Marks Marks

40 40 65 65 MID-YEAR EXAMINATION 2012

Name of Pupil Class Subject / Code Paper No. Level Date Duration Setter : : : : : : : : ____________________________________ ( _______ Physics/5058 1 Sec 4 Express 9 May 2012 1 hour Mr Soh Wei Yong )

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Write in soft pencil. Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid. Write your Name, Index number and Class on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided. There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible answers, A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet. Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully. Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer. Any rough working should be done in this booklet. The gravitational field strength is 10 N/kg.

Hand in OTAS separately from Question Paper.

___________________________________________________________________________

Multiple Choice (40 marks)

This question paper consists of 17 printed pages, including this cover page. Answer ALL the questions 1

1.

A pendulum swings backward and forward passing through Y, the middle point of the oscillation. The first time the pendulum passes through Y, a stopwatch is started. The forty-first time the pendulum passes through Y, the stopwatch is stopped. The reading is T. What is the period of the pendulum?

A B C D

T/41 T/21 T/20 T/10

2.

A car is travelling with uniform acceleration along a straight road. The road has marker posts every 100 m. When the car passes one post, it has a speed of 10 m/s and when it passes the next one, its speed is 20 m/s. What is the car's acceleration? A B C D 0.67 m/s2 1.5 m/s2 2.5 m/s2 6.0 m/s2

3.

When an object falls through the air, the drag force on it increases. The object reaches terminal velocity. Which quantity decreases until terminal velocity is reached? A B C D acceleration air resistance speed weight

4.

A car driver steps on the accelerator sharply when the traffic lights turn green. The force on the car varies with time as shown.
Force

time

Which graph shows the variation of the cars speed with time? A
Speed

Speed

0 Speed

tim e

0 Speed

tim e

tim e

tim e

5.

An object is accelerating under the influence of a force on a frictionless surface. What will happen to the object when an opposing force of the same magnitude acts on it? A B C D The object will move in the opposite direction. The object will come to rest immediately after the opposing force acts on it. The object will slow down gradually before it stops moving. The object will move at constant velocity.
3

6.

The weight of an object is 60 N on Earth. The gravitational field strength on the Earth is six times the gravitational field strength on the Moon. What is the mass and weight of the object on the Moon?

A B C D

mass / kg 6 6 10 10

Weight / N 10 60 10 60

7.

A uniform plank of wood of mass 5.0 kg is used to make a trap door. It is hinged at one end and a piece of rope is attached to the other end. The door is held in the position shown. What is the force F exerted on the rope?
F

rope

1.2 m

30

12.5 N
4

B C D

21.7 N 25.0 N 50 N

8.

A box of mass 6 kg is being pulled by a 50 N force from an initial speed of 4 m/s at the foot of the ramp to a final speed of 6 m/s at the top of the ramp. What is the magnitude of friction along the ramp is 2 N?

A C 9.

2.5 m 4.5 m

B D

3.4 m 6.0 m

The diagram shows a manometer used to measure the pressure of the gas in a chamber. Assuming the atmospheric pressure is 76 cm Hg, what is the pressure of the gas?
50 cm mercury 30 cm Gas 14 cm

A C

60 cm Hg 92 cm Hg

B D
5

62 cm Hg 106 cm Hg

10.

The diagram shows a Utube filled with mercury with some air trapped in the left limb. The length d of the trapped air varies when the right limb moves up or down. At a particular instant, d is 10 cm and difference in mercury levels between the limbs h is 8.0 cm.

mercury

Given that the atmospheric pressure is 760 mmHg, what is the length of the trapped air when h is 16 cm?

A B C D

5.0 cm 9.1 cm 9.9 cm 12.8 cm

11.

Illuminated smoke particles, suspended in air, are viewed with a microscope. They are seen to move randomly. This is because the smoke particles are A B C D bombarded continually by air molecules. moved about by convection currents shaken by the vibration of the molecules within them. supplied with energy by the light illuminating them.

12.

The outlet of a glass syringe is sealed so that air is trapped below the moveable piston. The syringe is placed in hot water as shown and the piston begins to rise. The piston comes to a stop after some time.

How do the speed of the air molecules and their rate of collision with the piston compare with their initial values at the lower temperature after the piston has moved up?

speed of molecules greater greater greater same

rate of collision greater reduced same greater

13.

The e.m.f. of a thermocouple with one junction P in pure melting ice and the other junction Q in steam from water boiling at standard atmospheric pressure is 6.2 mV. When Q is next placed in another boiling liquid the e.m.f. is 10.8 mV. What is the temperature of the boiling liquid?

A B C D

- 0.57 oC - 174 oC 0.57 oC

174 oC
7

14.

The resistance of a piece of wire in pure melting ice is 600 . The resistance of the wire at 180 C is 900 . What is the resistance of the wire at 60 C, assuming that resistance changes uniformly with temperature?

A B C D

660 700 720 750

15.

Aluminium foils are commonly used to wrap sweet potatoes which are to be cooked in a barbecue fire. How should the sweet potatoes be wrapped if the aluminium foil has one side that is more shiny than the other side?

A B

The dull side should be on the outside because it is a better conductor. The dull side should be on the outside because it is a better absorber of radiation.

C D

The shiny side should be outside because it is a better conductor. The shiny side should be on the outside because it is a better absorber of radiation.

16.

100 Four liquids P, Q, R and S, of the same mass are heated at the same rate. The graph shows the variation of their R temperatures with time. P

temperature / C
50

S Q
8

time / min
0 10 20

Which liquid has the highest specific heat capacity?

A C 17.

P R

B D

Q S

An aluminium cube of mass 2.0 kg at 700 C is placed in 2.0 kg of water at 20 C. What is the mass of water that will be vaporized ?

The specific heat capacities of aluminium and water are 900 J/(kg C) and 4 200 J/(kg C) respectively. The specific latent heat of vaporisation for water is 2.26 x 10 6 J/kg.

A C

0.09 kg 0.27 kg

B D

0.18 kg 0.36 kg

18.

A beam of green light is shining through a triangular glass block. The glass block is an equilateral triangle as shown in the figure below. What is the refractive index of the glass block?

A C

1.44 1.04

B D

1.39 Not enough information is given

19.

The diagram shows how light travels through the optical fibre of an endoscope.

A B

Which of the following statements is true?

Some light is lost through the optical fibre when total internal reflection occurs.

10

B C D 20.

The angle of incidence in the optical fibre is equal to the critical angle of A. The refractive index of A is greater than the refractive index of B. The refractive index of B is greater than the refractive index of A.

The diagram below shows two incoming parallel light rays 1 and 2 which pass through a thin converging lens. Which of the points A, B, C or D (directly below A) will the light ray 3 pass through, if it is allowed to pass through the lens?

21.

A straight vibrator is used to make waves in a ripple tank. One crest is produced every 0.2 seconds. The diagram below shows the cross-section of the water waves at a particular instant with a cork at P.
wave motion

If the wave is moving to the right, what will be the position of the cork 0.1 seconds later?

A C

P R

B D

Q S

11

22.

The figure below shows a wave generator which makes 5 oscillations a second. It is used to produce waves in a ripple tank. Which of these is correct for the waves produced?

Frequency / Hz A B C D
23.

Wavelength / cm 12 3 3 12

Speed / cm s-1 6 15 0.6 240

0.5 5 0.2 5

The figure below shows a water wave in a ripple tank. The wave has a speed of 0.5 m/s at R. The water waves cross a boundary PQ where the distance between successive crests changes from 0.05 m to 0.025 m. What is the velocity of the wave at point S?

12

A C

0.0 m/s 0.5 m/s

B D

0.25 m/s 1 m/s

24.

A monkey stands at a distance from a flat cliff. It claps two wooden bananas at the moment it hears the echo of the previous clap. It is found that it claps 10 times in each 2 second interval. What is the distance of the monkey from the cliff? (Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s)

A C 25.

17 m 51 m

B D

34 m 68 m

The figure below shows a progressive longitudinal wave formed in a slinky spring by an oscillator connected to a signal generator.

Which distance correctly identifies the wavelength of the longitudinal wave?

26.

Which of the following has the electromagnetic waves arranged in increasing wavelength?

13

A B C D

microwave, infrared ray, ultraviolet ray, X-ray

ultraviolet ray, microwave, infrared ray, X-ray X-ray, ultraviolet ray, infrared ray, microwave X-ray, infrared ray, microwave, ultraviolet ray

27.

A positively charged rod is brought close to a suspended conducting ball which is positively charged as shown in the diagram below.

Which of the following diagrams correctly represents the forces on the ball?

14

28.

An uncharged insulator is placed between two oppositely charged parallel plates as shown in the figure below. Which of the following diagrams represents correctly the field pattern inside the space between the two plates?

29.

An electric cell has an electromotive force of 2 V. If it is connected in a circuit where there is 2 A of current flowing, calculate the amount of energy it dissipates in 1 minute.

A C

4J 160 J

B D

120 J 240 J

30.

A tungsten wire of length L, and cross-sectional area A, has a resistance of R. Henry uses another piece of tungsten wire of the same length with cross
15

sectional area 2A and cuts it into 5 equal pieces. Find the resistance of each piece of wire in terms of R.

A C

0.1 R 5R

B D

0.4 R 10 R

31.

Three similar light bulbs are connected to a constant-voltage d.c. supply as shown in the figure below. Each bulb operates at normal brightness and the ammeter (of negligible resistance) registers a steady current.

16

If the filament of one of the bulbs breaks, what happens to the ammeter reading and to the brightness of the remaining bulbs?

Ammeter reading A B C D Increases Increases Decreases Decreases

Bulb brightness Increases Unchanged Unchanged Decreases

32.

Three identical lamps X, Y and Z are connected as shown.

What happens to the brightness of X and Y when switch k is closed?

X brighter brighter dimmer stays the same

Y brighter dimmer brighter dimmer

17

33.

A light dependent resistor (LDR) and a 500 resistor form a potential divider between voltage lines at +30 V and 0 V as shown below.

The resistance of the LDR is 1000 in the dark but drops to 100 in bright light. What is the corresponding change in the potential at Y?

A B C D

a decrease from 20 V to 5 V a decrease from 25 V to 10 V an increase from 5 V to 20 V an increase from 10 V to 25 V

34.

In the circuit, three similar resistors are connected as shown. When switch S is open as shown, the ammeter and voltmeter show their readings.

18

When S is closed, what would happen to the ammeter and voltmeter readings?

ammeter reading increases increases decreases increases

voltmeter reading increases decreases increases remains unchanged

35.

The circuit shows 3 light bulbs and a thermistor connected to a cell.

L1

L2

L3

19

What will happen to the brightness of bulbs L1, L2 and L3 when the thermistor is heated?

L1 A B C D increases decreases increases decreases

L2 decreases increases decreases increases

L3 decreases decreases no change no change

36.

An electric oven rated at 1.2 kW operates from a 240 V mains. What is the correct fuse rating for its plug to be connected to the mains socket?

A C

4A 190 A

B D

6A 210 A

37.

In the table below shows appliances that were used for different time intervals on an average day:

Appliance Television Five lamps Air Conditioner Electric kettle

Power 100 W 60 W each 3 kW 750 W

Usage per day 4 hr 6 hr 5 hr 40 mins

If electricity costs 15 cents per kWh, calculate the total cost for one month of 30 days.

A C

$ 2.44 $ 79.70

B D

$ 73.20 $ 212.40

38.

Which of the following proves that a piece of metal is already a magnet?

20

A B C D

A magnet is attracted to it. Copper wire is attracted to it. Both ends of a compass needle are attracted to it. One end of a compass needle is repelled by it.

39.

The diagram below shows a solenoid connected by batteries.

Which of the following statements concerning this solenoid is/are CORRECT? (1) (2) (3) B is the north pole of the solenoid. The magnetic field strength increases when the number of turns on the solenoid increases. The magnetic field strength increases when the soft iron core is replaced by an aluminium core.

A B C D

(1) and (2) only (1) and (3) only (2) and (3) only All of the above

21

40.

Which diagram correctly shows the magnetic field patterns between the ends of three bar magnets?

22

23

24