GMAT

*GMAT is a registered trademark of the Graduate Management Admission Council.

Practice TestFreddy

SECTION 1

Quantitative

QUANTITATIVE

SECTION 1
Time75 minutes 37 Questions

Directions for Section One: The following questions are either Problem Solving or Data Sufficiency. Problem Solving questions are those with five listed answer choices. In each of these, select the best answer choice, and mark the corresponding oval on your exam grid. Note that figures are drawn as accurately as possible except when it is stated that a figure is not drawn to scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. Data Sufficiency questions are those which have a question stem followed by two statements containing certain data. Your task is to determine whether the data provided by the statements are sufficient to answer the question. The answer choices for all of these questions are always the same. They are the following: (A) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (B) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (C) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (D) EITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (E) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. Based upon the statements data, your knowledge of mathematics, and your familiarity with everyday facts (such as the number of minutes in an hour), select the best answer choice, and mark it on your answer grid. A figure accompanying a Data Sufficiency question will conform to the information in the question stem, but will not necessarily conform to the information in the two statements. Figures are not necessarily drawn to scale. Note that you may assume that the positions of points, angles, regions, etc., exist in the order shown and that angle measures are greater than zero. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.

GMAT PRACTICE TEST

2 7 b and b = c, then what percent of a is c ? 1. If a = 7 3

7. If y is an integer, is y odd? (1) 4y is an even integer. (2) 3y is an odd integer. 8. If 25% of a wall is covered by a poster that measures 4 feet by 5 feet, what is the area, in square feet, of the wall?

G 150 G 125 G G G
2 66 3 1 57 7

50

2. What is the decimal equivalent of G 0.004096 G 0.01024 G 0.0256 G 0.064 G 0.16

2 4 5

G G

20 80

G 100 G 320 G 500 9. At a certain high school, 60 percent of the students are female, 30 percent of the female students are juniors, and 20% of the male students are juniors. If a student is selected at random, what are the odds that the student is male, and not a junior? G G G G G
2 25 9 50 8 25 21 50 8 10

3. If a point is to be selected at random from the set of all possible points in a rectangle with an area of 30, what is the probability that the point lies inside or on a circle of radius R ? (1) R = 2 (2) The center of the circle is inside the rectangle. 4. a = a a 2. What is the value of b ? (1) (b + 1) = 12 (2) (b 3) = 0
1 of the students in a certain 5. Are more than 3 geology class sophomores? 1 the female students are (1) Exactly 2 sophomores.

10. What is the value of y if y > 0 and 4 3y y = 41 4y 2 ? G 25 G 20 G 12 G G 8 5

4 y

(2) Exactly 25 of the male students are sophomores. 6. The perimeter of a square with side S is equal to the circumference of a circle. In terms of S, what is the area of the circle? G G G G G
S4 4 S2 4S2 2 4S2 4S

11. What is the value of m ? (1) m = m (2) 2m2 = 18

QUANTITATIVE 12. Is ABC a right triangle? (1) The degree measure of A is equal to the sum of the degree measures of B and C. (2) The degree measure of C is 45. 13. The number of organ transplant operations performed in Europe increased from 23,000 in 1980 to 185,000 in 1990. Which of the following is closest to the percent increase in the number of organ transplant operations from 1980 to 1990 ? G G G G 70% 90% 500% 700%
1 is how 16. The amount that 6 is greater than 3 2 many times the amount that 4 is greater than 1 ? 3 2

G 2 G 3 G 4 G 5 G 6 17. In a maternity ward, each patient is under the care of 3 different nurses. If there are 10 nurses on staff, how many different combinations of nurses could care for any single patient? G G 30 70

G 1,000% 14. What is the value of 2a 2 + 4a if (x a)(x 7) = x2 4x 21 for all x, and a is a constant? G G 6 8

G 120 G 240 G 720 18. Is ab < 12 ? (1) a < 3 and b < 4 (2) a + b = 0 19. If x is an integer and (4)2x = 46 x, then what is the value of x ? G G G G 1 2 4 8

G 12 G 16 G 30 15. The Financial News Daily has 25 reporters covering Asia, 20 covering Europe, and 20 covering North America. Four reporters cover only Asia and Europe, 6 reporters cover only Asia and North America, and 7 reporters cover only Europe and Asia. How many reporters cover Asia, Europe, and North America? (1) The Financial News Daily has 38 reporters in total covering Asia, Europe, and North America. (2) There are more Financial News Daily reporters covering only Asia than there are Financial News Daily reporters covering only North America.

G 16 20. What is the value of b if 2x 1 is a factor of 2x 2 + bx + 3 ? G 7 G 3 G 1 G G 3 7

GMAT PRACTICE TEST 21. Water coolers A and B are both right circular cylinders. Both water coolers are completely filled with lemonade. The diameter of water cooler A is twice the diameter of water cooler B and the height of water cooler A is twice the height of water cooler B. If water cooler B holds 10 servings of lemonade, how many servings of lemonade does water cooler A hold? G G G G 20 40 60 80

AB C

DE F G H

J K LM

26. How many circles can be drawn on the line segment above if each circle is subject to the rule that the endpoints of one of its diameters must be any two of the points A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, J, K, L, and M ? G G G G 36 66 72 78

G 100 22. What is the value of b ? (1) (2) b4 = 16 = 49

G 121 27. If s and t are positive, does s= (1) st = 4 (2) s and t are even integers. 28. A candy bar that is 12 centimeters long is cut into two pieces. If one of the pieces is 7 centimeters longer than the other, what is the length, in centimeters, of the shorter piece? G 1.5 G 2.0 G 2.5 G 4.0 G 5.0 29. If a = 1, then (a 20 + a15 + a3) = G 2 G 1 G G G 0 1 2
2 t

73b 4

23. What is the value of (y + 1)2 if 3y 2 + 10y + 7 + y 2 = 5y 2 + 17y y 2 42 ? G 8

G 16 G 37 G 49 G 64 24. What is the value of m 3n ? (1)

m 2

8=

3n 2

(2) m = 1 25. If x 0 and xy 5 = 2x 5, what is the value of y ? G 5 G 2 G G G 0 1 5

30. What percent of 10 is 0.53 ? G G G G 0.0053% 0.053% 0.53% 5.3%

G 53%

QUANTITATIVE 31. A cyclist rides to the top of a hill and then coasts back down by the same route. The entire trip takes 4 hours. What is his average (arithmetic mean) speed when climbing the hill? (1) The cyclists average speed over the entire trip was 6 miles per hour. (2) The distance to the top of the hill was 12 miles, and the cyclists average speed on the downward trip was 18 miles per hour. 32. In 1925, 60% of the 800 households in Gafford County relied on agriculture for their primary means of income. In 2000, 15% of the 1,300 households in Gafford County relied on agriculture for their primary means of income. What was the net change in the number of households in Gafford County relying on agriculture for their primary means of income from 1925 to 2000 ? G 285 G 185 G G 10 +50 36. If abc = b3, which of the following must be true? I. II. III. ac = b2 b=0 ac = 1

G None G I only G II only G I and III G II and III 37. Suka bought 10 identical shirts for a total cost of x dollars. Two years later, she sold the shirts to a thrift shop at 25% of the original cost. In terms of x, for how many dollars did she sell each shirt? G 10x G G
25x 4 2.5 x 1 4

G 2.5x G
x 40

G +195 33. If ab = 10, what is the value of a 2 + b 2 ? (1) a + b = 7 (2) 5a =

50 b

34. Is the value of c a > 0 ? (1) a + b = 18 (2) b + c = 20 35. If Susan spends 53 seconds folding y napkins, how many seconds will it take her to fold x napkins at the same rate? G G G G G
53x y 53y x x 53y 53 xy xy 53

SECTION 2

Verbal

VERBAL

SECTION 2
Time75 minutes 41 Questions

Directions for Section Two: This section consists of Sentence Correction questions, Critical Reasoning questions, and Reading Comprehension questions. Sentence Correction questions consist of sentences that are either partly or entirely underlined. Below each sentence are five versions of the underlined portion of the sentence. The first of these, choice (A), duplicates the original version. The four other versions revise the underlined portion of the sentence. Read the sentence and the four revisions carefully, and select the best version. If the original version seems better than the revised versions, select the first choice, (A). If not, choose one of the revised versions. Choose answers according to the norms of standard written English for grammar, word choice, and sentence construction. Your selected answer should express the intended meaning of the original sentence as clearly and precisely as possible, while avoiding ambiguity, awkwardness, or unnecessarily wordy constructions. Critical Reasoning questions consist of a set of statements, followed by a question. Analyze the statements, then select the answer choice that is the most appropriate response to the question. No specialized knowledge of any particular field is required for answering these questions. Reading Comprehension questions refer to a specified passage. Your choice is to be based on what is stated or implied in the passage, and not on your own knowledge. You may refer to the passage while answering the questions.

1. Archaeologist: The latest discovery at the dig site at Water Creek is a large bone. The bone appears to be the tibia, or shin bone, of a hominid species. Because of the condition of the soil and extensive contamination, carbon dating has been able to place the bones age within a range of 1.5 and 2 million years. However, the bone shows signs of damage associated with the mammoth plague, which ran rampant in this part of the world from 1.9 to 2 million years ago. Thus, we can further pinpoint the age of the bone within a range of one hundred thousand years. Which of the following, if true, casts the most doubt on the archaeologists suggested range of the age of the bone?

G Most other animal fossils uncovered in the area surrounding the dig site have been found by carbon-dating to be more than 2 million years old. G The mammoth plague killed mammoths and other large animals but not hominids. G Ample archaeological evidence exists to support the hypothesis that the last outbreak of mammoth plague occurred 1.9 million years ago. G Fossils from the area that are between 1.5 and 1.8 million years old provide evidence of the mammoth plague. G Fossils from the area that are more than 2 million years old provide evidence of the mammoth plague.

13

GMAT PRACTICE TEST 2. Although they have more fat than other snacks, most of the fat in nuts is monounsaturated, the type that likely lowers cholesterol levels. G most of the fat in nuts is monounsaturated, G most of the monounsaturated fat in nuts is G nuts have mostly monounsaturated fat, G nuts have the most monounsaturated fat, G they have mostly monounsaturated fat, 3. An oil spill from a tanker not only pollutes fragile breeding areas for marine life, and also damages or destroys plants that are a source of nutrition for many aquatic animals. G and also damages or destroys G in addition to damaging or destroying G but it also can cause damage or destroy G but also damages or destroys G but also it is damaging or destroying 4. Planners in City X noticed that many of the trees in the city were dying because of exposure to increased levels of air and water pollution. A study they commissioned revealed that sycamore trees actually thrive in environments with elevated levels of carbon monoxide, the main pollutant emitted by automobiles. In order to reverse the trend of dying trees, the city adopted a policy to replace all sick trees with sycamore trees. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the logic employed by the city planners? G In the forest, oak trees live an average of 70 years while sycamore trees only live for an average of 50 years. G Automobile manufacturers are developing newer car models that emit significantly fewer pollutants. G A survey by Urban Forests found that the sycamore is the most common tree in American cities. G The city recently installed low exhaust buses for its public transportation system. G Sycamore trees are extremely sensitive to sulfur dioxide, the main component of acid rain. 5. An avid proponent of the back-to-nature movement, he was intent on living in a remote, uninhabited area where little water or services were available. G little water or services were available G little water or services had been available G there were little available water and few services G there is little water and services available G little water or services is available

14

VERBAL Questions 6 through 9 are based on the following passage With the evolution of terrestrial life about 400 million years ago, wind replaced water as the primary vector by which plants moved male sex cells. Wind pollination has traditionally been (5) viewed as a reproductive process dominated by random eventsthe vagaries of wind and weather. Pollen loss through happenstance is compensated for in wind-pollinated plants by pollen-to-ovule ratios that greatly exceed those of (10) insect-pollinated species. Unlike the sticky pollen grains of plants pollinated by insects, the pollen grains of wind-pollinated plants are smooth and dry, to avoid clumping and precipitating, and the stigma of the female plant is large and sticky, the (15) better to catch any floating pollen grains. Similarly, wind-pollinated plants typically evolved to grow in stands, such as cornfields, grasslands, or other large, near-monocultural populations. While wind pollination is usually considered
(20) a primitive feature by textbooks, recent

6. According to the author, pollen grains that would have the greatest dispersal range would have which of the following characteristics? I. II. III. Small size Dryness Low-density

G I only G II only G I and II only G I and III only G I, II, and III 7. If rainfall levels in a particular growing season were abnormally high, it is most reasonable to conclude, based on the passage, that the G amount of pollen released by wind-pollinated species would be less than normal because of sophisticated mechanisms tied to environmental clues G amount of pollen released by wind-pollinated species would be greater than normal to compensate for the greater resulting pollen loss G pollen-to-ovule ratios of wind-pollinated species would be unaffected by the change in weather G amount of seed produced and released by wind-pollinated species would be greater than normal G amount of pollination carried by insect pollinators would remain unchanged 8. According to the passage, all the following mechanisms serve to reduce pollen loss in windpollinated plants EXCEPT: G development of a large specially shaped stigma G retention of pollen within the male organ when weather conditions are not conducive to dispersal G growth of plants in large populations with few species G development of intricate mechanisms to prevent self-pollination G efficient design of the airborne pollen grain

research has, in fact, shown that several remarkably sophisticated mechanisms for dispersal and capture are characteristic of windpollinated plants. Pollen release is often tied to (25) the recognition of unambiguous environmental clues; thus, many plants will not release pollen when wind speeds are low or while humid conditions exist, which might cause pollen grains to clump and fall. The devices that operate to (30) prevent self-pollination are also at times extremely intricate. Recent findings have revealed another intricacy that compensates for wind pollinations inefficiencythe physics of pollen motion. The (35) rate at which pollen settles is dictated principally by the size and density of the grain. The slower the settlement rate, the greater the dispersal range. Numerous species reduce the density of pollen grains with air cavities in their walls. There is a (40) limit, however, to the lower range of pollen size.

15

GMAT PRACTICE TEST 9. The authors attitude towards textbooks that describe wind pollination as primitive is best described as one of G reasoned rejection G tempered uncertainty G vehement disagreement G mild displeasure G complete support 10. William Wordsworth wrote that poetry should be written in a state of tranquility, not in a state of high emotion, because it could cloud the poets judgment. G because it could cloud the poets judgment G because emotion could cloud the poets judgment G because the poets judgment could be clouded by it G could cloud the poets judgment G could cloud the judgment of the poet 11. Louis Armstrong, considered by many to be the worlds greatest jazz musician, began his career in New Orleans, moved to Chicago to play with his mentor Joe King Oliver and record his first album, eventually traveling the world playing his unique sounds of big band and Dixieland-swing. G eventually traveling G to eventually travel G and traveling eventually G and eventually traveled G and eventually traveling 12 In an effort to reduce their overstock, many fashion designers have cut prices; their clothes have been priced to sell, and they are. G have been priced to sell, and they are G are priced to sell, and they have G are priced to sell, and they do G are being priced to sell, and have G had been priced to sell, and they have 13. Pundit: Current city council policy mandates that contracts for road repairs be awarded to construction companies based on how quickly the companies have completed work in the past. This policy is in stark contrast with the stated goals of both the mayor and the council. They state that their goal is to attempt to maintain a high level of quality for the roads in our city, but in fact the current policy rewards construction firms for doing rushed and shoddy work. Which of the following statements, if true, would help to validate the current city council policy mentioned above? G Cities with the same policy have the shortest road repair times in the state, but the condition of streets in these cities is rated among the states worst. G The construction firms that receive the fewest contracts with the city are also the ones that take the longest to repair city streets. G The city usually hires construction firms to repair potholes, but not for restructuring lanes or general resurfacing. G The city imposes strict regulations on road quality, and thus does not consider a city road repair complete unless it can meet certain minimum standards. G A current city council proposal would, if approved, award contracts to construction firms based on the quality of their work, not their speed.

16

VERBAL 14. Last year, 1,200 Smithtown residents who work in hospitals and doctors offices contracted the flu, and 1,100 Smithtown residents who are not employed in medical facilities contracted the flu. On the basis of these numbers, it is safe to conclude that the likelihood of contracting the flu was not much different for those who were employed in medical facilities than it was for those who were not. Which of the following would reveal most clearly the irrationality of the conclusion above? G Counting cases of the flu among home health care workers as well as cases among workers at medical facilities G Expressing the difference between the numbers of flu cases among medical facility workers and others as a percentage of the total number of flu cases G Counting flu cases contracted by medical facility workers while at work separately from those contracted by medical facility workers while not at work G Comparing flu cases per hundred members of each group, rather than comparing total numbers of flu cases in each group G Comparing flu cases contracted in medical facilities by people who do not work in those facilities to flu cases contracted in medical facilities by people who do work in them 15. Most chefs insist on using milk when making an omelet. Adding milk to the eggs increases the omelets density. What they are overlooking, however, is that omelets made without milk are noticeably fluffier than those made with milk. To make a good omelet, chefs should not include milk in their recipe. Which of the following statements is an assumption made by the author? G Most chefs have well-developed palates, so they know what qualities define a good omelet. G If chefs were to cease using milk in omelet preparation, they will simply find a new ingredient to use in place of milk. G It is more important for an omelet to be fluffy than for it to have high density. G If a chef were to use an excessive amount of milk in an omelet, then the end result would be so dense as to be completely unpalatable. G Many notable chefs have always used milk when making omelets and refuse to change. 16. Because many products claim that it is new and improved and that they have better flavor, they are often the same products simply in new packaging. G Because many products claim that it is G Because many products claim that they are G Although many products claim that it is G Although many products claim that they are G Although many products claim they are

17

GMAT PRACTICE TEST 17. Egyptian archaeologists have discovered an ancient burial site that they believe will yield important artifacts. G that they believe will G that they believe it to G that is believed to G they believe is to G they believe it will 18. Over the last ten years, the Office of the Provost has studied the courses selected by freshman at State University. Without exception, and without regard to major, the students who enrolled in organic chemistry during their freshman year graduated with a higher overall grade point average than did the students who did not take organic chemistry during their freshman year. Thus, organic chemistry should be mandatory for freshmen since it clearly promotes academic success. Which of the following, if true, casts the most doubt on the conclusion above? G Most State University students who took organic chemistry in their freshman year did not earn a high grade in that class. G Currently, in order to enroll in organic chemistry as freshmen, students must pass a rigorous series of prerequisite exams. G The average grade point average of graduates of State University has risen steadily over the past ten years. G Many State University graduates who took organic chemistry in their freshman year did not graduate in the top 20 percent of the class. G Most State University graduates who graduated in the top 20 percent of the class took at least one chemistry every year during college. Questions 19 through 23 are based on the following passage Gender-based trends in labor are linked to the ever-changing concept of what constitutes work appropriate to women as distinct from that of men. This concept underwent a significant (5) change during the evolution from the Colonial era, in which most families farmed or ran small cottage industries in their homes, to the era of the Industrial Revolution, when a large segment of the population labored in mills and factories. (10) Though the society of both eras was patriarchal, the pre-industrial women colonists enjoyed a degree of economic egalitarianism that would all but disappear with industrialization. Work was considered a civic duty for
(15) women in the Colonial era, integral to the familys

economic survival, and wasnt confined to the home: many women were also shopkeepers, midwives, and even blacksmiths. But while Colonial women had the satisfaction of (20) contributing to the familys economic well being, the society of the Industrial Revolution, on the whole, appreciated neither womens presence in nor their contributions to the labor force. Instead, in the America of the Industrial Revolution, men (25) and women occupied different social and physical spaces. This distance developed into the Doctrine of the Two Spheresmen lived in the realm of public visibility and economic opportunity, while women managed private, domestic (30) responsibilities. As the divide between the two spheres widened, women felt further demoted in an already patriarchal society. Mainstream society of the time endorsed another disempowering phenomenon known as the Cult of True Womanhood. Womens roles were both idealized and restricted; women were held to the highest standards of piety, purity, domesticity, and submissiveness. The moral authority given to women was nominal in comparison to the actual authority that their husbands possessed. Men felt the pressure and anxiety created by the Cult of True Womanhood as well. Many men could not successfully maintain the position of sole breadwinner. Some over-performed the provider role at the expense of emotional intimacy with their wives and children; others refused the burden and abandoned their families. Caught between these two extremes were the everyday male workers who tried their best to maintain social status and strong familiar tiesdual goals that were often unattainable.

(35)

(40)

(45)

(50)

18

VERBAL 19. According to the passage, the Doctrine of the Two Spheres describes which of the following societal situations? G Men and women shared responsibility for the economic upkeep of the family. G Women were afforded a moral authority that had no practical application. G Gender roles became less defined than they had been in the Colonial era. G Men were afforded the option of working outside or inside the home. G Society became more patriarchal, as women were prevented from contributing economically to the upkeep of the family. 20. Which of the following general theories is best supported by the passage? G A sharp economic downturn at the end of the Colonial era prompted a move toward the gender-segregated labor system of the Industrial Revolution. G The Colonial era in America was characterized by a social egalitarianism that disappeared with the advent of the Industrial Revolution. G The Industrial Revolution, while known as a time of great progress in American history, caused significant socioeconomic strain for men and women alike. G The beginning of the womens movement in the early twentieth century was a backlash against the Cult of True Womanhood created during the Industrial Revolution. G Single-parent families became socially acceptable during the Industrial Revolution, as men abandoned their families under the pressure of being the sole breadwinner. 21. Which of the following situations would the author most likely consider to be an example of adherence to the Cult of True Womanhood? G A woman works in a garment factory all day and then returns home to clean the house, bathe the children, and cook dinner for the family. G A woman sacrifices the financial advantages of taking a job in a factory so that she can tend to the children and participate in church activities. G A woman opens a tailoring service in her home so that she can contribute to the familys income without having to work outside the house. G A womans husband becomes overwhelmed with the pressure of providing for his wife and children and eventually abandons the family. G A woman opens a child-care center, so that other women can work in factories and contribute to the economic upkeep of their families. 22. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage? G A paradox is stated, discussed, and finally resolved. G Two opposing viewpoints are expressed and debated, with no resolution proffered. G A generalization is stated and then followed up by two points that support the generalization and one point that contradicts it. G A thesis is stated in the first paragraph and supported by subsequent paragraphs. G An argument is stated and then refuted by pointing out the flaw in the assumption of the original argument.

19

GMAT PRACTICE TEST 23. The last paragraph performs which of the following functions in the passage? G It describes a social phenomenon that contrasts with a previously mentioned societal norm. G It offers an explanation for an observed change in gender perception. G It provides foreshadowing of a development that will be observed in the future. G It refutes the dominant trend discussed in the preceding paragraph. G It introduces a social trend that serves to undermine the authors thesis. 24. Point 1: The proportion of stores that shoppers enter in one visit to the Bedford Falls Megamall has decreased on average since last year. Point 2: The average time spent by shoppers per visit to the Bedford Falls Megamall is now about one hour. Point 2 would be most likely to contribute to an explanation of Point 1 if which of the following statements were also true? G The average shopper currently visits fewer than half of the stores in the Bedford Falls Megamall. G Many shoppers spent seventy-five minutes in the Bedford Falls Megamall last year. G Recent construction has reduced the overall size of the Bedford Falls Megamall. G The number of malls in Bedford Falls is increasing, and the average shopper visits more malls this year than he or she did last year. G The number of stores in the Bedford Falls Megamall has increased since last year, and the average shopper spent about one hour in the mall last year. 25. The officials in Town X have suggested that the proceeds from the recent benefit concert be used to repave the streets in the downtown area. When this decision is voted upon in the fall, a majority of the towns citizens is expected to approve this allocation of funds. After all, according to a recent survey, most citizens are in favor of improvements that will benefit local merchants. Which of the following choices is NOT an assumption that is being made by the author? G Well-paved streets near local merchants benefit their businesses. G The citizens do not feel that the money is better spent on other town improvements. G Local merchants have stores in the downtown area. G Streets in highly traveled areas need to be repaved periodically. G The people recently surveyed accurately represent the opinions of those who will vote on the repaving decision. 26. Compared with the 1906 earthquake, the 1989 San Francisco earthquake was smaller in magnitude but did more structural damage. G Compared with G In comparison with G Compared to G As compared to G Comparing

20

VERBAL 27. In order to reduce drug use on campus, State University X has decided to admit only those applicants who could pass a drug test. However, one board member concluded that such a policy would be unfortunate, since it would prevent students who failed the drug test from pursuing a degree in theater from the states public universities. The board members conclusion logically depends on which of the following assumptions? G Universities should not discriminate on the basis of drug use. G Mandatory drug testing would violate the privacy rights of potential applicants. G Applicants who had not used drugs prior to matriculation at the university could start experimenting with drugs after having enrolled. G State University X is the only public university in the state from which it is possible to obtain a degree in theater. G State University X has the best theater department of any university in the state. 28. Every year, the human resources department of Company Z offers new employees a health insurance open house. Company Z invites ten providers to set up tables in the conference room and distribute information to employees, as well as enroll new participants. If the new employees enroll in plans that day, Company Z pays 100% of the premium. Healthpro, one of the smaller providers, is hoping to enroll many of the new employees. To that end, Healthpro has informed current employees who have Healthpro insurance that free mini-physicals and cholesterol screenings will be available at the open house. Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the plan to offer free physicals and screening as a way for Healthpro to enroll new employees? G Most people find health insurance policies confusing and rely on word of mouth from fellow employees to make decisions about providers. G For the past three years, Healthstart, the largest health insurance company in the state, has enrolled the largest number of new employees. G Healthpro is not the only insurance provider to offer free physicals and screenings to participants. G If employees do not enroll in health insurance plans at the open house, Company Z will reimburse a portion of the premium paid by the employee. G Employees at Company Z, along with two other large corporations, make up almost ninety percent of Healthpros participants.

21

GMAT PRACTICE TEST Questions 29 through 32 are based on the following passage Animal intelligence is a hotly debated topic in the biological sciences, and recent field studies of ravens indicate that these birds may be aware of their actions in a way that suggests a (5) high-level of cognition that could be interpreted as intelligence. The common raven is a member of the Corvidae family, which includes nutcrackers, jays, crows, and magpies. Corvids have been observed using tools to gather food. For example, (10) jays place acorns on branches, which they use as anvils, and crows have been observed using sticks to pry food out of cracks. While scientists disagree about whether or not the use of tools is an unambiguous example of animal intelligence, (15) most concede that such use demonstrates at least a capacity for problem solving. And even if a cognitive capacity were found to exist, questions would still remain about the extent to which this capacity reflects intelligence.
(20)

29. The author is primarily concerned with G demonstrating how animals learn behaviors in a controlled environment G refuting claims that observations of raven behaviors demonstrate cognition G discussing tool use in different bird species G providing examples of raven behaviors that may demonstrate intelligence G questioning the importance of fieldwork in the biological sciences 30. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements? G The feeding behavior of ravens can best be explained as a stimulus-response mechanism. G Observations of ravens in their natural environment raise interesting questions about their intelligence. G While caution should be used when interpreting field observations, raven behavior suggests that these birds do not demonstrate cognition. G Ravens are the only corvids to be observed undertaking activities that suggest the capacity to solve problems. G Biologists are firmly convinced of the lack of intelligent activity in the animal kingdom. 31. The author cites examples of the use of tools by crows and jays to provide support for which of the following claims? G Tool use is not an example of animal intelligence. G Sophisticated behavior has been observed in close relatives of the raven. G Tool use demonstrates a stimulus-response mechanism. G Crows call to each other to signal the availability of food. G Tool use, while observed in crows and jays, has never been observed in ravens.

(25)

(30)

(35)

(40)

(45)

(50)

In hundreds of hours of field observations, biologist Bernd Heinrich recorded numerous raven behaviors that he did not consider to be examples of a simple, stimulus-response mechanism. Instead, Heinrich concluded that some of these behaviors demonstrated a level of intelligent action. Two examples of feeding behavior illustrate Heinrichs findings: ravens, which are omnivores, eat mainly carrion and associate with animals that kill large game, and ravens cache excess food from a kill site for later retrieval. Heinrich observed ravens sharing food at a moose kill and making loud vocalizations that alerted other ravens to the find. Did the ravens draw attention to the find because they were aware that there was something to be gained from sharing? In Heinrichs view, ravens cooperate in gathering food because they recognize that alerting other ravens to carcasses benefits each individual in times of scarcity. According to his theory, ravens are better able to utilize scarce resources by taking advantage of all food sources, which gives them a competitive edge. Heinrich also observed ravens pulling meat off a carcass and stacking the meat in a pile. The ravens then carried the entire stack in their bills, thus increasing the amount of food carried to the cache site. Heinrich considered the ravens actions to demonstrate a rudimentar y understanding of the concept of efficiency. Regardless of any scientific conclusions drawn from these behaviors, ravens offer many opportunities to observe a complex animal mind.

22

VERBAL 32. Which of the following statements about the evidence of intelligence in raven behavior is best supported by the information presented in the passage? G Raven intelligence is no longer a subject of debate. G Raven feeding behavior provides evidence of intelligence on par with human beings. G Field observations are important in the field of animal cognition. G Tool use by birds is an unambiguous example of intelligent behavior. G Ravens only call each other to a kill site when food resources are plentiful. 33. Compared to southern New Englands more developed beaches, Maine feels like they have not dramatically changed in the past few centuries. G Maine feels like they have G Maines feel like they have G Maine beaches feels like it has G the beaches of Maine have G Maine feels as if it has 34. Although there are many computer chip manufacturers in Country X, the overwhelming majority of computer manufacturers in Country X use imported chips made in Country Y. This is because the cost of producing a computer chip in Country Y is ten percent less than the cost of producing a computer chip in Country X. The statements above, if true, best support which of the following assertions? G The majority of computers sold in Country X are manufactured in Country Y. G The tariff imposed on chips imported from Country Y to Country X is less than ten percent of the cost of producing chips in Country X. G The tariff imposed on imports from Country Y to Country X is lower than tariffs on imports from any other country. G The cost of labor in Country X is ten percent less than the cost of labor in Country Y. G The cost of labor in Country X is ten percent more than the cost of labor in Country Y. 35. Critics accuse the Redwood School District of not spending enough money per student. However, this is clearly not the case as records show that the Redwood School District has double the annual budget of the neighboring Tilden School District. Which of the following would most strongly weaken the argument above? G The Tilden School District covers the students from 3 towns while the Redwood School District only covers the students from 2 towns. G The Tilden School District recently installed new computer labs in several of its schools. G The Redwood School District pays its teachers a higher annual salary than Live Oak School District. G The Redwood School District has three times more students than the Tilden School District. G Studies show that the amount spent per student is directly related to student achievement. 36. New well-designed models of American-made family cars show promise of reaching high sales goals without the costly requirements of rebates and discounts by the previous models. G requirements of rebates and discounts by the previous models G previous modelsrequirements of rebates and discounts G requirements for rebates and discounts of the previous models G rebates and discounts that were required by the previous models G discounts and rebates that was required by the previous models

23

GMAT PRACTICE TEST 37. The recent construction of a chemical plant on the shores of Lake Blue has introduced a new pollutant into the water: toxidil. Toxidil first works its way into the ecosystem through underwater plant life. These plants absorb the pollutant, which is then transmitted to the local fish population when they ingest the plants. Tainted fish appear healthy, but their meat causes serious health problems when consumed by humans. The health of the human population living in the vicinity of Lake Blue will undoubtedly suffer due to the new chemical plant. Which of the following is an assumption made by the author? G Other pollutants in Lake Blue are not detrimental to human health. G The people who reside near Lake Blue consume fish from the lake. G The first reported incidences of fish tainted with toxidil occurred in Lake Blue. G Currently, the only source of toxidil in the world is the chemical plant at Lake Blue. G Many other towns have banned chemical processes that produce toxidil in the last few years. 38. A ten-year comparison between Brazilian and Canadian crops showed that Brazilian yields are 68% of Canadian yields when compared on the basis of per planted acre. However, Brazilian yields are 115% of Canadian yields when compared on the basis of total agricultural acreage. Based on this information, which of the following can most reliably be inferred about Brazilian and Canadian agriculture over this time period? G A greater percentage of Canadian agricultural acreage was unplanted than of Brazilian agricultural acreage. G A majority of Canadian acreage is unplanted. G More total acres were unplanted in Canada than in Brazil. G Brazil had more acres planted than unplanted while Canada has more acres unplanted than planted. G Brazil produced more total crop than Canada. 39. According to a study by a prominent think tank, the defense budget of Country X might, in five years time, fund more than 70 billion dollars annually for research and development, equivalent to private grants. G equivalent to private grants G equivalent to that which is provided by private grants G equal to what private grants provide G as much as private grants G as much as private grants provide 40. Each year, a large number of participants completes bike, running, and walking events to raise money for charity. G completes bike, running, and walking G completes biking, running, and walking G complete biking, running, and walking G complete bike, running, and walking G complete biking, run, and walk 41. After performing poorly on multiple tests and receiving a failing grade in a particular course, a student appealed the grade to a universitys Office of Academic Affairs. The student claimed that the tests did not cover subject matters highlighted in the class lectures. Which of the following would be the most useful in determining the validity of the students claim? G Compare the students test scores with those of other students in the class. G Compare the material covered in the professors lecture notes to the material covered on the test. G Compare the students individual answers to those of a student who received high grades on the tests. G Determine whether it is university policy to only test subject material highlighted in course lectures. G Compare the students class notes with the material covered on the test.

24