Congratulations - you have completed Measurement Quiz. You scored 5 out of 15.

Your performance have been rated as 'Failed' All the questions in the quiz along with their answers are shown below. Your answers are bolded. The correct answers have a green background while the incorrect ones have a red background. 1. The relationship between four physical quantities X, p, q and t is given by X = p + qt where t is the time is seconds. If the unit of p is m s1, then the unit of q must be

m s1 m s2 ms m

qt must have the same base unit as p. 2. At temperatures close to 0 K, the specific heat capacity of a particular solid is given by c = b T3, where T is the thermodynamic temperature and b is a constant characteristic of the solid. What are the SI base units of b?

kg m2 s-2 K-4 m2 s-2 K-3 m2s-2 K-4 kg m2 s-2 K-3

The SI unit of c is J kg-1K-1. So its base unit is m2s-2K-1. Divide this unit by K3 gives base unit of b. 3. Four physical quantities P, Q, R and S are related by the equation PQ2= 8Q + RS. Which statement must be correct for the equation to be homogeneous?

P, Q, R and S all have the same units. P, Q, R and S are all scalar quantities. The product PQ2 is numerically equal to (8Q+RS). The product PQ2 has the same units as Q, and the product RS.

C is not correct as any of the vectors can be negative and so vector addition of 8Q and RS may not be numurically equal to PQ. D is obviously the choice as any physically correct equation must have consistency in units. 4. Which of the following experimental techniques reduces the systematic error of the quantity being investigated?

Timing a large number of oscillations to find a period. Measuring the diameter of a wire repeatedly and calculating the average. Adjusting an ammeter to remove its zero error before measuring a current. Plotting a series of voltages and current readings for an ohmic device on a graph and using its gradient to find resistance.

A, B and D are treatment for random errors. Zero error is definitely a systematic error, which can be corrected for. 5. A student measures the time t for a ball to fall from rest through a vertical distance h.

Knowing that the equation h = 1/2 gt2 applies, the student plots the graph shown.

Which of the following is an explanation for the intercept on the t axis?

Air resistance has not been taken into account for larger values of h. There is a constant delay between starting the timer and releasing the ball. There is an error in the timer that consistently makes it run fast. The student should have plotted h against t 2.

There is a constant time delay as indicated by the x-intercept on the graph. 6. What is the reading shown on this milliammeter?

2.35 mA 2.7 mA 3.4 mA 3.7 mA

The reading is 3.4 0.2 mA 7. A micrometer screw gauge is used to measure the diameter of a copper wire. The reading with the wire in position is shown in diagram 1. The wire is removed and the jaws of the micrometer are closed. The new reading is shown in diagram 2.

What is the diameter of the wire?

1.90 mm 2.45 mm 2.59 mm 2.73 mm

Each scale reading is read to half a smallest division. On subtraction, the actual diameter is accurate to one smallest division( 0.01 mm). The actual diameter is 2.59-(0.14) = 2.45 0.01 mm oC. 8. The velocity of a liquid in a pipe can be calculated by measuring the force on a small disc placed in the centre of the pipe with its plane perpendicular to the flow. The equation relating the force to the velocity is force = constant x (velocity)2 If the velocity is to be found with a maximum uncertainty of 1%, what is the maximum permissible uncertainty in measuring the force?

0.5% 1% 2% 4%

F/F = 2 v/v = 2x1 = 2% 9. A cylindrical container has a diameter of 2.45 0.05 m and a depth of 1.25 0.05 m. The maximum percentage uncertainty in the volume of the container is

4% 5% 6% 8%

d/d = 0.05/2.45 = 2% h/h = 0.05/1.25 = 4% Volume V = d2h/4 V/V = 2d/d + h/h = 2x2 + 4 = 8 10. Vernier callipers, reading to 0.1 mm, are used to find the internal diameter (10.0 0.1 mm) and the external diameter (12.0 0.1 mm) of a length of glass tubing. The mean wall thickness would be quoted, therefore, as

1.0 0.1 mmA 1.0 0.2 mm 2.0 0.1 mm 2.0 0.2 mm

2 x thickness = (12.0 - 10.0) (0.1+0.1) = 2.0 0.2 mm thickness = 1.0 0.1 mm 11. The period of oscillation of a pendulum is given by the equation T = 2(L/g) where L is the length of the pendulum and g is the acceleration due to free fall. To measure g, a boy takes the following measurements: Time for 20 oscillations = (18.2 0.1) s Length of the pendulum = (20.6 0.1) cm What is the percentage uncertainty for g?

1.6% 3.2% 9.6% 23%

T/T = 0.1/18.2 = 0.55% L/L = 0.1/20.6 = 0.49% Since g = 42L/T<sup2< sup=""> g/g = L/L + 2T/T = 0.49 + 2 x 0.55 = 1.6%</sup2<> 12. What is the ratio 1 m/1 Gm?

10-3 10-9 10-12 10-15

1 m = 10-6m and 1 Gm = 109 13. Four students each made a series of measurements of the acceleration of free fall g (in ms-2). The table shows the results obtained. A 9.81 9.79 9.82 9.83 B 9.21 10.32 10.13 9.58 C 9.45 9.21 8.99 8.76 D 8.45 8.46 8.50 8.41 Which student obtained a set of results that could be described as accurate but not precise?

Student A Student B Student C Student D

Student B's result is close to 9.81 (accurate) but the readings spread over a wider range. 14. A quantity x is measured many times and the number N of measurements giving a value of x is plotted against x. The true value of x is xo.

Which graph best represents inaccurate measurements with poor precision?

A B C D

Choose the graph with average reading far from the true value and readings spread over a wide range.

15. A vector quantity V is resolved into two perpendicular components X and Y. The angle

between V and component X is . The angle between component X and the vector V is increased from 0o to 90o. How do the magnitudes of X and Y change as the angle is increased in this way? X Y A increase increase B increase decrease C decrease increase D decrease decrease

A B C D

X is the horizontal component of vector V. X = V cos . So as increases, X decreases but Y increases. Unit 01: Measurement Quiz | No Comments
Kinematics

Congratulations - you have completed Kinematics Quiz. You scored 2 out of 10. Your performance have been rated as 'Failed' All the questions in the quiz along with their answers are shown below. Your answers are bolded. The correct answers have a green background while the incorrect ones have a red background. 1. The motion of the object is represented by the velocity-time graph below.

What is the displacement of the object at t = 10 s?

0m 8.0 m 16 m 20 m

Area under graph gives displacement. Net area = 8-8 = 0 2. A car at rest in a traffic queue moves forward in a straight line and then comes to rest again. The graph shows the variation with time of its displacement.

What is its speed while it is moving?

0.70 ms1 0.80 ms1 1.25 ms1 1.40 ms1

Gradient of graph 3. Which of the following statements is correct?

An object can have a constant velocity even though its speed is changing. An object moving with constant acceleration can reverse its velocity. An object cannot have a constant speed if its acceleration is not zero. An object cannot have an instantaneous zero velocity if it is moving with a constant

acceleration. For example: A ball thrown up into air experience a constant deceleration due to g, and its velocity is reversed at the highest point. 4. Which of the following graphs best represent the acceleration-time relationship for a bouncing ball on a rough surface?

A B C D

The acceleration is constant, due to gravity, except during its impact with the ground. 5. The acceleration time graph of an object moving in a straight line is as shown. The object started its motion from rest.

At which point is the body moving with the largest speed?

A B

C D

As long as the acceleration is positive, the body is accelerating and increasing in speed. Once the acceleration is negative, its speed decreases. 6. Two markers M1 and M2 are set up a vertical distance h apart.

A steel ball is released at time zero from a point a distance x above M1. The ball reaches M1 at time t1 and reaches M2at time t2. The acceleration of the ball is constant. Which expression gives the acceleration of the ball?

A B C D

Use x = 1/2 gt12 and x + h = 1/2 gt22. Subtract to give h. 7. A motorcycle stunt-rider moving horizontally takes off from a point 1.25 m above the ground, landing 10 m away as shown.

What was the speed at take-off?

5 m s1 10 m s1 15 m s1 20 m s1

Use 1.25 = 1/2 gt2 to find t. Substitute this time into the equation 10 = vt to find v, the horizontal speed of projection. 8. A stone is projected horizontally in a vacuum and moves along a path as shown. X is a point on this path. XV and XH are vertical and horizontal lines respectively through X. XT is

the tangent to the path at X.

Along which direction or directions is the velocity constant?

XV XH XV and XH XT

In projectile motion, the horizontal component of velocity remains constant as there is no horizontal force acting. 9. In the absence of air resistance, a stone is thrown from P and follows a parabolic path in which the highest point reached is T. The stone reaches point Q just before landing.

The vertical component of velocity of the stone is

zero at T. greatest at T. greatest at Q. the same at Q as at T.

At highest point, the vertical component of velocity is zero, since at its turning point. 10. A bomb is released from an aircraft which is travelling horizontally at a constant velocity of 200 m s-1 at a height of 1200 m above the ground. What is the speed of the bomb when it hits the ground?

150 m s-1 200 m s-1 250 m s-1 300 m s-1

vx = 200 m s-1 vy2 = 2gx1200 Use Pythagorus theorem to find resultant v. Unit 02: Kinematics Quiz | 6 Comments
Forces

Congratulations - you have completed Forces Quiz. You scored 0 out of 10. Your performance have been rated as 'Failed' All the questions in the quiz along with their answers are shown below. Your answers are bolded. The correct answers have a green background while the incorrect ones have a red background. 1. Which of the following physical quantities has the same base units as energy?

moment of a force specific heat capacity impulse voltage

Both has unit: Nm. 2. Two forces P and Q act at a point X as shown in the vector diagram below.

In which of the following diagrams does the vector F represent the force which must be applied at X to maintain equilibrium?

A B C D

The 3 forces must form a closed polygon. 3. A particle which moves from rest is acted upon by two forces : a constant forward force and a retarding force which is directly proportional to its velocity. Which one of the following statements about the subsequent motion of the particle is true?

Its velocity increases from zero to a maximum. Its acceleration increases from zero to a maximum and then decreases. Its acceleration increases from zero to a maximum. Its velocity increases from zero to a maximum and then decreases.

The net force (Weight-Viscous Force) results in an acceleration which causes the velocity to increase. However Viscous Force increases with speed and hence the net force is zero after

some time. The velocity reaches a a final constant value called terminal velocity. 4. A uniform rod 5.0 m long, weighing 100 N is hinged at one end. A weight of 50 N is hung at the other end. The system is balanced by a tension T in the string attached to the rod as shown.

What is the magnitude of tension T?

51.8 N 104 N 386 N 518 N

Take moments about hinge, T cos 15 x L = 50 x L + 100 x 1/2 L. Solve for T. 5. The diagram shows four forces applied to a cylinder.

Which of the following describes the resultant force and resultant torque on the object?

zero resultant force, zero resultant torque zero resultant force, non-zero resultant torque non-zero resultant force, zero resultant torque non-zero resultant force, non-zero resultant torque

Resultant force = 40 N to the right. Resultant torque about its c.g. is non-zero. 6. A uniform rod of weight 10 N is freely hinged to a wall at X as shown in the diagram. The rod is supported at the other end by a cable perpendicular to the rod. The rod makes an angle of 60o to the wall.

If a load W of weight 18 N is suspended at the other end of the rod, what is the tension in the cable?

12 N 16 N 20 N 32 N

Take moments about the hinge, T x L = 10 x L/2 sin60 + 18 x Lsin60 7. A load W is supported as shown.

Arrange T, F and W in ascending order of magnitude.

W,T,F F,W,T T,W,F T,F,W

W, T and F form a right angle triangle with F as the hypothenus. T = F cos 32 = 0.84 F W= F sin 32 = 0.53 F 8. A uniform ladder of mass 7.00 kg is resting on a smooth wall and rough floor, as shown in the figure below. The total reaction force of the ground on the ladder is R.

What is the force acting on the wall by the ladder?

39.6 N 68.7 N 70.0 N 79.3 N

There are 3 forces acting on the ladder. Besides R, there is a normal contact force N exerted by smooth wall on ladder. The third force is the weight W= 7.00 x 9.81 = 68.7 N. tan 60 = W/N. Find N. 9. Figure shows a uniform cylindrical block of height h and cross-sectional area A floating with its axis vertical in water of density in a measuring cylinder. The free water is h/4 above the bottom of the block.

What is the mass of the block?

4 Ah 4Ahg A(h/4) A(h/4)g

Weight = Upthrust mg = Vg where V is the volume submerged. m = (h/4)A 10. The diagram shows a long narrow tube filled to a depth of 40.0 cm with mercury of density 1.36 x 104 kg m-3. A 50.0-cm-thick layer of water of density 1.00 x 103 kg m-3 floats on top of the mercury. The tube is then inclined at 50o to the horizontal.

If the atmospheric pressure is 1.01 x 105 Pa, the pressure at point X inside the tube is

4.46 x 104 Pa 1.46 x 105 Pa 1.59 x 105 Pa

4.56 x 106 Pa

Pressure at X = Atmospheric pressure + pressure due to water depth + pressure due to mercury depth Pressure at X = 1.01 x 105 Pa + 0.50 sin 50 x 1.00 x 103 x 9.81 + 0.40 sin 50 x 1.36 x 104 x 9.81 Unit 03: Forces Quiz | No Comments
Work

Congratulations - you have completed Work Quiz. You scored 3 out of 10. Your performance have been rated as 'Failed' All the questions in the quiz along with their answers are shown below. Your answers are bolded. The correct answers have a green background while the incorrect ones have a red background. 1. Which of the following expressions defines work done?

Superposition

force x distance force x displacement force x displacement made in the direction of the force force x velocity

Work = force x displacement made in the same direction as the force. 2. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Neglecting air resistance, which statement is correct?

The kinetic energy of the ball is greatest at the greatest height attained. By the principle of conservation of energy, the total energy of the ball is constant throughout its motion. By the principle of conservation of momentum, the momentum of the ball is constant throughout its motion. The potential energy of the ball increases uniformly with time during the ascent.

Conservation of energy indicates total (KE + PE) at any instant remains constant. For D, PE increases with (time)2 3. Car X is travelling at half the speed of car Y. Car X has twice the mass of car Y. Which statement is correct?

Car X has half the kinetic energy of car Y. Car X has one quarter of the kinetic energy of car Y. Car X has twice the kinetic energy of car Y. The two cars have the same kinetic energy.

Use Ek = 1/2 mv2 4. A motorist travelling at 10 ms1 can bring his car to rest in a distance of 10 m. If he had been travelling at 30 ms1, in what distance could he bring the car to rest using the same braking force?

17 m 30 m

52 m 90 m

Use F x d = Lost in KE 5 A boat moving at constant speed v through still water experiences a total frictional drag F. What is the power developed by the boat?

1/2 Fv Fv 1/2 Fv2 Fv2

Power = Driving Force x speed. At constant speed, Drivng Force = Drag Force. Hence P = Fv. 6. A small electric motor is used to raise a weight of 2.0 N through a vertical height of 80 cm in 4.0 s. The efficiency of the motor is 20 %. What is the electrical power supplied to the motor?

0.080 W 0.80 W 2.0 W 200 W

Useful Output Power = 2.0 x 0.80/4.0 = 0.40 W Input Power = 100/20 x 0.40 = 2.0 W 7. Two masses are suspended from a pulley as shown below.

They are released and made to move vertically. Because of friction at the pulley, the speeds of the two masses are constant throughout their motion. The 4.0 kg mass moves 0.60 m before hitting the ground. What is the amount of heat generated at the pulley?

5.9 J 18 J 24 J 41 J

Heat generated = Loss in PE by 4 kg mass - Gain in PE by 3 kg mass 8. A car of mass 1200 kg travels along a horizontal road at a speed of 10 m s-1. At the time it begins to accelerate at 0.2 m s-2, the total resistive force acting on the car is 160 N. What is the total output power developed by the car as it begins the acceleration?

0.80 kW

1.6 kW 2.4 kW 4.0 kW

Driving force = ma + resistive force = 1200 x 0.20 + 160 = 400 N Power = Fv = 400 x 10 = 4.0 kW 9. The diagram shows two blocks A and B of 4.0 kg each, initially stationary and connected to each other by a light cord passing over a light, free-running pulley. Block A is in contact with the smooth surface of an inclined plane at 30o to the horizontal.

The system is released from rest and block B moves vertically downwards from position X to Y. What will be the total kinetic energy of the system when block B has travelled from X to Y?

29.2 J 34.2 J 39.2 J 49.2 J

By Conservation of Energy, Gain in KE of system = Loss in PE by 4.0 kg mass - Gain in PE of 4.0 kg mass up the slope. 10. The graph shows the behaviour of a sample of a metal when it is stretched until it starts to undergo plastic deformation.

What is the estimated work done in stretching the sample from zero extension to 12.0 mm?

3.30 J 3.55 J

3.60 J 6.60 J

Estimate area under F-x graph. Unit 05: Work Quiz | No Comments
Congratulations - you have completed Mock Paper 1. You scored 7 out of 40. Your performance have been rated as 'Failed' All the questions in the quiz along with their answers are shown below. Your answers are bolded. The correct answers have a green background while the incorrect ones have a red background. For additional practice, try the paper here Mock Prelim Paper 1 1. Which pair includes a vector quantity and a scalar quantity?

displacement; acceleration force; kinetic energy power; speed work; potential energy

Force is a vector quantity and KE is a scalar quantity. 2. What is the ratio 1m/1Gm ?

6 9

10

3 9

10 12 10 15 10
15

10 /10 =10 3. What is a reasonable estimate of the diameter of an alpha particle?

10 m -12 10 m -9 10 m -6 10 m

-15

An alpha particle has no more outer electrons, since it is doubly-charged. So the size is the same as the nuclear size 10 m. 4. A vector quantity V is resolved into two perpendicular components X and Y. The angle between V and
-15

component X is . o o The angle between component X and the vector V is increased from 0 to 90 . How do the magnitudes of X and Y change as the angle is increased in this way?

A increase increase B increase decrease C decrease increase D decrease decrease

A B C D

X= V cos and Y = V cos . So when increases, cos decreases but sin increases. 5. A mass m has acceleration a. It moves through a distance s in time t. The percentage uncertainties are 0.1 % in m, 1 % in a, 1.5 % in s, 0.5 % in t. What is the percentage uncertainty in the average power?

2.1 % 2.6 % 3.1 % 4.1 %

= F = F.s/t = mas/t. %P/P = %m/m + %a/a + %s/s + %t/t = 0.1 + 1.0 + 1.5 + 0.5 = 3.1 6. A micrometer screw gauge is used to measure the diameter of a copper wire. The reading with the wire in position is shown in diagram 1. The wire is removed and the jaws of the micrometer are closed. The new reading is shown in diagram 2.

What is the diameter of the wire?

1.90 mm 2.45 mm 2.59 mm 2.73 mm

Diagram 1 reads 2.590 mm and Diagram 2 reads 0.140 mm. So the diameter is 2.590 - 0.140 = 2.450 mm.

7. The diagram shows a glider travelling on a friction-free horizontal air track.

Which one of the following graphs best represents the variation of velocity with time as the glider bounces back and forth between the elastic buffers?

A B C D

Velocity is constant in between collisons because fo zero friction. After each collision, velocity changes direction.

8. Two identical stones are dropped simultaneously from different heights. Air resistance is negligible.

As the stones fall, the distance between them will

increase continuously. decrease until they touch. remain the same. increase initially then remain the same.
2

s = 1/2 gt . So distance travelled at any time t is the same for both balls. The separation between them remains constant throughout. 9. A fire-fighting helicopter is flying at constant speed along a horizontal straight-line carrying a bucket of water as shown in the diagram below. The rope to the bucket makes a fixed angle with the vertical.

Which of the following diagrams is the correct free body diagram of the forces acting on the bucket?

A B C D

The 3 forces should be in equilibrium, so that the resultant force is zero, as the plane is moving at steady speed. 10. The diagram below shows five wooden blocks joined by inelastic strings. A constant force accelerates the blocks to the right on a frictionless horizontal table.

In which string is the tension the greatest?

W X Y Z

The string Z is pulling 4 blocks behind it. So its tension is the largest. T(in Z) = 4ma. 11. A force of magnitude F1 accelerates a body of mass m from rest to a speed v. A force of magnitude F2accelerates a body of mass 2m from rest to a speed 2v. The ratio work done by F2 : work done by F1 is

2 4 8 16

Compare the KE gained by each mass. The KE gained by second mass is 8x higher. 12. Two satellites P and Q of equal mass are in orbit about the Earth. Satellite P is further away from the Earth than Q.

Which one of the following quantities will be greater for P than for Q?

The gravitational force. The speed. The acceleration. The gravitational potential energy.

Gravitational potential and potential energy increases as distance from planet increases, as shown by the equation GPE = -GMm/r. 13. Two bodies are brought into thermal contact with each other. No thermal energy transfer takes place between the bodies. It may be deduced therefore, that the bodies must have the same

specific heat capacity. heat capacity. temperature. internal energy.

Zero law of thermodynamics states two bodies in equilibrium mean they are at the same temperature. Internal energy depends on KE + PE of all molecules whereas heat capacity depends on Mass x specific heat capacity. 14. The formula for hydrostatic pressure is p = gh. Which equation, or principle of physics, is used in the derivation of this formula?

density = mass volume potential energy = mgh atmospheric pressure decreases with height

density increases with depth

Pressure P = Weight/Area = mg/A = Vg/A = gh. since V = Ah. 15. A steel ball is falling at constant speed in oil. Which graph shows the variation with time of the gravitational potential energy E p and the kinetic energy Ek of the ball?

A B C D

At terminal velocity, KE remains constant. However PE decreases with mgh where h is the height dropped. Since h = vt and v is constant, h dropped is changing linearly with time. So PE decreases linearly with time. 16. A particle of mass 2.0 kg executes simple harmonic motion along a horizontal axis about a fixed point. The net force F acting on the particle varies with displacement x from the fixed point as shown below.

What is the period of the oscillation?

0.50 s 0.63 s 2.0 s 3.1 s

-2 2

max a = F/m = 8.0/2.0 = 4.0 ms . Use a = x to find and then find period. 17. A particle oscillates with undamped simple harmonic motion. Which one of the following statements about the acceleration of the oscillating particle is true?

It is least when the speed is greatest. It is always in the opposite direction to its velocity. It is proportional to the frequency. It decreases as the potential energy increases.

Acceleration is maximum at the turning points, whereby the velocity is zero. 18. The intensity I of a sound at a point P is inversely proportional to the square of the distance x of P from the source of the sound. That is

Air molecules at P, a distance r from S, oscillate with amplitude 8.0 m. Point Q is situated a distance 2r from S. What is the amplitude of oscillation of air molecules at Q?

1.4 m 2.0 m 2.8 m 4.0 m

Intensity varies with (Amplitude) and 1/r) , which means that Amplitude varies with 1/r. So the amplitude at Q is halved. 19. Sound waves, emitted by a small loudspeaker, are reflected by a wall. The frequency f of the waves is adjusted until a stationary wave is formed with the antinode nearest the wall at a distance x from the wall. Which expression gives f in terms of x and the speed of sound c?

f = 4c/x f = 2c/x f = c/2x f = c/4x

The point at the wall should be a node. Distance x between a node and adjacent antinode is /4. So = 4x. Therefore f = c/4x. 20. The graph below shows the variation with time t of the separate displacements d of a medium, at a particular point in the medium due to two waves, P and Q.

The amplitude of the wave resulting from the interference of P and Q is

0.0 mm. 1.0 mm. 1.4 mm. 2.0 mm.

The largest resultant displacement is obtained at the intersection of the 2 waves. That gives 0.7 x 2 = 1.4 mm. 21. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 450 nm falls normally on a diffraction grating which has 300 lines / mm. What is the total number of transmitted maxima?

7 8 14 15

maximum order n = d/ = 7. Total no. of maxima is 2x7+1=15.

22. An electron and a proton start from rest near oppositely charged parallel plates in vacuum as shown.

Which of the following will be true of the kinetic energies and speeds of the two particles when they reach the opposite plates?

The proton will have the greater kinetic energy and lesser speed. The electron will have the greater kinetic energy and greater speed. The kinetic energies of the two particles will be equal, but the electron has a higher speed. The kinetic energies of the two particles will be equal, but the proton has a higher speed.

Work done on both charges = eV is the same. So Gain in KE is the same. But electron has smaller mass, so its final velocity is greater. 23. The diagram below shows two positive point charges of equal magnitude. A negative point charge is placed at P.

Which one of the following diagrams best shows the direction of the resultant force on the negative charge at P?

B C D

There are two electrostatic forces of attraction by the + charges. But the one that is closer to the + charge is stronger. The resultant force should point to the right. 24. A cell is connected to a resistor. At any given moment, the potential difference across the cell is less than its electromotive force.

Which statement explains this?

The cell is continually discharging. The connecting wire has some resistance. Energy is needed to drive charge through the cell. Power is used when there is a current in the resistor.

Energy is needed to drive charge through cell to overcome internal resistance. 25. A thermistor and another component are connected to a constant voltage supply. A voltmeter is connected across one of the components. The temperature of the thermistor is then reduced but no other changes are made.

In which circuit will the voltmeter reading increase?

A B C D

For thermistor, a reduction in temperature results in higher resistance. So in circuit D, the p.d. across it should increase. 26. A straight conductor is in the plane of a uniform magnetic field as shown.

The current in the conductor is I and the conductor is at an angle to the magnetic field. The force per unit length on the conductor due to the current in the magnetic field is P. Which is the correct expression for the magnitude of the magnetic field strength?

P sin/I P cos/I P /Isin P /Icos

Use F = BIL sin and substitute P = F/L. Check that is the angle between B and I. 27. A loop made of conducting material is rotated about the vertical axis XY. At all times during the rotation the loop is in a region of uniform magnetic field.

At a particular instant, in the position shown, the plane of the loop is parallel to the direction of the magnetic field. At this instant which one of the following about the induced current and the flux is true?

induced current in the loop flux linking the loop A maximum B maximum C zero D zero

A B C D

maximum zero zero maximum

At this position, flux linkage is zero. But the gradient of flux linkage vs time graph is maximum. So induced current is maximum.

28. The diagram below shows two concentric loops lying in the same plane.

The current in the inner loop is clockwise and increases with time as shown in the graph below.

The induced current in the outer loop is

constant in the clockwise direction. constant in the anticlockwise direction. variable in the clockwise direction. variable in the anticlockwise direction.

Increasing the current in inner coil results in increasing B-field and thus increasing flux linkage. The rate of flux linkage should be constant and thus induced current is constant. The induced current must flow anticlockwise to oppose the change. 29. A lamp of resistance R is connected in series to a source of alternating voltage. The r.m.s. value of the voltage is 20 V. The variation with time t of the power P dissipated in the light bulb is shown below.

The best estimate for the value of the resistance of the filament of the lamp is

4.0 4.0 2 8.0 8.0 2

2

max P = 100 = (202) /R. 30. In an X-ray tube, the accelerating potential difference across the tube determines

the maximum frequency of the X-rays. the maximum wavelength of the X-rays. the wavelengths of the characteristic spectra. the maximum intensity of the X-ray beam.

The maximum frequency of X rays is obtained from eV = hf. 31. Monochromatic light is incident on a metal surface and the ejected electrons give rise to a current in the circuit. The maximum energy of the ejected electrons is determined by applying a reverse (stopping) potential to reduce the current to zero. If the intensity of the incident light is gradually increased, the stopping potential required will

decrease. remain unchanged. increase continuously. increase to a limiting value.

eVs = KEmax = hf - . It is independent of the intensity of light. 32. The graph shows the variation with frequency f of the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons E k emitted from a metal surface S.

Which one of the following graphs shows the corresponding variation for a metal surface with a higher work function? The dotted line on each graph shows the variation for metal S.

A B C D

The x-intercept gives the threshold frequency which is larger. The y-intercept gives the work function which is also larger. 33. According to the de Broglie hypothesis, matter waves are associated with

electrons only. charged particles only. neutral particles only.

all particles.

de Broglie hypothesized that all matter have wave nature. 34. The diagram represents the available energy levels of an atom. How many emission lines could result from electron transitions between these energy

levels?

3 6 8 12

Use permutation. Need to choose 2 levels from the 4 levels. 35. Which one of the following correctly identifies the mass and momentum of a photon?

mass A zero B zero

momentum zero non-zero

C non-zero zero D non-zero non-zero

A B C D

Photons have zero rest mass but its momentum = mc= E/c or h/. 36. The probability of decay in one second of a radioactive nucleus is . During a particular one-second interval, a nucleus does not decay. What is the probability of decay of this nucleus during the next one-second interval?

1/ 2 2

is the probability of decay in one second! 37. A Geiger counter is placed near a radioactive source and the count rate C, in counts per second, is recorded as a function of time. The data are corrected for background radiation

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and displayed in the form of a graph of ln C against time. A straight line fits the data well and this is shown below.

The decay constant, in s-1 of the radioactive source is

1.0. 4.0. 0.04. 0.02.

Gradient of graph gives - 38. The diagram below shows the deflection chamber of a mass spectrometer.

Track X shows the path of a singly-charged carbon-12 ion in the chamber. Which track best shows the track of a singly-charged C-14 ion that has the same initial speed?

A B C

Choose another circular path slightly larger in radius since radius = mv/Bq, since mass of C14 is slightly larger than C-12. 39. What is the binding energy of the nucleus 238U92 ? Use the following data: mass of a proton = 1.00728 u mass of a neutron = 1.00867 u mass of a 238U92 nucleus = 238.05076 u 1 u = 931.3 MeV

1638 MeV 1732 MeV 1755 MeV 1802 MeV

Find mass defect = (total mass of 92 protons and 146 neutrons) - mass of uranium nucleus and convert it to MeV. 40. In the reaction shown, a proton and a deuterium nucleus fuse together to form a helium nucleus. What is the value of Q, the energy released in this reaction? mass of a proton = 1.00728 u mass of a deuterium nucleus = 2.01355 u mass of a 2He nucleus = 3.01493 u

5.0 MeV 5.5 MeV 6.0 MeV 6.5 MeV

Calculate the mass defect and convert it to MeV. Mock H2 Paper 1 | 5 Comments Congratulations - you have completed Mock Promo Quiz. You scored 3 out of 24. Your performance have been rated as 'Failed' All the questions in the quiz along with their answers are shown below. Your answers are bolded. The correct answers have a green background while the incorrect ones have a red background. Download Mock Promo Paper here Download Mock Promo Paper Solutions here 1. The equation relating the pressure and volume of a gas with its thermodynamic temperature T is given by pV = KT, where k is a constant. What are the base units of K?

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no units, because k is a constant kg m-2 s-2 K-1 kg m2 s-2 K-1

kg m s-2 K-1

base units of K = base units of pressure x volume/temperature. 2. A student measures the p.d. across and current through a resistor as (6.25 0.05) V and (202 2) mA respectively. How should the student express the resistance(in ohms) of the resistor to the most appropriate precision?

30.94 0.02 30.9 0.6 31 3 0.0309 0.0005

Calculate R = V/I. Use R/R = V/V + I/I to find R. 3. Given the function Y = a2/(bc) , what is the consequential error in Y if there is an error of +2 % in a, +3 % in b and - 4% in c?

-3 % 1% 5% 11 %

Y/Y = 2a/a - b/b - c/c 4. The graph below shows the variation of temperature with time t, for 1 kg of a substance. The substance is initially a solid, and is heated at a constant rate of 1000 W until all of it vaporizes. At any point, any vapor formed is allowed to escape freely out of the container.

Which of the following statements is false?

The latent heat of vaporization is greater than the latent heat of fusion. The specific heat capacity in the liquid state is lower than that in the solid state. The total amount of energy to turn the substance from a solid at 0 oC to a liquid, and to raise the temperature of it to 90 oC requires approximately as much energy to vaporize all of the substance at boiling temperature. If the substance is vaporized in a sealed container, it would require more energy to vaporize everything.

The gradient dT/dt at liquid phase is smaller than at solid phase. specific heat capacity c = P/(m x gradient) 5. What thermodynamic temperature is equivalent to 323.45 oC?

50.70 K 50.71 K 596.60 K 596.61 K

323.45 + 273.15 = 596.60 K 6. A solid X is in thermal equilibrium with a solid Y, which is at the same temperature as a third solid Z. The three bodies are of different materials and masses. Which one of the following statements is correct?

There is no net transfer of energy if X is placed in thermal contact with Z. It is not necessary that Y should be in thermal equilibrium with Z. X and Y have the same heat capacity. Y and Z have the same internal energy.

Thermal equilibrium means same temperature and therefore no net transfer of heat. 7. The velocity-time graphs represent the motion of a bus and a car, which started from the origin. At which times, A, B, C or D were the displacements of the two objects equal?

A B C D

Area under graph = displacement 8. Three bombs are projected vertically upwards relative to a tank, which is traveling horizontally at a constant speed to the right. They are projected one by one at one-second intervals. Neglecting air resistance, which of the following diagrams correctly shows the positions of the tank and the three bombs at a certain instant of the upward flight?

A B C D

All bombs and tank are moving with same horizontal speed. 9. Two forces P and Q act at a point X as shown in the vector diagram below.

In which of the following diagrams does the vector F represent the force which must be applied at X to maintain equilibrium?

A B C D

The 3 force vectors must form a closed triangle. 10. Figure shows a gondola blown through an angle by the force of the wind. The weight of the gondola is 1900 N and the angle is 25o. What is the magnitude of the force of the wind?

803 N 886 N 1722 N 4075 N

F = W tan 11. The diagram shows four forces applied to a cylinder.

Which of the following describes the resultant force and resultant torque on the object? Resultant Force Resultant Torque A zero B zero C non-zero D non-zero

zero non-zero zero non-zero

A B C D

Resultant Force = 20+20 = 40 N to the right Resultant Torque = 30xd 12. A force, F, is applied to a 5 kg block of ice, initially at rest, on a smooth surface.

What is the velocity of the block, in m s-1 after 3.0 s?

5.6 8.0 26.6 40.0

Area under graph = change in momentum = 40 = 5 v. 13. Three blocks A, B, C of masses 2 kg, 3 kg and 1 kg respectively are accelerated along a smooth horizontal surface by a horizontal force of 12 N applied to block A.

What is the magnitude of the force exerted by block C on B during this acceleration?

12 N 8N 4N 2N

a = 12/6 = 2 m s-2. Force on C = 1 x 2 = 2 N. 14. Three identical, stationary discs P, Q and R are placed in a line on a horizontal, flat frictionless surface. Disc P is projected head-on towards disc Q. If the consequent collisions are perfectly elastic, what will be the final motion of the three discs? P Q R A Moving Left Moving Left Moving Right B Stationary Stationary Moving Right Moving Right C Moving Left Stationary

D Moving Right Moving Right Moving Right

A B

C D

The momentum and KE of P is transfered to R. 15. What is the power required to give a body of mass m a forward acceleration a when it is moving with velocity v up a frictionless track inclined at an angle to the horizontal?

mavg sin mav sin + mgv mav + mgv sin (mav + mgv) sin

F - mgsin = ma => F = mgsin + ma. Power P = Fv 16. The diagram shows two bodies X and Y connected by a light cord passing over a light, free-running pulley. X starts from rest and moves on a smooth plane inclined at 30o to the horizontal.

What will be the total kinetic energy of the system when X has travelled 2.0 m along the plane?

20 J 59 J 64 J 98 J

Total Gain in KE = Loss in PE by Y - gain in PE by X 17. A particle travels in uniform circular motion. Which of the following correctly describes the linear velocity, angular velocity and acceleration of the particle? linear velocity angular velocity acceleration A varying constant varying B varying C constant D constant

constant varying constant

constant zero zero

A B C D

both velocity and acceleration are varying. 18. A bucket of water of mass 1.5 kg is whirled in a vertical circle of radius 0.50 m.

What is the minimum speed, in m s-1 of the bucket at the highest point of the circle so that the water does not spill out?

1.6 2.2 2.5 4.9

At highest point, mg = mv2/r 19. Two identical stars each of mass M are separated by distance d. They are rotating about their centre of mass in circular motion with a periodic time T, given by

T2 = 2 2d3/(2GM2) T2 = 4 2d3/(GM2) T2 = 2 2d3/(GM) T2 = 4 2d3/(GM)

GMm/d2=m(d/2)(2/T)2 20. A satellite moves in an elliptical orbit around the Earth, well above the atmosphere. At the point in its orbit nearest to the Earths surface,

the kinetic energy is maximum and the potential energy is minimum. the kinetic energy is minimum and the potential energy is maximum. both the kinetic energy and the potential energy are minimum. both the kinetic energy and the potential energy are maximum.

Total Energy is conserved. Closer to earth, PE is minimum, so KE must be maximum. 21. The diagram shows two pendulums suspended from the same thread PQ.

X is a heavy pendulum with the frequency fx of which can be varied. Y is a lighter pendulum

of fixed frequency fy. As the frequency of oscillation of X is increased by shortening the thread, the amplitude of the oscillation of Y changes. Which of the following graphs best represents the relationship between the amplitude ay of the oscillation of Y and the frequency fx of X ?

A B C D

Resonance phenomenon. 22. The smallest distance between two points of a progressive transverse wave which have a phase difference of /3 rad is 0.050 m. If the frequency of the wave is 500 Hz, what is the speed of the wave?

25 m s-1 75 m s-1 150 m s-1 1700 m s-1

Wavelength is when phase difference is 2, = 0.05 x 6 = 0.3 m. v= 500 x 0.3 =150m s-1 23. A stationary transverse wave is set up as shown in the figure. The speed, frequency and wavelength of the wave are v, f and respectively.

What would be the speed and wavelength of the wave if the frequency is doubled and other physical conditions remain constant?

speed is the same, wavelength is halved speed is the same, wavelength is doubled speed is doubled, wavelength is the same both speed and wavelength are doubled

wavelength is inversely related to frequency. Speed of wave only depends on tension and material of string. 24. A lamp emits light of two distinct wavelengths, x and y. When the lamp is used as a source for a diffraction grating experiment, it is found that the second order maximum for wavelength x occurs at precisely the same angle as the third order maximum for wavelength y. The ratio x to y is therefore

2 3/2 2/3 1/2

For overlap of colors, 2x=3y Mock Promo Exam | 14 Comments