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IIT-JEE 2008 STS X/PCM/P(I)/QNS
HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER I PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours INSTRUCTIONS:
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS ON THIS BOOKLET, AWAIT INSTRUCTIONS FROM THE INVIGILATOR
Maximum Marks: 243
10
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
A. General 1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 26 pages. 2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet. 3. This question paper contains 1 blank page for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet. 6. This booklet also contains the answer sheet (i.e., a machine gradable response sheet) ORS. 7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET. B. Filling the ORS 8. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else. 9. Put your signature in ink in box L4 on the ORS. C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet. D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet.
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PART A : PHYSICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. The minimum velocity of electrons which when impinging on hydrogen atom will produce all the lines of all the series of hydrogen spectrum will be (A) 2.2 10 m/s (C) 3.3 10 m/s
6 6
(B) 1.1 10 m/s (D) 4.4 10 m/s

6
2. A ball possessing kinetic energy T collides head on with an initially stationary elastic dumb-bell as shown in Figure. It rebounds in opposite direction with kinetic energy T. The masses of all the balls are the same. The energy of the dumbbell oscillations after collision is (A) E = T 3T 2 T 3T 2 2 T TT (B) E = T 3T 2 (D) E = T 3T 2 2 T 2 TT
(C) E =
3. A proton, a deutron and an alpha particle are accelerated through the same potential difference and enter a region of magnetic field B moving at right angles to B. If the radius of proton circular path is 10 cm, what is the radius of deutron path? (A) 10 cm 2 (B) 10 2 cm (C) 20 cm (D) 10 3 cm
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
4. The wavelength of light coming from a distant galaxy is found to be 0.5% more than that coming from a source on earth. The velocity of galaxy will be (A) 1.5 10 m/s (C) 4.5 10 m/s
6 6
(B) 3 10 m/s (D) 7.5 10 m/s

7
5. A glass plate of area A, mass m is hinged along one of its sides. The speed of air of density that should be blown parallel to its upper surface to hold the plate horizontal will be (A) v = mg A mg 2 A (B) v = 2mg A mg 4 A
(C) v =
(D) v =
6. A thin mica sheet ( = 1.58) is used to cover one slit of a double slit arrangement used for producing interference. At the central point on the screen is now formed the previous seventh bright fringe. If = 5550 , what is the thickness of mica sheet? (A) 5.5 micron (C) 7.5 micron (B) 6.7 micron (D) 4.8 micron
7. One face of a prism is silver polished. A light ray falls at an angle of 45 on the other face. After refraction, it is subsequently reflected from the silvered face and then retraces its path. If the angle of the prism is 30, what is the refractive index of prism? (A) 2 (B) 1.6 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.73
8. If the surface of a photoelectric metal plate is successively exposed to radiations of wavelengths 1 and 2, the maximum velocity of photoelectrons will differ by a factor of 2. What is the work function of metal? (A) hc 3 hc 4 4
2
1
1
(B)
hc 2 hc 3
4
2
1
1
(C)
1
2
1
1
(D)
3
2
1
1
9. A force F acts tangentially at the highest point of a sphere of mass m kept on a rough horizontal plane. If the sphere rolls without slipping, what is the acceleration of the centre of sphere? (A) 5F 7m (B) 10F 7m (C) 3F 7m (D) 2F 7m
SECTION II Assertion-Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 10. Statement 1: because Statement 2: The law is consequence of conservation of angular momentum. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK According to Kepler s second law, the radius vector to a planet from sun sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time.
11. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 12. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 13. Statement 1: because Statement 2:
Forces responsible for uniform circular motion are called centrifugal forces.
Centrifugal force is considered to be fictious force acting away from the centre. A particle fired from the ground describes a parabolic path. The speed of the projectile is minimum at the top of the path.
The vertical component of the velocity is zero at the top of its path. In resonance apparatus, we get stationary transverse waves.
In a gaseous medium, we cannot have transverse waves. SECTION III
Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16 In the circuit shown below, E = 10 V, R1 = 1 , R2 = 2 , R3 = 3 , L = 2 H.
14. Immediately after the switch is closed, the values of currents i1, i2 and i3 will be (A) i1 = 3.3, i2 = 3.3, i3 = 0 (C) i1 = 1.8, i2 = 1.8, i3 = 0 (B) i1 = 4.5, i2 = 2.7, i3 = 1.8 (D) i1 = 3.3, i2 = 2.7, i3 = 1.8
15. Find the currents i2 and i3 immediately after the opening of the switch S. (A) i2 = 1.8, i3 = 1.8 (C) i2 = 3.3, i3 = 0 (B) i2 = 2.7, i3 = 1.8 (D) i2 = 4.5, i3 = 2.7
16. Find the values of current i1, i2 and i3 sufficient time after the switch is opened. (A) i1 = i2 = i3 = 0 (C) i = 2.7, i = 0, i = 1.8 1 2 3 (B) i1 = 1.8, i2 = 2.7, i3 = 4.5 (D) i1 = 4.5, i2 = 1.8, i3 = 0
Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19 An infinite number of charges each equal to q are placed along the x-axis at x = 1, x = 2, x = 4, x = 8 ... and so on. 17. What is the electric field at the point x = 0 due to these set of charges? (A) q 2
0
(B)
q 3
0
(C)
q 4
0
(D)
2q
0
18. If the consecutive charges have opposite sign, what is the potential at x = 0? (A) 1 4
0
2q 3
(B)
1 4
0
q 3
(C)
1 4
0
5q 3
(D)
q 4
0
19. If the consecutive charges have opposite sign, what is the electric intensity at x = 0? (A) 1 4
0
4q 5
(B)
1 4
0
3q 5
(C)
1 4
0
2q 5
(D)
1 4
0
q 5
SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D 20. Column I p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s Column II A 2
(A) If v1 is velocity of incident wave in medium 1 and v2, the (p) cot velocity of refracted wave in medium 2, then the refractive index of medium 2, with respect to 1 is (B) The refracting angle of a prism is A and it produces a (q) 1 minimum deviation of (180 2A). The refractive index of 2 the prism is SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
(C) The two surfaces of a concave lens are of radii of curvature (r) 25 cm 10 cm and 30 cm. of lens is 1.5, when it is immersed in water = 4 3 . What is its focal length?
(D) A convex lens forms an image of magnification 1 : 8 on a (s) 60 cm screen. When the screen is displaced by 5 cm, the image is refocussed and magnification becomes 2. The focal length of the lens is 21. Column I (A) Half life of radioactive element Column II (p) dN dt log 2 (B) Average life of radioactive element (q) 1
e
(C) Activity of the radioactive element (D) Law of radioactive decay 22. Column I (A) Cut-off wavelength of X-rays (B) Energy of photon
(r)
(s) N Column II (p) (q) h mv hc hc hc Ve hc

0
(C) Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons (D) de Broglie wavelength of electron SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
(r) (s)
PART B : CHEMISTRY SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 23. Identify the false statement. (A) Physical adsorption of a gas is directly related to its critical temperature. (B) Chemical adsorption decreases regularly as the temperature is increased. (C) Adsorption is an exothermic process. (D) A solid with a rough surface is a better adsorbent than the same solid with a smooth surface. 24. The aqueous solutions of four sodium salts NaA, NaB, NaC and NaD had pH 7.0, 9.0, 10.0 and 11.0 respectively, when each solution was 0.1 M. The strongest acid is (A) HA (B) HB (C) HC (D) HD
25. A 0.001 molal soution of [Pt (NH3)4 Cl4 ] in water has a freezing point depression
of 0.0054C. If Kf for water is 1.80, the correct formulation for the above complex is (A) [Pt (NH3)4 Cl3 ]Cl (C) [Pt (NH3)4 Cl ]Cl3 (B) [Pt (NH3)4 Cl2 ]Cl2 (D) [Pt (NH3)4 Cl4]
10
26. The number of unit cells present in cube shaped ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 5.85 g (Atomic masses: Na = 23, Cl = 35.5) is (A) 6 10
23 22
(B) 6 10
22 22
(C) 1.5 10
(D) 3 10
27. The separation of lanthanides in ion exchange method is based on (A) basic strength of hydroxide. (B) size of the hydrated ions. (C) charge of the hydrated ions. (D) solubility of nitrates. 28. Pick out the correct statement. (A) Pure para hydrogen can be obtained by decreasing the temperature. (B) Pure ortho hydrogen can be obtained by increasing the temperature. (C) By decreasing the temperature, pure ortho hydrogen can be obtained. (D) By increasing the temperature, pure para form of hydrogen can be obtained. 29. When treated with conc. H2SO4, gives the product(s)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) All the above SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
11
30. Which of the following ethers is very difficult to be formed? (A) Ethyl-t-butyl ether (C) Di-n-butyl ether (B) Di-isopropyl ether (D) Di-t-butyl ether
31.
X and Y are respectively (A) CH3 CH2 CHO in both cases (B) CH3 CH2 CH2OH in both cases (C) CH3 CH2 CHO and CH3 CH2 CH2OH (D) CH3 CH = CH2 and CH3 CH2 CHO
SECTION II Assertion - Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
12
(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 32. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 33. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 34. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 35. Statement 1: because Statement 2: Primary alcohol is more acidic than secondary alcohol. pK of HCN is higher than that of CH COOH.
a 3
Titanium can be purified by van Arkel process.
TiI is a non - volatile stable compound.

4
Calcium carbide on treatment with water forms acetylene.
It is an ionic carbide. [OH ] concentration in 0.1 M KCN solution is higher than in 0.1 M CH3COOK solution.
Secondary alcohol reacts faster with sodium than primary alcohol.
13
SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38 It was suggested by Luis de Broglie in 1924 that a particle in motion also behaves like a wave. The wavelength associated with the moving particle is given by the h , where h is the Planck s constant, m is the mass of moving particle equation = mv and v is the velocity of the particle. The de Broglie equation was derived on the basis of Einstein s equation E = mc and Planck s equation E = h . mc = h = = h mc
2
hc h p
When the mass of moving particle is appreciable, its momentum is very high and hence, wavelength of matter is very small. 36. The wavelength of an electron in motion is equal to twice the distance travelled by it in one second. How fast the electron is moving? (A) (C) 2m h 2m h (B) (D) h 2m h 2m
14
37. An electron has a kinetic energy 2.91 10 (mass of electron = 9.1 10 (A) 9.1 10
10 8 31
23
J. Its de Broglie wavelength will be
kg) (B) 4.55 10

8
m m
(C) 9.1 10
(D) 4.55 10
10
38. The accelerating potential that must be imparted to an electron beam to give it an effective wavelength of 0.01 nm is (A) 1500 volt (C) 750 volt (B) 15000 volt (D) 7500 volt
Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41 On the basis of electrical conductivity, solids can be classified into metals (conductors), insulators (non-conductors) and semiconductors. Metals are conductors of electricity as the electrons can move freely without much resistance. Insulators do not allow electricity to pass through them. Conductivity of semiconductors increases with rise in temperature. Based upon magnetic properties, substances are classified into diamagnetic, paramagnetic, ferromagnetic, ferrimagnetic and anti-ferromagnetic substances. 39. Which of the following is an example of extrinsic semiconductor? (A) Ge doped with As (C) NaCl doped with SrCl2 (A) TiO2 (A) Fe (B) CrO2 (B) FeO (B) Ge doped with Ga (D) All the above
40. Which of the following is a ferromagnetic oxide? (C) Fe3O4 (C) BaTiO3 (D) Mn2O7 (D) SiO2
41. Ferroelectricity is exhibited by
15
SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D 42. Column I (A) 3H2 + N2 (B) 2HI (C) N2 + O2 (D) 2SO2 + O2 2NH3 H2 + I2 2NO 2SO3 p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s Column II (p) forward reaction is exothermic (q) forward reaction is endothermic (r) not affected by introducing inert gas at constant pressure (s) catalyst is not required
16
43.
Column I (A) Toluene (B) Phenol (C) Anilinium ion (D) Nitrobenzene
Column II (p) + I effect (q) I effect (r) + M effect (s) Hyperconjugation
44.
Column I (A) Atomic radius (B) Electronegativity (C) Electron affinity (D) Electropositive character
Column II (p) Na > Mg > Al > Si (q) F > Cl >Br > I (r) Cl > F > Br > I (s) I > Br > Cl > F
17
PART C : MATHEMATICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 45. The minimum distance between the parabola y = 8x and the circle x + y + 12y + 35 = 0 is (A) 2 2
2 2 2 2
(B) 2 2 1
2 2
(C)
(D)
46. If the equation ax + bx + c = 0 where a, b and c are the sides of triangle and the equation x + 2x + + 1 = 0, R have a common root, then lies in (A) (0, 2) (B) [0, 4] (C) (1, 3) (D) ( 2, 0)
47. A solution of log9 (x 1) = log3 (x 3) is (A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 5 f x 2

2
(D) 1 x g 2 (D) 0 1 3 , then the triangle is

2
48. If f (x) = f(x), g(x) = f (x) and G(x) = then the value of G(8) is (A) 7 (B) 8 3 1 3 (C) 1
and if G(7) = 8,
49. If in C, sin B cos C = (A) isosceles
and cos B sin C = (C) right angled
(B) equilateral
(D) right angled isosceles
18
cos 2 50. If f() = 3 cos sin sin f f 3 is
cos sin sin2 cos
sin cos 0 , then the value of
(A) 0 51. If 1
8
(B) 1 1
9 n
(C) 2 1 =
n
(D) 1 n , then the value of C is 4 (D) 11 3 4

n
15 9
10 n
n 8 (C) 10
(A) 5
(B) 9
52. In a tennis match, the probability of the server winning his service game is and the probability of losing his service game is
1 . A player is said to win a set, 4 if he wins at least 6 games with at least two games more than his opponent. Two players A and B equally strong participate in a match. Player A won the toss and elected to serve. The probability of A winning the first set at 6 0 is (A) 3 4
6
1 (B) 2
(C)
33 4
6
(D)
3 4
1 4
53. The tangents at z1, z2 on the circle |z z0| = a, meet at z3. Then z z
3 0
z z
1 1
z z
0 3
z z
2 2
is equal to
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 1
(D) 2
19
SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 54. Statement 1: If x > 0, y > 0 and x > y, then tan equal to because Statement 2: 55. Statement 1: If a, b > 1, then tan
2 1
1
x y
tan
x x
y y
is
3 4
a + tan
b =
tan
a 1
2 2
b ab
If is a root of 9x + 4x + c = 0 and is a root of 9x 4x c = 0, where c is real and 0 < < , then the equation 9x + 8x + 2c = 0 has a root that lies between and .
because Statement 2: If f(x) is a continuous function of x and if a and b are real and f(a) and f(b) are of opposite signs, then there is a root of f(x) = 0 between a and b. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
20
56. Statement 1:
The normal at any point P on the parabola y = 4x meets the curve again at Q. M is the mid point of PQ. Then the product of the ordinates of P and M is constant.
because Statement 2: If the normal at at 2 , 2at

2 2
at 2 , 2at
1 2
to y = 4ax meet it again at 2 t .
, then t =
57. Statement 1: because Statement 2:
If a line makes an angles , and with the three coordinate axes in space, then cos 2 + cos 2 + cos 2 is equal to 3.
If l, m and n are the direction cosines of a line, then l + m + n = 1.
SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60 If there are n independent Bernoullian trials, the probability of success in each trial is p, a constant , then the probability of x success out of the n trials is P(x) = Cx p q
n x nx
, where q = 1 p
21
58. In a throw of a dice, getting 2 or 4 or 5 is considered as a success. A dice is thrown 6 times and this is called an experiment. This experiment is repeated 128 times. The number of times in which 2 success experiment occur is (A) 40 (B) 30 (C) 20 (D) 120
59. A coin is tossed 5 times. Each time a man calls head. The probability that he wins the toss on more occasion is (A) 1 2 (B) 1 3 (C) 1 4 (D) 3 4
60. A coin is tossed 8 times. The chance that the number of times one gets head is not equal to the number of times one get tails is (A) 23 32 (B) 93 128 (C) 1 128 (D) 1 64
Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63 Consider the set of 3 equations arx + bry + crz = dr , r = 1, 2, 3 a = a
1
b b
1 1
1 2 3
b b
1 2
a = a
d d d
1 2 3
1 3
a = a
b b
d d d
1 2 3
2 3
2 3
c , = d
2
2 3
c ,
2
2 3
c ,
2
2 3
2 3
1. If 0, there is a unique solution given by x =
, y =
, z =
2. If = 0, 1 0, 2 0, 3 0, the equations has no solution that is inconsistent. 3. If = 1 = 2 = 3 = 0 and at least one of the co-factors of is not zero, there are infinite number of solutions. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
22
61. The value of k for which the system of equations x + 2y + z = 1, x + 3y + 4z = k, x + 5y + 10z = k has solutions, is (A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) 1
2
62. The ordered pair (p, q) for which 2x + 5y + pz = q, x + 2y + 3z = 14, x + y + z = 6 have infinite number of solutions, is (A) (4, 8) (B) (4, 36) (C) (8, 36) (D) (8, 12)
63. The number of solutions of x + 4y 2z = 3, 3x + y + 5z = 7, 2x + 3y + z = 5 is (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s (D) 0
23
64.
Column I (A) If in ABC, B = 45, C = 120 and a=40 units, then the length of the perpendicular from A on BC produced is equal to (B) The foot of the perpendicular on 4x + y = drawn from the origin is M. If the line meets x, y-axes at BM A and B respectively, then is equal to MA (C) The line x 5 3 = y 7 1 = z 2 2 intersects
Column II (p) 16
(q) 10
(r) 20 3
the curve x2 y2 = k 2 , z = 0. Then the value of k is (D) The median AD of ABC is bisected at E and BE AF meets AC in F. Then is AC 65. Column I (A) The value of x such that 0 x 2 and satisfying cos x + sin x = sin x cos x is (B) If 5 cos 2 sin 2 = 0, where 5 7 < < , then the value of is 4 4 2 (C) The least value of 3 sin + 4 cos is obtained when is equal to (D) The points of trisection of the base BC of ABC are D and E and opposite angles are 30, 30 and 15. If AEC = , then the value of is SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
2 2 2 4 4
(s)
1 3
Column II (p) 2 2 3
(q)
(r) 3 4 (s) 4
24
66.
Column I
Column II
(A) The number of positive unequal integral (p) 8 solutions of the equation x + y + z = 6 is
x (B) The minimum value of 16 x R is
161
(q) 6 4
(C) If a and b are real numbers between 0 and (r) 1 such that (a, 1), (1, b), (0, 0) form an equilateral triangle, then a+b is (D) In ABC, B = 45, a = 2 3 area = 6 2 3 . Then the side b is 1 , (s)
2 3
25
Name: .
Enrollment No.:
C. Question paper format: 10. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections. 11. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 12. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT2 (Reason). Bubble (A) Bubble (B) Bubble (C) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.
Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE. 13. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 14. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section. D. Marking scheme: 15. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 16. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 17. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 18. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly bubbled answer.
IIT-JEE 2008 STS X/PCM/P(I)/SOLNS BRILLIANT S HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES
IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER I - SOLUTIONS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS PART A : PHYSICS
SECTION I 1. (A) All the lines of all the series of hydrogen spectrum appear when hydrogen atom is ionised. This occurs if the energy of electrons is 13.6 eV. v = 2eV m
1
min
2 1.6 10 9.1 10
19
13.6
31
= 2.2 10 m/s
2. (B) Suppose p and p are the momenta of striking ball before and after collision. Let p c and Tc are the momentum and kinetic energy of dumb bell as a whole after collision. Let E be the oscillation energy. In accordance with momentum and energy conservation laws p = p + p c T = T + T c + E

... (1) ... (2)

IIT/STS X/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 1
But T = p 2m Solving the above equations, E = 2mV qB

2
3T 2
2 TT
3. (B) Radius of path =
If r and r refer to the radius of paths of deutron and proton, d p then r r

d p
m q m q
d p p d
2 1= 2 1
rd = 2 rp = 10 2 4. (A) Using Doppler shift formula for spectral lines, we get the answer as v = 1.5 106 m/s. 5. (B)
Consider two streamlines of air AB and CD. By Bernoulli s theorem for any part on AB or CD, P+ 1 2 v = constant, 2
where P is a pressure along AB and CD and is density of air. The air particles moving along CD slow down as they reach D. The pressure in part DE in atmosphere. Applying Bernoulli s equation at C and E on streamline CDE, P0 = P + 1 2 v
2
P0 P =
1 2
balance the plate force applied upwards by pressure difference must be equal to the weight. (P0 P) A = mg v= 2mg A
The pressure P0 below the plate is larger than P above the plate. In order to
6. (B) Before the mica is put, if seventh order bright fringe is formed at distance y from centre. y d D = 7
y=
7 D d
After mica is introduced fringe pattern shifts by a distance. It is given by y = (n 1) t D d
Seventh order fringe also shifts by same distance. (n 1) t D d = 7 D d 7 5550 = 6.7 micron 0.58
t=
7. (A) Light ray must fall normally at silvered face in order to retraces the path. It is clear from Figure that the angle of refraction at the first surface is 30. = sin 45 sin 30 = 1 2 2 1
= 2 = 1.414
Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS X/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 3
8. (A) By Einstein s photoelectric equation, hc

1
=A
mv 2
2 1
where A is work function and v1 is the velocity of photoelectron. hc

2
=A
mv 2
2 2
where v2 is the velocity in the second case. A= hc

1
mv 2 1
2
2 1
hc
2 2 1
mv 2
2 2
hc
1
1
mv 2
mv 2
2 2
2 2
= mv 2 A=
2 2
3mv 2 1
2
, since v1 = 2v2
hc 3
1 hc 3
1
hc
2
1
1
1
2
hc 3 hc 3
3
2
1
1
1
2
4
2
1
1
9. (B) As the force F rotates the sphere, the point of contact has a tendency to slip to the left so that the static friction f acts towards right as shown in Figure. Writing the equation for linear motion, F + f = ma where a is linear acceleration.
... (1)
For rotational motion about centre Fr fr = I , where I is moment of inertia and is angular acceleration. I=
2 2 a mr , = 5 r
r (F f) = Ff=
2 5
mr
a r ... (2)
2 ma 5 7 5 ma
From (1) and (2), 2F = a=
10F 7m SECTION II
10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (D) Only longitudinal waves are possible in a gaseous medium. SECTION III 14. (A) When the switch is closed, circuit is completed. But due to electrical inertia of inductance of the coil immediately after closing S, the current i3 is zero. The current i1 is equal to i2 as R1 and R2 are in series to form a closed circuit. R = R1 + R2 = 1 + 2 = 3 i1 = i2 = E = 10 = 3.3 A R 3 15. (B) After closing S, when there is sufficient time elapsed, the inductance offers no impedance and current becomes steady in circuit containing R3 and L. Now R2 and R3 are in parallel.
R =
R R
2
3 3
23 2 3
= 1.2
Effective resistance of whole circuit = R1 + R = 1 + 1.2 = 2.2 Effective current, i1 = E = 10 = 4.5 A R 2.2 i =
2
iR R
2
R
2
=
3
4.5 3 2 3
4.5 3 5
= 2.7 A
i =
3
iR R
2
=
3
4.5 2 2 3
4.5 2 = 1.8 A 5
16. (A) After sufficient time when the switch is open, the main circuit is broken. The inductance has no role and currents are zero. i1 = i2 = i3 = 0 17. (B) Since that the point charges are along the same straight line, the intensities at x = 0 are also along the x-axis. E= 1 4 q 4 q 4
0 0 0
q 1 1
2
q 2 1 4 1
2
q 4 1 16
2
q 8 1 64
2
...
...
1 4
= 4q 1 3 4 =
q 3
0
18. (A) If the consecutive charges have opposite sign, the potential at x = 0 is V= 1 4 q 4 q 4
0 0 0
q 1
q 2 1 4 1
q 4 1 16 1 2
q 8
q 16
q 32 1 2 1 8
...
...
1 32
...
1 1 1 4
1 4 2 3
q 4 1 4
0 0
4 3 2q 3
19. (A) If the consecutive charges have opposite sign, the electric intensity at x = 0 is given by E= 1 4 q 4 q 4
0 0 0
q 1
2
q 2
2
q 4
2
q 8
2
q 16
2
...
1 16 1
1 256 1 1 1
...
1 4
1 64
1 1024
...
1 16
1 16
q 4 1 4
0 0
16 15 4q 5
1 16 4 15
SECTION IV 20. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r) (A) v1 = 1 v2 = 2 = v v
1 2
1 2
sin (B) =
A 2 A 2
sin
Here D = 180 2A sin = A 180 2 sin A 2 1 f = 1 1 R

1
2A = cot A 2
(C) Using the formula
1 R
2
w g
and substituting the values, we get f = 60 cm. (D) Magnification in the case of convex lens = v u
Substituting the values of v and u in the corresponding cases, we get f = 25 cm 21. (A) (q); (B) (r); (C) (s); (D) (p) 22. (A) (s); (B) (r); (C) (q); (D) (p)
PART B : CHEMISTRY SECTION I 23. (B) Correct version is temperature. chemical adsorption increases with increase in
24. (A) Aqueous solution of NaA had a pH 7.0 (lowest value). Hence, HA is the strongest acid. 25. (B) Given: T = 0.0054C f m = molality = 0.001 and K = 1.80 f T = i K m f f i = 5.4 10 0.0054 = 1.8 0.001 1.8 1 10
3 3
=3
The value of i = 3 suggests that the complex gives three particles in solution. Hence, the formula is [Pt(NH3)4 Cl2 ]Cl2 . 26. (C) Molecular mass of NaCl = 23 + 35.5 = 58.5 g mol
1
23 Number of formula units in 5.85 g = 5.85 6 10 58.5
= 6 10
22
One unit cell (fcc) contains 4 formula units. Hence, number of unit cells present = 6 10 4 27. (B) The smallest Ce
3+ 22
= 1.5 10
22
ion is hydrated to a large extent and the hydrated Ce

3+ 3 aq
3 aq
ions are strongly adsorbed on the ion exchange resin. The largest Lu hydrated to a smallest extent and the hydrated Lu adsorbed on the ion exchange resin.
ion is
ions are weakly
28. (A) Pure para hydrogen can be obtained by decreasing the temperature. Pure ortho form of hydrogen cannot be obtained.
10
29. (D)
Mechanism:
30. (D) If both the R groups in ether are tertiary, its formation becomes difficult, as tertiary alkoxide will bring about elimination when treated with tertiary halide.
3 CH3 CH2 CHO 31. (C) CH3 CH2 COCl 78C LiAlH(t BuO)
4 CH3 CH2 COCl CH3 CH2 CH2OH
LiAlH
SECTION II 32. (C) TiI4 is a volatile unstable compound decomposing into elements on heating. 33. (B) All ionic carbides do not liberate acetylene. For example, Al4C3 liberates methane only.
11
34. (A) pH =
1 2
pK
pK
log c
Since concentration of the solution is same, and since pKa of HCN is higher than that of CH3COOH, pH of KCN solution is high. Hence, [OH ] will be greater in KCN solution. 35. (D) With sodium, primary alcohol reacts faster.
SECTION III 36. (B) = h mv

m
h v=
When = 2v, v =
h 2mv h 2m
23
v =
h (or) v = 2m
2 37. (C) Kinetic energy of electron = 1 mv = 2.91 10 2
mv2 = 5.82 10 v=
23
J
23 31 8
5.82 10 9.1 10
0.64 10
1 34
= 0.8 104 = 8 103 ms = h mv = 6.625 10 9.1 10

6 31
8000
8
6.625 10 72.8
8
662.5 10 72.8
= 9.1 10
12
38. (B) = 0.01 nm = 0.01 10 9 m = 0.1 10 = 0.1 Since = 150 = 0.1 A V

10
150 = 0.1 0.1 V or V = 150 0.1 0.1 volt
2 = 150 10 = 15,000 volt
39. (D) Doped substances behave like extrinsic semiconductors because addition of impurity results in the formation of holes and/or free electrons which are responsible for semiconduction. 40. (B) CrO2 is an example of ferromagnetic substance. This phenomenon arises due to spontaneous alignment of magnetic moments in the same direction. 41. (C) BaTiO3 is an example of ferroelectric solid. In these crystals, the dipoles are permanently lined up even in the absence of an electric field and the direction of polarisation can be changed by applying an electric field.
SECTION IV 42. (A) (p) ; (B) (q), (r), (s); (C) (q), (r), (s); (D) (p) 43. (A) (p), (s); (B) (q), (r); (C) (q) ; (D) (q) 44. (A) (p), (s); (B) (q); (C) (r); (D) (p), (s)
BRILLIANT S
IIT-JEE 2008 STS X/PCM/P(II)/QNS

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER II PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours INSTRUCTIONS:
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS ON THIS BOOKLET, AWAIT INSTRUCTIONS FROM THE INVIGILATOR
Maximum Marks: 243
10
A. General 1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 28 pages. 2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet. 3. This question paper contains 2 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet. 6. This booklet also contains the answer sheet (i.e., a machine gradable response sheet) ORS. 7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET. B. Filling the ORS 8. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else. 9. Put your signature in ink in box L4 on the ORS. C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet. D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet.
I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them. ............................................... Signature of the Candidate
I have verified all the informations filled in by the Candidate. ............................................... Signature of the Invigilator
IIT/STS X/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 1
SEAL
Name: .
Enrollment No.:
SEAL
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
PART A : PHYSICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. A lift performs the first part of its ascent with uniform acceleration a and the remaining with uniform retardation 2a. If t is the time of ascent, find the depth of the shaft. (A) at 4
2
(B) at 3
(C) at 2
(D) at 8
2. An ideal massless spring S can be compressed 1 m by a force of 100 N. The same spring is placed at the bottom of a frictionless inclined plane inclined at 30 to the horizontal. A 10 kg block M is released from rest at the top of the incline and is brought to rest momentarily after compressing the spring by 2 m. If g = 10 m/s , what is the speed of mass just before it touches the spring? (A) 20 m s (C) 10 m s (B) 30 m s (D) 40 m s
2
3. A water barrel stands on a table of height h. If a small hole is punched in the side of the barrel at its base, it is found that the resultant stream of water strikes the ground at a horizontal distance R from the table. What is the depth of water in the barrel? (A) R h
2
(B) R 2h
(C) R 4h
(D) 4R h
4. A planet is at an average distance d from the sun and its average surface temperature is T. Assume that the planet receives energy only from sun and loses energy only through radiation from its surface. Neglect atmospheric effects. If T d , the value of n is (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 1 2 (D) 1 4
n
5. An open pipe is suddenly closed at one end, as a result of which the frequency of the third harmonic of the closed pipe is found to be higher by 100 Hz than the fundamental frequency of open pipe. What is the fundamental frequency of the open pipe? (A) 200 Hz (B) 300 Hz (C) 240 Hz (D) 480 Hz
2
6. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor 2 cm apart each have an area 2000 cm
3
and potential difference between the plates is 3 10 V. When a sheet of mica of dielectric constant 3 is inserted, the induced charge on each face of mica is (A) 35.4 10
8 6
C C
(B) 17.7 10 (D) 3.5 10
(C) 17.7 10
7. Four points A, B, C and D are connected by a cell of emf 1 volt and 2 ohm resistor between A to B and C to D as shown in the Figure. The current through each of the cell is SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
(A)
1 3
(B)
2 3
(C)
4 3
(D)
5 3
8. A converging lens forms a real image of an object magnified 5 times. The lens is then moved towards the object at a distance of 10 cm. Now the magnification becomes 10 times, the image, still being real. The power of the lens is (A) 1 D (B) 2 D (C) 3 D (D) 4 D
9. The short wave boundary of a continuous X-ray spectrum gets doubled, if the voltage applied to an X-ray tube is reduced by 23 kV. The initial wavelength limit is (A) 27 (B) 27 nm (C) 0.27 SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK (D) 0.27 nm
(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 10. Statement 1: When a person walks on a rough surface, the frictional force exerted by surface on the person is opposite to the direction of his motion.
because Statement 2: 11. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 12. Statement 1: because Statement 2: If the temperature is constant, speed of sound is 13. Statement 1: because Statement 2: In a closed pipe, only odd harmonics are present. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK p . p is always constant and the When work is done, internal energy increases. The changes in air pressure have no effect on the speed of sound. It is the third law of force exerted by the road on the person that causes the motion. In an adiabatic process, the internal energy of the system decreases exactly by the amount of work done on the system.
In a closed pipe, the frequencies of the overtones are integral multiples of the fundamental.
SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph three multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16 The space between the plates of a capacitor is tightly filled with three parallel dielectric slabs A, B and C of thickness 2 mm, 3 mm and 5 mm with dielectric constants 5, 10 and 2 respectively. A potential difference of 256 volts is applied to the plates. 14. What is the charge density on the plates of the capacitor? (A) = 0.5 C/m
2 2 2
(B) = 0.7074 C/m (D) = 0.6 C/m

2
(C) = 0.42 C/m
15. What is the electric field intensity in each dielectric slab A, B and C? (A) EA = 16,000 V/m, EB = 8000 V/m, EC = 40,000 V/m (B) EA = 8000 V/m, EB = 16,000 V/m, EC = 20,000 V/m (C) E = 12,000 V/m, E = 10,000 V/m, E = 25,000 V/m A B C (D) EA = 1024 V/m, EB = 2560 V/m, EC = 2048 V/m 16. What is the potential difference across each dielectric slab A, B and C? (A) VA = 48 V, VB = 24 V, VC = 200 V (B) VA = 32 V, VB = 24 V, VC = 200 V (C) VA = 64 V, VB = 72 V, VC = 400 V (D) VA = 80 V, VB = 96 V, VC = 500 V SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19 A lift with a mass 1200 kg is raised from rest by a cable with a tension 1350 g newton. After some time the tension drops to 1000 g newton and the lift comes to rest at a height of 25 m above its initial point. 17. What is the height at which the tension changes? (A) 10.8 m (B) 12.5 m (C) 14.3 m (D) 16 m
18. What is the greatest speed of lift? (A) 6 m/s (B) 9.8 m/s (C) 5.98 m/s (D) 7.5 m/s
19. What is the total time of journey? (A) 5 s (B) 6.37 s (C) 8.37 s SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: (D) 9 s
20. Match the quantities in Column I and Column II correctly. Column I (A) A prism has a refracting angle of 60. When placed in the position of minimum deviation, it produces a deviation of 30. The angle of incidence will be (B) A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism such that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of 3 emergence and the latter is equal to th of the angle of 4 prism. The angle of deviation is (C) The refracting angle of the prism A is 45 and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot A 2 . The angle
Column II (p) 45
(q) 0
(r) 30
of minimum deviation is (D) The angle of prism is 30. The rays incident at 60 at one face suffers a deviation of 30. The angle of emergence will be 21. (A) (B) Column I A heater coil rated at (1000 W 220 V) is connected to a 110 V line. The power consumed will be Three equal resistors connected in series across a source of e.m.f together dissipate 10 W of power. If the same resistors are connected in parallel across the same source of e.m.f, the power dissipated will be A dry cell of e.m.f 1.5 V and internal resistance 0.1 is connected across a resistor in series with a low resistance ammeter. When the circuit is switched on, the ammeter reads 2 A. The rate of chemical energy consumption of the cell will be Two electric bulbs of 40 W each are connected in parallel. The power consumed by the combination will be SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
(s) 90
Column II (p) 80 W (q) 3 W
(C)
(r) 250 W
(D)
(s)
90 W
22.
Column I
Column II
(A) its centre with 10 revolution per second in a (p) 5 V uniform magnetic field of 0.1 T with its plane perpendicular to the field. The e.m.f induced across the radius of disc will be (B) A straight line conductor of length 0.4 m is (q) 10 V moved with a speed of 7 m/s perpendicular to the magnetic field of induction 0.9 T. The induced e.m.f across the conductor is (C) The current passing through a choke coil of 5 Henry is decreasing at the rate of 2 A/s. The e.m.f developed across the coil is (D) A coil having 500 square loops each of side 10 cm is placed normal to a magnetic flux which increases at a rate of 1 Tesla per second. The induced e.m.f in volts will be (r) 2.52 V
(s)
0.2 V
10
PART B : CHEMISTRY SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 23. Which plot is the adsorption isobar for chemical adsorption, where x is the amount of gas adsorbed on mass m g of adsorbent?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
24. The hydrogen ion concentration in mol dm3 in a 0.2 M solution of a weak acid HA [Ka = 2 10 ] is (A) 2 10
5 5
(B) 2 10
(C) 2 10
(D) 2 10
25. At room temperature, the mole fraction of a solute is 0.25 and the vapour pressure of a solvent is 0.80 atm. The vapour pressure of solution is (A) 0.60 atm (B) 0.90 atm (C) 0.40 atm (D) 0.45 atm SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
11
26. Schottky defect in crystals causes (A) decrease of density of the crystal. (B) electrical conductivity to a small extent. (C) stoichiometric defects. (D) all the above 27. The electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order (A) C < N < Si < P (B) N < Si < C < P (C) Si < P < C < N (D) P < Si < N < C 28. Roasting is carried out to (i) convert sulphide to oxide and sulphate. (ii) remove water of hydration. (iii) melt the ore. (iv) remove arsenic and sulphur impurities. The true statements are (A) (i) and (iv) (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) (C) (i), (ii) and (iv) (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) 29. Consider the following compounds, (i) CH3 CH2 CH CH3 Cl (ii) CH2 = CH CH2 CH2Cl (iii) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2Cl These compounds are dehydrohalogenated by treatment with a strong base under identical conditions. The correct sequence of the increasing order of reactivity in the given reaction is (A) (i) < (ii) < (iii) (B) (ii) < (i) < (iii) (C) (iii) < (i) < (ii) (D) (iii) < (ii) < (i)
12
30. CH2 CH
(i) C 2 H 5 MgBr O A. The product A is (ii) H 2 O, H
O (A) C2H5OH (C) C H CH CH OH

2 5 2 2
(B) CH2 CH C2H5 (D) CH CH C H

3 2 5
OH 31. Which of the following is anti-aromatic? (A) (B)
(C)
(D)
SECTION II Assertion-Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
13
32. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 33. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 34. Statement 1: because Statement 2:
Parke s process used for the desilverisation of argentiferrous lead is based upon distribution principle.
Molten zinc and molten lead form two phase system. The decreasing Lewis acid character of boron halides is BF > BCl > BBr .
3 3 3
Back donation of electron by Br to B atom is minimum in BBr .

3
Enthalpy change is positive when water and ethanol are mixed.
The H O C H OH attraction in solution are stronger than H2O H2O and C2H5OH C2H5OH attractions in pure solvents.
2 2 5
The rate determining step in Cannizzaro reaction is the transfer of H ion.
Cannizzaro reaction is shown by aldehydes having H atoms. SECTION III
Linked Comprehension Type This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38 Chemical reactions are generally accompanied by energy changes which appear in the form of liberation or absorption of heat. The cause for energy change during the SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
14
reactions is due to the change in bond energy. The reaction may be carried out either at constant pressure or constant volume. The different types of enthalpy of reaction are heat of formation of compound, heat of combustion, heat of dilution, heat of solution, heat of transition etc. According to Hess s law, thermochemical equations can be added, multiplied, subtracted or divided just like mathematical equations. 36. Given: C + 2S CS2 ; H = + 117 kJ mol
f f f
C + O2 CO2 ; H = 393 kJ mol S + O2 SO2 ;

1
1 1
H = 297 kJ mol
The heat of combustion of CS2 is (A) 1104 kJ mol (C) 987 kJ mol (B) + 1104 kJ mol (D) 594 kJ mol
1 1 1 1
37. The enthalpies of formation of C2H4(g), CO2(g) and H2O(l) at 25C and 1 atm pressure are 52, 394 and 286 kJ mol respectively. The enthalpy of combustion of C2H4(g) will be (A) + 1412 kJ mol (C) 1412 kJ mol
1
(B) + 706 kJ mol
1 1
(D) 2824 kJ mol
38. AB, A2 and B2 are diatomic molecules. If the bond enthalpies of A2, AB and B2 are in the ratio 2 : 2 : 1 and enthalpy of formation of AB from A2 and B2 is
1 1 1 1 1
200 kJ mol . What is the bond energy of B2? (A) 400 kJ mol (B) + 400 kJ mol
(C) + 200 kJ mol
(D) + 100 kJ mol
15
Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41 Long form, extended form or Bohr periodic table was designed by Rang and Werner. In this table, the elements are arranged in the increasing order of their atomic numbers in such a way that the elements with the similar electronic configuration falls in the same group (vertical column). Based upon electronic configuration, the elements are classified into s, p, d and f-block elements. This classification is based upon the orbital which is occupied by the last electron of the element which is called differentiating electron. The electronic configuration decides the properties of the element. 39. s-block elements are (A) less reactive metals (C) less reactive non-metals (B) more reactive metals (D) more reactive non-metals
40. A reduction in atomic size with increase in atomic number is a characteristic of the elements belonging to (A) f-block (C) high atomic masses (B) radioactive series (D) d-block
41. Which one of the following is not arranged in the correct order? (A) d , d , d , d increasing order of magnetic moment. (B) MO, M2O3, MO2, M2O5 decreasing order of basic strength. (C) Sc, V, Cr, Mn increasing number of oxidation states. (D) Co , Fe , Cr , Sc
3+ 3+ 3+ 3+ 5 3 1 4
increasing order of stability.
16
SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D 42. Column I (A) PCl5(g) (B) CaCO3(s) (C) N2(g) + 3H2(g) (D) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) CaO(s) + CO2(g) 2NH3(g) 2SO3(g) p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s Column II (p) Kp = Kc (RT)
2
(q) S = positive for forward reaction. (r) Kp = Kc (RT) (s) S = positive for backward reaction.
17
43.
Column I
Column II
(A) (B) CH CH CH OH
3 2 H
(p) carbanion (q) carbene
CH3
(C) CHCl3 s odalim e (D) CH CH COOH

3 2
OH
(r) carbocation (s) benzyne
44.
Column I (A) Thermal stability (B) Bond angle (C) Boiling point (D) Bond energy
Column II (p) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 (q) BiH3 > SbH3 >NH3 > PH3 (r) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (s) CO2 > NH3 > H2O
18
PART C : MATHEMATICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 45. If a, b, c are in G.P., b c, c a, a b are in H.P., then the value of a + c is (A) 2b (B) 3b
2 2 2
(C) 4b
3 3 3
(D) 4b
46. Given + + = 0, + + = 6, + + = 10. Then the equation with , , as roots is (A) 3x 9x 10 = 0 (C) 2x x 10 = 0 47. If the middle term of (A) n (C) n 1 1
n
(B) 3x 10x 10 = 0 (D) 3x 10x + 10 = 0

10
1 x
x sin x
is equal to 7 6 6
7 8
, then the value of x is
6 4
, n I , n I
(B) n (D) 2n
48. If r satisfies the equation r i (A) i (C) i 2j k t i t k = i i 2j 2j k k , then for any scalar t, r is equal to k (B) j (D) k t t i i 2j 2j k k
19
49. A (2, 3), B (4, 5) and C(x, y) be a point such that (x 2) (x 4) + (y 3) (y 5) = 0. If the area of ABC = 2, then the maximum number of positions of C on xy plane is (A) 1 x 5x + {cos (A) 7
2 1
(B) 3 (cos 3) + sin (B) 6

1
(C) 2
(D) 4
50. The product of the roots of the equation (sin 4) + tan1 (tan 7)} = 0 is (C) 2 + 6 (D) 6
51. The plane 5y + 4z = 0 is rotated through an angle 60 with the line of intersection at x = 0 in the anticlockwise direction, the equation of the plane in the new position is (A) 5y 4z 3 41x = 0 (B) 5y + 4z x = 0 (D) 5y + 4z 41 x = 0
(C) 5y + 4z 2x = 0
52. If f(x) = [x 2] + [x + 2], where [ ] denotes the greatest integer function and h(x) = f{f(x)}, then h (4) is (A) equal to 1 (C) equal to 4
2
(B) equal to zero (D) does not exist x y dx is x y = ce

nx
53. The solution of ydx xdy = ny tan
(A) x = cos y x y
nx
(B) cos x y
= ce
nx
(C) sin
= ce
(D)
20
SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.
2
If
cos
0
x sin x dx = k
sin
0
x dx, then the value of k = 2
f
0
2a
x dx = 2 sin 2x x
f
0
x dx, if f(2a x) = f(x). = 2.
lim
x0
2 sin x
3
sin =
.. 5
21
56. Statement 1:
If x
2
1 2
, y
2 5
2
is the middle point of the chord of the ellipse = 1 , then the length of the chord is 7 5 41 .
25 because Statement 2:
16
If (x1, y1) is the midpoint of a chord of the ellipse x a xx a yy b 2 x a a b

2 1
y
2 1 2
2 2
= 1 , then
b y
the equation of the chord is 57. Statement 1:
1 =
1.
If , are two values of satisfying the equation cos a sin b = 1 c , then cot = .
because 2 tan Statement 2: sin = 1 tan 2

2
1 2 and cos = 1
tan tan
2 2 .
SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
22
Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60 (1) A straight line is represented by ax + by + cz + d = 0, ax + by + cz + d = 0. It is called non-symmetric form. = r are the equations of a straight line in symmetric l m n form (x , y , z ) is a point on the line and l, m, n are the direction ratios of the line. (2) = =
1 1 1
(1) can be transformed to form (2) by applying the fact, that the line is perpendicular to the normals to both the planes and a point on the line can be found by solving with z = 0. 58. The lines x = ay + b, z = cy + d and x = ay + b, z = cy + d are at right angles. Then aa + cc is equal to (A) bb (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) bb + 1 59. The angle between the lines 3x + 2y + z = 5, x + y 2z = 3 and 2x y z = 16, 7x + 10y 8z = 15 is (A) 60 (B) 0 (C) 30 (D) 90 60. The equations of the line through (1, 2, 3) and parallel to x y + 2z = 5, 3x + y + z = 6 are (A) (C) x x 2 1 3 1 = = y 5 y 1 2 2 = z 4 3 3 (B) x 1 = y 2 = z 3 (D) x 3 1 = y 5 2 = z 3 4
= z
Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63 If A, B, C are points representing the complex numbers z1, z2, z3 in the Argand plane AB is rotated to AC by an angle in the anticlockwise direction.
23
Then z z
3
1 1
z z
1 1
AC AB
2
61. Let z , z are the roots of z + az + b = 0, where a, b can be complex. z , z are

1 2 1
represented by A and B; AOB = (A) 1 (B) 2

1 2 3
and OA = OB, where O is origin. Then a is 3 b (C) 3 (D) 1 2
2 2
62. The points A, B, C are z , z , z on the circumference of a circle drawn on OA as diameter, O being the origin, if AOB = BOC = (A) z1 z3 (B) 2 z1 z3 (C) 3 z1 z3 6 . Then 2z
2 2 1
is
(D) 3 z z
63. If z1, z2, z3, z4 are the vertices of a square in Argand plane, then z2 z4 is (A) z1 z3 (B) i (z1 z3) (C) i (z3 z1) SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK (D) i (z1 + z3)
24
If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D 64.
1 2
q q q q q
r r r r r
s s s s s Column II (p) 6
p p p p
Column I (A) If a , a , a , ..., a

3
3 and 5 and h1, h2, h3, ..., h12 are the 12 HM s between 3 and 5, then a5 h8 is equal to
3 2
12
are the 12 A.M s between
(B) f(x) = ax 3x bx + 5 when divided by 2, gives the remainder 11 and f (x) is divisible by x 1. Then a + b is equal to (C) If x = cos + cos cos ( + ), 2 2 then x y is equal to
2 2
(q)
4 3
(r) 1 ,
y = 4 sin
sin
cos
(D) If the slope of one of the lines represented by x 2xy h h

2
(s) 15
= 0 is thrice the other,
then ab is equal to
25
65.
3
Column I (A) If f is a differentiable function such that f x = x

x
Column II (p) e
2x
e
0
f x
t dt, then f(x) is (q) x 4

4 3
(B) If f is a function from R R such that f(x + y) = f(x) f(y) and f (0) = 2, then f(x) is (C) The equation of the normal to y = (1 + x) + sin (sin x) at x = 0 is (D) The equation to the tangent at a point to xy x + y = e , where the tangent is parallel to y-axis is 66. Column I (A) The set A = {x1, x2, x3, x4, x5}, B = {y1, y2, y3, y4 , y5}. Then the number of one - one mapping from A to B such that f (xi) f (yi), i = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (B) x, y, z are positive integers such that x + y + z 6. Then the number of possible values of the ordered triplet (x, y, z) is (C) The solution of at y(1) = 1 is (D) The curve satisfying dy dx = 1 dy dx 1 x y
2 2
(r) x = 1 (s) x + y = 1
Column II (p) 20
(q) 44
xy y
2 2
(r) y + 2x = 0
y x
x y and passing through (4, 2) is
(s) (1 + x ) (1 + y ) = 4x
26
27
Name: .
Enrollment No.:
C. Question paper format: 10. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections. 11. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 12. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT2 (Reason). Bubble (A) Bubble (B) Bubble (C) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.
Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE. 13. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 14. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section. D. Marking scheme: 15. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 16. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 17. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 18. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly bubbled answer.
IIT-JEE 2008 STS X/PCM/P(II)/SOLNS
BRILLIANT S
IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER II - SOLUTIONS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS PART A: PHYSICS
SECTION I 1. (B) Let OAB be the velocity-time graph of lift. The ordinate at A represents the maximum velocity. Distance travelled = area OAB = AM = v; OM = t1 t1 + t2 = OB = t MB = t2 AOB = 1 t v = h 2 ... (1) ... (2) v 2a 1 OB 2 AM
v t = 2h v v =a t = 1 t a
1
v t
2
= 2a t =
2
... (3)
IIT/STS X/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 1
Adding (2) and (3) t

1
t =
2
v a
v 3v = 2a 2a
t =
2 3 2h 3v = or at = 3h 2a 2a t 2
at (depth of shaft) h = 3 2. (A) Applied force on spring F = k.x. k = F x = 100 N 1m = 100 N m
Let the mass M slide a distance S metre along the incline before hitting the spring. The spring gets compressed by 2 metres. Hence the mass M slides a total distance of (S + 2) m along the incline. Initially M is at a height (S + 2) sin 30 above the bottom of incline i.e. S 2 2 = h. Mg S 2 2
Initial potential energy = Mgh =
When the spring is compressed, the energy has gone into the deformation of spring. 1 2 kx =
2
Mg S 2
2
2
2
or S S =
2 = 40 g 2
100 2 kx = Mg 10 g
40 g
The mass falls through a height S sin 30 =
S 2
Gain in kinetic energy = Loss of potential energy 1 2 Mv = Mgh or v = 2g S 2 =

2
2gh
v =
2g 1 20 m s
2g =
3. (C) From Toricelli s theorem, v = depth of water in barrel.
2gd where v is horizontal velocity and d is

2 1 gt . 2
Time t to hit the ground is given by h = 2h g 2h g
t =
2
or R = vt = R
2
2gd
= 2 dh
= 4dh or d =
4h
4. (C) Let P be the power radiated by sun and R be the radius of planet. Energy radiated by planet = (4R2) T4 For thermal equilibrium, P 4d T T d n =
4 2
R should be equal to (4R2) T4
1 d
2 1 2
1 2 v 2l and of a closed pipe of same
5. (A) Fundamental frequency of open pipe = n 0 = length n c = v 4l = 1 v = n

0
2 2l
Here 3nc = n0 + 100 3n 2

0
= n
100
n0 = 200 Hz 6. (B) C 0 = A
0
8.85 10
12
2000 10
2
2 10 = 17.7 10 2
11
Charge in each plate
= Q = C V =
0 0
17.7 10 2
11
3 10
8
53 10 2
C = 26.5 10
Induced charge after insertion of dielectric constant k = 3 is Q =

1
Q k k
53 10
3 2
8
C 7. (A) A and C are connected to the positive terminals of E1 and E2 (via the internal
= 17.7 10
resistance). A and B are at the same potential. Similarly C and D are at the same potential. No current flows along AB or CD.
Now with respect to E1, Voltage available = 1 V Total resistance = 3 current through E1 = i = 8. (A) Magnification, m = u = 6f f u f 1 A 3
= 5
5 When the lens is moved towards the object, the magnification is m = f u 6f 5

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS X/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 4
0.1 f 0.1
= 10 = 10
Solving; f = 1 m Power of lens = 9. (C) eV 1 = h = eV =

2
1 f
= 1D
hc
1
hc V
2 1 3
=
3
2 1
=2
23 10
V1 = 2V1 46 10 V1 = 46 kV =
1
hc eV
1
= 27 10 = 0.27
12
SECTION II 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (D) SECTION III 14. (B) Capacitance of 1 slab C =
1 st
A
0 r
5 2 10
nd 3
Capacitance of 2
slab = 0 A
10 3 10
3
Capacitance of 3rd slab
A 2
0
5 10
Equivalent capacitance
1 C
eq
1 A
0
2 10 5
3
3 10 10
5 10 2
= A
0
3.2 10 A
0
eq
3.2 10
0
Charge (Q) =
A 256 3.2 10
3
Charge density =
Q A
= 3.2 10
256
3
4 9 10
= 0.7074 C/m2 15. (A) Electric field intensity in the first dielectric slab =
0 r
1
256 3.2 10
3
= 16,000 V/m Electric field intensity in the second dielectric slab = 256 3.2 10 = 8000 V/m Electric field intensity in the third dielectric slab = 256 3.2 10 = 40,000 V/m 16. (B) Potential difference across the first dielectric slab, VA = 16000 2 10 = 32 V Potential difference across the second dielectric slab, VB = 8000 3 10 = 24 V Potential difference across the third dielectric slab, VC = 40000 5 10 = 200 V
3 3 3 3 3
10
17. (C) Let a1 be the acceleration of lift initially and finally it is decelerated say by a2. a =
1
1350
1200
1200
g =
150 10 1200
5 4
ms
a =
2
200 10 5 1200 1000 g = = ms 1200 1200 3
Let v be the maximum velocity, t1 is the time of acceleration and t2 is the time of deceleration. v = a1 t1 = a2 t2 t t
1 2
a a 3 4
2 1
5 3
4 5
4 3
t =
2
1 2
For acceleration part, height reached h =

1
a t 2
1 1
5 2 t 8 1
For deceleration part, height travelled h 2 = = 5 8

2 1
5 9 2 1 t 2 3 16 1 45 96 t
2 1
It is given as t1 = 4.78 h =
1
45 96
t = 25
1
5 4.78 8
= 14.3 m
1
18. (C) Maximum velocity = v = a1t1 = 5.98 ms 19. (C) t 2 = 3 4.78 = 3.59 s 4
Total time = 4.78 + 3.59 = 8.37 s

SECTION IV 20. (A) (p); (B) (r); (C) (s); (D) (q) (A) = 2i A 30 = 2i A 30 = 2i 60 or 2i = 90 i = 45 (B) i1 = i2 = 3 60 = 45 4
= i1 + i2 A = 90 60 = 30 sin (C) = A 2 A sin 2 sin A 2 A 2 (D) = i1 + i2 A 30 = i1 + i2 30 30 = 60 + i2 30 i2 = 0 21. (A) (r); (B) (s); (C) (q); (D) (p) (A) E = 1000 R R = 220 220 = 48.4 1000 When E = 110 Power = 110 110 48.4
2
D = cot A 2 =
cos sin
A 2 A 2 2 A 2
= cos 2
A 2
= sin
A 2
D = 90
= 250 W
(B)
= 10 i.e., E = 30 3R R When connected in parallel; resistance =

2 2
R 3
R 3 (C) 3 watt
3E = 90 watt R
(D) When connected in parallel the resistance becomes halved and power = 80 watt 22. (A) (s); (B) (r); (C) (q); (D) (p)
2 (A) e.m.f induced = 1 BR 2
1 2 1 2
BR 2 n 0.1 0.1 2 10
2
(B) Induced e.m.f = Blv = 2.52 volts (C) L di = induced e.m.f = 10 volts dt dB dt = 500 100 10 = 5 volts
4
(D) nA
10
PART B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION I
23. (B) The extent of chemisorption first increases upto a certain temperature and at still higher temperature, it begins to decrease.
+ 24. (C) [H ] = c = K a c
2 10
0.2 =
+
2 10
3
2 10
or [H ] = 2 10 25. (A) P
o
P
o
= 0.25
Po P = 0.25 Po
= 0.25 0.80 = 0.20
P = Po 0.20 = 0.80 0.20 = 0.60 atm Vapour pressure of solution = 0.60 atm 26. (D) In Schottky defect, since anions and cations are missing in equal number, the formula of the substances does not change. Hence, it is a stoichiometric defect. 27. (C) Electronegativity increases along the period and decreases down the group. Hence, the order is Si < P < C < N. 28. (A) Roasting is carried out to remove arsenic and sulphur impurities. It is also carried out to convert sulphide to oxide and sulphate. Removal of water is not the aim of roasting. 29. (C) CH2 = CH CH2 CH2Cl CH2 = CH CH = CH2 is most
KOH alcoholic
reactive as the product is stabilised by resonance. The secondary chloride is more reactive than primary chloride in elimination.
alcoholic CH3 CH2 CH CH3 CH3 CH = CH CH3 KOH
Cl CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2Cl CH3 CH2 CH = CH2

KOH alcoholic
11
30. (C)
31. (B)
is anti-aromatic. It is less stable than buta-1, 3-diene. is planar and has 4n-electrons. According to Huckel s 4n rule, it is anti-aromatic. SECTION II
32. (A) 33. (D) Order of Lewis acid character is BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3. This is due to decreasing back bonding tendency from F to Br atom. 34. (C) The H2O C2H5OH attraction in solution are weaker than 35. (C) Absence of H atom is a must for Cannizzaro reaction. SECTION III 36. (A) The required equation is CS2 + 3O2 CO2 + 2SO2 ; H f = ? C + O2 CO2 ; H = 393 kJ mol1 f H = 2 ( 297) = 594 kJ mol1 f H = 117 kJ mol1 f

C2H5OH C2H5OH and H2O H2O attractions in pure solvents.
2S + 2O2 2SO2 ; CS2 C + 2S Adding ;
CS2 + 3O2 CO2 + 2SO2 ;
H = 393 594 117 f = 1104 kJ mol

1
12
37. (C) C2H4(g) + 3O2(g) 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) H = Hf Hf (products) (reactants)
= [2( 394) + 2 ( 286)] [(1 52) + 3(0)] = [ 788 572] 52 = 1412 kJ mol
1
38. (B) Bond energy of A2, AB and B2 are 2x, 2x and x respectively. 1 2 A2 + 1 2 B2 AB; H = 200 kJ mol
f 1
H = Bond energy of reactants Bond energy of products 200 kJ mol 200 = x + x 2

1
2x x 2
1 2
1 2
1 2x
2x =
1
or x = 400 kJ mol
Bond energy of B2 = x = 400 kJ mol
39. (B) s-block elements are more reactive metals. They are alkali and alkaline earth metals. The last electron enters into ns-orbital. All the inner orbitals are fully filled with electrons. 40. (A) Since the differentiating electron enters into (n 2) f-orbital, the size of f-block elements decreases with increase in atomic numbers. 41. (A) Correct order of magnetic moment is d5 > d4 > d3 > d1 (decreasing order). SECTION IV 42. (A) (q), (r); (B) (q), (r); (C) (p), (s); (D) (s) 43. (A) (s); (B) (r); (C) (p), (q); (D) (p) 44. (A) (p), (r); (B) (p), (s); (C) (q); (D) (p), (r)
13
PART C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION I 45. (D) b = ac 2 (ab ca b2 + bc) = (a c)2 2 (ab 2b2 + bc) = (a c)2
2 2
2b a 2b 2b = 2b = a
c c a a
2 ac =
2
a a c
c a
a
2
c c
=
2
c c 2 ac
2b = (a + c) 2b 4b = (a + c) a + c = 4b 46. (A) Sum of the roots = 0 Now, ( + + )2 = 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 ( + + ) + + = 3 + + = 0 + 3 + 3 = 3 = 10 3 10 3 =0

3
the required equation is x3 0x2 3x 3x3 9x 10 = 0 47. (A) If 6

th
term is the middle term.

5 10
T6 =
10
1
5
x
5
x sin x = 63 8
sin x 1 2
sin x =
x = n + ( 1)n , nI 6
14
48. (B) Let r = x i Then y
yj 2z i
zk z x j 2x y k = i k
y 2z = 1 ; z x = 0 ; 2x y = 1 y 2z = 1 ; x = z ; y 2x = 1 The two equations are same. There are infinite number of solutions. y = 1 + 2z ; z = x Put x = t y = 1 + 2t; z = t r = ti = j t 1 i 2t j 2j tk k
49. (C) From the given equation, it follows that C is a point on the circle and AB as diameter. Now, radius = 2 Area of ABC = 1 2 AB altitude
1 2 2 altitude 2
2 altitude = 2 2 2 = 2 = Radius
altitude =
There are two positions of C, i.e., C and C 50. (B) cos sin
1
(cos 3) = 3, because 3 lies in the range of cos (sin 4) 4, 4 >
Let 4 = + sin
1
(sin 4) = sin
{sin ( + )} = sin
{sin ( )}
==4 tan
1
(tan 7) 7, 7 > 2
Let 7 = 2 +
15
tan
(tan 7) = tan
{tan (2 + )} = tan
(tan )
= = 7 2 cos
1
(cos 3) + sin
2
(sin 4) + tan
(tan 7) = 3 + 4 + 7 2 =6
Equation is x 5x + (6 ) = 0 product of the roots = 6 51. (A) Any plane through the line of intersection is 5y + 4z + kx = 0 Direction ratios of the normal to the plane are k, 5, 4. Direction cosines are 41 k k
2
, 41
5 k
2
, 41 , 4
4 k
2
Direction ratios of the given plane are 0, Angle between the planes = 60 1 2 = 25 41 41 41 41 16 k
2
5 41
41
2 41 =
4 (41)2 = 41 (41 + k2) 4 41 = 41 + k2 k = 3 41 k= 3 41 41 x = 0 the required plane is 5y + 4z + 3 52. (D) f(x) = [x] 2 + [x] + 2 = 2 [x] h (4 + h) h(4) = f {f(4 + h)} f {f(4)} = f(8) f(8) = 0 Right hand derivative = Lt 0 = 0 h h0
2
h (4 h) h(4) = f {f(4 h)} f{f(4)} = f(6) f(8) = 12 16 = 4 Left hand derivative = Lt

h0
4 h
h (4) does not exist.

16
53. (C)
ydx y d d tan x y x y x y
2
xdy
= n tan x y
x y dx
dx
= n tan
= n dx
Integrating, log sin
x y
+ log k = nx x y =e = = nx
nx
log k sin k sin sin x y x y
nx 1 nx e = ce k SECTION II
54. (A) I =
2
0
sin x cos x 2
2 m
dx
=2
sin 2x
0 m
dx Put t = 2x dt = 2dx
=2
sin
0 2
dt 2
=2
sin
0 m
dx 2
=2
sin
0
xdx k = 2
17
2x 55. (D) Lt
x 0
2x 3
2x 5
... x
3
...
x = Lt
x0
x x
5
3
32
...
= 1 + 0 + ... = 1 56. (A) The length of the chord is 4x + 5y = 4 Solving with the equation of the ellipse, x2 x 12 = 0 points are 4, 12 5 7 , 41 5 3, 16 5
Length of the chord = 57. (D) Putting t = tan 2
, we get
(ab + bc) t2 2act + (ab bc) = 0 2ac tan 2 = 1 = cot 2 = a b b a SECTION III 58. (C) Equations of the two lines in symmetric forms are x a b = y = z c d and x a b = y = z c d ab bc ab bc ab bc
If they are perpendicular, then aa + 1 + cc = 0 aa + cc = 1

18
59. (D) If l1, m1, n1 are the direction ratios of the I line, then 3 l1 + 2 m1 + n1 = 0 l1 + m1 2 n1 = 0 By the rule of cross multiplication, l
1
5 7 1 Direction ratios of I line are 5, 7, 1 If l2, m2, n2 are the direction ratios of the II line, 2 l2 m2 n2 = 0 7 l2 + 10 m2 8 n2 = 0 By the rule of cross multiplication, l
2
2 1 3 Direction ratios of the II line are 2, 1, 3 Now l1 l2 + m1m2 + n1n2 = 10 + 7 + 3 = 0 the angle is 90 60. (A) Let l1, m1, n1 be the direction ratios of the line. Then l m + 2n = 0 3l + m + n = 0 By the rule of cross multiplication, Direction ratios are 3, 5, 4 Direction ratios of the parallel line are 3, 5, 4 Equations of parallel line is z z z z z OB OA
i 2 1 3 i
1 y 2 z 3 = = 3 5 4
61. (C)
2 1
= e
= cos
3 cos
i sin 6 1
3 6
z z
1
1 =
i sin
19
a z
1
= 2 cos
i 2 sin
cos
= 2 cos Squaring, a z
2 2 1
cos
i sin
= 4 cos
6 z z
cos
i sin
=4
2
3 4
2 1
a = 3 z1 z2 = 3b a =3 b z z OB OA
i 2
62. (C)
2 1
But in OAB,
i
= cos 30 e
i 6
cos 30 =
OB OA
3 e = 2 z z
3 1
... (1)
OC OA
i 3
But in OAC,
i
= cos 60 e
i 3
cos 60 =
OC OA
= 1 e 2
... (2)
20
Squaring (1),
2 2 2 1
z z
2 2 2 1
3 = e 4 3 4 3 2
i 3
... (3)
3 2
z z
z z
2 2
1 3
z z
1 3 2
2 2 z = 3 z1z3
63. (B) Rotation about B in anticlockwise direction

i
z1 z2 = (z3 z2) e
= i (z3 z2) 2 1 i ... (1)
z1 i z3 = z2 (1 i) = z2 2 z2 = (1 + i) z1 i (1 + i)
= (1 + i) z1 (i i2) z3 = (1 + i) z1 + (1 i) z3 Similarly rotation about D gives 2 z4 = (1 i) z1 + (1 + i) z3 Subtracting the equations, 2 (z2 z4) = (1 + i) {z1 z3} + (1 i) {z3 z1} = (z1 z3) (1 + i 1 + i) = 2i (z1 z3) z2 z4 = i (z1 z3) 64. (A) (s); (B) (p); (C) (r); (D) (q) (A) Let 3, a1, a2, a3, ... a11, a12 5 be in A.P 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 are in A.P. , , , , ...., , , 3 h h h h h 5
1 2 3 11 12
... (2)
... (1)
i.e.,
1 5
1 h
12
1 h
11
1 h
10
...
1 h
2
1 h
1
1 3
are in A.P.
Multiplying by the LCM 15,

21
3,
15 h
12
15 h
11
15 h
10
, ...
15 h
2
15 h
1
, 5 are in A.P.
... (2)
From (1) and (2), equating 6th terms a =

5
15 h
a5 h8 = 15 (B) By remainder theorem f(2) = 11, f (1) = 0 8a 12 2b + 5 = 11 4a b = 9 and 3a 6 b = 0 3a b = 6 Solving (1) and (2) a = 3, b = 3 a+b=6 (C) x = 2 cos 2 2 2 cos 2 2 2 sin 2 cos
2
... (1) ... (2)
2 2 1
= 2 cos
cos
cos 2
= 2 cos =y+1 xy=1
, 2 sin
(D) The slopes are m, 3m 2 h 1 b 4m = m= 2b h b 2h 2b h
m + 3m =
22
1 m 3m = a 1 b 3 ab h
2
b a
2 2
4h =
b a
4 3
65. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r) (A) f(x) = x +
3
e
0 x x 0
f {x (x t)} dt (Using (a x) rule)
=x +e
e
e
f t dt
Differentiating with respect to x, f x = 3x

2 x
f x
e f t
t 0
dt
(by Leibnitz rule)
f(x) + f (x) = x3 + 3x2 + f(x) f (x) = x3 + 3x2 Integrating the equation (1) f x = x 4
4
... (1)
f(0) = 0 k = 0 f(x) = x 4
4
(B) From the rule, f(0) = 1 f x = Lt

h0
f x
h h
f x
Lt
h 0
f x f h h
f x (By the rule)
23
=f x
Lt
h0
f h h
f 0
= f(x) f (0) = 2f(x) f x f x = 2
Integrating, log f(x) = 2x + log k f(0) = 1 0 = 0 + log k log k = 0 log f(x) = 2x f(x) = e (C) At x = 0, y = 1 Point is (0, 1) Differentiating w.r.t. x y = 1 At (0, 1) y = 1 Slope of the normal = 1 1 =1 x
y 2x
y log 1
y 1 x 1
1 sin x
4
2 sin x cos x
Equation to the normal at (0, 1) is y 1 = 1 (x 0) y=x+1 x+y=1 (D) x + y = exy 1 dy dx = e

xy xy
dy dx
dy y e 1 = xy dx 1 x e
24
Parallel to y-axis 1xe

xy
=0
1 x (x + y) = 0 x = 1, y = 0 point (1, 0)
Equation to the tangent is x = 1 66. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r) (A) The problem is equivalent to placing 5 letters in 5 addressed envelopes so that no letter goes to the right envelope. General formula = 1 1 1 6 1 24 1 n 1 2 1 1 1 1 3 1 120 1 2 1 4 1 3 1 5 1 4 ...
Here, 5
= 120
1 2
= 60 20 + 5 1 = 65 21 = 44 (B) x + y + z = n, where n = 3, 4, 5, 6 Number of positive integral solutions of x + y + z = n = Required number of solutions =

n 1
3 2
2 4 2 5 2
3 2
= 1 + 3 + 6 + 10 = 20
25
(C)
y 1 y 1 2y 1 y
2
dy = 1 x
dx x 1 x
2
dy =
x 1
2 2
dx 2 x
dy 1
2
2x x
dx =
dx
log (1 + y ) + log (1 + x ) = 2 log x + log k (1 + x ) (1 + y ) = kx y(1) = 1 4 = k (1 + x2) (1 + y2) = 4x2 (D) (xy3 x2) dy (xy + y4) dx = 0 y3 (xdy ydx) x (xdy + ydx) = 0 x2 y3 xdy x y x y x
2 2 2 2
ydx
x (xdy + ydx) = 0
x y d y x d
x d (xy) = 0 d xy x y
2 2
= 0
Integrating,
2
1 2
y x
1 xy
= C
Curve passes through (4, 2) 1 8 1 = CC=0 8
y3 = 2x y + 2x = 0
3

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BRILLIANT S

FOR OUR STUDENTS TOWARDS

IIT-JEE 2008 STS X/PCM/P(I)/QNS

HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES

Maximum Marks: 243

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(B) 1.1 10 m/s (D) 4.4 10 m/s

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(B) 3 10 m/s (D) 7.5 10 m/s

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In a gaseous medium, we cannot have transverse waves. SECTION III

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(s) N Column II (p) (q) h mv hc hc hc Ve hc

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(D) All the above SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Titanium can be purified by van Arkel process.

TiI is a non - volatile stable compound.

Calcium carbide on treatment with water forms acetylene.

Secondary alcohol reacts faster with sodium than primary alcohol.

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J. Its de Broglie wavelength will be

kg) (B) 4.55 10

41. Ferroelectricity is exhibited by

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Column II (p) + I effect (q) I effect (r) + M effect (s) Hyperconjugation

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47. A solution of log9 (x 1) = log3 (x 3) is (A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 5 f x 2

(D) 1 x g 2 (D) 0 1 3 , then the triangle is

49. If in C, sin B cos C = (A) isosceles

and cos B sin C = (C) right angled

(D) right angled isosceles

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cos 2 50. If f() = 3 cos sin sin f f 3 is

cos sin sin2 cos

sin cos 0 , then the value of

(D) 1 n , then the value of C is 4 (D) 11 3 4

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because Statement 2: If the normal at at 2 , 2at

to y = 4ax meet it again at 2 t .

57. Statement 1: because Statement 2:

If l, m and n are the direction cosines of a line, then l + m + n = 1.