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SECTION A : ONE BEST ANSWER (OBA): INSTRUCTIONS : Select ONE BEST answer from the options given below.

1.

Things considered to be specimen collection is TRUE A. Sputum collection doesnt need to be deep cough B. Urine specimen should be collected first-stream when you wake up early morning. C. Peritoneal fluid collection should be done under aseptic condition and keep in universal container D. Serum can be collected directly from human body E. Tissue specimen keep in alcohol liquid

2.

Regarding antifungal agents are False A. Amphotericin B disrupt cell membrane B. Allylamines inhibit protein and DNA synthesis C. Azoles like fluconazole inhibit ergosterol synthesis D. Pyrinidine analogue inhibit protein and DNA synthesis E. Caspofungin disrupt cell wall

3.

The following fungi are transmitted by A. Cryptococcus can be transmitted by spore inhalation B. Sporothrix is transmitted by traumatic inplantation C. Histoplasma is droplet transmission D. Zygomycetes is transmitted direct contact E. Main mode of candida infection is exogenous contact

4.

Normal resident of human body is True A. Staphylococcus Aureus is normal resident of GIT B. Escherichia coli always stayed in throat C. Staphylococcus epidermidis is resident of human skin

D. Mycobacterium is resident of respiratory tract E. Clostridium tetani is normal flora of skin 5. The following are endotoxin and exotoxin producing bacteria A. Exotoxin can not be produced as toxoid formed B. Endotoxin is high toxicity than exotoxin C. Exotoxin produced by bacteria is low antigenic D. Endotoxin are produced by gram negative bacteria E. Endotoxin cannot be stabled as high temperature as exotoxin

6.

Gram negative bacteria A. Neisseria meningitidis is rods shaped bacteria B. Bordetella pertussis is sensitive to erythromycin C. Neisseria meningitidis growth in Thayer Martin Agar D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is not sensitive to Penicillin Pseudomonas can be detected by MacConkey agar. 7. ______ is the total elimination of ALL microorganisms including spores: A. Sterilization B. Disinfection C. Degerming D. Cleansing 8. Which of the following is TRUE regarding objects intended use? A. Critical: objects that touch lacerated wound B. Semicritical : objects entering the vascular system C. Noncritical: objects that touch only intact skin D. High Risk: objects that touch skin abrasions 9. The most suitable way of disposing contaminated surgical dressings and sharps is through: A. Red heat B. Incineration C. Autoclave D. Irradiation

10. Which of the following statement is TRUE about HEAT STERILIZATION: A. Hot air sterilizer uses oven at 180 C 75 mins B. Autoclave uses 121 C, 15 psi, 15 sec C. Steam sterilization includes the use of inoculating wire D. Autoclaving is usually used for sterilization of laboratory media 11. The best sterilization for single use disposal items like needles & syringes, latex catheter, surgical gloves: A. Ethylene oxide B. Irradiation C. Glutaraldehyde D. Filtration 12. Biological monitor used for Plasma Sterilization: A. Geobacillus stearothermophilus B. atrophaeus C. pumilus D. sporogenes 13. The biological indicators are usually cultured in : A. MacConkey Agar B. soybean casein C. Hektoen Enteric Agar D. Chocolate Agar 14. Properties of Ideal Disinfectant: A. Reactive B. Poisonous C. Broad spectrum D. Nonsoluble 15. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE of Factors affecting Disinfection: A. The more concentrated the disinfectant, the greater its efficacy and the shorter the time necessary to achieve microbial kill. B. In general, longer contact times are more effective than shorter contact times. C. Usual chemical reaction, twice increase in rate with each 20 C increase in temperature D. Microorganisms may be protected from disinfectants by production of thick masses of cells and extracellular materials 16. TRUE of working dilution of Hypochlorite (bleach):

A. B. C. D.

1.5%: heavy spillage of blood/ body fluid wear 0.1% : general cleaning if need disinfection 0.25%: disinfect babies bottles 1%: disinfection of hospital rooms Laboratory diagnosis of scabies is best done by: A.Fecal examination B.Serology C.Blood examination D.Skin scraping E.Rectal biopsy

17.

18.

Skin myiasis is due to invasion of skin by: A.Sarcoptes scabiei B.Trematode cercariae C.Lice D.Fly larvae E.Hookworm larvae

19.

A parasitic protozoa that has pseudopodium as a mode of locomotion belongs to: A.Amoebae - Sarcodina B.Flagellates - Mastigophora C.Ciliates - Ciliata D.Sporozoa Apicomplexa - Haemosporida E.Sporozoa - Microspora

20.

Which is not a feature of a nematode? A.Have straight alimentary canal B.Have anus C.Hermaphrodite D.Pointed both ends E.Dioecious

21.

A parasitic helminth that is dorso-ventrally flattened, hermaphrodite and segmented belongs to: A.Nematoda B.Cestoda C.Trematoda D.Flukes E.Roundworms

22.

An organism that lives with another organism without harming the latter in any way is called a: A.Vector B.Host C.Symbiont D.Parasite E.Commensal

23.

An organism that can exist independently but may be parasitic on certain occasions is called: A.Endoparasite B.Ectoparasite C.Obligate parasite D.Commensal E.Facultative parasite

24.

The basic components in the host-parasite relationship are: A. Host, parasite and vector B. Host, parasite and environment C. Definitive host, intermediate host and parasite D. Definitive host, intermediate host and vector E. Parasite, vector and intermediate host

25.

This host is sometimes referred to as a dead-end host. A. Intermediate host B. Paratenic host C. Reservoir host D. Accidental host E. Carrier host

26.

The most important difference between a biological and a mechanical vector is: A. Whether the vector is essentiality in the life cycle of the parasite B. The vectors role as a transmitter of the parasite C. The species of insect that serves as a vector D. Whether the parasite is carried on or in the vector E. The length on time the parasite spends in the vector

27.

The main difference between infestation and infection is: A. Infestation is applied to parasites and infection to fungi, viruses and bacteria. B. Infestation refers to invasion of the body by the microbes, whereas infection refers to production of symptoms due to infestation. C. Infestation is symbiotic, meaning organisms live in a place without harm to the host. Infections invade and destroy cells in the host. D. Infection leads to disease, infestation does not. E. Infestation occurs outside the body, infection is inside.

28.

In the life cycle of Brugia malayi, one infective larva was introduced into a human blood stream through a mosquito bite and developed into one adult worm in the lymphatic vessel. This type of life cycle is called: A. Simple life cycle B. Cyclopropagative

C. Cyclodevelopmental D. Domestic cycle E. Sylvatic cycle

29.

In hookworm infection, the infective larvae (or filariform larvae) penetrate the skin and cause intense pruritic dermatitis at the site of penetration. What is the developmental stage of these infective larvae? A. Infective stage B. Pathologic stage C. Diagnostic stage D. Infective and pathologic stage E. Infective, pathologic and diagnostic stage

30.

Which from the list below is/are the source/sources of parasitic infection? A. Soil B. Food and water C. Vectors D. Humans and animals E. All of the above

31.

In the infection with a protozoa, the stage that cannot produce pathology is the: A. Trpphozoite stage B. Schizont stage C. Trypomastigote stage D. Tissue cyst E. Oocyst

32.

In the infection with a helminth, the stage/stages that can cause pathology is/are the: A. Adult stage.

B. Larva stage. C. Ovum (egg) stage. D. Adult and larva stage. E. Adult, larva and ovum stage.

33.

An example of a localized manifestation of disease is: A. Fever B. Pruritis ani C. Anaemia D. Jaundice E. Lethargy

34.

A sign or symptom that is so characteristic of a disease that it makes the diagnosis is called a: A. Pathognomonic B. Pathologic C. Anthroponotic D. Symptomatic E. Diagnostic

35.

Which of the following does not actually stain parasites? A. Eosin B. Lugols iodine C. Trichome stain D. Acid fast stain E. Kohns stain

36.

Which of the following egg count is considered heavy for Ascaris lumbricoides infection? A. > 10,000 EPG B. > 20.000 EPG

C. >30,000 EPG D. > 40,000 EPG E. > 50,000 EPG 37. All of these viruses have helical nucleocapsid except: A. Rabies B. Parainfluenza C. Rota virus D. Influenza 38. The Tzanck test is not used on which of the following viruses? A. VZV B. HSV-2 C. HHV-8 D. HSV-1 39. Which of the following viruses is not a single strand linear RNA virus? A. Togavirus B. Retrovirus C. Bunyavirus D. Picornavirus 40.Which of the following is not a DNA virus? A. Adenovirus B. Calicivirus C. Papovirus D. Poxvirus 41.Which of the following is not a RNA virus? A. Reovirus B. Orthomyxovirus C. Deltavirus D. Herpesvirus 42.Human immune deficiency virus is a : A. Rheo B. Retro C. Rhabdo D. Flavi 43.Oncogenic RNA virus is A. Retro virus B. Herpes virus C. Adeno virus D. Hepadna virus

44. Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly A. Gastric intestinal tract B. Nasal mucosa C. Lung D. Skin 45. The only virus which has double double stranded RNA A. Bunya virus B. Reo virus C. Calci virus D. Rhabdo virus 46. A 40-year-old man underwent kidney transplantation for end stage renal disease. Two months after transplantation, he developed fever and features suggestive or bilateral diffuse interstitial pneumonia. Which one of the following is most likely etiological agent : A. Herpes simplex virus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Epstein - Barr virus D. Varicella - Zoster virus 47. What type of virus is the poxvirus ? A. Helical B. Envelope C. Complex D. Cubic 48. True or False : Prions contain little or no nucleic acid ? A. True B. False 49. All are oncogenic, but : A. EB Virus B. Papilloma C. Herpes Simplex Virus D. Varicella Zoster Virus 50. A pregnant Vietnamese refugee presents for prenatal care. She mentions that she was sick 3 years previously, before emigrating to the US, with jaundice that was accompanied by intestinal upset and followed by joint pains and skin lesions that slowly subsided. She has felt well in the last 2 years. The possibility that this woman may still be harboring the infectious agent that caused her disease and that she could transmit it to her baby is considered. Which of the following laboratory tests should be ordered next to investigate the causes of this womans past infection ?

A. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) B. IgC Cytomegalovirus B core antigen C. IgM antibody to Hepatitis B core antigen (HBcAg) D. IgM antibody to HbsAg 51.The finding of a large, multinucleated clumps of cells in the bronchial secretions of a 2 year old girl with acute bronchopneumonia suggests that her infection is caused by : A. Bordetella pertussis B. Epstein-Barr Virus C. Mycoplasma hominis D. Respiratory Syncitial Virus 52. The following are associated with Respiratory infections except : A. Adenovirus B. Rotavirus C. Influenza virus D. RSV 53. The following are associated with gastroenteritis except : A. Enterovirus B. Adenovirus C. Norwalk virus D. Rotavirus 54. A chronic carrier state may occur in the following except : A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis D 55. Oncogenes are genes which : A. the virus uses to replicate itself B. convert formaldehyde to formalin inside the cytoplasm of a cell C. encourage recombination in bacteria D. transform normal cells to cancer cells 56. The viruses of Influenza, Measles and Mumps are known for their ability to : A. multiply within bacteria B. clump red blood cells C. form Negri bodies in the brain D. cause cancer 57.Which of the following is not a DNA virus?

A. Adenovirus B. Calicivirus C. Papovirus D. Poxvirus 58. Which of the following is not a RNA virus? A. Reovirus B. Orthomyxovirus C. Deltavirus D. Herpesvirus 59.Which of the following viruses is not a double strand linear DNA virus? A. Poxvirus B. Papovavirus C. Adenovirus D. Herpesvirus 60.Which of the following viruses is not a single strand linear RNA virus? A. Togavirus B. Retrovirus C. Bunyavirus D. Picornavirus 61.The Tzanck test is not used on which of the following viruses? A. VZV B. HSV-2 C. HHV-8 D. HSV-1 62.A febrile viral illness characterized by infection and swelling of the parotid salivary glands is produced by a large enveloped helical virus which produced hemadsorption of erythrocytes of infected cells. This virus is called : A. Cytomegalovirus B. Coxsackie virue C. ECHO virus D. Mumps

62.A helpful test in diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is the:

A. Paul-Bunnell. B. Weil-felix. C. Widal. D.Blood culture. 63.One of the following viruses produce eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies called Negri bodies: A. B. D. D. Herpes simplex virus. Small pox virus. Adenovirus. Rabies virus.

64. Throat & nasal swabs from a 4 months old infant suffering from acute lower respiratory infection. Their laboratory examination revealed a large enveloped helical virus. The infected cell cultures revealed on staining multinucleate giant cells with cytoplasmic inclusions. The virus is probably: A. Rhinovirus. B. Corona virus. C. Adenovirus. D. Parainfluenza virus. 65. The following viruses spread by fecal-oral route EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. Coronavirus Polioviruses. ECHo viruses. Hepatitis A viruses

66. The lytic cycle involves which of the following events arranged in the proper order. a. Attachment Biosynthesis Penetration Maturation Release b. Attachment Biosynthesis Maturation Penetration Release c. Attachment Penetration Biosynthesis Maturation Release d. Atachment Penetration Maturation Biosynthesis Release 67. Bacteriophages attach to a host cell via its A. capsid B. tail fiber C .plasma-membrane protein D. glycoprotein

6868888868. Select the incorrect statement about viruses. A. All cellular organisms are attacked by them. B. They are parasites. C. They contain nucleic acids inside a protein coat. D. They show signs of life outside of host cells.

69. Each of the following is used to classify viruses except a. carbohydrate makeup c. life cycle b. host range. d. size 70. A bacteriophage is (a) a. bacterium that infect bacteria bacteria b. bacterium that infect viruses infects viruses

c. virus that infects d. virus that

71. Type of cell line that usually originate from malignancy. a. Primary cell c. Heteroploid cell b. Diploid cell d. Complex cell 72. The virus capsid consists of a. carbohydrate. b. lipid.

c. nucleic acid d. protein

73. Which sample material will you collect in identifying the cause of chickenpox? a. Throat swab c. tissue biopsy b. Lesion and vesicle swab d. blood 74. In the viral life cycle, uncoating is the a. attachment to the host cell. b. entrance of the viral genome into the host cell. c. removal of the capsid and envelope. d. rupturing of the host cell. 75. The methods to count and study bacteriophages are based on their a. analysis of RNA composition. b. effects on different growth media. c. host range and organ system preferences. d. mode of infecting and destroying host cells ____ 32. 76.The burst period is when viruses a. do not increase in number. b. escape from their host. c. increase in number substantially.

d. rupture their capsids. ____ 33. 78.The life cycle of the less virulent or temperate phage lambda is a. either the lytic or lysogenic pathway. b. neither the lytic nor lysogenic pathway. c. the lysogenic pathway only. d. the lytic pathway only. ____ 34. 79.A substance is added to a bacteriophage sample. The substance destroys the activity of the lysozymes in the viruses. This prevents their ability to a. change their nucleic acid genetically. b. decrease their metabolism. c. dissolve the bacterial cell wall. d. increase their metabolism. ____ 35. 80.A drop of a bacterial culture is added to an undiluted viral sample. This mixture is spread over a solid agar surface. After incubation, 20 circular plaques develop on the lawn of bacterial cells. The number of viruses in the sample was probably a. 2 c. 200 b. 20 d. 2000 ____ 36. 81.The tail fibers of an animal virus are destroyed. This will directly interfere with the _____________ stage of the life cycle of this virus. a. Absorption c. penetration b. Adsorption d. uncoating ____ 37. 82.RNA-dependent RNA polymerase is needed by a. double-strand DNA viruses c. double-strand RNA viruses b. single-strand DNA viruses d. triple strand RNA viruses ____ 38. 83.Plus-strand RNA in an HIV is used exclusively as a template for a. DNA replication c. transduction b. reverse transcription d. translation ____ 39. 84.Oncogenes in cells will cause the cells to a. develop pigmentation b. divide too rapidly

c. divide too slowly d. lose pigmentation

____ 40. 85.The time period from penetration to assembly where the phage is unable to infect other host cell a. eclipse period c. burst period b. latent period d. decline period IV. T 1.The type of Heavy (H) chain present in the IgM immunoglobulin

A.Alpha B.Gamma C.Epsilon D.Mu E.All the above.

2.which type of immunoglobulin transport through placental barrier. A.Ig A B.IgD C.IgG D.IgM E.IgE 3.Substances induces mitosis of cells particular lymphocytes to undergo cell division A.immunogens. B.Mitogens C.mutagens. D.Antigens. E.None. 4.the stimulating factors for B-cell activation A.IL 2&IL 7 B.IL 3&IL 1 C.IL 4 &IL 6 D.IL 3&IL 4 E.None. 5.which phase of secondary humoral immune response there is rise in antibody titre. A.Log phase B.Lag phase C.Decline phase D.Exponential phase E.All. 6.The chemical substances which are produced by lymphocytes,which regulates the other intercells. A.monokines B.cytokines. C.Interleukins. D.monoclonal antibodies. E.None.

7.The substances which are injected together with antigen which enhances the antibody production. A.Interleukins B.mitogens. C.Adjuvants. D.cytokines. E.All. 8.The cell mediated immune response is mediated by which type of cells. A.sensitised T-lymphocytes. B.Plasma cells. C.surface markers. D.immunoglobulins. E.None. 9.The peripheral lymphoid organ from blood stream & lymph which evokes immune response. A. Lymph nodes, spleen & kidneys. B. Lymphnodes, lymphocytes & spleen C.bone marrow. D.thymus. E.All. 10.which type of cells are called as suppressor cells(Ts). A.CD 4 B.CD8 C.B-cells D.Plasma cells. E.memory cells. 11.The chemical composition of gram negative cell wall. A.polysaccharides only. B.only peptidoglycons. C.peptidoglycons& lipopolysaccharides D.teichoic acids& polypepetides. E.All. 12.the mucopeptide or murein is composed of---A.N-acetyl muramic acid &N-acetyl glucosamine B.only N-acetly muramic acid. C.acetyl succinic acid. D.All. E.None.

13.the staining technique which is sued for capsule demonstration.

A.Alberts staining. B.Gram staining. C.Negative staining D.Z-N staining. E.All. 14.Pleomorphism means. A.variation in colors of the cells. B.variation of shape & size of the cells C.variation in nutritional habits. D.variation in pathogenicity. E.None 15.Fimbrae or pili composed by a protein . A.flagellin. B.albumin. C.pilin D.All E.None 16.The cell organelle which is having extra chromosomal genetic material is termed as A.Mesosome. B.Ribosome C.Plasmids. D.Nucleus. E.None 17.the mordant used in gram staining A.H SO B.carbol fuschin. C.Iodine D.HCl E.All. 18.Z-N staining is used for differentiation of organaisms into. A.Gram positive & Gram negative organisms. B.Acid fast & non Acid fast organisms. C.Capsulated & Non capsulated organisms. D.motile & non motile organisms. E.All.

19.Respiratory sites of bacteria are A.ribosomes. B.Mesosomes

C.pili D.plasmamembrane. E.mitochondria.

20.Define virulence. A.The measure of degree of pathogenicity. B.The measure of toxigenecity. C.The measure for antigen Antibody reaction. D.The measure for infections. E.None. 21.virulence factor for disease by an organism. A.Adherence & invasion B.multiplication&dissemination. C.A&B D.Only A E.Only B 22.Adhesins are secreted by which structures of bacteria. A.flagella. B.pili or fimbrae C.plasma membrane. D.capsule. E.cytoplasm. 23.Noscomial infections & most common organisms which causes nosocomial infections. A.Infections in immunocompromised patients & parasites. B.Infections in healthy hosts & pathogens. C.Infections Acquired by hospitalization & oputunistic pathogens. D.Infcetions acquired by ingestion of contaminated food & saprophytes. E.None. 24.transplacental transmission of infections. A.infections through contaminated food. B.infection by contaminated water. C.infection through placenta from mother to child D.All. E.None.

25.Heamatogenous mode of infection. A.Through blood

B.Through food. C.Through skin. D.Direct entry into body. E.All. 26.A 25 year old female patient complains about urge to urinate,burning micturination,loin pain diagnosed as UTI,on culture a gram positive organism is isolated which produces coagulase. A.Staph.aureus B.staph.epidermidis C.Staph.saprophyticus. D.Streptococci. E.enterococci. 27. A 40 year old lady was seen urgently physician for sever suprapubic pain,increased urination, her urine sample sent to laboratory for urinalysis and urine culture.the yields a gram negative bacteria which is lactose fermenters.what may the organism. A.pseudomonas. B.salmonella C.E.coli D.Shigella E.All. 28. A 2year old girl presented to physician with sore throat and fever. the tonsils were enlarged and inflammed.the throatswab send for culture and culture yeilds the growth of beta-hemolytic colonies of gram positive organism. A.Staphylococcus. B.Sreptococcus.pyogenes C.Streptococcu.pneumonia D.Enterococci E.None 29.The Gram positive organism causes dental caries & endocarditis is A.Staph.aureus. B.Streptococci.pneumonia. C.Viridans streptococci D.Streptococcus pyogenes. E.All 30.Mode of infection by cornybacterium diphtheria A.Droplet mode B.Innamiante objects. C.Contact mode. D.All E.None.

31.which gram positive organism causes pseudo membranous colitis A.Cl.perfringes. B.Cl.difficle C.Enterococci. D.Cornybaccterium E.Bacillus 32. A 65 year old male patient admitted to hospital with chronic granulomatous infection with pus draining through sinuses which open on surface of skin on jaws,abdomen etc.what is the causative agent of this infection. A.Mycoplasma B.Actinomycetes C.Nocardia. D.Rickettesia. E.Chlamydia. 33.A 35 yr old female attended clinic with pelvic inflammatory disease,the gram stain smear results gram negative cocci in pairs ,what is causative agent. A.Nesseriae.meningitis B.E.coli. C.Shigella. D.Enterococci E.N.gonnorhoea 34.A 15 yr old boy admitted in hospital with high fever,abdominal pain,diarrhea,after consumption of contaminated water,who works in poultry farm.what is the causative agent for this infection. A.shigella B.Vibrio C.salmonella D.E.coli E.pseudomonas 35.Atypical pneumonia is caused by A.Ureaplasma B.Chlamydiae. C.Actinomycetes. D.Nocardia E.Mycoplasma

Extended matching question: Theme: Gram negative bacterial infections. Options:


A.Salmonella typhi. B.pseudomonas aeruginosa. C.Shigella D.E.coli E.Anaerobic bacteriodes. F.Salmonella enterocolitis G.Proteus spps. H.Klebsiella spps.

Stems:
1.A traveller from America came on vacation to developing area of malaysia suffered with diarrohea, vomiting and abdominal pain. which subsided on antibiotics, what gram negative organism can we suspect. 2.A 45 yr old male is admitted in hospital with fever, vomiting, abdominal pain,& diarrohea caused after ingestion of contaminated poultry food. 3.A 12 yr girl is admitted with fever, headache, anorxea, clouding of consciousness due to action of toxins released by the organism 4.A 55 year old women presented with micturination,loin pain ,pyuria suspected case of urinary tract infection. the urine specimen sent for urinalysis. which organism is responsible for UTI 5.A 48 yrs old male patient is admitted in hospital for loose stool diarrohea with passage of pus, blood & mucous in stool with abdominal cramps & tenesmus, the microscopy yields some bacilli. what is the causative organism 6.A 35 yr old female patient is admitted in burn ward with 50% burns.the burn regions are infected & lesion are with blue pus,what organism can we isolate from these purative lesions 7.A 65 yr old male patient who is catheterised for several days complains for urge to urinate, loin pain ,incomplete voiding of urinary bladder,the culture yields

a gram negative non lactose fermenter. 8.A 60 yr old male patient admitted hospital for liver abscesses,the pus from abscesses is cultured,it yields an anerobic garm negative bacilli,which anerobe is responsible for infection.

Theme : Gram positive bacterial infections Options:


A.Staphylococcus.aureus B.Streptococcus.pyogenes C.Clostridium perfringens D.Clostridium botulinum E.Cornybacterium diptheriae F.Viridans streptococci G.Bacillus anthrax H.Staphylococcus.epidermidis I.Streptococcus pneumoniae Stems: 1.An opurtunistic garm positive cocci causes urinary tract infections 2.A gram positive cocci which produces an enzyme called coagulase causes folliculitis,pustules etc 3.A paediatric infection caused by gram positive bacilli 4.A grampositive cocci which is responsible for aspirated pneumonia and meningitis 5.A food poisoning case by gram positive bacilli 6.A gram positive cocci responsible for epiglotitis,pharyngitis 7.A infection by gram positive bacilli from animals to humans mostly from sheep 8.infections like dental caries caused by which gram positive organisms

9.The skin infections like impetigo, erysipelas, cellulitis caused by which gram positive cocci 10.A gram positive cocci due to release of toxin causes shock

MODIFIED ESSAY QUESTIONS:


1.Immune response A.define immune response B.Cell activation in immune response C.discuss about cell mediated immune response 2 Marks 4 marks 2 marks

2.A 8 yrs girl presented with sore throat with enlarged tonsils and fever. A.What is the causative organism of infection 2 marks B.what are the virulence factors in the pathogenesis of the organism. C.Mode of infection & laboratory diagnosis D.Different species of the causative organisms 3.A 3 yrs old boy presented with sever cough with characteristic sound whoof, during paroxysm. A.mode of infection& laboratory diagnosis B.what is causative organism Its morphology C.virulence factors in detail D.Laboratory diagnosis I. Theme: Laboratory culture media of gram negative bacteria Options: A. Neisseia Meningitidis B. Proteus C. Escherichia coli D. Neisseria gonorrhoea E. Pseudomonas aeroginosa F.Vibrio Cholerae

Lead in: For each of the statements given below, select the most appropriate response.

Stems: 1. Growth on Thayer Martin agar D 2. Growth on Macconkey Agar C

3. Growth on chocolate agar A 4. Blood agar B 5. TCBS agar F