasm Glycogen mass Multinucleated giant cell Abundant clear cytoplasm
Explanation:
TYLECTOMY literally means Excision of lymph node Excision of skin Excision of breast Excision of lump
Excision of lump
Explanation:
All are true about Pancreatic cancer except Cigarette smoking, obesity, appear to be risk factors Less clear, associations, have been observed for alcohol consumption,
(3) (4)
Helicobacter pylori is not associated with pancreatic cancer Epidemiologic association between diabetes mellitus and pancreatic cancer has also been demonstrated
Explanation:
Explanation:
Percentage of patients with perforated peptic ulcer who show free gas under the diaphragm is a.100 b.90 c.75
d.50
Explanation:
Explanation:
Medical stone dissolving therapy is used in all except Radio-opaque stone Radio-lucent stone Small stones Normal motility of the gall bladder
Radio-opaque stone
Explanation:
M.C. stone formed in proteus infection of the UTI Triple phosphate stone Uric acid stone Cystine stone Calcium oxalate stone
Explanation:
Most common site of obstruction after prolonged TURP operation? Navicular fossa of urethra Bladder neck Membranous urethra Prostatic urethra
Prostatic urethra
Explanation:
A young lady presents with fever, dysuria and pain abdomen. Uncomplicated acute cystitis was diagnosed. Which among the following is not true? Nitrate test positive Urine culture revealing E.coli count < 103bacteria/ml 1 pus cell per 7 fields 1 bacilli per field
Explanation:
In stab injury to abdomen, the momentum was visible outside, vitals - BP-110/70 mmHg. Pt is conscious, next step is Push omentum inside & local injury repair FAST CECT Laparotomy & repair
Explanation:
A patient presented with an abdominal viscera perforation with peritonitis and shock. Airway, breathing and IV fluids for circulation were taken care of. What is the next step of management? Shift the patient immediately to OT - do laparotomy & repair Shift the patient immediately to OT & do the laparoscopic repair Insert an abdominal drain under LA and then take up the patient for surgery Serum electrolyte abnormalities stabilised first & then definitive treatment is given.
Explanation:
IV trimester
Explanation:
Hydatidiform mole is characterized histologically by Hyaline membrane degeneration Hydropic degeneration of villous stroma Non proliferation of cytotrophoblast Non proliferation of syncytiotrophoblast
Explanation:
Q No.
Actinomycin-D
Explanation:
Explanation:
Answer: Page
Explanation:
All are causes of antepartum haemorrhage except Placenta previa Abruptioplacentae Circumvallete placenta Battledore placenta
Battledore placenta
Explanation:
Q No. 247.
Fetal haemoglobin
Explanation:
Which one of the following is not an operation for uterine invasion Osulaivan Haultain Spincecell Fentoni
Explanation:
MC cause of secondary PPH Atonic uterus Retained placenta Iatrogenic injury Medical diseases
Retained placenta
Explanation:
pH range of amniotic fluid at later weeks of gestation is 5.5-6 6-6.5 6.5-7 7-7.5
Explanation:
Explanation:
In a patient of magnesium sulphate therapy , usually at what level patellar reflex disappears 6-8 mEq/L 10-12 mEq/L 12-14 mEq/L
10-12 mEq/L
Explanation:
Which one of the following is not Eclampsia ( severe) Urine output more than 600ml Pulmonary edema 3+ protinuria Convulsions
Explanation:
All are seen in non immune hydrops fetalis except Pericardial effusion Large placenta Skin edema Ascites
Pericardial effusion
Explanation:
Haematocolpos causes Retention of urine Primary amenorrhoea Both of above None of the above
Both of above
Explanation:
Hobnail cells are seen in Hilus cell tumour Mesonephroid tumer Dysgerminoma Arrhenoblastoma
Mesonephroid tumer
Explanation:
Q No.
257. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 7cm 2cm 5cm 7cm 10cm
Explanation:
The best method for evaluation of CA cevix Clinical examination Pap smear Cervical biopsy Colcoscopic examination
Clinical examination
Menstrual abnormality associated with asherman syndrome is Menorrhagia Polymenorrhagia Oligomenorrhoea Amenorrhoea
Amenorrhoea
Explanation: Ref; Shaw 15 ed / p- 288. Q No. 260. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Shirodkar abdominal sling oper ation Treatment for young unmarried nulliparus with prolapse is Vaginal hysterectomy Le Forts operation Shirodkar abdominal sling oper ation Fothergills operation
Explanation:
True regarding mallet finger is Avulsion of tendon at the base of the middle phalanx Avulsion of extensor tendon at the base of the distal phalanx Fracture of distal phalanx Fracture of the proximal phalanx
Explanation:
A 6-yr-old girl is diagnosed with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis. In advising her parents about the probability of persistence of active disease into adulthood, you cite which of the following? All symptoms will resolve by age 21 5-10% 50% 90%
Explanation: Approximately 45% of children with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis will have active disease that persists into early adulthood. Q No. 263. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: central dislocation of hip In per rectal examination femoral head is palpable in Anterior dislocation of hip Posterior dislocation of hip Lateral dislocation of hip central dislocation of hip
Explanation: In per rectal examination femoral head is palpable in central dislocation o hip
Q No.
Associated conditions in infants with developmental dysplasia of the hip include all of the following
Explanation: DDH is most often seen in females and may be due to in utero position and laxity of ligaments. Q No. 265. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis A 14-yr-old tall afebrile girl presents with hip pain and an extremely rotated right leg. On examination, internal rotation is limited. The most likely diagnosis is: Legg-Calv-Perthes disease Diskitis Slipped capital femoral epiphysis Osgood-Schlatter disease
Explanation: External rotation, severe pain, and tall stature in an adolescent are important clues. In addition to pain, limitation of internal rotation of the leg is classic.
A 13-yr-old gymnast presents with back pain, reduced lumbar lordosis, and sacral kyphosis. The buttocks are flattened, and a step-off is felt in the lumbosacral region. Findings on neurologic examination are normal. The most likely diagnosis is: Spondylolisthesis with spondylolysis Spondylolysis Tethered cord Spina bifida occulta
Explanation:
First muscle affected in compartment syndrome: Flexor Digitorium sublimis Flexor Digitorium profundus Flexor Carpi ulnaris Flexor Carpi radialis
Explanation:
Three point relation is used to differentiate Supracondylar fracture from fracture of: Medial epicondyle Lateral epicondyle Elbow dislocation All of the above
Explanation: The 'Three-point relation of both epicondyles & olecranon at elbow joint is maintained in supracondylar fracture of humerus.
Chemically, Plaster of Paris (POP) is Calcium carbonate Calcium sulphate Anhydrous calcium sulphate Hemihydrous calcium sulphate
Explanation: (Ref. Essential orthopedics by Maheshwari 2nd ed., 13) Q No. 270. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Teres major Not a component of Rotator cuff : Infraspinatus Teres major Subscapularis Supraspinatus
Explanation:
Central neuraxial anesthesia is not contra indicated in: Patient on Aspirin Patient on oral anticoagulant Pt on LV heparin
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
A boy undergoes eye surgery under day care anesthesia with Succinyl choline and propofol and after 8 hours he starts walking and develops muscle pain. What is the cause? Early mobilization Due to the effects of eye surgery Succinyl choline Propofol
Succinyl choline
Explanation:
Which of the following agent is not given intrathecally in children for caudal anesthesia? Remifentanil Morphine Butorphanol Fentanyl
Answer: Remifentanil
Explanation:
Contraindication for neuraxial blockade like epidural and spinal anesthesia all except IV LMWH Aspirin Oral anticoagulant
Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:
Which of the following is used for maintaining heart rate in the intraoperative period? Esmolol Metoprolol Procainamide Verapamil
Explanation:
'Train of four' relates to? Malignant hyperthermia Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers Mechanical ventilation To check hemodynamic parameters
Explanation:
Not true regarding sevoflurane: MAC is higher than isoflurane Blood gas coefficient is higher than desflurane
Potency more than isoflurane Sevoflurane is less cardio depressant than isoflurane
Explanation:
Which of the following is true regarding propofol? It is used in day care anesthesia It is contraindicated in porphyria Commercial preparation contain egg extract It does not cause airway irritation
It is contraindicated in porphyria
Explanation:
All regarding Mivacurium are true except Larger doses speed the onset of action Bronchospasm Flushing Hypertension
Answer: Hypertension
Explanation:
All are true except about Patch Tests Patch testing is designed to document sensitivity to a specific antigen. In this procedure, a battery of suspected allergens is applied to the patient's back under occlusive dressings and allowed to remain in contact with the skin for twenty four hour The dressings are removed, and the area is examined for evidence of delayed hypersensitivity reactions (e.g., erythema, edema, or papulovesicles). This test is best performed by physicians with special expertise in patch testing and is often helpful in the evaluation of patients with chronic dermatitis
Answer: In this procedure, a battery of suspected allergens is applied to the patient's back under occlusive dressings and allowed to remain in contact with the skin for twenty four hour
Explanation: Patch testing is designed to document sensitivity to a specific antigen. In this procedure, a battery of suspected allergens is applied to the patient's back under occlusive dressings and allowed to remain in contact with the
skin for 48 h. The dressings are removed, and the area is examined for evidence of delayed hypersensitivity reactions (e.g., erythema, edema, or papulovesicles). This test is best performed by physicians with special expertise in patch testing and is often helpful in the evaluation of patients with chronic dermatitis
Explanation:
a Wood's lamp will cause erythrasma (a superficial, intertriginous infection caused by Corynebacterium minutissimum) to show a characteristic ________colour white green ashleaf deep blue coral pink
Explanation:
All are true about Tzanck Smear except A Tzanck smear is a cytologic technique most often used in the diagnosis of herpesvirus infections [herpes simplex virus (HSV) or varicella zoster virus (VZV)] . An early vesicle, not a pustule or crusted lesion, is unroofed, and the edge of the lesion is scraped gently with a scalpel blade. The material is placed on a glass slide, air-dried, and stained with Giemsa or Wright's stain.. Multinucleated epithelial giant cells suggest the presence of HSV or VZV; culture or immunofluorescence testing must be performed to identify the specific virus
Answer: An early vesicle, not a pustule or crusted lesion, is unroofed, and the edge of the lesion is scraped gently with a scalpel blade.
Explanation: A Tzanck smear is a cytologic technique most often used in the diagnosis of herpesvirus infections [herpes simplex virus (HSV) or varicella zoster virus (VZV)] ( An early vesicle, not a pustule or crusted lesion, is unroofed, and the base of the lesion is scraped gently with a scalpel blade. The material is placed on a glass slide, air-dried, and stained with Giemsa or Wright's stain. Multinucleated epithelial giant cells suggest the presence of HSV or VZV; culture or immunofluorescence testing must be performed to identify the specific virus
Spongiosis is__________edema of epidermis intercelluler intracelluler both inter & intra celluler cytoplasmic
intercelluler
Explanation:
plaque type
Explanation:
naval
Explanation:
lichen planus
Explanation: Lichen planus (LP) is a papulosquamous disorder that may affect the skin, scalp, nails, and mucous membranes. The primary cutaneous lesions are pruritic, polygonal, flat-topped, violaceous papules. Close examination of the surface of these papules often reveals a network of gray lines (Wickham's striae). The skin lesions may occur anywhere but have a predilection for the wrists, shins, lower back, and genitalia (Fig. 53-5). Involvement of the scalp, lichen planopilaris, may lead to scarring alopecia, and nail involvement may lead to permanent deformity or loss of fingernails and toenails. LP commonly involves mucous membranes, particularly the buccal mucosa, where it can present a spectrum of disease from a mild, white, reticulate eruption of the mucosa, to a severe, erosive stomatitis. Erosive stomatitis may persist for years and may be linked to an increased risk of oral squamous cell carcinoma. Cutaneous eruptions clinically resembling LP have been observed after administration of numerous drugs, including thiazide diuretics, gold, antimalarials, penicillamine, and phenothiazines, and in patients with skin lesions of chronic graft-versus-host disease. Additionally, LP may be associated with hepatitis C infection. The course of LP is variable, but most patients have spontaneous remissions 6 months to 2 years after the onset of disease. Topical glucocorticoids are the mainstay of therapy.
(4) Answer: C
Explanation:
All are responsible for Lichen planus except antimalarials gold thiazide penicillin
Explanation:
All are the side effect of mirtazapine except Weight gain Somnolence Neutropenia Increased blood pressure
Explanation:
Depression is associated with all except Patient with pancreatic cancer Chronic hepatitis C infection Chronic fatigue syndrome Diabetes insipidus
Diabetes insipidus
Explanation:
Therapeutic blood level of lithium is 0.8-1.2 meq/L 0.5-1meq/L 01.8-2 meq/L None
0.8-1.2 meq/L
Explanation:
Explanation:
Aripiprazole
Explanation:
Butter fly vertebrae is seen in Down's syndrome Allagille syndrome Wiliams syndrome None
Allagille syndrome
Explanation: Multisystem evaluation reveals posterior embryotoxon and axenfeld anomaly in eye, peripheral pulmonary stenosis on echo, butterfly vertebrae on skeletal survey. Liver biopsy had features of intrahepatic paucity of bile ducts compatible with Alagille syndrome
CORNER SIGN is seen in Vit-D deficiency Vit-C def Vit-A def NONE
Vit-C def
Explanation:
Features of osteosarcoma on x- ray is/are; moth-eaten appearance sunburst appearance Codman's triangle all
Explanation:
Garland pattern of calcifications is seen with hydronephrosis medullary sponge kidney polycystic kidney papillary necrosis
Explanation: Ring sign" on the pyelogram is pathognomonic of papillary necrosis and represents the radiolucent sloughed papilla surrounded by the radiodense contrast material in the calyx. CT may reveal papillary calcifications surrounding the central sinus complex in a "garland" pattern (Fig. 279-1). Transitional cell carcinoma may develop in the urinary pelvis or ureters as a late complication of analgesic abuse.
Radiologic evidence of atlantoaxial subluxation occurs in ______ of patients with Rheumatoid Arthritis 10 % 20% 30% 50%
Explanation: