Sat Act Practice Test

SAT/ACT
**
Combo Sample Test with Answers & Explanations

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*SAT is a registered trademark of the College Entrance Examination Board, which was not involved in the production of, and does not endorse, this product. **ACT is a registered trademark of ACT, Inc.
Copyright 2006 Kaplan, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced in any form, by photostat, microfilm, xerography, or any other means, or incorporated into any information retrieval system, electronic or mechanical, without the written permission of Kaplan, Inc.
Welcome to Kaplans SAT/ACT Combo Practice Test. Congratulations on taking this important step toward gaining admission to the college of your choice. As you know, colleges use your scores on tests like the SAT and ACT to make admission decisions. This practice test combines representative parts of the SAT and the ACT. Your results will give you a sense of how you might do on the actual tests. Keep in mind that a full SAT is 3 hours and 45 minutes and a full ACT (with essay) is 3 hours and 25 minutes. This Combo Test sampler will take 90 minutes. At the end, well guide you on how to score your answers to calculate a percentage on each section. Heres what we did:
Actual Tests 1 Essay Prompt 1 35-question Writing Section 1 14-question Writing Section Our Combo Test Section 1: 1 Essay Prompt Section 2: 10-question Writing Section Section 3: 10-question Math Section
SAT
1 18-question Math Section 1 20-question Math Section 1 16-question Math Section 2 24-question Critical Reading Sections 1 19-question Critical Reading Section 1 Experimental Section 1 75-question English Test 1 60-question Math Test
Section 4: 10-question Critical Reading Section None Section 5: 10-question English Test Section 6: 10-question Math Test Section 7: 10-question Reading Test Section 8: 10-question Science Test Section 1: 1 Prompt Essay
ACT
1 40-question Reading Test 1 40-question Science Test 1 30-minute Writing Test (Essay)
Before you beginwhen to guess: On the SAT: Each correct answer increases your raw score by 1 point. Each incorrect answer decreases your raw score by a fraction of a point (except for Grid-Ins).
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
B B B B B C C C C C D D D D D E E E E E
1 4 1 4 1 4 1 4
+1
If you guess randomly, the points you lose for incorrect answers will likely cancel out the points you get for correct answers. However, if you can eliminate at least one wrong answer, your odds of guessing correctly increase. Bottom line: On the SAT, if you can eliminate at least one answer choice, it is in your best interest to guess. On the ACT: Each correct answer increases your raw score by 1 point. Incorrect answers do NOT decrease your raw score. Bottom line: On the ACT, you should never leave an answer choice blank.
SECTION
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
# wrong in Section 2 # right in Section 2
2
SECTION
1. 2. 3. 4. 7.
# wrong in Section 3 # 1-4 # right in Section 3 # 1-4
3
5.
6.
# right in Section 3 # 5-10
8.
9.
10.
SECTION
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
# wrong in Section 4 # right in Section 4
SECTION
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
# right in Section 5
SECTION
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
6
SECTION
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
SECTION
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Section 1
ESSAY Time25 minutes
The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can develop and express ideas. You should, therefore, take care to develop your point of view, present your ideas logically and clearly, and use language precisely. Your essay must be written on the lined pages in this test bookleton Test Day you will receive no other paper on which to write. You will have enough space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins, and keep your handwriting to a reasonable size. On the actual SAT, people who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you write. Try to write or print so that what you are writing is legible to those readers. Give yourself twenty-five minutes to write an essay on the topic assigned below. DO NOT WRITE ON ANOTHER TOPIC. ON TEST DAY, AN OFF-TOPIC ESSAY WILL RECEIVE A SCORE OF ZERO.
Think carefully about the issue presented in the following quotation and the assignment below. I would feel more optimistic about a bright future for man if he spent less time proving that he can outwit Nature and more time tasting her sweetness and respecting her seniority. E. B. White Assignment: Does human progress depend upon a respect and appreciation for nature? Plan and write an essay in which you develop your point of view on this issue. Support your position with reasoning and examples taken from your reading, studies, experiences, or observations.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
Section 2
Time7 Minutes Time25 Minutes 10 Questions Questions
2 2
Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.
The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence is underlined; beneath each sentence are five ways of phrasing the underlined material. Choice A repeats the original phrasing; the other four choices are different. If you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence than any of the alternatives, select choice A; if not, select one of the other choices. In making your selection, follow the requirements of standard written English; that is, pay attention to grammar, choice of words, sentence construction, and punctuation. Your selection should result in the most effective sentenceclear and precisewithout awkwardness or ambiguity. EXAMPLE: Every apple in the baskets are ripe and labeled according to the date it was picked. (A) are ripe and labeled according to the date it was picked (B) is ripe and labeled according to the date it was picked (C) are ripe and labeled according to the date they were picked (D) is ripe and labeled according to the date they were picked (E) are ripe and labeled as to the date it was picked
ANSWER:
A B C D E
Despite lackluster sales figures, each of the companys executives were rewarded with bonuses and stock options because the stock kept rising. (A) were rewarded with bonuses and stock options because the stock kept (B) was rewarded with bonuses and stock options because the stock kept (C) was rewarded with bonuses and stock options; because the stock kept (D) were rewarded with bonuses and stock options, the stock kept (E) was rewarded with bonuses and stock options; the stock was keeping
Timbuktu, a Malian city that marks the western edge of the Sahara Desert, serving as an important trading post for salt caravans crossing the continent. (A) Desert, serving as an important trading post for salt caravans crossing the continent (B) Desert, serves as an important trading post for salt caravans crossing the continent (C) Desert, its importance for salt caravans crossing the continent as a trading post (D) Desert, and it served as an important trading post for salt caravans crossing the continent (E) Desert, serving as an important trading post, which it served for salt caravans that crossed the continent
Since the art exhibit opens on Tuesday and will run for one week only, we had decided to order our tickets well in advance. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) we had decided to order our tickets we, having decided to order our tickets we decided to order our tickets we decide to order our tickets we were deciding to order our tickets
One way students can raise their grade in English is because of having written a feature article for the school paper. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) because of having written when they write through their writing of by their writing of by writing
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

2
Section 2
5 Herbert Hoover, like his predecessor Calvin Coolidge, favored laissez-faire economic policies in response to market shifts. (A) Herbert Hoover, like his predecessor Calvin Coolidge, favored laissez-faire economic policies in response to market shifts. (B) Herbert Hoover was like his predecessor Calvin Coolidge in that he was known to be in favor of laissez-faire economic policies in response to market shifts. (C) Herbert Hoover, like his predecessor Calvin Coolidge, favored the same laissez-faire economic policies that Coolidge did in response to market shifts. (D) Herbert Hoovers preference, like that of his predecessor Calvin Coolidge, was toward laissez-faire economic policies in response to market shifts. (E) Much like his predecessor Calvin Coolidge, favoring laissez-faire economic policies was the response of Herbert Hoover to market shifts.
2 2

3
Section 2
2 2
The following sentences test your ability to recognize grammar and usage errors. Each sentence contains either a single error or no error at all. No sentence contains more than one error. The error, if there is one, is underlined and lettered. If the sentence contains an error, select the one underlined part that must be changed to make the sentence correct. If the sentence is correct, select choice E. In choosing answers, follow the requirements of standard written English.
EXAMPLE: Whenever one is driving late at night, you must take extra precautions against A B C falling asleep at the wheel. No error D E
ANSWER:
A B C D E
6 According to a recent survey, residents of India A consume more tea than any other country. No error B C D E 7 Even after he achieves stardom, Bruce Springsteen A B would occasionally surprise fans with unannounced C D concerts in Asbury Park, NJ. No error E 8 Niccolo Machiavellis The Discourses is considered by A statesmen and stateswomen as being the seminal work B concerning the need for the comprehensive study of C D politics. No error E

4
Section 2
Directions: The following passage is an early draft of an essay. Some parts of the passage need to be rewritten.
2 2
Read the passage and select the best answer for each question that follows. Some questions are about particular sentences or parts of sentences and ask you to improve sentence structure or word choice. Other questions ask you to consider organization and development. In choosing answers, follow the conventions of standard written English.
Questions 910 are based on the following passage. (1) The pianoforte, or piano, is one of the most versatile musical instruments in the world. (2) Surprisingly, when it was invented by Bartolomeo Cristofori in the early eighteenth century, it did not achieve immediate popularity. (3) Cristofori created the piano to combine the robust sound of the harpsichord with the dynamic control of the clavichord. (4) However, this remained the dominant keyboard instrument until Johann Sebastian Bach began to champion the piano in 1750. (5) Manufacturers then adapted the piano to produce ever louder tones. (6) So that composers could make better use of the pianos unique trait: its ability to play both piano (softly) and forte (loudly). (7) Soon the piano had many devotees, including Mozart and Haydn, who wrote sonatas and concerti to show off the pianos distinctive capabilities.
In context, which is the best way to deal with sentence 4 (reproduced below)? However, this remained the dominant keyboard instrument until Johann Sebastian Bach began to champion the piano in 1750. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Delete it. Switch it with sentence 3. Change However, to Even though. Change this to the harpsichord. Change began to begun.
10 Which of the following is the best version of the underlined portion of sentences 5 and 6 (reproduced below)? Manufacturers then adapted the piano to produce ever louder tones. So that composers could make better use of the pianos unique trait: its ability to play both piano (softly) and forte (loudly). (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) tones, because composers could use tones; and composers could make better use of tones, allowing composers to better use tones to make better use for composers of tones, and composers could make better use of
5
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Section 3
Time14 Minutes 10 Questions
3 3 3
Directions: This section contains two types of questions. You have 14 minutes to complete both types. For questions 14, solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. You may use any available space for scratchwork.
1. Calculator use is permitted. 2. All numbers used are real numbers.
Notes Reference Information
3. Figures are provided for some problems. All figures are drawn to scale and lie in a plane UNLESS otherwise indicated. 4. Unless otherwise specified, the domain of any function f is assumed to be the set of all real numbers x for which f (x) is a real number.
h b A = bh
2 1
a b
2x 30 3x
60
x s 45
2s
r A = r2 C = 2 r
r h w w V = r2h A= w V = wh
c2 = a2 + b2
45 s Special Right Triangles
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180. The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. A straight angle has a degree measure of 180.
Which of the following could be the value of y if 4y 7y + 6y = 27 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 9 2 1 6 9
d e 50 c a b 110
Note: Figure not drawn to scale. Which of the angles a, b, c, d, and e, shown in the figure above, is the greatest? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) a b c d e

6
Section 3
3 If 5 is the average (arithmetic mean) of 3 and r, and 9 is the average of 7 and s, then what is the average of r and s ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 5 7 9 15 23
3 3 3
1 O 1 x
Which of the following equations describes the graph above? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) y = 4 x2 y = 4 + x2 y = (4 x)2 y = (4 + x)2 y = 4x2

7
Section 3
Directions: For Student-Produced Response questions 510, use the grids on the answer sheet page.
3 3 3
Each of the remaining 6 questions requires you to solve the problem and enter your answer by marking the ovals in the special grid, as shown in the examples below. You may use any available space for scratchwork. Answer: 1.25 or Write answer in boxes. or 5/4 Fraction line Decimal point You may start your answers in any column, space permitting. Columns not needed should be left blank.
Grid in result.
It is recommended, though not required, that you write your answer in the boxes at the top of the columns. However, you will receive credit only for darkening the ovals correctly. Grid only one answer to a question, even though some problems have more than one correct answer. Darken no more than one oval in a column. No answers are negative. Mixed numbers cannot be gridded. For example: the 1 number 1 must be gridded as 1.25 or 5/4. 4 (If 1 not 1 ) 4 11 is gridded, it will be interpreted as , 4
Decimal Accuracy: Decimal answers must be entered as accurately as possible. For example, if you obtain an answer such as 0.1666. . ., you should record the result as .166 or .167. Less accurate values such as .16 or .17 are not acceptable. Acceptable ways to grid = .1666. . .
Tom took 20 books out of the library in 1990, and 45 books out of the library in 1991. In 1990, Mary took 30 books out of the library. The next year the number of books she took out increased by three times as much as the number of books Tom took out did. How many books did Mary take out in 1991 ?
(7 2)k + x If = 3x, where x is equal to 5, what is the 3 value of k ?

8
Section 3
Select an even number, k. 9
3 3 3
The square root of a positive number is the same as the original number divided by 35. What is the number?
If k is prime, add 5.
If k is not prime, add 3.
Divide the result by 3. 7
Divide the result by 3.
In the flowchart above, if the number k chosen in the first step is 4, what number will be the result of the third step?
Q T 14 S P 8 18 10 U R
10 The variables x and y represent numbers for which the y statements x y > 500 and x = 0.375 are true. What is the smallest integer that x can equal?
In the figure above, PQR and STU are similar. If the length of side P R is 42, what is the length of side P Q ?
9
STOP
Section 4
Time25 11 Minutes 10 Questions
4 4 4 4
Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.
Because Roberta had not ------- her company through the usual legal pathways, the Internal Revenue Service considered her firms tax-exempt status to be a ------matter. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) determined . . confirmed verified . . contradictory established . . disputable undermined . . adverse quantified . . specialized
The Legion of Honor is a chivalrous order founded by the Emperor Napoleon Bonaparte and now ------deserving citizens of France by the president of the nation. (A) conscripted to (B) consigned to (C) redeemed for (D) conferred upon (E) divested of

10
Section 4
4 4 4 4
The passages below are followed by questions based on their content; questions following a pair of related passages may also be based on the relationship between the paired passages. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passages and in any introductory material that may be provided. Questions 510 are based on the following passages. The significant extension of the human lifespan has become a distinct possibility in light of recent medical advances. This possibility goes beyond simply curing common fatal diseases such as cancer or heart disease; we may soon be able to extend our actual maximum lifespan from its current limit of around 120 years, to 130 years, 140 years, or even beyond. Each of the passages below discusses the potential benefits and disadvantages of this possible extension. Passage 1 Extending the maximum human lifespan would create serious societal and economic issues for an already overpopulated world. Not only would it worsen the already pressing problem of overpopulation, but it would render the task of caring for an increasingly elderly population nearly impossible. A huge part of our nations budget, as well as equally large portions of the budgets of most of the other nations in the world, is devoted to providing medical care, prescription drugs, and even physical assistance to the elderly. In fact, many countries have recently cut their budgets for senior health care because they already cannot afford it. We can only imagine how much more it would cost if everyone lived an additional 10 or 20 years. The extension of the human lifespan also has the possibility of expanding the current gulf between the wealthy and poor into an unbridgeable chasm. One must expect that when these life-extending treatments are made available to the general public, they will be extremely expensive and therefore only available to people with the highest incomes. If the wealthywho already have a longer average lifespan than the poor have 10 or 20 more years to accumulate wealth, the gap between the richest and poorest people in the world will only widen. Since extending the human lifespan has become a distinct possibility, many scientists have repeatedly reassured the public that extending the maximum human lifespan would also extend the healthy lifespan of humans, allowing us to work and stay healthy longer, and would therefore cause no additional burden on the health care systems of the world. They also claim that many of the treatments currently being researched could
Questions 34 are based on the following passage. The Bermuda Triangle is a 440,000-square mile area of ocean bordered by Florida, Bermuda, and Puerto Rico. Several ships and airplanes, including a fleet of five U.S. bombers, have disappeared when traveling through this triangle. Some blame a magnetic field for the disappearances, maintaining that magnetic forces cause fluctuations in compasses, and cause pilots and captains to veer off course unwittingly. A second explanation blames violent air currents for the missing crafts; strong wind storms, this theory holds, destroy the ships and sweep the wreckage away from the scene, never to be found. Still others believe there is a more sinister explanation for the disappearances, claiming that an unknown force mysteriously kidnaps the vessels. By this theory, the ships remain trapped in the Triangle, never to return. The author uses quotation marks around the word kidnaps (line 15) in order to (A) suggest that this is the theory with which the author agrees (B) emphasize the mysterious nature of this explanation (C) show that the word is being used figuratively (D) compare this explanation to the wind current theory (E) lend credibility to the explanation by implying a reference to another document 4 The explanation in lines 1215 differs most significantly from the others in that it (A) pertains only to airplanes (B) refers to a process that occurs in other parts of the world (C) is more widely accepted than the other theories (D) is concerned with preventing future disappearances (E) does not refer to a scientific phenomenon
Line (5)
(10)
(15)
Line (5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
(30)

11
Section 4
(35)
4 4 4 4
5 The authors of both passages agree that (A) the development of life-extending treatments raises difficult ethical questions (B) research into life-extending treatments should not be continued (C) life-extending treatments, when developed, should be distributed free to everyone (D) life-extending treatments will never actually be produced because they are too complex (E) the government should pass a law defining the legality of life-extending treatments 6 The author of Passage 1 includes the statement who alreadythe poor (lines 2122) to emphasize that (A) it is necessary that wealthy people live longer than poor people (B) extending the human lifespan will only widen the gap in the distribution of wealth (C) wealthy people need to give more money to charity (D) life-extending treatments will enable everyone to have longer lives (E) the cost of developing life-extending treatments should be paid by wealthy people 7 In line 27, distinct most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 8 separate different likely remote pleasing
be made available to all who wanted them. However, this optimism may not be warranted. It still stands to reason that a treatment as powerful and desirable as one that extends the human lifespan could not possibly reach all those who would desire to use it. Passage 2 In light of all the opposition from the scientific community and even the general public to the possibility of extending the human lifespan, it would be easy to assume that all research pertaining to the subject should be immediately discontinued. However, is the goal of extending human life necessarily a bad one? We have already been extending the average length of our lives by curing or diminishing many of the diseases, such as measles or smallpox, that used to kill many people early in life. I doubt many people would argue that we should not have developed the vaccines that prevent people from contracting those diseases. One common argument against the development of life-extending therapies is that these treatments would be only available to a relatively minute portion of the population. While there are many difficult ethical issues associated with expensive medical treatment, we cannot simply quit researching a potential treatment because of the costs associated with it. Many of our current treatments for diseases such as cancer were once extremely expensive but are now used all over the world for effective treatment. In some cases, it takes a long time for a particular treatment to become widely available, but that doesnt mean that it shouldnt be developed. But even if it is ethical to develop life-extending treatments, can the economies of the world even afford them? If many people were living 10 or 20 years longer than they currently do, would we have enough money to pay for all of the costs associated with all of these additional years of life? Until this point in history, societies have always found ways to pay for the expense created by new scientific discoveries. Often, these discoveries come with benefits that help to offset the cost; the same may be true with extending human lives. If extending the maximum human lifespan is something that many people desire, the potential cost should not discourage us from pursuing this goal.
(40)
(45)
(50)
(55)
(60)
(65)
The purpose of the sentence in lines 4548 (We havein life) is to argue that (A) dangerous diseases must be cured before science should work to extend the human lifespan (B) vaccines for potentially fatal diseases should not be developed (C) life-extending treatments, if developed, could take the place of traditional vaccines (D) the development of life-extending therapies may cause people to be more susceptible to common diseases (E) developing life-extending treatments is similar to curing fatal diseases
(70)
(75)

12
Section 4
9 In the questions at the beginning of the last paragraph of Passage 2 (lines 6570) the author suggests that (A) the development of life-extending treatments will be impossible due to their enormous costs (B) the potential costs of extending the human lifespan will not present a problem (C) wealthy people will be the only ones who can afford to pay for lifeextending treatments (D) the cost to society of lifeextending treatments is a larger problem than the cost to each individual (E) more scientists are needed to work on the development of life-extending treatments 10 Both authors agree that life-extending therapies (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) need to be regulated by governments should not be researched would initially be extremely expensive have the potential to improve the quality of life should be given free to all people
4 4 4 4
13
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Section 5
ENGLISH TEST
6 Minutes 10 Questions
Directions: In the following passage, certain words and phrases have been underlined and numbered. You will find alternatives for each underlined portion in the righthand column. Select the one that best expresses the idea, that makes the statement acceptable in standard written English, or that is phrased most consistently with the style and tone of the entire passage. If you feel that the original version is best, select NO CHANGE. You will also find questions asking about a section of the passage or about
5 5 5 5 5
the entire passage. For these questions, decide which choice gives the most appropriate response to the given question. For each question in the test, select the best choice, and fill in the corresponding space on your answer sheet. You may wish to read each passage through before you begin to answer the questions associated with it. Most answers cannot be determined without reading several sentences around the phrases in question. Make sure to read far enough ahead each time you choose an alternative.
Passage I Henrik Ibsen

The plays of Henrik Ibsen are generally thought to have marked the origin and the beginning of modern drama. 1 1. A. B. C. D. NO CHANGE original beginning beginning origin beginning
His having been a resident playwright in his native Norway, 2 Ibsen spent many years there, so perhaps it was natural that 2 his early plays, including The Vikings at Helgeland and The Pretenders, were based on Norwegian history. Before he left
2.
A. NO CHANGE B. In his native Norway, Ibsen spent many years there as a resident playwright, C. As a resident playwright in his native Norway, D. Ibsen spent many years as a resident playwright in his native Norway, A. B. C. D. NO CHANGE therefore, in fact, however,
the Norwegian theater, meanwhile, his dramatic themes 3 began to change, and he began to explore the inner lives of those whose personal philosophies were with convention at odds. One of his early verse plays, Loves Comedy, written in 1862, seemed to foreshadow the prose plays he wrote in 4 the future. In it, he presents a non-idealized version of marriage; a point of view which was quite uncommon for the 5 times.
3.
4.
A. B. C. D. A. B. C. D.
NO CHANGE writes would have written would write NO CHANGE marriagea marriage a marriage. A
5.

14
Section 5
[1] Even today, Ibsen heroines are favorites of actresses who find their strength and lack of convention challenging to portray. [2] These plays reflect Ibsens interest in the individuals search for an authentic identity within the strictures of society and are remarkable for their strong, independent female lead characters. [3] Ibsen is best known for the plays he wrote between 1877 and 1890, these include 6 A Dolls House, Ghosts, and Hedda Gabler. [4] The most controversial of these was A Dolls House, one movie critic likened it to dropping a bomb into 7 contemporary life. [5] Ibsen reluctantly wrote an alternative ending for the play, but the burgeoning feminist movement took the original Nora as a spokeswoman for its cause. [6] Some theaters actually refused to produce the play unless the ending, in which Nora Helmer leaves her husband and children, was changed. 8 8. 6. A. B. C. D.
5 5 5 5 5
NO CHANGE these plays include including included
7.
A. B. C. D.
NO CHANGE one movie critic, likening it to which one critic likened to who one critic likened to
Which of the following sequences of sentences makes this paragraph most logical? A. NO CHANGE B. 2, 3, 1, 4, 5, 6 C. 3, 2, 4, 6, 5, 1 D. 3, 4, 2, 1, 5, 6 A. B. C. D. NO CHANGE years that were later in later of the years in later years of
In the years that were the later ones of Ibsens career, his 9 plays became more symbolic, and his characters turned their questions from society to their inner selves. Such works as The Master Builder and When We Dead Awaken are thought to reflect his own regret at having devoted his life to his work, to the exclusion of close personal relationships.
9.

15
Section 5
5 5 5 5 5
Question 10 asks about the preceding passage as a whole.
10. Suppose the writer had been assigned to write an essay on the development of modern drama. Would this essay fulfill that assignment? A. No, because it only discusses one playwright. B. No, because Ibsens work preceded the development of modern drama. C. Yes, because Ibsens works are thought to mark the beginning of modern drama. D. Yes, because a number of Ibsens plays are discussed.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST. 16
STOP
NO TEST MATERIAL ON THIS PAGE
Section 6
6 6 6 6 6 6
MATHEMATICS TEST
10 Minutes10 Questions
Directions: Solve each of the following problems, select the correct answer, and then fill in the corresponding space on your answer sheet. Dont linger over problems that are too time-consuming. Do as many as you can, then come back to the others in the time you have remaining. The use of a calculator is permitted on this test. Though you are allowed to use your calculator to solve any questions you choose, some of the questions may be most easily answered without the use of a calculator.
Note: Unless otherwise noted, all of the following should be assumed. 1. 2. 3. 4. Illustrative figures are not necessarily drawn to scale. All geometric figures lie in a plane. The term line indicates a straight line. The term average indicates arithmetic mean.
1.
Simone has $6.00 to spend on soda and lemonade. Soda costs $1.00 per 2-liter bottle and lemonade costs $1.50 per 2-liter bottle. Which of the following could be the number of bottles of lemonade she purchased if she used all the money? I. 0 II. 2 III. 3 A. B. C. D. E. I only II only I and II only I and III only I, II, and III
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.

18
Section 6
2. Last month, a clothing store sold a total of $48,000 of merchandise. The pie chart below shows how much each clothing category contributed to the total sales. In dollars, what were the combined total sales of jeans and khakis last month? Sweaters 15% Accessories 5%
6 6 6 6 6 6
Shirts 25%
Jeans 30% Khakis 25%
A. B. C. D. E. 3.
$7,000 $14,400 $21,600 $24,000 $26,400
Sides A O and D O of square AODE lie on the diagonals of square ABCD, as shown below. If the area of square ABCD is 64 square inches, what is the area of square AODE, in square inches? E A D
O B A. B. C. D. E. 8 16 32 42 50.5 C

19
Section 6
4. The sum of the measures of X and Y is 90 and the sum of the measures of Y and Z is 90. Which of the following must be true about X and Z ? X and Z are congruent. X and Z form a right angle. X and Z form a straight line. The degree measure of X is less than the degree measure of Z. E. The degree measure of X is greater than the degree measure of Z. A. B. C. D. 5. If the lines l and m, shown below, are parallel, which of the following must be true? d a e b A. B. C. D. E. 6. b = d c = d d = e a + f = 180 d + e = 180 c f l
6 6 6 6 6 6
At 9 A.M. on Monday, a researcher measured the mass of a sample of a certain radioactive element to be 1 gram. The half-life of this element, or the time it takes for half of a sample to decay, is known to be 4 hours. What does the researcher expect the mass of the sample, in grams, to be at 9 A.M. on Tuesday? 1 A. 64 1 B. 32 1 C. 9 1 D. 8 1 E. 2

20
Section 6
7. In the figure below, D, E, F, G, H, and J are collinear points. Point H bisects G J . The sum of the lengths of 3 EF and GH is 15. The length of F G is the length of 4 H J . If the length of D E is half the length of FG , and the length of DE is 3, how long is EJ ? E A. B. C. D. E. 16 23 26.5 29 32 F G H J
6 6 6 6 6 6
8.
If you rolled a die, the probability of getting a 1 would 1 be . If you rolled a die 3 times, what would be the 6 probability of getting a 1 all 3 times? 1 A. 1,296 1 B. 216 1 C. 18 1 D. 6 1 E. 2

21
Section 6
9. For a science fair project, Tristan took measurements of the weight of his pet mouse as it grew from infancy to adulthood. He found that the mouses weight increased rapidly during its first few weeks of life, then increased more slowly as the mouse approached adulthood. Which of the following graphs could represent the relationship Tristan found between time (t) and the mouses weight (w) ? A. w
6 6 6 6 6 6
B.
C. w
D. w
E. w

22
Section 6
10. Salma, Luis, and Veronica are siblings. Salma is half as old as Veronica, and Veronica is 3 years younger than Luis. If Luis is L years old, what is the sum of the three childrens ages? 5 9 A. L 2 2 5 3 B. L 2 2 C. 2L 3 1 9 D. L 2 2 1 3 E. L 2 2
6 6 6 6 6 6
23
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Section 7
7 7 7 7 7 7 7
READING TEST
9 Minutes 10 Questions
Directions: This test contains a passage followed by several questions. After reading the passage, select the best answer to each question and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer sheet. You are allowed to refer to the passage while answering the questions.
Passage I
HUMANITIES: This passage is adapted from the article Indians Win Back Sacred Art by John Anner, which appeared in The Progressive in January, 1993. Reprinted by permission from The Progressive, www.progressive.org, 409 E Main St, Madison, WI 53703.
In no village in the Andes are the textiles more

40 ancient, more beautiful, or more valued than in Coroma,
The spirits of our ancestors were lonely, and they called to us, is how Pio Cruz, an Amyra Indian from Bolivia, explained his community's search for their sacred ceremonial weavings. Cruz and his fellow vil5 lagers from the little town of Coroma, nestled high in the Bolivian Andes, accomplished a rare feat in November. After four years of struggle, they managed to recover the sacred art they had lost to the North American art market. At the outset, the task seemed hopeless. How could
10 an impoverished village of 6,000 inhabitantsmost of
Bolivia. Since before Columbus landed in the Americas, the people of Coroma have hidden away their sacred weavings, bringing them out only on November 1st, the Day of the Dead, when the garments are ritually displayed 45 in an all-day celebration of the connection between the world of the living and the universe of the deceased. Unfortunately for the Coromans, the unsurpassed quality and antiquity of their weavings make them highly valuable on international marketsa fact that did not escape deal50 ers in South American art and antiquities. According to Cristina Bubba, a social scientist who has lived and worked in Coroma for more than ten years, some of these dealers took advantage of the November 1st celebration to photograph the best weavings. Then 55 they took the photographs to Bolivian intermediaries, instructing them to obtain the garments. Over the course of five or six years, at least 200 of the finest and most precious weavings left Coroma for the United States, to make their way onto the walls of collectors wealthy enough to 60 pay tens of thousands of dollars for each one. Several of the Bolivian intermediaries have since been convicted of theft and imprisoned, along with some of the Coromans who were entrusted with the weavings care. Under the 1983 Cultural Property Implementation
65 Act, the United States Information Agency has the power
whom do not speak Spanish, never mind Englishhope to force wealthy art collectors and dealers in the United States to hand over goods for which they had paid high prices? The Coromans managed to catalyze a network of 15 lawyers, anthropologists, Native American activists, U.S. Customs officials, and the Bolivian government, to pressure the dealers and collectors into returning the weavings. It was an amazing case, says Michael Ratner, a lawyer at the Center for Constitutional Rights who 20 helped the Coromans get the weavings back. I really have to hand it to them. That they were able to do this makes you believe that there really is another dimension, a spirit world. Indeed, the Coromans themselves say that their achievement was due to the intervention of the 25 ancestral spirits who reside in the weavings and from the help they got from Native spirits in North America. High in the Andean mountains of Bolivia, expert Amyra weavers once produced woven garments with vibrant colors and the texture of silk for the Inca nobles. 30 The Incas are long gone but, remarkably, some of the weavings in use at that time remain. These ancient garments are worshipped in many parts of the Andes; they are not only consulted as oracles and venerated as encoding the history of the people, but are 35 believed to contain the souls of the ancestors. Carefully preserved in bundles called qepis, the weavings survived the Spanish conquest and the brutal anti-Indian policies of many Bolivian goverments. 24
to declare that articles from a particular country or culture cannot be legally imported into the United States. This ban has to be requested by the country of origin before it can take effect (a stipulation added after intense lobbying by 70 art dealers). Currently there is a five-year ban on the importation of Coroma textiles, which have been recognized as being owned communally by the Indians and of important historic, religious, and social significance in their daily lives, 75 according to the USIA. But the ban was not yet in effect when many of the Coroma weavings left Bolivia, so the Coroma Indians negotiated a settlement to get back some, but not all, of their weavings.
Section 7
80
7 7 7 7 7 7 7
5. According to the passage, the Coromans weavings were first produced: A. before the Spanish conquest. B. after Columbus landed in the Americas. C. immediately before the formation of the Cultural Property Implementation Act. D. after the disappearance of the Incan people. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Coroman weavings? A. Their colors were often subdued and earthy. B. They are usually kept hidden away. C. They are among the most valuable textiles in the region. D. They are still used in the Coroman culture. The phrase High-society collectors were jolted into handing over a small number of the weavings (lines 8081) implies that: A. the collectors did not realize the value of the weavings. B. the collectors were pressured to return some of the weavings. C. physical punishment was used to force the collectors to return the weavings. D. the weavings had such an emotional impact on the collectors that they returned them. The passage suggests that the struggle to return the Coromans weavings has proven to be: A. a disappointing example of legal failings. B. encouraging to art collectors interested in the work of native peoples. C. largely successful, but still incomplete. D. a useful lesson to cultural anthropologists. The passage suggests that the Coromans believe that their weavings were returned primarily because of: A. the harsh stance that the Bolivian government has taken against art exportation. B. the diligent work of lawyers and activists. C. the agency of spirits embodied within the weavings themselves. D. the efforts of the United States Information Agency.
High-society collectors were jolted into handing over a small number of the weavings when they realized they might have to endure vociferous public protests on the part of Native American activists. A San Francisco art dealer was persuaded to turn over forty85 three weavings after Customs raided his home and warehouse. I hope this shows Native people that they can win, says Susan Lobo, a cultural anthropologist who played a key role in the fight. And I hope it sends a message to 90 collectors that it is wrong to buy items of veneration, especially those in use by living cultures. Meanwhile, in Coroma, the people are very happy, says Bubba. This thing in Coroma is the start of something new; it is going to open a new road.
6.
7. 1. The passage indicates that thze Amyra Indians weavings were once produced for which group of people? A. Bolivian intermediaries B. the villagers of Coroma C. Inca nobles D. Andean artisans In the first paragraph, the author attributes the success of the attempt at retrieving Coroman weavings to the assistance of all of the following EXCEPT: A. ancestral and native spirits. B. lawyers from the Center for Constitutional Rights. C. Native American activists. D. U.S. Customs officials. As it is used in line 14, the word catalyze most nearly means: A. oppose a group of B. increase the rate of C. elicit the support of D. systematically analyze It is reasonable to infer that the weavings are valuable to the Coromans primarily because: A. they are used during the Day of the Dead celebration. B. international collectors are willing to pay high prices to obtain them. C. they represent their ancestors struggles against the anti-Indian Bolivian government. D. they have a great degree of spiritual and cultural significance.
2.
8.
3.
9.
4.

25
Section 7
10. The passage suggests that the Coromans weavings are: I. made of a type of Bolivian cotton with a silky texture. II. the remnants of Incan ceremonial garb. III. ancient artifacts once made by Amrya Indians. A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. I, II, and III
7 7 7 7 7 7 7
26
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NO TEST MATERIAL ON THIS PAGE
Section 8
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
SCIENCE TEST 9 Minutes10 Questions
Directions: This test contains two passages, each followed by several questions. After reading each passage, select the best answer to each question and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer sheet. You may refer to the passages while answering the questions. You may NOT use a calculator on this test.
Passage I
Zoologists hypothesized that the feeding habits of young mice are affected by 3 factors: gender, ambient temperature, and the proximity of other mice. To investigate 2 of these factors, the zoologists performed studies using a collection of environmentally controlled and structurally identical enclosures (E1E7). To eliminate the influence of gender, the zoologists used only male mice. Study 1 Enclosure E1 was maintained at 15C, E2 at 25C, and E3 at 35C, and each enclosure contained the same number of male mice. The mice in E1 consumed the most food of the 3 groups during the study, while those in E3 consumed the least. Study 2 To measure the effects of changing temperatures, the temperatures in enclosures E1 and E2 were varied between 15C and 35C over the course of a week. At all times during the week, the temperatures of the 2 enclosures were equal to each other. The mass of food, measured in grams (g), consumed by the mice in each enclosure each day appears in Table 1. Table 1 Enclosure E1 E2 Mass of food (g) consumed Day 1 Day 2 Day 3 Day 4 Day 5 Day 6 Day 7 52 50 35 36 68 69 40 38 51 52 48 47 47 48
Table 2 Average Mouse Average body length Food Enclosure population weight gain increase abundance density (g) (mm) E4 E5 E6 E7 1. high high low low low high low high 0.2 0.7 0.8 1.5 2 4 5 9
According to Study 3, which of the following factors results in mice with the largest average weight gain? A. High population density and low food abundance B. High population density and high food abundance C. Low population density and low food abundance D. Low population density and high food abundance The zoologists next tested an eighth enclosure and found the average mouse body length increase to be 11 mm after 7 days. According to this information and the results of Studies 1, 2, and 3, which of the following conclusions is most valid about the conditions in this enclosure? A. Population density was low, food abundance was high, and the temperature was above 25C. B. Population density was low, food abundance was high, and the temperature was below 25C. C. Population density was high, food abundance was low, and the temperature was above 25C. D. Population density was high, food abundance was low, and the temperature was below 25C.
2.
Study 3 The population density of mice and the food abundance were varied in enclosures E4E7, which were all maintained at 25C. After 7 days, measurements of average mouse weight gain (measured in grams) and increase in body length, measured in millimeters (mm), were recorded and appear in Table 2.

28
Section 8
3. Which of the following most accurately reflects a conclusion that can be drawn from the results of Studies 1 and 2 ? A. Temperature has no effect on the feeding habits of young mice. B. The temperature in both enclosures during Day 2 of Study 2 was closer to 15C than the temperature on any other day. C. The temperature in both enclosures during Day 3 of Study 2 was closer to 35C than the temperature on any other day. D. The temperature in both enclosures during Day 3 of Study 2 was closer to 15C than the temperature on any other day. Assume that wild mice live in a location where drought has caused food abundance to fall significantly below average for a season. Which of the following would be the most likely effect on young male mice at this location during this season? A. Rate of weight gain would be above average. B. Rate of weight gain would be below average. C. Rate of body length increase would be above average. D. Rate of body length increase would be approximately average.
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
5. Zoologists observed a population of male mice for which the average rate of mouse weight gain increased as food abundance decreased. Which of the following explanations would best account for this result and be consistent with the results of Studies 1, 2, and 3 ? A. The mouse population density was high. B. The ambient temperature was higher than 35C. C. The mouse population density decreased as the food abundance decreased. D. The mouse population density increased as the food abundance decreased.
4.

29
Section 8
Passage II
Resistivity is a measure of how efficiently an electric current passes through a material. In general, the resistivity of a semiconductor decreases when some of the atoms of its crystal lattice are replaced by atoms of a different element. The dopant atoms (those introduced to the semiconductor crystal) are classified into two categories, p-type and n-type. Figure 1 shows the relationship between resistivity, measured in ohm-centimeters (cm), and dopant concentration, measured in atoms per cubic centimeter (atoms/cm3), for silicon (Si, a semiconductor) at room temperature.
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
Table 2 Dopant information Concentration Temperature Mobility Trial Element Type (K) (cm2/V/s) (atoms/cm3) 3 4 5 6 7 8 As As As P P P n n n n n n 1.8 x 1016 1.8 x 1016 1.8 x 1016 1.3 x 1017 1.3 x 1017 1.3 x 1017 50 100 300 50 100 300 13,400 5,200 1,300 5,300 2,900 900
104 103 102 101 100 101 102 103
resistivity ( cm)
6. p n
A comparison of Trials 3 and 4 suggests that which of the following factors affects Si electron mobility? A. Dopant type B. Dopant concentration C. Temperature D. Resistivity Assume a scientist wishes to determine whether dopant concentration affects Si electron mobility. Which of the following pairs of trials in Table 2 should the scientist compare? A. Trials 3 and 4 B. Trials 4 and 6 C. Trials 5 and 6 D. Trials 5 and 8 Which of the following hypotheses about Si dopants at room temperature is most strongly supported by the results shown in Figure 1? A. Si resistivity is higher for p-type dopants than for ntype dopants at a given dopant concentration. B. Si resistivity is higher for n-type dopants than for ptype dopants at a given dopant concentration. C. The higher the resistivity, the higher the electron mobility. D. The higher the resistivity, the lower the electron mobility.
104 12 10 1013 1014 1015 1016 1017 1018 1019 1020 1021 concentration N (atoms/cm3) Figure 1
Adapted from the Ioffe Physico-Technical Institutes Electronic Archive of New Semiconductor Materials; Characteristics and Properties (http://www.ioffe.ru/SVA/NSM)
7.
8. Room-temperature values for the resistivity of Si for two specific dopants, gallium (Ga) and arsenide (As), are shown in Table 1. Table 1 Trial 1 2 Dopant information Concentration Si resistivity Element Type (.cm) (atoms/cm3) Ga As p n 8 x 1016 2 x 1015 0.3 2.7
Mobility is a measure of the ability of an individual electron to move through a semiconductor, and it is closely related to resistivity and dopant concentration. Table 2 shows values of Si electron mobility, measured in square centimeters per Volt per second (cm2/V/s), for arsenide and phosphorous (P) dopants, at different temperatures, measured in Kelvin (K), and dopant concentrations.

30
Section 8
9. Indium (In) acts as a p-type dopant in Si. According to Figure 1 and Table 1, an In concentration of 8 1016 atoms/cm3 would yield a Si resistivity of approximately: A. 0.1 cm. B. 0.3 cm. C. 2.7 cm. D. larger than 2.7 cm.
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
10. Based on Table 2, approximately what would be the Si electron mobility for a phosphorous dopant concentration of 1.3 1017 at a temperature of 75 K? A. 900 cm2/V/s B. 2,900 cm2/V/s C. 4,100 cm2/V/s D. 5,300 cm2/V/s
STOP
31
SCORING YOUR TEST

SAT: On Test Day, for each section (Critical Reading, Math, and Writing), your score will range from 200-800. Your total score is the sum of these three and can range from 600-2400. ACT: On Test Day, for each Test (English, Math, Reading, and Science), your score will range from 1-36. Your combined score is the average of these four, and also ranges from 1-36. Your performance on the quizzes in this test is only a rough guide to your abilities and skills and is in no way meant to predict your actual Test Day performance.
Step 1: Score Your SAT Essay

Self-score your essay using the following criteria. On the actual SAT, the essay accounts for approximately 25% of your Writing scaled score. 6 OutstandingThough it may have a few small errors, the essay is well organized and fully developed with supporting examples. It displays consistent language facility, varied sentence structure, and varied vocabulary. 5 SolidThough it has occasional errors or lapses in quality, the essay is generally organized and well developed with appropriate examples. It displays language facility, syntactic variety, and varied vocabulary. 4 AdequateThough it has some flaws, the essay is organized and adequately developed and has some examples. It displays adequate but inconsistent language facility. 3 LimitedThe essay does not adequately fulfill the writing assignment and has many flaws. It has inadequate organization and development, along with many errors in grammar or diction (or both). In general, the essay lacks variety. 2 FlawedThe essay demonstrates incompetence with one or more weaknesses. Ideas are vague and thinly developed. It contains frequent errors in grammar and diction and almost no variety. 1 DeficientThe essay demonstrates incompetence with serious flaws. It has no organization, no development, and severe grammar and diction errors. The essay is so seriously flawed that its basic meaning is obscured. 0 Off-TopicThe essay does not follow the assignment. How did you rate your essay? If you did not get as high a score on the essay as you would like and need, dont worry-Kaplan has designed a writing course to help you correctly answer grammar questions and write a strong essay under extreme time pressure.
Step 2: Compute Your Percent Correct

SAT: Check your answers against the Answers and Explanations on the preceding pages. Count up the number of answers you got right and the number you got wrong for each section, then enter your results in the table on the next page. Remember, do not count questions left blank as wrong. Note: Grid-in questions do not have a wrong-answer penalty, so do not deduct anything for wrong answers. ACT: Check your answers against the Answers and Explanations on the preceding pages. Count the number of answers you got right and enter your results in the table on the next page.
SAT Section 2 Writing # Right _____ Section 3 Math # M-C Right

(Questions 1-4)
ACT Section 5 English 1/4 # Wrong 1/4 _____ + # Grid Ins Right
(Questions 5-10)
= % Correct
# Right
= % Correct
= _____ 10 = _____% = _____ 10 = _____% _____ Section 6 Math = % Correct # Right = % Correct = _____ 10 = _____%
1/4 # M-C Wrong
_____ Section 4 Critical Reading # Right _____
1/4 _____ + _____
= _____ 10 = _____% _____ Section 7 Reading
1/4 # Wrong 1/4 _____
= % Correct
# Right
= % Correct = _____ 10 = _____%
= _____ 10 = _____% _____ Section 8 Science # Right _____
= % Correct = _____ 10 = _____%
Step 3: Compare your Results

Compare your SAT Writing and ACT English scores. While these two tests are not identical (SAT has three question types and ACT has one), you will get a sense whether you do much better on one than the other. Count the number wrong you got on the SAT. Is this lowering your score? Learning some Kaplan elimination strategies will help reduce the number of wrong answers you have on Test Day. Now compare your SAT Math and ACT Math. There are three main differences between these two tests: the SAT has a wrong answer penalty, the SAT contains Grid-Ins, and the ACT contains trigonometry questions. Compare your two % correct scores. Is one much higher than the other? In Kaplan classes, we will teach you our proven math strategies, such as Picking Numbers and Backsolving, to help you get the best possible math score on either test. Now compare your SAT Critical Reading and ACT Reading scores. There are three main differences between these two tests: the SAT contains both short and long passages whereas the ACT has only long passages, the SAT includes sentence completion questions, and the SAT has a wrong answer penalty. Compare your two % correct scores. Is your SAT score much higher? Maybe youre acing the sentence completions because of your great vocabulary. Is your ACT score higher? Maybe the SAT wrong answer penalty is dragging you down. In Kaplan classes, our carefully chosen teachers teach our proven methods and strategies to raise your SAT Critical Reading and ACT Reading scores. We will also offer you a vast array of resources, from practice tests to flashcards to online activities that will help improve your skills. Now look at your Science score. No comparison here: Science is not tested on the SAT. If you do well with science and scientific reasoning, then consider the ACT.
Explanations
Section 1 (SAT WritingEssay)

Grade 6 Essay
As humans, we can sometimes have an antagonistic relationship with the natural world. On too many occasions, we look at nature as something that must be overcome or improved upon. We have the tools and knowledge to alter our own environment, but we often do not have the foresight to see how those alterations might affect the natural world in the long run. In order to avoid damaging or even destroying the natural world, we must be cautious and thoughtful about the way we interact with and use our natural resources. Over the past ten years or so, there has been much discussion about pollution and global warming. Most scientific evidence shows that air pollutants produced in mass quantities by humans have been having a cumulative effect on the atmosphere. Air pollution has damaged the ozone layer, so more sunlight reaches the Earths surface. The net effect of this is that the Earths average temperature is slowly increasing because of the irresponsible way humans have allowed pollution to increase. Effects of global warming include raised sea levels (which can wipe out coastal areas), changing weather patterns (which can effect crop production), and warmer oceans (which contributes to the strength of tropical storms and hurricanes). Thus, by not respecting the delicate balance of the Earths atmosphere, we have harmed ourselves. Pollution is not the only area in which it becomes apparent that we must have respect for the natural world. Through years of study, environmentalists have found that ecosystems have very delicate balances. Changing any part of the ecosystem can cause disastrous changes that are magnified throughout the ecosystem. A famous example of this occurred in Australia. Originally, the country did not have any rabbits. But some people imported a small group of rabbits that was released into the countryside. Within a few years, the rabbit population was out of control. There was no natural predator of rabbits in Australia, so there was nothing to keep the population in check. As the rabbits reproduced exponentially, they ruined endless acres of vegetation by overgrazing; in addition, some other native species were wiped out. To this day, Australia has a serious problem controlling the rabbit population. A workable and longterm solution has not been achieved in over 100 years of dealing with the problem. If people had had more respect for the natural system, they might have thought that introducing a new species could cause serious problems. All of this is not to suggest that we should step back from scientific and technological advancements and allow ourselves to be at the mercy of natures whims. Instead, we must have respect for the power of nature and always remember that we are a part of the natural world. We must act responsibly as we progress and examine the potential effects of our advancement before we put things into motion. Indeed, we must respect the natural world in the way that is suggested by the often-used title Mother Earth. Graders Comments: This essay provides a clear, direct answer to the prompt question, and each paragraph provides support for this answer. The essay is well organized, with an introduction, body paragraphs, and conclusion, indicating that the writer took adequate time formulating a plan. Strong transitions are used to connect ideas between and within paragraphs, making the essay flow smoothly. The two body paragraphs present specific details to support the writers position. In addition, the reasoning in the conclusion shows a fair amount of critical thought. The writer exhibits strong vocabularysuch as foresight, cumulative, and exponentiallythroughout the essay. In addition, the writer successfully uses a variety of sentence structures. Although there are a few minor errors, none of the errors affects readability.
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
36
section one
Grade 4 Essay
Human progress cannot happen without our respect for the natural world. No matter how far we advance in science and technology we wont be able to change the rules of the natural world. This includes weather, earthquakes, and other natural disasters. How we treat the natural world will have a lot to do with how much progress the human race can make for the next generations. To start with, there is no way that people can stop the weather. An example of this are hurricanes. Over the past few years there has been a lot of hurricanes that have caused serious damage and killed people. They have the technology to track the storms and evacuate people ahead of time, but they dont have anything that can stop or move a hurricane. And even when we do know a hurricane is coming it can be impossible to evacuate everyone in time. Thats what happened in New Orleans with Katrina, and that storm left damage that will take years for them to recover from. So no matter how advanced we are, mother nature always can be more powerful than us. Thats one reason that we need to respect the natural world. That means things like protecting wetlands and the rainforest and thinking about the way we use resources. We also need to respect the world because we need it to survive. The oxygen we breathe comes from plants and trees, and the food that we eat comes from the earth. If we destroy to many trees and forests then the quality of our air decreases. The quality of the soil affects the quality of the food. So if there are pollutions in the soil, those pollutions get into the food that we eat and make people sick. Weve got aways to go with technology before we arent depending on the quality of the earths soil, water, and air for our health and survival. Finally, any kind of scientific progress needs to rely on the rules of the natural world. For example the rules of gravity are a part of the equation of how planes and rockets fly. Thats just one natural rule that we need to respect and work with. The whole human set of chromosomes was recently mapped out. They will probably be able to make lots of cures for diseases based on this knowledge but they must respect the genetic structure of humans. It would get too out of hand if scientists started messing around with human genes, like with cloning or taking genes from other animals. All in all, there is no way to escape from the fact that humans have to respect nature. It is something that in the end we cant control. We can just find ways to work with or work around nature, not conquer it. We should think of nature as our partner instead of like an enemy we need to outwit Graders Comments: The essay addresses the question in the prompt and generally remains focused on this issue. The introduction and conclusion employ keywords from the prompt. Organization in the essay is good, with a clear introduction, body paragraphs, and conclusion, indicating a well-thought-out plan. Simple transitions are used to connect the ideas between paragraphs. Each body paragraph presents sound reasoning in support of the writers position, with somewhat detailed examples. In general, the writer uses simple words and sentence structures. There are several distracting errors, including mistakes in subjectverb agreement and pronoun use. In addition, some language (such as messing around with) is too slangy for a formal essay.
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
37
section one
Grade 1 Essay
When I was in eighth grade (I think) we read a great story called To Build A Fire, it was about this guy who was out hiking in the wilderness. I think he was a part of the gold rush. It was the dead of winter and he was all by himself but he kept on going and going through the snow. He could of stopped at any time to build a camp and a fire where he could safely spend the night, have something to eat, and make the part of his trip the next morning, but he didnt stop. He ignored all of the warning signs of cold and tired because he was so stubborn. He wanted to get to his place that night. I think to get money or make a deal or something. So by the time he finally stops and tries to make a fire because he realizes he cant make it there that night its too late. He cant get the fire going because his fingers are so numb from the cold. He doesnt have the energy left to keep walking so he dies from the cold. This story has always stuck with me. The man in the story should of listened to what his instinct was telling him instead of to his pride. He should of stopped and build a fire much earlier. So everybody could learn a lot from this story about how to respect nature more and why its important. Graders Comments: This essay only partially addresses the prompt question, discussing the need for humans to respect nature but failing to discuss how this is related to human progress. The essay focuses more on a plot summary of the short story than on a response to the question posed in the assignment. Though the essay has a conclusion, there is no introduction to help the reader connect the summary of the story to the question in the Prompt. The essay provides several details about the short story, but these details act mostly as plot summary instead of as support for the authors position. Although the errors in the essay do not obscure the writers meaning, several errors are distracting (including runon sentences, verb tense shifts, and the incorrect constructions could of and should of).
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
38
section one
Section 2 (SAT Writing)

1. B Strategic Advice: Dont mistake the object of a preposition for the subject of a verb. Getting to the Answer: This is a common test maker trap. While the plural executives is closer to the verb here, its subject is actually the singular each. (B), (C), and (E) all change the verb to the singular was, but (C) misuses the semicolon splice, which is only correct when used to combine independent clauses, and (E) creates a grammatically incorrect sentence. (D) does not address the error; additionally, it creates a run-on sentence. Strategic Advice: The past perfect verb tense is only correct to refer to an action completed prior to another stated past action. Getting to the Answer: Since this sentence does not mention an action completed prior to the decision to order the tickets, the simple past tense decided is correct. (B) creates a sentence fragment. (D) and (E) introduce verb tenses that are inappropriate in context. Strategic Advice: The ing verb form can never be the predicate verb in a sentence. Getting to the Answer: The sentence as written is a fragment. (B) adds the necessary predicate verb. (C) and (E) do not address the error. (D) creates a grammatically incorrect sentence. Strategic Advice: The shortest answer choice will not always be correct, but its a good place to start. Getting to the Answer: All of the choices here but (E) are unnecessarily wordy. Strategic Advice: If all of the answer choices are longer than the original, make sure any additions are necessary for logic or grammatical correctness. Getting to the Answer: This sentence is correct as written. All of the other choices are unnecessarily wordy. Strategic Advice: When a sentence presents a comparison, make sure that logical items are being compared. Getting to the Answer: As written, this sentence compares residents of India to any other country. (D) should read residents of any other country or those of any other country. (A) is correct idiomatic usage. (B) agrees with its plural subject, residents. (C) correctly completes the idiomatic comparison morethan. Strategic Advice: Make sure verb tenses logically sequence events in a sentence. Getting to the Answer: We know that this sentence is describing the past because of the opening phrase; the present tense verb in (B) should be achieved or had achieved. (A) and (D) are correct idiomatic usage. (C) properly uses an adverb to modify a verb phrase.
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
39
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
section two
8.
Strategic Advice: The verb form considered in this context requires the infinitive. Getting to the Answer: (B) should read to be. (A) agrees with its singular subject; although the title is plural, only one book is mentioned. (C) and (D) are idiomatically correct in contest. Strategic Advice: If a pronoun could logically refer to more than one antecedent noun, the pronoun is ambiguous. Getting to the Answer: Here, this could refer to the harpsichord, the clavichord, or the piano, all of which are mentioned in the previous sentence. Changing this to the harpsichord eliminates the ambiguity. None of the other answer choices addresses the ambiguity error; additionally, switching sentences 3 and 4 interrupts the chronological flow of the essay; changing However, to Even though creates a sentence fragment; and the verb form suggested in (E) is incorrect without a helping verb. Strategic Advice: A sentence may have multiple nouns and verbs and still be a fragment. Getting to the Answer: Sentence 6, as written, is actually a fragment. (C) combines the sentences to both eliminate the sentence fragment and properly relate the two ideas. (A) reverses the cause-and-effect relationship between the two sentences. (B) misuses the semicolon splice, which is only correct when used to combine two independent clauses. (D) is awkward. (E) loses the cause-and-effect relationship present in the original sentences.
section two
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Section 3 (SAT Math)

1. E Strategic Advice: The first step in solving an equation is to get all the terms with the variable on one side. Sometimes thats already been done for you. Getting to the Answer: Combine like terms and solve for the variable. 4y 7y + 6y = 27 3y = 27 y=9 Strategic Advice: Whenever you see intersecting lines, look for vertical and supplementary angles. Getting to the Answer: Find the measure of each angle marked in the figure. The angles marked b and 110 form a straight line, so they are supplementary and b = 180 110 = 70. The measure of angle a can be found from the triangle in the figure: a + b + 50 = 180, so a = 180 b 50 = 180 70 50 = 60. Angles a and c are supplementary, so c = 180 a = 180 60 = 120. Angles d and 50 are vertical, so d = 50. Angles e and 50 are supplementary, so e = 180 50 = 130. Therefore, angle e is the greatest of these five angles. Strategic Advice: Whenever you see an average, youll need the three-part formula sum of terms average = . If you know any two parts of the three-part formula, number of terms you can find the third. Getting to the Answer: First, solve for r: 3+r 5 = 2 10 = 3 + r 7=r Next, solve for s: 7+s 9 = 2 18 = 7 + s 11 = s Finally, find the average of r and s: 7 + 11 = 9 2 Strategic Advice: When you need to match a graph on the coordinate plane with an equation, test the equations by plugging in (x, y) points from the graph. Getting to the Answer: Eliminate the equations that are not satisfied by the coordinates of the points on the graph. Start with points that are easy to work with, like (0, 4). For x = 0: (A) y = 4 02 = 4. Keep it. (B) y = 4 + 02 = 4. Keep it. (C) y = (4 0)2 = 42 = 16 4. Eliminate. (D) y = (4 + 0)2 = 42 = 16 4. Eliminate. (E) y = 4(02) = 0 4. Eliminate. To choose between (A) and (B), consider the point (2, 0). For x = 2: (A) y = 4 22 = 4 4 = 0. Keep it. (B) y = 4 + 22 = 4 + 4 = 8. Eliminate. The only answer choice that works for all the points on the graph is (A).
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2.
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section three
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105 Strategic Advice: To avoid confusion, make sure you work systematically when you translate a word problem from English to math. Getting to the Answer: In 1990, Tom took out 20 books, and in 1991 he took out 45 books, so the number of books he took out increased by 25 from one year to the next. The increase in the number of books Mary took out is three times that, or 25 3 = 75. In 1990 Mary took out 30 books, so in 1991 she took out 30 + 75 = 105 books.
section three
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Strategic Advice: Work methodically and follow PEMDAS. Getting to the Answer: Begin by simplifying the expression in parentheses and substituting 5 for x. Then, do the same thing to both sides of the equation until you have isolated k. (7 2)k + x = 3x 3 5k + 5 = 15 3 5k + 5 = 45 5k = 40 k=8
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7 2.33 or 3 Strategic Advice: A prime number has only itself and 1 as factors. The only even prime number is 2. Getting to the Answer: The number 4 is not a prime number, so follow the right branch of the flowchart and add 3 to it to obtain 7. Dividing this value by 3 gives you 7 2.33. 3 98 or 32.6 or 32.7 3 Strategic Advice: In similar triangles, the ratios of the lengths of corresponding sides are equal. Getting to the Answer: Triangles PQR and STU are similar, so the measures of their corresponding angles are equal. Since the figure is drawn to scale, you can tell corresponds to PR that STU = PQR and SUT = PRQ. You can tell that SU and S T corresponds to P Q . The ratios of the lengths of these sides are equal. SU ST = PR PQ 18 14 = 42 PQ 18PQ = 14(42) 18PQ = 588 588 98 32.7 PQ = = = 32.6 18 3
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1225 Strategic Advice: This question is difficult because it expresses an equation in English. Simply translate methodically from English into math, and then solve the resulting equation. Getting to the Answer: Translating the problem into math, you get: x = . x 35
Because x > 0, you can square both sides: x2 x = . 1,225 1,225x = x2 Since you know x is not equal to zero, you can divide both sides by x: 1,225 = x. 10. 801 Strategic Advice: When you have two unknowns, try to get one in terms of the other to simplify the situation. Getting to the Answer: Solve the equation for y in terms of x. y = 0.375 x y = 0.375x Substitute this value into the inequality and simplify. x y > 500 x 0.375x > 500 0.625x > 500 x > 800 The least possible integer value of x is 801.
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section three
Section 4 (SAT Critical Reading)

1. C Strategic Advice: Keywords and sentence structure point out cause-and-effect in the sentence. Ask yourself how the blanks play out this relationship. Getting to the Answer: Roberta did not go through the normal method of creating her company, so the I.R.S. might consider her tax status a debatable matter. (A) Determined does not make sense for the first blank, and confirmed is the opposite of your prediction. (B) Verified might work for the first blank, but contradictory doesnt adequately describe a debatable matter. (C) This is correct; established works in context, and disputable nicely matches your prediction. (D) These words both have very negative meanings that do not make sense in the sentence. (E) While quantified might seem to go along with your prediction, a specialized matter doesnt necessarily relate to Robertas avoiding the usual legal pathways. contradictory: opposing disputable: questionable; debatable undermined: damaged; destabilized Strategic Advice: Keywords can often provide a strong sense of charge for the missing word. Getting to the Answer: Your prediction should account for the positive charges of chivalrous and deserving. Napoleon founded the Legion, and citizens today receive it by having it bestowed upon them by the President. (A) Dont be misled by fancy vocabulary; it would not make sense to say the honor is conscripted to citizens. (B) Consigned does not have the correct connotation for this sentence. (C) Redeemed for applies to turning something in, not earning or obtaining it. (D) Conferred upon correctly describes how an honor is given to a recipient. (E) Divested is opposite your prediction; you are looking for a word that describes reward, not removal. conscripted: drafted; compulsorily enrolled in military service consigned: entrusted; given over to the care of another conferred: bestowed; invested with divested: deprived of rights or property; sold off
section four
2.
Bermuda Triangle
3. C Strategic Advice: Remember that quotation marks can be used for dramatic and rhetorical effect. Keep in mind the authors overall purpose and perspective. Getting to the Answer: The author is referring to the actions of an unknown force, so you know kidnap isnt to be taken literally. Quotation marks emphasize this. (A) Out of Scope; the author does not take a side on the issue. (B) Misused Detail; the passage does describe the disappearances as mysterious, but the quotation marks dont relate directly to this description. (C) This is correct; the quotation marks indicate a non-literal meaning for the word that describes the mystery theory. (D) Out of Scope/Distortion; the author doesnt intend to compare the theories, and this particular use of quotation marks wouldnt relate this explanation to any of the
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others. (E) Distortion; the author never credits one explanation as more valid than any other, and never suggests that the passage directly references any outside sources. 4. E Strategic Advice: Questions that ask you to compare details will often phrase answer choices in more general language than does the passage itself. Elimination can be a useful strategy if prediction proves difficult. Getting to the Answer: Compare the three theories. The first refers to a magnetic field that causes navigation equipment to malfunction. The second attributes the losses to violent air currents. The third offers only that the disappearances are a mystery; predict that the significant difference is the third theorys lack of a scientific or logical underpinning. (A) Distortion; this part of the passage also mentions vessels and ships. (B) Out of Scope; the author never mentions other parts of the world. (C) Out of Scope; the author never states that either theory is more widely accepted. (D) Out of Scope; the passage does not discuss prevention. (E) Correct; this matches your prediction and demonstrates the non-scientific nature of the theory.
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Extending the Human Lifespan

5. A Strategic Advice: Questions that ask for a point of agreement between two passages are usually asking for a broad point, so looking back at your notes should be research enough as you make a prediction. Getting to the Answer: The two authors disagree on most points; however, they both agree that extending the human lifespan could bring about several difficult situations. (A) This is correct; both authors discuss ethical questions surrounding the extension of human life. (B) Out of Scope; neither author calls for research to be discontinued; both simply discuss its potential. (C) Extreme; the first author has a problem with the potential cost of the treatments, but does not go so far as to call for their free distribution. (D) Out of Scope; neither author ever claims they will not be produced; on the contrary, they both operate on the assumption that they will be. (E) Out of Scope; neither author discusses government regulation of potential treatments. Strategic Advice: Questions that ask about the purpose of a statement are often asking how that statement reinforces a point the author is making, so refer back to your notes to help you predict an answer. Getting to the Answer: The statement quoted in the question reinforces the main point of the second paragraph: life-extending treatments will increase the gap between the wealthy and the poor. Look for the answer choice that best represents this. (A) Distortion; the author thinks that the difference in average lifespan would be a negative consequence of its increase, certainly not a necessity. (B) Matches your prediction almost word-for-word. (C) Out of Scope; nowhere does the author mention giving money to charity. (D) Distortion; the author thinks that the treatments will only be available to the wealthy.
section four
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(E) Out of Scope; the author never discusses who should pay the costs of development. 7. C Strategic Advice: Making a prediction for the meaning of the quoted word will help you quickly discard wrong answer choices and avoid selecting a common definition that wouldnt work in context. Getting to the Answer: The author says that life-extending treatments have become a distinct possibility, meaning they have become much more immediate or probable. Look for the answer choice that best matches this prediction. (A) Distortion; separate is a primary meaning of distinct that is not appropriate here. (B) Distortion; different is another primary meaning of distinct that is not appropriate here. (C) This is correct; likely is a close match for immediate or probable; substituting this back into the passage will confirm this. (D) Opposite; the treatments have become more, not less, probable. (E) Out of Scope; the author does not seem pleased about the possibility of these treatments. Strategic Advice: Whenever a question refers to certain lines from the passage, reread those lines before making a prediction. Remember that you may need to research around the cited text to place it properly into context. Getting to the Answer: The author claims that we have already been extending the human lifespan, and uses the curing of once-deadly diseases as an example. The cited sentence, therefore, makes extending the human lifespan seem similar to something we already approve of. Look for the answer choice that correctly relates these two concepts. (A) Distortion; the author does not claim that we must finish curing diseases before we can research extending our lifespan. (B) Opposite; the author does believe that we should continue to develop vaccines. (C) Out of Scope; the author never claims that life-extending treatments will take the place of vaccines. (D) Out of Scope; the author never discusses increased susceptibility to diseases. (E) This is correct; the author compares life-extending treatments to vaccines to make the former seem more palatable. Strategic Advice: Clues in a question stem, such as the word suggests, tell you that youll need to make an inference. Remember not to stray too far from whats stated in the passage. Getting to the Answer: By saying but even if it is ethical, the author puts aside the question of the individual cost of life-extending treatments to discuss a more pressing one: the cost to society. Which answer choice best reflects this relationship? (A) Out of Scope; the author does not think that the development of life-extending treatments is impossible. (B) Distortion; the author does believe that the costs will be problematic, but thinks that this shouldnt interfere with their development. (C) Misused Detail; the author does believe this, but this is not what is being discussed in the cited text. (D) Correct; the author moves on to discuss societal costs because it is a bigger problem. (E) Out of Scope; the author never gives an opinion as to whether there are enough scientists involved in the research.
section four
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10.
Strategic Advice: Using your notes can often help you quickly sort through information and make a more general Detail question like this one much easier. Getting to the Answer: Both authors agree on very little, but they do both mention that life-extending therapies would likely be very expensive. (A) Out of Scope; neither author expresses an opinion on government regulation. (B) Extreme; the first author might agree with this statement, but the second one certainly would not. (C) Correct; both authors agree that therapies would initially cost a lot of money. (D) Extreme; neither author actually expresses an opinion on the effect on quality of life; length of life is the main topic of discussion. (E) Out of Scope; neither author thinks the treatments should be given out for free.
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section four
Section 5 (ACT English)

1. D Strategic Advice: Check underlined selections for words with essentially the same meanings. Getting to the Answer: Origin and beginning mean the same thing; D eliminates the redundancy. B and C still contain redundant language. Strategic Advice: When a long selection is underlined, choose the clearest revision. Getting to the Answer: Of the choices, D is both clearest and most concise. Strategic Advice: Use context clues to find the answers to this type of question. Getting to the Answer: Since this sentence tells us that Ibsens dramatic themes began to change, we can infer that a contrast Connections word is needed. Only D provides it. A tells us that Ibsens historical themes and his changed ones occurred at the same time, which is illogical. B makes Ibsens new themes the result of the old ones, which is also illogical. C denotes emphasis, which is inappropriate here. Strategic Advice: Use context clues to determine proper verb tense usage. Getting to the Answer: In the future is your context clue here; a future tense verb is needed. D is correct. A and B are incorrect for an action that will happen in the future. C indicates that the action discussed didnt actually happen; we know from context that this is incorrect. Strategic Advice: On the ACT, a dash will only be correct to indicate hesitation or a break in thought or to set off explanatory elements within a sentence. Getting to the Answer: Since a point of view which was quite uncommon for the times explains Ibsens non-idealized version of marriage, the dash in B is correct. A incorrectly places a semicolon between an independent and a dependent clause. C eliminates the punctuation altogether, making the sentence difficult to understand. The second sentence created by D is a fragment. Strategic Advice: The correct answer choice may not correct a run-on sentence the way you expect it to. Getting to the Answer: C makes the second clause subordinate, correcting the run-on error. B does not address the error. D creates a grammatically incorrect sentence. Strategic Advice: Some answer choices will correct the original error but introduce additional problems. Getting to the Answer: As written, this sentence is a run-on. Both B and C address the run-on, but B leaves the meaning of the second clause incomplete. D does not address the error; additionally, it uses who to refer to a play.
section five
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Strategic Advice: The quickest way to solve a paragraph organization question is to SAT/ACT Combo Test first identify a logical topic sentence. 49 Getting to the Answer: A quick scan of the paragraph identifies sentence 3 as the most logical topic sentence, since the paragraph concerns Ibsens best-known plays. This eliminates A and B. Now identify the most logical concluding sentence for the paragraph. (Hint: Since only 1 and 6 are possible, those are the only sentences youll need to consider.) Putting sentence 6 last, as D suggests, tells us that Ibsen rewrote the ending of A Dolls House before discussing the problem some theaters had with the play. C provides the most logical order to the sentences. Strategic Advice: If you dont spot an error in grammar or usage, check for errors in style. Getting to the Answer: This selection is unnecessarily wordy. D is more concise, while retaining all the meaning of the original sentence. B and C are still unnecessarily wordy. Strategic Advice: Once you determine whether or not the passage satisfies the conditions in the question stem, you can immediately eliminate two of the four choices. Getting to the Answer: This essay would not fulfill an assignment to write about the development of modern drama because it only mentions a single playwright; A is correct here. B correctly indicates that the essay would not fulfill the assignment, but the reasoning contradicts the essay, which tells us that Ibsens plays marked the beginning of modern drama. C and D incorrectly indicate that the essay would fulfill the assignment.
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section five
Section 6 (ACT Math)

1. C Strategic Advice: An easy way to solve Roman numeral questions is to use the answer choices to evaluate each Roman numeral. Remember to start with the numeral that appears most often in the answer choices. Getting to the Answer: Set up an equation with s standing for the number of bottles of soda and l standing for the number of bottles of lemonade. Since Simone spent exactly $6.00, $1.00s + $1.50l = $6.00. Then plug in each possible value of l and solve for s, which must be a whole number (since you cant buy half a bottle of soda). I. $1.00s + $1.50(0) = $6.00 $1.00s = $6.00 s=6 Simone could buy 6 bottles of soda and 0 bottles of lemonade. This works, so eliminate B. II. $1.00s + $1.50(2) = $6.00 $1.00s + $3.00 = $6.00 $1.00s = $3.00 s=3 Simone could buy 3 bottles of soda and 2 bottles of lemonade. This works, so eliminate A and D. III. $1.00s + $1.50(3) = $6.00 $1.00s + $4.50 = $6.00 $1.00s = $1.50 s = 1.5 If Simone bought 3 bottles of lemonade, she would not be able to buy a whole number of bottles of soda. This does not work, so C is correct. Strategic Advice: Charts and graphs usually contain more information than you need, so make sure you answer the question that is asked. Getting to the Answer: Jeans were 30% of the total sales and khakis were 25% of the total sales, so combined they were 55% of the total sales. 55% of $48,000 is 0.55($48,000) = $26,400. Strategic Advice: Whenever you see multiple shapes in a figure, look for lengths or angles that are part of more than one shape. Getting to the Answer: The area of square ABCD is the length of a side squared AB 2 = 64 AB = 8 The diagonals of a square divide it into two 454590 triangles. The sides of a = 82 . 454590 triangle are in the ratio x : x : x 2, so AC and BD equal AB2 AC 82 , so AO equals = = The center of square ABCD, O, is the midpoint of AC 2 2 . The area of square AODE is the length of a side squared, or AO2 = (4 2)2 = 42 32. Another way to solve this problem is to notice that all the small triangles in the figure are equal: AOB = BOC = COD = AOD = ADE. Square ABCD consists of 4 small triangles and square AODE consists of 2 small triangles. Therefore, the 64 area of AODE is half of the area of ABCD, or = 32. Thus, C is correct. 2
section six
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SAT/ACT
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4.
Strategic Advice: Two angles are congruent if and only if their degree measures are equal. Getting to the Answer: You are given that X + Y = 90 and Y + Z = 90. Thus, X = Z = 90 Y. Since the measures of X and Z are equal, X and Z are congruent. A is correct. Strategic Advice: Dont assume too much. Only the corresponding angles between a transversal and the parallel lines must be equal. Remember, ACT diagrams are not always drawn to scale. Getting to the Answer: A, C, and E compare angles that are formed by different transversals intersecting parallel lines, so these angles dont have any necessary relationship. Angle a is formed by two transversals, so you dont have any information about what other angles it might equal. However, angles c and d are both formed by the same transversal intersecting parallel lines, so they must be equal. B is correct. Strategic Advice: Exponents are a short way to write a number multiplied by itself several times. Getting to the Answer: The time it takes for half of the sample to decay is 4 hours. That means that if the mass of the sample is 1 gram at 9 A.M., then it will be half of a gram after 4 hours, or at 1 P.M. Since at 9 A.M. on Tuesday 24 hours, or 6 4-hour periods, will have passed since 9 A.M. on Monday, the mass of the sample at 9 A.M. 1 6 1 on Tuesday will be (1) = grams. 2 64
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Strategic Advice: Sometimes you will need to work backwards to find the answer. Getting to the Answer: Write down what you know from the problem. Start with the line segment you know the length of (D E ), and figure out the lengths of other segments from there. DE = 3 1 DE = FG 2 2DE = FG 6 = FG 3 FG = HJ 4 4 FG = HJ 3 4 (6) = HJ 3 8 = HJ H bisects G J , so HJ = GH = 8 GH + EF = 15 8 + EF = 15 EF = 7 EJ = EF + FG + GH + HJ = 7 + 6 + 8 + 8 = 29 D is the correct answer. E is the length of the entire line segment. Dont fall into this trap.
section six
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section six
Strategic Advice: The probability of a series of independent events is the product of the probabilities of all the events. 1 Getting to the Answer: Any time you roll a die, the probability of getting a 1 is . 6 Each roll is an independent event, so the probability of getting a 1 3 times if you roll 1 1 1 1 a die 3 times is = . 6 6 6 216 Strategic Advice: A steep slope represents a fast rate of change, while a shallow slope represents a slow rate of change. Getting to the Answer: Look for a graph with a positive slope over the entire domain. The slope should be steep when t is small and shallow when t is large. The only graph that fits this description is A. Strategic Advice: When there are variables in the answer choices, you can pick numbers to avoid complicated calculations or difficult translations. Getting to the Answer: Say Luis is 9 years old, so L = 9. Veronica is 3 years younger than Luis, so Veronicas age is 9 3 = 6. Salma is half Veronicas age, so 6 Salmas age is = 3. The sum of the childrens ages is 9 + 6 + 3 = 18. Plug L = 9 into 2 the answer choices and look for one which equals 18. 5 9 45 9 36 A. (9) = = = 18 2 2 2 2 2 5 3 45 3 42 B. (9) = = = 21 2 2 2 2 2 C. 2(9) 3 = 18 3 = 15 1 9 9 9 D. (9) = = 0 2 2 2 2 1 3 9 3 6 E. (9) = = = 3 2 2 2 2 2 The only choice that gives a sum of 18 when L = 9 is A. To solve the problem algebraically, get each childs age in terms of L. Luis is L years old, Veronica is 3 years younger than Luis, or L 3 years old, and Salma is half L3 Veronicas age, or years old. Add the ages and simplify: 2 L 3 2L 2L 6 L 3 5 9 L + L 3 + = + + = L . 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
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Section 7 (ACT Reading)

Sacred Coroman Art
1. C Strategic Advice: Be sure to predict an answer choice for Detail questions like this one. That way, you wont get distracted by the wrong answer choices, which are sure to include irrelevant details from the passage. Getting to the Answer: This is a Detail question, so the answer should be directly stated in the passage. Lines 3233 state that the weavings were made for Inca nobles, which matches C. A Misused Detail; the Bolivian intermediaries are mentioned because they were involved in the theft of weavings. B Distortion; the Coromans now keep the weavings, but they were not originally made for them. D Out of Scope; although the makers or recipients of the weavings might be Andean artisans, the passage never mentions them. Strategic Advice: Detail questions can be tricky, because the wrong answer choices will include details that you will find in the passage. Focus on the relevant text and use elimination on EXCEPT questions. Getting to the Answer: Work through the first paragraph, eliminating answer choices that correspond to citations to those involved in the effort. B, C, and D are all cited. Only A remains, mentioned extensively throughout the passage but never in the first paragraph. Strategic Advice: These kinds of questions are excellent opportunities to predict an answer. Remember, questions like this often test non-standard usages of words, so dont be thrown off by what might seem like a standard definition in the answer choices. Getting to the Answer: From the context of lines 1519, you can predict that the word catalyze means hire or recruit. More specifically, the people being recruited are from various places. This prediction best matches C. A Opposite; the group was formed to aid in their effort. B Distortion; this is a common definition for catalyze that doesnt work in context. D Distortion; this has nothing to do with the context of the question and isnt a possible meaning for catalyze. Strategic Advice: Inference questions like this one can be difficult, because the information you need to answer the question can come from anywhere in the passage. Use your notes to guide your research, and remember to make a strong prediction before evaluating the answer choices. Getting to the Answer: The passage indicates in lines 3638 that the weavings are consulted as oracles, and that they are thought to encode the history of the people and contain the souls of ancient ancestors. Predict that the weavings are important because of their cultural and spiritual significance, which matches D. A Distortion; this might seem correct, because the weavings are used during this celebration, but the passage does not suggest that this is the primary reason the weavings are valuable. B Distortion; that the collectors are willing to pay for the weavings is not why the Coromans value them.
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2.
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section seven
C Distortion; though the passage states that the weavings survived the anti-Indian Bolivian governments in the past, it does not suggest that this is a reason for their value to the Coromans.
section seven
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Strategic Advice: The answer to questions like this can be found in the passage, but you may have to put a few pieces of information together to get to the correct answer. Determine when the events mentioned in the answer choices happened relative to the question, and the correct answer will be easy to find. Getting to the Answer: The passage indicates in line 40 that the weavings survived the Spanish conquest, so they must have been produced before then. This matches A perfectly. B Opposite; the passage indicates that the weavings existed before Columbus landed in the Americas (line 45). C Opposite; the Cultural Property Implementation Act became law in 1983 (line 70), and the weavings are much older than that. D Opposite; the weavings were produced for Inca nobles (lines 3233), so they must have been produced before the Incas disappeared. Strategic Advice: You wont be able to predict an answer on questions like this, so be sure to pay attention to the specific details of the answer choices. You will be able to find evidence in the passage to support all of the choices except for one, which will leave you with the correct answer. Getting to the Answer: All of the answer choices have supporting evidence from the passage, except for A. Line 32 states that the colors of the weavings were vibrant, which directly contradicts A, making it the correct answer choice. B can be found in lines 4547. C is supported by lines 5153. D is supported by lines 4751. Strategic Advice: You wont able to find the correct answer to an inference question directly in the passage, but it wont be far off, either. Look at the context of the referenced lines and predict an answer. Getting to the Answer: A good prediction for this question is that the collectors were made to return the weavings against their will; jolted in this context means that they were pressured. This matches B. A Out of Scope; the passage does not imply that the collectors were unaware of the value of the weavings. C Extreme; jolted does not imply physical punishment in this context. D Distortion; the passage implies that outside influences made the collectors return the weavings, not that the collectors returned them of their own accord. Strategic Advice: You may have to use evidence from several parts of the passage to answer inference questions like this one. Be careful to find supporting evidence for any predictions you make, and you will be certain to get the right answer. Getting to the Answer: The passage suggests that the return of the weavings has been a success. Lines 20 and 9394 support the prediction that this has been successful. Lines 8385, which says that some, but not all, of their weavings have been returned, suggests that there are more weavings to be returned. This matches C. A Opposite; the passage only mentions legal successes (lines 1519), and never suggests disappointment. B Out of Scope; there is no evidence suggested that art collectors were encouraged
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by the return of the weavings. D Out of Scope; though the passage mentions a cultural anthropologist (line 94), there is no support for the idea that the return of the weavings has been a useful lesson to anthropologists in general. 9. C Strategic Advice: Inference questions like this will try to throw you off with details that come from the passage, but are either distorted or irrelevant to the question. Be sure you pay attention to specific information from the passage as you make your prediction. Getting to the Answer: Many factors dealing with the return of the weavings are cited in the passage, but lines 12 and lines 2529 state that the Coromans themselves largely credit the ancestral spirits residing in the weavings themselves. This makes a good prediction and matches C perfectly. A Distortion; the passage does mention the involvement of the Bolivian government, but never from the perspective of the Coromans. B Misused Detail; although the passage suggests that lawyers and activists worked on this case (lines 16 and 17), there is no evidence to suggest that the Coromans attribute their work to the return of the weavings. D Misused Detail; the USIA was involved, but the Coromans never credit this agency for the return of the weavings. Strategic Advice: Predicting an answer is not an option with questions like this, so youll have to examine the passage carefully for the information to find the correct answer. Determine which statements have supporting evidence and which ones dont, and youll be able to pinpoint the right answer choice. Getting to the Answer: Evaluate the Roman numerals in turn: I. Distortion; although line 32 mentions that the weavings have the texture of silk, nothing in the passage mentions what type of fabric is used to make the weavings. II. Out of Scope; there is no mention of the weavings coming from ceremonial garb. At this point you know that statement III must be true, because the other two are false, and Roman numeral questions like this always have at least one true statement. The evidence for statement III can be found in the passage in lines 3132. Therefore, B must be the correct answer choice.
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Combo Test
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10.
section seven
Section 8 (ACT Science)

1. D Strategic Advice: Some questions will simply ask you to extract data directly from a figure. Getting to the Answer: Look for the largest number in the Average weight gain column, and find the conditions given in the same row. D is Perfect. Strategic Advice: Think about the results of each study separately before drawing conclusions. Getting to the Answer: The average body length increase in this eighth enclosure exceeds that of any shown in Table 2. Temperature was not varied in Study 3, though. The results of Study 1 suggest a lower temperature would result in increased food consumption, making B correct. If this is not obvious, you can notice that A, C, and D each contain elements that would result in decreased food consumption, making B the only possibility. Strategic Advice: Think about each study separately before integrating their results. Getting to the Answer: The results of Study 1 suggest that, within the given temperature range, the mice consume more when subjected to colder temperatures. Looking at the daily food consumption alone should then be enough to determine temperatures roughly. The highest food consumption indicates the lowest temperature, as in D. Strategic Advice: Sometimes you are asked to apply the results of the given experiment to other situations. Getting to the Answer: Table 2 suggests that lower food abundance results in slower growth, as in B. Strategic Advice: Apparent contradictions are usually accounted for by adjusting one or two variables. Getting to the Answer: The results of the three studies suggest that rate of weight gain is affected by temperature, food abundance, and population density, but the question only mentions a decrease in food abundance. A simultaneous decrease in temperature and/or a decrease in population density would counteract the effects of the decreasing food abundance. C is perfect. Strategic Advice: Infer only what MUST follow from the given data. Getting to the Answer: Temperature is the only variable that differs between Trials 3 and 4, making C the correct choice. The other choices may indicate true relationships, but they are not suggested by Trials 3 and 4. Strategic Advice: Isolate one variable at a time to learn about the effects of each. Getting to the Answer: Choose the trials with all variables the same except for dopant concentration. This is the case for D only. Strategic Advice: Take your time with complicated graphs. Getting to the Answer: While either C or D could be valid statements, neither is supported by Figure 1. Careful inspection of the graph yields that for any dopant concentration shown, the p-type values are greater than the n-type values, as in A.
section eight
2.
3.
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6.
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8.
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
56
9.
Strategic Advice: Be careful to refer to the correct data. SAT/ACT Combo Test Getting to the Answer: Figure 1 suggests that all p-type dopants yield the same 57 resistivity versus concentration relationship for Si. Therefore In would act exactly like Ga at the same concentration. Once you realize that, you can just read the resistivity value for Ga directly from Table 1. Strategic Advice: Use trends in the data to interpolate values in between those given. Getting to the Answer: 75 K is right in between 50 K and 100 K, the electron mobilities for which are given in Table 2. Since Table 2 suggests that mobility varies inversely with temperature, the correct mobility should lie between 2,900 and 5,300 cm2/V/s, as in C.
10.
section eight

Sat Act Practice Test

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Combo Sample Test with Answers & Explanations

# right in Section 3 # 5-10

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1. Calculator use is permitted. 2. All numbers used are real numbers.

Notes Reference Information

45 s Special Right Triangles

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(7 2)k + x If = 3x, where x is equal to 5, what is the 3 value of k ?

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If k is not prime, add 3.

Divide the result by 3. 7

Divide the result by 3.

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Passage I Henrik Ibsen

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NO CHANGE these plays include including included

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NO TEST MATERIAL ON THIS PAGE

DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.

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Jeans 30% Khakis 25%

$7,000 $14,400 $21,600 $24,000 $26,400

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In no village in the Andes are the textiles more

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NO TEST MATERIAL ON THIS PAGE

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104 103 102 101 100 101 102 103

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SCORING YOUR TEST

Step 1: Score Your SAT Essay

Step 2: Compute Your Percent Correct

SAT Section 2 Writing # Right _____ Section 3 Math # M-C Right

1/4 # M-C Wrong

_____ Section 4 Critical Reading # Right _____

1/4 _____ + _____

= _____ 10 = _____% _____ Section 7 Reading

1/4 # Wrong 1/4 _____

= % Correct = _____ 10 = _____%

= _____ 10 = _____% _____ Section 8 Science # Right _____

= % Correct = _____ 10 = _____%

Step 3: Compare your Results

Section 1 (SAT WritingEssay)

Section 2 (SAT Writing)

Section 3 (SAT Math)

Section 4 (SAT Critical Reading)

Extending the Human Lifespan

Section 5 (ACT English)

Section 6 (ACT Math)

Section 7 (ACT Reading)

Section 8 (ACT Science)

Anda mungkin juga menyukai

_ Section 4 Critical Reading # Right _

1/4 _ + _

= ___ 10 = _% ___ Section 7 Reading

= % Correct = _ 10 = _%

= ___ 10 = _% _ Section 8 Science # Right ___

= % Correct = _ 10 = _%